Psychiatry Questions

Slide One: Neurotransmission and Related Disorders

What is the primary function of dendrites in a neuron?

A) Conduct electrical impulses away from the cell body
B) Receive inputs from other neurons
C) Release neurotransmitters
D) Generate action potentials
Answer: B) Receive inputs from other neurons Explanation: Dendrites are cellular
extensions that receive input from other neurons, making them the primary input zone of
a neuron.
Which ion channel type opens in response to a change in membrane potential?
A) Ligand-gated ion channels
B) Voltage-gated ion channels
C) Potassium channels
D) Chloride channels
Answer: B) Voltage-gated ion channels Explanation: Voltage-gated ion channels open
in response to changes in membrane potential, allowing ions to flow in or out of the
neuron.
What maintains the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A) Sodium-potassium pump
B) Ligand-gated ion channels
C) Neurotransmitter release
D) Synaptic vesicles
Answer: A) Sodium-potassium pump Explanation: The sodium-potassium pump
actively transports sodium ions out of and potassium ions into the neuron, maintaining
the resting membrane potential.
What is the result of an action potential reaching the peak phase?
A) Influx of potassium ions
B) Inactivation of voltage-sensitive sodium channels
C) Hyperpolarization
D) Closure of all ion channels
Answer: B) Inactivation of voltage-sensitive sodium channels Explanation: At the peak
of an action potential, voltage-sensitive sodium channels become inactive, and
voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with excitatory postsynaptic
potentials (EPSPs)?
A) GABA
B) Glycine
 C) Glutamate
D) Dopamine
Answer: C) Glutamate Explanation: Glutamate is the primary excitatory
neurotransmitter in the CNS, contributing to excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
What neurotransmitter is synthesized from tyrosine and involved in reward and
movement pathways?
A) Serotonin
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) GABA
Answer: C) Dopamine Explanation: Dopamine is synthesized from tyrosine and is
involved in pathways related to reward and movement.
Which neurotransmitter is associated with the regulation of mood and arousal?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) GABA
Answer: C) Norepinephrine Explanation: Norepinephrine is implicated in the regulation
of mood, arousal, and other functions.
Which pathway is associated with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Nigrostriatal pathway
B) Mesolimbic pathway
C) Mesocortical pathway
D) Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B) Mesolimbic pathway Explanation: The mesolimbic pathway, which projects
from the VTA to the nucleus accumbens, is associated with the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia.
What enzyme is involved in the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
A) Monoamine oxidase
B) Acetylcholinesterase
C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
D) COMT
Answer: B) Acetylcholinesterase Explanation: Acetylcholinesterase breaks down
acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, terminating its action.
Which neurotransmitter system is implicated in Alzheimer's disease?
A) Dopamine
B) Glutamate
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine
Answer: D) Acetylcholine Explanation: The cholinergic system, particularly
acetylcholine, is involved in Alzheimer's disease pathology.
Which type of receptor does GABA primarily act on?
A) Muscarinic receptors
B) Nicotinic receptors
C) NMDA receptors
D) GABA-A receptors
Answer: D) GABA-A receptors Explanation: GABA primarily acts on GABA-A
receptors, which are chloride ion channels.
What effect do typical antipsychotic drugs have on dopamine receptors?
A) Increase dopamine release
B) Block dopamine reuptake
C) Antagonize D2 receptors
D) Agonize D2 receptors
Answer: C) Antagonize D2 receptors Explanation: Typical antipsychotic drugs
antagonize D2 receptors, reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
What neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the pathophysiology of anxiety
disorders?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA
Answer: D) GABA Explanation: GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter and is
heavily involved in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders.
Which neurotransmitter system is targeted by SSRIs?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin
Answer: D) Serotonin Explanation: SSRIs target the serotonin system by inhibiting the
reuptake of serotonin, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.
What is the primary function of the NMDA receptor?
A) Inhibit neural activity
B) Facilitate chloride influx
C) Regulate calcium entry
D) Block potassium channels
Answer: C) Regulate calcium entry Explanation: NMDA receptors are involved in
regulating calcium entry into neurons, playing a crucial role in synaptic plasticity and
memory.
Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tryptophan?
 A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA
Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: Serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid
tryptophan.
What type of neurotransmitter is glutamate?
A) Inhibitory
B) Excitatory
C) Modulatory
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Excitatory Explanation: Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter
in the CNS.
What is the role of the Na+/K+ pump in neurons?
A) Generate action potentials
B) Maintain resting membrane potential
C) Release neurotransmitters
D) Degrade neurotransmitters
Answer: B) Maintain resting membrane potential Explanation: The Na+/K+ pump
helps maintain the resting membrane potential by actively transporting sodium out and
potassium into the neuron.
Which receptor subtype is primarily associated with the effects of
benzodiazepines?
A) Dopamine receptors
B) GABA-A receptors
C) NMDA receptors
D) Serotonin receptors
Answer: B) GABA-A receptors Explanation: Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of
GABA at the GABA-A receptors, leading to increased inhibitory effects.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the cholinergic system?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine
Answer: C) Acetylcholine Explanation: Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter
involved in the cholinergic system.
Which enzyme converts dopamine to norepinephrine?
A) Tyrosine hydroxylase
B) Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
C) Dopamine β-hydroxylase
 D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
Answer: C) Dopamine β-hydroxylase Explanation: Dopamine β-hydroxylase converts
dopamine to norepinephrine.
What is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) GABA
D) Glutamate
Answer: C) GABA Explanation: GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
brain, reducing neuronal excitability.
What condition is characterized by degeneration in the nigrostriatal tract?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Huntington's disease
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
Answer: C) Parkinson's disease Explanation: Parkinson's disease is characterized by
the degeneration of dopamine neurons in the nigrostriatal tract, leading to motor
symptoms.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the raphe nuclei?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Acetylcholine
Answer: C) Serotonin Explanation: The raphe nuclei are primarily serotonergic,
meaning they mainly release serotonin.
What type of neurotransmitter is acetylcholine?
A) Inhibitory
B) Excitatory
C) Modulatory
D) Both excitatory and inhibitory
Answer: D) Both excitatory and inhibitory Explanation: Acetylcholine can act as both
an excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter, depending on the type of receptors it binds
to.
Which enzyme is involved in the breakdown of dopamine in the synaptic cleft?
A) Acetylcholinesterase
B) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
C) Tyrosine hydroxylase
D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
Answer: B) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) Explanation: Monoamine oxidase (MAO) is
responsible for the breakdown of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
What is the role of serotonin in mood regulation?
A) Increases anxiety
B) Enhances memory
C) Regulates mood and emotion
D) Promotes sleep
Answer: C) Regulates mood and emotion Explanation: Serotonin plays a crucial role
in regulating mood and emotion, with imbalances often linked to mood disorders.
Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with the inhibition of pain?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Endorphins
Answer: D) Endorphins Explanation: Endorphins are endogenous opioid peptides that
inhibit the perception of pain.
Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for the production of dopamine?
A) Hippocampus
B) Substantia nigra
C) Amygdala
D) Prefrontal cortex
Answer: B) Substantia nigra Explanation: The substantia nigra is a key region in the
brain responsible for the production of dopamine, particularly in the context of motor
control.
What type of receptor is involved in fast synaptic transmission in the CNS?
A) Metabotropic receptors
B) Ionotropic receptors
C) G-protein-coupled receptors
D) Tyrosine kinase receptors
Answer: B) Ionotropic receptors Explanation: Ionotropic receptors are involved in fast
synaptic transmission because they form ion channels that quickly change membrane
potentials.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the reward pathway?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Glutamate
Answer: B) Dopamine Explanation: Dopamine is the primary neurotransmitter involved
in the brain's reward pathway, particularly in the mesolimbic system.
Which condition is most closely associated with an overactive dopaminergic
system?
A) Depression
 B) Schizophrenia
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) Parkinson's disease
Answer: B) Schizophrenia Explanation: Schizophrenia is often linked to an overactive
dopaminergic system, particularly in the mesolimbic pathway.
Which neurotransmitter is implicated in the regulation of sleep-wake cycles?
A) Dopamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Serotonin
D) Norepinephrine
Answer: C) Serotonin Explanation: Serotonin is involved in regulating sleep-wake
cycles, among other functions.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the fight-or-flight response?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) Acetylcholine
Answer: C) Norepinephrine Explanation: Norepinephrine plays a key role in the body's
fight-or-flight response, preparing the body for action.
Which type of neurotransmitter receptor acts through second messengers?
A) Ionotropic receptors
B) Metabotropic receptors
C) Ligand-gated ion channels
D) Voltage-gated ion channels
Answer: B) Metabotropic receptors Explanation: Metabotropic receptors act through
second messengers, leading to slower but longer-lasting effects.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in long-term potentiation (LTP)?
A) Dopamine
B) GABA
C) Glutamate
D) Serotonin
Answer: C) Glutamate Explanation: Glutamate is critical for long-term potentiation
(LTP), a mechanism underlying synaptic plasticity and memory formation.
What is the primary role of acetylcholine in the peripheral nervous system?
A) Regulate mood
B) Control voluntary movement
C) Mediate fight-or-flight response
D) Modulate pain
Answer: B) Control voluntary movement Explanation: In the peripheral nervous
system, acetylcholine is crucial for transmitting signals that control voluntary movement.
Which neurotransmitter is linked to feelings of well-being and happiness?
A) GABA
B) Serotonin
C) Glutamate
D) Acetylcholine
Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: Serotonin is commonly associated with feelings of
well-being and happiness, playing a significant role in mood regulation.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in inhibitory synaptic transmission
in the spinal cord?
A) Dopamine
B) Glycine
C) Glutamate
D) Serotonin
Answer: B) Glycine Explanation: Glycine is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
spinal cord, facilitating the inhibition of neural signals.
What is the function of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) in the treatment of
depression?
A) Increase the breakdown of serotonin
B) Decrease the reuptake of norepinephrine
C) Inhibit the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters
D) Enhance GABAergic transmission
Answer: C) Inhibit the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters Explanation:
MAOIs inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down neurotransmitters
such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, thereby increasing their availability in
the brain.
Slide Two: Psychosis

What does the term "psychotic" mean?

● A) Mild reality distortion

● B) Grossly impaired reality testing
● C) Enhanced reality perception
● D) Temporary confusion

Answer: B) Grossly impaired reality testing Explanation: Psychosis is defined by a

significant impairment in the ability to accurately perceive and interpret reality.

Which disorder is characterized by a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting less

than 1 month?

● A) Schizophrenia
● B) Schizoaffective disorder
● C) Brief Psychotic Disorder
● D) Delusional Disorder

Answer: C) Brief Psychotic Disorder Explanation: Brief Psychotic Disorder involves

sudden onset of psychotic symptoms lasting from 1 day to less than 1 month, with full
remission and return to premorbid functioning.

Who introduced the term "schizophrenia"?

● A) Emil Kraepelin
● B) Kurt Schneider
● C) Eugen Bleuler
● D) John Haslam

Answer: C) Eugen Bleuler Explanation: Eugen Bleuler introduced the term

"schizophrenia" and defined its primary features.

What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?

● A) 0.5%
● B) 1%
● C) 5%
● D) 10%
Answer: B) 1% Explanation: Schizophrenia affects about 1% of the population
worldwide.

Which type of symptom includes delusions and hallucinations?

● A) Negative symptoms
● B) Positive symptoms
● C) Cognitive symptoms
● D) Disorganized symptoms

Answer: B) Positive symptoms Explanation: Positive symptoms refer to the presence of

abnormal mental processes such as delusions and hallucinations.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the dysregulation associated with

schizophrenia?

● A) Serotonin
● B) Dopamine
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: B) Dopamine Explanation: Dysregulation of dopamine transmission is a key

factor in the expression of schizophrenia.

Which of the following is a common comorbidity with schizophrenia?

● A) Asthma
● B) Substance use disorder
● C) Hypertension
● D) Diabetes

Answer: B) Substance use disorder Explanation: Substance use disorders, including

smoking, alcohol abuse, and use of other substances, are common in individuals with
schizophrenia.

What is the peak age of onset for schizophrenia in men?

● A) 10-20 years
● B) 20-30 years
● C) 30-40 years
● D) 40-50 years
Answer: B) 20-30 years Explanation: The peak age of onset for schizophrenia in men is
typically between 20-30 years.

Which symptom is categorized as a negative symptom in schizophrenia?

● A) Delusions
● B) Hallucinations
● C) Avolition
● D) Disorganized speech

Answer: C) Avolition Explanation: Negative symptoms, such as avolition, refer to the

absence of normal mental functions.

Which of the following is a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia as outlined by Kurt

Schneider?

● A) Avolition
● B) Thought broadcasting
● C) Affective flattening
● D) Social withdrawal

Answer: B) Thought broadcasting Explanation: Kurt Schneider identified thought

broadcasting as a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia.

What is the primary goal of antipsychotic medications in the treatment of schizophrenia?

● A) Increase cognitive abilities

● B) Reduce the impact of psychotic symptoms
● C) Improve motor functions
● D) Enhance social interactions

Answer: B) Reduce the impact of psychotic symptoms Explanation: Antipsychotic

medications are primarily used to reduce the impact of psychotic symptoms in patients
with schizophrenia.

What percentage of individuals with schizophrenia attempt suicide?

● A) 10-20%
● B) 20-50%
● C) 50-70%
● D) 70-90%
Answer: B) 20-50% Explanation: Approximately 20-50% of individuals with
schizophrenia attempt suicide.

Which type of hallucination is most common in schizophrenia?

● A) Visual
● B) Auditory
● C) Tactile
● D) Olfactory

Answer: B) Auditory Explanation: Auditory hallucinations are the most common type of
hallucination in schizophrenia.

Which environmental factor is considered a risk for developing schizophrenia?

● A) Urban living
● B) Rural living
● C) High socioeconomic status
● D) Low stress environment

Answer: A) Urban living Explanation: Urban living is associated with a higher risk of
developing schizophrenia.

What is the distinguishing feature of schizoaffective disorder?

● A) Presence of only mood symptoms

● B) Presence of only psychotic symptoms
● C) Presence of both mood and psychotic symptoms
● D) Absence of both mood and psychotic symptoms

Answer: C) Presence of both mood and psychotic symptoms Explanation:

Schizoaffective disorder involves symptoms of both mood disorder and schizophrenia.

What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of delusional disorder?

● A) 0.2-0.3%
● B) 1-2%
● C) 5-10%
● D) 10-20%

Answer: A) 0.2-0.3% Explanation: The lifetime prevalence of delusional disorder is

approximately 0.2-0.3%.
Which type of delusion involves a false belief that one is being conspired against?

● A) Grandiose delusion
● B) Persecutory delusion
● C) Erotomanic delusion
● D) Somatic delusion

Answer: B) Persecutory delusion Explanation: Persecutory delusion involves the belief

that one is being conspired against or persecuted.

What is the primary treatment approach for delusional disorder?

● A) Antidepressants
● B) Antipsychotics
● C) Anticonvulsants
● D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: B) Antipsychotics Explanation: Antipsychotic medications are the primary

treatment for delusional disorder.

Which subtype of delusional disorder involves delusions of body infestation or physical

defect?

● A) Grandiose type
● B) Jealous type
● C) Somatic type
● D) Mixed type

Answer: C) Somatic type Explanation: Somatic type delusional disorder involves

delusions of infestation or physical defect.

Which diagnostic criterion must be met for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

● A) Symptoms must persist for at least 1 month

● B) Symptoms must persist for at least 3 months
● C) Symptoms must persist for at least 6 months
● D) Symptoms must persist for at least 12 months

Answer: C) Symptoms must persist for at least 6 months Explanation: For a diagnosis of
schizophrenia, symptoms must persist for at least 6 months, including at least 1 month
of active-phase symptoms.
Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

● A) Anhedonia
● B) Affective flattening
● C) Hallucinations
● D) Alogia

Answer: C) Hallucinations Explanation: Hallucinations are positive symptoms, whereas

anhedonia, affective flattening, and alogia are negative symptoms.

Which personality disorder must be ruled out before diagnosing schizophrenia?

● A) Borderline personality disorder

● B) Schizoid personality disorder
● C) Antisocial personality disorder
● D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: B) Schizoid personality disorder Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder

must be ruled out as it can present with some similar symptoms to schizophrenia.

What percentage of patients with schizophrenia have comorbid substance use

disorder?

● A) 10-20%
● B) 30-50%
● C) 50-70%
● D) 70-90%

Answer: B) 30-50% Explanation: 30-50% of patients with schizophrenia have comorbid

substance use disorder.

Which symptom is considered a disorganized symptom in schizophrenia?

● A) Delusions
● B) Hallucinations
● C) Disorganized speech
● D) Anhedonia

Answer: C) Disorganized speech Explanation: Disorganized symptoms include

disorganized speech, behavior, and thinking.
Which type of medication is commonly used as the first-line treatment for
schizophrenia?

● A) Antidepressants
● B) Benzodiazepines
● C) Antipsychotics
● D) Stimulants

Answer: C) Antipsychotics Explanation: Antipsychotics are the first-line treatment for

managing schizophrenia symptoms.

Which subtype of schizophrenia was previously classified by DSM-IV but removed in

DSM-5?

● A) Catatonic type
● B) Disorganized type
● C) Paranoid type
● D) Undifferentiated type

Answer: C) Paranoid type Explanation: DSM-5 removed the subtypes of schizophrenia

that were classified in DSM-IV, including paranoid type.

Which neuroimaging finding is most commonly associated with schizophrenia?

● A) Enlarged ventricles
● B) Reduced hippocampal volume
● C) Increased frontal lobe activity
● D) Increased occipital lobe activity

Answer: A) Enlarged ventricles Explanation: Enlarged ventricles are a common

neuroimaging finding in individuals with schizophrenia.

What is the primary goal of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in schizophrenia?

● A) Reduce medication side effects

● B) Address negative symptoms
● C) Manage positive symptoms
● D) Enhance social skills

Answer: C) Manage positive symptoms Explanation: CBT in schizophrenia primarily

aims to manage positive symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations.
Which of the following best describes the prodromal phase of schizophrenia?

● A) Full-blown psychotic symptoms

● B) Gradual onset of symptoms
● C) Rapid resolution of symptoms
● D) Absence of any symptoms

Answer: B) Gradual onset of symptoms Explanation: The prodromal phase involves a

gradual onset of symptoms that precede the full-blown psychotic phase.

Which of the following is a key feature distinguishing schizoaffective disorder from mood
disorders with psychotic features?

● A) Mood symptoms are more prominent

● B) Psychotic symptoms occur exclusively during mood episodes
● C) Psychotic symptoms occur independently of mood episodes
● D) Absence of mood symptoms

Answer: C) Psychotic symptoms occur independently of mood episodes Explanation: In

schizoaffective disorder, psychotic symptoms occur independently of mood episodes,
unlike in mood disorders with psychotic features.

What is the most common type of delusion in delusional disorder?

● A) Grandiose delusion
● B) Persecutory delusion
● C) Erotomanic delusion
● D) Somatic delusion

Answer: B) Persecutory delusion Explanation: Persecutory delusions are the most

common type of delusion in delusional disorder.

Which type of antipsychotic medication is more likely to cause extrapyramidal side

effects?

● A) Atypical antipsychotics
● B) Typical antipsychotics
● C) Antidepressants
● D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: B) Typical antipsychotics Explanation: Typical antipsychotics are more likely to

cause extrapyramidal side effects compared to atypical antipsychotics.
Which factor is associated with a better prognosis in schizophrenia?

● A) Early onset of symptoms

● B) Male gender
● C) Good premorbid functioning
● D) Predominance of negative symptoms

Answer: C) Good premorbid functioning Explanation: Good premorbid functioning is

associated with a better prognosis in schizophrenia.

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing tardive dyskinesia?

● A) Short-term use of antipsychotics

● B) Female gender
● C) Use of atypical antipsychotics
● D) Young age

Answer: B) Female gender Explanation: Female gender is a risk factor for developing
tardive dyskinesia, especially with long-term use of typical antipsychotics.

Which symptom is commonly targeted by clozapine in treatment-resistant

schizophrenia?

● A) Cognitive symptoms
● B) Positive symptoms
● C) Negative symptoms
● D) Disorganized symptoms

Answer: B) Positive symptoms Explanation: Clozapine is often used for

treatment-resistant schizophrenia to target positive symptoms, such as hallucinations
and delusions.

Which of the following best describes delusional disorder?

● A) Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others

● B) Fixed, false beliefs not congruent with reality
● C) Episodes of intense fear and panic
● D) Periods of abnormally elevated mood

Answer: B) Fixed, false beliefs not congruent with reality Explanation: Delusional
disorder involves fixed, false beliefs that are not congruent with reality.
Which phase of schizophrenia is characterized by a reduction in symptoms and return
to baseline functioning?

● A) Prodromal phase
● B) Active phase
● C) Residual phase
● D) Acute phase

Answer: C) Residual phase Explanation: The residual phase is characterized by a

reduction in symptoms and a return to baseline functioning after an active psychotic
episode.

What is the role of family therapy in the treatment of schizophrenia?

● A) Replace pharmacotherapy
● B) Address family dynamics and support
● C) Provide psychoeducation to the patient only
● D) Focus solely on the patient’s symptoms

Answer: B) Address family dynamics and support Explanation: Family therapy

addresses family dynamics, provides support, and offers psychoeducation to both the
patient and their family.

Which of the following is a common side effect of atypical antipsychotics?

● A) Hypertension
● B) Weight gain
● C) Hyperactivity
● D) Hypoglycemia

Answer: B) Weight gain Explanation: Weight gain is a common side effect of atypical
antipsychotics.

What is the first-line treatment for acute psychotic episodes?

● A) Benzodiazepines
● B) Mood stabilizers
● C) Antipsychotics
● D) Antidepressants

Answer: C) Antipsychotics Explanation: Antipsychotics are the first-line treatment for

managing acute psychotic episodes.
Which of the following is not a typical antipsychotic?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Chlorpromazine
● C) Clozapine
● D) Fluphenazine

Answer: C) Clozapine Explanation: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, whereas

haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and fluphenazine are typical antipsychotics.

Which neurotransmitter is implicated in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

● A) Serotonin
● B) Dopamine
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Glutamate

Answer: B) Dopamine Explanation: Dysregulation of dopamine is primarily implicated in

the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Which psychosocial intervention is beneficial for improving social functioning in

schizophrenia?

● A) Electroconvulsive therapy
● B) Cognitive remediation therapy
● C) Psychoanalytic therapy
● D) Supportive psychotherapy

Answer: B) Cognitive remediation therapy Explanation: Cognitive remediation therapy is

beneficial for improving social functioning and cognitive deficits in schizophrenia.

Which form of schizophrenia is characterized by a prominent disturbance in motor

behavior?

● A) Paranoid type
● B) Catatonic type
● C) Disorganized type
● D) Residual type

Answer: B) Catatonic type Explanation: Catatonic type schizophrenia is characterized

by a prominent disturbance in motor behavior, including immobility and agitation.
What is the typical age of onset for delusional disorder?

● A) Adolescence
● B) Early adulthood
● C) Middle to late adulthood
● D) Childhood

Answer: C) Middle to late adulthood Explanation: Delusional disorder typically has an

onset in middle to late adulthood.

Which of the following medications is an atypical antipsychotic?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Risperidone
● C) Chlorpromazine
● D) Thioridazine

Answer: B) Risperidone Explanation: Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic, while

haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and thioridazine are typical antipsychotics.

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing schizophrenia?

● A) High birth weight

● B) Maternal smoking during pregnancy
● C) Advanced paternal age
● D) Low exposure to stress

Answer: C) Advanced paternal age Explanation: Advanced paternal age is a known

risk factor for developing schizophrenia.
Which of the following is a common cognitive deficit in schizophrenia?

● A) Increased attention span

● B) Enhanced memory
● C) Impaired executive function
● D) Improved language skills

Answer: C) Impaired executive function Explanation: Cognitive deficits in

schizophrenia often include impaired executive function, attention, and memory.
Which type of hallucination involves hearing voices commenting on one's
actions?

● A) Command hallucination
● B) Auditory hallucination
 ● C) Visual hallucination
● D) Olfactory hallucination

Answer: B) Auditory hallucination Explanation: Auditory hallucinations in

schizophrenia often involve hearing voices commenting on one's actions or conversing
with each other.
Which antipsychotic medication is known for its effectiveness in
treatment-resistant schizophrenia?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Risperidone
● C) Clozapine
● D) Olanzapine

Answer: C) Clozapine Explanation: Clozapine is known for its effectiveness in

treatment-resistant schizophrenia, especially when other antipsychotics have failed.
Slide Three: Emergency Psychiatry

What is the primary goal in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Conducting detailed psychological assessments

● B) Rapid stabilization and ensuring safety
● C) Long-term treatment planning
● D) Medication management only

Answer: B) Rapid stabilization and ensuring safety

Explanation: Emergency psychiatry focuses on immediate therapeutic intervention to
prevent harm to the patient or others.
Which of the following is considered a psychiatric emergency?

● A) Mild anxiety
● B) Acute psychotic state
● C) Moderate depression
● D) Chronic insomnia

Answer: B) Acute psychotic state

Explanation: Acute psychotic states require immediate attention to prevent harm and
stabilize the patient.
What should be the first step in the emergency psychiatry interview?

● A) Prescribing medication
● B) Taking supplemental history from friends and relatives
● C) Focusing on presenting complaints
● D) Ordering laboratory tests

Answer: C) Focusing on presenting complaints

Explanation: The initial focus should be on understanding the primary issues presented
by the patient to quickly address the emergency.
What is crucial to consider when dealing with a violent patient?

● A) Immediate physical restraint

● B) Keeping a safe physical distance
● C) Ignoring their past history of violence
● D) Avoiding eye contact

Answer: B) Keeping a safe physical distance

Explanation: Maintaining an adequate physical distance helps in ensuring safety and
reducing the risk of aggression.
Which of the following is NOT typically assessed in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Head trauma
● B) Recent diagnoses of medical illnesses
● C) Long-term personality traits
● D) Alcohol and substance use

Answer: C) Long-term personality traits

Explanation: Emergency psychiatry focuses on immediate concerns and conditions
that may be contributing to the acute presentation.
Which medication is commonly used for acute psychotic states in an emergency?

● A) Fluoxetine
● B) Lorazepam
● C) Haloperidol
● D) Sertraline

Answer: C) Haloperidol
Explanation: Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication frequently used for rapid
tranquilization in acute psychotic episodes.
What is the purpose of a toxicology screen in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Diagnosing psychiatric disorders

● B) Identifying substance use or poisoning
● C) Monitoring long-term medication effects
● D) Assessing nutritional status

Answer: B) Identifying substance use or poisoning

Explanation: A toxicology screen helps detect substances that could be contributing to
the patient’s acute presentation.
What is a key factor in assessing the risk of violence?

● A) Patient's appearance
● B) Immediate past history of violence
● C) Patient’s educational level
● D) Family history of mental illness

Answer: B) Immediate past history of violence

Explanation: The immediate past history of violence is a strong predictor of future
violent behavior.
Which behavior is NOT a common sign of impending violence?

● A) Loud voice
 ● B) Staring eyes
● C) Calm demeanor
● D) Pacing about in the room

Answer: C) Calm demeanor

Explanation: A calm demeanor is generally not associated with imminent violence,
unlike behaviors such as pacing and a loud voice.
Which is a primary indication for using physical restraints?

● A) Patient refusal to take medication

● B) Non-violent psychosis
● C) Immediate threat to self or others
● D) Mild agitation

Answer: C) Immediate threat to self or others

Explanation: Physical restraints are used when there is a significant and immediate
risk of harm.
What is a key strategy in de-escalating an agitated patient?

● A) Confronting the patient about their behavior

● B) Using a loud, authoritative voice
● C) Establishing rapport and listening
● D) Administering sedation immediately

Answer: C) Establishing rapport and listening

Explanation: Building rapport and listening to the patient’s concerns can help calm and
de-escalate the situation.
What is a contraindication for using depot injections in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Acute psychotic state

● B) Immediate threat of violence
● C) Long-term medication compliance
● D) History of non-compliance with oral medication

Answer: A) Acute psychotic state

Explanation: Depot injections are not recommended for immediate management of
acute episodes due to their delayed onset of action.
Which is a common factor associated with increased suicide risk?

● A) High socioeconomic status

● B) Recent discharge from psychiatric hospital
● C) No history of mental illness
 ● D) Stable family relationships

Answer: B) Recent discharge from psychiatric hospital

Explanation: The period following discharge is associated with an increased risk of
suicide.
What is parasuicide?

● A) Successful suicide
● B) Self-harm without intent to die
● C) Accidental death
● D) Homicidal behavior

Answer: B) Self-harm without intent to die

Explanation: Parasuicide refers to deliberate self-harm or poisoning without the intent
to cause death.
Which medication is used to manage neuroleptic malignant syndrome in an
emergency?

● A) Risperidone
● B) Haloperidol
● C) Bromocriptine
● D) Fluoxetine

Answer: C) Bromocriptine
Explanation: Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used to treat neuroleptic malignant
syndrome.
What should be highlighted in emergency psychiatry documentation?

● A) Only positive findings

● B) Both positive and negative findings
● C) Personal opinions
● D) Unrelated patient history

Answer: B) Both positive and negative findings

Explanation: Comprehensive documentation of both positive and negative findings is
crucial for accurate medical records.
Which factor is NOT typically associated with higher suicide risk?

● A) Single status
● B) Recent bereavement
● C) Chronic illness
● D) High self-esteem
Answer: D) High self-esteem
Explanation: High self-esteem is generally protective against suicide risk, unlike the
other factors listed.
What is the ratio of suicide attempts to completed suicides?

● A) 10:1
● B) 20:1
● C) 30:1
● D) 40:1

Answer: C) 30:1
Explanation: There are about 30 suicide attempts for every completed suicide.
Which of the following is a sociological factor influencing suicide according to
Durkheim's theory?

● A) Neurochemical imbalance
● B) Egoistic suicide
● C) Genetic predisposition
● D) Substance abuse

Answer: B) Egoistic suicide

Explanation: Durkheim’s theory categorizes suicide into egoistic, altruistic, and anomic
based on social integration and regulation.
What is the most common psychiatric disorder associated with suicide?

● A) Anxiety disorders
● B) Bipolar disorder
● C) Depressive disorders
● D) Schizophrenia

Answer: C) Depressive disorders

Explanation: Depressive disorders are most commonly associated with an increased
risk of suicide.
Which strategy is essential when breaking bad news in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Avoiding eye contact

● B) Using medical jargon
● C) Being honest and straightforward
● D) Minimizing the severity of the situation
Answer: C) Being honest and straightforward
Explanation: Clear, honest communication is crucial when delivering bad news to
ensure understanding and provide appropriate support.
What is the importance of assessing future plans in a suicidal patient?

● A) To gauge their daily schedule

● B) To understand their level of hopelessness
● C) To plan long-term therapy
● D) To evaluate their social life

Answer: B) To understand their level of hopelessness

Explanation: Assessing future plans helps determine the patient’s degree of
hopelessness and suicidal intent.
What should be done after physically restraining a patient?

● A) Leave them unattended

● B) Perform a brief physical survey
● C) Immediately administer sedatives
● D) Remove all restraints

Answer: B) Perform a brief physical survey

Explanation: After restraining a patient, it is essential to check for any physical injuries
and ensure their safety.
Which symptom is a strong predictor of impending violence?

● A) Calm demeanor
● B) Soft-spoken behavior
● C) Clenched fists
● D) Smiling

Answer: C) Clenched fists

Explanation: Clenched fists can indicate tension and a readiness to engage in
aggressive behavior.
Why are neuroleptic medications used in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Long-term management of psychosis

● B) Immediate sedation of violent patients
● C) Treating mild anxiety
● D) Managing chronic depression
Answer: B) Immediate sedation of violent patients
Explanation: Neuroleptics like haloperidol are used for rapid sedation of acutely
agitated or violent patients.
What is a significant risk factor for suicide among psychiatric patients?

● A) Recent job promotion

● B) Strong social support
● C) Previous suicide attempt
● D) Regular therapy sessions

Answer: C) Previous suicide attempt

Explanation: A history of previous suicide attempts significantly increases the risk of
future attempts.
What is the preferred approach when interviewing a potentially violent patient?

● A) Standing over them

● B) Sitting down with them
● C) Ignoring their concerns
● D) Shouting instructions

Answer: B) Sitting down with them

Explanation: Sitting down can help de-escalate tension and make the patient feel more
at ease.
What is the first thing to assess in a patient presenting with suicidal ideation?

● A) Their diet
● B) Their sleep pattern
● C) The specifics of their suicide plan
● D) Their job satisfaction

Answer: C) The specifics of their suicide plan

Explanation: Assessing the specifics of their plan helps determine the immediacy and
seriousness of the risk.
Which factor does NOT typically increase the risk of violence in psychiatric
patients?

● A) Substance abuse
● B) Antisocial personality disorder
● C) Paranoid schizophrenia
● D) High socioeconomic status
Answer: D) High socioeconomic status
Explanation: High socioeconomic status is not typically associated with an increased
risk of violence, unlike the other factors listed.
Which medication can be used to manage acute anxiety in an emergency setting?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Diazepam
● C) Risperidone
● D) Fluoxetine

Answer: B) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam is commonly used to manage acute anxiety due to its rapid
calming effect.
What is the role of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in emergency psychiatry?

● A) First-line treatment for mild anxiety

● B) Management of acute psychosis
● C) Long-term treatment of schizophrenia
● D) Treatment of severe, treatment-resistant depression

Answer: D) Treatment of severe, treatment-resistant depression

Explanation: ECT is reserved for severe cases of depression that do not respond to
other treatments.
Which physical condition is commonly mistaken for psychiatric symptoms in
emergencies?

● A) Hyperlipidemia
● B) Cerebrovascular disease
● C) Diabetes
● D) Hypertension

Answer: B) Cerebrovascular disease

Explanation: Cerebrovascular disease can present with symptoms that mimic
psychiatric disorders, such as confusion or agitation.
What is a common presentation in patients with antisocial personality disorder in
emergency psychiatry?

● A) Cooperative behavior
● B) Substance abuse
● C) Strong family support
● D) No history of violence
Answer: B) Substance abuse
Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder is often comorbid with substance abuse,
which can complicate management in emergency settings.
How should a clinician approach the patient’s personal space during an
emergency psychiatric evaluation?

● A) Invade their space to assert control

● B) Maintain a respectful distance
● C) Avoid physical contact at all costs
● D) Sit close to them to build rapport

Answer: B) Maintain a respectful distance

Explanation: Respecting personal space helps in preventing defensive or aggressive
reactions from the patient.
Which of the following is a sign of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

● A) Mild fever
● B) Hypotension
● C) Muscle rigidity
● D) Euphoria

Answer: C) Muscle rigidity

Explanation: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by symptoms such as
severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.
Which symptom requires immediate intervention in emergency psychiatry?

● A) Mild anxiety
● B) Chronic insomnia
● C) Severe acute dystonia
● D) Moderate depression

Answer: C) Severe acute dystonia

Explanation: Severe acute dystonia requires rapid treatment to relieve painful muscle
contractions and prevent further complications.
What should be considered when breaking bad news to a psychiatric patient?

● A) Using technical medical terms

● B) Speaking quickly to get it over with
● C) Being compassionate and empathetic
● D) Delegating the task to a junior staff member
Answer: C) Being compassionate and empathetic
Explanation: Breaking bad news should be done with compassion and empathy to
support the patient through their emotional response.
Which factor significantly increases the risk of suicide in patients with
schizophrenia?

● A) Female gender
● B) Recent discharge from hospital
● C) Older age
● D) No history of substance abuse

Answer: B) Recent discharge from hospital

Explanation: The period following discharge from a psychiatric hospital is associated
with a higher risk of suicide in patients with schizophrenia.
What is the key element in managing an acutely agitated patient?

● A) Immediate use of restraints

● B) Administering high doses of medication
● C) Establishing a calm and controlled environment
● D) Ignoring the patient's concerns

Answer: C) Establishing a calm and controlled environment

Explanation: A calm environment helps in reducing agitation and allows for safer and
more effective management of the patient.
What is the role of listening in de-escalating a psychiatric emergency?

● A) To find faults in the patient's reasoning

● B) To validate the patient's feelings and concerns
● C) To plan the next steps in treatment
● D) To distract the patient from their issues

Answer: B) To validate the patient's feelings and concerns

Explanation: Active listening and validation can help reduce the patient's distress and
prevent escalation of the situation.
Slide Four: Psychopharmacology

Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the pathophysiology of

schizophrenia?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: A) Dopamine Explanation: Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of

dopamine activity, particularly in the mesolimbic pathway.
What is the primary mechanism of action of selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors (SSRIs)?

● A) Blockade of dopamine receptors

● B) Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
● C) Enhancement of GABA activity
● D) Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake

Answer: B) Inhibition of serotonin reuptake Explanation: SSRIs increase the

availability of serotonin in the synaptic cleft by inhibiting its reuptake.
Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)?

● A) Fluoxetine
● B) Sertraline
● C) Amitriptyline
● D) Venlafaxine

Answer: C) Amitriptyline Explanation: Amitriptyline is a TCA, which works by inhibiting

the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin.
Which neurotransmitter is implicated in the 'monoamine hypothesis of
depression'?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above Explanation: The monoamine hypothesis suggests that
depression is related to the depletion of monoamines such as serotonin,
norepinephrine, and dopamine.
What is the main clinical use of mood stabilizers like lithium?

● A) Schizophrenia
● B) Major depressive disorder
● C) Bipolar disorder
● D) Anxiety disorders

Answer: C) Bipolar disorder Explanation: Mood stabilizers like lithium are primarily
used to treat and manage bipolar disorder.
Which class of drugs is primarily used for the treatment of anxiety disorders?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) Antidepressants
● C) Benzodiazepines
● D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: C) Benzodiazepines Explanation: Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed

for their anxiolytic effects.
Which drug is a first-line treatment for major depressive disorder?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Fluoxetine
● C) Lithium
● D) Clozapine

Answer: B) Fluoxetine Explanation: SSRIs like fluoxetine are often first-line treatments
for major depressive disorder.
What is a major side effect of antipsychotic medications?

● A) Sedation
● B) Hypertension
● C) Weight loss
● D) Tardive dyskinesia

Answer: D) Tardive dyskinesia Explanation: Tardive dyskinesia is a serious and

potentially irreversible side effect of long-term antipsychotic use.
Which neurotransmitter's receptors are targeted by antipsychotic drugs to treat
schizophrenia?

● A) GABA
● B) Serotonin
● C) Dopamine
● D) Glutamate
Answer: C) Dopamine Explanation: Antipsychotics primarily target dopamine
receptors to alleviate psychotic symptoms.
What is the therapeutic mechanism of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?

● A) Blockade of serotonin reuptake

● B) Inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme
● C) Enhancement of norepinephrine release
● D) Blockade of dopamine receptors

Answer: B) Inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme Explanation: MAOIs inhibit the

enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down monoamines, thereby increasing their
availability.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the therapeutic effects of SSRIs?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: SSRIs selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin,

increasing its levels in the brain.
Which drug is considered the gold standard for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

● A) Carbamazepine
● B) Valproate
● C) Lithium
● D) Lamotrigine

Answer: C) Lithium Explanation: Lithium is widely considered the gold standard for the
treatment and prevention of bipolar disorder.
What is the main action of benzodiazepines in the brain?

● A) Blockade of serotonin receptors

● B) Enhancement of GABA activity
● C) Inhibition of dopamine release
● D) Activation of norepinephrine receptors

Answer: B) Enhancement of GABA activity Explanation: Benzodiazepines enhance

the activity of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, producing calming effects.
Which of the following is a common side effect of SSRIs?

● A) Weight gain
● B) Insomnia
 ● C) Dry mouth
● D) Hypertension

Answer: B) Insomnia Explanation: Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, along

with other side effects such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues.
Which antipsychotic is known for its risk of agranulocytosis?

● A) Risperidone
● B) Olanzapine
● C) Quetiapine
● D) Clozapine

Answer: D) Clozapine Explanation: Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a

potentially life-threatening reduction in white blood cells.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the regulation of mood and
anxiety?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: Serotonin plays a crucial role in mood and anxiety
regulation.
What is the primary use of antipsychotic drugs?

● A) Treating depression
● B) Managing anxiety disorders
● C) Treating psychotic disorders
● D) Treating insomnia

Answer: C) Treating psychotic disorders Explanation: Antipsychotic drugs are

primarily used to treat psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia.
Which class of drugs is used as first-line treatment for panic disorder?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) SSRIs
● C) TCAs
● D) MAOIs

Answer: B) SSRIs Explanation: SSRIs are often the first-line treatment for panic
disorder due to their efficacy and safety profile.
Which drug class is known for the side effect of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)?
 ● A) Antidepressants
● B) Benzodiazepines
● C) Antipsychotics
● D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: C) Antipsychotics Explanation: Antipsychotics, especially first-generation, are

associated with extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, and
parkinsonism.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the 'dopamine hypothesis' of
schizophrenia?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: A) Dopamine Explanation: The dopamine hypothesis suggests that

schizophrenia is related to an overactivity of dopamine in certain brain pathways.
Which medication is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Lithium
● C) Buspirone
● D) Amitriptyline

Answer: C) Buspirone Explanation: Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat

generalized anxiety disorder, distinct from benzodiazepines and SSRIs.
Which neurotransmitter's reuptake is inhibited by tricyclic antidepressants
(TCAs)?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Both B and C

Answer: D) Both B and C Explanation: TCAs inhibit the reuptake of both serotonin and
norepinephrine, increasing their levels in the brain.
Which drug is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
(SNRI)?

● A) Fluoxetine
● B) Sertraline
 ● C) Venlafaxine
● D) Mirtazapine

Answer: C) Venlafaxine Explanation: Venlafaxine is an SNRI, inhibiting the reuptake of

both serotonin and norepinephrine.
Which neurotransmitter system is primarily targeted by antipsychotics?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) GABA

Answer: A) Dopamine Explanation: Antipsychotics mainly target the dopamine system

to alleviate symptoms of psychosis.
What is the primary therapeutic use of MAOIs?

● A) Anxiety disorders
● B) Major depressive disorder
● C) Bipolar disorder
● D) Schizophrenia

Answer: B) Major depressive disorder Explanation: MAOIs are primarily used to treat
major depressive disorder, especially when other treatments have failed.
Which medication is associated with the risk of serotonin syndrome?

● A) Lithium
● B) Fluoxetine
● C) Haloperidol
● D) Clozapine

Answer: B) Fluoxetine Explanation: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can increase the risk of

serotonin syndrome when used with other serotonergic drugs.
Which antipsychotic has the least risk of extrapyramidal side effects?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Risperidone
● C) Quetiapine
● D) Chlorpromazine

Answer: C) Quetiapine Explanation: Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic with a

lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.
What is the therapeutic use of benzodiazepines?
 ● A) Treating psychosis
● B) Managing anxiety and insomnia
● C) Treating major depression
● D) Stabilizing mood in bipolar disorder

Answer: B) Managing anxiety and insomnia Explanation: Benzodiazepines are

commonly used to manage anxiety and insomnia due to their sedative effects.
Which drug class is primarily used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD)?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) SSRIs
● C) TCAs
● D) Benzodiazepines

Answer: B) SSRIs Explanation: SSRIs are the first-line treatment for OCD due to their
efficacy in reducing symptoms.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily targeted by TCAs?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Both B and C

Answer: D) Both B and C Explanation: TCAs inhibit the reuptake of both serotonin and
norepinephrine, increasing their availability.
Which antipsychotic is known for having a high risk of weight gain?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Olanzapine
● C) Risperidone
● D) Ziprasidone

Answer: B) Olanzapine Explanation: Olanzapine is associated with significant weight

gain among antipsychotic medications.
Which drug is considered a first-line treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder
(PTSD)?

● A) Fluoxetine
● B) Lithium
● C) Haloperidol
● D) Buspirone
Answer: A) Fluoxetine Explanation: SSRIs like fluoxetine are often first-line treatments
for PTSD due to their efficacy in reducing symptoms.
What is the primary side effect of MAOIs that patients should be aware of?

● A) Hypertension
● B) Weight loss
● C) Orthostatic hypotension
● D) Sedation

Answer: C) Orthostatic hypotension Explanation: Orthostatic hypotension is a

common side effect of MAOIs, along with dietary restrictions to avoid hypertensive
crises.
Which antipsychotic medication requires regular blood monitoring due to the risk
of agranulocytosis?

● A) Risperidone
● B) Olanzapine
● C) Quetiapine
● D) Clozapine

Answer: D) Clozapine Explanation: Clozapine requires regular blood monitoring

because of the risk of agranulocytosis.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the therapeutic effects of SSRIs?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: SSRIs selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin,

increasing its levels in the brain.
Which class of drugs is typically used for the treatment of panic disorder?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) SSRIs
● C) TCAs
● D) Benzodiazepines

Answer: B) SSRIs Explanation: SSRIs are often the first-line treatment for panic
disorder due to their efficacy and safety profile.
Which antipsychotic has the highest risk of causing metabolic syndrome?

● A) Haloperidol
 ● B) Olanzapine
● C) Risperidone
● D) Ziprasidone

Answer: B) Olanzapine Explanation: Olanzapine has a high risk of causing metabolic

syndrome, including weight gain and diabetes.
Which medication is primarily used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD)?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Fluoxetine
● C) Lithium
● D) Clozapine

Answer: B) Fluoxetine Explanation: SSRIs like fluoxetine are the first-line treatment for
OCD due to their efficacy in reducing symptoms.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the therapeutic effects of
benzodiazepines?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) GABA
● D) Norepinephrine

Answer: C) GABA Explanation: Benzodiazepines enhance the activity of GABA, an

inhibitory neurotransmitter, producing calming effects.
What is the primary therapeutic use of lithium?

● A) Treating schizophrenia
● B) Managing major depression
● C) Treating bipolar disorder
● D) Managing anxiety disorders

Answer: C) Treating bipolar disorder Explanation: Lithium is primarily used to treat and
prevent episodes in bipolar disorder.
Which drug is considered a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder
(GAD)?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Lithium
● C) Buspirone
● D) Amitriptyline
Answer: C) Buspirone Explanation: Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat
generalized anxiety disorder, distinct from benzodiazepines and SSRIs.
Which medication is associated with a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects
(EPS)?

● A) Clozapine
● B) Risperidone
● C) Quetiapine
● D) Haloperidol

Answer: D) Haloperidol Explanation: Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, has

a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects.
Which class of drugs is primarily used to treat major depressive disorder?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) Benzodiazepines
● C) Antidepressants
● D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: C) Antidepressants Explanation: Antidepressants, including SSRIs, SNRIs,

TCAs, and MAOIs, are primarily used to treat major depressive disorder.
Which medication is known for its risk of inducing agranulocytosis?

● A) Risperidone
● B) Olanzapine
● C) Quetiapine
● D) Clozapine

Answer: D) Clozapine Explanation: Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a

potentially life-threatening reduction in white blood cells.
Which neurotransmitter system is primarily targeted by mood stabilizers?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) GABA

Answer: D) GABA Explanation: Mood stabilizers, particularly drugs like valproate,

enhance GABA activity, which stabilizes mood.
What is the primary therapeutic use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?

● A) Anxiety disorders
● B) Major depressive disorder
 ● C) Bipolar disorder
● D) Schizophrenia

Answer: B) Major depressive disorder Explanation: MAOIs are primarily used to treat
major depressive disorder, especially when other treatments have failed.
Which medication is associated with the risk of serotonin syndrome?

● A) Lithium
● B) Fluoxetine
● C) Haloperidol
● D) Clozapine

Answer: B) Fluoxetine Explanation: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can increase the risk of

serotonin syndrome when used with other serotonergic drugs.
Which neurotransmitter's reuptake is inhibited by selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors (SSRIs)?

● A) Dopamine
● B) Serotonin
● C) Norepinephrine
● D) Acetylcholine

Answer: B) Serotonin Explanation: SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, increasing

its levels in the brain.
Which drug class is typically used for the treatment of panic disorder?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) SSRIs
● C) TCAs
● D) Benzodiazepines

Answer: B) SSRIs Explanation: SSRIs are often the first-line treatment for panic
disorder due to their efficacy and safety profile.
Which antipsychotic has the least risk of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS)?

● A) Haloperidol
● B) Olanzapine
● C) Risperidone
● D) Quetiapine

Answer: D) Quetiapine Explanation: Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic with a

lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.
Slide Five: Anxiety and OCD

1. Which of the following is a common physical symptom of anxiety?

a) Decreased heart rate

b) Sweating
c) Increased appetite
d) Hyperactivity

Answer: b) Sweating
Explanation: Sweating is a common physical symptom of anxiety, often accompanied
by other autonomic symptoms such as palpitations and muscle tension.

2. Anxiety is primarily a response to which type of threat?

a) Known and definite

b) Unknown and vague
c) External and present
d) Physical and acute

Answer: b) Unknown and vague

Explanation: Anxiety is a response to a threat that is unknown, internal, vague, or
conflictual, differentiating it from fear, which responds to a known and definite threat.

3. What is the lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders?

a) 10%
b) 18%
c) 28%
d) 50%

Answer: c) 28%
Explanation: The lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders is approximately 28%,
indicating it affects more than a quarter of the population at some point in their lives.

4. Which neurotransmitter is excessively secreted in anxiety disorders?

a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Acetylcholine

Answer: c) Norepinephrine
Explanation: The noradrenergic system, which involves norepinephrine, is often
hyperactive in anxiety disorders, contributing to symptoms such as palpitations and
hypervigilance.

5. In Panic Disorder, how long does it typically take for symptoms to peak?

a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 30 minutes

Answer: c) 10 minutes
Explanation: Panic attacks typically reach their peak intensity within 10 minutes of
onset, making them sudden and intensely distressing events.

6. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a panic attack?

a) Chest pain
b) Abdominal distress
c) Hyperactivity
d) Fear of dying

Answer: c) Hyperactivity
Explanation: While hyperactivity is not a typical symptom of panic attacks, chest pain,
abdominal distress, and fear of dying are common features.

7. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is effective in treating which of the

following conditions?

a) Panic Disorder
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes Mellitus
d) Asthma

Answer: a) Panic Disorder

Explanation: CBT is a cornerstone in treating panic disorder, focusing on changing the
thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to the disorder.

8. Social anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive anxiety in which

situations?

a) Large crowds only

b) Public speaking only
c) Social situations involving possible scrutiny
d) Solitary activities

Answer: c) Social situations involving possible scrutiny

Explanation: Social anxiety disorder involves excessive anxiety in situations where one
fears embarrassment or scrutiny by others.

9. Which of the following is NOT an etiological factor in social anxiety

disorder?

a) Onset during early adolescence

b) Behavioral inhibition
c) Chronic physical illness
d) Social "traumatic" experiences

Answer: c) Chronic physical illness

Explanation: Social anxiety disorder is more closely linked with psychological and
developmental factors, rather than chronic physical illness.

10. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is best described as anxiety that is:

a) Triggered by specific stimuli

b) Episodic and intense
c) Continuous and generalized
d) Absent in stressful situations
Answer: c) Continuous and generalized
Explanation: GAD is characterized by a persistent, free-floating anxiety that is not tied
to specific situations or stimuli.

11. Which symptom is required for a diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety

Disorder (GAD)?

a) Hallucinations
b) Delusions
c) Restlessness
d) Grandiosity

Answer: c) Restlessness
Explanation: Restlessness is one of the key symptoms of GAD, where individuals often
feel on edge or unable to relax.

12. Which class of medication is most commonly used in the treatment of

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

a) Antipsychotics
b) Beta-blockers
c) SSRIs
d) Stimulants

Answer: c) SSRIs
Explanation: SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) are commonly
prescribed for GAD due to their effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms.

13. Which cognitive distortion is most associated with anxiety disorders?

a) Overgeneralization
b) Catastrophizing
c) Personalization
d) Mind reading
Answer: b) Catastrophizing
Explanation: Catastrophizing involves anticipating the worst possible outcomes, a
common cognitive distortion in anxiety disorders.

14. What is the first-line treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

(OCD)?

a) Antipsychotics
b) Stimulants
c) SSRIs
d) Mood stabilizers

Answer: c) SSRIs
Explanation: SSRIs are considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for OCD
due to their efficacy in reducing both obsessions and compulsions.

15. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

a) Contamination fears
b) Compulsive checking
c) Recurrent intrusive thoughts
d) Auditory hallucinations

Answer: d) Auditory hallucinations

Explanation: Auditory hallucinations are not characteristic of OCD, which is more
focused on intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors.

16. The fear of having another panic attack often leads to which behavioral
change?

a) Increased socialization
b) Avoidance of places or situations
c) Increased risk-taking
d) Compulsive exercise
Answer: b) Avoidance of places or situations
Explanation: Individuals with panic disorder often avoid situations where they fear
another attack might occur, which can lead to significant lifestyle restrictions.

17. What percentage of monozygotic twins are concordant for

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

a) 40-50%
b) 60-70%
c) 80-87%
d) 90-95%

Answer: c) 80-87%
Explanation: The concordance rate for OCD among monozygotic twins is high,
indicating a strong genetic component to the disorder.

18. Which therapy is particularly effective for treating OCD?

a) Interpersonal therapy
b) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
c) Psychodynamic therapy
d) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

Answer: b) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)

Explanation: ERP is a specific form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that is highly
effective for treating OCD by gradually exposing patients to their fears and preventing
their usual compulsive responses.

19. Which disorder is characterized by fear of situations where escape

might be difficult?

a) Panic Disorder
b) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c) Agoraphobia
d) Specific Phobia
Answer: c) Agoraphobia
Explanation: Agoraphobia involves a fear of being in situations where escape might be
difficult or where help may not be available during a panic attack.

20. What is the typical onset age for Social Anxiety Disorder?

a) Early childhood
b) Early adolescence
c) Late adolescence
d) Adulthood

Answer: b) Early adolescence

Explanation: Social Anxiety Disorder typically begins in early adolescence, often during
critical social development stages.

21. Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with panic attacks?

a) Palpitations
b) Hyperventilation
c) Sweating
d) Increased energy

Answer: d) Increased energy

Explanation: Increased energy is not a symptom of panic attacks, which are more
commonly associated with intense fear and autonomic arousal.

22. Which of the following is a psychological symptom of anxiety?

a) Muscle tension
b) Shortness of breath
c) Apprehension or dread
d) Tremors

Answer: c) Apprehension or dread

Explanation: Apprehension or a sense of dread is a psychological symptom of anxiety,
reflecting the emotional aspect of the disorder.
23. What type of therapy focuses on altering thought patterns to change
behavior and emotions?

a) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

b) Psychodynamic Therapy
c) Art Therapy
d) Gestalt Therapy

Answer: a) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

Explanation: CBT is designed to alter dysfunctional thought patterns to effect change
in emotions and behaviors, making it highly effective for anxiety and mood disorders.

24. Which condition is characterized by a persistent, irrational fear of

specific objects or situations?

a) Social Anxiety Disorder

b) Agoraphobia
c) Specific Phobia
d) Panic Disorder

Answer: c) Specific Phobia

Explanation: Specific phobia involves an intense and irrational fear of a particular
object or situation, leading to avoidance behavior.

25. Which neurotransmitter system is implicated in the hyperactivity seen

in anxiety disorders?

a) Dopaminergic
b) Serotonergic
c) Noradrenergic
d) Cholinergic

Answer: c) Noradrenergic
Explanation: The noradrenergic system, which involves norepinephrine, is often
hyperactive in anxiety disorders, contributing to symptoms like increased heart rate and
vigilance.
26. Which symptom is NOT part of the DSM-5 criteria for a panic attack?

a) Fear of losing control

b) Derealization
c) Paranoia
d) Feeling of choking

Answer: c) Paranoia
Explanation: Paranoia is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for panic attacks, which
focus more on physical and psychological symptoms like derealization and fear of losing
control.

27. Obsessions in OCD are best described as:

a) Voluntary and controlled thoughts

b) Intrusive and unwanted thoughts
c) Generalized worries
d) Psychotic delusions

Answer: b) Intrusive and unwanted thoughts

Explanation: Obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, urges, or images that
cause significant distress and are a hallmark of OCD.

28. Which medication is commonly prescribed for OCD?

a) Benzodiazepines
b) SSRIs
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Antipsychotics

Answer: b) SSRIs
Explanation: SSRIs are the most commonly prescribed medications for OCD, as they
help reduce both obsessions and compulsions.

29. Which anxiety disorder is most likely to involve "free-floating" anxiety?

a) Panic Disorder
b) Social Anxiety Disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Specific Phobia

Answer: c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Explanation: GAD is characterized by "free-floating" anxiety that is not linked to
specific triggers or situations but is pervasive and persistent.

30. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for anxiety disorders?

a) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
b) SSRIs
c) Exposure Therapy
d) Lithium

Answer: d) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium is not used to treat anxiety disorders; it is typically prescribed for
bipolar disorder.

31. Which type of therapy is most effective for Social Anxiety Disorder?

a) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

b) Psychodynamic Therapy
c) Interpersonal Therapy
d) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

Answer: a) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)

Explanation: CBT, particularly when it involves exposure to social situations, is highly
effective in treating Social Anxiety Disorder.

32. In OCD, compulsions are:

a) Voluntary behaviors to reduce boredom

b) Repetitive behaviors done to reduce anxiety
c) Random actions without purpose
d) Symptoms of psychosis
Answer: b) Repetitive behaviors done to reduce anxiety
Explanation: Compulsions in OCD are repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed to
reduce the distress associated with obsessions.

33. What is the primary psychological theory explaining anxiety in

Psychoanalytic theory?

a) Result of learned behaviors

b) Indicator of unconscious conflict
c) Biological imbalance
d) Cognitive distortion

Answer: b) Indicator of unconscious conflict

Explanation: Psychoanalytic theory suggests that anxiety is an indicator of
unconscious conflicts that the mind tries to keep out of conscious awareness.

34. Which disorder is characterized by excessive and persistent worrying

about various domains of life?

a) Social Anxiety Disorder

b) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Panic Disorder

Answer: c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Explanation: GAD involves excessive and persistent worry about multiple aspects of
life, often without a specific trigger.

35. Which is a common avoidance behavior in Social Anxiety Disorder?

a) Avoiding public speaking

b) Avoiding physical exercise
c) Avoiding medical treatment
d) Avoiding sleep
Answer: a) Avoiding public speaking
Explanation: Public speaking is one of the most commonly avoided activities in Social
Anxiety Disorder due to the fear of embarrassment or judgment.

36. Which physical condition can mimic symptoms of a panic attack?

a) Hypertension
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Anemia
d) Hyperthyroidism

Answer: d) Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism can mimic symptoms of a panic attack, such as
palpitations, sweating, and anxiety, due to the excess production of thyroid hormone.

37. Which of the following is an example of a compulsion in OCD?

a) Intrusive fear of contamination

b) Repeatedly checking if the door is locked
c) Obsession with symmetry
d) Persistent fear of making a mistake

Answer: b) Repeatedly checking if the door is locked

Explanation: Repeatedly checking is a common compulsion in OCD, performed to
alleviate anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts.

38. In Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for GAD, what is a key focus?

a) Altering unconscious conflicts

b) Challenging and restructuring irrational thoughts
c) Exploring childhood experiences
d) Enhancing self-esteem

Answer: b) Challenging and restructuring irrational thoughts

Explanation: CBT for GAD focuses on identifying, challenging, and restructuring
irrational or maladaptive thoughts that contribute to chronic anxiety.
39. Which therapy involves exposure to the feared object or situation
without allowing the compulsive behavior to occur?

a) Cognitive Therapy
b) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
c) Behavioral Activation
d) Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)

Answer: b) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)

Explanation: ERP involves exposing the patient to the feared object or situation while
preventing the compulsive behavior, which is effective in treating OCD.

40. Which of the following disorders is often comorbid with OCD?

a) Schizophrenia
b) Panic Disorder
c) Major Depressive Disorder
d) Bipolar Disorder

Answer: c) Major Depressive Disorder

Explanation: Major Depressive Disorder is often comorbid with OCD, as the distress
and impairment caused by OCD can lead to depressive symptoms.

41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Generalized Anxiety

Disorder?

a) Fatigue
b) Irritability
c) Muscle tension
d) Psychosis

Answer: d) Psychosis
Explanation: Psychosis is not characteristic of GAD, which primarily involves
symptoms like fatigue, irritability, and muscle tension.
42. What is the term for an excessive fear of a specific object or situation?

a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b) Panic Disorder
c) Specific Phobia
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Answer: c) Specific Phobia

Explanation: A specific phobia is an excessive and irrational fear of a particular object
or situation, often leading to avoidance behavior.

43. Which disorder involves the persistent thought that one has or will
contract a serious illness?

a) Illness Anxiety Disorder

b) Social Anxiety Disorder
c) Panic Disorder
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Answer: a) Illness Anxiety Disorder

Explanation: Illness Anxiety Disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, involves a
preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite medical reassurance.

44. Which disorder is most likely to involve panic attacks triggered by

specific situations?

a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

b) Specific Phobia
c) Panic Disorder
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Answer: b) Specific Phobia

Explanation: Specific phobias often involve panic attacks or extreme anxiety when
faced with the feared object or situation.

45. Which term best describes the repetitive behaviors in OCD?

a) Rituals
b) Habits
c) Impulses
d) Instincts

Answer: a) Rituals
Explanation: In OCD, compulsions are often ritualistic behaviors performed in a
specific way to reduce the distress caused by obsessions.

46. Which of the following is a common side effect of SSRIs used to treat
anxiety disorders?

a) Weight loss
b) Insomnia
c) Bradycardia
d) Hypotension

Answer: b) Insomnia
Explanation: Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, which are frequently
prescribed for anxiety disorders.

47. The combination of CBT and which medication is most effective for
treating OCD?

a) Benzodiazepines
b) Antipsychotics
c) SSRIs
d) Beta-blockers

Answer: c) SSRIs
Explanation: The combination of CBT and SSRIs is considered the most effective
treatment approach for OCD, targeting both the cognitive and biochemical aspects of
the disorder.

48. Which type of anxiety disorder is most associated with childhood

trauma?
a) Panic Disorder
b) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c) Social Anxiety Disorder
d) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

Answer: d) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

Explanation: PTSD is strongly associated with the experience of trauma, particularly
during childhood, and involves persistent re-experiencing of the traumatic event.

49. Which feature distinguishes a panic disorder from other anxiety

disorders?

a) Excessive worry
b) Sudden onset of intense fear
c) Avoidance behavior
d) Fear of social situations

Answer: b) Sudden onset of intense fear

Explanation: Panic Disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of intense fear or
discomfort, often without an obvious trigger.

50. Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for specific

phobia?

a) Systematic desensitization
b) Flooding
c) Cognitive restructuring
d) Long-term medication use

Answer: d) Long-term medication use

Explanation: While systematic desensitization, flooding, and cognitive restructuring are
effective treatments, long-term medication use is typically not necessary or
recommended for specific phobias.
Slide Six: Child Psychiatry

1. Which of the following is a key difference between the adult and

child/adolescent clinical interview?

● A) Adults are more willing to discuss problems.

● B) Children's cognitive development level must be considered.
● C) Adults do not require parental input.
● D) Adults require more complex evaluation.

Answer: B) Children's cognitive development level must be considered. Explanation:

When interviewing children and adolescents, it's crucial to account for their cognitive
level of development, which is different from adults.

2. Which component is NOT typically part of the biopsychosocial history in child

psychiatry?

● A) Developmental history
● B) Family history
● C) Cultural background
● D) School performance

Answer: C) Cultural background Explanation: While cultural background is important,

the biopsychosocial history specifically emphasizes developmental, family, and
school-related factors.

3. What is the prevalence of mild intellectual disability among individuals with

intellectual disability (ID)?

● A) 50%
● B) 85%
● C) 10%
● D) 25%

Answer: B) 85% Explanation: Mild ID represents approximately 85% of individuals

with intellectual disability.
4. Which of the following genetic syndromes is NOT associated with intellectual
disability?

● A) Down Syndrome
● B) Phenylketonuria
● C) Fragile X Syndrome
● D) Huntington's Disease

Answer: D) Huntington's Disease Explanation: Huntington's Disease is a

neurodegenerative disorder, not typically associated with intellectual disability
syndromes.

5. Which prenatal condition is known to contribute to the development of

intellectual disability?

● A) ADHD
● B) Rubella (German Measles)
● C) Autism Spectrum Disorder
● D) Conduct Disorder

Answer: B) Rubella (German Measles) Explanation: Rubella is one of several prenatal

conditions that can lead to intellectual disability if contracted by the mother during
pregnancy.

6. What is the most common level of intellectual disability?

● A) Mild
● B) Moderate
● C) Severe
● D) Profound

Answer: A) Mild Explanation: Mild intellectual disability is the most common,

comprising about 85% of all cases.

7. What percentage of children with severe intellectual disability can adapt to

supervised living situations in adulthood?

● A) 10%
 ● B) 25%
● C) 50%
● D) 75%

Answer: C) 50% Explanation: Many individuals with severe ID can adapt to

supervised living situations and perform work-related tasks under supervision in
adulthood.

8. Which of the following disorders is considered a spectrum in DSM-5?

● A) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

● B) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
● C) Conduct Disorder
● D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

Answer: B) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) Explanation: Autism Spectrum Disorder

includes a range of conditions like Asperger’s disorder under the DSM-5.

9. At what age is autistic disorder typically recognized, although symptoms

appear earlier?

● A) 1 year
● B) 3 years
● C) 5 years
● D) 7 years

Answer: B) 3 years Explanation: By definition, the onset of autistic disorder is before

the age of 3, though it may not be recognized until later.

10. Which intervention is NOT typically part of the treatment for Autism Spectrum
Disorder?

● A) Structured classroom training

● B) Antidepressants
● C) Group therapy
● D) Family genetic counseling
Answer: D) Family genetic counseling Explanation: While family genetic counseling is
important in certain conditions, it is not a direct intervention for Autism Spectrum
Disorder.

11. What is the prevalence of ADHD in prepubertal elementary school children?

● A) 1-2%
● B) 3-7%
● C) 10-15%
● D) 20-25%

Answer: B) 3-7% Explanation: ADHD prevalence in prepubertal elementary school

children ranges between 3 to 7%.

12. Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing ADHD according to

DSM-5?

● A) Symptoms persist for at least 3 months

● B) Symptoms are observed in only one setting
● C) Impairment from symptoms is present in two or more settings
● D) Symptoms are solely related to hyperactivity

Answer: C) Impairment from symptoms is present in two or more settings Explanation:

ADHD diagnosis requires that symptoms cause impairment in at least two different
settings (e.g., home and school).

13. Which neurotransmitter system is thought to play a major role in ADHD

according to animal studies?

● A) Serotonergic
● B) Dopaminergic
● C) Adrenergic
● D) Cholinergic

Answer: C) Adrenergic Explanation: The locus ceruleus, which is primarily

noradrenergic, plays a major role in attention and is implicated in ADHD.
14. Which of the following medications is considered first-line treatment for
ADHD?

● A) Bupropion
● B) Venlafaxine
● C) Clonidine
● D) Methylphenidate

Answer: D) Methylphenidate Explanation: CNS stimulants like methylphenidate are

the first-line treatment for ADHD.

15. Which of the following is a psychosocial intervention for ADHD?

● A) Antidepressant therapy
● B) Behavioral interventions at school
● C) Antipsychotic medication
● D) Electroconvulsive therapy

Answer: B) Behavioral interventions at school Explanation: Behavioral interventions,

particularly those implemented in school settings, are an effective part of managing
ADHD.

16. Which disorder is often coexistent with ADHD, complicating diagnosis and
treatment?

● A) Autism Spectrum Disorder

● B) Learning Disorders
● C) Schizophrenia
● D) Anorexia Nervosa

Answer: B) Learning Disorders Explanation: ADHD often coexists with learning

disorders, which can complicate both diagnosis and treatment.

17. Which genetic factor is most commonly associated with Autism Spectrum
Disorder?

● A) Down Syndrome
● B) Tuberous Sclerosis
 ● C) Fragile X Syndrome
● D) Huntington's Disease

Answer: C) Fragile X Syndrome Explanation: Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic

condition often associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder.

18. Which of the following behaviors is NOT typically associated with ADHD?

● A) Fidgeting with hands or feet

● B) Interrupting or intruding on others
● C) Difficulty organizing tasks and activities
● D) Lack of interest in social relationships

Answer: D) Lack of interest in social relationships Explanation: Lack of interest in

social relationships is more commonly associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder rather
than ADHD.

19. Which factor is crucial in assessing the level of intellectual disability in a

child?

● A) Parental socioeconomic status

● B) Level of social adaptation
● C) Quality of peer relationships
● D) Birth order

Answer: B) Level of social adaptation Explanation: The level of social adaptation is

more critical than IQ when determining the level of intellectual disability.

20. What is the gender ratio for the prevalence of ADHD in children?

● A) 1:1
● B) 2:1 to 9:1 (boys
)
● C) 3:1 (girls
)
● D) 5:1 (boys
)
Answer: B) 2:1 to 9:1 (boys

) Explanation: ADHD is more prevalent in boys, with the ratio ranging from 2:1 to 9:1.

21. Which of the following is the most common comorbid condition with Autism
Spectrum Disorder?

● A) Intellectual Disability
● B) Conduct Disorder
● C) Bipolar Disorder
● D) Oppositional Defiant Disorder

Answer: A) Intellectual Disability Explanation: More than two-thirds of children with

Autism Spectrum Disorder have an associated Intellectual Disability.

22. What is the focus of tertiary prevention in intellectual disability?

● A) Educating the public about genetic disorders

● B) Minimizing the sequelae or consequent disabilities
● C) Promoting vaccination to prevent prenatal infections
● D) Ensuring optimal maternal and child health care

Answer: B) Minimizing the sequelae or consequent disabilities Explanation: Tertiary

prevention focuses on reducing complications or sequelae in those already affected by
a condition.

23. Which of the following disorders is associated with the development of

Tourette syndrome?

● A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

● B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
● C) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
● D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

Answer: A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) Explanation: Tourette syndrome is

often associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
24. What is the typical onset age for Tourette syndrome?

● A) 2 years
● B) 5 years
● C) 7 years
● D) 10 years

Answer: C) 7 years Explanation: The typical onset of Tourette syndrome is around 7

years of age.

25. Which therapy is considered effective for the treatment of OCD in children?

● A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

● B) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
● C) Psychoanalysis
● D) Psychodynamic Therapy

Answer: B) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) Explanation: Cognitive-Behavioral

Therapy is the most effective treatment for OCD in children, often combined with
medication.

26. Which of the following interventions is most commonly used in the treatment
of severe cases of Tourette syndrome?

● A) Antidepressants
● B) Antipsychotic medications
● C) Benzodiazepines
● D) Antihypertensive medications

Answer: B) Antipsychotic medications Explanation: Antipsychotic medications are

often used to manage severe tics in Tourette syndrome.

27. Which environmental factor is known to exacerbate symptoms in children

with ADHD?

● A) A structured environment
● B) High parental involvement
● C) Lack of consistent discipline
 ● D) Regular physical activity

Answer: C) Lack of consistent discipline Explanation: Inconsistent discipline can

exacerbate the symptoms of ADHD, leading to greater behavioral problems.

28. Which characteristic is NOT typically seen in children with Autism Spectrum
Disorder?

● A) Stereotyped behaviors
● B) Social communication difficulties
● C) Language delays
● D) Hyperactivity

Answer: D) Hyperactivity Explanation: While hyperactivity is common in ADHD, it is

not a core characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder.

29. What is a common side effect of stimulant medications used in ADHD?

● A) Weight gain
● B) Drowsiness
● C) Appetite suppression
● D) Increased sociability

Answer: C) Appetite suppression Explanation: Stimulant medications used in ADHD,

such as methylphenidate, commonly cause appetite suppression.

30. Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for Conduct Disorder?

● A) Deceitfulness or theft
● B) Aggression to people and animals
● C) Violation of rules
● D) Social withdrawal

Answer: D) Social withdrawal Explanation: Social withdrawal is not a criterion for

Conduct Disorder, which primarily involves aggressive and antisocial behaviors.
31. Which factor contributes to a poorer prognosis in children with Conduct
Disorder?

● A) Early onset of symptoms

● B) High socioeconomic status
● C) Strong family support
● D) Female gender

Answer: A) Early onset of symptoms Explanation: An earlier onset of symptoms

typically predicts a more severe course of Conduct Disorder.

32. What percentage of children with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

progress to develop Conduct Disorder?

● A) 10-20%
● B) 25-35%
● C) 50-60%
● D) 75-85%

Answer: C) 50-60% Explanation: A significant proportion of children with ODD,

approximately 50-60%, may progress to develop Conduct Disorder.

33. Which of the following is a protective factor against the development of

psychiatric disorders in children?

● A) Parental substance abuse

● B) Low socioeconomic status
● C) Strong parental attachment
● D) Family conflict

Answer: C) Strong parental attachment Explanation: Strong parental attachment is a

protective factor that reduces the risk of developing psychiatric disorders.

34. Which comorbid condition is most frequently seen with Oppositional Defiant
Disorder (ODD)?

● A) Major Depressive Disorder

● B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
 ● C) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
● D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

Answer: B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) Explanation: ADHD is

commonly comorbid with ODD, complicating the clinical picture.

35. What is the primary goal of treatment in children with Conduct Disorder?

● A) Punishment of antisocial behaviors

● B) Reinforcement of prosocial behaviors
● C) Use of medication to control aggression
● D) Isolation from peers

Answer: B) Reinforcement of prosocial behaviors Explanation: Treatment primarily

focuses on reinforcing prosocial behaviors and reducing antisocial tendencies.

36. Which therapy is most effective for children with Oppositional Defiant
Disorder (ODD)?

● A) Play therapy
● B) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
● C) Pharmacotherapy
● D) Psychoanalysis

Answer: B) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) Explanation: CBT is the most

effective therapeutic approach for managing ODD by helping children learn better ways
to deal with frustrations and anger.

37. What is a characteristic feature of Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)?

● A) Overly friendly behavior towards strangers

● B) Aggressive behavior towards caregivers
● C) Consistent social withdrawal
● D) Excessive need for affection

Answer: C) Consistent social withdrawal Explanation: Children with RAD often show
inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior towards caregivers and do not seek comfort
when distressed.
38. Which factor is NOT considered a risk for developing Reactive Attachment
Disorder (RAD)?

● A) Severe neglect
● B) Frequent changes in caregivers
● C) Institutional upbringing
● D) Secure attachment to primary caregiver

Answer: D) Secure attachment to primary caregiver Explanation: Secure attachment

is protective against RAD, which is more common in children with histories of neglect
and unstable caregiving.

39. What is the primary focus of treatment for children with Reactive Attachment
Disorder?

● A) Pharmacotherapy
● B) Strengthening caregiver-child attachment
● C) Cognitive restructuring
● D) Social skills training

Answer: B) Strengthening caregiver-child attachment Explanation: The primary goal is

to develop a healthy attachment between the child and their caregiver.

40. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a repetitive and

persistent pattern of behavior where the basic rights of others are violated?

● A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

● B) Conduct Disorder
● C) Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)
● D) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

Answer: B) Conduct Disorder

Explanation: Conduct Disorder is defined by a pattern of behavior where the rights of

others and societal norms are repeatedly violated.
Slide Seven: Psychological Theories

1. According to Piaget’s stage theory, at what stage does a child begin to use
symbols, such as words, but still lack the ability to conserve?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Pre-operational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer: B) Pre-operational

Explanation: In Piaget's stage theory, the pre-operational stage (2-7 years) is

characterized by the use of symbols such as words but a lack of understanding of
conservation, which is the idea that quantity doesn't change even when its shape does.

2. In the Strange Situation experiment, which type of attachment is characterized

by little differentiation between the attachment figure and a stranger, and a lack of
protest on separation?

A) Secure
B) Avoidant/Dismissive
C) Resistant/Anxious
D) Disorganized/Disoriented

Answer: B) Avoidant/Dismissive

Explanation: Avoidant/dismissive attachment is characterized by a lack of clear

preference for the caregiver over a stranger and minimal distress upon separation,
suggesting a detached or indifferent response.

3. What is the central concept of Beck’s cognitive model of emotional disorders,

particularly depression?

A) The unconscious mind

B) The cognitive triad
C) Operant conditioning
D) Attachment theory

Answer: B) The cognitive triad

Explanation: Beck's cognitive model of depression focuses on the cognitive triad,
which consists of negative thoughts about oneself, the environment, and the future,
contributing to depressive symptoms.

4. In classical conditioning, what is the term for when a conditioned stimulus (CS)
no longer elicits a conditioned response (CR) due to the absence of the
unconditioned stimulus (US)?

A) Generalization
B) Extinction
C) Latent inhibition
D) Preparedness

Answer: B) Extinction

Explanation: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus (CS) is no longer paired
with the unconditioned stimulus (US), leading to the gradual disappearance of the
conditioned response (CR).

5. Which attachment style in adults is associated with a high level of

independence and a tendency to suppress feelings, often resulting in poor views
of their partners?

A) Secure
B) Anxious/Preoccupied
C) Dismissive/Avoidant
D) Fearful/Avoidant

Answer: C) Dismissive/Avoidant

Explanation: The dismissive/avoidant attachment style is characterized by a high

degree of independence, an avoidance of attachment, and often a negative view of their
partners, leading to difficulties in close relationships.
6. According to Freud’s psychosexual stages, during which stage does the
Oedipus complex arise?

● A) Oral stage
● B) Anal stage
● C) Phallic stage
● D) Latency stage

Answer: C) Phallic stage

Explanation: The Oedipus complex, which involves a child's unconscious desire for the
opposite-sex parent, arises during the phallic stage (3-6 years) of Freud’s psychosexual
development.

7. In Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, what is the primary conflict

during adolescence?

● A) Trust vs. Mistrust

● B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
● C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
● D) Intimacy vs. Isolation

Answer: C) Identity vs. Role Confusion

Explanation: During adolescence, the primary psychosocial conflict according to

Erikson is "Identity vs. Role Confusion," where the individual works on developing a
personal identity.

8. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

● A) A child is given candy for cleaning up their toys.

● B) A child is scolded for not finishing their homework.
● C) A child is allowed to skip chores after doing well on an exam.
● D) A child loses recess time for being late to class.

Answer: C) A child is allowed to skip chores after doing well on an exam.

Explanation: Negative reinforcement involves the removal of an unpleasant stimulus to

increase the likelihood of a behavior recurring. In this case, skipping chores is the
removal of an unpleasant task.
9. Which type of learning is most associated with B.F. Skinner?

● A) Classical conditioning
● B) Operant conditioning
● C) Observational learning
● D) Insight learning

Answer: B) Operant conditioning

Explanation: B.F. Skinner is most associated with operant conditioning, where behavior
is influenced by reinforcement or punishment.

10. In Bandura’s Social Learning Theory, what is the process by which individuals
learn by watching the behavior of others?

● A) Imitation
● B) Reinforcement
● C) Extinction
● D) Shaping

Answer: A) Imitation

Explanation: Social Learning Theory, proposed by Albert Bandura, emphasizes that

learning occurs through observation and imitation of others’ behaviors.

11. Which concept in cognitive psychology refers to the mental frameworks that
help organize and interpret information?

● A) Schemas
● B) Scripts
● C) Heuristics
● D) Biases

Answer: A) Schemas

Explanation: Schemas are cognitive structures that help individuals organize and
interpret information, making it easier to process complex experiences.
12. What is the primary focus of Aaron Beck’s cognitive therapy?

● A) Uncovering unconscious conflicts

● B) Challenging and changing maladaptive thoughts
● C) Developing secure attachments
● D) Enhancing self-actualization

Answer: B) Challenging and changing maladaptive thoughts

Explanation: Beck’s cognitive therapy focuses on identifying and challenging distorted

or maladaptive thoughts to treat conditions like depression.

13. Which theory of personality includes the concepts of the id, ego, and
superego?

● A) Humanistic theory
● B) Trait theory
● C) Psychoanalytic theory
● D) Social-cognitive theory

Answer: C) Psychoanalytic theory

Explanation: Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality includes the id (basic

instincts), ego (reality-oriented), and superego (moral standards).

14. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which need is at the highest level?

● A) Safety needs
● B) Love and belonging needs
● C) Esteem needs
● D) Self-actualization

Answer: D) Self-actualization

Explanation: Self-actualization is the highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy, where an

individual realizes their full potential.
15. Which of the following best describes the concept of “learned helplessness”?

● A) A person learns to avoid a behavior after experiencing negative

consequences.
● B) A person fails to act due to a belief that their actions will not change the
outcome.
● C) A person continues to try to improve their situation despite repeated failures.
● D) A person becomes aggressive after repeated exposure to aversive stimuli.

Answer: B) A person fails to act due to a belief that their actions will not change the
outcome.

Explanation: Learned helplessness occurs when an individual believes that they

cannot control the outcome of a situation, leading to passive behavior even in the face
of potential change.

16. What does the term "cognitive dissonance" refer to in psychology?

● A) The process of remembering and forgetting.

● B) The discomfort experienced when holding two contradictory beliefs.
● C) The ability to learn through observation.
● D) The development of complex cognitive schemas.

Answer: B) The discomfort experienced when holding two contradictory beliefs.

Explanation: Cognitive dissonance is the psychological discomfort that arises from

holding two or more conflicting beliefs, values, or attitudes.

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of a securely attached child in

Ainsworth’s Strange Situation?

● A) Indifference towards the caregiver

● B) Extreme distress when the caregiver leaves and ambivalence upon return
● C) Exploration of the environment and comfort upon the caregiver's return
● D) Unpredictable behavior towards the caregiver

Answer: C) Exploration of the environment and comfort upon the caregiver's return

Explanation: Securely attached children feel safe to explore their environment and are
easily comforted by the caregiver upon their return.
18. Which theory emphasizes that behavior is a result of unconscious drives and
conflicts?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Cognitive theory
● C) Humanistic theory
● D) Psychoanalytic theory

Answer: D) Psychoanalytic theory

Explanation: Psychoanalytic theory, proposed by Freud, posits that behavior is

influenced by unconscious drives and conflicts.

19. In terms of cognitive development, what does "object permanence" refer to?

● A) The ability to understand that objects exist even when not seen.
● B) The understanding that others have different perspectives.
● C) The ability to use symbols in thinking.
● D) The recognition of cause-and-effect relationships.

Answer: A) The ability to understand that objects exist even when not seen.

Explanation: Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist

even when they are out of sight, typically developing during the sensorimotor stage of
Piaget's theory.

20. In Carl Rogers' humanistic theory, what term describes the acceptance and
support of a person regardless of what they say or do?

● A) Conditional positive regard

● B) Unconditional positive regard
● C) Self-actualization
● D) Congruence

Answer: B) Unconditional positive regard

Explanation: Unconditional positive regard is a key concept in Rogers’ theory, where

an individual is accepted and supported without conditions, which fosters self-growth.
21. Which of the following is a feature of the sensorimotor stage in Piaget’s
theory?

● A) Abstract thinking
● B) Symbolic play
● C) Logical reasoning
● D) Object permanence

Answer: D) Object permanence

Explanation: Object permanence is a key feature of the sensorimotor stage (0-2 years)
in Piaget’s theory, marking the understanding that objects continue to exist even when
they are not visible.

22. What does the term “self-efficacy” refer to in Bandura’s Social Cognitive
Theory?

● A) The belief in one’s ability to succeed in specific situations.

● B) The tendency to attribute success to external factors.
● C) The belief that all behavior is determined by genetic factors.
● D) The tendency to conform to group norms.

Answer: A) The belief in one’s ability to succeed in specific situations.

Explanation: Self-efficacy is the belief in one’s capacity to execute behaviors

necessary to produce specific performance attainments, influencing motivation and
behavior.

23. Which concept in Freud’s theory refers to the part of the personality that
mediates between the desires of the id and the constraints of reality?

● A) Id
● B) Ego
● C) Superego
● D) Libido

Answer: B) Ego
Explanation: The ego is the component of personality that mediates between the id’s
desires and the reality of the external world, striving to meet the id’s needs in socially
acceptable ways.

24. Which type of reinforcement schedule produces the highest rate of

responding and is most resistant to extinction?

● A) Fixed-ratio
● B) Fixed-interval
● C) Variable-ratio
● D) Variable-interval

Answer: C) Variable-ratio

Explanation: A variable-ratio schedule, where reinforcement is given after an

unpredictable number of responses, produces a high rate of response and is resistant to
extinction.

25. According to Kohlberg, at what stage of moral development is behavior driven

by the desire to avoid punishment or gain rewards?

● A) Pre-conventional
● B) Conventional
● C) Post-conventional
● D) Formal operational

Answer: A) Pre-conventional

Explanation: In the pre-conventional stage, moral reasoning is based on avoiding

punishment and seeking rewards, typical of young children.

26. Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?

● A) A child is praised for doing their homework.

● B) A child has their video game taken away for misbehaving.
● C) A child is given extra chores for lying.
● D) A child is allowed extra playtime for good behavior.
Answer: C) A child is given extra chores for lying.

Explanation: Positive punishment involves adding an aversive consequence (e.g.,

extra chores) following an undesirable behavior (e.g., lying) to decrease the likelihood of
that behavior recurring.

27. What is the term for the phenomenon where people conform to group
decisions to avoid feeling out of place, even if they personally disagree?

● A) Groupthink
● B) Social loafing
● C) Deindividuation
● D) Normative social influence

Answer: A) Groupthink

Explanation: Groupthink occurs when individuals suppress their own opinions and
conform to the group's decisions to maintain harmony or avoid conflict.

28. What is a core feature of disorganized attachment in children?

● A) Consistent behavior towards the caregiver

● B) Calm behavior upon separation and reunion
● C) Contradictory behaviors towards the caregiver
● D) Independence from the caregiver

Answer: C) Contradictory behaviors towards the caregiver

Explanation: Disorganized attachment is characterized by contradictory and confused

behaviors towards the caregiver, often due to a lack of a clear attachment strategy.

29. In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), what is the technique called that

involves challenging irrational beliefs to replace them with more realistic
thoughts?

● A) Thought stopping
● B) Exposure therapy
● C) Cognitive restructuring
 ● D) Systematic desensitization

Answer: C) Cognitive restructuring

Explanation: Cognitive restructuring in CBT involves identifying and challenging

irrational or maladaptive thoughts and replacing them with more balanced, realistic
beliefs.

30. What is the main idea behind the diathesis-stress model in psychology?

● A) Behavior is solely determined by genetic predispositions.

● B) Environmental factors alone lead to mental disorders.
● C) Mental disorders result from a combination of genetic vulnerability and
environmental stressors.
● D) All individuals exposed to stress develop mental disorders.

Answer: C) Mental disorders result from a combination of genetic vulnerability and

environmental stressors.

Explanation: The diathesis-stress model suggests that mental disorders develop due to
the interaction between an underlying vulnerability (diathesis) and stressful life events.

31. In operant conditioning, what term describes the process of reinforcing

successive approximations of a desired behavior?

● A) Shaping
● B) Chaining
● C) Modeling
● D) Generalization

Answer: A) Shaping

Explanation: Shaping involves reinforcing behaviors that are progressively closer to the
desired behavior, helping to establish new behaviors through successive
approximations.
32. What is the primary focus of humanistic therapy, as developed by Carl
Rogers?

● A) Uncovering unconscious conflicts

● B) Challenging irrational thoughts
● C) Fostering self-actualization and personal growth
● D) Analyzing past experiences

Answer: C) Fostering self-actualization and personal growth

Explanation: Humanistic therapy, particularly Carl Rogers’ approach, focuses on

helping individuals achieve self-actualization and personal growth through unconditional
positive regard and empathy.

33. Which of the following concepts is central to Lev Vygotsky’s theory of

cognitive development?

● A) Object permanence
● B) Conservation
● C) Zone of proximal development (ZPD)
● D) Egocentrism

Answer: C) Zone of proximal development (ZPD)

Explanation: The zone of proximal development (ZPD) in Vygotsky’s theory represents

the range of tasks that a child can perform with the help and guidance of others but
cannot yet perform independently.

34. In attachment theory, what is the term used for the bond that forms between
an infant and their primary caregiver?

● A) Imprinting
● B) Secure base
● C) Attachment
● D) Social referencing

Answer: C) Attachment

Explanation: Attachment refers to the emotional bond that develops between an infant
and their primary caregiver, providing the foundation for future relationships.
35. What does the concept of “self-actualization” refer to in Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs?

● A) Achieving physiological stability

● B) Establishing secure social relationships
● C) Realizing one’s full potential and self-growth
● D) Gaining social approval

Answer: C) Realizing one’s full potential and self-growth

Explanation: Self-actualization is the process of realizing and fulfilling one’s potential

and capabilities, representing the highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

36. What is the term for a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated
presentations, commonly studied in infant development?

● A) Sensitization
● B) Habituation
● C) Extinction
● D) Classical conditioning

Answer: B) Habituation

Explanation: Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after it has been

repeatedly presented, indicating that the stimulus is no longer novel or threatening.

37. Which of the following is an example of vicarious reinforcement?

● A) A child receives praise for completing their homework.

● B) A child observes another student being praised and decides to do their
homework as well.
● C) A child is given extra homework for misbehaving.
● D) A child avoids doing homework to escape punishment.

Answer: B) A child observes another student being praised and decides to do their
homework as well.
Explanation: Vicarious reinforcement occurs when an individual observes another
person being rewarded for a behavior and is then motivated to replicate that behavior.

38. What is the main focus of Freud's psychoanalytic therapy?

● A) Conscious thoughts and beliefs

● B) Unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences
● C) Behavior modification through reinforcement
● D) Cognitive restructuring of negative thoughts

Answer: B) Unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences

Explanation: Freud's psychoanalytic therapy focuses on uncovering unconscious

conflicts and repressed memories, particularly those rooted in childhood, to resolve
psychological distress.

39. According to Vygotsky, what is the role of “scaffolding” in a child’s cognitive

development?

● A) It refers to the independent problem-solving ability of the child.

● B) It is the supportive guidance provided by a more knowledgeable other.
● C) It represents the innate cognitive abilities of the child.
● D) It describes the child’s ability to learn through trial and error.

Answer: B) It is the supportive guidance provided by a more knowledgeable other.

Explanation: Scaffolding refers to the process by which a more knowledgeable other

(e.g., a teacher or parent) provides structured support to help a child learn new skills
within their zone of proximal development.

40. In classical conditioning, what is the term for the learned response to a
previously neutral stimulus that has become conditioned?

● A) Unconditioned response (UR)

● B) Conditioned response (CR)
● C) Neutral response (NR)
● D) Extinguished response (ER)
Answer: B) Conditioned response (CR)

Explanation: The conditioned response (CR) is the learned reaction to a stimulus that
was previously neutral but has become conditioned through association with an
unconditioned stimulus.

41. Which of the following best describes the concept of “reciprocal

determinism” in Bandura’s social cognitive theory?

● A) Behavior is solely influenced by external reinforcement.

● B) Personality is determined by genetic factors alone.
● C) Behavior, environment, and cognition all influence each other.
● D) Learning occurs only through direct experience.

Answer: C) Behavior, environment, and cognition all influence each other.

Explanation: Reciprocal determinism is a concept in Bandura’s social cognitive theory

where behavior, personal factors (cognition), and environmental influences all interact
and influence each other.

42. Which stage in Erikson’s theory involves individuals reflecting on their life
and either feeling a sense of satisfaction or regret?

● A) Integrity vs. Despair

● B) Generativity vs. Stagnation
● C) Industry vs. Inferiority
● D) Initiative vs. Guilt

Answer: A) Integrity vs. Despair

Explanation: The final stage in Erikson’s psychosocial theory, Integrity vs. Despair,
occurs in late adulthood, where individuals reflect on their life and either develop a
sense of integrity if they are satisfied, or despair if they regret how they lived.
43. In the context of psychological therapies, what does the term “resistance”
refer to?

● A) A client’s openness to discussing issues

● B) A client’s attempt to block the process of therapy
● C) The therapist’s reluctance to confront the client
● D) The tendency to return to old behavior patterns

Answer: B) A client’s attempt to block the process of therapy

Explanation: Resistance in therapy refers to the client's unconscious defense

mechanisms that prevent them from addressing distressing thoughts or emotions,
thereby hindering the therapeutic process.

44. In cognitive-behavioral therapy, what is meant by “automatic thoughts”?

● A) Spontaneous, unintentional thoughts that arise in response to situations

● B) Deeply rooted beliefs developed in childhood
● C) Thoughts that are consciously planned and controlled
● D) Thoughts that occur only during specific tasks

Answer: A) Spontaneous, unintentional thoughts that arise in response to situations

Explanation: Automatic thoughts are quick, spontaneous thoughts that occur in

response to a situation and are often based on deeply held beliefs, playing a crucial role
in cognitive-behavioral therapy.

45. What is the main focus of Gestalt therapy?

● A) Resolving unconscious conflicts

● B) Focusing on the here and now and integrating all aspects of the self
● C) Analyzing behavioral patterns and reinforcement
● D) Challenging cognitive distortions

Answer: B) Focusing on the here and now and integrating all aspects of the self

Explanation: Gestalt therapy emphasizes awareness of the present moment and

encourages clients to integrate all aspects of their experiences and self-perception into
a cohesive whole.
46. Which of the following is a central concept in Carl Jung’s theory of
personality?

● A) The id, ego, and superego

● B) The collective unconscious
● C) Classical conditioning
● D) Observational learning

Answer: B) The collective unconscious

Explanation: Carl Jung’s theory of personality includes the concept of the collective
unconscious, which refers to structures of the unconscious mind shared among beings
of the same species, containing archetypes.

47. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?

● A) To uncover unconscious conflicts and childhood memories

● B) To change maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement
● C) To change dysfunctional thinking patterns and behaviors
● D) To explore and integrate all aspects of the self

Answer: C) To change dysfunctional thinking patterns and behaviors

Explanation: The primary goal of CBT is to identify and change dysfunctional thinking
patterns and behaviors, thereby improving emotional regulation and coping strategies.

48. Which psychological perspective emphasizes the role of unconscious

processes and early childhood experiences in behavior?

● A) Humanistic perspective
● B) Cognitive perspective
● C) Psychoanalytic perspective
● D) Behavioral perspective

Answer: C) Psychoanalytic perspective

Explanation: The psychoanalytic perspective, founded by Freud, emphasizes the role
of unconscious processes and early childhood experiences in shaping behavior and
personality.

49. In the context of family therapy, what does “triangulation” refer to?

● A) A direct conflict between two family members

● B) A child becoming the focus of parents’ marital issues
● C) The resolution of conflict through compromise
● D) A therapeutic alliance among three family members

Answer: B) A child becoming the focus of parents’ marital issues

Explanation: Triangulation occurs when a child or third party is brought into a conflict
between two family members, often to deflect tension or avoid direct confrontation
between the original parties.

50. In classical conditioning, what is the process of learning to distinguish

between a conditioned stimulus and other similar stimuli called?

● A) Generalization
● B) Discrimination
● C) Extinction
● D) Spontaneous recovery

Answer: B) Discrimination

Explanation: Discrimination in classical conditioning involves learning to respond

differently to various stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus but do not
predict the unconditioned stimulus.
Slide Eight: Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders

Which of the following is a key feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) The presence of multiple somatic symptoms with a clear medical cause.

● B) Preoccupation with having a serious illness despite few or no somatic
symptoms.
● C) Prominent somatic symptoms associated with significant distress and
impairment.
● D) The intentional production of symptoms for primary gain.

Answer: C) Prominent somatic symptoms associated with significant distress and

impairment.
Explanation: Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by excessive thoughts,
feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms that cause significant distress or
impairment.

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with Somatic Symptom

Disorder?

● A) Frequent outpatient visits and hospitalizations.

● B) High level of anxiety about symptoms.
● C) Lack of concern for the symptoms.
● D) Multiple diagnostic studies with inconclusive results.

Answer: C) Lack of concern for the symptoms.

Explanation: Patients with Somatic Symptom Disorder typically exhibit a high level of
concern and anxiety about their symptoms, often leading to frequent medical visits and
extensive testing.

What is the prevalence of Somatic Symptom Disorder in the general adult

population?

● A) 1%-2%
● B) 5%-7%
● C) 10%-12%
● D) 15%-20%

Answer: B) 5%-7%.
Explanation: The prevalence of Somatic Symptom Disorder in the general adult
population is estimated to be around 5%-7%, with it being more common in females.
Which psychological factor is commonly implicated in Somatic Symptom
Disorder?

● A) Positive affectivity
● B) Trauma
● C) Secure attachment
● D) High pain tolerance

Answer: B) Trauma.
Explanation: Trauma, along with negative affectivity and insecure attachment, is a
significant factor in the development of Somatic Symptom Disorder.

Which of the following treatment strategies is recommended for managing

Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) Avoidance of regular medical appointments.

● B) Extensive diagnostic testing to reassure the patient.
● C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and pharmacotherapy.
● D) Direct confrontation about the psychological nature of symptoms.

Answer: C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and pharmacotherapy.

Explanation: CBT and pharmacotherapy are effective treatments for managing the
symptoms of Somatic Symptom Disorder by addressing the psychological factors
contributing to the condition.

Which of the following best describes Conversion Disorder?

● A) The intentional production of symptoms to avoid a stressful situation.

● B) Motor or sensory symptoms that are inconsistent with known medical
conditions.
● C) Preoccupation with having a serious illness with mild or no somatic symptoms.
● D) Deliberate fabrication of symptoms to receive medical attention.

Answer: B) Motor or sensory symptoms that are inconsistent with known medical
conditions.
Explanation: Conversion Disorder is characterized by neurological symptoms that are
not explained by medical conditions, often inconsistent with recognized medical or
neurological patterns.
What is the typical age range for the onset of Conversion Disorder?

● A) 5-10 years
● B) 10-35 years
● C) 35-50 years
● D) 50-65 years

Answer: B) 10-35 years.

Explanation: Conversion Disorder most commonly affects individuals between the ages
of 10 and 35, with the symptoms often being related to psychological stressors.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of Conversion Disorder?

● A) Weakness or paralysis
● B) Anesthesia or sensory loss
● C) Chronic pain with a known cause
● D) Seizures or convulsions

Answer: C) Chronic pain with a known cause.

Explanation: Conversion Disorder typically presents with symptoms like weakness,
sensory loss, or seizures, but these symptoms are not explained by a medical condition.
Chronic pain with a known cause is not characteristic of Conversion Disorder.

Which of the following is considered a psychoanalytic explanation for Conversion

Disorder?

● A) Symptoms are a conscious attempt to avoid stressful situations.

● B) Symptoms represent repressed psychological conflict transformed into
physical symptoms.
● C) Symptoms are caused by a learned response to anxiety.
● D) Symptoms are deliberately produced for personal gain.

Answer: B) Symptoms represent repressed psychological conflict transformed into

physical symptoms.
Explanation: The psychoanalytic theory suggests that Conversion Disorder symptoms
are the result of repressed psychological conflicts, which are unconsciously converted
into physical symptoms.
Which treatment approach is often recommended as the first step in managing
Conversion Disorder?

● A) Extensive diagnostic testing

● B) Immediate psychiatric hospitalization
● C) Reassurance and addressing stressors
● D) Confrontation about the psychological nature of the symptoms

Answer: C) Reassurance and addressing stressors.

Explanation: Initial management of Conversion Disorder includes reassuring the
patient that the symptoms are not due to a serious medical condition and addressing
any psychological stressors that may have triggered the symptoms.

What is the primary motivation for patients with Factitious Disorder?

● A) To obtain financial benefits.

● B) To receive medical attention and care.
● C) To avoid legal responsibilities.
● D) To achieve a specific secondary gain.

Answer: B) To receive medical attention and care.

Explanation: Factitious Disorder involves the intentional production or feigning of
physical or psychological symptoms with the primary motivation being to receive
medical care and attention.

Which of the following is a common method used by patients with Factitious

Disorder to produce symptoms?

● A) Avoiding medical appointments.

● B) Manipulating medical instruments to produce abnormal results.
● C) Exercising excessively to induce symptoms.
● D) Underreporting symptoms to avoid diagnosis.

Answer: B) Manipulating medical instruments to produce abnormal results.

Explanation: Patients with Factitious Disorder may tamper with medical tests, inject
substances, or perform other acts to produce symptoms or abnormal test results.

Factitious Disorder imposed on another is also known as:

● A) Malingering
● B) Hypochondriasis
● C) Munchausen syndrome
● D) Factitious Disorder by proxy
Answer: D) Factitious Disorder by proxy.
Explanation: Factitious Disorder imposed on another, often referred to as Factitious
Disorder by proxy, involves a caregiver intentionally causing or fabricating symptoms in
someone under their care, usually a child.

Which of the following is NOT a distinguishing feature between Factitious

Disorder and Malingering?

● A) Motivation for symptom production.

● B) The intentional nature of the symptoms.
● C) The presence of external incentives.
● D) The type of symptoms produced.

Answer: D) The type of symptoms produced.

Explanation: Both Factitious Disorder and Malingering involve the intentional
production of symptoms, but they differ in motivation; Factitious Disorder is motivated by
the desire for medical attention, while Malingering is motivated by external incentives
such as financial gain or avoiding responsibilities.

Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for managing a patient with

Factitious Disorder?

● A) Confronting the patient directly about their fabrication of symptoms.

● B) Discharging the patient immediately to avoid further medical costs.
● C) Using face-saving strategies and maintaining psychiatric care.
● D) Ignoring the symptoms to avoid reinforcing the behavior.

Answer: C) Using face-saving strategies and maintaining psychiatric care.

Explanation: Management of Factitious Disorder involves using face-saving strategies,
such as not directly confronting the patient about their fabrication of symptoms, and
ensuring ongoing psychiatric care to address underlying psychological issues.

Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by:

● A) Multiple somatic symptoms that are severe and debilitating.

● B) A preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite mild or no
somatic symptoms.
● C) Deliberate exaggeration of symptoms for personal gain.
● D) Symptoms that are inconsistent with any medical condition.

Answer: B) A preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite mild or

no somatic symptoms.
Explanation: Illness Anxiety Disorder involves excessive worry about having a serious
illness, often with little or no physical symptoms, leading to significant anxiety and
frequent medical consultations.

Which of the following is a typical management strategy for Illness Anxiety

Disorder?

● A) Avoiding medical consultations to reduce anxiety.

● B) Reassurance and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
● C) Encouraging extensive medical testing to rule out illness.
● D) Direct confrontation about the irrationality of their fears.

Answer: B) Reassurance and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).

Explanation: Management of Illness Anxiety Disorder typically involves reassuring the
patient and providing cognitive-behavioral therapy to help manage their anxiety and
preoccupation with illness.

Which type of psychiatric comorbidity is commonly seen in patients with Illness

Anxiety Disorder?

● A) Schizophrenia
● B) Major depressive disorder (MDD) and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
● C) Bipolar disorder
● D) Personality disorders

Answer: B) Major depressive disorder (MDD) and obsessive-compulsive disorder

(OCD).
Explanation: Patients with Illness Anxiety Disorder often have comorbid psychiatric
conditions such as MDD and OCD, which contribute to their excessive health-related
anxiety.

Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions involve:

● A) The presence of physical symptoms without any medical explanation.

● B) The presence of psychological factors that exacerbate an existing medical
condition.
● C) The intentional production of symptoms for personal gain.
● D) A preoccupation with a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms.

Answer: B) The presence of psychological factors that exacerbate an existing medical

condition.
Explanation: This condition occurs when psychological or behavioral factors negatively
impact a physical medical condition, leading to worsening of the illness, delayed
recovery, or increased risk of complications.
Which of the following behaviors may worsen the course of a physical medical
condition in Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions?

● A) Adherence to prescribed treatments.

● B) Avoidance of harmful coping strategies.
● C) Inadherence to medical advice and frequent exacerbations.
● D) Regular follow-up with healthcare providers.

Answer: C) Inadherence to medical advice and frequent exacerbations.

Explanation: Psychological factors that worsen the course of a medical condition may
include maladaptive coping behaviors, poor adherence to medical advice, and
increased psychological stress, all of which can lead to exacerbations of the condition.

Which of the following best defines Malingering?

● A) Intentional production of symptoms for the primary purpose of receiving

medical care.
● B) Feigning symptoms motivated by external incentives such as financial gain or
avoiding responsibilities.
● C) A psychological disorder characterized by unexplained physical symptoms.
● D) A preoccupation with having a serious illness despite medical reassurance.

Answer: B) Feigning of symptoms motivated by external incentives such as financial

gain or avoiding responsibilities.
Explanation: Malingering is the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated
physical or psychological symptoms, motivated by external incentives such as avoiding
work or legal consequences, financial compensation, or obtaining drugs.

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of Malingering?

● A) The symptoms are under voluntary control.

● B) There is an identifiable external incentive.
● C) Symptoms typically improve when the incentive is no longer available.
● D) The person is unaware of the motives behind their behavior.

Answer: D) The person is unaware of the motives behind their behavior.

Explanation: Unlike disorders such as Factitious Disorder, individuals who are
malingering are aware of their motives, which are typically driven by external incentives.
In the evaluation of suspected Malingering, which approach is most appropriate?

● A) Confronting the individual with evidence of malingering.

● B) Immediate referral to law enforcement.
● C) Conducting a thorough history and clinical evaluation to assess
inconsistencies.
● D) Providing the desired incentives to reduce the malingering behavior.

Answer: C) Conducting a thorough history and clinical evaluation to assess

inconsistencies.
Explanation: In cases of suspected Malingering, a careful and thorough evaluation is
necessary to assess for inconsistencies between reported symptoms and clinical
findings, rather than direct confrontation or provision of incentives.

Generalized Somatic Symptom Disorder is typically characterized by:

● A) Single, unexplained somatic symptoms.

● B) Multiple, chronic somatic complaints involving different organ systems.
● C) Psychogenic symptoms that closely resemble a neurological disorder.
● D) The intentional exaggeration of physical symptoms for medical attention.

Answer: B) Multiple, chronic somatic complaints involving different organ systems.

Explanation: Generalized Somatic Symptom Disorder involves persistent and chronic
complaints about multiple physical symptoms across various organ systems, often with
no clear medical explanation.

Which of the following is a common comorbid condition associated with

Generalized Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) Schizophrenia
● B) Anxiety disorders
● C) Substance use disorders
● D) Intellectual disability

Answer: B) Anxiety disorders.

Explanation: Generalized Somatic Symptom Disorder is commonly associated with
anxiety disorders, as the persistent worry about physical health often overlaps with
generalized anxiety.
In differentiating Somatic Symptom Disorder from Generalized Anxiety Disorder,
which feature is more characteristic of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) Excessive worry about multiple life events.

● B) Generalized and pervasive anxiety without specific focus.
● C) Persistent worry focused primarily on physical health symptoms.
● D) Lack of significant physical symptoms.

Answer: C) Persistent worry focused primarily on physical health symptoms.

Explanation: Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by excessive focus on
physical symptoms, whereas Generalized Anxiety Disorder involves broader worries
about various aspects of life.

Which of the following would help differentiate Conversion Disorder from a true
neurological condition?

● A) Presence of abnormal findings on neurological examination.

● B) Inconsistent or incongruent clinical signs with known neurological patterns.
● C) Objective evidence of nerve damage.
● D) History of previous neurological diagnoses.

Answer: B) Inconsistent or incongruent clinical signs with known neurological patterns.

Explanation: Conversion Disorder is suggested when neurological symptoms do not
match known anatomical pathways or are inconsistent across examinations.

Which feature differentiates Factitious Disorder from Somatic Symptom

Disorder?

● A) Intentional production of symptoms.

● B) High level of distress about symptoms.
● C) Multiple somatic complaints without clear medical cause.
● D) Symptoms are under unconscious control.

Answer: A) Intentional production of symptoms.

Explanation: Factitious Disorder involves the deliberate fabrication or exaggeration of
symptoms, whereas Somatic Symptom Disorder involves genuine distress about
unexplained physical symptoms without intentional deception.
Which of the following would be the least appropriate diagnostic label for a
patient who fabricates symptoms for financial compensation?

● A) Factitious Disorder
● B) Malingering
● C) Somatic Symptom Disorder
● D) Conversion Disorder

Answer: A) Factitious Disorder.

Explanation: Factitious Disorder is motivated by a desire to assume the sick role, not
by external incentives like financial compensation, which would be more consistent with
Malingering.

A patient presents with repeated episodes of apparent seizures but normal EEG
results and no postictal confusion. Which diagnosis is most likely?

● A) Epilepsy
● B) Malingering
● C) Conversion Disorder
● D) Factitious Disorder

Answer: C) Conversion Disorder.

Explanation: Conversion Disorder can present with pseudoseizures, which mimic
epileptic seizures but have normal EEG results and lack other typical features of true
epilepsy.

Which of the following best describes the impact of Somatic Symptom Disorders
on patients' quality of life?

● A) Minimal impact, as symptoms are often mild.

● B) Significant impact, with high levels of disability and healthcare utilization.
● C) Episodic impact, with periods of full recovery.
● D) No impact, as symptoms are purely psychological.

Answer: B) Significant impact, with high levels of disability and healthcare utilization.
Explanation: Somatic Symptom Disorders often lead to significant impairment in daily
functioning, frequent medical visits, and high healthcare costs, severely affecting the
quality of life.
Which of the following is a commonly used therapeutic approach for managing
Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Long-term opioid therapy for chronic pain management.

● B) Avoiding discussions about the psychological aspects of symptoms.
● C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) to address dysfunctional thoughts and
behaviors.
● D) Frequent referrals to multiple specialists for further evaluation.

Answer: C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) to address dysfunctional thoughts and

behaviors.
Explanation: CBT is an evidence-based treatment that helps patients with Somatic
Symptom Disorders by modifying maladaptive thoughts and behaviors related to their
physical symptoms.

In managing a patient with Illness Anxiety Disorder, which of the following is an

important goal of treatment?

● A) Convincing the patient that their symptoms are not real.

● B) Reducing the number of medical consultations and unnecessary
investigations.
● C) Increasing the patient’s health-related anxiety to prompt more careful
monitoring.
● D) Providing reassurance by repeating diagnostic tests frequently.

Answer: B) Reducing the number of medical consultations and unnecessary

investigations.
Explanation: Treatment aims to reduce health-related anxiety and minimize
unnecessary medical evaluations, which can reinforce the patient’s preoccupation with
illness.

Which of the following is the primary focus of psychoeducation in patients with

Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Educating the patient about the benefits of multiple medical evaluations.

● B) Explaining the role of stress and psychological factors in their physical
symptoms.
● C) Encouraging the patient to undergo more diagnostic tests.
● D) Minimizing the psychological aspects and focusing on symptom management.

Answer: B) Explaining the role of stress and psychological factors in their physical
symptoms.
Explanation: Psychoeducation focuses on helping patients understand the connection
between stress, psychological factors, and their physical symptoms, which is crucial for
effective management.

Which of the following strategies is effective in reducing the risk of chronicity in

Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Frequent changes in healthcare providers.

● B) Regular, scheduled follow-up visits with a consistent provider.
● C) Avoiding discussions about the psychological aspects of symptoms.
● D) Focusing solely on pharmacological treatment.

Answer: B) Regular, scheduled follow-up visits with a consistent provider.

Explanation: Consistent care with a single provider, along with regular follow-ups,
helps build a therapeutic relationship and reduces the risk of chronicity by preventing
unnecessary medical interventions and reinforcing appropriate management strategies.

Which of the following is a common presentation of Somatic Symptom Disorder

in children?

● A) Chronic pain complaints.

● B) Frequent absenteeism from school.
● C) Multiple, vague gastrointestinal symptoms.
● D) Repeated visits to emergency departments for acute illness.

Answer: C) Multiple, vague gastrointestinal symptoms.

Explanation: In children, Somatic Symptom Disorder often presents as recurrent and
vague gastrointestinal symptoms, which may lead to frequent school absenteeism and
medical consultations.

How does the presentation of Somatic Symptom Disorder typically differ in

elderly patients compared to younger adults?

● A) Elderly patients often present with exaggerated and dramatic symptoms.

● B) Elderly patients tend to underreport physical symptoms.
● C) Elderly patients often have more severe somatic complaints with associated
functional decline.
● D) Elderly patients rarely experience Somatic Symptom Disorders.

Answer: C) Elderly patients often have more severe somatic complaints with
associated functional decline.
Explanation: In the elderly, Somatic Symptom Disorder may manifest with more severe
physical complaints and significant functional impairment, often complicating the
management of existing medical conditions.

Which of the following factors may contribute to the underdiagnosis of Somatic

Symptom Disorders in the elderly?

● A) The focus on treating physical health conditions.

● B) The assumption that somatic symptoms are a normal part of aging.
● C) Lack of awareness about Somatic Symptom Disorders among healthcare
providers.
● D) All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above.

Explanation: The underdiagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorders in the elderly can
result from a focus on physical conditions, assumptions that symptoms are part of
normal aging, and limited awareness of these disorders among healthcare providers.

In adolescents, which of the following may be a warning sign of a developing

Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) Isolated instances of anxiety related to school performance.

● B) Persistent preoccupation with body image and weight.
● C) Occasional headaches during periods of stress.
● D) Excessive worry about mild physical symptoms without medical explanation.

Answer: D) Excessive worry about mild physical symptoms without medical

explanation.
Explanation: Adolescents developing Somatic Symptom Disorder may exhibit
excessive concern over minor physical symptoms, leading to frequent medical visits and
school absenteeism.

Which strategy is particularly important in the management of Somatic Symptom

Disorders in children and adolescents?

● A) Involving the family in the treatment process.

● B) Minimizing the role of psychological factors to avoid stigma.
● C) Focusing on pharmacological treatments alone.
● D) Providing reassurance without addressing the underlying issues.

Answer: A) Involving the family in the treatment process.

Explanation: Family involvement is crucial in managing Somatic Symptom Disorders in
children and adolescents, as it helps address any familial patterns that may contribute
to the development and maintenance of symptoms.
Which of the following medications is often used in the treatment of Somatic
Symptom Disorder with prominent anxiety?

● A) Antipsychotics
● B) Benzodiazepines
● C) SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)
● D) Stimulants

Answer: C) SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors).

Explanation: SSRIs are commonly prescribed for treating Somatic Symptom Disorder,
particularly when anxiety is a prominent feature, as they help reduce anxiety and
depressive symptoms.

Which non-pharmacological intervention is most commonly recommended for

managing Somatic Symptom Disorder?

● A) Psychoanalysis
● B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
● C) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
● D) Hypnotherapy

Answer: B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).

Explanation: CBT is the most evidence-based non-pharmacological intervention for
Somatic Symptom Disorder, focusing on changing dysfunctional thought patterns and
behaviors related to physical symptoms.

Which of the following is an important consideration when prescribing

medications to elderly patients with Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Tolerating higher doses due to diminished drug metabolism.

● B) Avoiding medications that may cause or worsen cognitive impairment.
● C) Preferring short-acting benzodiazepines for long-term use.
● D) Ignoring the potential for drug interactions.

Answer: B) Avoiding medications that may cause or worsen cognitive impairment.

Explanation: In elderly patients, careful selection of medications is essential to avoid
drugs that may exacerbate cognitive impairment or interact with other medications,
given the increased risk of polypharmacy in this population.
Which of the following is a key goal of non-pharmacological interventions in the
treatment of Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) To eliminate all physical symptoms.

● B) To help the patient develop better coping strategies for dealing with
symptoms.
● C) To discourage the patient from seeking medical care.
● D) To replace pharmacological treatment entirely.

Answer: B) To help the patient develop better coping strategies for dealing with
symptoms.
Explanation: The primary goal of non-pharmacological interventions, such as CBT, is to
improve patients’ coping mechanisms, helping them manage symptoms more effectively
and reduce the impact of symptoms on their daily life.

Which of the following is true regarding the use of placebos in the management
of Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Placebos are commonly used and effective in long-term management.

● B) Placebos should never be used as they can harm the therapeutic relationship.
● C) Placebos can be used ethically if the patient is informed.
● D) Placebos are primarily used in research, not in clinical practice.

Answer: D) Placebos are primarily used in research, not in clinical practice.

Explanation: Placebos are generally not used in clinical practice due to ethical
concerns, but they are commonly used in research to study the efficacy of treatments.
In clinical settings, transparency and maintaining the therapeutic alliance are
paramount.

Which of the following is a characteristic of complex Somatic Symptom Disorders

requiring multidisciplinary care?

● A) Symptoms limited to a single organ system.

● B) Multiple failed treatment attempts and high healthcare utilization.
● C) Rapid resolution of symptoms with standard treatment.
● D) Lack of any psychological distress.

Answer: B) Multiple failed treatment attempts and high healthcare utilization.

Explanation: Complex cases often involve multiple treatment failures, significant
disability, and high healthcare costs, necessitating a multidisciplinary approach involving
psychiatrists, psychologists, and primary care providers.
In complex cases of Somatic Symptom Disorder, which healthcare provider is
typically responsible for coordinating care?

● A) The primary care physician.

● B) The psychiatrist.
● C) The nurse practitioner.
● D) The social worker.

Answer: A) The primary care physician.

Explanation: The primary care physician often takes the lead in coordinating care for
complex Somatic Symptom Disorder cases, working closely with specialists, mental
health providers, and other members of the care team.

Which of the following is a potential benefit of involving a pain management

specialist in the treatment of Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Increasing the use of opioid medications.

● B) Providing a multidisciplinary perspective on pain management.
● C) Encouraging the patient to focus on the psychological aspects of their
symptoms.
● D) Reducing the role of mental health providers.

Answer: B) Providing a multidisciplinary perspective on pain management.

Explanation: A pain management specialist can offer valuable insights into managing
chronic pain, often seen in Somatic Symptom Disorders, and contribute to a
comprehensive treatment plan that includes physical, psychological, and social aspects.

Which of the following is a key role of the psychiatrist in the multidisciplinary

management of Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Providing only pharmacological treatment.

● B) Focusing exclusively on the physical symptoms.
● C) Addressing the psychological and emotional aspects of the disorder.
● D) Avoiding involvement in the overall treatment plan.

Answer: C) Addressing the psychological and emotional aspects of the disorder.

Explanation: The psychiatrist’s role is to focus on the mental health aspects, such as
anxiety, depression, and stress, which can significantly influence the course and
management of Somatic Symptom Disorders.
In the context of multidisciplinary care, which approach is most beneficial for
patients with chronic Somatic Symptom Disorders?

● A) Isolating each provider’s care to avoid overlapping responsibilities.

● B) Ensuring regular communication and collaboration among providers.
● C) Prioritizing one treatment modality over others.
● D) Focusing solely on the primary care provider’s recommendations.

Answer: B) Ensuring regular communication and collaboration among providers.

Explanation: Effective management of chronic Somatic Symptom Disorders requires
close collaboration among all members of the care team, ensuring that each provider’s
input is integrated into a cohesive treatment plan that addresses all aspects of the
patient’s condition.
Slide Nine: Women’s Mental Health

Question 1:

Which of the following mental health disorders has the highest female-to-male ratio in
terms of prevalence?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Bipolar Disorder
C) Depression
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

Answer: C) Depression

Explanation: The prevalence of depression is twice as high in women compared to

men, with a ratio of 2:1. This is a consistent finding across various studies, unlike
schizophrenia and OCD, which have equal prevalence in both genders.

Question 2:

What biological factor is most associated with the increased prevalence of depression in
women after puberty?

A) Genetic predisposition
B) Social environment
C) Hormonal fluctuations
D) Cognitive schemas

Answer: C) Hormonal fluctuations

Explanation: Hormonal changes, especially those associated with puberty,

menstruation, pregnancy, and menopause, contribute to the increased prevalence of
depression in women.

Question 3:

Which psychological theory suggests that women are more likely to ruminate on their
problems, prolonging their depression?
A) Cognitive Behavioral Theory
B) Response Style Theory
C) Attachment Theory
D) Learned Helplessness Theory

Answer: B) Response Style Theory

Explanation: The Response Style Theory, proposed by Nolen-Hoeksema, suggests

that women are more likely to engage in ruminative responses to depression, which can
prolong and intensify their depressive symptoms.

Question 4:

Which of the following is NOT a social factor associated with increased risk of
depression in women?

A) Lack of paid employment

B) High educational attainment
C) Lack of a confidant
D) Societal expectations and roles

Answer: B) High educational attainment

Explanation: High educational attainment is not typically associated with an increased

risk of depression in women. Conversely, lack of paid employment, lack of a confidant,
and restrictive societal roles are associated with higher depression rates.

Question 5:

What is the most common time frame for the onset of puerperal psychosis after
childbirth?

A) Immediately after delivery

B) 2-14 days postpartum
C) 1 month postpartum
D) 3 months postpartum

Answer: B) 2-14 days postpartum

Explanation: Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first 2-14 days postpartum,
characterized by severe psychiatric symptoms and a high risk of recurrence in future
pregnancies.

Question 6:

Which of the following is a feature of pseudocyesis?

A) Morning sickness and pica

B) Lack of uterine enlargement
C) Clear effacement of the navel
D) No illusion of fetal movements

Answer: A) Morning sickness and pica

Explanation: Pseudocyesis is characterized by physical symptoms of pregnancy, such

as amenorrhea, morning sickness, pica, and abdominal enlargement, even though there
is no actual pregnancy.

Question 7:

Which mood disorder is most strongly associated with intimate partner violence?

A) Anxiety
B) Postpartum blues
C) Depression
D) Bipolar disorder

Answer: C) Depression

Explanation: Depression is strongly associated with intimate partner violence, as

nearly three-quarters of women experiencing such violence also suffer from depressive
symptoms.

Question 8:

What is the typical management approach for severe premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A) Antipsychotics
B) Antidepressants
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Anticonvulsants

Answer: B) Antidepressants

Explanation: Severe PMS can be managed with SSRIs (a class of antidepressants),

which are effective in treating the mood disturbances associated with the condition.

Question 9:

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for antenatal depression in low- and
middle-income countries (LMICs)?

A) High educational attainment

B) Supportive marital relationship
C) Previous pregnancy loss
D) Completing perinatal traditions

Answer: C) Previous pregnancy loss

Explanation: Previous pregnancy loss is a significant risk factor for antenatal

depression, especially in LMICs where the social and psychological impact of such
losses can be profound.

Question 10:

Which of the following statements about postnatal depression is correct?

A) It has a distinct phenomenology compared to depression during pregnancy.

B) It is often associated with less secure mother-infant attachment.
C) The incidence is significantly higher in the postnatal period compared to other times.
D) It is less common in low- and middle-income countries.

Answer: B) It is often associated with less secure mother-infant attachment.

Explanation: Postnatal depression does not necessarily have a distinct
phenomenology, but it significantly impacts mother-infant attachment, leading to
potential developmental issues in the child.

Question 11:

Which disorder is characterized by the presence of depressive symptoms in response to

hormonal changes?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Bipolar disorder
C) Depression
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

Answer: C) Depression

Explanation: Depression in women is closely associated with hormonal fluctuations

during periods such as puberty, menstruation, pregnancy, and menopause.

Question 12:

What is the primary management strategy for puerperal psychosis?

A) Psychotherapy
B) ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy)
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Mood stabilizers

Answer: B) ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy)

Explanation: Puerperal psychosis responds well to ECT, especially in severe cases

where there is a risk of harm to the mother or child.

Question 13:

What is a significant risk associated with lithium use during pregnancy?

A) Neural tube defects

B) Ebstein’s anomaly
C) Cleft palate
D) Spina bifida

Answer: B) Ebstein’s anomaly

Explanation: Lithium use during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester, is

associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects, most notably Ebstein’s
anomaly.

Question 14:

Which disorder is most commonly associated with denial of pregnancy?

A) Major depressive disorder

B) Bipolar disorder
C) Dissociative disorder
D) Schizophrenia

Answer: C) Dissociative disorder

Explanation: Denial of pregnancy is often linked to dissociative disorders, where the

woman may not acknowledge the pregnancy, sometimes leading to severe outcomes
like neonaticide.

Question 15:

Which condition is strongly associated with mental health disorders in populations

where reproduction is highly valued?

A) Intimate partner violence

B) Infertility
C) Postpartum psychosis
D) Menopause

Answer: B) Infertility

Explanation: In cultures where reproduction is highly valued, infertility is strongly

associated with mental health disorders such as depression and anxiety.
Question 16:

What is the recommended course of action for a woman with bipolar disorder
considering pregnancy?

A) Continue lithium without modification

B) Discontinue lithium immediately
C) Discontinue lithium gradually
D) Switch to antipsychotics

Answer: C) Discontinue lithium gradually

Explanation: Discontinuing lithium gradually is recommended to reduce the risk of

relapse. Abrupt discontinuation can precipitate a relapse and increase the risk of
suicide.

Question 17:

Which of the following is NOT a feature of postnatal depression?

A) Impaired mother-infant interactions

B) Lower IQ in children
C) Increased paediatric emergency service use
D) Increased incidence of schizophrenia in mothers

Answer: D) Increased incidence of schizophrenia in mothers

Explanation: Postnatal depression affects mother-infant interactions, leading to

developmental issues in the child, but it is not associated with an increased incidence of
schizophrenia in mothers.

Question 18:

What is a common outcome of maternal depression on child health in low- and

middle-income countries?

A) Increased immunization rates

B) Improved nutritional status
C) Increased risk of infant malnutrition
D) Reduced use of emergency services

Answer: C) Increased risk of infant malnutrition

Explanation: Maternal depression in low- and middle-income countries is associated

with poor child health outcomes, including malnutrition and higher rates of infant
mortality.

Question 19:

Which medication is considered the antidepressant of choice during pregnancy?

A) SSRIs
B) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
C) MAO Inhibitors
D) Benzodiazepines

Answer: B) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

Explanation: TCAs have the most available data supporting their safety in pregnancy,
with no evidence of teratogenicity. SSRIs, while also used, have less data available.

Question 20:

Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the risk of postnatal depression
in Ethiopia?

A) High birth interval

B) Short birth interval
C) Completing perinatal traditions
D) Consenting marriage

Answer: B) Short birth interval

Explanation: A short birth interval is a risk factor for postnatal depression in Ethiopia,
as it can lead to increased physical and psychological stress on the mother.
Question 21:

What is the primary psychological intervention used in Pakistan for postnatal

depression?

A) Pharmacotherapy
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) by community health workers
C) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
D) Group therapy sessions

Answer: B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) by community health workers

Explanation: In Pakistan, community health workers deliver a 'thinking healthy' CBT

program, which has been individualized for treating postnatal depression.

Question 22:

Which is a common presentation of neonaticide?

A) Occurs within the first year of life

B) Often associated with child abuse
C) Associated with depression and trance states
D) Results from intentional child neglect

Answer: C) Associated with depression and trance states

Explanation: Neonaticide, the killing of a newborn within the first 24 hours, is often
associated with severe mental disorders, such as depression and trance-like states.

Question 23:

What is the recommended treatment for severe postpartum blues?

A) Benzodiazepines
B) Supportive counseling
C) Mood stabilizers
D) SSRIs

Answer: B) Supportive counseling

Explanation: Postpartum blues are typically self-limiting and do not require
pharmacological treatment. Supportive counseling is usually sufficient unless symptoms
worsen, suggesting postnatal depression or puerperal psychosis.

Question 24:

Which of the following is a known risk of using antipsychotics during the third trimester
of pregnancy?

A) Congenital limb defects

B) Neonatal withdrawal symptoms
C) Increased incidence of autism
D) Neonatal hypotonia

Answer: D) Neonatal hypotonia

Explanation: Antipsychotics during the third trimester can cause neonatal hypotonia,
among other risks like sedation, feeding difficulties, and neonatal withdrawal symptoms.

Question 25:

What factor is most strongly associated with depression in women experiencing intimate
partner violence?

A) Childhood sexual abuse

B) Physical violence
C) Emotional violence
D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation: Depression in women who have experienced intimate partner violence is

associated with multiple forms of abuse, including childhood sexual abuse, physical
violence, and emotional violence.
Question 26:

Which condition is associated with high levels of control by a spouse and increased
depression in women?

A) Postpartum psychosis
B) Schizophrenia
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Intimate partner violence

Answer: D) Intimate partner violence

Explanation: Women who experience high levels of control by their spouse are more
likely to suffer from depression, especially in contexts of intimate partner violence.

Question 27:

Which of the following is a significant concern when prescribing lithium during the
postpartum period?

A) Neonatal sedation
B) Neonatal feeding difficulties
C) Maternal relapse
D) Neonatal cardiac arrhythmias

Answer: C) Maternal relapse

Explanation: During the postpartum period, discontinuing lithium carries a significant

risk of maternal relapse, which can lead to severe consequences, including suicide.

Question 28:

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of SSRIs during pregnancy?

A) They are associated with high rates of congenital malformations

B) They have no long-term neurodevelopmental effects on the child
C) They should be avoided in all trimesters
D) They have more data supporting their safety compared to TCAs

Answer: B) They have no long-term neurodevelopmental effects on the child

Explanation: SSRIs are not associated with long-term neurodevelopmental effects on
the child, although there is less data available compared to TCAs. They are generally
considered safe during pregnancy with careful monitoring.

Question 29:

What is the best approach to managing women with schizophrenia during pregnancy?

A) Discontinue all antipsychotics

B) Continue the most effective antipsychotic at the lowest effective dose
C) Switch to a benzodiazepine
D) Only provide psychotherapy

Answer: B) Continue the most effective antipsychotic at the lowest effective dose

Explanation: It is recommended to continue the most effective antipsychotic at the

lowest effective dose during pregnancy to balance the benefits for the mother with
potential risks to the fetus.

Question 30:

Which of the following is a risk factor for postnatal depression in the West?

A) High social support

B) Male infant
C) Good mother-infant bonding
D) Absence of social adversity

Answer: B) Male infant

Explanation: Postnatal depression has been found to have a worse impact when the
infant is male, especially in the context of social adversity and poor mother-infant
bonding.

Question 31:

What is the most effective method to reduce the risk of lithium toxicity in neonates?
A) Increase lithium dose during pregnancy
B) Discontinue lithium 1 month before delivery
C) Monitor lithium levels during delivery
D) Stop lithium before delivery and restart within 48 hours postpartum

Answer: D) Stop lithium before delivery and restart within 48 hours postpartum

Explanation: Stopping lithium before delivery and restarting it within 48 hours

postpartum reduces the risk of neonatal toxicity due to the fluid shifts that occur during
delivery.

Question 32:

Which of the following medications is associated with neural tube defects when taken
during pregnancy?

A) Fluoxetine
B) Carbamazepine
C) Trifluoperazine
D) Chlorpromazine

Answer: B) Carbamazepine

Explanation: Carbamazepine is associated with an increased risk of neural tube

defects when taken during pregnancy. Folic acid supplementation is recommended to
reduce this risk.

Question 33:

Which mood stabilizer is most likely to increase the risk of congenital malformations
when used during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) Lithium
B) Valproate
C) Carbamazepine
D) Lamotrigine

Answer: B) Valproate
Explanation: Valproate carries a high risk of congenital malformations, including neural
tube defects, when used during the first trimester. It is generally avoided during
pregnancy.

Question 34:

Which of the following is a common outcome of untreated postnatal depression in low-

and middle-income countries?

A) Improved child cognitive development

B) Increased rates of breastfeeding
C) Higher rates of infant diarrhea
D) Decreased child mortality

Answer: C) Higher rates of infant diarrhea

Explanation: Untreated postnatal depression in low- and middle-income countries often

leads to poorer child health outcomes, including higher rates of infant diarrhea and
malnutrition.

Question 35:

Which of the following strategies is most effective in preventing postnatal depression?

A) Universal pharmacotherapy
B) Preventive interventions in women at risk
C) High-dose antidepressants
D) None of the above

Answer: D) None of the above

Explanation: Preventive interventions in women at risk have not been shown to be

consistently effective in preventing postnatal depression. Individualized approaches are
more commonly recommended.

Question 36:
Which of the following is a common feature of postpartum blues?

A) Severe psychotic symptoms

B) Persistent depressive symptoms lasting months
C) Self-limiting emotional lability
D) Increased risk of chronic mental illness

Answer: C) Self-limiting emotional lability

Explanation: Postpartum blues are characterized by emotional lability, irritability, and

mood swings that are usually self-limiting and do not last more than a few days.

Question 37:

What is a primary concern when using antipsychotic medication during breastfeeding?

A) High risk of congenital malformations

B) Neonatal sedation and EPS
C) Increased maternal relapse rates
D) Enhanced milk production

Answer: B) Neonatal sedation and EPS

Explanation: Antipsychotic medications can pass into breast milk and may cause
neonatal sedation, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), and other adverse effects,
especially in premature infants.

Question 38:

Which of the following statements about pseudocyesis is correct?

A) It involves actual pregnancy but without symptoms

B) It is a psychotic disorder
C) It often requires psychological intervention
D) It resolves spontaneously without treatment

Answer: C) It often requires psychological intervention

Explanation: Pseudocyesis, or false pregnancy, is a condition that involves a strong
belief in being pregnant, accompanied by physical symptoms, and usually requires
psychological intervention to address the underlying issues.

Question 39:

Which condition is strongly linked to maternal depression affecting a child's

development?

A) Autism spectrum disorder

B) Conduct disorder
C) Schizophrenia
D) Poor cognitive and motor development

Answer: D) Poor cognitive and motor development

Explanation: Maternal depression, especially postnatal depression, is linked to poorer

cognitive, motor, social, and emotional development in children, with long-term
consequences.

Question 40:

Which of the following is a recommended management strategy for women on lithium

who wish to breastfeed?

A) Discontinue lithium entirely

B) Use of alternative mood stabilizers
C) Continue lithium with close monitoring
D) Avoid all pharmacotherapy

Answer: C) Continue lithium with close monitoring

Explanation: While controversial, lithium can be continued during breastfeeding with

close monitoring of the infant for signs of toxicity, though it is essential to weigh the risks
and benefits carefully.

Question 41:
What is the risk associated with sudden discontinuation of lithium in a pregnant woman?

A) Spontaneous abortion
B) Neonatal withdrawal symptoms
C) Maternal relapse
D) Fetal macrosomia

Answer: C) Maternal relapse

Explanation: Sudden discontinuation of lithium can precipitate a relapse in mood

disorders, which can be severe, especially during the postpartum period.

Question 42:

Which of the following is a key consideration when managing psychosis in pregnancy?

A) Psychosis always increases the risk of congenital malformations

B) Most antipsychotics do not cross the placenta
C) Psychosis may affect maternal ability to plan for the baby
D) Antipsychotic-induced amenorrhea protects against pregnancy

Answer: C) Psychosis may affect maternal ability to plan for the baby

Explanation: Psychosis during pregnancy can impair the mother's ability to plan and
prepare for the baby, which may impact prenatal care and attachment.

Question 43:

Which of the following is a significant concern when prescribing antipsychotics during

the third trimester?

A) Increased risk of neonatal hypoglycemia

B) Increased risk of maternal hypertension
C) Neonatal antipsychotic withdrawal syndrome
D) Prolonged labor due to uterine hyperstimulation

Answer: C) Neonatal antipsychotic withdrawal syndrome

Explanation: Antipsychotics, especially when used late in pregnancy, can cause
neonatal withdrawal symptoms, which include agitation, feeding difficulties, and
hypotonia.

Question 44:

Which of the following is a preventive measure recommended for women at risk of

postnatal depression?

A) High-dose SSRIs immediately postpartum

B) Routine ECT sessions postpartum
C) Supportive counseling during pregnancy
D) Complete cessation of all medications

Answer: C) Supportive counseling during pregnancy

Explanation: Supportive counseling during pregnancy can be an effective preventive

measure for women at risk of postnatal depression, helping them prepare for potential
challenges postpartum.

Question 45:

What is a primary risk of untreated depression in pregnancy?

A) Decreased prenatal care

B) Fetal hyperactivity
C) Decreased risk of preterm birth
D) Improved maternal bonding

Answer: A) Decreased prenatal care

Explanation: Untreated depression in pregnancy can lead to decreased prenatal care,

increasing the risk of obstetric complications and adverse outcomes for both the mother
and the fetus.

Question 46:
Which of the following is an effect of maternal depression on child health in low- and
middle-income countries?

A) Increased child vaccination rates

B) Improved child nutritional status
C) Increased rates of infant malnutrition
D) Reduced maternal-child bonding

Answer: C) Increased rates of infant malnutrition

Explanation: Maternal depression in low- and middle-income countries is associated

with higher rates of infant malnutrition due to the mother's reduced ability to care for and
feed the child properly.

Question 47:

What is the main reason for caution when prescribing benzodiazepines during
pregnancy?

A) Risk of Ebstein’s anomaly

B) High risk of addiction in the fetus
C) Teratogenic effects such as cleft palate
D) Increased maternal heart rate

Answer: C) Teratogenic effects such as cleft palate

Explanation: Benzodiazepines are associated with an increased risk of teratogenic

effects, such as cleft palate, especially when used during the first trimester of
pregnancy.

Question 48:

Which of the following is a common consequence of postpartum blues?

A) Chronic mental illness

B) Increased risk of postpartum psychosis
C) Severe and prolonged depression
D) Self-limiting course with mood swings
Answer: D) Self-limiting course with mood swings

Explanation: Postpartum blues typically have a self-limiting course with mood swings,
irritability, and emotional lability, usually resolving within a few days.

Question 49:

Which of the following is a risk factor for maternal depression in low- and middle-income
countries?

A) High socioeconomic status

B) Marital problems
C) Supportive family environment
D) Higher education level

Answer: B) Marital problems

Explanation: Marital problems are a significant risk factor for maternal depression in
low- and middle-income countries, where social support and stability are crucial for
mental health.

Question 50:

Which of the following is true about the management of women with mood disorders
considering pregnancy?

A) All medications should be discontinued before conception

B) A comprehensive risk-benefit analysis should be conducted
C) ECT is the first-line treatment during pregnancy
D) Mood stabilizers are completely safe in pregnancy

Answer: B) A comprehensive risk-benefit analysis should be conducted

Explanation: Management of mood disorders during pregnancy requires a careful

risk-benefit analysis to balance the needs of the mother with potential risks to the fetus.
Discontinuing medication abruptly or making drastic changes without proper
consideration can lead to adverse outcomes.
Slide Ten: Neurocognitive Disorders

Question 1: Which of the following is a core feature of Neurocognitive Disorders

(NCDs)?

A) Developmental onset

B) Cognitive function is primarily impaired

C) Emotional instability

D) Sensorimotor deficits

Answer: B) Cognitive function is primarily impaired

Explanation: The primary clinical deficit in Neurocognitive Disorders (NCDs) is

cognitive function. These disorders are acquired rather than developmental, and there is
a decline from a previously attained level of functioning.

Question 2: How does the DSM-5 categorize Dementia in relation to Neurocognitive

Disorders (NCDs)?

A) Dementia is a subtype of mild NCD

B) Dementia is synonymous with major NCD

C) Dementia is unrelated to NCDs

D) Dementia is only applicable to younger age groups

Answer: B) Dementia is synonymous with major NCD

Explanation: In the DSM-5, Dementia is largely congruent with major Neurocognitive

Disorder. The term "dementia" is still used for etiological subtypes but is now
encompassed within the broader category of NCDs.

Question 3: Which cognitive domain is associated with abilities such as sustaining,

dividing, and selectively focusing attention?

A) Executive function
B) Learning & memory

C) Complex attention

D) Social cognition

Answer: C) Complex attention

Explanation: Complex attention involves the ability to sustain, divide, and selectively
focus attention, as well as processing speed, and is one of the six cognitive domains
affected in NCDs.

Question 4: What characterizes the onset of Delirium?

A) Slow progression over months

B) Sudden onset over hours to days

C) Gradual onset over weeks

D) Onset after age 65

Answer: B) Sudden onset over hours to days

Explanation: Delirium is characterized by a disturbance in attention and awareness

that develops over a short period, usually hours to a few days, and represents a change
from baseline attention and awareness.

Question 5: Which of the following is a common emotional disturbance seen in

Delirium?

A) Euphoria

B) Anxiety

C) Emotional flatness

D) Psychomotor retardation

Answer: B) Anxiety
Explanation: Emotional disturbances in Delirium can include anxiety, fear, depression,
irritability, anger, euphoria, and apathy, with unpredictable shifts from one emotional
state to another.

Question 6: Which specifier for Delirium is characterized by a persistent course lasting

weeks or months?

A) Acute

B) Hyperactive

C) Mixed level of activity

D) Persistent

Answer: D) Persistent

Explanation: Delirium can be specified as "Persistent" when it lasts for weeks or

months, as opposed to "Acute," which lasts for a few hours to days.

Question 7: Which cognitive domain is primarily affected in Neurocognitive Disorder

due to Alzheimer's Disease?

A) Language

B) Social cognition

C) Perceptual-motor function

D) Learning & memory

Answer: D) Learning & memory

Explanation: Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease typically presents

with an impairment in learning and memory, among other cognitive domains.

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a common behavioral disturbance

associated with Neurocognitive Disorders?

A) Hallucinations
B) Paranoia

C) Euphoria

D) Hyperactivity

Answer: D) Hyperactivity

Explanation: Behavioral disturbances in NCDs often include paranoia, hallucinations,

and mood disturbances such as depression and anxiety. Hyperactivity is not commonly
associated.

Question 9: What is the most common etiology of Neurocognitive Disorder in older

adults?

A) Traumatic Brain Injury

B) HIV infection

C) Vascular disease

D) Alzheimer’s Disease

Answer: D) Alzheimer’s Disease

Explanation: Alzheimer's Disease is the most common cause of Neurocognitive

Disorder in older adults, with a prevalence that increases with age.

Question 10: Which of the following is a diagnostic marker for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Elevated dopamine levels

B) Reduced amyloid beta-42 levels in the CSF

C) Enlarged ventricles

D) Increased levels of serotonin

Answer: B) Reduced amyloid beta-42 levels in the CSF

Explanation: Diagnostic markers for Alzheimer's Disease include reduced levels of
amyloid beta-42 in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the presence of amyloid plaques
and neurofibrillary tangles.

Question 11: Which subtype of Neurocognitive Disorder is often related to large vessel
strokes or microvascular disease?

A) Alzheimer’s Disease

B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

C) Lewy Body Disease

D) Parkinson’s Disease

Answer: B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

Explanation: Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder is typically associated with

cerebrovascular disease, which can range from large vessel strokes to microvascular
disease.

Question 12: What is a typical course of Neurocognitive Disorder due to Traumatic

Brain Injury?

A) Continuous deterioration without recovery

B) Variable course depending on injury specifics

C) Rapid progression to severe impairment

D) Complete resolution within days

Answer: B) Variable course depending on injury specifics

Explanation: The course of Neurocognitive Disorder due to Traumatic Brain Injury can
be variable, depending on factors such as the severity of the injury, age, and
pre-existing conditions.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a treatment approach for Neurocognitive
Disorders?

A) Use of anticholinergic drugs

B) Pharmacological treatment of associated features

C) Psychosocial therapies

D) Identifying and treating the primary cause

Answer: A) Use of anticholinergic drugs

Explanation: Anticholinergic drugs should be avoided in the treatment of

Neurocognitive Disorders, especially in older adults, due to their potential to worsen
cognitive impairment.

Question 14: Which cognitive domain involves abilities such as visual perception and
praxis?

A) Complex attention

B) Perceptual-motor function

C) Executive function

D) Language

Answer: B) Perceptual-motor function

Explanation: Perceptual-motor function includes abilities related to visual perception,

visuo-constructional skills, perceptual-motor integration, and praxis.

Question 15: Which behavioral change is commonly observed in mild and major
Neurocognitive Disorders?

A) Increased sociability

B) Apathy

C) Hyperactivity
D) Compulsive hoarding

Answer: B) Apathy

Explanation: Apathy, characterized by diminished motivation and reduced

goal-directed behavior, is commonly observed in both mild and major Neurocognitive
Disorders.

Question 16: Which of the following best describes the course of Neurocognitive
Disorder due to Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Rapid improvement with treatment

B) Static symptoms after initial onset

C) Insidious onset with gradual progression

D) Immediate and severe decline

Answer: C) Insidious onset with gradual progression

Explanation: Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease typically has an

insidious onset with gradual progression of cognitive decline.

Question 17: What is the second most common cause of Neurocognitive Disorder after
Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Vascular disease

B) Traumatic brain injury

C) Huntington’s Disease

D) Parkinson’s Disease

Answer: A) Vascular disease

Explanation: Vascular disease is the second most common cause of Neurocognitive

Disorder after Alzheimer's Disease.
Question 18: Which of the following is a primary focus of treatment for Delirium?

A) Long-term pharmacotherapy

B) Treating the underlying cause

C) Ignoring sleep-wake cycle disturbances

D) Encouraging sensory deprivation

Answer: B) Treating the underlying cause

Explanation: The primary focus of Delirium treatment is identifying and treating the
underlying cause. Supportive measures, including physical, sensory, and environmental
support, are also important.

Question 19: In which subtype of Neurocognitive Disorder is the diagnosis heavily

dependent on the presence of a potentially causative entity such as a stroke?

A) Alzheimer’s Disease

B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

C) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

D) Lewy Body Disease

Answer: B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

Explanation: The diagnosis of Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder heavily depends on

the presence of cerebrovascular disease, such as a stroke, that is sufficient to account
for the cognitive deficits.

Question 20: Which of the following is a significant feature in the earliest stages of mild
Neurocognitive Disorder?

A) Psychosis

B) Hyperactivity

C) Mood disturbances
D) Aggression

Answer: C) Mood disturbances

Explanation: Mood disturbances, including depression and anxiety, are significant

features in the earliest stages of mild Neurocognitive Disorder.

Question 21: Which specifier should be used if a patient with major Neurocognitive
Disorder has difficulties with instrumental activities of daily living, such as managing
money?

A) Mild

B) Moderate

C) Severe

D) With behavioral disturbance

Answer: A) Mild

Explanation: The "Mild" specifier is used for major Neurocognitive Disorder when the
patient has difficulties with instrumental activities of daily living but is still relatively
independent.

Question 22: What is a common diagnostic feature of Neurocognitive Disorder due to

Traumatic Brain Injury?

A) Progressive cognitive decline over years

B) Neurological signs such as seizures

C) Sudden onset of cognitive deficits without trauma

D) Absence of any physical symptoms

Answer: B) Neurological signs such as seizures

Explanation: Neurocognitive Disorder due to Traumatic Brain Injury is often diagnosed

with evidence of neurological signs such as seizures, disorientation, or confusion.
Question 23: Which of the following is a common complication in the management of
Neurocognitive Disorder in older adults?

A) Increased physical strength

B) Idiosyncratic drug effects

C) Rapid cognitive recovery

D) Lack of comorbidities

Answer: B) Idiosyncratic drug effects

Explanation: Older adults with Neurocognitive Disorder are more prone to idiosyncratic
drug effects, such as paradoxical excitement or increased sedation, which complicates
management.

Question 24: Which Neurocognitive Disorder subtype is commonly associated with

visual hallucinations and parkinsonism?

A) Alzheimer’s Disease

B) Lewy Body Disease

C) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

D) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

Answer: B) Lewy Body Disease

Explanation: Lewy Body Disease is often associated with visual hallucinations and
parkinsonism in addition to cognitive decline.

Question 25: Which pharmacotherapy is recommended for the symptomatic treatment

of cognitive deficits in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Anticholinergics

B) Benzodiazepines
C) Cholinesterase inhibitors

D) Antipsychotics

Answer: C) Cholinesterase inhibitors

Explanation: Cholinesterase inhibitors, such as Donepezil, are recommended for the

symptomatic treatment of cognitive deficits in Alzheimer’s Disease.

Question 26: Which of the following is a significant feature of major Neurocognitive

Disorder?

A) Cognitive deficits do not interfere with independence

B) Gradual onset with immediate resolution

C) Cognitive deficits interfere with independence in everyday activities

D) The presence of mild cognitive decline

Answer: C) Cognitive deficits interfere with independence in everyday activities

Explanation: A significant feature of major Neurocognitive Disorder is that cognitive

deficits interfere with the patient's independence in everyday activities.

Question 27: Which of the following is a key differential diagnosis for Neurocognitive
Disorder in older adults?

A) Acute stress disorder

B) Specific learning disorder

C) Major depressive disorder

D) Bipolar disorder

Answer: C) Major depressive disorder

Explanation: Major depressive disorder is a key differential diagnosis for

Neurocognitive Disorder in older adults, as depressive symptoms can mimic cognitive
decline.
Question 28: Which subtype of Neurocognitive Disorder is associated with genetic
mutations in early-onset cases?

A) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

B) Lewy Body Disease

C) Alzheimer’s Disease

D) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

Answer: C) Alzheimer’s Disease

Explanation: Early-onset Alzheimer’s Disease is associated with genetic mutations,

such as those in the amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin 1 (PSEN1), or
presenilin 2 (PSEN2) genes.

Question 29: What is the recommended pharmacological treatment for agitation and
psychosis in Neurocognitive Disorders?

A) Cholinesterase inhibitors

B) Antipsychotics

C) Antidepressants

D) Benzodiazepines

Answer: B) Antipsychotics

Explanation: Antipsychotics are recommended for treating agitation and psychosis in

patients with Neurocognitive Disorders, though they should be used cautiously due to
potential side effects.

Question 30: Which feature is common to both delirium and major Neurocognitive
Disorder?

A) Rapid onset
B) Impaired attention

C) Fluctuating consciousness

D) Long-term cognitive stability

Answer: B) Impaired attention

Explanation: Impaired attention is a feature common to both delirium and major

Neurocognitive Disorder, though the onset and course differ between the two
conditions.

Question 31: Which type of Neurocognitive Disorder is more likely to present with
disinhibition and compulsive behaviors?

A) Alzheimer’s Disease

B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

C) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

D) Lewy Body Disease

Answer: C) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

Explanation: Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration is more likely to present with

disinhibition, compulsive behaviors, and other changes in personality and social
conduct.

Question 32: Which of the following cognitive domains is often preserved in mild
Neurocognitive Disorder?

A) Executive function

B) Social cognition

C) Learning and memory

D) Perceptual-motor function

Answer: B) Social cognition

Explanation: Social cognition is often relatively preserved in mild Neurocognitive
Disorder, with other cognitive domains being more affected.

Question 33: Which condition must be ruled out before diagnosing Neurocognitive
Disorder?

A) Schizophrenia

B) Intellectual disability

C) Specific learning disorder

D) Delirium

Answer: D) Delirium

Explanation: Delirium must be ruled out before diagnosing Neurocognitive Disorder

because it presents with similar cognitive deficits but differs in onset, duration, and
course.

Question 34: Which feature is common in the late stages of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Heightened sensory perception

B) Myoclonus and seizures

C) Increased physical activity

D) Enhanced memory recall

Answer: B) Myoclonus and seizures

Explanation: In the late stages of Alzheimer’s Disease, patients may experience

myoclonus, seizures, gait disturbances, and other physical symptoms.

Question 35: What is a significant behavioral change in Neurocognitive Disorder due to

Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Decreased goal-directed behavior

B) Increased social interaction

C) Enhanced memory retention

D) Improved executive functioning

Answer: A) Decreased goal-directed behavior

Explanation: Decreased goal-directed behavior, such as apathy, is a significant

behavioral change in Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s Disease.

Question 36: Which cognitive domain is typically first affected in Neurocognitive

Disorder due to Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Language

B) Perceptual-motor function

C) Learning and memory

D) Social cognition

Answer: C) Learning and memory

Explanation: Learning and memory are typically the first cognitive domains affected in
Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s Disease.

Question 37: Which of the following is a typical symptom of hyperactive delirium?

A) Lethargy

B) Agitation

C) Excessive sleep

D) Reduced motor activity

Answer: B) Agitation

Explanation: Hyperactive delirium is typically characterized by symptoms such as

agitation, restlessness, and hyperactivity.
Question 38: Which pharmacological treatment is used for cognitive deficits in
Alzheimer’s Disease but does not prevent neuronal degeneration?

A) Antipsychotics

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Cholinesterase inhibitors

D) Antidepressants

Answer: C) Cholinesterase inhibitors

Explanation: Cholinesterase inhibitors, such as Donepezil, are used to treat cognitive

deficits in Alzheimer’s Disease but do not prevent the underlying progressive neuronal
degeneration.

Question 39: Which factor is a common risk for developing Neurocognitive Disorder
due to vascular disease?

A) High cholesterol levels

B) Excessive physical activity

C) Low blood pressure

D) Low body weight

Answer: A) High cholesterol levels

Explanation: High cholesterol levels are a common risk factor for developing
Neurocognitive Disorder due to vascular disease, along with hypertension, diabetes,
and other cardiovascular risk factors.

Question 40: Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for major Neurocognitive
Disorder?

A) Cognitive deficits are mild and do not interfere with daily activities
B) Cognitive deficits occur exclusively during delirium

C) Cognitive deficits are better explained by another mental disorder

D) Cognitive deficits interfere with independence in everyday activities

Answer: D) Cognitive deficits interfere with independence in everyday activities

Explanation: Major Neurocognitive Disorder is diagnosed when cognitive deficits

interfere with independence in everyday activities and are not better explained by
another mental disorder or delirium.

Question 41: Which of the following behavioral symptoms is more likely in Lewy Body
Disease than in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Apathy

B) Visual hallucinations

C) Aggression

D) Wandering

Answer: B) Visual hallucinations

Explanation: Visual hallucinations are more commonly associated with Lewy Body
Disease than with Alzheimer’s Disease.

Question 42: What distinguishes Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder from Alzheimer’s

Disease?

A) Gradual cognitive decline

B) Memory impairment as the first symptom

C) Cognitive deficits related to cerebrovascular events

D) Absence of motor symptoms

Answer: C) Cognitive deficits related to cerebrovascular events

Explanation: Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder is distinguished from Alzheimer’s
Disease by cognitive deficits that are related to cerebrovascular events, such as
strokes.

Question 43: Which neurocognitive disorder is typically associated with amyloid

plaques and neurofibrillary tangles?

A) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

B) Alzheimer’s Disease

C) Huntington’s Disease

D) Lewy Body Disease

Answer: B) Alzheimer’s Disease

Explanation: Alzheimer’s Disease is typically associated with the presence of amyloid

plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain.

Question 44: Which type of delirium is characterized by symptoms such as lethargy

and decreased motor activity?

A) Hyperactive delirium

B) Hypoactive delirium

C) Mixed delirium

D) Delirium tremens

Answer: B) Hypoactive delirium

Explanation: Hypoactive delirium is characterized by symptoms such as lethargy,

decreased motor activity, and a general reduction in responsiveness.

Question 45: Which feature differentiates Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration from

Alzheimer’s Disease?
A) Early memory loss

B) Rapid cognitive decline

C) Prominent language disturbances

D) Visual hallucinations

Answer: C) Prominent language disturbances

Explanation: Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration often presents with prominent

language disturbances and personality changes, which differentiate it from Alzheimer’s
Disease.

Question 46: Which subtype of Neurocognitive Disorder is most likely to involve

parkinsonism?

A) Alzheimer’s Disease

B) Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder

C) Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

D) Lewy Body Disease

Answer: D) Lewy Body Disease

Explanation: Lewy Body Disease is often associated with parkinsonism, including

tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, along with cognitive decline.

Question 47: Which feature is a typical early sign of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A) Impaired executive function

B) Difficulty with complex motor tasks

C) Word-finding difficulty

D) Social withdrawal

Answer: C) Word-finding difficulty

Explanation: Word-finding difficulty is a typical early sign of Alzheimer’s Disease, often
preceding other cognitive impairments.

Question 48: Which treatment approach is NOT typically used in Neurocognitive

Disorders?

A) Physical support to prevent sensory deprivation

B) Antipsychotics for hallucinations and delusions

C) High doses of anticholinergics

D) Supportive and educational psychotherapy

Answer: C) High doses of anticholinergics

Explanation: High doses of anticholinergics are not used in Neurocognitive Disorders

because they can worsen cognitive impairment, especially in older adults.

Question 49: Which of the following is a common cause of Neurocognitive Disorder

due to HIV infection?

A) Amyloid plaques

B) Vascular disease

C) CNS infections or mass lesions

D) Traumatic brain injury

Answer: C) CNS infections or mass lesions

Explanation: Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV infection is often caused by CNS

infections or mass lesions, such as toxoplasmosis or cryptococcal meningitis.

Question 50: Which specifier is used when Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s
Disease presents with irritability, agitation, and depression?

A) Without behavioral disturbance

B) With behavioral disturbance

C) With psychotic features

D) With hyperactivity

Answer: B) With behavioral disturbance

Explanation: The specifier "With behavioral disturbance" is used when Neurocognitive

Disorder due to Alzheimer’s Disease presents with symptoms such as irritability,
agitation, and depression.
Slide Eleven: Substance Use Disorder

Question 1:

Which of the following best defines addiction according to the American Society of
Addiction Medicine (ASAM)?

A) A moral failure that results in substance misuse

B) A primary chronic disease of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related circuitry
C) A temporary condition that can be easily overcome
D) An unavoidable consequence of substance exposure

Answer: B) A primary chronic disease of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related
circuitry

Explanation: ASAM defines addiction as a chronic disease of brain circuits that affects
motivation and memory, leading to compulsive substance use.

Question 2:

What is the main reason the DSM-5 uses the term "Substance Use Disorders" (SUD)
instead of "Addiction"?

A) To simplify diagnosis
B) To avoid negative connotations and unclear definitions
C) To align with insurance coding
D) To differentiate between physical and psychological dependence

Answer: B) To avoid negative connotations and unclear definitions

Explanation: The DSM-5 replaced "Addiction" with "Substance Use Disorders" to avoid
the negative connotations and ambiguity associated with the term "addiction."

Question 3:

Which of the following is recognized by the DSM-5 as a diagnosable behavioral

addiction?
A) Shopping
B) Gambling
C) Internet usage
D) Exercise

Answer: B) Gambling

Explanation: Gambling Disorder is the only behavioral addiction recognized by the

DSM-5 due to sufficient empirical evidence supporting its diagnosis.

Question 4:

According to the DSM-5, what criteria must be met for a diagnosis of Substance Use
Disorder (SUD)?

A) At least one criterion over 12 months

B) At least two criteria over 12 months
C) At least four criteria over 6 months
D) At least six criteria over 6 months

Answer: B) At least two criteria over 12 months

Explanation: A diagnosis of SUD requires at least two criteria related to impaired

control, social impairment, risky use, or pharmacological effects within a 12-month
period.

Question 5:

Which of the following is NOT considered a substance-induced mental disorder

according to the DSM-5?

A) Substance-induced psychotic disorder

B) Substance-induced mood disorder
C) Substance-induced anxiety disorder
D) Substance-induced cognitive enhancement

Answer: D) Substance-induced cognitive enhancement

Explanation: Substance-induced cognitive enhancement is not a recognized disorder;
the DSM-5 lists disorders like psychosis, mood disorders, and anxiety as
substance-induced.

Question 6:

Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the neurobiology of addiction?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Glutamate

Answer: B) Dopamine

Explanation: Dopamine is the key neurotransmitter involved in addiction, particularly in

the brain's reward circuitry, influencing the experience of pleasure and craving.

Question 7:

What is the most persistent and insidious component of addictive illness, according to
Dackis and O’Brien?

A) Physical dependence
B) Social impairment
C) Craving
D) Withdrawal

Answer: C) Craving

Explanation: Craving is considered the most persistent and insidious component of

addictive illness, driving continued substance use and making recovery challenging.

Question 8:

Which of the following is a key management principle in the treatment of Substance Use
Disorders (SUD)?
A) Immediate discontinuation of all substances
B) Gradual tapering without any support
C) Prevention of harmful use through public health activities
D) Ignoring psychosocial factors

Answer: C) Prevention of harmful use through public health activities

Explanation: A key management principle includes prevention of harmful use through

public health measures, alongside clinical management of intoxication, withdrawal, and
maintenance of abstinence.

Question 9:

Which category of substance-related disorders is the most common cause of psychiatric

morbidity in males?

A) Anxiety disorders
B) Substance Use Disorders (SUD)
C) Mood disorders
D) Personality disorders

Answer: B) Substance Use Disorders (SUD)

Explanation: Substance Use Disorders (SUD) are the most common cause of
psychiatric morbidity in males, highlighting the significant impact of substance abuse on
mental health.

Question 10:

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for maintaining abstinence in

individuals with alcohol dependence?

A) Anticraving medications such as Naltrexone

B) Immediate cessation without support
C) Encouraging occasional social drinking
D) Ignoring withdrawal symptoms

Answer: A) Anticraving medications such as Naltrexone

Explanation: Anticraving medications like Naltrexone are recommended to help
maintain abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence, alongside psychotherapy
and support groups.

Question 11:

Which of the following is a potential risk factor for developing addiction?

A) Strong family history of addiction

B) Higher educational attainment
C) Lack of exposure to substances
D) Stable, supportive relationships

Answer: A) Strong family history of addiction

Explanation: A strong family history of addiction is a known risk factor, increasing the
likelihood of developing addiction due to genetic and environmental influences.

Question 12:

What is the first-line management approach for alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures?

A) Opioids
B) Antidepressants
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Antipsychotics

Answer: C) Benzodiazepines

Explanation: Benzodiazepines are the first-line treatment to prevent withdrawal

seizures in patients undergoing alcohol detoxification.

Question 13:

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of chronic alcohol dependence?

A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
C) Increased cognitive performance
D) Cirrhosis

Answer: C) Increased cognitive performance

Explanation: Chronic alcohol dependence leads to conditions like cardiomyopathy,

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome, and cirrhosis, but it impairs rather than enhances
cognitive performance.

Question 14:

What is the clinical triad indicative of opiate overdose?

A) Euphoria, hyperactivity, mydriasis

B) Coma, pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression
C) Anxiety, nausea, hallucinations
D) Tachycardia, tremor, hyperthermia

Answer: B) Coma, pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression

Explanation: The clinical triad of coma, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression is
key in diagnosing opiate overdose.

Question 15:

Which substance is associated with a risk of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome when

abused chronically?

A) Cocaine
B) Alcohol
C) Cannabis
D) Methamphetamine

Answer: B) Alcohol

Explanation: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome, a

severe neurological condition due to thiamine deficiency.
Question 16:

Which medication is commonly used for the treatment of opioid overdose?

A) Diazepam
B) Methadone
C) Naltrexone
D) Naloxone

Answer: D) Naloxone

Explanation: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist commonly used to reverse the effects of

opioid overdose.

Question 17:

Which of the following is a feature of alcohol intoxication?

A) Hypervigilance
B) Nystagmus
C) Weight gain
D) Tachypnea

Answer: B) Nystagmus

Explanation: Nystagmus, or involuntary eye movement, is a feature of alcohol

intoxication, along with impaired coordination and slurred speech.

Question 18:

Which of the following drugs is classified as a sedative-hypnotic?

A) Heroin
B) Amphetamine
C) Diazepam
D) MDMA

Answer: C) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine, classified as a sedative-hypnotic,
commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, and withdrawal symptoms.

Question 19:

Which of the following is NOT a common consequence of cannabis use?

A) Impairment of short-term memory

B) Increased alertness and attention
C) Amotivational syndrome
D) Impaired judgment

Answer: B) Increased alertness and attention

Explanation: Cannabis use typically impairs short-term memory and judgment and can
lead to amotivational syndrome, rather than increasing alertness and attention.

Question 20:

Which syndrome is characterized by a sense of well-being, relaxation, and friendliness,

commonly seen in cannabis users?

A) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
B) Amotivational Syndrome
C) Serotonin Syndrome
D) Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome

Answer: B) Amotivational Syndrome

Explanation: Amotivational syndrome, often seen in chronic cannabis users, is

characterized by a sense of well-being, relaxation, and social detachment, with reduced
motivation.

Question 21:

Which of the following symptoms is associated with alcohol withdrawal?

A) Tactile hallucinations
B) Sedation
C) Euphoria
D) Decreased blood pressure

Answer: A) Tactile hallucinations

Explanation: Alcohol withdrawal can cause tactile hallucinations, such as feeling things
that aren't there, along with symptoms like tremors, anxiety, and seizures.

Question 22:

What is the most common cause of death in opioid overdose?

A) Myocardial infarction
B) Respiratory depression
C) Stroke
D) Sepsis

Answer: B) Respiratory depression

Explanation: Respiratory depression is the most common and fatal consequence of

opioid overdose, leading to hypoxia and death if not treated promptly.

Question 23:

Which of the following is a key feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A) Euphoria
B) Nystagmus
C) Muscle rigidity
D) Hyperactivity

Answer: B) Nystagmus

Explanation: Nystagmus is a key feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, along with

confusion and ataxia, caused by thiamine deficiency due to chronic alcohol abuse.
Question 24:

What is the primary goal of detoxification in the management of alcohol dependence?

A) Immediate long-term abstinence

B) Prevention of acute withdrawal symptoms
C) Promotion of social integration
D) Enhancing physical endurance

Answer: B) Prevention of acute withdrawal symptoms

Explanation: The primary goal of detoxification is to manage and prevent acute

withdrawal symptoms, ensuring patient safety during the initial phase of treatment.

Question 25:

Which of the following is a major risk factor for alcohol-related suicide?

A) Moderate alcohol consumption

B) Stable employment
C) Coexisting medical conditions
D) Young age

Answer: C) Coexisting medical conditions

Explanation: Coexisting medical conditions, especially when combined with mental

health disorders like depression, increase the risk of suicide in individuals with alcohol
dependence.

Question 26:

Which of the following is the most widely abused illicit drug in the world after cannabis?

A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Methamphetamine
D) MDMA

Answer: C) Methamphetamine
Explanation: Methamphetamine is the most widely abused illicit drug after cannabis,
known for its potent stimulant effects and high potential for addiction.

Question 27:

Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of heroin dependence to

prevent withdrawal symptoms?

A) Disulfiram
B) Methadone
C) Naltrexone
D) Diazepam

Answer: B) Methadone

Explanation: Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a maintenance therapy in heroin

dependence to prevent withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings.

Question 28:

Which of the following is a complication of chronic cannabis use?

A) Increased motivation
B) Improved cognitive function
C) Amotivational syndrome
D) Enhanced memory recall

Answer: C) Amotivational syndrome

Explanation: Chronic cannabis use is associated with amotivational syndrome,

characterized by reduced motivation, impaired judgment, and diminished effectiveness
in interpersonal situations.

Question 29:

Which substance is associated with the development of "amotivational syndrome"?

A) Alcohol
B) Cannabis
C) Heroin
D) Cocaine

Answer: B) Cannabis

Explanation: Long-term cannabis use can lead to amotivational syndrome, which

involves decreased motivation and productivity, and impaired cognitive and social
functioning.

Question 30:

Which of the following best describes the management of benzodiazepine withdrawal?

A) Immediate discontinuation
B) Rapid tapering over 2-3 days
C) Gradual tapering over weeks to months
D) Replacement with barbiturates

Answer: C) Gradual tapering over weeks to months

Explanation: Benzodiazepine withdrawal is managed by gradually tapering the dose

over weeks to months to prevent withdrawal symptoms, including seizures.

Question 31:

What is the first-line treatment for acute alcohol intoxication?

A) Antipsychotics
B) Supportive care and monitoring
C) Opioid antagonists
D) Antidepressants

Answer: B) Supportive care and monitoring

Explanation: Supportive care, including monitoring of vital signs and ensuring airway
protection, is the first-line treatment for acute alcohol intoxication.
Question 32:

Which of the following is a typical sign of chronic alcohol dependence?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Testicular atrophy
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Increased muscle mass

Answer: B) Testicular atrophy

Explanation: Chronic alcohol dependence can lead to testicular atrophy, along with
other complications such as liver cirrhosis, cardiomyopathy, and malnutrition.

Question 33:

Which of the following is an effective intervention to prevent relapse in alcohol

dependence?

A) Disulfiram
B) Diazepam
C) Naltrexone
D) Methadone

Answer: A) Disulfiram

Explanation: Disulfiram is an effective intervention to prevent relapse in alcohol

dependence by causing unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed.

Question 34:

Which of the following substances has the highest potential for overdose-related
respiratory depression?

A) Cannabis
B) Alcohol
C) Cocaine
D) Heroin

Answer: D) Heroin
Explanation: Heroin has a high potential for overdose-related respiratory depression,
making it one of the most dangerous substances when abused.

Question 35:

Which of the following is a commonly used screening tool for alcohol dependence?

A) GAD-7
B) CAGE questionnaire
C) PHQ-9
D) AUDIT-C

Answer: B) CAGE questionnaire

Explanation: The CAGE questionnaire is a commonly used screening tool to identify

potential alcohol dependence based on four key questions.

Question 36:

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of opioid withdrawal?

A) Bradycardia
B) Piloerection ("goosebumps")
C) Euphoria
D) Hyperactivity

Answer: B) Piloerection ("goosebumps")

Explanation: Piloerection, or "goosebumps," is a hallmark feature of opioid withdrawal,

along with symptoms like dysphoria, craving, and autonomic hyperactivity.

Question 37:

Which of the following drugs is associated with the highest risk of HIV infection among
users?

A) Cocaine
B) Cannabis
C) Heroin
D) Alcohol

Answer: C) Heroin

Explanation: Heroin use, especially when injected, is associated with a high risk of HIV
infection due to needle sharing.

Question 38:

Which of the following is a key component of the treatment for amphetamine

intoxication?

A) Methadone
B) Antipsychotics
C) Antidepressants
D) Opioid antagonists

Answer: B) Antipsychotics

Explanation: Antipsychotics are used in the treatment of amphetamine intoxication,

particularly if the patient exhibits psychosis or severe agitation.

Question 39:

Which neurotransmitter system is most significantly impacted by cocaine use?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Glutamate

Answer: B) Dopamine

Explanation: Cocaine significantly impacts the dopamine system by blocking the

reuptake of dopamine, leading to increased levels in the brain and contributing to its
reinforcing effects.
Question 40:

Which of the following is a key feature of amphetamine withdrawal?

A) Increased energy
B) Euphoria
C) Fatigue
D) Enhanced mood

Answer: C) Fatigue

Explanation: Amphetamine withdrawal is characterized by fatigue, along with

symptoms like increased appetite, vivid dreams, and dysphoria.

Question 41:

Which of the following is a commonly reported psychiatric consequence of chronic khat

use?

A) Anorexia
B) Hyperactivity
C) Psychosis with paranoid features
D) Euphoria

Answer: C) Psychosis with paranoid features

Explanation: Chronic khat use is associated with psychiatric consequences, including

psychosis with paranoid features and anxiety.

Question 42:

Which substance is known for causing "amotivational syndrome" with long-term use?

A) Methamphetamine
B) Alcohol
C) Cannabis
D) Cocaine

Answer: C) Cannabis
Explanation: Long-term cannabis use can lead to "amotivational syndrome,"
characterized by decreased motivation and productivity.

Question 43:

What is a key consideration when managing a patient with suspected alcohol

withdrawal delirium (Delirium Tremens)?

A) Wait and observe without intervention

B) Immediate initiation of high-dose benzodiazepines
C) Avoid use of any medications
D) Encourage fluid intake and discharge home

Answer: B) Immediate initiation of high-dose benzodiazepines

Explanation: Delirium Tremens is a medical emergency requiring immediate initiation

of high-dose benzodiazepines to prevent severe complications and reduce mortality.

Question 44:

Which of the following is a complication of untreated Delirium Tremens?

A) Hepatic failure
B) Hypertension
C) High mortality rate
D) Hyperthermia

Answer: C) High mortality rate

Explanation: Untreated Delirium Tremens has a high mortality rate, making early
recognition and treatment critical.

Question 45:

Which of the following is a primary goal in the long-term treatment of alcohol

dependence?
A) Social isolation
B) Maintenance of controlled drinking
C) Lifelong abstinence
D) Periodic detoxification

Answer: C) Lifelong abstinence

Explanation: The primary goal in the long-term treatment of alcohol dependence is

lifelong abstinence, supported by ongoing therapy and relapse prevention strategies.

Question 46:

Which of the following is a clinical feature of amphetamine intoxication?

A) Slurred speech
B) Hypervigilance
C) Hypotension
D) Bradycardia

Answer: B) Hypervigilance

Explanation: Amphetamine intoxication often presents with hypervigilance, agitation,

rapid speech, and other signs of central nervous system stimulation.

Question 47:

Which of the following substances is associated with a "crash" phase during

withdrawal?

A) Heroin
B) Alcohol
C) Cannabis
D) Cocaine

Answer: D) Cocaine

Explanation: The "crash" phase during cocaine withdrawal involves extreme fatigue,
depression, and a strong craving for the drug.
Question 48:

Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the euphoric effects of

methamphetamine?

A) Serotonin
B) GABA
C) Dopamine
D) Glutamate

Answer: C) Dopamine

Explanation: Methamphetamine primarily affects the dopamine system, leading to

increased dopamine levels and the associated euphoric effects.

Question 49:

What is the recommended first-line treatment for opioid overdose?

A) Methadone
B) Buprenorphine
C) Naltrexone
D) Naloxone

Answer: D) Naloxone

Explanation: Naloxone is the recommended first-line treatment for opioid overdose due
to its ability to rapidly reverse the effects of opioids.

Question 50:

Which of the following is a potential long-term consequence of chronic alcohol

dependence?

A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
C) Increased muscle mass
D) Decreased liver enzymes

Answer: B) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

Explanation: Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome, caused by thiamine deficiency due to
chronic alcohol dependence, can lead to severe neurological damage if untreated.
Slide Twelve: Psychopathology

Question 1:
A patient presents with a flat affect, which of the following best describes this condition?

A) Absence or near absence of any signs of affective expression

B) Severe reduction in the intensity of externalized feeling tone
C) Reduction in intensity of feeling tone less severe than blunted affect
D) Rapid and abrupt changes in emotional feeling tone unrelated to external stimuli

Answer: A) Absence or near absence of any signs of affective expression

Explanation: Flat affect is characterized by a significant lack of emotional expression,
including a monotonous voice and immobile facial expressions, which is more severe
than blunted or restricted affect.

Question 2:
Which of the following is a disturbance of motor behavior where the patient assumes a
rigid posture against all efforts to be moved?

A) Catatonic posturing
B) Catatonic rigidity
C) Catatonic stupor
D) Waxy flexibility

Answer: B) Catatonic rigidity

Explanation: Catatonic rigidity involves the voluntary assumption of a rigid posture that
is maintained against external attempts to change it, distinguishing it from other forms of
motor disturbances like posturing or waxy flexibility.

Question 3:
A patient who persistently repeats a word or phrase after another person says it is
displaying which psychopathological symptom?

A) Perseveration
B) Echolalia
C) Verbigeration
D) Stereotypy
Answer: B) Echolalia
Explanation: Echolalia is the pathological repetition of words or phrases spoken by
another person, and it tends to be repetitive and persistent, often seen in certain
psychiatric conditions.

Question 4:
Which of the following is a false sensory perception not associated with real external
stimuli?

A) Illusion
B) Hallucination
C) Delusion
D) Misinterpretation

Answer: B) Hallucination
Explanation: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur without any real
external stimuli, differentiating them from illusions, which are misinterpretations of actual
external stimuli.

Question 5:
A person who suddenly changes from a euphoric mood to a dysphoric mood within
minutes is experiencing:

A) Labile affect
B) Blunted affect
C) Restricted affect
D) Flat affect

Answer: A) Labile affect

Explanation: Labile affect refers to rapid and abrupt changes in emotional states, such
as sudden shifts between euphoria and dysphoria, which can occur without an apparent
external cause.

Question 6:
A patient believes that people on television are sending messages specifically for them.
This is an example of:
A) Delusion of control
B) Delusion of reference
C) Delusion of grandeur
D) Delusion of persecution

Answer: B) Delusion of reference

Explanation: A delusion of reference involves the belief that external events, objects, or
people are directly related to oneself, often in a personalized or significant way.

Question 7:
A patient who feels that their thoughts are being broadcasted for others to hear is
experiencing:

A) Thought insertion
B) Thought withdrawal
C) Thought broadcasting
D) Thought control

Answer: C) Thought broadcasting

Explanation: Thought broadcasting is the delusional belief that one's thoughts are
being broadcasted aloud and can be heard by others, which is a common symptom in
certain psychotic disorders.

Question 8:
Which of the following describes the condition where a person feels disconnected or
unreal, as if they are observing themselves from outside their body?

A) Derealization
B) Depersonalization
C) Fugue
D) Dissociation

Answer: B) Depersonalization
Explanation: Depersonalization is the experience of feeling detached from oneself, as
though observing oneself from outside one's body, often accompanied by a sense of
unreality.
Question 9:
A person who persistently experiences thoughts of contamination and engages in
repeated handwashing is most likely suffering from:

A) Hypochondria
B) Obsession with compulsion
C) Delusional disorder
D) Panic disorder

Answer: B) Obsession with compulsion

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) often involves persistent, intrusive
thoughts (obsessions) about contamination, leading to compulsive behaviors like
repeated hand washing to reduce anxiety.

Question 10:
Which term refers to a reduced ability to express feelings verbally, often leading to
vague or monosyllabic responses?

A) Poverty of speech
B) Poverty of content of speech
C) Pressure of speech
D) Dysprosody

Answer: A) Poverty of speech

Explanation: Poverty of speech is characterized by limited verbal output, with
responses that are often brief and lacking in detail, which is seen in some psychiatric
disorders.

Question 11:
A patient reports that they have been feeling detached from their surroundings, as if the
world around them is not real. This symptom is known as:

A) Depersonalization
B) Derealization
C) Dissociation
D) Fugue

Answer: B) Derealization
Explanation: Derealization is the feeling that the environment around you is unreal or
strange, often experienced in various psychiatric conditions including dissociative
disorders.
Question 12:
Which term best describes a pathological imitation of the movements of one person by
another?

A) Echopraxia
B) Echolalia
C) Automatism
D) Stereotypy

Answer: A) Echopraxia
Explanation: Echopraxia is the involuntary and pathological imitation of another
person’s movements, often seen in catatonic schizophrenia and other neuropsychiatric
conditions.

Question 13:
A patient exhibits an inability to recognize their own body part as theirs. This condition is
referred to as:

A) Anosognosia
B) Somatopagnosia
C) Prosopagnosia
D) Astereognosis

Answer: B) Somatopagnosia
Explanation: Somatopagnosia is the inability to recognize one’s own body parts, often
associated with damage to specific brain regions responsible for body awareness.

Question 14:
Which type of aphasia involves a loss of the ability to comprehend the meaning of
words while speech remains fluent but incoherent?

A) Motor aphasia
B) Sensory aphasia
C) Global aphasia
D) Syntactical aphasia
Answer: B) Sensory aphasia
Explanation: Sensory aphasia, also known as Wernicke's aphasia, involves fluent
speech that lacks meaningful content and comprehension, resulting in incoherent
language.

Question 15:
A patient presents with a consistent belief that their partner is unfaithful, despite
evidence to the contrary. This is an example of:

A) Delusion of control
B) Delusion of persecution
C) Delusion of infidelity
D) Erotomania

Answer: C) Delusion of infidelity

Explanation: Delusion of infidelity, also known as pathological jealousy, is a false belief
that one's partner is being unfaithful, often occurring in paranoid and other psychotic
disorders.

Question 16:
Which of the following is an example of a mood-congruent hallucination?

A) A depressed patient hears voices telling them they are worthless

B) A manic patient hears voices criticizing their decisions
C) A manic patient sees spiders crawling on the walls
D) A depressed patient believes their thoughts are being broadcast

Answer: A) A depressed patient hears voices telling them they are worthless
Explanation: Mood-congruent hallucinations are those where the content of the
hallucination aligns with the individual's mood, such as a depressed person hearing
negative voices.

Question 17:
Which term describes a condition in which a patient exhibits a rapid, continuous flow of
speech with abrupt changes from one topic to another?
A) Flight of ideas
B) Clang association
C) Circumstantiality
D) Tangentiality

Answer: A) Flight of ideas

Explanation: Flight of ideas is characterized by a rapid shift in conversation from one
topic to another, often seen in manic episodes where ideas are loosely connected or
related.

Question 18:
A patient who experiences vivid, false perceptions while falling asleep is experiencing
which of the following?

A) Hypnagogic hallucination
B) Hypnopompic hallucination
C) Auditory hallucination
D) Visual hallucination

Answer: A) Hypnagogic hallucination

Explanation: Hypnagogic hallucinations occur as one is falling asleep and are typically
considered nonpathological, though they can be distressing.

Question 19:
Which of the following terms refers to the inability to carry out specific tasks due to a
neurological disorder, despite intact motor function?

A) Agnosia
B) Apraxia
C) Dyscalculia
D) Dysgraphia

Answer: B) Apraxia
Explanation: Apraxia is a condition in which a person cannot perform tasks or
movements when asked, even though the request is understood, and they are
physically capable of performing the tasks.
Question 20:
A patient has a persistent fear that their hands are contaminated with bacteria, leading
them to wash their hands repeatedly. This is an example of:

A) Phobia
B) Obsession
C) Compulsion
D) Hypochondria

Answer: C) Compulsion
Explanation: Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed in
response to an obsession, like handwashing in response to a fear of contamination,
commonly seen in OCD.

Question 21:
A patient repeatedly performs actions in a specific sequence every time they get
dressed. This behavior is known as:

A) Counting ritual
B) Checking ritual
C) Dressing ritual
D) Cleaning ritual

Answer: C) Dressing ritual

Explanation: Dressing rituals involve specific sequences or routines that a person must
follow when getting dressed, often seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 22:
A patient who is constantly on high alert, excessively focusing on all internal and
external stimuli, is experiencing:

A) Hypervigilance
B) Distractibility
C) Selective inattention
D) Trance

Answer: A) Hypervigilance
Explanation: Hypervigilance is characterized by an excessive focus on all stimuli, often
associated with paranoid or delusional states, leading to heightened awareness and
alertness.
Question 23:
Which term describes a disturbance in which a person falsely believes they have a
serious physical illness despite medical reassurance?

A) Hypochondria
B) Somatic delusion
C) Obsession
D) Delusion of reference

Answer: A) Hypochondria
Explanation: Hypochondria is an exaggerated concern about one’s health, often
without a real underlying medical condition, and persists despite medical reassurance.

Question 24:
A patient who suddenly takes on a new identity and travels to a different location without
recalling their previous life is experiencing:

A) Dissociative identity disorder

B) Fugue
C) Depersonalization
D) Derealization

Answer: B) Fugue
Explanation: Fugue is a dissociative state where a person takes on a new identity,
often involving travel, with an inability to recall personal history, typically triggered by
stress or trauma.

Question 25:
Which of the following is characterized by a severe reduction in the intensity of
emotional expression, but not a complete absence?

A) Flat affect
B) Blunted affect
C) Restricted affect
D) Labile affect
Answer: B) Blunted affect
Explanation: Blunted affect refers to a noticeable decrease in the intensity of emotional
expression, less severe than flat affect but more pronounced than restricted affect.

Question 26:
A patient complains of hearing voices telling them to harm themselves. This type of
hallucination is classified as:

A) Auditory hallucination
B) Visual hallucination
C) Tactile hallucination
D) Gustatory hallucination

Answer: A) Auditory hallucination

Explanation: Auditory hallucinations involve hearing sounds or voices that are not
present, commonly experienced in psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia.

Question 27:
Which term best describes a mental state where a person cannot distinguish reality
from fantasy?

A) Neurosis
B) Psychosis
C) Delusion
D) Derealization

Answer: B) Psychosis
Explanation: Psychosis is a mental state characterized by a disconnection from reality,
including symptoms like delusions and hallucinations, often seen in severe psychiatric
disorders.

Question 28:
A patient with a mood disorder exhibits a pattern where their mood is consistently worst
in the morning and improves as the day progresses. This pattern is known as:

A) Diurnal variation
B) Mood swings
C) Labile mood
D) Cyclothymia

Answer: A) Diurnal variation

Explanation: Diurnal variation is a symptom of mood disorders where the mood is
typically worse in the morning and improves throughout the day, often seen in
depression.

Question 29:
A patient believes that their thoughts are being inserted into their mind by an external
force. This symptom is called:

A) Thought insertion
B) Thought broadcasting
C) Thought withdrawal
D) Thought control

Answer: A) Thought insertion

Explanation: Thought insertion is a delusional belief that thoughts are being placed into
one’s mind by an external entity, commonly associated with schizophrenia.

Question 30:
Which of the following describes a repetitive, fixed pattern of physical actions or speech,
often without purpose?

A) Mannerism
B) Stereotypy
C) Automatism
D) Echolalia

Answer: B) Stereotypy
Explanation: Stereotypy involves repetitive, purposeless movements or speech
patterns that are fixed and often seen in developmental disorders like autism.

Question 31:
A patient presents with sudden, severe muscle weakness triggered by strong emotions.
This is likely due to:
A) Cataplexy
B) Akathisia
C) Catatonic stupor
D) Catatonia

Answer: A) Cataplexy
Explanation: Cataplexy is a sudden loss of muscle tone and strength triggered by
strong emotions, often associated with narcolepsy.

Question 32:
A person with persistent doubts about their religious beliefs or rituals may be
experiencing:

A) Delusion of grandeur
B) Religious obsession
C) Erotomania
D) Religious compulsion

Answer: B) Religious obsession

Explanation: Religious obsession involves persistent, intrusive thoughts about religious
beliefs or practices, which can cause significant distress and anxiety.

Question 33:
A patient who believes that their brain is rotting is experiencing which type of delusion?

A) Nihilistic delusion
B) Somatic delusion
C) Delusion of reference
D) Delusion of control

Answer: B) Somatic delusion

Explanation: Somatic delusions involve false beliefs about the functioning or condition
of one’s body, such as believing that one's brain is decaying or rotting.

Question 34:
Which of the following is a rapid, continuous flow of speech that is difficult to interrupt,
often seen in manic episodes?
A) Poverty of speech
B) Pressure of speech
C) Dysprosody
D) Nonspontaneous speech

Answer: B) Pressure of speech

Explanation: Pressure of speech is characterized by rapid and relentless talking that is
difficult to interrupt, often seen in manic episodes.

Question 35:
Which term best describes the creation of new words by a patient, often seen in
schizophrenia?

A) Neologism
B) Word salad
C) Tangentiality
D) Circumstantiality

Answer: A) Neologism
Explanation: Neologisms are new words or phrases created by a person, often seen in
schizophrenia, where the words may be meaningless to others.

Question 36:
A patient who is unable to recognize the faces of familiar people is likely suffering from:

A) Agnosia
B) Astereognosis
C) Prosopagnosia
D) Anosognosia

Answer: C) Prosopagnosia
Explanation: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces, often resulting
from damage to the fusiform gyrus in the brain.

Question 37:
Which term describes a state of profound unconsciousness with a lack of reaction to
stimuli?
A) Stupor
B) Delirium
C) Coma
D) Twilight state

Answer: C) Coma
Explanation: Coma is a state of deep unconsciousness where a person is
unresponsive to stimuli and cannot be awakened.

Question 38:
A patient who has difficulty arranging words in the correct sequence due to a cognitive
disorder may be experiencing:

A) Syntactical aphasia
B) Dysprosody
C) Dysarthria
D) Global aphasia

Answer: A) Syntactical aphasia

Explanation: Syntactical aphasia involves the inability to arrange words in proper
sequence, resulting in disorganized speech that is difficult to understand.

Question 39:
Which of the following best describes a state where a person feels as if their
environment is changing or surreal?

A) Depersonalization
B) Derealization
C) Dissociation
D) Hypnagogic hallucination

Answer: B) Derealization
Explanation: Derealization is the feeling that one’s surroundings are strange, unreal, or
constantly changing, often seen in dissociative disorders.

Question 40:
A patient who repetitively checks that a door is locked may be displaying a:
A) Counting ritual
B) Checking ritual
C) Dressing ritual
D) Cleaning ritual

Answer: B) Checking ritual

Explanation: Checking rituals are repetitive actions performed to ensure safety or
prevent harm, such as repeatedly checking that a door is locked, often seen in
obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 41:
Which of the following is a motor disturbance characterized by maintaining an immobile
position for extended periods?

A) Catatonia
B) Cataplexy
C) Catalepsy
D) Akathisia

Answer: C) Catalepsy
Explanation: Catalepsy involves the maintenance of an immobile posture for long
periods, often seen in catatonic schizophrenia and other severe psychiatric conditions.

Question 42:
A patient who speaks rapidly, using excessive volume and a lack of modulation, may be
experiencing:

A) Pressure of speech
B) Dysprosody
C) Poverty of content of speech
D) Nonspontaneous speech

Answer: B) Dysprosody
Explanation: Dysprosody is the loss of normal speech melody and modulation, which
can result in speech that is excessively loud or lacks emotional tone.
Question 43:
A patient reports seeing small people running around the room. This type of visual
hallucination is known as:

A) Lilliputian hallucination
B) Gustatory hallucination
C) Hypnopompic hallucination
D) Micropsia

Answer: A) Lilliputian hallucination

Explanation: Lilliputian hallucinations involve seeing small or miniature people or
objects, which are often associated with certain psychiatric and neurological disorders.

Question 44:
A person who believes that their thoughts are being controlled by external forces is
experiencing which type of delusion?

A) Delusion of control
B) Thought broadcasting
C) Thought insertion
D) Thought withdrawal

Answer: A) Delusion of control

Explanation: Delusion of control involves the false belief that one’s thoughts, feelings,
or actions are being controlled by external forces, often seen in schizophrenia.

Question 45:
A patient who speaks in a roundabout way, eventually reaching the point, is
demonstrating which of the following?

A) Tangentiality
B) Circumstantiality
C) Clang association
D) Perseveration

Answer: B) Circumstantiality
Explanation: Circumstantiality is a pattern of speech where the person goes off on
tangents but eventually returns to the original point, often seen in certain psychiatric
conditions.
Question 46:
Which term best describes a pathological state where the patient experiences a
repetitive need to perform certain acts, such as handwashing?

A) Compulsion
B) Obsession
C) Ritual
D) Phobia

Answer: A) Compulsion
Explanation: Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels
driven to perform, often to reduce anxiety, as seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 47:
Which of the following describes a sudden deviation in the train of thought without
blocking, often leading to unrelated topics?

A) Loosening of association
B) Perseveration
C) Derailment
D) Blocking

Answer: C) Derailment
Explanation: Derailment is a thought disorder where the individual’s thoughts suddenly
shift to unrelated topics, leading to incoherent speech.

Question 48:
A patient who repeatedly echoes the words of others is exhibiting:

A) Echolalia
B) Echopraxia
C) Perseveration
D) Stereotypy

Answer: A) Echolalia
Explanation: Echolalia is the pathological repetition of words or phrases spoken by
others, often seen in autism, schizophrenia, and other neurological disorders.
Question 49:
Which of the following describes a delusional belief that the self, others, or the world is
nonexistent or coming to an end?

A) Nihilistic delusion
B) Somatic delusion
C) Delusion of reference
D) Delusion of control

Answer: A) Nihilistic delusion

Explanation: Nihilistic delusions involve the belief that oneself, others, or the world
does not exist or is coming to an end, commonly seen in severe depression and
psychosis.

Question 50:
A patient who demonstrates repetitive meaningless repetition of specific words or
phrases is displaying:

A) Verbigeration
B) Echolalia
C) Perseveration
D) Stereotypy

Answer: A) Verbigeration
Explanation: Verbigeration is the repetitive, meaningless repetition of words or
phrases, often seen in conditions such as schizophrenia or severe dementia.
Slide Thirteen: Personality Disorders

Question 1:
Which of the following clusters of personality disorders is characterized by odd,
eccentric, and aloof behaviors?

A) Cluster A
B) Cluster B
C) Cluster C
D) Cluster D

Answer: A) Cluster A
Explanation: Cluster A personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, and
schizotypal personality disorders, which are characterized by odd, eccentric, and aloof
behaviors.

Question 2:
What is the main feature of schizoid personality disorder?

A) A pattern of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy

B) Lifelong pattern of social withdrawal
C) Pervasive pattern of grandiosity and need for admiration
D) Unstable interpersonal relationships and self-image

Answer: B) Lifelong pattern of social withdrawal

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a lifelong pattern of
social withdrawal, where individuals are often seen as isolated, eccentric, or lonely.

Question 3:
A person who consistently uses physical appearance to draw attention to themselves
may be diagnosed with:

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder
Answer: C) Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive emotionality
and attention-seeking behaviors, including using physical appearance to gain attention.

Question 4:
Which defense mechanism is primarily associated with borderline personality disorder?

A) Dissociation
B) Splitting
C) Projection
D) Acting out

Answer: B) Splitting
Explanation: Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in borderline
personality disorder, where individuals view others as all good or all bad, with no middle
ground.

Question 5:
A patient with a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of
empathy is likely suffering from:

A) Schizotypal personality disorder

B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Avoidant personality disorder

Answer: C) Narcissistic personality disorder

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity, a need
for admiration, and a lack of empathy for others.

Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of obsessive-compulsive
personality disorder?

A) Emotional constriction
B) Orderliness and perfectionism
C) Spontaneity and flexibility
D) Rigidity and stubbornness

Answer: C) Spontaneity and flexibility

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by rigidity,
stubbornness, emotional constriction, and a pervasive pattern of orderliness and
perfectionism, which are at the expense of flexibility and spontaneity.

Question 7:
Which personality disorder is associated with a high degree of social inhibition and
hypersensitivity to negative evaluation?

A) Dependent personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer: C) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is marked by social inhibition, feelings of
inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

Question 8:
A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects,
along with marked impulsivity, is characteristic of which disorder?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer: A) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in
interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, along with marked impulsivity.

Question 9:
Which of the following personality disorders is most commonly associated with magical
thinking and odd or eccentric behaviors?
A) Schizoid personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Schizotypal personality disorder
D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Answer: C) Schizotypal personality disorder

Explanation: Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd or eccentric
behaviors, including magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and ideas of
reference.

Question 10:
A patient who refuses to take responsibility for their own feelings and instead blames
others for their problems may be displaying symptoms of:

A) Paranoid personality disorder

B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer: A) Paranoid personality disorder

Explanation: Individuals with paranoid personality disorder often refuse to take
responsibility for their feelings and assign blame to others, exhibiting long-standing
suspiciousness and mistrust.

Question 11:
Which of the following is a common feature in patients with antisocial personality
disorder?

A) A strong desire for social relationships and friendships

B) A disregard for the rights of others
C) A preoccupation with order and rules
D) A need for excessive admiration

Answer: B) A disregard for the rights of others

Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often manifesting in criminal behavior.
Question 12:
A patient who is extremely sensitive to rejection and avoids social interaction despite
desiring companionship is likely suffering from:

A) Avoidant personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer: A) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by extreme sensitivity to
rejection and social inhibition, despite a strong desire for relationships and
companionship.

Question 13:
Which personality disorder is most likely associated with chronic feelings of emptiness
and difficulty controlling anger?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: A) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Chronic feelings of emptiness and difficulty controlling anger are hallmark
features of borderline personality disorder.

Question 14:
In which personality disorder do individuals typically display a preoccupation with rules,
details, and perfectionism to the detriment of task completion?

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder

Answer: C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a
preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control, which often interferes with task
completion.

Question 15:
Which personality disorder is often associated with excessive neediness,
submissiveness, and fear of being left alone?

A) Avoidant personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Schizotypal personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: B) Dependent personality disorder

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is marked by an excessive need to be
taken care of, submissive behavior, and an intense fear of being alone or abandoned.

Question 16:
A pervasive pattern of disregard for the rights of others, including deceitfulness and
impulsivity, is most characteristic of which personality disorder?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer: C) Antisocial personality disorder

Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of disregard
for the rights of others, which includes deceitfulness, impulsivity, and a lack of remorse.

Question 17:
A patient with schizotypal personality disorder is most likely to exhibit which of the
following symptoms?

A) Grandiosity and need for admiration

B) Odd beliefs or magical thinking
C) Hypervigilance and suspicion
D) Emotional coldness and detachment
Answer: B) Odd beliefs or magical thinking
Explanation: Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd beliefs or
magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and eccentric behavior.

Question 18:
Which of the following is a key feature of narcissistic personality disorder?

A) Chronic feelings of emptiness

B) Excessive emotionality and attention seeking
C) A grandiose sense of self-importance
D) Social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy

Answer: C) A grandiose sense of self-importance

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by a grandiose sense of
self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy for others.

Question 19:
A person with dependent personality disorder is likely to:

A) Be uncomfortable in situations where they are not the center of attention

B) Show a pervasive pattern of instability in relationships
C) Have difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance
D) Exhibit a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings

Answer: C) Have difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is characterized by an excessive need to
be taken care of, leading to submissive behavior and difficulty making decisions without
reassurance from others.

Question 20:
Which personality disorder is associated with a pattern of excessive emotionality,
attention-seeking behavior, and rapidly shifting emotions?

A) Histrionic personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Answer: A) Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is marked by excessive emotionality,
attention-seeking behavior, and rapidly shifting emotions.

Question 21:
Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive distrust and suspicion of
others, often interpreting their motives as malevolent?

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer: B) Paranoid personality disorder

Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by pervasive distrust and
suspicion of others, leading individuals to interpret the actions of others as malevolent.

Question 22:
A patient who avoids interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism and rejection likely
has:

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: C) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings
of inadequacy, and a hypersensitivity to criticism and rejection.

Question 23:
Which personality disorder is characterized by intense, unstable relationships and a fear
of abandonment?

A) Schizotypal personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: B) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is marked by intense and unstable
interpersonal relationships, a pervasive fear of abandonment, and significant mood
swings.

Question 24:
Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are most likely to:

A) Engage in frequent physical fights

B) Exhibit extreme perfectionism and inflexibility
C) Have a pattern of unstable and intense relationships
D) Show a lack of empathy

Answer: B) Exhibit extreme perfectionism and inflexibility

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by extreme
perfectionism, inflexibility, and a preoccupation with orderliness and control.

Question 25:
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of borderline personality disorder?

A) Chronic feelings of emptiness

B) Fear of abandonment
C) Unstable interpersonal relationships
D) Lack of remorse for wrongdoing

Answer: D) Lack of remorse for wrongdoing

Explanation: Lack of remorse for wrongdoing is more characteristic of antisocial
personality disorder, not borderline personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder
involves chronic feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, and unstable
relationships.

Question 26:
A patient who has recurrent suspicions without justification regarding the fidelity of their
spouse may be diagnosed with:
A) Schizotypal personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Avoidant personality disorder

Answer: B) Paranoid personality disorder

Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder includes symptoms such as recurrent,
unjustified suspicions regarding the fidelity of a spouse or partner.

Question 27:
Which personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships
and a restricted range of emotional expression?

A) Avoidant personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: C) Schizoid personality disorder

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is marked by a pervasive pattern of
detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

Question 28:
A person with histrionic personality disorder is likely to:

A) Engage in grandiose fantasies of power and success

B) Exhibit dramatic, attention-seeking behaviors
C) Show a persistent disregard for the rights of others
D) Have a pattern of social withdrawal and avoidance

Answer: B) Exhibit dramatic, attention-seeking behaviors

Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic,
attention-seeking behaviors and a desire to be the center of attention.

Question 29:
Which personality disorder is associated with a pervasive need for admiration and a
lack of empathy?
A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: B) Narcissistic personality disorder

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by a need for admiration,
a grandiose sense of self-importance, and a lack of empathy.

Question 30:
A patient who exhibits impulsivity, frequent displays of anger, and unstable interpersonal
relationships may be suffering from:

A) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: C) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by impulsivity, unstable
interpersonal relationships, and frequent displays of intense anger.

Question 31:
Which of the following personality disorders is most likely to be comorbid with alcohol
use disorder?

A) Avoidant personality disorder

B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: B) Antisocial personality disorder

Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder is frequently comorbid with substance use
disorders, including alcohol use disorder.
Question 32:
A patient who is consistently preoccupied with rules, schedules, and details to the point
where the main objective of an activity is lost may be diagnosed with:

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer: B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a
preoccupation with rules, details, and schedules, often to the detriment of task
completion.

Question 33:
Which personality disorder is most likely associated with feelings of inadequacy and
hypersensitivity to criticism?

A) Histrionic personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: C) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is marked by feelings of inadequacy,
hypersensitivity to criticism, and social inhibition.

Question 34:
A person who believes that others are exploiting or deceiving them, even without
sufficient evidence, may be suffering from:

A) Paranoid personality disorder

B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: A) Paranoid personality disorder

Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by pervasive distrust and
suspicion of others, often without sufficient evidence to justify these beliefs.
Question 35:
A patient with dependent personality disorder is most likely to:

A) Refuse to delegate tasks to others

B) Have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance
C) Exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance
D) Display inappropriate, intense anger

Answer: B) Have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive need for
reassurance and support, leading to difficulty making decisions independently.

Question 36:
Which personality disorder is associated with a pervasive pattern of excessive
emotionality and attention seeking?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: C) Histrionic personality disorder

Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive emotionality
and attention-seeking behavior.

Question 37:
A patient who persistently holds grudges and perceives attacks on their character that
others do not see may have:

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Avoidant personality disorder

Answer: B) Paranoid personality disorder

Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder includes symptoms such as holding
grudges and perceiving attacks on one's character that are not apparent to others.
Question 38:
Which personality disorder is characterized by emotional constriction, orderliness, and a
pervasive pattern of perfectionism?

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by emotional
constriction, orderliness, and a pervasive pattern of perfectionism and inflexibility.

Question 39:
A patient who alternates between extreme idealization and devaluation in their
relationships may be diagnosed with:

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Schizotypal personality disorder

Answer: A) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is marked by a pattern of unstable
relationships, characterized by alternating extremes of idealization and devaluation.

Question 40:
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with antisocial personality disorder?

A) Impulsivity and irresponsibility

B) Deceitfulness and manipulation
C) Avoidance of social relationships
D) Lack of remorse

Answer: C) Avoidance of social relationships

Explanation: Avoidance of social relationships is more characteristic of schizoid or
avoidant personality disorders, whereas antisocial personality disorder involves
impulsivity, deceitfulness, and a lack of remorse.

Question 41:
A patient who is excessively devoted to work and productivity to the exclusion of leisure
activities and friendships may have:

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer: C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by excessive
devotion to work and productivity, often at the expense of leisure activities and
relationships.

Question 42:
Which personality disorder is most likely to be associated with difficulty controlling anger
and frequent displays of temper?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: A) Borderline personality disorder

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder often involves difficulty controlling anger,
leading to frequent temper outbursts and interpersonal conflict.

Question 43:
A patient with avoidant personality disorder is likely to:

A) Exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance

B) Seek out social situations to be the center of attention
C) Avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of rejection
D) Show a disregard for the rights of others
Answer: C) Avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of rejection
Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of rejection and
criticism, leading to social inhibition and avoidance of interpersonal contact.

Question 44:
A person who shows a lack of interest in sexual experiences with others and prefers
solitary activities may have:

A) Histrionic personality disorder

B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer: B) Schizoid personality disorder

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in
social relationships, including sexual experiences, and a preference for solitary
activities.

Question 45:
Which personality disorder is most commonly associated with a pervasive pattern of
detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder

Answer: C) Schizoid personality disorder

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is marked by a pervasive pattern of
detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

Question 46:
A patient with borderline personality disorder is most likely to experience:

A) Grandiose fantasies and lack of empathy

B) Persistent feelings of boredom
C) Chronic feelings of emptiness
D) Pervasive need for admiration

Answer: C) Chronic feelings of emptiness

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is often associated with chronic feelings of
emptiness, emotional instability, and impulsive behaviors.

Question 47:
Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive need to be taken care of,
leading to submissive and clinging behavior?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer: B) Dependent personality disorder

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is marked by a pervasive need to be
taken care of, leading to submissive and clinging behavior, and fears of separation.

Question 48:
A person with histrionic personality disorder is most likely to:

A) Experience chronic feelings of emptiness

B) Display inappropriate, sexually seductive behavior
C) Show a pervasive pattern of social inhibition
D) Exhibit excessive devotion to work and productivity

Answer: B) Display inappropriate, sexually seductive behavior

Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive emotionality
and attention-seeking behaviors, including inappropriate, sexually seductive or
provocative behavior.

Question 49:
Which of the following is a common feature of narcissistic personality disorder?
A) Fear of abandonment
B) Chronic feelings of emptiness
C) Grandiosity and need for admiration
D) Social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy

Answer: C) Grandiosity and need for admiration

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is marked by grandiosity, a need for
admiration, and a lack of empathy.

Question 50:
A patient who lacks close friends, prefers solitary activities, and appears indifferent to
praise or criticism is likely to have:

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Paranoid personality disorder

Answer: A) Schizoid personality disorder

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a lack of interest in
social relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and indifference to praise or
criticism.

Question 51:
Which personality disorder is most likely to involve excessive neediness, difficulty
making decisions without reassurance, and intense discomfort when alone?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Dependent personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer: B) Dependent personality disorder

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is marked by an excessive need for
reassurance, difficulty making decisions independently, and intense discomfort when
alone.
Question 52:
A person who consistently exaggerates their achievements and expects to be
recognized as superior without commensurate achievements may have:

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Answer: C) Narcissistic personality disorder

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by a grandiose sense of
self-importance, including exaggerated claims of achievements and expectations of
being recognized as superior.

Question 53:
Which personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy,
and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation?

A) Schizotypal personality disorder

B) Avoidant personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: B) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder involves social inhibition, feelings of
inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism or rejection.

Question 54:
A patient with antisocial personality disorder is most likely to:

A) Exhibit a pervasive pattern of instability in relationships

B) Show a lack of remorse after harming others
C) Engage in attention-seeking behavior
D) Have difficulty making decisions without reassurance

Answer: B) Show a lack of remorse after harming others

Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for the
rights of others and a lack of remorse after causing harm.
Question 55:
A person who displays excessive attention-seeking behavior, rapidly shifting emotions,
and considers relationships to be more intimate than they are may have:

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: C) Histrionic personality disorder

Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive
attention-seeking behavior, rapidly shifting emotions, and a tendency to view
relationships as more intimate than they are.

Question 56:
Which personality disorder is most likely associated with a pervasive pattern of
detachment from social relationships and emotional coldness?

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer: A) Schizoid personality disorder

Explanation: Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
detachment from social relationships, emotional coldness, and a restricted range of
emotional expression.

Question 57:
A patient who is unwilling to get involved with people unless certain of being liked, and
who views themselves as socially inept, is likely suffering from:

A) Schizoid personality disorder

B) Avoidant personality disorder
C) Dependent personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder
Answer: B) Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings
of inadequacy, and reluctance to engage in social interactions unless certain of being
accepted.

Question 58:
Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for the
rights of others, including deceitfulness and manipulation?

A) Borderline personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: C) Antisocial personality disorder

Explanation: Antisocial personality disorder involves a pervasive disregard for the
rights of others, including deceitfulness, manipulation, and lack of remorse.

Question 59:
A person who feels uncomfortable when they are not the center of attention and
engages in inappropriate, sexually seductive behavior may be diagnosed with:

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Borderline personality disorder
C) Histrionic personality disorder
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer: C) Histrionic personality disorder

Explanation: Histrionic personality disorder is marked by excessive attention-seeking
behavior, including discomfort when not the center of attention and inappropriate,
sexually provocative behavior.

Question 60:
A patient who exhibits grandiose fantasies, a need for excessive admiration, and a lack
of empathy is most likely to have:
A) Narcissistic personality disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C) Schizotypal personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder

Answer: A) Narcissistic personality disorder

Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiose fantasies,
a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy for others.

Question 61:
Which personality disorder is characterized by persistent feelings of inadequacy and
hypersensitivity to criticism or rejection?

A) Narcissistic personality disorder

B) Avoidant personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder

Answer: B) Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation: Avoidant personality disorder involves a pervasive pattern of social
inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism or rejection.

Question 62:
A person with dependent personality disorder is likely to:

A) Refuse to delegate tasks

B) Be uncomfortable when not the center of attention
C) Fear abandonment and seek constant reassurance
D) Display a pervasive disregard for others' rights

Answer: C) Fear abandonment and seek constant reassurance

Explanation: Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive fear of
abandonment and a need for constant reassurance and support.

Question 63:
Which personality disorder is most commonly associated with magical thinking, odd
beliefs, and eccentric behavior?
A) Schizoid personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Schizotypal personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder

Answer: C) Schizotypal personality disorder

Explanation: Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by magical thinking, odd
beliefs, and eccentric behavior.

Question 64:
A patient with borderline personality disorder is most likely to experience:

A) Emotional coldness and detachment

B) A pervasive need for admiration
C) Chronic feelings of emptiness and impulsive behavior
D) Grandiose fantasies and lack of empathy

Answer: C) Chronic feelings of emptiness and impulsive behavior

Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is marked by chronic feelings of
emptiness, emotional instability, and impulsive behaviors.

Question 65:
A person who has difficulty discarding worthless objects, even when they have no
sentimental value, and is excessively devoted to work may be diagnosed with:

A) Schizotypal personality disorder

B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer: C) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

Explanation: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by
perfectionism, excessive devotion to work, and difficulty discarding worthless objects,
even when they have no sentimental value.
Slide Fourteen: Signs and Symptoms in Psychiatry

Question 1:
What is the term for an absence or near absence of any signs of affective expression,
often characterized by a monotonous voice and immobile face?

A) Labile affect
B) Flat affect
C) Blunted affect
D) Restricted affect

Answer: B) Flat affect

Explanation: Flat affect is characterized by a severe reduction or complete absence of
emotional expression, often seen as a monotonous voice and an immobile facial
expression.

Question 2:
Which of the following best describes "mood"?

A) A complex feeling state with psychic, somatic, and behavioral components

B) An observed expression of emotion
C) A pervasive and sustained emotion subjectively experienced and reported by the
patient
D) A reduction in the intensity of externalized feeling tone

Answer: C) A pervasive and sustained emotion subjectively experienced and reported

by the patient
Explanation: Mood is defined as a pervasive and sustained emotion that is subjectively
experienced by the patient and can be observed by others.

Question 3:
Which term refers to a psychopathological feeling of sadness that is more intense than
usual?

A) Dysphoria
B) Euphoria
C) Depression
D) Anhedonia
Answer: C) Depression
Explanation: Depression is a psychopathological feeling of intense sadness that
significantly affects a person’s mood and behavior.

Question 4:
A patient who presents with rapid and abrupt changes in emotional feeling tone
unrelated to external stimuli is likely experiencing:

A) Labile affect
B) Flat affect
C) Blunted affect
D) Restricted affect

Answer: A) Labile affect

Explanation: Labile affect involves rapid and abrupt changes in emotional states, often
unrelated to external stimuli, leading to unpredictable emotional responses.

Question 5:
What is the term for a false sensory perception not associated with any real external
stimuli?

A) Illusion
B) Hallucination
C) Delusion
D) Dysprosody

Answer: B) Hallucination
Explanation: A hallucination is a false sensory perception that occurs in the absence of
any real external stimuli, often experienced as hearing, seeing, or feeling things that
aren't there.

Question 6:
Which of the following is characterized by a severe reduction in the intensity of
externalized emotional expression?

A) Flat affect
B) Blunted affect
C) Labile affect
D) Restricted affect

Answer: B) Blunted affect

Explanation: Blunted affect is a disturbance where there is a severe reduction in the
intensity of emotional expression, though not as complete as flat affect.

Question 7:
Which term best describes an excessive and compulsive need for coitus in a woman?

A) Kleptomania
B) Satyriasis
C) Trichotillomania
D) Nymphomania

Answer: D) Nymphomania
Explanation: Nymphomania refers to an excessive and compulsive need for sexual
activity in women, often regarded as a pathological condition.

Question 8:
What is the term for a loss of interest in and withdrawal from all regular and pleasurable
activities, often associated with depression?

A) Anhedonia
B) Apathy
C) Agitation
D) Ambivalence

Answer: A) Anhedonia
Explanation: Anhedonia is the loss of interest or pleasure in almost all activities that
were once enjoyable, a common symptom of major depressive disorder.

Question 9:
A patient who exhibits a voluntary assumption of a bizarre posture, generally maintained
for long periods of time, is likely experiencing:
A) Catatonic posturing
B) Catatonic rigidity
C) Catatonic stupor
D) Catatonic excitement

Answer: A) Catatonic posturing

Explanation: Catatonic posturing involves the voluntary assumption of an inappropriate
or bizarre posture that is generally maintained for extended periods.

Question 10:
Which of the following describes a temporary loss of muscle tone and weakness
precipitated by a variety of emotional states?

A) Cataplexy
B) Catalepsy
C) Automatism
D) Echopraxia

Answer: A) Cataplexy
Explanation: Cataplexy is characterized by a sudden, temporary loss of muscle tone
and strength, often triggered by strong emotions like laughter or anger.

Question 11:
A person who persistently and involuntarily imitates the movements of another person is
displaying which psychopathological symptom?

A) Echopraxia
B) Echolalia
C) Perseveration
D) Stereotypy

Answer: A) Echopraxia
Explanation: Echopraxia is the pathological imitation of the movements of another
person, which can be seen in certain neurological and psychiatric disorders.
Question 12:
Which term best describes a pathological exaggeration of concern about one’s health
based on unrealistic interpretations of physical signs?

A) Hypochondria
B) Egomania
C) Monomania
D) Pseudologia phantastica

Answer: A) Hypochondria
Explanation: Hypochondria involves an exaggerated concern about one’s health,
where minor physical symptoms are interpreted as severe illnesses.

Question 13:
A patient who experiences a pathological persistence of an irresistible thought or feeling
that causes significant anxiety is likely suffering from:

A) Delusion
B) Obsession
C) Phobia
D) Compulsion

Answer: B) Obsession
Explanation: Obsession refers to the persistent and intrusive thoughts or feelings that
cause significant distress and anxiety, often associated with obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD).

Question 14:
Which term refers to a compulsive need to pull out one’s own hair, often resulting in
noticeable hair loss?

A) Trichotillomania
B) Kleptomania
C) Nymphomania
D) Satyriasis

Answer: A) Trichotillomania
Explanation: Trichotillomania is characterized by the compulsive urge to pull out one's
own hair, leading to noticeable hair loss and psychological distress.
Question 15:
What is the term for a delusional belief that one’s thoughts are being controlled by
external forces?

A) Thought insertion
B) Thought withdrawal
C) Thought broadcasting
D) Thought control

Answer: D) Thought control

Explanation: Thought control is a delusional belief in which a person feels that their
thoughts, feelings, or actions are being controlled by external forces, often seen in
psychotic disorders like schizophrenia.

Question 16:
A patient who persistently repeats the words or phrases spoken by another person is
displaying which psychopathological symptom?

A) Echolalia
B) Echopraxia
C) Perseveration
D) Verbigeration

Answer: A) Echolalia
Explanation: Echolalia is the pathological repetition of words or phrases spoken by
another person, often seen in autism and schizophrenia.

Question 17:
Which of the following best describes "agitation"?

A) Severe anxiety associated with motor restlessness

B) Increased motor and psychological activity that is unpleasant
C) Acute episodic intense attack of anxiety
D) Diminished emotional tone associated with detachment

Answer: A) Severe anxiety associated with motor restlessness

Explanation: Agitation is characterized by severe anxiety accompanied by motor
restlessness, where the person appears restless and unable to stay still.
Question 18:
Which of the following is a false sensory perception involving the sensation of touch?

A) Auditory hallucination
B) Visual hallucination
C) Tactile hallucination
D) Gustatory hallucination

Answer: C) Tactile hallucination

Explanation: Tactile hallucinations involve the false sensation of touch or surface
sensations, such as feeling something crawling on the skin.

Question 19:
A patient who feels that their thoughts are being removed from their mind by an external
force is experiencing:

A) Thought broadcasting
B) Thought insertion
C) Thought withdrawal
D) Thought control

Answer: C) Thought withdrawal

Explanation: Thought withdrawal is a delusional belief that one’s thoughts are being
removed or stolen from the mind by an external force.

Question 20:
Which term describes the false perception of objects appearing smaller than they
actually are?

A) Macropsia
B) Micropsia
C) Lilliputian hallucination
D) Visual agnosia

Answer: B) Micropsia
Explanation: Micropsia is a perceptual distortion where objects appear smaller than
they actually are, often associated with neurological conditions.
Question 21:
What is the term for a general term describing an immobile position that is constantly
maintained?

A) Catatonic rigidity
B) Catalepsy
C) Cataplexy
D) Automatism

Answer: B) Catalepsy
Explanation: Catalepsy is a condition in which a person maintains an immobile posture
for extended periods, often seen in catatonic states.

Question 22:
Which of the following describes a state of awareness?

A) Sensorium
B) Consciousness
C) Perception
D) Cognition

Answer: B) Consciousness
Explanation: Consciousness refers to the state of awareness of oneself and the
environment, encompassing various levels from full alertness to coma.

Question 23:
A patient who exhibits an automatic performance of an act that is generally
representative of unconscious symbolic activity is displaying:

A) Automatism
B) Stereotypy
C) Mannerism
D) Mutism

Answer: A) Automatism
Explanation: Automatism refers to the automatic performance of acts without
conscious control, often representing unconscious symbolic activities.
Question 24:
Which term refers to an inability to carry out specific tasks despite having intact motor
function?

A) Apraxia
B) Agnosia
C) Dysgraphia
D) Dysarthria

Answer: A) Apraxia
Explanation: Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements or tasks despite
having the physical capability, often due to neurological damage.

Question 25:
Which of the following best describes "psychosis"?

A) A mental disorder where reality testing is intact

B) An inability to distinguish reality from fantasy
C) A disturbance in the form of thought rather than content
D) A preoccupation with inner, private thoughts

Answer: B) An inability to distinguish reality from fantasy

Explanation: Psychosis is a mental state in which a person cannot distinguish reality
from fantasy, often leading to delusions and hallucinations.

Question 26:
A patient who experiences intense anxiety associated with overwhelming feelings of
dread and autonomic discharge is likely having a:

A) Panic attack
B) Manic episode
C) Psychotic episode
D) Catatonic stupor

Answer: A) Panic attack

Explanation: A panic attack is characterized by acute, intense anxiety with
overwhelming feelings of dread, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as
palpitations and sweating.

Question 27:
Which term refers to the false perception of objects being seen as reduced in size?

A) Micropsia
B) Macropsia
C) Lilliputian hallucination
D) Visual agnosia

Answer: C) Lilliputian hallucination

Explanation: Lilliputian hallucinations involve seeing objects or people as much smaller
than they actually are, often seen in certain psychiatric conditions.

Question 28:
Which of the following is an example of a mood-congruent hallucination?

A) A depressed patient hears voices telling them they are worthless

B) A manic patient sees spiders crawling on the walls
C) A manic patient hears voices criticizing their decisions
D) A depressed patient believes their thoughts are being broadcast

Answer: A) A depressed patient hears voices telling them they are worthless
Explanation: Mood-congruent hallucinations are those where the content of the
hallucination aligns with the individual's mood, such as a depressed person hearing
negative voices.

Question 29:
A person who experiences a distorted perception where objects appear larger than they
actually are is experiencing:

A) Micropsia
B) Macropsia
C) Lilliputian hallucination
D) Visual agnosia
Answer: B) Macropsia
Explanation: Macropsia is a perceptual distortion where objects appear larger than
their actual size, which can be caused by neurological conditions.

Question 30:
Which term refers to the feeling of being unreal, detached, or unfamiliar with oneself?

A) Derealization
B) Depersonalization
C) Fugue
D) Dissociation

Answer: B) Depersonalization
Explanation: Depersonalization is the experience of feeling unreal, detached, or as if
one is observing oneself from outside the body.

Question 31:
What is the term for a persistent irrational fear of an object or situation that leads to a
compelling desire to avoid it?

A) Delusion
B) Hallucination
C) Phobia
D) Obsession

Answer: C) Phobia
Explanation: A phobia is an intense, irrational fear of a specific object or situation,
which leads to a strong desire to avoid the feared stimulus.

Question 32:
A person who feels that external forces are controlling their thoughts, feelings, or
behaviors is likely experiencing:

A) Delusion of persecution
B) Delusion of reference
C) Delusion of control
D) Thought withdrawal
Answer: C) Delusion of control
Explanation: Delusion of control involves the belief that one’s thoughts, feelings, or
actions are being controlled by external forces, commonly seen in schizophrenia.

Question 33:
Which of the following best describes "anhedonia"?

A) Excessive and compulsive need for coitus

B) A state of intense elation and feelings of grandeur
C) Loss of interest in previously pleasurable activities
D) A pervasive and sustained unpleasant mood

Answer: C) Loss of interest in previously pleasurable activities

Explanation: Anhedonia is the loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once
enjoyable, often a key symptom of depression.

Question 34:
A patient who experiences a pervasive fear of public humiliation, such as fear of public
speaking, is likely suffering from:

A) Social phobia
B) Specific phobia
C) Panic disorder
D) Agoraphobia

Answer: A) Social phobia

Explanation: Social phobia, or social anxiety disorder, involves a strong fear of being
embarrassed or humiliated in social situations, such as public speaking.

Question 35:
Which term refers to a false belief that one is being harassed, cheated, or persecuted?

A) Delusion of grandeur
B) Delusion of reference
C) Delusion of persecution
D) Nihilistic delusion
Answer: C) Delusion of persecution
Explanation: Delusion of persecution is a false belief that one is being targeted,
harassed, or persecuted by others, often seen in paranoid disorders.

Question 36:
What is the term for the repetition of words or phrases without meaning, often seen in
psychiatric disorders?

A) Echolalia
B) Verbigeration
C) Perseveration
D) Stereotypy

Answer: B) Verbigeration
Explanation: Verbigeration is the meaningless repetition of words or phrases,
commonly observed in certain psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia.

Question 37:
Which term refers to a loss of the ability to recognize objects or persons?

A) Apraxia
B) Agnosia
C) Aphasia
D) Dysprosody

Answer: B) Agnosia
Explanation: Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects, people, sounds, shapes, or
smells, despite having the necessary sensory function.

Question 38:
A patient who believes that people on television are sending messages specifically for
them is experiencing:

A) Delusion of control
B) Delusion of reference
C) Delusion of grandeur
D) Delusion of persecution
Answer: B) Delusion of reference
Explanation: Delusion of reference involves the belief that external events, objects, or
people are directly related to oneself, often in a personalized way.

Question 39:
Which of the following best describes "hypersomnia"?

A) Excessive sleeping
B) Lack of sleep
C) Difficulty falling asleep
D) Early morning awakening

Answer: A) Excessive sleeping

Explanation: Hypersomnia is a condition characterized by excessive sleep, often seen
in depressive disorders and certain medical conditions.

Question 40:
Which term refers to the inability to recognize faces?

A) Dysgraphia
B) Prosopagnosia
C) Aphasia
D) Apraxia

Answer: B) Prosopagnosia
Explanation: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces, often due to
damage to the fusiform gyrus in the brain.

Question 41:
A patient who experiences a false sensory perception occurring while falling asleep is
likely experiencing:

A) Hypnagogic hallucination
B) Hypnopompic hallucination
C) Auditory hallucination
D) Visual hallucination
Answer: A) Hypnagogic hallucination
Explanation: Hypnagogic hallucinations occur as one is falling asleep and are
generally considered nonpathological, though they can be distressing.

Question 42:
Which term best describes the misperception or misinterpretation of a real external
sensory stimulus?

A) Hallucination
B) Illusion
C) Delusion
D) Dysprosody

Answer: B) Illusion
Explanation: An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of a real external
sensory stimulus, as opposed to hallucinations, which occur without any external
stimulus.

Question 43:
What is the term for an excessive, persistent fear of high places?

A) Agoraphobia
B) Claustrophobia
C) Acrophobia
D) Zoophobia

Answer: C) Acrophobia
Explanation: Acrophobia is the persistent and excessive fear of heights, leading to
avoidance of situations where one might be exposed to high places.

Question 44:
Which term refers to a false sensory perception occurring while awakening from sleep?

A) Hypnagogic hallucination
B) Hypnopompic hallucination
C) Auditory hallucination
D) Visual hallucination
Answer: B) Hypnopompic hallucination
Explanation: Hypnopompic hallucinations occur as one is waking up and are generally
considered nonpathological, though they can be unsettling.

Question 45:
A person who repeatedly checks that a door is locked is likely displaying:

A) Obsession
B) Compulsion
C) Phobia
D) Delusion

Answer: B) Compulsion
Explanation: Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels
driven to perform, often to reduce anxiety, as seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD).

Question 46:
Which of the following describes a pathological exaggeration of concern about one’s
health, based on unrealistic interpretations of physical signs?

A) Hypochondria
B) Delusion of grandeur
C) Delusion of persecution
D) Somatic hallucination

Answer: A) Hypochondria
Explanation: Hypochondria involves an exaggerated concern about one’s health,
where minor physical symptoms are interpreted as severe illnesses.

Question 47:
Which term refers to the creation of new words by a patient, often seen in
schizophrenia?

A) Word salad
B) Neologism
C) Circumstantiality
D) Tangentiality

Answer: B) Neologism
Explanation: Neologism refers to the creation of new, often nonsensical words by a
patient, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia.

Question 48:
A patient who experiences a loss of interest in all regular and pleasurable activities is
likely suffering from:

A) Anhedonia
B) Apathy
C) Dysphoria
D) Euphoria

Answer: A) Anhedonia
Explanation: Anhedonia is the loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities, a
common symptom of major depressive disorder.

Question 49:
Which term refers to the belief that one’s partner is being unfaithful without any
evidence?

A) Delusion of grandeur
B) Delusion of persecution
C) Delusion of infidelity
D) Delusion of reference

Answer: C) Delusion of infidelity

Explanation: Delusion of infidelity, also known as pathological jealousy, is a false belief
that one’s partner is unfaithful despite a lack of evidence.

Question 50:
Which of the following best describes "catatonic stupor"?
A) Agitated purposeless motor activity
B) Severe slowing of motor activity, often leading to immobility
C) Voluntary assumption of a bizarre posture
D) Temporary loss of muscle tone and strength

Answer: B) Severe slowing of motor activity, often leading to immobility

Explanation: Catatonic stupor involves a marked slowing of motor activity to the point
of immobility, with a seeming unawareness of surroundings.
Slide Fifteen: Psychological Theories of Mental Illnesses

Question 1: Which of the following is a key component of Freud's psychodynamic

theory?

● A) Neurotransmitter imbalance
● B) Defense mechanisms
● C) Genetic predisposition
● D) Cognitive distortions

Answer: B) Defense mechanisms

Explanation: Freud's psychodynamic theory emphasizes the role of unconscious

processes and defense mechanisms in shaping behavior and personality. Defense
mechanisms are strategies developed by the ego to protect the person from anxiety and
internal conflicts.

1. Which of the following theories focuses on the unconscious mind as a

key determinant of behavior?

● A) Cognitive theory
● B) Behavioral theory
● C) Humanistic theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: D) Psychodynamic theory

Explanation:
Psychodynamic theory emphasizes the role of the unconscious mind and repressed
conflicts in influencing behavior and personality.

2. According to Freud, which part of the personality operates on the

pleasure principle?

● A) Id
● B) Ego
● C) Superego
● D) Conscious mind

Answer: A) Id
Explanation:
The id is the part of the personality that operates on the pleasure principle, seeking
immediate gratification of basic drives and needs.

3. Which defense mechanism involves transferring feelings from one object

or person to another, less threatening substitute?

● A) Repression
● B) Projection
● C) Displacement
● D) Denial

Answer: C) Displacement
Explanation:
Displacement involves redirecting emotions from a threatening target to a safer one.

4. In Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, what is the major

developmental task of adolescence?

● A) Intimacy vs. Isolation

● B) Trust vs. Mistrust
● C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
● D) Integrity vs. Despair

Answer: C) Identity vs. Role Confusion

Explanation:
During adolescence, the key challenge is developing a sense of identity while avoiding
confusion about one’s role in life.

5. What is the primary focus of behavioral theory?

● A) Unconscious processes
● B) Learned behaviors
● C) Cognitive distortions
● D) Genetic predispositions

Answer: B) Learned behaviors

Explanation:
Behavioral theory emphasizes that behavior is learned through interactions with the
environment and can be modified by changing these interactions.

6. Which theory is associated with the concept of "unconditional positive

regard"?

● A) Psychodynamic theory
● B) Cognitive theory
● C) Humanistic theory
● D) Sociological theory

Answer: C) Humanistic theory

Explanation:
Humanistic theory, particularly Carl Rogers' client-centered therapy, emphasizes the
importance of unconditional positive regard in personal growth.

7. In Freud's theory, which stage of psychosexual development is

associated with pleasure derived from control over excretory functions?

● A) Oral stage
● B) Anal stage
● C) Phallic stage
● D) Latency stage

Answer: B) Anal stage

Explanation:
The anal stage, occurring from 1 to 3 years of age, is associated with the child’s focus
on controlling bowel movements and gaining independence.

8. What is the role of the superego in Freud's personality theory?

● A) It mediates between the id and reality

● B) It operates based on the pleasure principle
● C) It internalizes societal and parental standards
● D) It is responsible for unconscious desires
Answer: C) It internalizes societal and parental standards
Explanation:
The superego represents the moral standards and ideals we acquire from both parents
and society; it strives for perfection and judges our behavior.

9. Which of the following is NOT a defense mechanism according to Freud?

● A) Sublimation
● B) Rationalization
● C) Free association
● D) Repression

Answer: C) Free association

Explanation:
Free association is a therapeutic technique used in psychoanalysis, not a defense
mechanism.

10. Which psychological theory focuses on the role of cognitive distortions

in mental illness?

● A) Psychodynamic theory
● B) Behavioral theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Humanistic theory

Answer: C) Cognitive theory

Explanation:
Cognitive theory emphasizes the role of distorted thinking patterns, known as cognitive
distortions, in the development and maintenance of mental health disorders.

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of Carl Rogers' client-centered

therapy?

● A) Focus on unconscious conflicts

● B) Use of aversion therapy
● C) Emphasis on empathy and genuineness
● D) Rewarding positive behaviors
Answer: C) Emphasis on empathy and genuineness
Explanation:
Carl Rogers' client-centered therapy focuses on creating a therapeutic environment
characterized by empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard.

12. According to Erikson, which stage involves the challenge of developing

a sense of trust in others?

● A) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

● B) Trust vs. Mistrust
● C) Industry vs. Inferiority
● D) Initiative vs. Guilt

Answer: B) Trust vs. Mistrust

Explanation:
The first stage of Erikson's psychosocial development is Trust vs. Mistrust, where
infants learn whether or not they can trust the world to meet their needs.

13. In which theory is behavior primarily seen as a product of learning from

the environment?

● A) Humanistic theory
● B) Behavioral theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: B) Behavioral theory

Explanation:
Behavioral theory posits that behavior is learned from the environment through
processes like conditioning and reinforcement.

14. What is the primary focus of Freud’s oral stage of psychosexual

development?

● A) Control over bodily functions

● B) Gratification through oral activities
 ● C) Developing a moral sense
● D) Sexual identity formation

Answer: B) Gratification through oral activities

Explanation:
In the oral stage, which lasts from birth to about 1 year, the infant's pleasure centers on
activities involving the mouth, such as sucking and biting.

15. Which theory emphasizes that individuals are responsible for their own
personal growth?

● A) Psychodynamic theory
● B) Cognitive theory
● C) Humanistic theory
● D) Behavioral theory

Answer: C) Humanistic theory

Explanation:
Humanistic theory emphasizes personal responsibility and self-actualization, focusing
on the individual’s potential for growth.

16. Which defense mechanism involves refusing to accept reality or fact?

● A) Denial
● B) Projection
● C) Sublimation
● D) Displacement

Answer: A) Denial
Explanation:
Denial is a defense mechanism where an individual refuses to accept the reality of a
distressing situation, effectively blocking it from conscious awareness.

17. What is the primary focus of the latency stage in Freud's theory of
psychosexual development?

● A) Sexual identity
 ● B) Social and intellectual skills
● C) Control over excretory functions
● D) Oral satisfaction

Answer: B) Social and intellectual skills

Explanation:
During the latency stage (6 years to puberty), children focus on developing social
relationships and intellectual skills, with sexual feelings being dormant.

18. In cognitive theory, what are "automatic thoughts"?

● A) Thoughts directed by conscious effort

● B) Involuntary, spontaneous thoughts
● C) Deeply rooted memories
● D) Unconscious desires

Answer: B) Involuntary, spontaneous thoughts

Explanation:
Automatic thoughts are spontaneous, often negative thoughts that arise without
conscious effort and can contribute to emotional and behavioral disturbances.

19. Which theory posits that mental illness is influenced by how society
labels individuals?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Sociological theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Humanistic theory

Answer: B) Sociological theory

Explanation:
Sociological theory, particularly labeling theory, suggests that being labeled as mentally
ill can contribute to the development or perpetuation of mental illness.
20. Who is known as the father of cognitive therapy?

● A) Sigmund Freud
● B) Ivan Pavlov
● C) Aaron Beck
● D) Carl Rogers

Answer: C) Aaron Beck

Explanation:
Aaron Beck is recognized as the father of cognitive therapy, which focuses on
identifying and changing maladaptive thought patterns.

21. In which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development is the key task to

develop a sense of competence by mastering skills?

● A) Trust vs. Mistrust

● B) Industry vs. Inferiority
● C) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
● D) Identity vs. Role Confusion

Answer: B) Industry vs. Inferiority

Explanation:
During the Industry vs. Inferiority stage, typically from ages 6 to 12, children develop a
sense of competence by mastering skills and receiving recognition for their efforts.

22. Which psychological theory is most associated with the concept of

"cognitive distortions"?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: C) Cognitive theory

Explanation:
Cognitive theory focuses on how distorted thinking patterns, or cognitive distortions, can
lead to emotional and behavioral problems.
23. Which theorist developed the concept of the collective unconscious?

● A) Sigmund Freud
● B) Carl Jung
● C) Alfred Adler
● D) Erik Erikson

Answer: B) Carl Jung

Explanation:
Carl Jung introduced the concept of the collective unconscious, which refers to
structures of the unconscious mind shared among beings of the same species.

24. Which defense mechanism involves converting unacceptable impulses

into socially acceptable actions?

● A) Regression
● B) Sublimation
● C) Projection
● D) Repression

Answer: B) Sublimation
Explanation:
Sublimation is a defense mechanism where negative impulses are transformed into
positive, socially acceptable behaviors.

25. In Erikson’s psychosocial development, what is the major task of young

adulthood?

● A) Industry vs. Inferiority

● B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
● C) Intimacy vs. Isolation
● D) Generativity vs. Stagnation

Answer: C) Intimacy vs. Isolation

Explanation:
The key task of young adulthood (20-40 years) is to form close, meaningful
relationships, balancing intimacy and isolation.

26. Which type of conditioning is associated with learning through rewards

and punishments?

● A) Classical conditioning
● B) Operant conditioning
● C) Cognitive restructuring
● D) Social learning

Answer: B) Operant conditioning

Explanation:
Operant conditioning involves learning behaviors through the consequences of rewards
or punishments, a concept popularized by B.F. Skinner.

27. Who introduced the concept of the inferiority complex?

● A) Sigmund Freud
● B) Carl Jung
● C) Alfred Adler
● D) Erik Erikson

Answer: C) Alfred Adler

Explanation:
Alfred Adler introduced the concept of the inferiority complex, which is the idea that
feelings of inferiority can drive individuals to compensate, often in unhealthy ways.

28. Which psychological theory emphasizes the importance of free will in

human behavior?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory
Answer: B) Humanistic theory
Explanation:
Humanistic theory stresses the importance of free will, self-determination, and the
human potential for growth and self-actualization.

29. In Freud’s structural model of the psyche, which component is

responsible for balancing the demands of reality?

● A) Id
● B) Superego
● C) Ego
● D) Unconscious mind

Answer: C) Ego
Explanation:
The ego operates based on the reality principle, mediating between the unrealistic id
and the moralistic superego to ensure behavior is practical and acceptable.

30. Which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development focuses on

establishing a sense of purpose and initiative?

● A) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

● B) Initiative vs. Guilt
● C) Industry vs. Inferiority
● D) Identity vs. Role Confusion

Answer: B) Initiative vs. Guilt

Explanation:
The Initiative vs. Guilt stage, occurring from ages 3 to 6, is when children begin to
assert control and power over their environment, developing a sense of purpose.

31. In cognitive theory, what are "schemas"?

● A) Unconscious desires
● B) Learned behaviors
● C) Mental frameworks that shape perception
 ● D) Defense mechanisms

Answer: C) Mental frameworks that shape perception

Explanation:
Schemas are cognitive structures that help individuals organize and interpret
information, influencing how they perceive and react to the world.

32. Which theory would most likely explore the impact of childhood
experiences on adult personality?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: D) Psychodynamic theory

Explanation:
Psychodynamic theory, rooted in Freud's work, emphasizes the lasting impact of
childhood experiences on the development of adult personality and behavior.

33. What is the primary focus of Freud's phallic stage of psychosexual

development?

● A) Developing control over bodily functions

● B) Exploring gender identity and sexual feelings
● C) Establishing trust with caregivers
● D) Strengthening social relationships

Answer: B) Exploring gender identity and sexual feelings

Explanation:
The phallic stage, occurring from ages 3 to 6, involves the child’s discovery of their
gender identity and the formation of sexual feelings.
34. Which theory is most associated with the concept of
"self-actualization"?

● A) Cognitive theory
● B) Behavioral theory
● C) Humanistic theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: C) Humanistic theory

Explanation:
Self-actualization, a key concept in humanistic theory, refers to the realization of one's
full potential and is central to the theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers.

35. Which defense mechanism involves attributing one’s own unacceptable

thoughts or feelings to others?

● A) Projection
● B) Displacement
● C) Rationalization
● D) Repression

Answer: A) Projection
Explanation:
Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable
thoughts, feelings, or motives to another person.

36. In which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development does the

challenge of developing autonomy and independence arise?

● A) Trust vs. Mistrust

● B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
● C) Initiative vs. Guilt
● D) Industry vs. Inferiority

Answer: B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

Explanation:
The Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage, occurring from 18 months to 3 years,
focuses on the child developing a sense of personal control and independence.
37. What is the focus of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?

● A) Resolving unconscious conflicts

● B) Changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors
● C) Strengthening the id's impulses
● D) Exploring past experiences

Answer: B) Changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors

Explanation:
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on identifying and changing negative
thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to mental health issues.

38. Who developed the theory of psychosocial development, which

includes eight stages from infancy to old age?

● A) Sigmund Freud
● B) Erik Erikson
● C) Carl Rogers
● D) Albert Bandura

Answer: B) Erik Erikson

Explanation:
Erik Erikson developed the theory of psychosocial development, which outlines eight
stages that an individual progresses through from infancy to old age.

39. Which psychological theory would most likely explore how societal
expectations impact mental health?

● A) Cognitive theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Behavioral theory
● D) Sociological theory

Answer: D) Sociological theory

Explanation:
Sociological theory examines how societal structures, expectations, and norms
influence mental health, including the effects of social labeling.

40. In Freud’s theory, which defense mechanism involves reverting to

behavior characteristic of an earlier developmental stage?

● A) Sublimation
● B) Repression
● C) Regression
● D) Rationalization

Answer: C) Regression
Explanation:
Regression is a defense mechanism where an individual reverts to behaviors typical of
an earlier stage of development when faced with stress or conflict.

41. What is the primary focus of Skinner’s concept of operant

conditioning?

● A) Learning through association

● B) Learning through consequences
● C) Unconscious processes
● D) Cognitive restructuring

Answer: B) Learning through consequences

Explanation:
Operant conditioning, a concept developed by B.F. Skinner, focuses on how behaviors
are influenced by their consequences, such as rewards and punishments.

42. Which of the following best describes the "Oedipus complex" in Freud's
psychosexual theory?

● A) A child's desire to eliminate the same-sex parent

● B) A child's unconscious desire for the opposite-sex parent
● C) A child's need to develop social relationships
 ● D) A child's struggle to gain independence

Answer: B) A child's unconscious desire for the opposite-sex parent

Explanation:
The Oedipus complex occurs during the phallic stage, where a child feels unconscious
sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent and rivalry with the same-sex parent.

43. Which theory would most likely emphasize the importance of

self-esteem in mental health?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Psychodynamic theory

Answer: B) Humanistic theory

Explanation:
Humanistic theory places great emphasis on self-esteem, self-worth, and the
individual's capacity for personal growth and self-actualization.

44. What is the goal of Erikson’s stage of Generativity vs. Stagnation?

● A) Developing a sense of trust in others

● B) Forming close, intimate relationships
● C) Contributing to society and helping the next generation
● D) Exploring personal identity

Answer: C) Contributing to society and helping the next generation

Explanation:
During the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage, typically occurring in middle adulthood, the
focus is on contributing to society and helping guide the next generation.

45. Which psychological theory is associated with B.F. Skinner?

● A) Psychodynamic theory
● B) Humanistic theory
● C) Behavioral theory
 ● D) Cognitive theory

Answer: C) Behavioral theory

Explanation:
B.F. Skinner is closely associated with behavioral theory, particularly operant
conditioning, which emphasizes the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping
behavior.

46. Which defense mechanism involves justifying actions or feelings with

seemingly logical reasons to avoid the true reasons?

● A) Repression
● B) Rationalization
● C) Projection
● D) Displacement

Answer: B) Rationalization
Explanation:
Rationalization is a defense mechanism where an individual explains actions or feelings
in a logical or rational manner, avoiding the true underlying reasons.

47. In cognitive therapy, what is the term for persistent, negative beliefs
that influence thoughts and behaviors?

● A) Schemas
● B) Cognitive distortions
● C) Automatic thoughts
● D) Defense mechanisms

Answer: B) Cognitive distortions

Explanation:
Cognitive distortions are persistent, negative thought patterns that can lead to emotional
distress and maladaptive behaviors, and are a focus in cognitive therapy.
48. What is the focus of the “autonomy vs. shame and doubt” stage in
Erikson’s theory?

● A) Establishing trust in caregivers

● B) Gaining a sense of independence and control
● C) Developing initiative and decision-making skills
● D) Building a sense of competence in school-related tasks

Answer: B) Gaining a sense of independence and control

Explanation:
The Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage is centered on the child’s efforts to gain
personal control and independence over physical skills and choices.

49. Which theory would most likely examine the impact of childhood
relationships on adult behavior?

● A) Behavioral theory
● B) Psychodynamic theory
● C) Cognitive theory
● D) Humanistic theory

Answer: B) Psychodynamic theory

Explanation:
Psychodynamic theory often examines how early childhood relationships and
experiences influence adult behavior and emotional patterns.

50. In Freud’s model of the mind, which component is most closely

associated with moral judgment and the ideal self?

● A) Id
● B) Ego
● C) Superego
● D) Conscious mind

Answer: C) Superego
Explanation:
The superego is the part of the personality that holds moral standards and ideals,
striving for perfection and acting as a critical and moralizing role.