Contents

Machine learning.............................................................2
Artificial Intellegence MCQS.........................................3
C Programming MCQ.....................................................5
C++ Programming MCQ...............................................10
Java Programming MCQ...............................................14
Cloud Computing MCQ................................................16
SQL MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions).......................18
SQL Server MCQ..........................................................19
Web Technology MCQ..................................................21
Data Mining MCQ.........................................................24
Compiler Design MCQ.................................................25
Computer Fundamental MCQ.......................................26
RDBMS MCQ...............................................................28
HTML MCQ..................................................................30
CSS MCQ......................................................................33
Cyber Security MCQ.....................................................35
Computer Organization and Architecture MCQ...........38
Computer Graphics MCQ.............................................40
Numerical Methods MCQ.............................................43
Switching Circuits and Logic Design MCQ..................45
Basic Electronics Engineering MCQ............................45
Embedded Systems MCQ.............................................47
Visual Basic MCQ.........................................................49

1
Machine learning 8. Which of the following statements is true about
AdaBoost?
1. What is Machine learning?
a) It is particularly prone to overfitting on noisy datasets
a) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the
b) Complexity of the weak learner is important in
use of computer programs
AdaBoost
b) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the
c) It is generally more prone to overfitting
use of manual programs
d) It improves classification accuracy
c) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the
View Answer
use of computer programs
Answer: c
d) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through
the use of manual programs
9. Which one of the following models is a generative
View Answer
model used in machine learning?
Answer: c
a) Support vector machines
b) Naïve Bayes
2. K-Nearest Neighbors (KNN) is classified as what type
c) Logistic Regression
of machine learning algorithm?
d) Linear Regression
a) Instance-based learning
View Answer
b) Parametric learning
Answer: b
c) Non-parametric learning
d) Model-based learning
10. An artificially intelligent car decreases its speed
View Answer
based on its distance from the car in front of it. Which
Answer: a
algorithm is used?
a) Naïve-Bayes
3. Which of the following is not a supervised machine
b) Decision Tree
learning algorithm?
c) Linear Regression
a) K-means
d) Logistic Regression
b) Naïve Bayes
View Answer
c) SVM for classification problems
Answer: c
d) Decision tree
View Answer
11. Which of the following statements is false about
Answer: a
Ensemble learning?
a) It is a supervised learning algorithm
4. What’s the key benefit of using deep learning for tasks
b) It is an unsupervised learning algorithm
like recognizing images?
c) More random algorithms can be used to produce a
a) They need less training data than other methods.
stronger ensemble
b) They’re easier to explain and understand than other
d) Ensembles can be shown to have more flexibility in
models.
the functions they can represent
c) They can learn complex details from the data on their
View Answer
own.
Answer: b
d) They work faster and are more efficient
computationally.
12. Which of the following statements is true about
View Answer
stochastic gradient descent?
Answer: c
a) It processes one training example per iteration
b) It is not preferred, if the number of training examples
5. Which algorithm is best suited for a binary
is large
classification problem?
c) It processes all the training examples for each
a) K-nearest Neighbors
iteration of gradient descent
b) Decision Trees
d) It is computationally very expensive, if the number of
c) Random Forest
training examples is large
d) Linear Regression
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
13. Decision tree uses the inductive learning machine
6. What is the key difference between supervised and
learning approach.
unsupervised learning?
a) False
a) Supervised learning requires labeled data, while
b) True
unsupervised learning does not.
View Answer
b) Supervised learning predicts labels, while
Answer: b
unsupervised learning discovers patterns.
c) Supervised learning is used for classification, while
14. What elements describe the Candidate-Elimination
unsupervised learning is used for regression.
algorithm?
d) Supervised learning is always more accurate than
a) depends on the dataset
unsupervised learning.
b) just a set of candidate hypotheses
View Answer
c) just a set of instances
Answer: a
d) set of instances, set of candidate hypotheses
View Answer
7. Which type of machine learning algorithm falls under
Answer: d
the category of “unsupervised learning”?
a) Linear Regression
15. Which of the following statements is not true about
b) K-means Clustering
boosting?
c) Decision Trees
a) It mainly increases the bias and the variance
d) Random Forest
b) It tries to generate complementary base-learners by
View Answer
training the next learner on the mistakes of the previous
Answer: b
learners
c) It is a technique for solving two-class classification
2
problems a) Based on functionally only
d) It uses the mechanism of increasing the weights of b) Based on capabilities only
misclassified data in preceding classifiers c) Based on capabilities and functionally
View Answer d) It is not categorized
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: c
Artificial Intellegence MCQS
9. Which of the following is a component of Artificial
Intelligence?
1. What is the full form of “AI”?
a) Learning
a) Artificially Intelligent
b) Training
b) Artificial Intelligence
c) Designing
c) Artificially Intelligence
d) Puzzling
d) Advanced Intelligence
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
10. What is the function of an Artificial Intelligence
2. What is Artificial Intelligence?
“Agent”?
a) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to make
a) Mapping of goal sequence to an action
humans more intelligent
b) Work without the direct interference of the people
b) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to improve
c) Mapping of precept sequence to an action
the security
d) Mapping of environment sequence to an action
c) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to develop
View Answer
intelligent machines
Answer: c
d) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to mine the
data
11. Which of the following is not a type of Artificial
View Answer
Intelligence agent?
Answer: c
a) Learning AI agent
b) Goal-based AI agent
3. Who is the inventor of Artificial Intelligence?
c) Simple reflex AI agent
a) Geoffrey Hinton
d) Unity-based AI agent
b) Andrew Ng
View Answer
c) John McCarthy
Answer: d
d) Jürgen Schmidhuber
View Answer
12. Which of the following is not the commonly used
Answer: c
programming language for Artificial Intelligence?
a) Perl
4. Which of the following is the branch of Artificial
b) Java
Intelligence?
c) PROLOG
a) Machine Learning
d) LISP
b) Cyber forensics
View Answer
c) Full-Stack Developer
Answer: a
d) Network Design
View Answer
13. What is the name of the Artificial Intelligence system
Answer: a
developed by Daniel Bobrow?
a) program known as BACON
5. What is the goal of Artificial Intelligence?
b) system known as STUDENT
a) To solve artificial problems
c) program known as SHRDLU
b) To extract scientific causes
d) system known as SIMD
c) To explain various sorts of intelligence
View Answer
d) To solve real-world problems
Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: c
14. What is the function of the system Student?
a) program that can read algebra word problems only
b) system which can solve algebra word problems but
6. Which of the following is an application of Artificial
not read
Intelligence?
c) system which can read and solve algebra word
a) It helps to exploit vulnerabilities to secure the firm
problems
b) Language understanding and problem-solving (Text
d) None of the mentioned
analytics and NLP)
View Answer
c) Easy to create a website
Answer: c
d) It helps to deploy applications on the cloud
View Answer
15. Which of the following is not an application of
Answer: b
artificial intelligence?
a) Face recognition system
7. In how many categories process of Artificial
b) Chatbots
Intelligence is categorized?
c) LIDAR
a) categorized into 5 categories
d) DBMS
b) processes are categorized based on the input provided
View Answer
c) categorized into 3 categories
Answer: d
d) process is not categorized
View Answer
16. Which of the following machine requires input from
Answer: c
the humans but can interpret the outputs themselves?
a) Actuators
8. Based on which of the following parameter Artificial
b) Sensor
Intelligence is categorized?
c) Agents
3
d) AI system 25. On which of the following approach A basic line
View Answer following robot is based?
Answer: d a) Applied approach
b) Weak approach
17. _________ number of informed search method are c) Strong approach
there in Artificial Intelligence. d) Cognitive approach
a) 4 View Answer
b) 3 Answer: b
c) 2
d) 1 26. Artificial Intelligence has evolved extremely in all
View Answer the fields except for _________
Answer: a a) Web mining
b) Construction of plans in real time dynamic systems
18. The total number of proposition symbols in AI are c) Understanding natural language robustly
________ d) All of the mentioned
a) 3 proposition symbols View Answer
b) 1 proposition symbols Answer: d
c) 2 proposition symbols
d) No proposition symbols 27. Which of the following is an example of artificial
View Answer intelligent agent/agents?
Answer: c a) Autonomous Spacecraft
b) Human
19. The total number of logical symbols in AI are c) Robot
____________ d) All of the mentioned
a) There are 3 logical symbols View Answer
b) There are 5 logical symbols Answer: d
c) Number of logical symbols are based on the input
d) Logical symbols are not used 28. Which of the following is an expansion of Artificial
View Answer Intelligence application?
Answer: b a) Game Playing
b) Planning and Scheduling
20. Which of the following are the approaches to c) Diagnosis
Artificial Intelligence? d) All of the mentioned
a) Applied approach View Answer
b) Strong approach Answer: d
c) Weak approach
d) All of the mentioned 29. What is an AI ‘agent’?
View Answer a) Takes input from the surroundings and uses its
Answer: d. intelligence and performs the desired operations
21. Face Recognition system is based on which type of b) An embedded program controlling line following
approach? robot
a) Weak AI approach c) Perceives its environment through sensors and acting
b) Applied AI approach upon that environment through actuators
c) Cognitive AI approach d) All of the mentioned
d) Strong AI approach View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: b
30. Which of the following environment is strategic?
22. Which of the following is an advantage of artificial a) Rational
intelligence? b) Deterministic
a) Reduces the time taken to solve the problem c) Partial
b) Helps in providing security d) Stochastic
c) Have the ability to think hence makes the work easier View Answer
d) All of the above Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: d 31. What is the name of Artificial Intelligence which
allows machines to handle vague information with a
23. Which of the following can improve the performance deftness that mimics human intuition?
of an AI agent? a) Human intelligence
a) Perceiving b) Boolean logic
b) Learning c) Functional logic
c) Observing d) Fuzzy logic
d) All of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: b
32. Which of the following produces hypotheses that are
24. Which of the following is/are the composition for AI easy to read for humans?
agents? a) Machine Learning
a) Program only b) ILP
b) Architecture only c) First-order logic
c) Both Program and Architecture d) Propositional logic
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: c
33. What does the Bayesian network provide?
a) Partial description of the domain
4
b) Complete description of the problem c) int my num = 1000;
c) Complete description of the domain d) int $my_num = 10000;
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: c
6. Which of the following cannot be a variable name in
33. What is the total number of quantification available C?
in artificial intelligence? a) volatile
a) 4 b) true
b) 3 c) friend
c) 1 d) export
d) 2 View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d
7. What is short int in C programming?
34. What is Weak AI? a) The basic data type of C
a) the study of mental faculties using mental models b) Qualifier
implemented on a computer c) Short is the qualifier and int is the basic data type
b) the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities d) All of the mentioned
within a computer View Answer
c) a set of computer programs that produce output that Answer: c
would be considered to reflect intelligence if it were
generated by humans 8. Which of the following declaration is not supported
d) all of the mentioned by C language?
View Answer a) String str;
Answer: a. b) char *str;
35. Which of the following are the 5 big ideas of AI? c) float str = 3e2;
a) Perception d) Both “String str;” and “float str = 3e2;”
b) Human-AI Interaction View Answer
c) Societal Impact Answer: a
d) All of the above
View Answer 9. Which keyword is used to prevent any changes in the
Answer: d variable within a C program?
a) immutable
C Programming MCQ b) mutable
c) const
d) volatile
1. Who is the father of C language? View Answer
a) Steve Jobs Answer: c.
b) James Gosling 10. What is the result of logical or relational expression
c) Dennis Ritchie in C?
d) Rasmus Lerdorf a) True or False
View Answer b) 0 or 1
Answer: c c) 0 if an expression is false and any positive number if
an expression is true
2. Which of the following is not a valid C variable d) None of the mentioned
name? View Answer
a) int number; Answer: b
b) float rate; Explanation: None.
c) int variable_count; 11. Which of the following typecasting is accepted by C
d) int $main; language?
View Answer a) Widening conversions
Answer: d b) Narrowing conversions
c) Widening & Narrowing conversions
3. All keywords in C are in ____________ d) None of the mentioned
a) LowerCase letters View Answer
b) UpperCase letters Answer: c
c) CamelCase letters
d) None of the mentioned 12. Where in C the order of precedence of operators do
View Answer not exist?
Answer: a a) Within conditional statements, if, else
b) Within while, do-while
4. Which of the following is true for variable names in c) Within a macro definition
C? d) None of the mentioned
a) They can contain alphanumeric characters as well as View Answer
special characters Answer: d
b) It is not an error to declare a variable to be one of the
keywords(like goto, static) 13. Which of the following is NOT possible with any 2
c) Variable names cannot start with a digit operators in C?
d) Variable can be of any length a) Different precedence, same associativity
View Answer b) Different precedence, different associativity
Answer: c c) Same precedence, different associativity
d) All of the mentioned
5. Which is valid C expression? View Answer
a) int my_num = 100,000; Answer: c
b) int my_num = 100000; Explanation: None.
5
14. What is an example of iteration in C? a) When former is used, current directory is searched
a) for and when latter is used, standard directory is searched
b) while b) When former is used, standard directory is searched
c) do-while and when latter is used, current directory is searched
d) all of the mentioned c) When former is used, search is done in
View Answer implementation defined manner and when latter is used,
Answer: d current directory is searched
Explanation: None. d) For both, search for ‘somelibrary’ is done in
15. Functions can return enumeration constants in C? implementation-defined places
a) true View Answer
b) false Answer: b
c) depends on the compiler Explanation: None.
d) depends on the standard 24. How many number of pointer (*) does C have
View Answer against a pointer variable declaration?
Answer: a a) 7
b) 127
16. Functions in C Language are always _________ c) 255
a) Internal d) No limits
b) External View Answer
c) Both Internal and External Answer: d
d) External and Internal are not valid terms for functions Explanation: None.
View Answer 25. Which of the following is not possible statically in C
Answer: b language?
a) Jagged Array
17. Which of following is not accepted in C? b) Rectangular Array
a) static a = 10; //static as c) Cuboidal Array
b) static int func (int); //parameter as static d) Multidimensional Array
c) static static int a; //a static variable prefixed with static View Answer
d) all of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: c 26. Which of the following return-type cannot be used
for a function in C?
18. Property which allows to produce different a) char *
executable for different platforms in C is called? b) struct
a) File inclusion c) void
b) Selective inclusion d) none of the mentioned
c) Conditional compilation View Answer
d) Recursive macros Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: c 27. The standard header _______ is used for variable list
arguments (…) in C.
19. What is #include <stdio.h>? a) <stdio.h >
a) Preprocessor directive b) <stdlib.h>
b) Inclusion directive c) <math.h>
c) File inclusion directive d) <stdarg.h>
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: None.
28. When a C program is started, O.S environment is
20. C preprocessors can have compiler specific features. responsible for opening file and providing pointer for
a) True that file?
b) False a) Standard input
c) Depends on the standard b) Standard output
d) Depends on the platform c) Standard error
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: d
21. Which of the following are C preprocessors?
a) #ifdef 29. In C language, FILE is of which data type?
b) #define a) int
c) #endif b) char *
d) all of the mentioned c) struct
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: None. Answer: c
22. The C-preprocessors are specified with _________ Explanation: None.
symbol. 30. What is the sizeof(char) in a 32-bit C compiler?
a) # a) 1 bit
b) $ b) 2 bits
c) ” ” c) 1 Byte
d) & d) 2 Bytes
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: None.
23. How is search done in #include and #include 31. Which of the following is not an operator in C?
“somelibrary.h” according to C standard? a) ,
6
b) sizeof() int nu;
c) ~ char m;
d) None of the mentioned };
View Answer int main()
Answer: d {
Explanation: None. union Sti s;
32. scanf() is a predefined function in______header file. printf("%d", sizeof(s));
a) stdlib. h return 0;
b) ctype. h }
c) stdio. h a) 8
d) stdarg. h b) 5
View Answer c) 9
Answer: c d) 4
View Answer
33. What is meant by ‘a’ in the following C operation? 38. What will be the output of the following C function?
fp = fopen("Random.txt", "a"); #include <stdio.h>
a) Attach enum birds {SPARROW, PEACOCK, PARROT};
b) Append enum animals {TIGER = 8, LION, RABBIT,
c) Apprehend ZEBRA};
d) Add int main()
View Answer {
Answer: b enum birds m = TIGER;
Explanation: None. int k;
34. What will be the output of the following C code? k = m;
#include <stdio.h> printf("%d\n", k);
int main() return 0;
{ }
int y = 10000; a) 0
int y = 34; b) Compile time error
printf("Hello World! %d\n", y); c) 1
return 0; d) 8
} View Answer
a) Compile time error 39. What will be the output of the following C code?
b) Hello World! 34 #include <stdio.h>
c) Hello World! 1000 int const print()
d) Hello World! followed by a junk value {
View Answer printf("Sanfoundry.com");
Answer: a return 0;
}
35. What will happen if the following C code is void main()
executed? {
#include <stdio.h> print();
int main() }
{ a) Error because function name cannot be preceded by
int main = 3; const
printf("%d", main); b) Sanfoundry.com
return 0; c) Sanfoundry.com is printed infinite times
} d) Blank screen, no output
a) It will cause a compile-time error View Answer
b) It will cause a run-time error Answer: b
c) It will run without any error and prints 3
d) It will experience infinite looping 40. Will the following C code compile without any
View Answer error?
Answer: c #include <stdio.h>
int main()
36. What will be the output of the following C code? {
#include <stdio.h> for (int k = 0; k < 10; k++);
int main() return 0;
{ }
signed char chr; a) Yes
chr = 128; b) No
printf("%d\n", chr); c) Depends on the C standard implemented by compilers
return 0; d) Error
} View Answer
a) 128 Answer: c
b) -128
c) Depends on the compiler 41. What will be the final value of x in the following C
d) None of the mentioned code?
View Answer #include <stdio.h>
Answer: b void main()
{
37. What will be the output of the following C code on a int x = 5 * 9 / 3 + 9;
64 bit machine? }
#include <stdio.h> a) 3.75
union Sti b) Depends on compiler
{ c) 24
7
d) 3 Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: None.
Answer: c 46. What will be the value of the following assignment
Explanation: None. expression?
42. What will be the output of the following C code? (x = foo())!= 1 considering foo() returns 2
(Initial values: x= 7, y = 8) a) 2
#include <stdio.h> b) True
void main() c) 1
{ d) 0
float x; View Answer
int y; Answer: c
printf("enter two numbers \n"); Explanation: None.
scanf("%f %f", &x, &y); 47. What will be the output of the following C function?
printf("%f, %d", x, y); #include <stdio.h>
} void reverse(int i);
a) 7.000000, 7 int main()
b) Run time error {
c) 7.000000, junk reverse(1);
d) Varies }
View Answer void reverse(int i)
Answer: c {
if (i > 5)
43. What will be the output of the following C code return ;
considering the size of a short int is 2, char is 1 and int is printf("%d ", i);
4 bytes? return reverse((i++, i));
#include <stdio.h> }
int main() a) 1 2 3 4 5
{ b) Segmentation fault
short int i = 20; c) Compilation error
char c = 97; d) Undefined behaviour
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", sizeof(i), sizeof(c), sizeof(c View Answer
+ i)); 48. What will be the final values of i and j in the
return 0; following C code?
} #include <stdio.h>
a) 2, 1, 2 int x = 0;
b) 2, 1, 1 int f()
c) 2, 1, 4 {
d) 2, 2, 8 if (x == 0)
View Answer return x + 1;
Answer: c else
Explanation: None. return x - 1;
44. What is the difference between the following 2 C }
codes? int g()
#include <stdio.h> //Program 1 {
int main() return x++;
{ }
int d, a = 1, b = 2; int main()
d = a++ + ++b; {
printf("%d %d %d", d, a, b); int i = (f() + g()) | g(); //bitwise or
} int j = g() | (f() + g()); //bitwise or
#include <stdio.h> //Program 2 }
int main() a) i value is 1 and j value is 1
{ b) i value is 0 and j value is 0
int d, a = 1, b = 2; c) i value is 1 and j value is undefined
d = a++ +++b; d) i and j value are undefined
printf("%d %d %d", d, a, b); View Answer
} 49. Comment on the following C statement.
a) No difference as space doesn’t make any difference, n = 1;
values of a, b, d are same in both the case printf("%d, %dn", 3*n, n++);
b) Space does make a difference, values of a, b, d are a) Output will be 3, 2
different b) Output will be 3, 1
c) Program 1 has syntax error, program 2 is not c) Output will be 6, 1
d) Program 2 has syntax error, program 1 is not d) Output is compiler dependent
View Answer View Answer
45. What will be the output of the following C code Answer: d
snippet? Explanation: None.
#include <stdio.h> 50. How many times i value is checked in the following
void main() C program?
{ #include <stdio.h>
1 < 2 ? return 1: return 2; int main()
} {
a) returns 1 int i = 0;
b) returns 2 while (i < 3)
c) Varies i++;
d) Compile time error printf("In while loop\n");
View Answer }
8
a) 2 int array[5] = {5};
b) 3 a) 5, 5, 5, 5, 5
c) 4 b) 5, 0, 0, 0, 0
d) 1 c) 5, (garbage), (garbage), (garbage), (garbage)
View Answer d) (garbage), (garbage), (garbage), (garbage), 5
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: None. Answer: b
51. What will be the output of the following C code?
#include <stdio.h> 57. What will be the output of the following C function
int main() when EOF returns?
{ int fputs(char *line, FILE *fp)
int i = 0; a) ‘�’ character of array line is encountered
do b) ‘n’ character in array line is encountered
{ c) ‘t’ character in array line is encountered
i++; d) When an error occurs
if (i == 2) View Answer
continue; Answer: d
printf("In while loop ");
} while (i < 2); 58. Which part of the program address space is p stored
printf("%d\n", i); in the following C code?
} #include <stdio.h>
a) In while loop 2 int *p;
b) In while loop in while loop 3 int main()
c) In while loop 3 {
d) Infinite loop int i = 0;
View Answer p = &i;
52. What will be the data type returned for the following return 0;
C function? }
#include <stdio.h> a) Code/text segment
int func() b) Data segment
{ c) Bss segment
return (double)(char)5.0; d) Stack
} View Answer
a) char Answer: c
b) int
c) double 59. Which of the following sequences are unaccepted in
d) multiple type-casting in return is illegal C language?
View Answer a)
Answer: b #if
#else
53. What is the problem in the following C declarations? #endif
int func(int); b)
double func(int); #if
int func(float); #elif
a) A function with same name cannot have different #endif
signatures c)
b) A function with same name cannot have different #if
return types #if
c) A function with same name cannot have different #endif
number of parameters d)
d) All of the mentioned #if
View Answer #undef
Answer: d #endif
View Answer
54. Which option should be selected to work the Answer: c
following C expression? Explanation: None.
string p = "HELLO";
a) typedef char [] string;
b) typedef char *string; 59. Comment on the output of following C code.
c) typedef char [] string; and typedef char *string; #include <stdio.h>
d) Such expression cannot be generated in C main()
View Answer {
Answer: b char *p = 0;
*p = 'a';
55. What is the meaning of the following C statement? printf("value in pointer p is %c\n", *p);
printf(“%10s”, state); }
a) 10 spaces before the string state is printed a) It will print a
b) Print empty spaces if the string state is less than 10 b) It will print 0
characters c) Compile time error
c) Print the last 10 characters of the string d) Run time error
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer:d
Answer: b
60. What is the output of this C code?
56. What are the elements present in the array of the #include <stdio.h>
following C code? main()
9
 { Answer: d
if (sizeof(int) > -1)
printf("True"); 5. Which of the following extension is used for user-
else defined header file in c++?
printf("False"); a) hg
} b) cpp
a) True c) h
b) False d) hf
View Answer View Answer
62. What is the output of this C code? Answer: c
#include <stdio.h>
int main() 6. Which of the following is a correct identifier in C++?
{ a) VAR_1234
float f = 0.1; b) $var_name
if (f == 0.1) c) 7VARNAME
printf("True"); d) 7var_name
else View Answer
printf("False"); Answer: a
}
a) True 7. Which of the following is not a type of Constructor in
b) False C++?
View Answer a) Default constructor
Answer: b b) Parameterized constructor
c) Copy constructor
63. What is the output of this C code? d) Friend constructor
#include <stdio.h> View Answer
main() Answer: d
{
int n = 0, m = 0; 8. Which of the following approach is used by C++?
if (n > 0) a) Left-right
if (m > 0) b) Right-left
printf("True"); c) Bottom-up
else d) Top-down
printf("False"); View Answer
} Answer: c
a) True
b) False 9. What is virtual inheritance in C++?
c) No Output will be printed a) C++ technique to enhance multiple inheritance
d) Run Time Error b) C++ technique to ensure that a private member of the
View Answer C base class can be accessed somehow
c) C++ technique to avoid multiple inheritances of
C++ Programming MCQ classes
1. Who invented C++? d) C++ technique to avoid multiple copies of the base
a) Dennis Ritchie class into children/derived class
b) Ken Thompson View Answer
c) Brian Kernighan Answer: d
d) Bjarne Stroustrup
View Answer 10. What happens if the following C++ statement is
Answer: d compiled and executed?
int *ptr = NULL;
2. What is C++? delete ptr;
a) C++ is an object oriented programming language a) The program is not semantically correct
b) C++ is a procedural programming language b) The program is compiled and executed successfully
c) C++ supports both procedural and object oriented c) The program gives a compile-time error
programming language d) The program compiled successfully but throws an
d) C++ is a functional programming language error during run-time
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: b

3. Which of the following is the correct syntax of 11. What will be the output of the following C++ code?
including a user defined header files in C++? #include <iostream>
a) #include [userdefined] #include <string>
b) #include “userdefined” using namespace std;
c) #include <userdefined.h> int main(int argc, char const *argv[])
d) #include <userdefined> {
View Answer char s1[6] = "Hello";
Answer: b char s2[6] = "World";
char s3[12] = s1 + " " + s2;
4. Which of the following is used for comments in C++? cout<<s3;
a) /* comment */ return 0;
b) // comment */ }
c) // comment a) Hello
d) both // comment or /* comment */ b) World
View Answer c) Error
d) Hello World
View Answer C
10
 d) spaces in
12. What is the difference between delete and delete[] in View Answer
C++? 18. Which of the following type is provided by C++ but
a) delete is syntactically correct but delete[] is wrong not C?
and hence will give an error if used in any case a) double
b) delete is used to delete normal objects whereas b) float
delete[] is used to pointer objects c) int
c) delete is a keyword whereas delete[] is an identifier d) bool
d) delete is used to delete single object whereas delete[] View Answer
is used to multiple(array/pointer of) objects Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: d 20. By default, all the files in C++ are opened in
_________ mode.
13. What happens if the following program is executed a) Binary
in C and C++? b) VTC
#include <stdio.h> c) Text
int main(void) d) ISCII
{ View Answer
int new = 5; Answer: c
printf("%d", new);
} 21. What will be the output of the following C++
a) Error in C and successful execution in C++ function?
b) Error in both C and C++ 1. int main()
c) Error in C++ and successful execution in C 2. {
d) A successful run in both C and C++ 3. register int i = 1;
View Answer 4. int *ptr = &i;
Answer: c 5. cout << *ptr;
6. return 0;
14. What happens if the following program is executed 7. }
in C and C++? a) Runtime error may be possible
#include <stdio.h> b) Compiler error may be possible
void func(void) c) 1
{ d) 0
printf("Hello"); View Answer
} Answer: b
void main()
{ 22. Which of the following correctly declares an array in
func(); C++?
func(2); a) array{10};
} b) array array[10];
a) Outputs Hello twice in both C and C++ c) int array;
b) Error in C and successful execution in C++ d) int array[10];
c) Error in C++ and successful execution in C View Answer
d) Error in both C and C++ Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: d 23. What is the size of wchar_t in C++?
a) Based on the number of bits in the system
15. Which of the following is correct about this pointer b) 2 or 4
in C++? c) 4
a) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static d) 2
variables of a class View Answer
b) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all the Answer: a
functions of a class
c) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all non- 24. What will be the output of the following C++ code?
static functions of a class #include<iostream>
d) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static using namespace std;
functions of a class int main ()
View Answer {
Answer: c int cin;
cin >> cin;
16. What will be the output of the following C++ code? cout << "cin: " << cin;
1. #include <iostream> return 0;
2. #include <string> }
3. #include <algorithm> a) Segmentation fault
4. using namespace std; b) Nothing is printed
5. int main() c) Error
6. { d) cin: garbage value
7. string s = "spaces in text"; View Answer
8. s.erase(remove(s.begin(), s.end(), ' ' ), Answer: d
s.end() ) ;
9. cout << s << endl; 25. What is the use of the indentation in c++?
10. } a) r distinguishes between comments and inner data
a) spacesintext b) distinguishes between comments and outer data
b) spaces in text c) distinguishes between comments and code
c) spaces d) r distinguishes between comments and outer data
View Answer
11
Answer: c. 32. What is the correct syntax of accessing a static
26. Which is more effective while calling the C++ member of a class in C++?
functions? ---------------------------
a) call by object Example class:
b) call by pointer class A
c) call by value {
d) call by reference public:
View Answer static int value;
Answer: d }
---------------------------
27. What will be the output of the following C++ a) A->value
program? b) A^value
#include <iostream> c) A.value
#include <string> d) A::value
#include <cstring> View Answer
using namespace std; Answer: d
int main(int argc, char const *argv[])
{ 33. The C++ code which causes abnormal
const char *a = "Hello\0World"; termination/behaviour of a program should be written
cout<<a; under _________ block.
return 0; a) catch
} b) throw
a) Hello c) try
b) World d) finally
c) Error View Answer
d) Hello World Answer: c
View Answer A
28. Which of the following is used to terminate the 34. What is Inheritance in C++?
function declaration in C++? a) Deriving new classes from existing classes
a) ; b) Overloading of classes
b) ] c) Classes with same names
c) ) d) Wrapping of data into a single class
d) : View Answer
View Answer 35. What will be the output of the following C++ code?
Answer: a 1. #include <iostream>
29. What will be the output of the following C++ code? 2. using namespace std;
1. #include <iostream> 3. int main()
2. using namespace std; 4. {
3. int main() 5. int a = 5;
4. { 6. float b;
5. char c = 74; 7. cout << sizeof(++a + b);
6. cout << c; 8. cout << a;
7. return 0; 9. return 0;
8. } 10. }
a) I a) 2 5
b) J b) 4 5
c) A c) 4 6
d) N d) 2 6
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: b
Output:
30. What will be the output of the following C++ $ g++ size3.cpp
program? $ a.out
1. #include <iomanip> 45
2. #include <iostream> 36. Which of the following symbol is used to declare the
3. using namespace std; preprocessor directives in C++?
4. int main() a) $
5. { b) ^
6. cout << setprecision(17); c) #
7. double d = 0.1; d) *
8. cout << d << endl; View Answer
9. return 0; Answer: c
10. }
a) compile time error 37. What will be the output of the following C++
b) 0.100001 program?
c) 0.11 #include<iostream>
d) 0.10000000000000001 using namespace std;
View Answer int main()
31. Which keyword is used to define the macros in c++? {
a) #macro int a = 5;
b) #define auto check = [=]()
c) macro {
d) define a = 10;
View Answer };
Answer: b check();
cout<<"Value of a: "<<a<<endl;
12
 return 0; c) compile time error
} d) runtime error
a) Segmentation fault View Answer
b) Value of a: 5 43. What is abstract class in C++?
c) Value of a: 10 a) Any Class in C++ is an abstract class
d) Error b) Class from which any class is derived
View Answer c) Class specifically used as a base class with atleast one
38. What will be the output of the following C++ code? virtual functions
#include <iostream> d) Class specifically used as a base class with atleast one
using namespace std; pure virtual functions
void square (int *x, int *y) View Answer
{ Answer: d
*x = (*x) * --(*y);
} 44. Which of the following constructors are provided by
int main ( ) the C++ compiler if not defined in a class?
{ a) Copy constructor
int number = 30; b) Default constructor
square(&number, &number); c) Assignment constructor
cout << number; d) All of the mentioned
return 0; View Answer
} Answer: d
a) 30
b) Error 45. What will be the output of the following C++
c) Segmentation fault program?
d) 870 #include <iostream>
View Answer using namespace std;
39. What is meant by a polymorphism in C++? int main()
a) class having only single form {
b) class having four forms try
c) class having many forms {
d) class having two forms try
View Answer {
Answer: c throw 20;
}
40. What will be the output of the following C++ catch (int n)
program? {
#include <iostream> cout << "Inner Catch\n";
#include <string> throw;
using namespace std; }
int main () }
{ catch (int x)
std::string str ("Sanfoundry."); {
str.back() = '!'; cout << "Outer Catch\n";
std::cout << str << endl; }
return 0; return 0;
} }
a) Sanfoundry! a) Outer Catch
b) Sanfoundry!. b)
c) Sanfoundry. Inner Catch
d) Sanfoundry.! Outer Catch
View Answer c) Error
41. Pick the incorrect statement about inline functions in d) Inner Catch
C++? View Answer
a) Saves overhead of a return call from a function 46. Which concept allows you to reuse the written code
b) They are generally very large and complicated in C++?
function a) Inheritance
c) These functions are inserted/substituted at the point of b) Polymorphism
call c) Abstraction
d) They reduce function call overheads d) Encapsulation
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: a

42. What will be the output of the following C++ 48. How structures and classes in C++ differ?
program? a) Structures by default hide every member whereas
1. #include <iostream> classes do not
2. using namespace std; b) In Structures, members are public by default whereas,
3. int main() in Classes, they are private by default
4. { c) Structures cannot have private members whereas
5. int n = 5; classes can have
6. void *p = &n; d) In Structures, members are private by default
7. int *pi = static_cast<int*>(p); whereas, in Classes, they are public by default
8. cout << *pi << endl; View Answer
9. return 0; Answer: b
10. }
a) 5 49. What will be the output of the following C++ code?
b) 6 1. #include <iostream>
13
 2. using namespace std; c) .class
3. int main () d) .java
4. { View Answer
5. int a, b, c; Answer: d
6. a = 2;
7. b = 7; 7. What will be the output of the following Java code?
8. c = (a > b) ? a : b; 1. class increment {
9. cout << c; 2. public static void main(String args[])
10. return 0; 3. {
11. } 4. int g = 3;
a) 12 5. System.out.print(++g * 8);
b) 14 6. }
c) 6 7. }
d) 7 a) 32
View Answer b) 33
Answer: d c) 24
d) 25
50. What is the benefit of c++ input and output over c View Answer
input and output? Answer: a
a) Both Type safety & Exception
b) Sequence container 8. Which environment variable is used to set the java
c) Exception path?
d) Type safety a) MAVEN_Path
View Answer b) JavaPATH
Answer: d c) JAVA
d) JAVA_HOME
View Answer
Java Programming MCQ Answer: d

1. Who invented Java Programming? 10. Which of the following is not an OOPS concept in
a) Guido van Rossum Java?
b) James Gosling a) Polymorphism
c) Dennis Ritchie b) Inheritance
d) Bjarne Stroustrup c) Compilation
View Answer d) Encapsulation
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: c.
2. Which statement is true about Java?
a) Java is a sequence-dependent programming language 11. What is not the use of “this” keyword in Java?
b) Java is a code dependent programming language a) Referring to the instance variable when a local
c) Java is a platform-dependent programming language variable has the same name
d) Java is a platform-independent programming b) Passing itself to the method of the same class
language c) Passing itself to another method
View Answer d) Calling another constructor in constructor chaining
Answer: d View Answer
Answer: b
3. Which component is used to compile, debug and
execute the java programs? 13. What will be the error in the following Java code?
a) JRE byte b = 50;
b) JIT b = b * 50;
c) JDK a) b cannot contain value 50
d) JVM b) b cannot contain value 100, limited by its range
View Answer c) No error in this code
Answer: c d) * operator has converted b * 50 into int, which can
not be converted to byte without casting
4. Which one of the following is not a Java feature? View Answer
a) Object-oriented Answer: d
b) Use of pointers
c) Portable 14. Which of the following is a type of polymorphism in
d) Dynamic and Extensible Java Programming?
View Answer a) Multiple polymorphism
Answer: b b) Compile time polymorphism
c) Multilevel polymorphism
5. Which of these cannot be used for a variable name in d) Execution time polymorphism
Java? View Answer
a) identifier & keyword Answer: b
b) identifier
c) keyword 17. What is Truncation in Java?
d) none of the mentioned a) Floating-point value assigned to a Floating type
View Answer b) Floating-point value assigned to an integer type
Answer: c c) Integer value assigned to floating type
d) Integer value assigned to floating type
6. What is the extension of java code files? View Answer
a) .js Answer: b
b) .txt Explanation: None.

14
20. What is the extension of compiled java classes? d) try
a) .txt View Answer
b) .js Answer: d
c) .class
d) .java 40. What will be the output of the following Java code?
View Answer 1. class newthread extends Thread
Answer: c 2. {
3. Thread t;
21. Which exception is thrown when java is out of 4. newthread()
memory? 5. {
a) MemoryError 6. t1 = new Thread(this,"Thread_1");
b) OutOfMemoryError 7. t2 = new Thread(this,"Thread_2");
c) MemoryOutOfBoundsException 8. t1.start();
d) MemoryFullException 9. t2.start();
View Answer 10. }
Answer: b 11. public void run()
12. {
23. Which of these are selection statements in Java? 13.
a) break t2.setPriority(Thread.MAX_PRIORITY);
b) continue
c) for() 14. System.out.print(t1.equals(t2));
d) if() 15. }
View Answer 16. }
Answer: d 17. class multithreaded_programing
18. {
26. Which of these keywords is used to define interfaces 19. public static void main(String args[])
in Java? 20. {
a) intf 21. new newthread();
b) Intf 22. }
c) interface 23. }
d) Interface a) truetrue
View Answer b) falsefalse
Answer: c c) true
d) false
30. Which of the following is a superclass of every class View Answer
in Java? 41. Which one of the following is not an access
a) ArrayList modifier?
b) Abstract class a) Protected
c) Object class b) Void
d) String c) Public
View Answer d) Private
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: b
33. Which of the below is not a Java Profiler?
a) JProfiler 42. What will be the output of the following Java
b) Eclipse Profiler program?
c) JVM 1. final class A
d) JConsole 2. {
View Answer 3. int i;
Answer: c 4. }
5. class B extends A
36. Which of these packages contains the exception 6. {
Stack Overflow in Java? 7. int j;
a) java.io 8. System.out.println(j + " " + i);
b) java.system 9. }
c) java.lang 10. class inheritance
d) java.util 11. {
View Answer 12. public static void main(String args[])
Answer: c 13. {
Explanation: None. 14. B obj = new B();
38. Which of these statements is incorrect about Thread? 15. obj.display();
a) start() method is used to begin execution of the thread 16. }
b) run() method is used to begin execution of a thread 17. }
before start() method in special cases a) 2 2
c) A thread can be formed by implementing Runnable b) 3 3
interface only c) Runtime Error
d) A thread can be formed by a class that extends Thread d) Compilation Error
class View Answer
View Answer 43. What is the numerical range of a char data type in
Answer: b Java?
a) 0 to 256
39. Which of these keywords are used for the block to be b) -128 to 127
examined for exceptions? c) 0 to 65535
a) check d) 0 to 32767
b) throw View Answer
c) catch
15
Answer: c b) Paypal
c) Google G Suite
44. Which class provides system independent server side d) All of the above
implementation? View Answer
a) Server Answer: d
b) ServerReader
c) Socket 7. Which of the following is an example of the cloud?
d) ServerSocket a) Amazon Web Services (AWS)
View Answer b) Dropbox
Answer: d c) Cisco WebEx
d) All of the above
46. Which of the following is true about servlets? View Answer
a) Servlets can use the full functionality of the Java class Answer: d
libraries
b) Servlets execute within the address space of web 8. Applications and services that run on a distributed
server, platform independent and uses the functionality network using virtualized resources is known as
of java class libraries ___________
c) Servlets execute within the address space of web a) Parallel computing
server b) Soft computing
d) Servlets are platform-independent because they are c) Distributed computing
written in java d) Cloud computing
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d

9. Which of the following is an example of a PaaS cloud

Cloud Computing MCQ service?
a) Heroku
b) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
1. What is Cloud Computing? c) Windows Azure
a) Cloud Computing means providing services like d) All of the above
storage, servers, database, networking, etc View Answer
b) Cloud Computing means storing data in a database Answer: d
c) Cloud Computing is a tool used to create an
application 10. Which of the following is an example of an IaaS
d) None of the mentioned Cloud service?
View Answer a) DigitalOcean
Answer: a b) Linode
c) Rackspace
2. Who is the father of cloud computing? d) All of the above
a) Sharon B. Codd View Answer
b) Edgar Frank Codd Answer: d
c) J.C.R. Licklider
d) Charles Bachman 11. Which of the following is the correct statement about
View Answer cloud computing?
Answer: c a) Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and
sharing resources
3. Which of the following is not a type of cloud server? b) Cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet
a) Public Cloud Servers c) The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the
b) Private Cloud Servers two essential concepts
c) Dedicated Cloud Servers d) All of the mentioned
d) Merged Cloud Servers View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d
12. Point out the wrong statement.
4. Which of the following are the features of cloud a) Azure enables .NET Framework applications to run
computing? over the Internet
a) Security b) Cloud Computing has two distinct sets of models
b) Availability c) Amazon has built a worldwide network of datacenters
c) Large Network Access to service its search engine
d) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: c

5. Which of the following is a type of cloud computing 13. Which of the following model attempts to categorize
service? a cloud network based on four dimensional factors?
a) Service-as-a-Software (SaaS) a) Cloud Cube
b) Software-and-a-Server (SaaS) b) Cloud Square
c) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) c) Cloud Service
d) Software-as-a-Server (SaaS) d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a

6. Which of the following is the application of cloud 14. Which of the following is the correct statement about
computing? cloud types?
a) Adobe a) Cloud Square Model is meant to show is that the
traditional notion of a network boundary being the
16
network’s firewall no longer applies in cloud computing b) Virtual appliances are becoming a very important
b) A deployment model defines the purpose of the cloud standard cloud computing deployment object
and the nature of how the cloud is located c) Cloud computing requires some standard protocols
c) Service model defines the purpose of the cloud and d) None of the mentioned
the nature of how the cloud is located View Answer
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: b 22. Identify the correct statement about cloud
computing.
15. Which architectural layer is used as a backend in a) Cloud computing relies on a set of protocols needed to
cloud computing? manage interprocess communications
a) cloud b) Platforms are used to create more complex software
b) soft c) Cloud architecture can couple software running on
c) client virtualized hardware in multiple locations to provide an
d) all of the mentioned on-demand service
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: d
16. All cloud computing applications suffer from the
inherent _______ that is intrinsic in their WAN 23. Point out the wrong statement.
connectivity. a) Cloud services span the gamut of computer
a) noise applications
b) propagation b) The impact of cloud computing on network
c) latency communication is to discourage the use of open source
d) all of the mentioned network protocols in place of proprietary protocol
View Answer c) Atom is a syndication format that allows for HTTP
Answer: c protocols to create and update informations
d) None of the mentioned
17. Which of the following architectural standards is View Answer
working with cloud computing industry? Answer: b
a) Web-application frameworks
b) Service-oriented architecture 24. Which of the following is required by Cloud
c) Standardized Web services Computing?
d) All of the mentioned a) That the identity be authenticated
View Answer b) That the authentication be portable
Answer: b c) That you establish an identity
d) All of the mentioned
18. Which of the following is the correct statement? View Answer
a) Cloud computing presents new opportunities to users Answer: d
and developers
b) Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is small aspect of 25. Cloud computing is a concept that involves pooling
cloud computing physical resources and offering them as which sort of
c) Cloud computing does not have impact on software resource?
licensing a) cloud
d) All of the mentioned b) real
View Answer c) virtual
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
19. What is the correct formula to calculate the cost of a Answer: c
cloud computing deployment?
a) CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD / (Revenue + 26. Which of the following is the Cloud Platform
CostCLOUD)) provided by Amazon?
b) CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD / (Revenue – a) AWS
CostCLOUD)) b) Cloudera
c) CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD x (Revenue – c) Azure
CostCLOUD)) d) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: b
27. Into which expenditures does Cloud computing shifts
20. Which of the following is the wrong statement about capital expenditures?
cloud computing? a) local
a) Private cloud doesn’t employ the same level of b) operating
virtualization c) service
b) Data center operates under average loads d) none of the mentioned
c) Private cloud doesn’t pooling of resources that a cloud View Answer
computing provider can achieve Answer: b
d) Abstraction enables the key benefit of cloud
computing: shared, ubiquitous access 28. Point out the wrong statement.
View Answer a) With a pay-as-you-go, endlessly expandable, and
Answer: a universally available system, cloud computing realises
the long-held goal of utility computing
21. Identify the wrong statement about cloud computing. b) The widespread use of the Internet enables the huge
a) Virtualization assigns a logical name for a physical size of cloud computing systems
resource and then provides a pointer to that physical c) Soft computing represents a significant change in the
resource when a request is made way computers are delivered
17
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: c 37. Which is the most essential concept related to Cloud
computing?
29. Which of the following is the most essential element a) Abstraction
in cloud computing by CSA? b) Reliability
a) Virtualization c) Productivity
b) Multi-tenancy d) All of the mentioned
c) Identity and access management View Answer
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: b 38. In which of the following service models the
hardware is virtualized in the cloud?
30. Which of the following monitors the performance of a) NaaS
the major cloud-based services in real time in Cloud b) PaaS
Commons? c) CaaS
a) CloudWatch d) IaaS
b) CloudSensor View Answer
c) CloudMetrics Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 39. Which of the following is the Virtual machine
Answer: b conversion cloud?
a) Amazon CloudWatch
31. Which of the following model consists of the service b) AbiCloud
that you can access on a cloud computing platform? c) BMC Cloud Computing Initiative
a) Deployment d) None of the mentioned
b) Service View Answer
c) Application Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 40. Which of the following is a workflow control and
Answer: b policy based automation service by CA?
a) CA Cloud Compose
32. Which of the following is the most important area of b) CA Cloud Insight
concern in cloud computing? c) CA Cloud Optimize
a) Scalability d) CA Cloud Orchestrate
b) Storage View Answer
c) Security Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 41. An application that provides for transaction overflow
Answer: c in a reservation system is an example of ____________
a) cloud bursting
33. Which of the following is the most refined and b) cloud provisioning
restrictive cloud service model? c) cloud servicing
a) PaaS d) all of the mentioned
b) IaaS View Answer
c) SaaS Answer: a
d) CaaS
View Answer SQL MCQ (Multiple Choice
Answer: a
Questions)
34. Which of the following is not a property of cloud
computing? 1. What does SQL stand for?
a) virtualization a) Structured Query Language
b) composability b) Standard Query Language
c) scalability c) Simple Query Language
d) all of the mentioned d) Sequential Query Language
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: a

35. How many phases are there in Cloud Computing 2. Which of the following is NOT a valid keyword in
Planning? SQL?
a) 1 a) SELECT
b) 5 b) DELETE
c) 3 c) WHERE
d) 6 d) INCLUDE
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d

36. Which of the following is an example of a SaaS 3. Which of the following operators is used to compare
cloud service? two values in SQL?
a) Google Workspace a) +
b) Dropbox b) =
c) Salesforce c) <>
d) All of the above d) &
View Answer View Answer

18
Answer: c d) Procedural Logic
View Answer
4. What is the purpose of the SQL keyword Answer: c
“DISTINCT” in a SELECT statement?
a) To retrieve unique values from a column 13. Which of the following can execute a trigger in
b) To filter NULL values PL/SQL?
c) To delete duplicate records a) Oracle server
d) To sort the result set b) User
View Answer c) Both user and oracle server
Answer: a d) Neither user nor oracle server
View Answer
5. Which of the following tasks CANNOT be Answer: a
accomplished using SQL?
a) Creating and modifying database structures 14. Which of the following SQL statement selects only
b) Writing complex algorithms for data analysis unique values from ‘section’ column of table ‘school’?
c) Retrieving specific data from a database a) SELECT section FROM school;
d) Adding new data to a database b) SELECT DISTINCT section FROM school;
View Answer c) SELECT * FROM school;
Answer: b d) SELECT ALL section FROM school;
View Answer
6. Which of the following is basis for SQL? Answer: b
a) SQL Server
b) DBMS 15. Which SQL keyword is used to sort the data returned
c) RDBMS by a SELECT statement?
d) Oracle a) Group
View Answer b) Order
Answer: c c) Group By
d) Order By
7. Which character is used to separate SQL statements in View Answer
database systems? Answer: d
a) :
b) % 16. The SQL LIKE operator is used in which of the
c) _ following clause?
d) ; a) Having
View Answer b) Select
Answer: d c) Where
d) Group by
8. Which statement(s) are mandatory in a simple SQL View Answer
SELECT statement? Answer: c
a) Select, From
b) Select, OrderBy
c) Select, Where SQL Server MCQ
d) Select, GroupBy
View Answer 1. What is SQL Server?
Answer: a a) SQL Server is a relational database management
system
9. Which of the following is a default join type? b) SQL Server is a software whose main purpose is to
a) Right join store and retrieve data
b) Left join c) SQL Server is a highly secure server and does not
c) Inner join allow any database file manipulation during execution
d) Outer join d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a
10. Which of the following command is used to create a 2. When was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server
database in SQL? released?
a) MAKE a) 1991
b) CREATE b) 1990
c) INSERT c) 1988
d) DEVELOP d) 1983
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
11. Which of the following statement is true about views 3. Which of the following is a free database software
in SQL? running free SQL Server technology?
a) We can delete but not insert rows in a view a) SQL Server Web
b) We cannot insert and delete rows in a view b) SQL Server Enterprise
c) We can insert but not delete rows in a view c) SQL Server Workgroup
d) We can insert and delete rows in a view d) SQL Server Express
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: d
12. What is the full form of PL in PL/SQL? 4. Which of the following companies originally worked
a) Programming Language together to create and market the first version of SQL
b) Programming Logic Server?
c) Procedural Language
19
a) Sybase c) CHECK
b) Ashton-Tate d) NULL
c) Microsoft View Answer
d) All of the Mentioned Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: d 13. Which of the reasons will force you to use the XML
data model in SQL Server?
5. What is the Codename for SQL Server 2012? a) Order is inherent in your data
a) Katmai b) Your data is sparse or you do not know the structure
b) Denali of the data
c) Hekaton c) Your data represents containment hierarchy
d) Kilimanjaro d) All of the Mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d

6. Which was the first version of SQL Server to 14. What is the hybrid model in SQL Server?
introduce in-memory capability? a) Using XML with views
a) SQL Server 2005 b) Using XML with triggers
b) SQL Server 2008 c) Combination of relational and XML data type
c) SQL Server 2012 columns
d) SQL Server 2014 d) Combination of relational and non relational data type
View Answer columns
Answer: d View Answer
Answer: c
7. Which of the following data type is not present in
SQL Server? 15. Which of the following feature of SQL Server was
a) geography used before XML technology for semi structured data?
b) hierarchyid a) In memory database
c) boolean b) Stored Procedure
d) bit c) Dynamic management views
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: b
8. Which database is used by SQL Server Agent for
scheduling alerts and jobs, and recording operators? 16. Which of the following language is used for
a) temp procedural flow in SQL Server?
b) model a) Control-of-flow language
c) msdb b) Flow language
d) master c) Control language
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: a
9. SQL Server has mainly how many types of views?
a) four 17. Exception handling is possible in SQL Server using
b) three _____________
c) one a) FINAL
d) two b) FINALLY
View Answer c) THROW
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
10. Which of the following is not a SQL Server Answer: c
INFORMATION_SCHEMA view?
a) sys.dm_exec_connections 18. Which of the following stored procedure is already
b) defined in SQL Server?
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.KEY_COLUMN_USAGE a) System defined Procedure
c) b) CLR Stored Procedure
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DOMAIN_CONSTRAINT c) Extended Procedure
S d) User Defined Stored Procedure
d) View Answer
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.CONSTRAINT_TABLE_ Answer: a
USAGE
View Answer 19. DML triggers in SQL Server is applicable to
Answer: a _____________
a) Update
11. Which of the following joins are SQL server default? b) Delete
a) Inner c) Insert
b) Equi d) All of the mentioned
c) Outer View Answer
d) None of the Mentioned Answer: d.
View Answer 20. User defined function in SQL Server can return
Answer: a ____________
a) Result set
12. Which of the following is not a class of constraint in b) Scalar value
SQL Server? c) Set of values
a) UNIQUE d) All of the mentioned
b) NOT NULL View Answer
20
Answer: d 29. Which of the following pair of technology is
supported in SQL Server?
21. Which of the stored procedure is used to test the SQL a) Mirroring and Clustering
injection attack? b) Mirroring and Log Shipping
a) xp_reg c) Mirroring and Replication
b) xp_write d) All of the mentioned
c) xp_regwrite View Answer
d) all of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: c 30. Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage
of SQL Server Authentication mode?
22. Which is the default field terminator for bulk insert a) Allows SQL Server to support Web-based applications
in SQL Server? where users create their own identities
a) Brackets b) Allows SQL Server to support older applications and
b) Parenthesis applications provided by third parties that require SQL
c) Full stop Server Authentication
d) Comma c) SQL Server Authentication cannot use Kerberos
View Answer security protocol
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
23. Which of the following is the main feature of Answer: c
dotConnect for SQL Server?
a) Supports the latest versions of SQL Server 31. Which of the following operation requires to run the
b) Extra data binding capabilities SQL Server Setup on the node?
c) Ability of monitoring query execution a) Update
d) All of the mentioned b) Add
View Answer c) Remove
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
24. Which of the following is used to overcome the Answer: d
Replication in SQL Server?
a) Availability problems 32. Which of the following tool is used for purpose of
b) Maintenance problems data auditing for SQL Server only?
c) Performance problems a) Idera
d) All of the mentioned b) ApexSQL
View Answer c) SQL Ninja
Answer: d d) SQL Audit
View Answer
25. When you _______ an Access table from a SQL Answer: b
Server, SSMA restores the original Access table and its
data. 33. Which of the following is the benefit of SQL Server
a) unlink Profiler?
b) import a) Correlating performance counters to diagnose
c) link problems
d) all of the mentioned b) Capturing the series of Transact-SQL statements that
View Answer lead to a problem
Answer: a c) Finding and diagnosing slow-running queries
d) All of the mentioned
26. Which of the following SQL Server tools is used to View Answer
enhance data management and governance? Answer: d
a) SSDT
b) OBEII 34. Which of the following catalog view is used for SQL
c) SSIT Server Extended Events?
d) All of the mentioned a) sys.server_event_session_actions
View Answer b) sys.server_sessions
Answer: a c) sys.server_event_sess
d) all of the mentioned
27. Backing up your SQL Server database is essential for View Answer
_______ your data. Answer: a
a) replication
b) protecting Web Technology MCQ
c) preventing
.
d) none of the mentioned
1. What is web technology?
View Answer
a) A collection of tools and techniques used to create and
Answer: b
deliver content on the World Wide Web
b) A type of software that enables users to access and
28. Which of the following is the instance of SQL Server
interact with information on the internet
that is your production server in log shipping?
c) A network of interconnected computers that share
a) secondary server
information and services
b) primary server
d) A system for storing and retrieving information on the
c) secondary database
internet
d) primary database
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b

21
2. Which HTML tag is used to create a hyperlink? objects in html documents
a) <link> d) None of the mentioned
b) <href> View Answer
c) <a> Answer: c
d) <hyperlink>
View Answer 11. What are tables in web programming?
Answer: c a) Display information which are already accessed by
the user
3. Which of the following is not a web component b) Containing more number of rows than columns
element? c) To only store data to be accessed later by the user
a) <shadow> d) Display information in rows and columns used to
b) <menu> display all manner of data that fits in a grid
c) <content> View Answer
d) <element> Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: b 12. What does <td> stand for?
a) Table database
4. Which of the following programming languages is b) Table data
commonly used for server-side scripting in web c) Table directory
development? d) Table direct row
a) HTML View Answer
b) CSS Answer: b
c) JavaScript
d) PHP 13. Which element to used to give title to a table?
View Answer a) Caption
Answer: d b) Headline
c) Title
5. Which of the following is used to read a HTML page d) Heading
and render it? View Answer
a) Web server Answer: a
b) Web matrix
c) Web browser 14. What are Forms in web programming?
d) None of the mentioned a) They are matrices on web page
View Answer b) They are used to create Table data and its information
Answer: c c) They allow you to enter data which can be processed
to servers
6. Which of the following is a popular front-end d) They are the information filled by the server-side
framework for building user interfaces in JavaScript? View Answer
a) Django Answer: c
b) Angular
c) Flask 15. What are Frames?
d) Node.js a) They divide a webpage
View Answer b) They are the type of borders used for a webpage
Answer: b c) They are the type of borders used by web browsers
d) They divide the browser into two or more pieces or
7. What application can one create even before the panes
introduction of HTML5? View Answer
a) Forms Answer: d
b) Browser based games
c) Web applications 16. Which HTML tag is used to create an ordered list in
d) Mobile applications a webpage?
View Answer a) <ol>
Answer: a b) <ul>
c) <li>
8. Which of the following is not associated with web d) <ol> and <ul>
socket communication? View Answer
a) https Answer: a
b) wss
c) http 17. Which font format is used in web pages?
d) ws a) EOT
View Answer b) WOFF 2.0
Answer: c c) WOFF
d) SVG Fonts
9. Why are Images often used on the webpage? View Answer
a) To create graphical buttons or links to other pages Answer: c
b) To help the webpage load efficiently
c) Webpage cannot run/be displayed without at least one 18. Which HTML tag is used to create a form?
image a) <form>
d) Because webpage doesn’t support pure text b) <input>
View Answer c) <select>
Answer: a d) <textarea>
View Answer
10. What is DOM? Answer: a
a) Application programming interface
b) Hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET 19. Which of the following property is used to control
c) Convention for representing and interacting with the space between the border and content in a table?
22
a) border d) Between the “script” tag
b) padding View Answer
c) margin Answer: d
d) resize
View Answer 28. What is the purpose of the event handlers in the
Answer: b JavaScript?
a) Adds innerHTML page to the code
20. Which of the following CSS Property controls how b) Allows JavaScript code to alter the behaviour of
an element is positioned? windows
a) fix c) Performs handling of exceptions and occurrences
b) set d) Change the server location
c) static View Answer
d) position Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: d 29. What is Vue JS?
a) Scripting Language
21. Which CSS property can be used to set the image as b) A framework
border instead of the border style? c) Programming Language
a) border-image-source d) Directives
b) background-image-source View Answer
c) border-image Answer: b
d) background-image
View Answer 30. Which of the following bootstrap styles can be used
Answer: a to create a default progress bar?
a) .progress, .progress-bar
22. Which of the following property defines labels for a b) .link-progress-bar
list of items? c) .nav-progress
a) list-style-type d) All of the mentioned
b) list-style-image View Answer
c) list-stylelist-style-type Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 31. What is the purpose of JavaScript in web
Answer: a development?
a) To define the structure and content of web pages
23. Which of the following communicates with server- b) To add interactivity and behavior to web pages
side CGI scripts through HTML form submissions and c) To style and format web pages
can be written without the use of JavaScript? d) To manage server-side data and databases
a) Interactive Web Pages View Answer
b) Static Web Pages Answer: b
c) Conditional Web Pages
d) All web pages 32. React.js is written in which of the following
View Answer language?
Answer: a a) C++
b) C
24. What is the special feature of modern web c) Java
applications? d) JavaScript
a) Must load the document to manipulate View Answer
b) Can alter contents without loading document Answer: d
c) Can’t be altered at all
d) Remains static 33. Which of the following directives is used to start an
View Answer angularJS application?
Answer: b a) ng-app
b) ng-init
25. Which of the following is the Web application c) ng-repeat
equivalent to querySelectorAll()? d) ng-model
a) #() View Answer
b) &() Answer: a
c) !()
d) $() 34. How many classes does bootstrap grid system has?
View Answer a) 2
Answer: d b) 3
c) 4
26. Which is the storage that allows the caching of web d) 1
pages and their associated resources? View Answer
a) Offline Web Applications Answer: c
b) Cookies
c) Web Databases 35. What is the JavaScript keyword used to define a
d) FileSystem API function?
View Answer a) var
Answer: a b) function
c) let
27. When does JavaScript code appear inline within an d) const
HTML file? View Answer
a) Between or Outside the “script” tag Answer: b
b) Between the header tag
c) Outside the “script” tag
23
36. Which CSS property is used to specify the width of Answer: b
an element?
a) padding 8. Which among the following are not among Various
b) margin Operations in Data Warehousing?
c) height a) Sticking
d) width b) Dice
View Answer c) Drill down
Answer: d d) Roll up
View Answer
Answer: a
Data Mining MCQ
9. Pick the wrong data mining functionality among the
1. What is data mining? given data mining functionalities.
a) Deleting unnecessary data a) Classification
b) Sorting data alphabetically b) Clustering
c) Storing data securely c) Class Description
d) Extracting useful patterns or information from large d) Object Description
datasets View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: d
10. Which of the following refers to the set of features
2. Which of the following is not a basic data mining that describe a data object?
task? a) Attribute vector
a) Spooling b) Instance
b) Prediction c) Sample
c) Classification d) Data point
d) Clustering View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: a
11. Which of the following is the most effective measure
3. Which of the following is not an issue in data mining? of the center of symmetric data set?
a) High dimensionality a) Mode
b) Shortage of data b) Midrange
c) Overfitting c) Mean
d) Outliers d) Median
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c

4. Which of the following is not a motivating factor for 12. Which of the following is not true about scatter
the development of data mining tools? plots?
a) Data tombs a) It is used in the case of univariate distribution
b) Data rich but information poor situation b) It is used to identify relationship between attributes
c) Data cleaning c) It is used to identify clusters
d) Dependency on domain experts in expert systems d) It is used to identify outliers
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a

5. Which of the following is a subset of data warehouse 13. Which of the following is not a proximity measure?
focused on a specific functional area? a) Dissimilarity measures
a) Data mart b) Similarity measures
b) Association rules c) Probability measures
c) Flat files d) Distance measures
d) Database View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Answer: a
15. Which of the following is not true about data
6. Which of the following statement about knowledge reduction?
and data discovery management system (KDDMS) is a) It involves dimensionality reduction
false? b) It involves numerosity reduction
a) It will provide concurrency features c) Reduced data strives to gives same analytical results
b) It will provide recovery features as the original data
c) It will include data mining tools and data management d) Reduced data gives strives to give less accurate
tools analytical results the original data
d) It will include data mining tools but not data View Answer
management tools Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: d 16. What do data auditing tools not do?
a) Detect data that violate certain rules
7. Which field of data mining helps in removing b) Discover rules and relationships in the data
uncertainty, noise etc? c) Use parsing to find rules in the data
a) Data preprocessing d) Use statistical analysis to find rules in the data
b) Data Mining View Answer
c) Outlier detection and removal Answer: c
d) Uncertainty Reasoning
View Answer 17. Which of the following is true about bottom up
discretization?
24
a) Some the values are treated as potential split points into a form that can be executed?
b) All the values are treated as potential split points a) Interpreter
c) Split points are not considered b) Assembler
d) Only one value are treated as potential split points c) Compiler
View Answer d) Linking Loader
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: d

Compiler Design MCQ 9. Which of the following is a definition of compiler?

a) Acceptance of a program written in a high-level
1. What is a compiler? language and produces an object program
a) system program that converts instructions to machine b) Program is put into memory and executes it
language c) Translation of assembly language into machine
b) system program that converts machine language to language
high-level language d) None of the mentioned
c) system program that writes instructions to perform View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: a 10. Which of the following phase of the compiler is
Syntax Analysis?
2. Which of the following is a stage of compiler design? a) Second
a) Semantic analysis b) Third
b) Intermediate code generator c) First
c) Code generator d) All of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d
11. Which of the following concept of FSA is used in the
3. What is the use of a symbol table in compiler design? compiler?
a) Finding name’s scope a) Code optimization
b) Type checking b) Code generation
c) Keeping all of the names of all entities in one place c) Lexical analysis
d) All of the mentioned d) Parser
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: c

4. Which of the following error can a compiler check? 12. Which of the following is a part of a compiler that
a) Syntax Error takes as input a stream of characters and produces as
b) Logical Error output a stream of words along with their associated
c) Both Logical and Syntax Error syntactic categories?
d) Compiler cannot check errors a) Optimizer
View Answer b) Scanner
Answer: a c) Parser
d) None of the mentioned
5. A programmer, writes a program to multiply two View Answer
numbers instead of dividing them by mistake, how can Answer: b

13. Let L1 = {w ∈ {0,1}∗ | w has at least as many

this error be detected?
a) Compiler or interpreter
b) Compiler only occurrences

Let L2 = { ∈ {0,1}∗ | w has at least as many

c) Interpreter only of (110)’s as (011)’s}.
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer occurrences
Answer: d of (000)’s as (111)’s}.
Which of the following is correct?
6. Who is responsible for the creation of the symbol a) L2 is regular
table? b) L1 and L2 are regular
a) Assembler c) L1 is regular but not L2
b) Compiler d) None of them are regular
c) Interpreter View Answer
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: b 14. What is CFG?
a) Regular Expression
7. Which of the following is known as a compiler for a b) Compiler
high-level language that runs on one machine and c) Language expression
produces code for a different machine? d) All of the mentioned
a) Cross compiler View Answer
b) Multipass compiler Answer: b
c) Optimizing compiler
d) One pass compiler 15. Which of the following is a correct statement?
View Answer I. For some programming languages, there are parsing
Answer: a algorithms with an O(3) complexity.
II. A recursive programming language can be
8. Which of the following is a system program that constructed with static storage allocation.
integrates a program’s individually compiled modules III. In the context of bottom-up parsing, no L-attributed
definition can be evaluated.
25
IV. Code-improvement modifications can be carried out 23. Why System program such as compiler are
at both the intermediate and source code levels. designed?
a) I and III a) They are Serially usable
b) I and IV b) They are Re-enterable
c) I, II and IV c) They are Nonreusable
d) I, II, III and IV d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: b

16. Which of the following is correct regarding an 24. Which of the following technique is used for
optimizer Compiler? building cross compilers for other machines?
a) Optimize the code a) Canadian Cross
b) Is optimized to occupy less space b) Mexican Cross
c) Both of the mentioned c) X-cross
d) None of the mentioned d) Brazilian Cross
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a

17. Which of the following error can Compiler 25. Which of the following can detect an error if a
diagnose? programmer by mistake writes multiplication instead of
a) Logical errors only division?
b) Grammatical and logical errors a) Interpreter
c) Grammatical errors only b) Compiler or interpreter test
d) All of the mentioned c) Compiler
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: d
18. In which of the following phase of the compiler is
Lexical Analyser? Computer Fundamental MCQ
a) Second
.
b) Third
1. Who is the father of Computers?
c) First
a) James Gosling
d) All of the mentioned
b) Charles Babbage
View Answer
c) Dennis Ritchie
Answer: c
d) Bjarne Stroustrup
View Answer
19. Which of the following does an address code
Answer: b
involve?
a) No unary operators
2. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation of
b) Exactly 3 address
COMPUTER?
c) At most Three address
a) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in Technical and
d) None of the mentioned
Educational Research
View Answer
b) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and
Answer: d
Environmental Research
c) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in Technical and
20. An object module for a group of programs that were
Educational Research
compiled separately is handed to a linker. Which of the
d) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and
following about an object module isn’t true?
Educational Research
a) Relocation bits
View Answer
b) Names and locations of all external symbols denied in
Answer: d
the object module
c) Absolute addresses of internal symbols
3. Which of the following is the correct definition of
d) Object code
Computer?
View Answer
a) Computer is a machine or device that can be
Answer: c
programmed to perform arithmetical or logic operation
sequences automatically
21. Characters are grouped into tokens in which of the
b) Computer understands only binary language which is
following phase of the compiler design?
written in the form of 0s & 1s
a) Code generator
c) Computer is a programmable electronic device that
b) Lexical analyzer
stores, retrieves, and processes the data
c) Parser
d) All of the mentioned
d) Code optimization
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b
4. What is the full form of CPU?
22. Why Generation of intermediate code based on an
a) Computer Processing Unit
abstract machine model is useful in compilers?
b) Computer Principle Unit
a) Writing for intermediate code generation
c) Central Processing Unit
b) Portability of the front end of the compiler
d) Control Processing Unit
c) Implementation of lexical analysis and syntax analysis
View Answer
is made easier
Answer: c
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
5. Which of the following language does the computer
Answer: c
understand?
a) Computer understands only C Language
26
b) Computer understands only Assembly Language b) Registers
c) Computer understands only Binary Language c) Cache
d) Computer understands only BASIC d) Data path
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d

6. Which of the following computer language is written 14. Which of the following is designed to control the
in binary codes only? operations of a computer?
a) pascal a) User
b) machine language b) Application Software
c) C c) System Software
d) C# d) Utility Software
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c

7. Which of the following is the brain of the computer? 15. Which of the following device use positional
a) Central Processing Unit notation to represent a decimal number?
b) Memory a) Pascaline
c) Arithmetic and Logic unit b) Abacus
d) Control unit c) Computer
View Answer d) Calculator
Answer: a View Answer
It consists of a control unit and an arithmetic and logic Answer: b.
unit. It is responsible for performing all the processes 16. Which of the following is used in EBCDIC?
and operations. a) Super Computers
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a b) Mainframes
computer? c) Machine Codes
a) Versatility d) Programming
b) Accuracy View Answer
c) Diligence Answer: b
d) I.Q.
View Answer 17. Which of the following are physical devices of a
Answer: d computer?
a) Hardware
9. Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a b) Software
computer? c) System Software
a) Bit d) Package
b) KB View Answer
c) Nibble Answer: a
d) Byte
View Answer 18. Which of the following defines the assigned ordering
Answer: a among the characters used by the computer?
a) Accumulation
10. Which of the following unit is responsible for b) Sorting
converting the data received from the user into a c) Collating Sequence
computer understandable format? d) Unicode
a) Output Unit View Answer
b) Input Unit Answer: c
c) Memory Unit
d) Arithmetic & Logic Unit 19. Which of the following storage is a system where a
View Answer robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-line mass
Answer: b storage media according to the computer operating
system demands?
11. Which of the following monitor looks like a a) Magnetic
television and are normally used with non-portable b) Secondary
computer systems? c) Virtual
a) LED d) Tertiary
b) LCD View Answer
c) CRT Answer: d
d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer 20. Which of the following is known as the interval
Answer: c between the instant a computer makes a request for the
transfer of data from a disk system to the primary
12. Which of the following is not a type of computer storage and the instance the operation is completed?
code? a) Disk utilization time
a) EDIC b) Drive utilization time
b) ASCII c) Disk access time
c) BCD d) Disk arrival time
d) EBCDIC View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: a
21. Which of the following devices provides the
13. Which of the following part of a processor contains communication between a computer and the outer
the hardware necessary to perform all the operations world?
required by a computer? a) Compact
a) Controller b) I/O
27
c) Drivers d) User environment
d) Storage View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: b
30. Which of the following service allows a user to log
22. Which of the following are the input devices that in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
enable direct data entry into a computer system from a) e-mail
source documents? b) UseNet
a) System Access devices c) Telnet
b) Data acquiring devices d) FTP
c) Data retrieving devices View Answer
d) Data Scanning devices Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: d 31. Which of the following is not a type of computer on
the basis of operation?
23. Which of the following is the device used for a) Digital
converting maps, pictures, and drawings into digital b) Analog
form for storage in computers? c) Hybrid
a) Image Scanner d) Remote
b) Digitizer View Answer
c) MICR Answer: d
d) Scanner
View Answer 32. Which of the following type of computer is mostly
Answer: b used for automatic operations?
a) analog
24. Which of the following can access the server? b) digital
a) Web Client c) hybrid
b) User d) remote
c) Web Browser View Answer
d) Web Server Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a 33. Which of the following invention gave birth to the
much cheaper microcomputers?
25. Which of the following is known as the language a) PDAs
made up of binary-coded instructions? b) Microprocessors
a) High level c) Microcomputers
b) BASIC d) Mainframes
c) C View Answer
d) Machine Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: d 34. Which of the following computers are lower than
mainframe computers in terms of speed and storage
26. Which of the following package allows individuals capacity?
to use personal computers for storing and retrieving their a) Mainframes
personal information? b) Hybrid
a) Personal assistance package c) Mini
b) Graphics package d) Super
c) Spreadsheet package View Answer
d) Animation package Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a 35. Which of the following is the first neural network
computer?
27. Which of the following is created when a user opens a) AN
an account in the computer system? b) AM
a) SFD c) RFD
b) MFD d) SNARC
c) Subdirectory View Answer
d) RFD Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: c RDBMS MCQ
28. Which of the following is a technique that marked
1. Which of the following is the full form of RDBMS?
the beginning of computer communications?
a) Relational Data Management System
a) User Environment
b) Relational Database Management System
b) Batch Environment
c) Relative Database Management System
c) Time Sharing
d) Regional Data Management System
d) Message passing
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c
2. What is an RDBMS?
29. Which of the following is a type of technique in
a) Database that stores data elements that are not linked
which dumb terminals are connected to a central
b) Database that accesses data elements that are not
computer system?
linked
a) Time Sharing
c) Database that stores and allows access to data
b) Message passing
elements that are linked
c) Batch environment
28
d) None of the mentioned c and id < 10
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a

3. Does RDBMS have ACID properties? 10. Which of the following commands do we use to
a) Follows ACID properties delete a relation (RDBMS) from a database?
b) Doesn’t follow ACID properties a) delete table RDBMS
c) Depends on the data stored in the database b) drop table RDBMS
d) Can’t say c) delete from RDBMS
View Answer d) drop relation RDBMS
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: b
4. What is a relation in RDBMS?
a) Key 11. If RDBMS1, RDBMS2, RDBMS3 are attributes in a
b) Table relation and S is another relation, which of the following
c) Row is an incorrect specification of an integrity constraint?
d) Data Types a) foreign key(RDBMS1, RDBMS2)
View Answer b) foreign key(RDBMS1, RDBMS2) references S
Answer: b c) primary key(RDBMS1, RDBMS2, RDBMS3)
d) primary key(RDBMS1)
5. Which of the following systems use RDMS? View Answer
a) Oracle Answer: a
b) Microsoft SQLServer
c) IBM 12. Which of the following is the time of temporal data
d) All of the mentioned that record when a fact was recorded in a database?
View Answer a) Enter time
Answer: d b) Exit time
c) Valid time
6. Dynamic hashing allows us to? d) Transaction time
a) Accommodate the growth of the database View Answer
b) Accommodate the shrinkage of the database Answer: d
c) Allows modification of hash function
d) All of the mentioned 13. ________ deletes a data item from a database.
View Answer a) Insert(RDBMS)
Answer: d b) Drop(RDBMS)
c) Delete(RDBMS)
7. Which of the following constraints RDBS doesn’t d) None of the mentioned
check before creating the tables? View Answer
a) Not null Answer: c
b) Primary keys
c) Data Structure 14. What is the result of the following query?
d) Data integrity SELECT studentdatabasename
View Answer FROM RDBMS
Answer: c WHERE marks > SOME (SELECT marks
FROM student
8. Which of the following is the correct option for the WHERE SECTION = 'c');
given query? a) The query gives all the studentdatabasename for
SELECT DISTINCT name which marks are greater than all the students in section c
FROM RDBMS b) The query gives all the studentdatabasename for
WHERE ID IS NOT NULL; which the marks are greater than at least on student in
a) The query gives all the possible RDBMS names section c
where a finite value exists for ID c) The query gives all the studentdatabasename for
b) The query gives the RDBMS names where a finite which the marks are less than all the students in section c
value exists for ID and it excludes identical names d) The query is syntactically incorrect
c) The query gives the names of the RDBMS that have a View Answer
null ID and it also excludes identical names Answer: b
d) The query is syntactically wrong
View Answer 15. ________ is a predicate that we expect the database
Answer: b to always satisfy
a) Reason
9. Which of the following is the correct output for the b) Mandate
given query? c) Assertion
(SELECT databaseid d) Verify
FROM RDBMS View Answer
WHERE SECTION = 'c') Answer: c
EXCEPT
(SELECT databaseid 16. Which of the following is a good database
FROM RDBMS management practice?
WHERE id < 10); a) Adding redundant attributes
a) All the values of the databaseid for which section is c b) Not specifying primary keys
and id > 10 c) Removing redundant attributes
b) All the values of the databaseid for which section not d) None of the mentioned
c and id > 10 View Answer
c) All the values of the databaseid for which section is c Answer: c
and id < 10
d) All the values of the databaseid for which section not
29
17. What is an Instance of a Database? UPDATE student
a) The state of the database system at any given point of SET marks = marks*1.10;
time a) It decreases the marks of all the students by 90%
b) The entire set of attributes of the Database put b) It increases the marks of all the students by 10%
together in a single relation c) It is syntactically wrong
c) The initial values inserted into the Database d) It increases the marks of all the students by 110%
immediately after its creation View Answer
d) The logical design of the database system Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: a 26. Which of the following cannot be used to modify the
data in a database?
18. The schema for the relationship set linking a weak a) delete
entity set to its corresponding strong entity set is b) update
redundant. c) drop
a) False d) insert
b) True View Answer
View Answer Answer: c.
Answer: b 27. Observe the given SQL query and choose the correct
option.
19. Which of the following information does the SELECT database_name, RDBMS (DISTINCT
database system catalog store? bankuser_name)
a) Number of blocks FROM depositor, account
b) Size of a tuple of a relation WHERE depositor.account_number =
c) Number of tuples account.account_number
d) All of the mentioned GROUP BY branch_id
View Answer a) The query is syntactically correct and gives the correct
Answer: d answer
b) The query is syntactically wrong
20. If the database modifications occur while the c) The query is syntactically correct but gives the wrong
transaction is still active, the transaction is said to use answer
the __________ modification technique d) The query contains one or more wrongly named
a) Immediate clauses
b) Deferred View Answer
c) More than one of the mentioned Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 28. for each tuple tr in r do begin
Answer: a FOR each tuple ts IN s do BEGIN
test pair (tr , ts ) TO see IF they satisfy the JOIN
21. If a transaction does not modify the database until it condition _
has committed it is said to use a _______ modification IF they do, ADD tr • ts TO the RESULT;
technique END
a) Immediate END
b) Deferred What type of join is this?
c) More than one of the mentioned a) Block nested loop join
d) None of the mentioned b) Nested loop join
View Answer c) Hash join
Answer: b d) Equi join
View Answer
22. The dependency rules specified by the database Answer: b
designer are known as _______
a) Functional dependencies 29. Choose the correct option regarding the query
b) Designer dependencies SELECT branch_name, COUNT (DISTINCT
c) Database rules customer_name)
d) None of the mentioned FROM depositor, account
View Answer WHERE depositor.account_number =
Answer: a account.account_number
GROUP BY branch_id
23. During the _______ phase, the local variables that HAVING avg(balance) = 10000;
hold the write operations are copied to the database a) The having clause allows only those tuples that have
a) Validation phase an average balance of 10000
b) Write phase b) The having clause checks whether the query result is
c) Read phase true or not
d) None of the mentioned c) The having clause does not check for any condition
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: a
24. What is the format of entering date into a database
while inserting data into it?
a) “YYYY-MM-DD”
b) YYYY-MM-DD HTML MCQ
c) “DD-MM-YYYY”
d) ‘YYYY-MM-DD’ 1. What is HTML?
View Answer a) HTML describes the structure of a webpage
Answer: d b) HTML is the standard markup language mainly used
to create web pages
25. What does the following query do? c) HTML consists of a set of elements that helps the
30
browser how to view the content 10. Which element is used to get highlighted text in
d) All of the mentioned HTML5?
View Answer a) <u>
Answer: d b) <mark>
c) <highlight>
2. Who is the father of HTML? d) <b>
a) Rasmus Lerdorf View Answer
b) Tim Berners-Lee Answer: b
c) Brendan Eich
d) Sergey Brin 11. Which of the following is not a HTML5 tag?
View Answer a) <track>
Answer: b b) <video>
c) <slider>
3. HTML stands for __________ d) <source>
a) HyperText Markup Language View Answer
b) HyperText Machine Language Answer: c
c) HyperText Marking Language
d) HighText Marking Language 12. How do we write comments in HTML?
View Answer a) </…….>
Answer: a b) <!……>
c) </……/>
4. What is the correct syntax of doctype in HTML5? d) <…….!>
a) </doctype html> View Answer
b) <doctype html> Answer: b
c) <doctype html!>
d) <!doctype html> 13. Which of the following elements in HTML5 defines
View Answer video or movie content?
Answer: d a) <video>
b) <movie>
5. Which of the following is used to read an HTML page c) <audio>
and render it? d) <media>
a) Web server View Answer
b) Web network Answer: a
c) Web browser
d) Web matrix 14. Which of the following is not the element associated
View Answer with the HTML table layout?
Answer: c a) alignment
b) color
6. Which of the following is not a difference between c) size
HTML and XHTML? d) spanning
a) Charset in both html and xhtml is “text/html” View Answer
b) Tags and attributes are case-insensitive in HTML but Answer: b
not in XHTML
c) Special characters must be escaped using character 15. Which element is used for or styling HTML5 layout?
entities in XHTML unlike HTML a) CSS
d) Charset in html is “text/html” where as in xhtml it is b) jQuery
“application/xml+xhtml” c) JavaScript
View Answer d) PHP
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: a
7. Which of the following tag is used for inserting the
largest heading in HTML? 16. Which HTML tag is used for making character
a) head appearance bold?
b) <h1> a) <u>content</u>
c) <h6> b) <b>content</b>
d) heading c) <br>content</br>
View Answer d) <i>content</i>
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: b
8. What is DOM in HTML?
a) Language dependent application programming 17. Which HTML tag is used to insert an image?
b) Hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET a) <img url=”htmllogo.jpg” />
c) Application programming interface b) <img alt=”htmllogo.jpg” />
d) Convention for representing and interacting with c) <img src=”htmllogo.jpg” />
objects in html documents d) <img link=”htmllogo.jpg” />
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: c

9. In which part of the HTML metadata is contained? 18. HTML is a subset of ___________
a) head tag a) SGMT
b) title tag b) SGML
c) html tag c) SGME
d) body tag d) XHTML
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: b

31
19. Which character is used to represent when a tag is Answer: a
closed in HTML?
a) # 26. Which of the following HTML tag is used to add a
b) ! row in a table?
c) / a) <th>
d) \ b) <td>
View Answer c) <tr>
Answer: c d) <tt>
View Answer
20. Which of the following HTML code will make an Answer: c
image clickable?
a) 27. What is the work of <address> element in HTML5?
<a href="https://www.sanfoundry.com/">Sanfoundry a) contains IP address
Home Page</a> b) contains home address
b) c) contains url
<img src="https://www.sanfoundry.com/sanfoundry- d) contains contact details for author
logo"> View Answer
<a href="https://www.sanfoundry.com/">Sanfoundry Answer: d
Home Page</a>
</img> 28. Which of the following tag is used to create a text
c) area in HTML Form?
<a href="https://www.sanfoundry.com/">Sanfoundry a) <textarea> </textarea>
Home Page</a> b) <text></text>
<img src="https://www.sanfoundry.com/sanfoundry- c) <input type=”text” />
logo" /> d) <input type=”textarea” />
d) View Answer
<a href="https://www.sanfoundry.com/"><img Answer: a
src="https://www.sanfoundry.com/sanfoundry-logo"
/></a> 29. To show deleted text, which HTML element is used?
View Answer a) <del>
Answer: d b) <em>
c) <strong>
d) <ins>
View Answer
21. Among the following, which is the HTML paragraph Answer: a
tag?
a) <p> 30. What is the correct syntax of web address?
b) <pre> a) port://domain.filenmae:path/scheme/prefix
c) <hr> b) prefix://scheme.port:domain/filename/path
d) <a> c) path://prefix.port:domain/filename/scheme
View Answer d) scheme://prefix.domain:port/path/filename
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: d
22. In HTML, which attribute is used to create a link that
opens in a new window tab? 31. Which tag is used to create a dropdown in HTML
a) src=”_blank” Form?
b) alt=”_blank” a) <input>
c) target=”_self” b) <select>
d) target=”_blank” c) <text>
View Answer d) <textarea>
Answer: d View Answer
Answer: b
23. Which HTML element is used for short quote?
a) <em> 32. Which tag is used to create a numbered list in
b) <abbr> HTML?
c) <q> a) <ol>
d) <blockquote> b) <ul>
View Answer c) <li>
Answer: c d) <ll>
View Answer
24. Which of the following HTML tag is used to create Answer: a
an unordered list? Syntax: <ol> Ordered List Items </ol>
a) <ol> 33. How to create a checkbox in HTML Form?
b) <ul> a) <input type=”text”>
c) <li> b) <input type=”textarea”>
d) <ll> c) <input type=”checkbox”>
View Answer d) <input type=”button”>
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: c
25. Which HTML element is used for abbreviation or
acronym? 34. How to insert Hyperlink in HTML Page?
a) <abbr> a)
b) <blockquote> <a href="https://www.sanfoundry.com/1000-html-
c) <q> questions-answers/">HTML MCQ</a>
d) <em> b)
View Answer
32
<a target="https://www.sanfoundry.com/1000-html- Answer: c
questions-answers/" HTML Quiz />
c) 43. Which of the following is an HTML specification
<a src="https://www.sanfoundry.com/1000-html- used to add more information to HTML tags?
questions-answers/">HTML Test</a> a) Modifydata
d) b) Minidata
<a>https://www.sanfoundry.com/1000-html-questions- c) Macrodata
answers/</a> d) Microdata
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d

35. Which of the following extension is used to save an 44. Which HTML element is used for YouTube videos?
HTML file? a) <samp>
a) .hl b) <small>
b) .h c) <frame>
c) .htl d) <iframe>
d) .html View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: d
45. Which of the following HTML element is used for
36. Which tag is used to create a blank line in HTML? canvas graphics?
a) <b> a) <css>
b) <br> b) <paint>
c) <em> c) <canvas>
d) <a> d) <graphic>
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c

37. Which HTML tag is used to convert the plain text

into italic format? CSS MCQ
a) <b>
b) <p> 1. What is CSS?
c) <i> a) CSS is a style sheet language
d) <a> b) CSS is designed to separate the presentation and
View Answer content, including layout, colors, and fonts
Answer: c c) CSS is the language used to style the HTML
documents
38. What is the use of <hr/> tag in HTML? d) All of the mentioned
a) For making content appearance italics View Answer
b) To create vertical rule between sections Answer: d
c) To create a line break
d) To create horizontal rule between sections 2. Which of the following tag is used to embed css in
View Answer html page?
Answer: d a) <css>
b) <!DOCTYPE html>
39. Which attribute is not essential under <iframe>? c) <script>
a) frameborder d) <style>
b) width View Answer
c) height Answer: d
d) src
View Answer 3. Which of the following CSS selectors are used to
Answer: a specify a group of elements?
a) tag
40. Which works similar to <b> element? b) id
a) <blockquote> c) class
b) <strong> d) both class and tag
c) <em> View Answer
d) <i> Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: b 4. Which of the following has introduced text, list, box,
margin, border, color, and background properties?
41. Which tag is used to underline the text in HTML? a) HTML
a) <p> b) PHP
b) <u> c) CSS
c) <i> d) Ajax
d) <ul> View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Answer: b
5. Which of the following CSS framework is used to
42. Which attribute specifies a unique alphanumeric create a responsive design?
identifier to be associated with an element? a) django
a) type b) rails
b) article c) larawell
c) id d) bootstrap
d) class View Answer
View Answer
33
Answer: d Answer: a

6. Which of the following CSS selector is used to specify 14. Which of the following is the first CSS specification
a rule to bind a particular unique element? to become an official W3C Recommendation?
a) tag a) CSS level 2
b) id b) (X)HTML CSS
c) class c) CSS level 1
d) both class and tag d) CSS level 2.1
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c

7. Which of the following type of HTML tag is used to 15. Which of the following function defines a linear
define an internal style sheet? gradient as a CSS image?
a) <script> a) gradient()
b) <link> b) linear-gradient()
c) <class> c) grayscale()
d) <style> d) image()
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: b

8. Which of the following CSS property is used to make 16. Which of the following CSS property can be used to
the text bold? set the image as a border instead of the border style?
a) text-decoration: bold a) background-image-source
b) font-weight: bold b) background-image
c) font-style: bold c) border-image-source
d) text-align: bold d) border-image
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c

9. What will be the output of following CSS code 17. Which of the following CSS property defines the
snippet? different properties of all four sides of an element’s
h1 {color: "green";} border in a single declaration?
a) nothings happen a) border-collapse
b) error occurs b) border-width
c) heading becomes dark-green c) padding
d) heading becomes green d) border
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: b.
18. Which of the following is the correct way to apply
10. Which of the following CSS style property is used to CSS Styles?
specify an italic text? a) in an external CSS file
a) style b) inside an HTML element
b) font c) inside the <head> section of an HTML page
c) font-style d) all of the mentioned
d) @font-face View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: c
19. Which of the following CSS property sets the font
11. What will be the output of following CSS code size of text?
snippet? a) font-size
h1 {color: red text-decoration: underline; font-style: b) text-size
italic;} c) text
a) color: red, text-decoration: underline works d) size
b) only font-style: italic works View Answer
c) color: red, text-decoration: underline and font-style: Answer: a
italic all works
d) text-decoration: underline and font-style: italic works 20. Which of the following is not the property of the
View Answer CSS box model?
Answer: b a) margin
b) color
12. Which of the following are the CSS Extension c) width
Prefixes for Webkit? d) height
a) -chrome View Answer
b) -web Answer: b
c) -o-
d) -webkit 21. Which of the following CSS property sets what kind
View Answer of line decorations are added to an element, such as
Answer: d underlines, overlines, etc?
a) text-decoration
13. Which of the following is the correct syntax to link b) text-style
an external style sheet in the HTML file? c) text-decoration-line
a) <link rel=”stylesheet” href=”style.css” /> d) text-line
b) <link rel=”stylesheet” src=”style.css” /> View Answer
c) <style rel=”stylesheet” src=”style.css” /> Answer: c
d) <style rel=”stylesheet” link=”style.css” />
View Answer
34
22. Which of the following CSS property specifies the d) none of the mentioned
look and design of an outline? View Answer
a) outline-style Answer: c
b) outline-format
c) outline-font 30. Which of the following property is used to align the
d) none of the mentioned text in a table?
View Answer a) text-align
Answer: a b) align
c) text
23. What will be the output of the following CSS code d) none of the mentioned
snippet? View Answer
span { Answer: a
border: 1px solid red;
outline: green dotted thick; 31. Which of the following CSS Property sets the
} stacking order of positioned elements?
a) All span elements will have a green thick border and a a) y-index
red outline b) z-index
b) All span elements will have a red border and a green c) x-index
dotted outline d) all of the mentioned
c) All span elements will have a outer green dotted View Answer
border and an inner red border Answer: b
d) All span elements will have an outer red border and
inner green dotted border 32. What will be the output of the following CSS code?
View Answer div {
Answer: c border-width:5px;
border-style:dotted solid double dashed;
24. Which of the following CSS property sets the }
shadow for a box element? a) Box having dotted bottom outline, solid right outline,
a) set-shadow double top outline and dashed left outline
b) box-shadow b) Box having dotted bottom outline, solid left outline,
c) shadow double top outline and dashed left outline
d) canvas-shadow c) Box having dotted top outline, solid right outline,
View Answer double bottom outline and dashed left outline
Answer: b d) Box having dotted top outline, solid left outline,
double bottom outline and dashed right outline
25. Which of the following CSS property is used to set View Answer
the color of the text? Answer: c
a) text-decoration
b) pallet 33. Which of the following property allows a marquee to
c) colour be used in the case of a text-overflow?
d) color a) overflow-marquee
View Answer b) overflow-style
Answer: d c) overflow-text
d) none of the mentioned
26. Which of the following CSS Property controls how View Answer
an element is positioned? Answer: b
a) static
b) position 34. Which of the following CSS property defines the
c) fix space between cells in a table?
d) set a) border-spacing
View Answer b) border-style
Answer: b c) border
d) none of the mentioned
27. Which of the following CSS selector selects the View Answer
elements that are checked? Answer: a
a) :checked
b) E ~ F 35. Which of the following CSS3 property can be used
c) ::after to allow line breaks within words?
d) none of the mentioned a) line-break
View Answer b) line-wrap
Answer: a c) word-wrap
d) word-break
28. Which of the following is an appropriate value for View Answer
the overflow element? Answer: d
a) scroll
b) hidden
c) auto Cyber Security MCQ
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer 1. What is Cyber Security?
Answer: d a) Cyber Security provides security against malware
b) Cyber Security provides security against cyber-
29. Which of the following CSS property is used to terrorists
specify table borders in CSS? c) Cyber Security protects a system from cyber attacks
a) table:border d) All of the mentioned
b) table View Answer
c) border
35
Answer: d Answer: d

2. What does cyber security protect? 11. Which of the following is not an advantage of cyber
a) Cyber security protects criminals security?
b) Cyber security protects internet-connected systems a) Makes the system slower
c) Cyber security protects hackers b) Minimizes computer freezing and crashes
d) None of the mentioned c) Gives privacy to users
View Answer d) Protects system against viruses
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: a
3. Who is the father of computer security?
a) August Kerckhoffs 12. “Cyberspace” was coined by _________
b) Bob Thomas a) Richard Stallman
c) Robert b) William Gibson
d) Charles c) Andrew Tannenbaum
View Answer d) Scott Fahlman
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: b
4. Which of the following is defined as an attempt to
steal, spy, damage or destroy computer systems, 13. In which year has hacking become a practical crime
networks, or their associated information? and a matter of concern in the field of cyber technology?
a) Cyber attack a) 1991
b) Computer security b) 1983
c) Cryptography c) 1970
d) Digital hacking d) 1964
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: c

5. Which of the following is a type of cyber security? 14. Governments hired some highly skilled hackers for
a) Cloud Security providing cyber security for the country or state. These
b) Network Security types of hackers are termed as _______
c) Application Security a) Nation / State sponsored hackers
d) All of the above b) CIA triad
View Answer c) Special Hackers
Answer:d d) Government Hackers
View Answer
6. What are the features of cyber security? Answer: a
a) Compliance
b) Defense against internal threats 15. Which of the following act violates cyber security?
c) Threat Prevention a) Exploit
d) All of the above b) Attack
View Answer c) Threat
Answer: d d) Vulnerability
View Answer
7. Which of the following is an objective of network Answer: b
security?
a) Confidentiality 16. Which of the following actions compromise cyber
b) Integrity security?
c) Availability a) Vulnerability
d) All of the above b) Attack
View Answer c) Threat
Answer: d d) Exploit
View Answer
8. Which of the following is not a cybercrime? Answer: c
a) Denial of Service
b) Man in the Middle 17. Which of the following is the hacking approach
c) Malware where cyber-criminals design fake websites or pages for
d) AES tricking or gaining additional traffic?
View Answer a) Pharming
Answer: d b) Website-Duplication
c) Mimicking
9. Which of the following is a component of cyber d) Spamming
security? View Answer
a) Internet Of Things Answer: a
b) AI
c) Database 18. Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer
d) Attacks cyber-crime?
View Answer a) MiTM
Answer: a b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) Credit card details leak in the deep web
10. Which of the following is a type of cyber attack? d) Phishing
a) Phishing View Answer
b) SQL Injections Answer: c
c) Password Attack
d) All of the above 19. A cyber-criminal or penetration tester uses the
View Answer additional data that stores certain special instructions in
36
the memory for activities to break the system in which of a) Exfiltration
the following attack? b) Research and info-gathering
a) Clickjacking c) Attack the system
b) Buffer-overflow d) Fixing the bugs
c) Phishing View Answer
d) MiTM Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: b 28. Which of the following online service’s privacy
cannot be protected using Tor?
20. Which of the following do Cyber attackers a) Browsing data
commonly target for fetching IP address of a target or b) Instant messaging
victim user? c) Login using ID
a) ip tracker d) Relay chats
b) emails View Answer
c) websites Answer: c
d) web pages
View Answer 29. Which of the following term refers to a group of
Answer: c hackers who are both white and black hat?
a) Yellow Hat hackers
21. Which of the following is defined as an attempt to b) Grey Hat hackers
harm, damage or cause threat to a system or network? c) Red Hat Hackers
a) Digital crime d) White-Black Hat Hackers
b) Threats View Answer
c) System hijacking Answer: b
d) Cyber Attack
View Answer 30. Which of the following is not an email-related
Answer: d hacking tool?
a) Mail Password
22. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is b) Email Finder Pro
to gain financial profit by doing cyber crimes. Who are c) Mail PassView
“they” referred to here? d) Sendinc
a) White Hat Hackers View Answer
b) Black Hat Hackers Answer: d
c) Hactivists
d) Gray Hat Hackers 30. Which of the following DDoS in mobile systems
View Answer wait for the owner to trigger the cyber attack?
Answer: b a) botnets
b) programs
23. IT security in any firm or organization is maintained c) virus
and handled by ____________________ d) worms
a) Software Security Specialist View Answer
b) CEO of the organization Answer: a
c) Security Auditor
d) IT Security Engineer 31. Which of the following is the least strong security
View Answer encryption standard?
Answer: d a) WPA3
b) WPA2
24. Where did the term “hacker” originate? c) WPA
a) MIT d) WEP
b) New York University View Answer
c) Harvard University Answer: d
d) Bell’s Lab
View Answer 32. Which of the following is a Stuxnet?
Answer: a a) Trojan
b) Antivirus
25. What is the existence of weakness in a system or c) Worm
network is known as? d) Virus
a) Attack View Answer
b) Exploit Answer: c
c) Vulnerability
d) Threat 33. Which of the following ethical hacking technique is
View Answer used for determining which operating system (OS) is
Answer: c running on a remote computer?
a) Operating System fingerprinting
26. Which of the following is an internet scam done by b) Operating System penetration testing
cyber-criminals where the user is convinced digitally to c) Digital-printing
provide confidential information. d) Machine printing
a) MiTM attack View Answer
b) Phishing attack Answer: a
c) Website attack
d) DoS attack 34. Which of the following can diminish the chance of
View Answer data leakage?
Answer: b a) Steganography
b) Chorography
27. Which of the following is not a step followed by c) Cryptography
cyber-criminals in data breaching?
37
d) Authentication Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: a 8. If an exception is raised and the succeeding
instructions are executed completely, then the processor
is said to have ______
Computer Organization and a) Generation word
b) Exception handling
Architecture MCQ c) Imprecise exceptions
d) None of the mentioned
1. What is computer architecture? View Answer
a) set of categories and methods that specify the Answer: c
functioning, organisation, and implementation of
computer systems 9. To reduce the memory access time we generally make
b) set of principles and methods that specify the use of ______
functioning, organisation, and implementation of a) SDRAM’s
computer systems b) Heaps
c) set of functions and methods that specify the c) Cache’s
functioning, organisation, and implementation of d) Higher capacity RAM’s
computer systems View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: b 10. The IA-32 system follows which of the following
design?
2. What is computer organization? a) CISC
a) structure and behaviour of a computer system as b) SIMD
observed by the user c) RISC
b) structure of a computer system as observed by the d) None of the mentioned
developer View Answer
c) structure and behaviour of a computer system as Answer: a
observed by the developer
d) All of the mentioned 11. Which of the following architecture is suitable for a
View Answer wide range of data types?
Answer: a a) IA-32
b) ARM
3. Which of the following is a type of computer c) ASUS firebird
architecture? d) 68000
a) Microarchitecture View Answer
b) Harvard Architecture Answer: a
c) Von-Neumann Architecture
d) All of the mentioned 12. In IA-32 architecture along with the general flags,
View Answer which of the following conditional flags are provided?
Answer: d a) TF
b) IOPL
4. Which of the following is a type of architecture used c) IF
in the computers nowadays? d) All of the mentioned
a) Microarchitecture View Answer
b) Harvard Architecture Answer: d
c) Von-Neumann Architecture
d) System Design 13. The VLIW architecture follows _____ approach to
View Answer achieve parallelism.
Answer: c a) SISD
b) MIMD
5. Which of the following is the subcategories of c) MISD
computer architecture? d) SIMD
a) Microarchitecture View Answer
b) Instruction set architecture Answer: b
c) Systems design
d) All of the mentioned 14. What does VLIW stands for?
View Answer a) Very Long Instruction Width
Answer: d b) Very Large Instruction Word
c) Very Long Instruction Width
d) Very Long Instruction Word
6. Which of the architecture is power efficient? View Answer
a) RISC Answer: d
b) ISA
c) IANA 15. In CISC architecture most of the complex
d) CISC instructions are stored in _____
View Answer a) CMOS
Answer: a b) Register
c) Transistors
7. What does CSA stands for? d) Diodes
a) Computer Service Architecture View Answer
b) Computer Speed Addition Answer: c
c) Carry Save Addition
d) None of the mentioned 16. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been
View Answer developed to reduce the ______
38
a) Time delay d) Latch
b) Semantic gap View Answer
c) Cost Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 25. The difference in the address and data connection
Answer: b between DRAM’s and SDRAM’s is _______
a) The requirement of more address lines in SDRAM’s
17. ________ are the different type/s of generating b) The usage of a buffer in SDRAM’s
control signals. c) The usage of more number of pins in SDRAM’s
a) Hardwired d) None of the mentioned
b) Micro-instruction View Answer
c) Micro-programmed Answer: b
d) Both Micro-programmed and Hardwired
View Answer 26. The chip can be disabled or cut off from an external
Answer: d connection using ______
a) ACPT
18. If the instruction Add R1, R2, R3 is executed in a b) RESET
system which is pipelined, then the value of S is (Where c) LOCK
S is term of the Basic performance equation). d) Chip select
a) 2 View Answer
b) ~1 Answer: d
c) ~7
d) 2 27. The controller multiplexes the addresses after getting
View Answer the _____ signal.
Answer: b a) INTR
b) ACK
19. The small extremely fast, RAM’s all called as c) RESET
________ d) Request
a) Heaps View Answer
b) Accumulators Answer: d
c) Stacks
d) Cache 28. The data is transferred over the RAMBUS as
View Answer _______
Answer: d a) Blocks
b) Swing voltages
20. For a given FINITE number of instructions to be c) Bits
executed, which architecture of the processor provides d) Packets
for a faster execution? View Answer
a) ANSA Answer: b
b) Super-scalar
c) ISA 29. The memory devices which are similar to EEPROM
d) All of the mentioned but differ in the cost effectiveness is ______
View Answer a) CMOS
Answer: b b) Memory sticks
c) Blue-ray devices
21. What is the full form of ISA? d) Flash memory
a) Industry Standard Architecture View Answer
b) International Standard Architecture Answer: d
c) International American Standard
d) None of the mentioned 30. The flash memory modules designed to replace the
View Answer functioning of a hard disk is ______
Answer: c a) RIMM
b) FIMM
22. Which of the following is the fullform of CISC? c) Flash drives
a) Complex Instruction Sequential Compilation d) DIMM
b) Complete Instruction Sequential Compilation View Answer
c) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler Answer: c
d) Complex Instruction Set Computer
View Answer 31. The drawback of building a large memory with
Answer: d DRAM is ______________
a) The Slow speed of operation
23. The reason for the cells to lose their state over time is b) The large cost factor
________ c) The inefficient memory organisation
a) Use of Shift registers d) All of the mentioned
b) The lower voltage levels View Answer
c) Usage of capacitors to store the charge Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 32. In a 4M-bit chip organisation has a total of 19
Answer: c external connections, then it has _______ address if 8
data lines are there.
24. In order to read multiple bytes of a row at the same a) 2
time, we make use of ______ b) 5
a) Memory extension c) 9
b) Cache d) 8
c) Shift register View Answer

39
Answer: c Answer: b

33. What does ISO stands for? 3. Which of the following are the features of Computer
a) International Software Organisation Graphics?
b) Industrial Software Organisation a) Creation and deletion of images by computer only
c) International Standards Organisation b) Deletion and manipulation of graphical images by
d) Industrial Standards Organisation computer
View Answer c) Creation and manipulation of graphics by computer
Answer: c d) Creation of artificial images by computer only
View Answer
34. The bit used to signify that the cache location is Answer: c
updated is ________
a) Flag bit 4. Which of the following is a Computer Graphics type?
b) Reference bit a) Raster and Vector
c) Update bit b) Raster and Scalar
d) Dirty bit c) Scalar only
View Answer d) All of the above
Answer: d View Answer
Answer: a
35. During a write operation if the required block is not
present in the cache then ______ occurs. 5. Which of the following plane is used for 2D
a) Write miss transformations?
b) Write latency a) Three-dimensional plane
c) Write hit b) Two-dimensional plane
d) Write delay c) One-dimensional plane
View Answer d) Four-dimensional Plane
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: b
36. While using the direct mapping technique, in a 16 bit
system the higher order 5 bits are used for ________ 6. Which of the following is a Computer Graphics
a) Id Curve?
b) Word a) Bezier Curves
c) Tag b) Implicit Curves
d) Block c) Explicit Curves
View Answer d) All of the above
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: d
37. The bit used to indicate whether the block was
recently used or not is _______ 7. Who is the first user of computer graphics?
a) Reference bit a) William Fetter
b) Dirty bit b) Ivan Edward Sutherland
c) Control bit c) Ada Lovelace
d) Idol bit d) Nicholas Williams
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: a

38. The number successful accesses to memory stated as 8. Which of the following is the purpose for using
a fraction is called as _____ clipping in computer graphics?
a) Access rate a) copying
b) Success rate b) zooming
c) Hit rate c) adding graphics
d) Miss rate d) removing objects and lines
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d

9. In a graphical system, an array of pixels in the picture

Computer Graphics MCQ are stored in which of the following locations?
a) Frame buffer
1. Which of the following statements define Computer b) Processor
Graphics? c) Memory
a) It refers to designing plans d) All of the mentioned
b) It means designing computers View Answer
c) It refers to designing images Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer 10. Curves in computer graphics is primarily used for
Answer: c which of the following function?
a) To draw different types of objects onto the screen
2. Among the given scientists/inventor who is known as b) Zooming out a picture
the father of Computer Graphics? c) Copying a picture
a) Nikola Tesla d) Zooming in a picture
b) Ivan Sutherland View Answer
c) Ada Lovelace Answer: a
d) Marie Curie
View Answer 11. __________ types of translation are present in
computer graphics.
a) 5
40
b) 3 d) Screen co-ordinate system
c) 4 View Answer
d) 6 Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: b 20. Which of the following operations can be used to
zoom in or out around any axis on a three-dimensional
12. Bitmap is a collection of ____________ that object from its original position?
describes an image. a) Rotation
a) pixels b) Shearing
b) algorithms c) Scaling
c) bits d) Translation
d) colors View Answer
View Answer Answer: c
Answer: a
21. Among the following process, which process is
13. Which of the following devices provides positional known as the elimination of parts of a scene outside a
information to the graphics system? window or a viewport?
a) Pointing devices a) editing
b) Both Input devices and Pointing devices b) plucking
c) Output devices c) cutting
d) Input devices d) clipping
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b 22. Viewing transformation is the process of mapping a
world window in World Coordinates to the Viewport.
14. Which of the following is defined as the number of a) False
pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system? b) True
a) Resalution View Answer
b) Resolution Answer: b
c) Depth
d) None of the mentioned 23. Which of the following is defined as the drawing of
View Answer number of copies of the same image in rows and
Answer: b columns across the interface window so that they cover
the entire window?
15. Which of the following is a primary output device of a) Zooming
a graphics system? b) Panning
a) Printer c) Tiling
b) Scanner d) Roaming
c) Video monitor View Answer
d) Neither Scanner nor Video monitor Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: c 24. How many axes do 3D graphics consist of?
a) Two axes
16. Which of the following is used in graphics b) Three axes
workstations as input devices to accept voice c) Five axes
commands? d) One axis
a) Speech recognizers View Answer
b) Touch panels Answer: b
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned 25. Which of the following is the most commonly used
View Answer boundary representation for a 3-dimensional graphics
Answer: a object?
a) Volume polygon
17. What is the use of voice system input? b) System polygon
a) To enter data c) Data polygon
b) To initiate graphics operation and also to enter data d) Surface polygon
c) To initiate graphics operation View Answer
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: b 26. Which of the following is the process of digitizing a
given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for
18. Which of the following is defined as the process of storage in the frame buffer?
elimination of parts of a scene outside a window or a a) Scan conversion
viewport? b) True color system
a) editing c) Encoding
b) cutting d) Rasterization
c) plucking View Answer
d) clipping Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: d 27. Which of the following is commonly known as
frame buffer on a black and white system with one bit
19. Which of the following is known as the window per pixel?
opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image a) Bitmap
will be displayed? b) Pix map
a) Interface window c) Multi map
b) World window d) All of the mentioned
c) World co-ordinate system View Answer
41
Answer: a c) Signal strength
d) Strip microphones
28. Which of the following algorithm is a faster method View Answer
for calculating pixel positions? Answer: a
a) Parallel line algorithm
b) Mid-point algorithm 37. Which of the following type of perspective
c) DDA line algorithm projection is also called “Angular Perspective”?
d) Bresenham’s line algorithm a) Four-Point
View Answer b) Three-point
Answer: c c) One-point
d) Two-point
29. If the boundary is specified in a single color, and if View Answer
the algorithm proceeds pixel by pixel until the boundary Answer: d
color is encountered is known as ____
a) Parallel curve algorithm 38. Which of the following type of perspective
b) Flood-fill algorithm projection is used in drawings of railway lines?
c) Scan-line fill algorithm a) Three-point
d) Boundary-fill algorithm b) Two-point
View Answer c) One-point
Answer: d d) Perspective projection is not used to draw railway
lines
30. Which of the following defines a pixel mask? View Answer
a) A string containing 1 and 0 Answer: c
b) A string containing 0 and 0
c) A string containing only 0’s 39. Which of the following representation represents a
d) A string containing only 1;s three-dimensional object?
View Answer a) Function
Answer: a b) Point
c) Polygon
31. What does an aspect ratio mean? d) Equation
a) Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points View Answer
b) Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points and Answer: d
horizontal points to vertical points
c) Number of pixels 40. Which part of a picture is considered and saved in
d) Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points exterior clipping?
View Answer a) We don’t consider the picture in exterior clipping
Answer: b b) Picture which is outside the view window
c) Picture which is inside the view window
32. Which of the following is a correct abbreviation of d) Picture which is on the edges of the view window
DDA algorithm? View Answer
a) Data differential analyzer Answer: b
b) Direct differential analyzer
c) Digital difference analyzer 41. Which of the following clipping process handles the
d) Digital differential analyzer clipping of strings?
View Answer a) Text Clipping
Answer: d b) Exterior Clipping
c) Curve Clipping
33. The Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides the region d) Shape Clipping
into how many spaces? View Answer
a) 9 Answer: a
b) 8
c) 7 42. Which of the following algorithm can be used to clip
d) 6 a polygon in 3D space?
View Answer a) Vatti Clipping Algorithm
Answer: a b) Polygon in 3D space cannot be clipped
c) Weiler Atherton Algorithm
34. The Cohen Sutherland algorithm is more efficient d) Greiner Hormann Clipping Algorithm
than the Liang-Barsky algorithm. View Answer
a) False Answer: c
b) True
View Answer 43. How is the line path on the polygon area for a 45%
Answer: a line?
a) Vertical
35. Which of the following is used for 3D positioning b) Horizontal
and modeling, animation, and other application? c) Centered
a) Spac ball d) None of the mentioned
b) Trackball View Answer
c) Space ball Answer: c
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 44. Which of the following is defined as the sampling of
Answer: c object characteristics at a high resolution and displaying
the result at a lower resolution?
36. Which of the following can be used to determine the a) Anti-aliasing
position on the data tablet? b) Super-sampling or Post-filtering
a) Either Signal strength or coded pulse c) Post-filtering
b) Coded pulse
42
d) Super-sampling d) Gauss Elimination
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: b

45. Which of the following is the correct full form of the 3. Solve the equations using Gauss Jordan method.
NLN line clipping algorithm? x+y+z=9
a) Nicholai-Lee-Nicholl algorithm 2x-3y+4z=13
b) Nicholl-Liang-Nicholl algorithm 3x+4y+5z=40
c) Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl algorithm a) x=1, y=3, z=7
d) Nicholai-Liang-Nicholl algorithm b) x=1, y=3, z=2
View Answer c) x=1, y=3, z=4
Answer: c d) x=1, y=3, z=5
View Answer
46. ‘Skala’ is an example of which of the following type Answer: d
of clipping?
a) polygon clipping 4. Errors may occur in performing numerical
b) line clipping computation on the computer due to which of the
c) curve clipping following reasons?
d) point clipping a) Operator fatigue
View Answer b) Back substitution
Answer: b c) Rounding errors
d) Power fluctuation
47. Which of the following is not a type of area View Answer
sampling? Answer: c
a) Point sampling
b) Weighted area sampling 5. Which of the following is also known as the Newton
c) Anti-aliasing Raphson method?
d) Unweighted area sampling a) Chord method
View Answer b) Tangent method
Answer: a c) Diameter method
d) Secant method
48. In which of the following method, fixed pattern of a View Answer
line is used to generate characters? Answer: b
a) Dot-matrix method
b) Bitmap method 6. If approximate solution of the set of equations, 2x+2y-
c) Stroke method z = 6, x+y+2z = 8 and -x+3y+2z = 4, is given by x = 2.8
d) Starbust method y = 1 and z = 1.8. Then, what is the exact solution?
View Answer a) x = 1, y = 3, z = 2
Answer: d b) x = 2, y = 3, z = 1
c) x = 3, y = 1, z = 2
49. Which of the following stores the picture information d) x = 1, y = 2, z = 2
as a charge distribution behind the phosphor-coated View Answer
screen? Answer: c
a) Direct-view storage tube
b) Flat panel displays 7. Which of the methods is a direct method for solving
c) 3D viewing device simultaneous algebraic equations?
d) Cathode ray tube a) Relaxation method
View Answer b) Gauss seidel method
Answer: a c) Jacobi’s method
d) Cramer’s rule
50. Which of the following device is designed to View Answer
minimize the background sound? Answer: d
a) Joystick
b) Data glove 8. What is the value of the determinant \(\
c) Microphone begin{pmatrix}3&5&2\\7&4&5\\1&2&3\
d) Digitizers end{pmatrix}\)?
View Answer a) -56
Answer: c b) -58
c) -54
d) -66
Numerical Methods MCQ View Answer
Answer: c
1. Numerical techniques more commonly involve
_______ 9. If EF exists, then (EF)-1 will be equal to which of the
a) Elimination method following?
b) Reduction method a) F-1 E-1
c) Iterative method b) E-1 F-1
d) Direct method c) EF
View Answer d) FE
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is an iterative method?
a) Gauss Seidel 10. Solve the following equations by Gauss Elimination
b) Gauss Jordan Method.
c) Factorization x+4y-z = -5
x+y-6z = -12
43
3x-y-z = 4 19. Apply Cramer’s rule to solve the following
a) x = 1.64491, y = 1.15085, z = 2.09451 equations.
b) x = 1.64691, y = 1.14095, z = 2.08461 x + y + z = 6.6
c) x = 1.65791, y = 1.14185, z = 2.08441 x – y + z = 2.2
d) x = 1.64791, y = 1.14085, z = 2.08451 x + 2y + 3z = 15.2
View Answer a) x = 1.2, y = 2.2, z = -3.2
Answer: d b) x = 1.2, y = 2, z = 3.2
c) x = 1.5, y = 2.2, z = -0.5
11. Which of the following is the advantage of using the d) x = 1.5, y = 2.2, z = -0.5
Gauss Jordan method? View Answer
a) Additional Calculations Answer: b
b) No labour of back substitution
c) More operations involved 20. Cramer’s Rule fails for ___________
d) Elimination is easier a) Determinant = 0
View Answer b) Determinant = non-real
Answer: b c) Determinant < 0
d) Determinant > 0
12. Apply Gauss Elimination method to solve the View Answer
following equations. Answer: a
2x – y + 3z = 9
x+y+z=6 21. Gauss Seidal method is also termed as a method of
x–y+z=2 _______
a) X = -13, y = 1, z = -8 a) Iterations
b) X = 13, y = 1, z = -8 b) False positions
c) X = -13, y = 4, z = 15 c) Successive displacement
d) X = 5, y = 14, z = 5 d) Eliminations
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: c

13. Matrix which does not have an inverse by solving it, 22. Solve the following equation by Gauss Seidal
is classified as which of the following? Method up to 2 iterations and find the value of z.
a) singular matrix 27x + 6y - z = 85
b) non-singular matrix 6x + 15y + 2z = 72
c) linear matrix x + y + 54z = 110
d) unidentified matrix a) 0
View Answer b) 1.92
Answer: a c) 1.88
d) 1.22
15. Which of the following transformations are allowed View Answer
in the Gauss Jordan method? Answer: b
a) Swapping a column
b) Swapping two rows 23. What is the condition applied in the factorization
c) Swapping two columns method?
d) Swapping a row a) There must exist a diagonal matrix form of the given
View Answer matrix
Answer: b b) Matrix should not be singular
c) All principal minors of the matrix should be non-
16. The Gauss Jordan method reduces a original matrix singular
into a _____________ d) Back substitution should be done
a) Skew Hermitian matrix View Answer
b) Non-symmetric matrix Answer: c
c) Identity matrix
d) Null matrix 24. A quadratic equation x4-x-8=0 is defined with an
View Answer initial guess of 1 and 2. Find the approximated value of
Answer: c x2 using Secant Method.
a) 1.571
17. Solve the given equations using Gauss Jordan b) 7.358
method. c) 7.853
3x+3y+3z=9 d) 7.538
6x-9y+12z=13 View Answer
9x+12y+15z=40 Answer: a
a) x=1, y=0.33, z=1.67
b) x=0.33, y=1, z=1.67 25. If the equation y = aebx can be written in linear form
c) x=0.33, y=1.67, z=1 Y=A + BX, what are Y, X, A, B?
d) x=1.67, y=1, z=0.33 a) Y = logy, A = a, B=logb and X=x
View Answer b) Y = y, A = a, B=logb and X=logx
Answer: b c) Y = y, A = a, B=b and X=x
d) Y = logy, A = loga, B=b and X=x
18. What is the other name for factorization method? View Answer
a) Muller’s Method Answer: d
b) Decomposition Method
c) Lin Bairstow Method 26. Secant Method is also called as?
d) Doolittle’s Method a) 5-point method
View Answer b) 2-point method
Answer: d c) 3-point method

44
d) 4-point method c) A clocked Moore circuit
View Answer d) A clocked Mealy circuit
31. The equation f(x) is given as x3+4x+1=0. View Answer
Considering the initial approximation at x=1 then the Answer: d
value of x1 is given as _______________
a) 1.85 6. Which of the following is an example of an iterative
b) 1.86 circuit?
c) 1.87 a) Half adder
d) 1.67 b) Comparator
View Answer c) ROM
Answer: b d) Full adder
View Answer
32. In Newton Raphson method if the curve f(x) is Answer: b
constant then __________
a) f(x)=0 7. Which of the following is used to code in a CPLD
b) f’(x)=c designing procedure?
c) f’’(x)=0 a) Python
d) f’(x)=0 b) C++
View Answer c) VHDL
Answer: d d) Assembly
View Answer
33. Which of these methods is named after the Answer: c
mathematician Carl Friedrich Gauss?
a) Gauss Jordan method 8. Which one of the following best describes a sequential
b) Runge Kutta method machine?
c) Secant method a) A mathematical model
d) Newton Raphson method b) A logic circuit
View Answer c) A Moore machine
Answer: a d) An electronic circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
Switching Circuits and Logic
9. 10. What are the possible values of the STD_LOGIC
Design MCQ data type?
a) 0, 1, 2
b) X, 0, 1, Z
1. Switches connected in parallel represent which c) 0, 1
operation? d) o to 9
a) NOT View Answer
b) AND Answer: b
c) OR
d) NAND 10. What is the characteristic feature of a flip-flop in
View Answer sequential logic circuits?
Answer: c a) Amplification
b) Feedback
2. What is the primary function of a switching circuit in c) Delay
digital logic design? d) Memory
a) Signal switching View Answer
b) Signal processing Answer: d
c) Signal modulation
d) Signal amplification
View Answer Basic Electronics Engineering
Answer: a
.
MCQ
3. What on the Flip-Flop symbol identifies it as a
positive edge triggered one? 1. What is the purpose of a transistor in electronic
a) Arrowhead with bubble on the clock input circuits?
b) Arrowhead on the clock input a) To regulate voltage
c) Plus sign b) To store data
d) Clk c) To filter noise
View Answer d) To amplify or switch electronic signals
Answer: b View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which counter counts both increments and
decrements? 2. Which type of semiconductor device acts as a one-
a) Up-Down Counter way valve for electric current?
b) Ring Counter a) Diode
c) Down Counter b) Inductor
d) Up Counter c) Transistor
View Answer d) Capacitor
Answer: a View Answer
. Answer: a
5. How can we classify a sequence generator circuit? .
a) A parity checker 3. What is the purpose of a transistor in electronic
b) A general sequential circuit circuits?
a) To filter noise
45
b) To amplify or switch electronic signals 12. Hall effect transducers are the non-contact devices
c) To regulate voltage with what?
d) To store data a) Low resolution
View Answer b) high resolution
Answer: b c) No resolution
d) Large size
View Answer
4. The fixed resistors restrict the flow of current up to Answer: b
what level?
a) Variable range 13. Which of the following parameters is not useful for
b) Any range characterizing the thermistor?
c) Certain level a) Temperature constant
d) Infinite level b) Resistance ratio
View Answer c) Dissipation constant
Answer: c d) Time constant
View Answer
5. Capacitance can be defined as the ratio of the electric Answer: a
charge on each conductor to what between them?
a) Potential difference 14. Which of the following is the asymmetric crystalline
b) Electric difference materials?
c) Potential energy a) Barium chloride
d) Voltage difference b) Barium nitrate
View Answer c) Barium titanite
Answer: a d) Sodium nitrate
View Answer
6. The ganged capacitor is the combination of what? Answer: c
a) One variable capacitor and one polarized capacitor
b) One fixed capacitor and one variable capacitor 15. Which of the following is an impurity added in a
c) Two fixed capacitors semiconductor to make it a P-Type semiconductor?
d) Two variable capacitors a) Indium
View Answer b) Gallium
Answer: d c) Boron
d) Antimony
7. What is the function of an inductor? View Answer
a) Makes the change in current Answer: d
b) Allows the constant current
c) Oppose the change in current 16. What is the layer called, when majority carriers of
d) Allows the change in current both the parts of the diode accumulate at the junction the
View Answer layer?
Answer: c a) Heterojunction Layer
b) Depletion Layer
8. If the inductance increases then which of the c) Diffusion Layer
following don’t increase? d) Combination Layer
a) Cross sectional area View Answer
b) Frequency Answer: b
c) No of windings
d) Permeability 17. In a given semiconductor at T = 300K, the electron
View Answer concentration varies linearly from n = 1012 cm−3 to n =
Answer: b 1016 cm−3 over the distance from x = 0 to x = 3 μm and
Dn = 35 cm2/s. What is the diffusion current density?
9. Which of the following is the active transducer? a) 187 A/m3
a) Capacitance b) 211 A/m3
b) Thermistor c) 170 A/m3
c) Resistance d) 145 A/m3
d) Thermocouple View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: d
18. What type of device is a diode?
10. Which of the following is the most widely used a) Isolated
inductance transducer? b) inappropriate
a) Linear variable differential transformer c) Unidirectional
b) Linear variable transformer d) Bidirectional
c) Linear integrated transformer View Answer
d) Linear differential transformer Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a 19. Zener diode in reverse bias state has a controlled
breakdown that allows current to keep the voltage close
11. The temperature coefficient is linear over a large to which of the following?
range of temperature for which material? a) Threshold voltage
a) Copper b) Zener breakdown voltage
b) Tungsten c) Conduction voltage
c) Platinum d) Knee voltage
d) Nickel View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: c

46
20. Which of the below is widely used, in the application 8. Which of the following helps in reducing the energy
of Zener diodes? consumption of the embedded system?
a) Shunt regulator a) emulator
b) Series regulator b) debugger
c) Rectifiers c) simulator
d) Clamper d) compilers
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d

9. What is the purpose of memory refresh register of

Embedded Systems MCQ Z80?
a) To control on-chip SRAM
1. Which memory storage is widely used in PCs and b) To control on-chip DRAM
Embedded Systems? c) To clear cache
a) EEPROM d) To control ROM
b) Flash memory View Answer
c) SRAM Answer: b
d) DRAM
View Answer 10. What does MESI stand for?
Answer: d a) modified exclusive system input
b) modifies embedded shared invalid
2. How is the protection and security for an embedded c) modified exclusive shared invalid
system made? d) modified exclusive stale invalid
a) Security chips View Answer
b) Memory disk security Answer: c
c) IPR
d) OTP 11. Which of the following is the pin efficient method of
View Answer communicating between other devices?
Answer: c a) memory port
b) peripheral port
3. Which of the following task swapping method is a c) parallel port
better choice in the embedded systems design? d) serial port
a) time slice View Answer
b) RMS Answer: d
c) cooperative multitasking
d) pre-emptive 12. Which of the following is a traditional method for
View Answer emulating the processor?
Answer: d a) CPU simulator
b) SDS
4. Which type of memory is suitable for low volume c) ICE
production of embedded systems? d) Low-level language simulator
a) Non-volatile View Answer
b) RAM Answer: c
c) Volatile
d) ROM 13. Which of the following unit protects the memory?
View Answer a) memory management unit
Answer: a b) peripheral unit
c) execution unit
5. Which activity is concerned with identifying the task d) bus interface unit
at the final embedded systems? View Answer
a) scheduling Answer: a
b) task-level concurrency management
c) high-level transformation 14. Identify the standard software components that can
d) compilation be reused in an embedded system design?
View Answer a) memory
Answer: b b) application software
c) application manager
6. Which level simulates the algorithms that are used d) operating system
within the embedded systems? View Answer
a) algorithmic level Answer: d
b) switch level
c) gate level 15. What does ICE stand for?
d) circuit level a) in-circuit EPOM
View Answer b) in-code emulation
Answer: a c) in-circuit emulation
d) in-code EPROM
7. How an embedded system communicate with the View Answer
outside world? Answer: c
a) Memory
b) Output 16. Who proposed the first power model?
c) Peripherals a) Tiwari
d) Input b) Russell and Jacome
View Answer c) Russell
Answer: c d) Jacome
View Answer

47
Answer: a a) coherency
b) memory access
17. Which of the following offers external chips for c) size
memory and peripheral interface circuits? d) delay
a) Embedded system View Answer
b) Peripheral system Answer: a
c) Microcontroller
d) Microprocessor 26. Which ports are used in the multi-master system to
View Answer avoid errors?
Answer: d a) bidirectional port
b) tridirectional port
18. What kind of socket does an external EPROM to c) multi directional port
plugged in for prototyping? d) unidirectional port
a) Piggyback reset socket View Answer
b) Multi-socket Answer: a
c) Piggyback
d) Single socket 27. Which provides an input clock for the receiver part
View Answer of the UART 8250?
Answer: c a) DDIS
b) MR
19. Which is the single device capable of providing c) RD
prototyping support for a range of microcontroller? d) RCLK
a) Umbrella device View Answer
b) OTP Answer: d
c) RAM
d) ROM 28. What does PCM stand for?
View Answer a) peculiar code modulation
Answer: a b) pulse codec machine
c) pulse code modulation
20. By which instruction does the switching of registers d) peripheral code machine
take place? View Answer
a) Register instruction Answer: c
b) EXX instruction
c) Instruction opcodes 29. Which of the following is the common method for
d) AXX instruction connecting the peripheral to the processor?
View Answer a) software
Answer: c b) exception
c) external interrupts
21. Which of the architecture is more complex? d) internal interrupts
a) MC68040 View Answer
b) MC68030 Answer: c
c) SPARC
d) 8086 30. What allows the data protection in the software
View Answer interrupt mechanism?
Answer: c a) TRAP
b) SWI
22. Which of the following statements are true for von c) Same mode
Neumann architecture? d) Different mode
a) separate bus between the program memory and data View Answer
memory Answer: d
b) external bus for program memory and data memory
c) external bus for data memory only 31. In which of the exceptions does the external event
d) shared bus between the program memory and data causes the exception?
memory a) precise
View Answer b) imprecise
Answer: d c) asynchronous exception
d) synchronous exception
23. What is approximate data access time of SRAM? View Answer
a) 2ns Answer: c
b) 10ns
c) 60ns 32. Which interrupts generate fast interrupt exception?
d) 4ns a) software interrupt
View Answer b) hardware interrupt
Answer: d c) internal interrupt
d) external interrupt
24. Which of the following is a plastic package used View Answer
primarily for DRAM? Answer: d
a) Zig-zag
b) DIMM 33. Which task swap method works in a regular periodic
c) SIMM point?
d) Dual-in-line a) cooperative multitasking
View Answer b) schedule algorithm
Answer: a c) pre-emption
d) time slice
25. Which of the following is the biggest challenge in View Answer
the cache memory design?
48
Answer: d Visual Basic MCQ
34. Which of the following is a part of RTOS kernel?
1. Who developed Visual Basic?
a) register
a) Symantec
b) ISR
b) Ashton-Tate
c) memory
c) Microsoft
d) input
d) Sybase
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c
E
35. Which provides the TCP/IP communication over the
2. Which of the following statement is used to define a
ethernet and FDDI?
class in visual basic?
a) pNA+ network manager
a) Event class statement
b) pSOS+
b) Class statement
c) pSOS+ kernel
c) Form class statement
d) pSOS+m
d) Event statement
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
36. What limits the amount of virtual memory in
3. Which of the following extension is used to represent
Windows 3.1?
the project file in Visual Basic?
a) static file
a) .vbp
b) dynamic file
b) .vb
c) nature of swap file
c) .cls
d) size of the swap file
d) .vvb
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a
37. Which one of the following offers CPUs as
4. If you keep a variable undeclared, it is automatically
integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
taken as to which of the following data type in Visual
a) Memory system
Basic?
b) Embedded system
a) Char
c) Microcontroller
b) Int
d) Microprocessor
c) Object
View Answer
d) String
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: c
38. Which algorithm is based on Jackson’s rule?
a) EDF
5. Which of the following applications can be developed
b) LST
using Visual Basic tool?
c) LL
a) Graphical User Interface
d) EDD
b) Real-time
View Answer
c) Character User Interface
Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
39. Which of the following does not have the ability to
Answer: a
get hundred individual signal cables into the probe in the
emulation technique?
6. In Visual Basic, which of the following is used for
a) JTAG
coding single-alternative and dual-alternative selection
b) ICE
structures?
c) BDM
a) Switch-Case block
d) OnCE
b) If…Then…Else statement
View Answer
c) function overloading
Answer: b
d) Recursion
View Answer
40. Which technique can solve the errors in the linear
Answer: b
buffer?
a) low and high water mark
7. What will be the output of the following Visual Basic
b) pointer
code, If the intnumber variable is 110?
c) high water mark
If intnumber<=100 Then
d) low water mark
Intnumber=intnumber*2;
View Answer
Else
Answer: a
Intnumber=intnumber*3;
EndIf
41. Which buffering mechanism is common to the SPOX
a) 180
operating system?
b) 330
a) directional buffer
c) 156
b) linear buffer
d) 270
c) single buffer
View Answer
d) buffer exchange
Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: d
8. In the Visual Basic application, which of the following
are listed in a properties window?
a) Items
b) Values
49
c) Attributes d) Close()
d) Objects View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: c
16. Object respond to an event by writing __________
9. What will be the output of the following Visual Basic a) Defining events
expression? b) Operations
Financial.Pmt (0.05, 3, 9000) c) Defining actions
a) -3043.88 d) Event procedures
b) -3034.88 View Answer
c) -3408.48 Answer: d
d) -3304.88
View Answer 17. What output will be returned if the following Visual
Answer: d Basic code is executed?
strVisualBasic = "Sanfoundry, VB.Net"
10. Which of the following is commonly used to perform intCharIndex = strVisualBasic.IndexOf("VB")
an immediate action when clicked in Visual Studio? a) 11
a) Button control b) 12
b) Close c) False
c) End d) True
d) Exit View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: a
18. What will be the output of the following Visual Basic
11. In the following Visual Basic code, what will be in code?
msg, if str contains “visual basic”? Dim intScores As Integer = {78, 83, 75, 90}
Dim str as String Array.Reverse(intScores)
Dim msg as String a) 78,75,83,90
If str.toUpper=”VISUAL BASIC” b) 90,75,83,78
msg=”VB.Net” c) 78, 83, 75,90
Else d) 75,78, 83,90
msg=”Not Visual Basic” View Answer
EndIf Answer: b
a) Bye
b) Hi 19. Which of the following is used to write a stream of
c) Logical Error characters in Visual Basic?
d) Compiler Error a) StreamReader object
View Answer b) StreamReader class
Answer: b c) StreamWriter object
d) StreamWriter class
12. Which of the following displays the list of projects View Answer
contained in the Visual Basic current solution? Answer: c
a) List Window
b) Project Window 20. What is the value of len in the following Visual Basic
c) Catalogue Window code?
d) Solution Explorer Window Dim strVB() As String = {"Sanfoundry", "Visual
View Answer Basic", "VB.Net", "Visual Studio"}
Answer: d Dim len As Integer
len = strVB.Length()
13. Which of the following method is used to sort an a) 3
array in visual basic? b) 5
a) Array.Sort() c) 4
b) Array.sortAscending() d) 0
c) Array.arrayArrange() View Answer
d) Array.arrange() Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a 21. Which of the following is the default name assigned
to the label control in Visual Basic?
14. Which of the following is the caption part for the a) Label1
following Visual Basic command? b) DefaultLabel
MessageBox.Show("Delete Visual c) Label0
Basic?","VB.Net",MessageBoxButtons.YesNo, d) NewLabel
MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation, View Answer
MessageBoxDefaultButton.Button2). Answer: a
a) MessageBoxButtons.YesNo
b) MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation 22. Which of the following toolbox is used to include an
c) “VB.Net” image on the Visual Basic form?
d) “Delete Visual Basic?” a) Add Image box
View Answer b) Picture Box
Answer: c c) Add Picture Box
d) Image box
15. Which of the following instruction tells the computer View Answer
to close the current form in Visual Basic? Answer: b
a) This.Close()
b) Me.Close() 23. In visual basic language what are the rules of a
c) Close.this() programming language called?
50
a) Grammar c) Descending Property
b) Order d) Ascending property
c) Syntax View Answer
d) Rules Answer: b
View Answer
Answer: c 32. Which of the following returns a value after
performing its specific task in Visual Basic?
24. What happens when both the minimize box and a) Structure
maximize box property are set to false in Visual Basic? b) Sub block
a) Both are removed from the title bar c) Sub procedure
b) Both are disabled d) Function Procedure
c) This situation shows an exception View Answer
d) This situation shows an error Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: a 33. Which of the following property is used to specify a
combo box’s style in Visual Basic?
25. In Visual Basic, which of the following keyword tells a) Style
the computer to pass the variable’s address rather than its b) ComboBoxStyle
contents? c) DropDownStyle
a) ByAdd d) DropStyle
b) ByPoint View Answer
c) ByRef Answer: c
d) ByVal
View Answer 34. What will be the output of the following Visual Basic
Answer: c code?
Dim intScores As Integer = {78, 83, 75, 90}
26. Which of the following forces a literal constant to Array.Sort(intScores)
assume a data type other than the one its form indicates? a) 90,83,78,75
a) Any literal b) 78,75,83,90
b) Keyword c) 78, 83, 75,90
c) Literal type constant d) 75,78, 83,90
d) Literal type variable View Answer
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: c
35. Which of the following section is used to make text
27. Which of the following is used to display a message appear around the image?
box in Visual Basic? a) Wrapping style
a) MessageBox.Show b) Text style
b) MessageBox.show c) Image properties
c) MessageBox d) Align
d) AlertBox.View View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: a

28. In Visual Basic, which of the following method

converts a string to a number?
a) Convert
b) Tryparse
c) Extern
d) Parse
View Answer
Answer: b

29. Which of the following is used to convert a number

from one data type to another in visual studio?
a) Literal constant
b) Object
c) Convert class
d) Parser
View Answer
Answer: c

30. Which of the following type of constant is

ControlChars.NewLine constant?
a) Character
b) Pure
c) Intrinsic
d) Invariable
View Answer
Answer: c

31. The position of an item in a list box depends on

which of the following property of the value stored in
the list box’s?
a) Unsorted property
b) Sorted property
51