BUILDING CONSTRUCTION

Geek ( 22 )
WAQAR YOUNIS
1. The lowest part of a structure which transmits the load to the soil is known as

A. Super-structure B. Plinth

C. Foundation D. Basement

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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2. The foundation in a building is provided to

increase overall stability of the

A. distribute the load over a large area B.
structure

transmit load to the bearing surface

C. D. all of the above
(sub soil) at a uniform rate

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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3. The failure of foundation of a building is due to

A. withdrawl of subsoil moisture B. unequal settlement of soil

lateral escape of the supporting

C. D. all of these
material

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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4. The ability of sub-soil to support the load of the structure without yielding is known as

A. bearing value of soil B. bearing power of soil

C. bearing capacity of soil D. any one of these

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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5. The minimum load which will cause failure of a foundation is called

A. ultimate tensile strength B. nominal strength

C. ultimate bearing power D. ultimate compressive strength

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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6. The bearing capacity of soils can be improved by

A. increasing the depth of footing B. draining the sub-soil water

ramming the granular material like

C. D. all of the above
crushed stone in the soil

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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7. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of

A. hard rocks B. black cotton soil

C. dry, coarse sandy soil D. fine sandy soil

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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8. When the foundation is placed immediately beneath the lowest part of the super-structure, it
is called
 A. deep B. shallow

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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9. The depth of the concrete bed placed at the bottom of a wall footing should never be less than
its projection beyond the wall base.

A. Agree B. Disagree

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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10. When the walls are subjected to heavy loading and the bearing capacity of the soil is very low,
then the wall is constructed on

A. reinforced concrete footing B. column footing

C. lean concrete footing D. none of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

11. The minimum depth of foundation for buildings on clays is

A. 0.2 to 0.4 m B. 0.4 to 0.6 m

C. 0.6 to 0.9 m D. 0.9 to 1.6 m

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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12. When heavy structural loads from columns are required to be transferred to a soil of low
bearing capacity, the most economical foundation is

A. shallow foundation B. deep foundation

 C. raft foundation D. grillage foundation

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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13. The distance between the flanges of the beams in steel grillage foundation should not be more
than twice the width of flange.

A. True B. False

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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14. A grillage foundation can be treated as a deep foundation.

A. Right B. Wrong

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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15. In order to protect the beam against corrosion, a minimum cover of

A. 50 mm B. 100 mm

C. 150 mm D. 200 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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16. In masonry construction, excessive tension is not permissible and hence in order that the
supporting area is fully in compression, the width of footing is so adopted that the centre of
gravity of the load falls.
 A. at the centre of base B. within the middle third of base

C. within the middle fifth of base D. any one of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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17. For a rectangular foundation of width b, the eccentricity of the load should not be greater than

A. b/3 B. b/4

C. b/5 D. b/6

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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18. Which of the following statement is correct?

A combined footing is so A combined rectangular footing is

proportioned that the centre of provided where loading condition is
A. gravity of the supporting area is in B. such that either the two columns are
line with the centre of gravity of the equally loaded or the interior column
two column loads. carries greater load.

A trapezoidal shaped footing is

C. provided under any condition of D. all of the above
loading.

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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19. In made-up ground having a low value of its bearing power, heavy concentrated structural
loads are generally supported by providing

A. combined footing B. strap footing

C. raft footing D. all of these

 Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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20. Which of the following foundation is used for weaker soil?

A. Column footing B. Grillage footing

C. Raft footing D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
21. The raft foundations are generally used when the required area of footing is

A. more than one-fourth B. less than one-fourth

C. more than one-helf D. less than one-half

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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22. When two or more footings are connected by a beam, it is called

A. beam footing B. combined footing

C. strap footing D. mat footing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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23. A foundation consisting of thick reinforced concrete slab covering the entire area of the bottom
of the structure, is known as

A. pile foundation B. pier foundation

C. raft foundation D. machine foundation

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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24. A raft foundation is also known as mat foundation

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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25. A black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because it

undergoes volumetric changes with

A. the change of atmospheric B. swells excessively when wet
conditions

C. shrinks excessively when dry D. all of the above

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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26. For providing safe and economical foundation in black cotton soil, the under-reamed piles are
commonly recommended.

A. Yes B. No

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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27. When a veavy structure is to be constructed in sandy soil, the foundation used is

A. pier foundation B. strap foundation

C. raft foundation D. any one of these

 Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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28. Pile foundation is generally used when the soil is

A. compressible B. water-logged

C. made-up type D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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29. The type of foundation most suitable for brideges is

A. pier foundation B. raft foundation

C. pile foundation D. strap foundation

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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30. A combined footing is commonly used

when two columns are spaced close when two columns are spaced far
A. B.
to each other apart

C. under a set of columns D. under a set of walls

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
31. The piles which do not support the load by themselves, but act as a medium to transmit the
load from the foundation to the resisting sub-stratum, are known as

A. friction piles B. bearing piles

C. batter piles D. compaction piles

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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32. The piles which are driven in the type of soil whose strength does not increase with depth or
where the rate of increase in strength with depth is very slow, are known as

A. friction piles B. bearing piles

C. batter piles D. compaction piles

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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33. In combined footing

A. depth of footing varies B. width of footing is uniform

centre of gravity of the column loads

C. must coincide with the centre of D. all of the above
gravity of the footing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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34. Pile foundations are used where the good bearing capacity is available near the ground.

A. True B. False

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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35. Batter piles are

 used to protect concrete deck or
A. used to function as retaining walls B. other water front structures from the
abrasion or impact

driven in granular soil with the aim

driven at an inclination to resist
C. D. of increasing the bearing capacity of
large horizontal inclined forces
the soil

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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36. Fender piles are

used to protect concrete deck or

A. used to function as retaining walls B. other water front structures from the
abrasion or impact

driven in granular soil with the aim

driven at an inclination to resist
C. D. of increasing the bearing capacity of
large horizontal inclined forces
the soil

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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37. The best spacing of timber piles from centre to centre is

A. 600 mm B. 700 mm

C. 800 mm D. 900 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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38. The maximum load on the wooden pile should not exceed

A. 50 kN B. 100 kN
 C. 150 kN D. 200 kN

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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39. Pre-cast concrete piles are usually

A. reinforced concrete only B. plain or reinforced concrete

reinforced concrete or pre-stressed plain, reinforced concrete or pre-

C. D.
concrete stressed concrete

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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40. The length of pre-cast concrete piles varies from

A. 3 m to 4.5 m B. 4.5 m to 10 m

C. 4.5 m to 20 m D. 4.5 m to 30 m

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
41. Cast-in-situ piles

beed not be reinforced in ordinary

A. are cast in position inside the ground B.
cases

are not subjected to handling or

C. D. all of the above
driving stresses

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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42. A type of cast-in-situ pile best suited for places where the ground is soft and offers little
resistance to the flow of concrete, is
 A. simplex pile B. Franki pile

C. vibro-pile D. Raymond pile

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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43. A type of cast-in-situ pile which has an enlarged base and a corrugated stem, is

A. simplex pile B. Franki pile

C. vibro-pile D. Raymond pile

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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44. The vibro-expanded pile

A. increases B. decreases

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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45. In a Raymond pile

the diameter at the top varies from

A. the length varies from 6 to 12 m B. 400 to 600 mm and the diameter at
the base varies from 200 to 280 mm

the thickness of the outer shell

C. depends upon the pile diameter and D. all of the above
site conditions

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
 Explanation:

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46. In a Mac Arthur pile, the core and the casting are together driven into the ground to the
required depth.

A. Agree B. Disagree

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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47. The diameter of the drilled piles should not exceed

A. 200 mm B. 400 mm

C. 600 mm D. 800 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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48. The pre-stressed concrete piles as compared to pre-cast and reinforced concrete piles

A. are lesser in weight B. have high load carrying capacity

C. are extremely durable D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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49. H-piles

A. require large storage space B. are difficult to handle

cannot withstand large impact stress

C. D. none of the above
developed during hadn driving

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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50. A steel pile which function more efficiently in soft clay or loose sand, is

A. H-pile B. pipe pile

C. screw pile D. disc pile

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
51. A screw pile consists of cast iron or steel shaft of external diameter varying from

A. 0 to 150 mm B. 150 to 300 mm

C. 300 to 450 mm D. 450 to 600 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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52. Sheet piles are made of

A. wood B. steel

C. concrete D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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53. The coefficient of friction between the concrete and soil is

A. 0.20 to 0.25 B. 0.25 to 0.30

C. 0.30 to 0.35 D. 0.35 to 0.50

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
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54. When the pile is required to penetrate beds of hard soil or soft rock to reach its required
depth, the best method od driving the pile is by

A. drop hammer B. steam hammer

C. water jets D. boring

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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55. When the pile is driven by means of water jets, water is forced through the jet pipe under a
pressure of

A. 0.2 to 0.5 N/mm2 B. 0.5 to 0.7 N/mm2

C. 0.7 to 1.75 N/mm2 D. 1.75 to 2.5 N/mm2

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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56. The centre to centre spacing of lateral reinforcement in pre-cast reinforced concrete piles
should not exceed

A. half B. equal to

C. double D. three times

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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57. For the pre-cast reinforced concrete piles, the quality of concrete recommended is

A. M 100 to M 150 B. M 150 to M 200

 C. M 200 to M 250 D. M 250 to M 300

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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58. In the pre-cast reinforced concrete piles, the thickness of concrete covering the main bars
should not be less than

A. 40 mm B. 55 mm

C. 75 mm D. 100 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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59. The minimum covering of the reinforcement for the pre-cast reinforced piles used in sea
water, is

A. 40 mm B. 55 mm

C. 75 mm D. 100 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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60. A tomparary structure constructed in a river for excluding water from a given site to enable
the building operation to be performed on dry surface, is called

A. caisson B. cofferdam

C. well foundation D. raft foundatio

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
61. When the depth of water is from 4.5 to 6 m, the type of coefferdam used is

A. earthen cofferdam B. rockfill cofferdam

 C. single-walled cofferdam D. double walled cofferdam

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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62. A wateright structure constructed in connection with excavations for foundations of bridges,
piers etc., is known as

A. caisson B. cofferdam

C. well foundation D. raft foundatio

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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63. The minimum depth of foundation for the load bearing wall of a building is restricted to

A. 600 mm B. 700 mm

C. 800 mm D. 900 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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64. In order that the wall may be stable, the lowermost course of the wall footing is made

A. half B. equal to

C. twice D. four times

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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65. The dampness in a building is due to

A. ground moisture B. rain water

C. defective construction D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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66. The dampness on roof may be due to

A. use of porous materials B. insufficient lap of covering material

C. bad workmanship in plumbing D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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67. The most commonly used material for damp proofing is

A. bitumen B. paraffin wax

C. cement solution D. cement concrete

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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68. In case of buildings without basement, the best position for damp-proof course (D.P.C.) lies at

A. plinth level B. ground level

C. 150 mm above plinth level D. 150 mm above ground level

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:
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69. For D.P.C. at plinth level, the commonly adopted material is

A. bitumen sheeting B. plastic sheeting

C. mastic asphalt D. cement concrete

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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70. A semi-rigid material which forms an excellent impervious layer for damp-proofing, is called

A. bitumen B. mastic asphalt

C. aluminal D. bituminous felt

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
71. The damp-proof course

A. may be horizontal or vertical B. should be continuous

C. should be good impervious material D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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72. Which of the following statement is correct?

The cavity should start near the The cavity should terminate near
A. B.
ground level. eaves level in case of sloping roof.

The cavity should terminate near

C. coping in case of flat roof with D. all of the above
parapet wall.

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:
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73. The damp-proof course for the two leaves of the cavity wall is laid separately although at the
same level.

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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74. The cavity wall is generally provided for

A. preventing dampness B. heat insulation

C. sound insulation

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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75. In horizontal D.P.C. at plinth level, the thickness of cement concrete of 1 : 2 : 4 mix, is kept
as minimum of 400 mm.

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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76. A flexible material used for D.P.C. is

A. bitumen sheeting B. plastic sheeting

C. mastic asphalt D. cement concrete

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:
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77. The construction of a temporary structure required to support an unsafe structure, is called

A. underpinning B. scaffolding

C. shoring D. jacking

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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78. A temporary rigid structure having platforms raised up as the building increases in height, is
called

A. underpinning B. scaffolding

C. shoring D. jacking

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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79. The arrangement of supports provided underneath the existing structure without disturbing its
stability, is known as

A. underpinning B. scaffolding

C. shoring D. jacking

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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80. A raking shore is a system of

providing temporary support to the

giving temporary lateral support to party walls of two buildings where
A. B.
an unsafe wall the intermediate building is to be
pulled down and rebuilt
 providing vertical support to walls
and roofs, floors etc. when the lower
C. part of a wall has to be removed for D. all of the above
the purpose of providing an opening
in the wall

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
81. For a building on the side of a busy street where the ordinary scaffolding will obstruct the
traffic on road, the type of scaffolding provided is

A. brick layer's scaffold B. mason's scaffold

C. steel scaffold D. needle scaffold

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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82. A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar is known as

A. course B. stretcher

C. header D. closer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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83. The brick laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall is called a

A. course B. stretcher

C. header D. closer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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84. The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of the wall is called a
 A. course B. stretcher

C. header D. closer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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85. A system of providing temporary support to the party walls of two buildings where the
intermediate building is to be pulled down and built, is called

A. ranking shore B. dead or vertical shore

C. flying or horizontal shore D. none of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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86. A brick which is cut in such a way that the width of its one end is half that of a full brick, is
called

A. king closer B. mitred closer

C. bevelled closer D. queen closer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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87. A brick which is half as wide as a full brick, is called

A. king closer B. mitred closer

C. bevelled closer D. queen closer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D
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88. The exterior angle or corner of a wall is known as quoin.

A. Right B. Wrong

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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89. Frog is defined as a

A. depression on the top face of a brick B. topmost course of plinth

brick whose one end is cut splayed

C. D. brick used for the corner of a wall
or mitred for the full width

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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90. The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to

A. emboss manufacture's name B. reduce the weight of brick

form keyed joint between brick and improve insulation by providing

C. D.
mortar 'hollows'

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
91. The frog of the brick must be kept

A. down B. upward

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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92. In brick masonry, for good bonding

 bats must be used in alternate
A. all bricks need not be uniform in size B.
courses only

vertical joints in alternate courses cement mortar used must have

C. D.
should fall in plumb surkhi as additive

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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93. King closers are related to

A. king post truss B. queen post truss

C. brick masonry D. doors and windows

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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94. Corince is defined as a

horizontal course of masonry horizontal moulded projection

A. B.
projecting from the face of the wall provided ner the top of a building

covering placed on the exposed top triangular shaped portion of masonry

C. D.
of an external wall at the end of a sloped roof

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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95. Coping is defined as a

horizontal course of masonry horizontal moulded projection

A. B.
projecting from the face of the wall provided ner the top of a building

covering placed on the exposed top triangular shaped portion of masonry

C. D.
of an external wall at the end of a sloped roof

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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96. Corbel is the extension of one or more course of bricks from the

A. face B. back

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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97. A horizontal member of stone, concrete or wood provided to give support for the vertical
members of a wooden window, is called

A. jamb B. reveal

C. sill D. quoin

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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98. The exposed vertical surface left on the sides of an opening after the door or window frame
has been fitted in position, is called

A. jamb B. reveal

C. sill D. quoin

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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99. A bat is the portion of a

A. wall not exposed to weather B. brick cut across the width

 brick cut in such a manner that its
C. wall between facing and backing D.
one long face remains uncut

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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100. Hearting is the portion of a

A. wall not exposed to weather B. brick cut across the width

brick cut in such a manner that its

C. wall between facing and backing D.
one long face remains uncut

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
101. A course of stone provided immediately below a cornice, is called

A. blocking course B. coping

C. frieze D. parapet

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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102. A course of stone masonry provided immediately above the cornice, is called

A. blocking course B. coping

C. frieze D. parapet

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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103. The process of placing a stone in its position in masonry construction is termed as setting.

A. Yes B. No

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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104. The type of stone masonry commonly adopted in the construction of residential building is

A. uncoused rubble masonry B. coursed rubble masonry

C. random rubble masonry D. dry rubble masonry

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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105. In the first class coursed rubble masonry

all the coruses are of the same minimum height of the course is
A. B.
height limited to 150 mm

the length of the quoin is generally

C. D. all of the above
kept 450 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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106. The type of masonry in which the stones of irregular size and shapes are used and there are
no regular courses, is known as

A. uncoursed rubble masonry B. coursed rubble masonry

C. random rubble masonry D. dry rubble masonry

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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107. The minimum thickness of a wall in stone masonry should not be less than
 A. 100 mm B. 200 mm

C. 350 mm D. 450 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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108. A type of bond in a brick masonry consisting of alternate course of headers and stretchers, is
called

A. English bond B. Flemish bond

C. stretching bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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109. A type of bond in a brick masonry in which each course consists of alternate headers and
stretchers, is called

A. English bond B. Flemish bond

C. stretching bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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110. Which of the following statement is wrong?

In English bond, vertical joints in

the header courses come over each
In English bond, the heading course
A. other and vertical joints in the B.
should start with a queen closer.
stretcher courses are also in the
same line.
 In Flemish bond, the alternate
In Flemish bond, every alternate
headeers of each course are
C. D. course starts with a header at the
centrally supported over the
corner.
strechers in the course below.

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
111. For walls thicker than 1

A. True B. False

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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112. In a stretching bond

A. all the bricks are laid as headers B. all the bricks are laid as stretchers

the bonding bricks are laid at any

the arrangement of bricks is similar
C. D. angle other than zero or ninety
to English bond
degrees

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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113. A type of bond in which all the bricks are laid as headeers on the faces of walls, is known as

A. raking bond B. dutch bond

C. facing bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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114. A bond consisting of heading and stretching courses so arranged that one heading course
comes after several stretching courses, is called

A. raking bond B. dutch bond

 C. facing bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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115. A stretcher bond is usually used for

A. half brick wall B. one brick wall

C. one and half brick wall D. two brick wall

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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116. The heading bond is usually used for

A. half brick wall B. one brick wall

C. one and half brick wall D. two brick wall

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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117. The most commonly used bond for all wall thicknesses is

A. English bond B. Flemish bond

C. stretching bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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118. In English bond, the queen's closer should be placed next to the quoin header.
 A. Yes B. no

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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119. Herring-bone bond is commonly used for

A. brick paving B. very thick walls

C. partition walls D. footings in foundations

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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120. The filling in cavities with cement slurry is known as

A. coping B. beam-filling

C. grouting D. gunniting

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
121. In a raking bond,

A. all the bricks are laid as headers B. all the bricks are laid as stretchers

the bonding bricks are laid at any

the arrangement of bricks is similar
C. D. angle other than zero or ninety
to English bond
degrees

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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122. The arrangement of bricks is similar to English bond in

A. raking bond B. dutch bond

 C. facing bond D. heading bond

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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123. A wall built to resist the pressure of earth filling, is known as

A. breast wall B. retaining wall

C. parapet wall D. duttress

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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124. A retaining wall may be built in

A. dry stone masonry B. stonemasonry

C. plain cement concrete D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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125. A retaining wall is commonly required in the construction of

A. hill roads B. masonry dams

C. wing walls D. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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126. Weep holes are provided in the retaining walls to drain off the water from the filling behind.
 A. Agree B. Disagree

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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127. A stone wall provided to protect the slopes of cutting in natural ground from the action of
weather, is known as

A. retaining wall B. breast wall

C. parapet wall D. buttress

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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128. Which of the following statement is correct?

The retaining wall should be The section of the wall should be so

A. structurally capable of resisting the B. proportioned that it will not overturn
earth pressure applied to it. by the lateral pressure.

The weight of the retaining wall and

the force resulting from the earth
C. pressure should not stress its D. all of the above
foundation to a value greater than
safe bearing capacity of the soil.

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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129. A partition wall may be

A. folding B. collapsible

C. fixed D. any one of these

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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130. A partition wall is designed as a no load bearing wall.

A. Right B. Wrong

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
131. Plain brick type of partition wall is constructed by

laying bricks as stretchers in cement laying bricks as headers in cement

A. B.
mortar mortar

reinforcing the brick wall with iron brick work built within a frame-work
C. D.
straps of wooden members

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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132. Brick nogging type of partition wall is constructed by

laying bricks as stretchers in cement laying bricks as headers in cement

A. B.
mortar mortar

reinforcing the brick wall with iron brick work built within a frame-work
C. D.
straps of wooden members

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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133. In a brick nogging type of partition wall the vertical wooden members are called

A. noggings B. studs

C. sills D. templates

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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134. The sill in a wooden partition wall is the

A. vertical B. lower horizontal

C. upper horizontal D. intermediate horizontal

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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135. The nogging, in a brick nogged partition wall, is a intermediate horizontal wooden member.

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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136. The nogging pieces are housed in the studs at a vertical distance of about

A. 100 to 200 mm B. 200 to 400 mm

C. 400 to 600 mm D. 600 to 900 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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137. In constructing concrete partition wall, the concrete mixture usually adopted is

A. M 100 B. M 150

C. M 200 D. M 250

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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138. The brick flooring may be done with bricks

A. laid flat B. set at right angle to the walls

laid on edge arranged in herring-

C. D. all of the above
bone fashion

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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139. A type of flooring made with special aggregate of marble chips mixed with white and coloured
cement, is called

A. granolithic flooring B. terrazzo flooring

C. mosaic flooring D. asphalt flooring

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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140. The asphalt type of flooring is recommended for swimming pools because it is non-slippery.

A. Yes B. No

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
141. The moulding provided under nosing to beautify the elevation of a step of stair, is called

A. flier B. soffit

C. scotia D. tread

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
 Explanation:

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142. The horizontal upper part of a step on which foot is placed in ascending or descending a
stairway, is called

A. riser B. tread

C. flight D. nosing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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143. A series of steps without any platform, break or landing in their direction, is called

A. riser B. tread

C. flight D. nosing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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144. The vertical distance between the upper surface of the successive treads is known as 'going
of step'.

A. True B. False

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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145. The brick flooring is used in

A. workshops B. godowns

C. verandahs D. none of these

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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146. The flooring made with small pieces of broken tiles of china glazed or of marble arranged in
different pattern, is known as

A. asphalt flooring B. mosaic flooring

C. terrazo flooring D. granolithic flooring

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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147. In stairs, the flier is

a vertical portion of a step providing a straight step having a parallel

A. B.
a support to the tread width of tread

the angle which the line of nosing of

C. the under surface of a stair D.
the stair makes with the horizontal

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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148. In stairs, the soffit is

a vertical portion of a step providing a straight step having a parallel

A. B.
a support to the tread width of tread

the angle which the line of nosing of

C. the under surface of a stair D.
the stair makes with the horizontal

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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149. The projecting part of the tread beyond the face of riser is called

A. pitch B. nosing

C. baluster D. stringer

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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150. In a public building, the stairs should be located near the

A. entrance B. centre

C. end D. toilet

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
151. The angle which the line of nosing of the stair makes with the horizontal, is called

A. riser B. flier

C. soffit D. pitch or slope

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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152. In stairs, the vertical portion of a step providing a support to the tread, is known as

A. riser B. flier

C. soffit D. pitch or slope

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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153. The size of a step commonly adopted for residential buildings is

 A. 250 mm x 160 mm B. 270 mm x 150 mm

C. 300 mm x 130 mm D. 350 mm x 100 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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154. In residential building, the average value of stair width is

A. 600 mm B. 700 mm

C. 800 mm D. 900 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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155. The width of landing should be

A. equal to B. less than

C. greater than

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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156. The pitch of stair should never exceed

A. 20? B. 25?

C. 30? D. 40?

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:
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157. In designing a stair, the sum of going (in cm) and twice the rise (in cm) should be equal to

A. 40 B. 50

C. 60 D. 70

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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158. In designing a stair, the product of going (in cm) and the rise (in cm) should be equal to

A. 300 B. 350

C. 400 D. 450

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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159. An open-newel stair consists of two or more straight flights arranged in such a manner that a
clear space occurs between the backward and forward flights.

A. Agree B. Disagree

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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160. In wooden stairs, the thickness of tread is adopted as

A. 28 mm B. 38 mm

C. 48 mm D. 58 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
161. The inner surface of an arch is called
 A. extrados B. intrados

C. crown D. voussoir

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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162. The surface of the abutment on which the arch rests, is known as

A. span B. keystone

C. skew back D. crown

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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163. The intermediate support of an arch is known as pier.

A. Right B. Wrong

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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164. The depth of arch is the

vertical distance between the vertical distance between the

A. springing line and the highest point B. springing line and the highest point
on the intrados on the extrados

perpendicular distance between the horizontal distance between the

C. D.
intrados and extrados supports

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:
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165. The highest point on the extrados is called

A. skew back B. crown

C. voussoir D. keystone

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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166. The vertical distance between the springing line and the highest point on the intrados is
called

A. depth B. rise

C. haunch D. extrados

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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167. Which of the following statement is wrong?

The part of the wall on which the

A. B. Soffit is the under surface of an arch
arch rests, is called abutment.

Crown is the highest point of the

C. D. all of the above
intrados

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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168. The wedge shaped unit (voussoir) placed at the crown of an arch, is called

A. skew back B. intrados

C. extrados D. keystone

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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169. The perpendicular distance between the intrados and extrados of an arch, is called

A. pitch of an arch B. depth of an arch

C. width of an arch D. thickness of an arch

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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170. In rough brick arches, the joints at the extrados are wider than those at the intrados.

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
171. In axed brick arches, the joints of the arch are not of uniform thickness.

A. Right B. Wrong

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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172. The arch consisting of fully dressed stones, is called

A. axed arch B. gauged arch

C. ashlar arch D. roubble arch

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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173. In a flat arch, the skew back is made to rest in an inclined position so as to make an angle of

A. 30? B. 40?

C. 50? D. 60?

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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174. The intrados of the flat arch is horizontal but the extrados has a straight camber or upward
curvature.

A. Yes B. No

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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175. The span of an arch is

vertical distance between the vertical distance between the

A. springing line and the highest point B. springing line and the highest point
on the intrados on the extrados

perpendicular distance between the horizontal distance between the

C. D.
intrados and extrados supports

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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176. The lower portion of an arch between the skew back and crown is called

A. depth B. rise

C. haunch D. intrados

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
 Explanation:

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177. The vertical members which support the door frame are called

A. reveals B. styles

C. posts D. jambs

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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178. The external jamb of a door or window opening at right angles to the wall face, is called

A. reveals B. styles

C. posts D. jambs

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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179. A horizontal member of a frame employed to sub-divide a window opening horizontally is

called

A. sill B. mullion

C. transom D. horn

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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180. The bottom or lowermost horizontal part of a window frame is known as

A. sill B. mullion

C. transom D. horn

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option A
181. The width of jambs is

A. 57 mm to 76 mm B. 76 mm to 114 mm

C. 114 mm to 138 mm D. 138 mm to 152 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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182. The depth of jambs is

A. 57 mm to 76 mm B. 76 mm to 114 mm

C. 114 mm to 138 mm D. 138 mm to 152 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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183. Which of the following statement is correct?

The flat members connecting the The head is of the same size as the
A. B.
jambs at the top is called head. jamb

The jamb are tennoned into the

C. D. all of the above
head and wedged.

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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184. The projections which help in securing the head of a door frame to the masonry, are called

A. reveals B. stops

C. horns D. styles

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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185. The window which projects outward from the walls of a room to provide an increased area of
opening for admitting greater light and ventilation, is called

A. dormer window B. corner window

C. bay window D. clerestorey window

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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186. The window used with the object of providing light and air to the enclosed space below the
roof, is called

A. dormer window B. corner window

C. bay window D. clerestorey window

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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187. The window usually provided near the main roof of a room and opens above the adjoining
verandah, is called

A. dormer window B. corner window

C. bay window D. clerestorey window

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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188. In air conditioned building, a door has to serve both purposes of opening and closing. The
most suitable type of door for this purpose is

A. sliding door B. swinging door

C. revolving door D. none of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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189. For ordinary Portland cement, the initial setting time should not be more than

A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour

C. 5 hours D. 10 hours

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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190. The cement which is commonly used in all types of structures and require no special
consideration, is called

A. rapid hardening cement B. normal setting cement

C. quick setting cement D. white cement

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
191. The ultimate strength of rapid hardening cement is just the same as that of normal setting
cement.

A. True B. False

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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192. High alumina cement is

 made by fusing together a mixture highly resistant to heat, chemical
A. B.
of lime-stone and bauxite and other corrosive acids

used for structures subjected to the

C. D. all of the above
action of sea water

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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193. High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of

A. fine grinding B. burning at high temperatures

C. decreasing the lime content D. increasing the quantity of gypsum

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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194. A fine aggregate is one whose particles are of size

A. 4.75 mm B. below 4.75 mm

C. 6.75 mm D. above 6.75 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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195. A coarse aggregate is one whose particles are of size

A. 4.75 mm B. below 4.75 mm

C. 6.75 mm D. above 6.75 mm

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
 Explanation:

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196. If the water-cement ratio is low, the strength of the mix is high.

A. Agree B. Disagree

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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197. The higher water cement ratio in concrete results in

A. a weak mix B. a stronger mix

C. better workable mix D. less bleeding

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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198. The slump commonly adopted for concrete for road works is

A. 12 to 25 B. 20 to 28

C. 25 to 50 D. 50 to 100

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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199. The slump commonly adopted for concrete for columns is

A. 25 to 50 B. 50 to 100

C. 75 to 175 D. 175 to 200

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C
 Explanation:

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200. The vertical distance between the wall plate and top of the ridge is called

A. rise B. pitch

C. template D. gable

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
201. A ridge formed by the intersection of two sloped surfaces having an exterior angle greater
than 180?, is called

A. gable B. hip

C. verge D. template

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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202. A block of stone or concrete provided under the end of tie beam to spread the load from the
roof over a large area of bearing, is called

A. gable B. hip

C. verge D. template

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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203. The horizontal members of wood or steel used to support the common rafter of a sloping
roof, are called

A. purlins B. cleats

C. hip rafters D. valley rafters

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
 Explanation:

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204. In a sloping roof, the inclined wooden members laid from the ridge to the caves are known
as

A. hip rafters B. jack rafters

C. common rafters D. valley rafters

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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205. In pitched roofs, the term gable is defined as the

inclination of the sides of a roof to

A. apex line of the sloping roof B.
the hoizontal plane

horizontal distance between the triangular upper part of a wall

C. D.
internal faces of the walls formed at the end of a pitched roof

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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206. The term pitch in connection with pitched roofs is defined as the

inclination of the sides of a roof to

A. apex line of the sloping roof B.
the horizontal plane

horizontal distance between the triangular upper part of a wall

C. D.
internal faces of the walls formed at the end of a pitch roof

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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207. A pitched roof in which rafters slope to one side only is called

A. lean-to roof B. Pent roof

 C. Aisle roof D. any one of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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208. The combination of a king-post truss and queen post truss is known as

A. couple roof B. collar beam roof

C. mansard roof D. purlin roof

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

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209. The coupled roof is suitable for spans upto

A. 3.5 m B. 5m

C. 6.5 m D. 8m

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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210. The type of truss commonly used for spans varying from 5 to 9 metre is

A. queen post truss B. king post truss

C. mansard truss D. composite truss

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B
211. In a king post truss, one vertical post is used.

A. Correct B. Incorrect

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
 Explanation:

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212. In a queen post truss,

A. two B. three

C. four D. six

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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213. A queen post truss is commonly used for spans

A. upto 3.5 m B. from 3.5 to 5 m

C. from 5 to 8 m D. from 8 to 12 m

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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214. A couple-close roof is used for spans upto

A. 3.5 m B. 5m

C. 9m D. 14 m

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

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215. The pointing which is extensively used in brick work and stone masonry face work, is

A. flush poining B. struck pointing

C. V-grooved pointing D. tuck pointing

Answer & Explanation

 Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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216. The type of pointing in which the mortar is first pressed into the raked joints and then
finished off flush with the edges of the bricks or stones, is called

A. flust pointing B. struck pointing

C. V-grooved pointing D. tuck pointing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

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217. The type of pointing in which the mortar is first pressed into the raked joint and then finished
off flush with the face of the bricks or stones is called

A. flush poining B. struck pointing

C. V-grooved pointing D. tuck pointing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

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218. The process of filling up all mail holes, cracks etc. with putty is known as

A. knotting B. priming

C. stopping D. finishing

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option C