07-07-2024

2404CMD303031240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) If then which of the following statements is wrong

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The resultant force of 5 N and 10 N can not be

(1) 12 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 5 N

3) What is the angle between and the resultant of and

(1) Zero
(2) tan-1 (P/Q)
(3) tan-1 (Q/P)
(4) tan-1(P - Q)/(P + Q)

4) If are two unit vectors such that are perpendicular to each other then

the angle between is

(1) 45o
(2) 60o

(3)

(4)

5) Find out length of component of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The vector component of vector along vector is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors and
. What is the area of parrelogram?

(1) 8
(2)
(3)
(4) 192

8) Unit vector along is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If . Then the angle between will be

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 0°
(4) 120°

10) A body is moving uniformly on a circle with speed v. Find the magnitude of change in velocity
when it has turned on angle θ.

(1) 2 v sin θ

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If and , then find the value of ?

(1) 2
(2) 38
(3) 12
(4) 6

12) and for which value of C, D both vectors are parallel to each
other :

(1) 2, 2
(2) –2, –2
(3) –2, 2
(4) 2, –2

13) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors and is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors A and B may not be :

(1) greater than AB

(2) equal to AB
(3) less than AB
(4) equal to zero
15) Vector is shown in the figure. Negative of vector is given by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) If are unit vectors such that , then find the angle between and :-

(1) 2π/3
(2) π/3
(3) π/4
(4) π

17) The scalar product of two vectors is and the magnitude of their vector product is 2. The
angle between them is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

18) Which of the following is correct :

(i) is a vector quantity
(ii) is perpendicular to plane of
(iii) For two orthogonal vectors
(iv) If vectors are parallel or antiparallel, then

(1) (i) only

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (iii) & (iv) only
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

19) The x and y components of vector are 4m and 6m respectively. The x and y components of
vector are 10m and 9m respectively. For the vector calculate the angle it makes with x-axis

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

20) The vectors and are such that . The angle between vectors and is -

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 75°
(4) 45°

21) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at angle θ. Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both 2 and 3

22) The vector and are perpendicular to each other. The positive value
of a is :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) zero

23) A force of 14 N acts on a particle along the vector . If the particle displaces from (0,
0, 0) to (2, 4, –2), the work done by force on the particle is :-
(1) 10 J
(2) 52 J
(3) –48 J
(4) 14 J

24) If is a unit vector along y-axis and , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25)

In vector diagram shown in figure where ( ) is the resultant of vectors ( ) and ( ).

If R = , then value of angle θ is :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

26) If resultant of two vectors and shown in the figure is , then value of is :-

(1)

(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

27) If , then what is the angle between

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°
28) Let is the resultant of . On reversing the vector , the resultant becomes . Then
evaluate .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Assertion: A vector must have non - zero magnitude.

Reason: A physical quantity cannot be called as a vector if its magnitude is zero.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

30) Two vectors and are such that and A2 + B2 = C2. Which of the following
statements, is correct?

(1) is parallel to
(2) is anti-parallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) and are equal in magnitude

31) What happens, when we multiply a vector by (–2) ?

(1) Direction reverses and unit changes.

(2) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled.
(3) Direction remains unchanged and unit changes.
(4) None of these

32) A vector is along the positive z-axis and its vector product with another vector is zero, then
what could be the vector .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) An athlete completes one round of a circular track or radius R in 40 sec. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min. 20 sec.?

(1) Zero
(2) 2R
(3) 2πR
(4) 7πR

34) A body moves along the circular path as shown in figure. Find magnitude of displacement

between point A & B.

(1) R/2
(2) R/4
(3) R
(4) 2R

35)

A motor car covers part of total distance with V1 = 10 km/hr, second part with V2 = 20 km/hr

and rest part with V3 = 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car ?

(1) 18 km/hr
(2) 45 km/hr
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 22.5 km/hr

SECTION - B

1)

A person travelling on a straight line without changing direction moves with a uniform speed v1 for
half time and next half time he covers with uniform speed v2. The average speed v is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If the velocity of a body is constant -

(A) |Velocity| = speed
(B) |Average velocity| = speed
(C) Velocity = average velocity
(D) Speed = average speed

(1) Only (A) is correct

(2) (A) and (B) are correct
(3) (C) and (D) are correct
(4) All are correct

3) The magntitude of displacement is equal to distance when a particle moves

(1) On a curved path

(2) In the same direction
(3) With constant acceleration
(4) With constant retardation

4) If velocity of a particle is then find average acceleration during t = 0 to t = 2 sec.

(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

5) If a car covers 2/5th of total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th of total distance with v2 then average
speed during complete journey is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The velocity-time graph of a body is given below. Find the average velocity from t = 0 to t = 40 s.

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3) 50 m/s
(4) 60 m/s
7) A car covers a distance of 2 km in 2.5 minutes. If it covers half of the distance with speed 40
km/hr, then the rest distance it shall cover with a speed of :-

(1) 56 km/hr
(2) 60 km/hr
(3) 48 km/hr
(4) 50 km/hr

8) If a vector makes angles and respectively with the X, Y and Z axes respectively then

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

9) A particle moves on a circular path of radius R. Find magnitude of its displacement during an
interval in which it covers angular span θ.

(1) Rθ
(2) R sinθ
(3) 2R cos(θ/2)
(4) 2R sin(θ/2)

10) A body is moving according to the equation x = at + bt2 + ct3 then its instantaneous speed is
given by :-

(1) a + 2bt+3ct2
(2) a + 2b + 3ct
(3) a + 2b – 3ct
(4) None of these

11) The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration is given by Z = bt, which of
the following relation is valid for velocity?

(1) v = u + bt2

(2)
v=u+
(3) v = u + bt
(4) v = u

12) A body start from rest and moves with constant acceleration. What is the ratio of the distance
travelled by the body during the 4th and 3rd second of motion

(1) 7/5
(2) 5/7
(3) 7/3
(4) 3/7

13) The position x of a particle varies with time as x = at2 – bt3. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero where t is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

14) Two cars start off to race with velocity 4 m/s and 2 m/s and travels in a straight line with
constant acceleration 1 m/s2 and 2 m/s2. If they reach the final point at same instant, then length of
the path is :

(1) 30 m
(2) 32 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 24 m

15)

A body's position changes with time according to equation x ∝ t3 then its motion will be :

(1) Uniform motion

(2) Uniformly accelerated
(3) Rest
(4) Non-uniformly accelerated motion

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) In which of the following pair 2nd anion is more stable than first ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Most stable carbanion is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following is the least stable carbocation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following carbanion is most stable?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Write the correct order of acidic strength :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > P > R > S
(3) Q > R > S > P
(4) S > R > Q > P

6)

Compare the basic strength in following compound ?

(a) CH3–NH–CH3

(c) CH3–NH2

(1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > a > b

7) Which of the following show + I-effect :

(1) –OH
(2) –OCH
(3) –CH3
(4) –Cl

8) Which of following are not electrophile ?

⊕
(1) H3O

(2)

(3) H2O
(4) Both 1 & 2
9) The correct order of stability of given carbanions will be:

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) II > I > III

10)

In which of the following compounds the hydroxylic proton in most acidic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

The reaction intermediate produce by homolytic bond fission is :-

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbon free radical
(3) Carbanion
(4) Carbonium ion

12) What is the correct order of acidic strength in following compounds ?

(X)

(Y)

(Z)

(1) X > Y > Z

(2) Y > X > Z
(3) X > Z > Y
(4) Z > Y > X

13)

Arrange the following in decreasing order of their stability :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) IV > I > II > III
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) III > II > I > IV

14) The strongest acid among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : has more s-character than .

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

16) Assertion: Acidity of the following compounds decreases in the order

.
Reason: Acidity of the compounds increase as the electronegativity of the carbon increases to which
H is attached.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

17) Correct order of stability of given carbocation is :-

(1) d < b < c < a

(2) d < c < b < a
(3) a < b < c < d
(4) a < c < b < d

18) The compound which will show keto-enol tautomerism is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) Assertion:- Inductive effect is a permanent effect.

Reason:- -CH3 group show +I effect

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

20)

Identify correct set of electrophile ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Both structure are

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position isomers

22) Which of the following oxime does not show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) and (2) both

23) Arrange following conformations in order of increasing energy :-

(1) IV < I < III < II

(2) III < II < IV < I
(3) II < III < I < IV
(4) IV < III < II < I

24)

Which of the following is optically active :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

The absolute configuration of :-

is :-

(1) 2S, 3S
(2) 2S, 3 R
(3) 2R, 3R
(4) 2R, 3S

26)

The 'E'-isomer is/are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) If the compound rotates the plane of plane polarised light to the right that is clockwise direction,
then is called

(1) Dextrorotatory
(2) (+) isomers of compound
(3) Both
(4) None of these

28) How many compounds has R-configuration :-

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

29) Which of the following is not D-sugar :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

30) Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is optically active?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Assertion (A) : Boiling points of cis - isomers are higher than trans isomers.
Reason (R) : Dipole moments of cis - isomers are higher than trans isomers.

(1) Both A & R are correct & R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A & R are incorrect

34) Which is a meso-compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

Which of the following is matched?

(1)

: Enantiomers

(2)

: Diastereomers

(3)
: Homomers

(4)
: Geometrical isomers

SECTION - B

1) In which of the following the order of –I effect is not correctly mentioned ?

(1) –F > –Cl > –Br > –I

(2) –F > –NH2 > –OH

(3) > –C≡N > –F

(4) –NO2 > –ph > –CH=CH2
2) Ease of proton release in decreasing order follows :- (e)

(1) a > c > e > d > b

(2) a > e > c > b > d
(3) a > d > c > b > e
(4) a > c > b > d > e

3) Strongest Nocleophite is?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Which is most acidic ?

(1) F3C–COOH
(2) F–CH2–COOH
(3) CH3–COOH
(4) F2CH–COOH

5) Which of the following is strongest acid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Identify the strongest base from the given compounds :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All have same basic strength

7) Which of the following carbocation is most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following acids has lowest pKa value ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9)

આપેલા પદાથમાં આવેલા H-ની એસડીક બળતાનો સાચો મ લાખો.

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) a > d > c > b
(4) એકપણ નહી

10) Select the acid with the highest Ka (i.e., lowest pKa) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Configuration of chiral carbon is

(1) 2S, 3S
(2) 2R, 3R
(3) 2S, 3R
(4) 2R, 3S

12) Chirality in molecule is refer for :-

(1) Presence of chiral atom

(2) Absence of chiral atom
(3) Superimposability on mirror image
(4) Non-superimposability on mirror image

13) Stability order of different conformation of cyclohexane:-

1. Chair from 2. Boat form
3. Twist-boat form 4. Half chair form

(1) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4

(2) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
(3) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(4) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

14)

Correct statement about racemic mixture is

(1) Racemic mixture will be optically active.

(2) Racemic mixture will be optically inactive due to internal compensation.
(3) Racemic mixture will be optically inactive due to external compensation.
(4) None of the above

15) How many geometrical isomers are possible in given compound

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Which fungi are non edible ?

(1) Truffles
(2) Morels
(3) Agaricus
(4) Colletotrichum

2) Choose the correct option with respect to the given diagram :-

(1) Rhizopus – Truffle fungi

(2) Aspergillus – Also known as weed of laboratory
(3) Agaricus – Member of basidiomycetes class
(4) Penicillium – Source of penicillin

3) Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

(1) Fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms.

(2) Mycelium in Phyocmycetes is aseptate and coenocytic.
(3) Members of Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi.
(4) Agaricus belongs to Ascomycetes.

4) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct
options only :
(A) M.W. Beijerinek demonstrated that the extract of the infected plant of tobacco could cause
infection
(B) [Link] showed that viruses could be crystallised.
(C) Lichens have autotrophic as well as heterotrophic organisms.
(D) The RNA of the viroid was of low molecular weight

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D only
5) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

Genus Name Character Class

Sexual stage
(1) Tricoderma Deuteromycetes
is absent

Endogenous
(2) Claviceps Ascomycetes
ascospores

Septate
(3) Ustilago Basidiomycetes
mycelium

Aseptate and
(4) Puccinia coenocytic Phycomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which one of the following belong to the same class ?

(1) Agaricus and Aspergillus

(2) Rhizopus and yeast
(3) Morchella and Sacchromyces
(4) Penicillium and Fusarium

7) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Neurospora is used extensively in genetic studies.

(2) Puccinia is a rust fungus.
(3) Ascospores are asexual spores which are produced exogenously.
(4) Alternaria reproduce asexually by conidia formation.

8) Match the correct pair :

(1) Basidiomycetes Puccinia

(2) Phycomycetes Trichoderma

(3) Deuteromycetes Ustilago

(4) Ascomycetes Agaricus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Assertion (A) : In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes an intervening dikaryophase is observed.

Reason (R) : In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes karyogamy is delayed and does not occur just
after plasmogamy

(1) A is true while R is false

(2) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A
(3) A and R both are false
(4) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A

10) Which one of the following figure represent the Aspergillus fungi :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on wheat ?

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Puccinia
(3) Albugo
(4) Neurospora

12) Read the following statements :-

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Viroids have low molecular weight DNA.
(C) Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr-Jacob disease in humans are caused by prions.
(D) Mumps, small pox and influenza diseases are caused by Bacteria.
Which statements are correct ?

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

13) Which of the following are not made up of cell ?

(1) Lichen
(2) Algae
(3) Virus
(4) Mycorrhiza

14) Choose the correct statement

(1) Lichens are not very good pollution indicators

(2) Viroids are larger than virus
(3) Virus are made up of either DNA or RNA and proteins.
(4) Prions cause potato spindle tuber disease.

15) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from options given below :

Column-I Column-II

Algae and fungi

(A) Lichen (P)
symbiosis

Fungi and higher

(B) Mycorrhiza (Q) plant root
symbiosis

Infectious protein
(C) Prions (R)
molecules

(D) Viroids (S) Infectious RNA

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

16) Select the incorrect statement with respect to Lichens

(1) The algae is called phycobiont

(2) The fungal part is called mycobiont
(3) Lichens are used as indicator of water pollution
(4) Algae and fungi has symbiotic association
17)

match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Prions (a) abnormally folded protein

(ii) Viroids (b) Protein coat absent

(iii) Virus (c) Obligate parasite

(iv) Lichen (d) Fungi and Algae

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

18) Find out the correct matches from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Ulothrix Filamentous Chlorophyceae

ii Laminaria Brown Algae Phaeophyceae

iii Nostoc N2 Fixing green alga Cyanobacteria

iv Fucus Haplontic life cycle Phaeophyceae

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and iii

19) Identify the following figures (A-D).

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A B C D

Chlamydo-
(1) Euglena Funaria Salvinia
monas

(2) Paramoecium Chara Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Euglena Chara Marchantia Pteridium

 Chlamydo-
(4) Paramoecium Funaria Selaginella
monas
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)
Identify the A, B, C and D
(1) A - Equisetum, B - Paramoecium,
C - Funaria, D - Sphagnum

(2) A - Euglena, B - Agaricus,

C - Ginkgo, D - Nostoc

(3) A - Agaricus, B - Ginkgo,

C - Euglena, D - Equisetum

(4) A - Nostoc, B - Euglena,

C - Agaricus, D - Ginkgo

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) (A) Cell wall possesses pectin.

(B) Cell wall contains polysulphate esters.
(C) Organisms lack flagella.
(D) Organisms have complex post fertilization development.
How many of above characters are shown by red algae ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

22) Read the following four statements (A-D) carefully :

(A) Heterocyst is found in Nostoc
(B) All bacteria are heterotrophs
(C) Both Funaria and Marchantia are monoecious.
(D) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

23) Correctly match the following columns and select the suitable option having correct matching :-

Group Pigment Stored food

Green
(i) (a) Chlorophyll-a, d (p) Laminarin
algae

Brown Cyanophycean
(ii) (b) Chlorophyll-a, b (q)
algae starch

Red
(iii) (c) Chlorophyll-a, c (r) Starch
algae

Blue green Floridean

(iv) (d) Chlorophyll-a (s)
algae strach
(1) (i)-b-r, (ii)-c-s, (iii)-a-p, (iv)-d-q
(2) (i)-d-q, (ii)-a-s, (iii)-c-p, (iv)-b-r
(3) (i)-b-r, (ii)-c-p, (iii)-a-s, (iv)-d-q
(4) (i)-d-q, (ii)-a-s, (iii)-c-r, (iv)-b-p

24) Mycorrhizal association is seen in roots of :-

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Salvinia
(3) Pinus
(4) Cycas

25) Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are the characteristic of :

(1) Liverworts
(2) Mosses
(3) Ferns
(4) Conifers

26) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type and accompanied by complex post fertilization in :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Cyanophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae
27) Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having :-

(1) vascular tissues

(2) motile antherozoids
(3) archegonia
(4) Antheridia

28) Peat is obtained from :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Funaria

29) Assertion :- Bryophyta are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Which of the following plants shows haplo-diplontic life cycle? [NCERT-XI-42-43]

(1) Ectocarpus
(2) Wolffia
(3) Fucus
(4) Volvox

31) Which of the following fungi is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work ?

(1) Neurospora
(2) Claviceps
(3) Puccinia
(4) Ustilago

32)
Identity the plants given in the figure. (a) & (b)

(1) Selaginella and Pteris

(2) Equisetum and Salvinia
(3) Selaginella and Equisetum
(4) Salvinia and Azolla

33) Which of the following event is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in
evolution ?

(1) Development of the zygotes into young embryos within the monoecious gametophytes
(2) Development of zygotes into young sporophytes within the male gametophytes
(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within the female gametophytes
(4) Female gametophyte is retained on parental sporophyte for variable period.

34) Read the statement A to D & select wrong statement :

(A) The pteridophytes include horsetails & fern
(B) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues : xylem & phloem.
(C) In Bryophytes, the dominant phase in the life cycle is the sporophytic plant body.
(D) In Pteridophytes, the main plant body is a gametophyte

(1) only B
(2) ony A & C
(3) only C & D
(4) only B & D

35) Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

(1) Broad hardy leaves

(2) Superficial stomata
(3) Thick cuticle
(4) The presence of vessels

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect about Gymnosperm.

(1) Pollination takes place by air in gymnosperms.

(2) They are heterosporous
(3) Before and after fertilization, ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed.
(4) All Gymnosperm are dioecious without any exception.

2) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Algin and carrageen are products of algae

(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chlorella and Spirullina are used as space food
(4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
3) Choose the correct option of members of Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Fucus

(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

4) An example of colonial alga :-

(1) Volvox
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Chlorella

5) Pyrenoids contains protein beside starch is stored food in :-

(1) Red Algae

(2) Green Algae
(3) Fungi
(4) Brown Algae

6) Find the incorrect from the following :-

(1) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal

(2) After meiosis spores are produced within the capsule of bryophytes
(3) Protonema stage of mosses develops directly from a embryo
(4) Gemmae are asexual buds formed in liverworts

7) In brown algae asexual spores are :-

(1) Pear-shaped and have two unequal flagella

(2) Pear-shaped and have two unequal cilia
(3) Oval-shaped and have two unequal flagella
(4) Comma-shaped and biflagellate

8) In the member of phaeophyceae which part of body functions as photosynthetic part :-

(1) Vellum
(2) Stipe
(3) Hold fast
(4) Frond
9) Identify the diagram and a, b and c :-

(1) Chara; a - Branches, b - Stipe, c - Fronds

(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe
(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c- Holdfast
(4) Fucus; a- Air bladder, b - Midrib, c- stipe

10) TMV was discovered by :-

(1) Ivanowsky
(2) Theophrastus
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Robert

11) Identify the A in given diagram :-

(1) Collar
(2) Sheath
(3) Head
(4) Tail fibre

12) Potato spindle tuber disease caused by :-

(1) Viroids
(2) Virus
(3) Prions
(4) Mycorrhiza

13) Virus can be crystallized and crystal contain mainly.

(1) Lipid
(2) Protein
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) Vitamins

14) Which one does not possess nucleic acid :-

(1) Prion
(2) Viroid
(3) Virus
(4) Mycoplasma

15) Which of the following groups of diseases is caused by viruses ?

(1) AIDS, Smallpox, Herpes

(2) Cholera, Tetanus, Smallpox
(3) Cholera, Tetanus, T.B
(4) AIDS, Diabetes, Herpes

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1)

Respiration involving following steps :-

A. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane
B. Transport of gases by blood
C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2
D. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue

The correct sequence of steps is –

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) D → A → B → E → C
(4) C → B → E → A → D

2) Aquatic arthropods respire through :-

(1) Trachea
(2) Moist cuticle
(3) Book-lungs
(4) Gills
3) Which portion of the human respiratory system is called sound box ?

(1) Larynx
(2) Trachea
(3) Nasopharynx
(4) Glottis

4) Cartilagenous rings in trachea are incomplete at which surface :-

(1) Dorsal
(2) Ventral
(3) Lateral
(4) Ventrolateral

5) Which of the following is not a part of exchange zone :-

(1) Tertiary bronchiole

(2) Respiratory bronchiole
(3) Alveolar duct
(4) Alveoli

6) Trachea divides at the level of which vertebra:

(1) 6th thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th lumbar vertebra
(4) 6th lumbar vertebra

7) Pleura is double membranous sac which envelops:

(1) Kidney
(2) Brain
(3) Lungs
(4) Nasal passage

8) The function of surfactant is :-

(1) To reduced the surface tension on the alveoli

(2) Facilitating Expiration
(3) Maintaning the size of the trachea
(4) Maintaning the length of primary Bronchi

9)

Select the correct option regarding human lungs.

(1) Covered by single layer known as pleural-membrane

(2) Pleural fluid filled between thoracic cage & pleura
(3) Positive pressure present in the pleural-cavity
(4) Right lung has 3 lobes

10)

Which one of the following statements is incorrect

A. Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary bronchi.
B. Initial bronchioles are supported by complete cartilaginous rings.
C. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularised
bag-like structure called bronchi.

D. Larynx is a cartilaginous box which help in sound production and hence called the sound box.
(1) A only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) A, D and C
(4) B, C and D

11)

The conducting part of respiratory system is responsible for :-

A. The transport of atmospheric air to alveoli
B. Clears air from foreign particles
C. Humidifies air

D. Brings the air to body temperature

(1) Only A and C
(2) Only A,B and C
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) All A,B,C and D

12) Which of the following is not correct about the thoracic chamber in humans?

(1) It is an air tight chamber in which lungs are situated.

(2) It is formed ventrally by sternum and dorsally by ribs.
(3) It is formed on the lower side by the dome shaped diaphragm.
(4) Both 1 and 3.

13) Muscle of expiration are :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) EICM
(3) Diaphragm and EICM
(4) Abdomen muscle and IICM

14) Arrange the following in decreasing order of their value ?

A → vital lung capacity
B → Expiratory reserve volume
C → Inspiratory reserve volume
D → Tidal volume

(1) A,B,C,D
(2) A,C,B,D
(3) A,D,B,C
(4) D,B,C,A

15) Arrange the given steps of expiration in the sequence of event occuring first.
I. Relaxation of the diaphragm and EICM.
II. Reduction of the pulmonary volume.
III. Expulsion of air from the lungs.
IV. Increase in intra pulmonary pressure.
Choose the correct option -

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV→ II → III → I

16) Which of the following factors shift oxygen dissociation curve to right ?

(1) High PCO2 and low pH

+
(2) High PCO2 and low H concentration
(3) High temperature and high pH
(4) High temperature and low PCO2

17)

Above diagram shows which phenomenon of respiration ?

(1) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles

(2) Expiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(3) Expiration : Relaxation in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(4) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and relaxation in internal intercoastal muscles

18) Match the columns :-

 Column-I Column-II

a Pharynx i Lid of Larynx

b Larynx ii Air sacs

c Trachea iii Voice box

d Epiglottis iv Common passage

e Alveoli v Wind pipe

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-iv

19) During inspiration :-

(1) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic cage in dorsoventral plane
Contraction of external inter-costal muscles lifts up ribs and the sternum causing an increase in
(2)
volume of thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis
(3) Contraction of muscles of diaphragm decreases volume of thoracic cage
(4) Contraction of internal inter costal muscles increases volume of thoracic cage

20) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) TV + ERV (i) Expiratory capacity
(B) RV+ERV+TV+IRV (ii) Total lung capacity
(C) ERV + RV (iii) Functional residual capacity

(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii)

(2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii)
(3) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i)
(4) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)

21) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
Total air, a person can
Inspiratory
A. I. inspire after normal
capacity (IC)
expiration.
Maximal volume of the
Expiratory
air, a person can breath
B. reserve II.
in after a forced
volume
expiration.
Functional Volume of the air that will
C. Residual III. remain in lungs after a
capacity (FRC) normal expiration.
 Extra volume of air a
Vital capacity person can expire during
D. IV.
(VC) forced expiration after
normal expiration
(1) A= I B= II C= III D= IV
(2) A= I B= IV C= III D= II
(3) A= I B= IV C= I D= III
(4) A= IV B= I C= III D= II

22) Which of the following relation is true ?

(1) Functional residual capacity = Inspiratory capacity + Residual volume

(2) Vital capacity = Inspiratory capacity + Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Total lung capacity = functional residual capacity + Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory capacity = Vital capacity – Tidal volume.

23) Identify the correct and incorrect match about the respiratory volume and capacities and mark
the correct answer :-
(a) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(b) Vital capacity = Total lung capacity – Residual volume
(c) Inspiratory capacity = Total lung capacity– Functional Residual capacity
(d) Total lung capacity = Vital capacity + Functional Residual capacity

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect
(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct
(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect
(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correc
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Match the items given Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :

Column I Column II
a Tidal volume i 2500-3000 mL
b Inspiratory Reserve volume ii 1100-1200 mL
c Expiratory Reserve volume iii 500-550 mL
d Residual volume iv 1000-1100 mL

a b c d
1 iii ii i iv
2 iii i iv ii
3 iii iv ii iii
4 iv iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Choose correct statement :-

(1) Expiration is active process

(2) EICM, Diaphragm, IICM and abdominal muscle contract during forceful expiration
(3) Dead space do not participate in gaseous exchange
(4) Value of FRC is less than RV

26) Read the following statements.

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in Alveoli is higher than in Tissue.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital capacity
(d) In alveoli low PCO2 and high PO2 are responsible for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
haemoglobin.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Study the following diagram and select the option that correctly identifies the partial pressure of
oxygen at A, B and C ?

A B C
(1) 40 mm Hg 104 mm Hg 95 mm Hg
(2) 95 mm Hg 104 mm Hg 40 mm Hg
(3) 40 mm Hg 95 mm Hg 104 mm Hg
(4) 40 mm Hg 45 mm Hg 95 mm Hg

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
28)

Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the above diagram ?

A = 40 mm Hg C = 40 mm Hg
(1)
B = 95 mm Hg D = 45 mm Hg
A = 45 mm Hg C = 104 mm Hg
(2)
B = 40 mm Hg D = 45 mm Hg
A = 95 mm Hg C = 40 mm Hg
(3)
B = 45 mm Hg D = 45 mm Hg
A = 40 mm Hg C = 45 mm Hg
(4)
B = 95 mm Hg D = 40 mm Hg

29) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood and 100 ml oxygenated blood deliver :

(1) 5ml O2 to the tissue & 4ml CO2 to the alveoli respectively
(2) 5ml CO2 to the alveoli & 20ml O2 to the tissue respectively
(3) 4ml CO2 to the tissue & 5ml O2 to the lung respectively
(4) 16ml O2 to the tissue & 4ml CO2 to the alveoli respectively

30) Consider the given statements and select correct statement for transport of oxygen
(a) Seventy per cent of oxygen is carried as bicarbonates
(b) About ninty seven per cent of oxygen is transported by RBCs in blood
(c) It is carried by hemoglobin as carb-aminohemoglobin

(1) a , b
(2) b , c
(3) Only b
(4) Only c
31) Given above are the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves. Curve 'A'
is plotted at a normal body temperature equivalent to 37°C. Which one of the following is the best
possible cause for curve 'B'?

(1) 39°C/[H+]
(2) 39°C/[H+] ↓
(3) 35°C/[H+]
(4) 35°C/[H+] ↓

32) During unloading of CO2 .....................

(1) Cl– moves from plasma to RBCs

–
(2) HCO3 moves from RBCs to plasma
(3) Cl– moves from RBCs to plasma
–
(4) HCO3 move from plasma to alveoli

33)

A-Carboxy compound,
(1) B-Carbamino,
C-Dissolved form
A-Dissolved form,
(2) B-Bicarbonate,
C-Carboxy compound
A-Carbamino form,
(3) B-Dissolved,
C-Carboxy compound
A-Dissolved form,
(4) B-Bicarbonate,
C-Carbamino compound

34) Dorsal respiratory group is located in ____ and mainly causes _____ :-

(1) Pons Varolii, expiration

(2) Medulla, inspiration
(3) Medulla, expiration
(4) Pons Varolii, inspiration

35) The urge to inhale in humans results from

(1) rising pO2
(2) rising pCO2
(3) falling pO2
(4) falling pCO2

SECTION - B

1) Which one of the following gives the correct description of a health disorder ?

(1) Asthma : Inflammation of pleural membranes of the lung

(2) Jaundice : Bilirubin is not produced in the body
(3) Emphysema : Alveolar walls are damaged
(4) Hypoxia : TO2 in body

2) Condition of shortage of oxygen in tissue called :-

(1) Asphyxia
(2) Emphysema
(3) Vestibule
(4) Hypoxia

3) Which one is not true for Emphysema

(1) Disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged.

(2) Cigarette smoking is one of the major cause
(3) It is a chronic disorder
it is a disorder of bronchi in which there is regular swelling and itching of bronchi and is
(4)
characterchised by regular caughing.

4) Amino acids are organic compounds containing an/a

(1) Amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the same carbon
(2) Amino group and an alcoholic group as substituents on the same carbon
(3) Hydroxyl group and a carboxyl group as substituents on the same carbon
(4) Hydroxyl group and a carboxyl group as substituent on the adjacent carbon

5) Match the column A to B.

Column-A Column-B

(P) Uridine (i) Alkaline AA

(Q) Lecithin (ii) Aromatic AA

(R) Phenyl Alanine (iii) Nucleoside

(S) Lysine (iv) Phospholipid

(1) P-iii Q-iv R-ii S-i
(2) P-i Q-ii R-iii S-iv
(3) P-i Q-ii R-iv S-iii
(4) P-iv Q-iii R-ii S-i

6) The correct names of above amino acids are

AA1 AA2 AA3

(1) Glycine Serine Alanine

(2) Alanine Glycine Serine

(3) Serine Glycine Alanine

(4) Serine Alanine Glycine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

Given below is the chemical formula of -

(1) Oleic acid

(2) Galactose
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Palmitic acid

8) In a protein the left end represents :-

(1) First amino acid and C-terminal

(2) Last amino acid and N-terminal
(3) First amino acid and N-terminal
(4) Last amino acid and C-terminal
9) Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified

along with its related function ?

(1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

(2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy
(3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
(4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane

10) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a ...'A'... state whereas high temperature destroys
enzymatic activity because proteins get...'B'... by heat.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive

(2) A = permanently inactive, B = temporarily inactive
(3) A = permanently inactive, B = denatured
(4) A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

11) Peptide bond is formed when the :-

(1) Carbonyl group of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group of the next amino acid
(2) Amino group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the next amino acid
(3) Carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the Amino group of the next amino acid
(4) Amino group of one amino acid reacts with the Hydroxyl group of the next amino acid

12) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct option given below :-

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

13) In a polysaccharide, right end of chain is A and left end is B.

(1) A - Reducing, B - Reducing
(2) A - Reducing, B - Non-reducing
(3) A - Non-reducing, B-Reducing
(4) A - Non-reducing, B- Non-reducing

14) In the above diagrammatic representation of

glycogen, glycosidic bonds represented by A, B and C are :-

A B C

(1) α – 1' – 4" α – 1' – 6" α – 1' – 4"

(2) β – 1' – 4" β – 1' – 6" β – 1' – 4"

(3) α – 1' – 6" α – 1' – 4" α – 1' – 4"

(4) β – 1' – 6" α – 1' – 4" β – 1' – 4"

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Glutamic acid is example of :

(1) Acidic amino acid

(2) Basic amino acid
(3) Neutral amino acid
(4) Both (1) and (2)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 3 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 3

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 3 1 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 3

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 4 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 4 1 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

From the property of vector product, we notice that must be perpendicular to the plane formed

by vector and . Thus is perpendicular to both and and vector also, must lie

in the plane formed by vector and . Thus must be perpendicular to also but the

cross product gives a vector which can not be perpendicular to itself. Thus the last
statement is wrong.

2)

3)

4)

5)

6)

Vector component of along is

 7)

= i + 2j + 3k, = 3i – 2j + k

Area of parallelorgram =

8)

9)

10)

11)

12)

For parallel of two vectors

C = +2
D = +2

13)

Vector perpendicular to is
Here and

and
Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
 14)
sin θ ≤ 1

15)

If we multiply it by negative sign then direction reverses but magnitude remains same.

16) Given :

Also
Let angle between and =θ
∴
∴ cosθ = –1/2 ⇒ θ = 120° = 2π/3

17)

18) in a scalar quantity that's why it is known as scalar product.

19) ∵ Ax = 4, Ay = 6 so Ax + Bx = 10 and Ay + By = 9
(a) Bx = 10 – 4 = 6m and By = 9 – 6 = 3m

(b) length =

(c) θ = tan–1

20)
A2 + B2 + 2AB cosθ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ
cos θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90°

21)

22)
a2 – 2a – 3 = 0 Þ (a – 3) (a + 1) = 0
a = 3 and a = –1
 23)

24)

25)

sinθ = ⇒ θ = 30°

26)
⇒ a2 + b2 + ab = 7b2
⇒ a2 + ab – 6b2 = 0
⇒ (a – 2b) (a + 3b) = 0

⇒ or (not considerable)

27)

The angle is given by,

28)

As it is given,
Hence,

29)

Conceptual.

30)

Squaring both side

 31) Conceptual.

32)

The vector product of two non-zero vectors is zero if they are in the same direction or in the opposite
direction.
Therefore, vector must be parallel or anti-parallel to vector , i.e. along z-axis.

33)

34) s = 2r sin

s = 2r sin

s = 2r
s=r

35)

36)

37)

38)

|Displacement| = Distance when particle moves in the same direction.

39)

40)
vav =

vav =

vav =

41)

Displacement = area upto t = 40s

∴ vav =

42)

43)

44)

45)

x = at + bt2 + ct3

= a + 2bt + 3ct2

46)
 47) Snth = , because u = 0

48)

x = at2 – bt3

a = 0 = 2a – 6bt

49)

4t + × 1 × t2 = 2t + × 2 × t2

2t = ⇒ t = 4 sec
Means, They are at same distance at t = 4 sec.

So S = 4 × 4 + × 1 × 42
= 16 + 8 = 24 m

50) x ∝ t3
v ∝ t2
a∝t
Acceleration is not constant.

CHEMISTRY

65)

% s character ∝ E.N.

% s character is more so E.N. of sp carbon is more and Θve charge on

more electronegative atom is more stable.

67)

Stability of C⊕ ∝ +I (+I maximum in 1st option)

 70)

act as electrophile

98)

Stability order
Chair form > Twist boat > Boat form > Half chair

BOTANY

101)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 24

102)

NCERT Pg. # 23, Fig.-2.5(c)

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 22, 23, 24

104)

NCERT XI Pg.# 26

105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 23, 24

106) NCERT XI Pg. No.#23,24

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 24

108)

NCERT Page No. # 24

109)

NCERT XI Pg. 23

110)

NCERT XIth, Page : 21, 23

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 22,23

112)
NCERT (XI) Pg. # 26,27

113) NCERT-XI, Pg # 25, 2.6

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26, 27

115)

NCERT XI Pg.#22, 26 and 27

116) NCERT page no. 25

117) NCERT Pg. # 27

118)

NCERT XI, Page # 19,30,33,43

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21,34,37

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19-23

121)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 33 table-3.1

122)

Only I statement is correct

123) NCERT Pg. No. 33, Table 3.1

124)

NCERT XI, Page # 38

125) NCERT XI pg.# 36

126)

NCERT Pg. # 34

127) NCERT XI Pg # 36

128)

NCERT XI pg.#35
 129) NCERT XI Pg. # 35

130)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 42,43

131) NCERT-XI, Pg # 24

132)

NCERT XI, pg.# 37

133) NCERT XI, Pg # 38

134) NCERT XI, Pg # 36

135) NCERT Pg. No. 38 & 39, 3.4

136) NCERT Page No.:-38,39

137)

NCERT XI Pg.# 18,19,20

138)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 34

139) XI New NCERT Page No. 24

140)

NCERT Pg. # 32/3.1.1

141)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 35, 36, para 3.2.1, 3.2.2

142) XI New NCERT Page No. 27

143) XI New NCERT Page No. 25

144) XI New NCERT Page No. 25

145) NCERT XI Pg. # 26

 146)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 26

147)

NCERT Pg. # 27, Figure-2.6

148) NCERT XI Page # 26

149) NCERT-XI Page#26 and 27

150) NCERT Pg # 26

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT Pg. # 268

153)

NCERT Pg. # 269

156)

NCERT Pg. # 269

159) NCERT Pg. # 270

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270

165)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 270

167) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

176)

NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 272,275

190)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 145

192) NCERT XI Pg.# 145

 197)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 147