1.

Conservative Treatment (13 Questions)

1. What is the most common cause of bulk discoloration in composite restorations?

o A) Polymerization shrinkage
o B) Improper bond
o C) Surface staining
o D) Light curing
2. Which factor does not affect the intensity of light curing?
o A) Distance from light source
o B) Rubber dam isolation
o C) Shade of composite
o D) Type of light source
3. The recommended depth of the gingival floor in Class II cavity preparation is:
o A) 0.5 mm
o B) 1 mm
o C) 1.5 mm
o D) 2 mm
4. What is the correct technique for shade selection in restorative dentistry?
o A) After cavity preparation
o B) Before cavity preparation
o C) After placing the restoration
o D) During light curing
5. What is the minimum crown length required for retention/restoration?
o A) 2 mm
o B) 3 mm
o C) 4 mm
o D) 5 mm
6. Which of the following is not a factor in the failure of amalgam restorations?
o A) Secondary caries
o B) Fracture of the restoration
o C) Patient's age
o D) Poor cavity preparation
7. Discoloration at the margin of composite restorations is usually due to:
o A) Inadequate etching
o B) Improper bonding
o C) Polymerization shrinkage
o D) Use of dark shades
8. What is the effect of overdrying etched enamel before bonding?
o A) Enhances bond strength
o B) Collapses the collagen network
o C) Increases retention
o D) Improves marginal adaptation
9. Radiometer is used to measure:
o A) Shade selection accuracy
o B) Intensity of light curing
o C) Depth of cavity preparation
o D) Temperature of the composite
10. Which material is commonly used for border molding in complete dentures?
o A) ZOE paste
 o B) Impression compound
o C) Alginate
o D) Polyether
11. What is the primary purpose of occlusal reduction in crown preparation?
o A) Retention and stability
o B) Structural durability
o C) Esthetics
o D) Marginal adaptation
12. Which of the following is used to control bleeding rapidly during soft tissue
dissection?
o A) Hemostatic agents
o B) Electrosurgery
o C) Suture ligation
o D) Local anesthetics
13. The primary factor influencing the success of a post in a restored tooth is:
o A) Type of cement
o B) Length of the post
o C) Remaining tooth structure
o D) Diameter of the post

2. Pediatric Dentistry (8 Questions)

1. The initial dental visit for a child should ideally occur between the ages of:
o A) 3-6 months
o B) 6-12 months
o C) 12-18 months
o D) 18-24 months
2. Which is the most common cause of dental caries in children?
o A) Poor oral hygiene
o B) High sugar intake
o C) Streptococcus mutans transmission from mother
o D) Frequent snacking
3. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (in mg/kg) for pediatric patients?
o A) 2 mg/kg
o B) 4 mg/kg
o C) 6 mg/kg
o D) 44 mg/kg
4. Which behavioral management technique is used to alleviate the fear of the unknown
in pediatric patients?
o A) Distraction
o B) Tell-show-do
o C) Positive reinforcement
o D) Voice control
5. Avulsed primary teeth should:
o A) Be replanted immediately
o B) Not be replanted
o C) Be stored in milk
o D) Be stored in saline
 6. Which of the following conditions is most associated with the presence of natal and
neonatal teeth?
o A) Down syndrome
o B) Cleft lip and palate
o C) Congenital heart disease
o D) Hypothyroidism
7. Which is the most common complication of local anesthesia in children?
o A) Allergic reaction
o B) Syncope
o C) Hematoma
o D) Trismus
8. During the extraction of the maxillary left primary second molar, the initial movement
should be:
o A) Buccal
o B) Palatal
o C) Mesial
o D) Distal

3. Orthodontics (8 Questions)

1. The treatment for anterior crossbite in children commonly involves:

o A) Fixed appliances
o B) Z-spring
o C) Functional appliances
o D) Headgear
2. A Class III skeletal malocclusion should ideally be treated before the age of:
o A) 6
o B) 10
o C) 12
o D) 14
3. Hypodontia is defined as the absence of:
o A) 1-6 teeth
o B) 7-12 teeth
o C) All teeth
o D) One arch of teeth
4. Which of the following is the most common supernumerary tooth?
o A) Distomolar
o B) Mesiodens
o C) Paramolar
o D) Peridens
5. Jack screw activation for expansion should occur:
o A) Once a week
o B) Twice a week
o C) Daily
o D) Once a month
6. What is the most common retentive component used in removable orthodontic
appliances?
o A) Ball clasp
o B) Adam's clasp
 o C) Arrowhead clasp
o D) Circumferential clasp
7. Mesiodens should be extracted:
o A) At the age of 6
o B) Only if symptomatic
o C) Once discovered
o D) When adjacent teeth erupt
8. Functional appliances are most effective for treating:
o A) Class I malocclusion
o B) Class II malocclusion due to a small mandible
o C) Class III malocclusion
o D) Open bite

4. Periodontal Surgery (8 Questions)

1. The most common cause of gingivitis is:

o A) Hormonal changes
o B) Plaque-induced
o C) Vitamin deficiency
o D) Smoking
2. What is the treatment of choice for a short clinical crown?
o A) Gingivectomy
o B) Crown lengthening surgery
o C) Apically repositioned flap
o D) Scaling and root planing
3. Which type of scaler is most commonly used in Palestine?
o A) Magnetostrictive
o B) Sonic
o C) Ultrasonic
o D) Piezoelectric
4. Gracey curettes 9-10 are designed for:
o A) Anterior teeth
o B) Posterior teeth, facial and lingual surfaces
o C) Mesial surfaces of premolars
o D) Distal surfaces of molars
5. Which of the following is an indication for bone graft surgery?
o A) Horizontal bone loss
o B) Vertical bone loss
o C) Gingival recession
o D) Chronic gingivitis
6. The primary aim of periodontal scaling is to:
o A) Remove surface stains
o B) Remove calculus
o C) Polish the teeth
o D) Reduce tooth mobility
7. Which toothbrush type is generally recommended for most patients?
o A) Hard
o B) Medium
o C) Soft
 o D) Electric
8. What is the most common cause of dark brown pigmentation on gingiva?
o A) Amalgam tattoo
o B) Melanin pigmentation
o C) Medication
o D) Leukoplakia

5. Endodontics (10 Questions)

1. In which part of the root is cementum the thickest?

o A) Cervical third
o B) Middle third
o C) Apical third
o D) Uniform throughout
2. The condition "Condensing osteitis" is associated with:
o A) Acute periapical abscess
o B) Chronic apical periodontitis
o C) Reversible pulpitis
o D) Irreversible pulpitis
3. Which of the following is a non-emergency endodontic condition?
o A) Acute apical abscess
o B) Chronic apical abscess
o C) Pulp necrosis
o D) Acute pulpitis
4. Proprioceptive fibers are absent in:
o A) Pulp
o B) Dentin
o C) Cementum
o D) Periodontal ligament
5. Chlorhexidine in endodontics is primarily used as:
o A) Lubricant
o B) Antimicrobial agent
o C) Chelating agent
o D) Drying agent
6. The most common tooth with a single canal is:
o A) Upper lateral incisor
o B) Upper canine
o C) Lower central incisor
o D) Upper first premolar
7. The most common complication of vital pulp exposure following trauma is:
o A) Pulp necrosis
o B) Pulpal calcification
o C) Pulpitis
o D) Apical periodontitis
8. Which material is recommended for removing the smear layer in root canals?
o A) Sodium hypochlorite
o B) EDTA
o C) Chlorhexidine
o D) Calcium hydroxide
 9. Which is the least likely tooth to have two canals?
o A) Maxillary first premolar
o B) Mandibular central incisor
o C) Maxillary second molar
o D) Mandibular lateral incisor
10. Which of the following should not be left in the canal for long periods?
o A) EDTA
o B) Sodium hypochlorite
o C) Chlorhexidine
o D) Calcium hydroxide

6. Surgery (25 Questions)

1. Which cyst has the potential to transform into an ameloblastoma?

o A) Dentigerous cyst
o B) Radicular cyst
o C) Odontogenic keratocyst
o D) Nasopalatine cyst
2. Which type of biopsy is indicated for a large, suspicious lesion?
o A) Excisional biopsy
o B) Incisional biopsy
o C) Fine needle aspiration biopsy
o D) Punch biopsy
3. What is the most common complication after tooth extraction?
o A) Infection
o B) Dry socket
o C) Hemorrhage
o D) Swelling
4. The most commonly used blade in intraoral surgery is:
o A) No. 10
o B) No. 11
o C) No. 12
o D) No. 15
5. What is the INR range for patients on warfarin requiring dental surgery?
o A) <1
o B) 1-2
o C) 2-3
o D) >3
6. Which of the following is not an emergency drug?
o A) Adrenaline
o B) Nitroglycerin
o C) Diclofenac
o D) Oxygen
7. Which nerve supplies motor innervation to the muscles of mastication?
o A) Facial nerve
o B) Mandibular nerve
o C) Maxillary nerve
o D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
8. Hepatitis B is most easily spread through:
 o A) Blood transfusion
o B) Airborne droplets
o C) Fecal-oral route
o D) Sexual contact
9. A patient with an odontogenic infection involving the submandibular space is at risk
for:
o A) Ludwig's angina
o B) Cellulitis
o C) Osteomyelitis
o D) Sinusitis
10. Which cyst is most commonly associated with unerupted teeth?
o A) Dentigerous cyst
o B) Radicular cyst
o C) Residual cyst
o D) Lateral periodontal cyst
11. The most appropriate treatment for an odontogenic keratocyst is:
o A) Enucleation
o B) Marsupialization
o C) Decompression
o D) Observation
12. A flap design with a wider base than the free margin is known as:
o A) Envelope flap
o B) Triangular flap
o C) Semilunar flap
o D) Trapezoidal flap
13. Bisphosphonates are contraindicated in patients undergoing:
o A) Root canal therapy
o B) Orthodontic treatment
o C) Periodontal surgery
o D) Dental extractions
14. What is the common presentation of an odontogenic keratocyst?
o A) Painful swelling
o B) Painless cystic lesion
o C) Malignant transformation
o D) Rapid growth
15. Hepatitis C virus is primarily transmitted through:
o A) Contaminated food
o B) Blood-to-blood contact
o C) Inhalation of droplets
o D) Skin contact
16. Which of the following is true about odontogenic keratocyst?
o A) It is self-limiting
o B) It is benign with a high recurrence rate
o C) It commonly presents with acute symptoms
o D) It always requires immediate surgery
17. What is the first step in managing a patient with suspected Ludwig's angina?
o A) Immediate surgery
o B) High-dose antibiotics
o C) Airway management
 o D) Hospitalization
18. Marsupialization of a cyst involves:
o A) Complete removal of the cyst
o B) Decompression of the cyst
o C) Creating a pouch for drainage
o D) Injection of sclerosing agents
19. In patients with uncontrolled diabetes, the risk of postoperative complications
increases due to:
o A) Hyperglycemia
o B) Immunosuppression
o C) Delayed wound healing
o D) All of the above
20. Which instrument is used for rapid dissection of soft tissue during surgery?
o A) Scalpel
o B) Electrosurgery unit
o C) Scissors
o D) Forceps
21. Which condition is most likely to require enucleation as the primary treatment?
o A) Radicular cyst
o B) Odontogenic keratocyst
o C) Dentigerous cyst
o D) Ameloblastoma
22. The primary reason for administering prophylactic antibiotics before surgery is to
prevent:
o A) Systemic infection
o B) Endocarditis
o C) Wound dehiscence
o D) Postoperative pain
23. The best method to control hemorrhage during dental surgery is:
o A) Direct pressure
o B) Electrocautery
o C) Use of hemostatic agents
o D) Suturing
24. A patient with paresthesia following dental surgery is likely to have:
o A) Nerve injury
o B) Vascular compromise
o C) Hematoma formation
o D) Infection
25. Which of the following is a premalignant lesion commonly found in the oral cavity?
o A) Candidal leukoplakia
o B) Oral lichen planus
o C) Fibroma
o D) Pyogenic granuloma

7. Prosthodontics (20 Questions)

1. The preferred finish line for a metal-ceramic crown is:

o A) Shoulder
o B) Chamfer
 o C) Bevel
o D) Feather edge
2. Which type of pontic design is most commonly used?
o A) Saddle
o B) Modified ridge lap
o C) Ovate
o D) Sanitary
3. A sanitary pontic is most disadvantageous due to:
o A) Poor esthetics
o B) Difficulty in cleaning
o C) Food impaction
o D) Tissue irritation
4. Which material has a high modulus of elasticity, making it ideal for impression
making?
o A) Alginate
o B) Polyether
o C) Addition silicone
o D) Polysulfide
5. What is the minimum thickness of metal in the functional cusp of a metal-ceramic
crown?
o A) 0.5 mm
o B) 1 mm
o C) 1.5 mm
o D) 2 mm
6. Overdenture is advantageous because it:
o A) Prevents bone resorption
o B) Requires minimal maintenance
o C) Eliminates the need for regular adjustments
o D) Is highly esthetic
7. The main disadvantage of an overdenture is:
o A) High cost
o B) High caries susceptibility of remaining teeth
o C) Difficulty in fabrication
o D) Poor retention
8. Immediate dentures are contraindicated in patients with:
o A) Controlled diabetes
o B) Uncontrolled diabetes
o C) Hypertension
o D) Asthma
9. Relining of a denture is primarily done to:
o A) Improve esthetics
o B) Improve comfort
o C) Increase retention
o D) Repair fractures
10. The most common reason for failure of a post-retained crown is:
o A) Poor cementation
o B) Excessive occlusal forces
o C) Lack of remaining tooth structure
o D) Short post length
11. In porcelain fused to metal (PFM) restorations, what is the recommended thickness of
porcelain?
o A) 0.5 mm
o B) 1 mm
o C) 1.5 mm
o D) 2 mm
12. Which finish line provides the best marginal integrity in PFM restorations?
o A) Chamfer
o B) Shoulder
o C) Bevel
o D) Feather edge
13. The best time to select a tooth for denture fabrication is:
o A) After extraction
o B) Before extraction using pre-extraction models
o C) During wax try-in
o D) After healing of the extraction site
14. A diagnostic cast is typically made using:
o A) Gypsum
o B) Irreversible hydrocolloid
o C) Reversible hydrocolloid
o D) Resin
15. The primary advantage of using a custom tray for final impressions is:
o A) Better retention of the prosthesis
o B) Improved accuracy and fit
o C) Easier handling of impression material
o D) Cost-effectiveness
16. The functional cusp in an upper first molar should have a reduction of:
o A) 0.5 mm
o B) 1 mm
o C) 1.5 mm
o D) 2 mm
17. A crown should have a minimum length of ____ for proper retention:
o A) 2 mm
o B) 3 mm
o C) 4 mm
o D) 5 mm
18. Polyether as an impression material is chosen primarily for its:
o A) Flexibility
o B) Dimensional stability
o C) Ease of use
o D) Hydrophilicity
19. The primary function of grooves in crown preparation is:
o A) Esthetics
o B) Structural durability
o C) Retention and stability
o D) Marginal adaptation
20. Electrosurgery in prosthodontics is primarily used to:
o A) Improve esthetics
o B) Control bleeding and rapidly dissect soft tissue
 o C) Create impression trays
o D) Adjust metal frameworks

8. Ethics, Law, and Public Health (8 Questions)

1. When was the Dental Syndicate established?

o A) 1948
o B) 1952
o C) 1967
o D) 1973
2. Who is responsible for granting membership to the Dental Syndicate?
o A) Ministry of Health
o B) The Syndicate
o C) Dental schools
o D) Private institutions
3. Who grants the license to practice and open a dental clinic?
o A) The Syndicate
o B) Ministry of Health
o C) Dental schools
o D) Professional associations
4. In the event of treatment failure by a dentist who is currently traveling, the patient
should:
o A) Wait for the dentist to return
o B) Seek emergency treatment with documentation
o C) Seek another dentist for permanent treatment
o D) File a complaint with the syndicate
5. Can a businessman partner with a dentist to open a clinic?
o A) Yes, under any circumstance
o B) No, only dentists can own clinics
o C) Yes, if the businessman is a stakeholder
o D) Yes, with approval from the Ministry of Health
6. Is it permissible to display honorary degrees or course certificates on a dental clinic's
signboard?
o A) Yes, if they are relevant
o B) No, only personal name and qualification
o C) Yes, with syndicate approval
o D) Yes, as long as they are legally obtained
7. How often should the membership of the Dental Syndicate be renewed?
o A) Every 6 months
o B) Every year
o C) Every 2 years
o D) Every 5 years
8. A dentist is recognized as a specialist by the syndicate if:
o A) They have a master's degree
o B) They have a PhD
o C) Their certificate is equalized by the Medical Council according to the law
o D) They have 10 years of experience in the field