WAEC

BIOLOGY objective
Past questions
(PT. 1–7)

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.1)

1. Which of the following 4. Which of the following cell

organism is not classified as an types has the least number of
animal? mitochondria?

A. Amoeba A. cardiac cells of the heart

B. Paramecium B. cells of the cornified layer
C. Euglena C. muscle cells of the bladder
D. Obelia D. muscle cells of the diaphragm

2. An organisation that operates 5. A typical plant cell is mainly

at the cellular level of distinguished from an animal cell
organisation, carries out its by the possession of _______
physiological activities by using its
_______ A. chloroplast and nucleus
B. cell wall and cytoplasm
A. cell membrane C. chloroplast and cell wall
B. organelles D. cell wall and mitochondria
C. small size
D. cytoplasm 6. Which of the following
characteristics do fungi share in
3. The organelle which eliminates common with animals?
water from the body of a
protozoan is the _______ A. presence of digestive tract
B. movement from one place to
A. plasma membrane another
B. contractile vacuole C. storage of carbohydrate as
C. nucleus glycogen
D. cell wall

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D. movement of centrioles during B. breaking off a phosphate group
cell division from ATP
C. adding a phosphate group to
7. Which of the following glucose
processes involve diffusion? D. breaking off a hydrogen ion
from NADPH
A. opening and closing of
stomatal pores 10. Excretion in Paramecium is by
B. turgidity of herbaceous plants diffusion because _____
C. absorption of water through
root hairs A. its habitat is water and moist
D. absorption of digested food places
into the villi B. it has simple, small and few
internal organs
8. The mechanism of opening and C. it has a large surface area to
closing of the stomata in plants is volume ratio
based on _____ D. it has a large efficient
meganucleus
A. turgidity and diffusion
B. turgidity and flaccidity 11. The axial skeleton is
C. osmosis and diffusion composed of the _____
D. diffusion and flaccidity
A. skull and vertebra column
9. In cellular respiration, energy B. limbs and girdles
is made available to organism by C. atlas and axis
_____ D. radius and ulna

A. removal of a phosphate group 12. The inorganic component of

from ADP bones consist of _____

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A. magnesium, sodium and D. highly vascularised
calcium
B. magnesium, phosphorus and 15. The excretory system in
calcium mammals consist of the following
C. sodium, phosphorus and parts except _____
calcium
D. potassium, magnesium and A. two kidneys
calcium B. two ureters
C. two bladders
13. A pulse is best described as D. one urethra
_____
16. The organ that receives
A. contraction of arteries to let reduced flow of blood during
our blood out vigorous exercise is the _____
B. contraction of veins to allow
our blood into them A. brain
C. dilation of arteries to B. heart
accommodate blood rushing C. lungs
through D. limbs
D. pumping action of the heart to
move blood round the body 17. The ear pinna is strengthened
by _____
14. The following characteristics
are associated with the A. blood pressure
mammalian lungs except _____. B. cartilage
C. bone
A. large surface area D. turgor pressure
B. expandable lungs
C. moist surface

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18. The relationship between the
retina and the brain is similar to
that between the _____

A. cochlea and auditory nerve

B. cochlea and the brain
C. cochlea and the semi-circular
canal
D. ear drum and the brain
20. The parts that supply food
and water to the developing
19. Which of the following
embryo are labelled
statements about the
development of the foetus is not
A. I and II
correct?
B. III and V
C. V and VI
A. The circulatory system of the
D. II and III
foetus is directly connected to the
maternal blood vessels
21. The part labelled III is the
B. The foetus depends on its
_____
mother’s blood for food and
oxygen
A. albumen
C. The foetus is surrounded by a
B. chalaza
water sac
C. yolk
D. Food and oxygen are carried
D. air space
across the placenta to the
embryo’s blood 22. Which of the following
statement is true about
Use the diagram below to transpiration? It is the _____
answer questions 20 and 21

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A. loss of water in form of vapour D. camouflage the eggs
from the surface of the leaf
B. loss of water in form of vapour 25. In which of the following
from the body of the leaf organic compound is hydrogen-
C. absorption of water in form of oxygen ratio equal to 2:1?
vapour from the body of the plant
D. movement of water through A. proteins
the body of the plant B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
23. Transportation of water in the D. vitamins
xylem tissue involve the following
except _____. 26. A man suffering from obesity
must avoid meals containing
A. root pressure _____
B. capillary action
C. transpiration pull A. margarine and butter
D. translocation B. rice and beans
C. carrot and orange
24. The following are the major D. beef and fish
reasons why the butterfly lays
eggs under the surface of a leaf 27. In testing for starch in a leaf,
except to _____ the leaf is first boiled in water for
about a minute so that the _____
A. shade the eggs from the direct
rays of the sun A. cell walls are hardened
B. protect the eggs from B. cells are killed
predators C. chlorophyll is dissolved out
C. protect the eggs from being D. iodine will penetrate
washed away by raindrops

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28. Which of the following food 31. A herbivore cannot feed on a
substances is incorrectly linked to piece of meat because it has no
its enzymes? _____

A. protein – trypsin A. incisors to cut the meat

B. fat – lipase B. canines to tear the meat
C. sucrose – pepsin C. premolars to grind the meat
D. starch – amylase D. molars to mash the meat

29. Which of the following pH 32. In a particular habitat, the

values is the best for the action of role of an organism is referred to
the enzymes – rennin and pepsin as its _____
in the stomach?
A. level
A. pH 2 B. biomass
B. pH 7 C. niche
C. pH 8 D. space
D. pH 9
33. The distribution of organisms
30. The bacterium in the in a fresh water habitat like a
mutualistic association with stream or pond is determined by
legumes converts _____ the following factors except
_____
A. nitrates to ammonia
B. ammonium compounds to A. light penetration
nitrates B. pH of the soil
C. nitrogen gas to ammonia C. rainfall
D. nitrites to nitrates D. temperature

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34. The speed of wind is A. competition for sunlight
measured using the _____ B. conservation of excess water
C. inadequate roots for water
A. wind vane absorption
B. anemometer D. lack of adequate water
C. photometer
D. barometer 38. The following are greenhouse
gases except _____
35. Which of the following is a
biotic component of the A. carbon dioxide
ecosystem? B. chlorofluorocarbon
C. methane
A. soil D. oxygen
B. rainfall
C. light 39. Rural-urban migration in
D. fungi developing countries can be
prevented by _____
36. A moss plant can withstand
drought by means of its _____ A. increasing the number of years
in school
A. spores B. putting up more factories in
B. rhizoids urban areas
C. antheridia C. having boarding schools in
D. achegonia rural areas
D. even distribution of facilities in
37. Which of the following factors both region
is the main problem facing
xerophytic plants? 40. Muscles are attached to
bones by means of _____

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A. tendons B. maintain ecological balance in
B. ligaments communities
C. cartilages C. prevent hunters from being
D. nerves cruel to animals
D. save some species from
41. In a population, food extinction
shortage may lead to _____
44. Which of the following is an
A. an increased survival rate example of variation?
B. high reproduction rate
C. intra-specific competition A. blood group
D. low rate of migration B. tongue rolling
C. reproduction
42. The following effects are D. growth
associated with deforestation
except _____ 45. The parameters of size,
height, weight and colour in a
A. gully erosion population of living things are
B. extinction of plant species examples of _____
C. migration of wildlife
D. increase in rainfall A. environmental variation
B. non-heritable variation
43. The main reason for the C. continuous variation
conservation of wildlife is to D. discontinuous variation
_____
46. Fingerprints are useful in
A. create national parks for crime detection because _____
recreation

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A. the police have sophisticated 49. Which of the following
fingerprint machines statements about heredity is not
B. thieves may leave their prints true? In heredity, the traits are
at the scene of crime _____
C. no two people have the same
fingerprints A. carried by genes
D. fingerprints are easy to make B. contained in ovum and sperm
C. always transmitted by one
47. A person with blood group O parent
can be given blood from persons D. transmitted from parents to
who have blood belonging to offspring
_____
50. An example of a saprophytic
A. group O only relationship is a/an _____
B. group A only
C. groups A and O A. vulture feeding on decaying
D. groups A, B and O meat
B. mushroom growing on
48. A man heterozygous for decaying vegetation
albino gene marries a woman who C. boy eating stale bread
is also heterozygous for the gene. D. earthworm feeding on
Both have normal skin colour. The decaying vegetation
probability that they will have an
albino child is _____

A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 4/4
D. 2/4

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.2)

1. The branch of Biology that A. check cell and red blood cell
deals with the principles of B. spermatozoan and ovum
classification of organisms is C. palisade cell and epidermal cell
known as _____ D. root tip cell and guard cell

A. biological index 5. If Amoeba is placed in a salt

B. nomenclature solution, the contractile vacuoles
C. taxonomy would _____
D. ecology
A. be bursting more frequently
2. Which of the following B. be more numerous
structures is a tissue? C. be formed less frequently
D. grow bigger before they burst
A. vessel element
B. blood 6. In which of the following
C. sieve tube element habitat is Paramecium not found?
D. erythrocytes
A. pond
3. Which of the following cells are B. aquarium
not regarded as specialized? C. lake
D. puddle
A. sperm cells
B. root tip cells 7. The following processes are
C. muscle cells involved in water movement in
D. somatic cells endodermis except _____

4. Which of the following pairs of A. osmosis

cells carry out the same function? B. vascular pathway

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C. diffusion 9. The part labelled II in the
D. active transport diagram is the _____

8. Cells that utilizes a lot of A. centrioles

energy are characterised by the B. chloroplast
presence of a large number of C. chromatid
_____ D. tonoplast

A. vacuoles 10. The part labelled I is called

B. mitochondria the _____
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. ribosomes A. nucleolus
B. centromere
The diagram below represents C. centriole
the phenomenon of growth in D. spindle
a meristemic cell of a plant.
Use it to answer questions 9 11. Secondary growth is brought
and 10. about by the activities of the
_____

A. phellogen and phelloderm

B. phellogen and procambium
C. vascular cambium and
phelloderm
D. vascular cambium and
phellogen

12. A monocot root is different

from a dicot root by having _____

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A. endodermis D. trachea
B. cambium
C. wide pith 16. Filtrate in the Bowman’s
D. root hair capsule contains vitamins because
_____
13. Which of the following
statements best describes A. only a little amount is required
haemoglobin? It is _____ for the body
B. they can be reabsorbed into
A. yellowish in colour the blood
B. a red blood cell C. they have low molecular weight
C. an oxygen carrying pigment D. most of them are fat soluble
D. needed for blood clothing
17. More sweat is produced
14. Inhaled air is made warm and during muscular exercise because
moist in the _____ _____

A. epiglottis A. the contracting muscles

B. nasal cavity produces water
C. trachea B. fermentation occurs in the
D. mouth muscles
C. the temperature of the body
15. Which of the following rises
structures is not involved in D. the muscle fatigues
respiration?
18. Which of the following
A. lung books neurons may not have Myelin
B. mouth sheath?
C. stomach

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A. effector cells B. they run the risk of being
B. intermediate neurons destroyed
C. motor neurons C. they need special support
D. sensory neurons D. they require a relatively low
temperature
19. Which of the following is an
effector organ? 22. Some animals return to water
bodies to reproduce because
A. tongue _____
B. skin
C. nose bridge A. natural enemies destroy their
D. ear gland eggs on land
B. water nourishes their embryos
20. During sexual reproduction in and their young ones
Paramecium, how many times C. they are close to their
does the zygote divide to produce ancestors and imitate them
eight nuclei? D. the temperature on land is not
suitable for the development of
A. 1 their embryos
B. 2
C. 3 23. Which of the following
D. 4 methods is appropriate for the
cultivation of cassava?
21. The testes in male mammals
descend into the scrotal sac A. budding
because _____ B. fragmentation
C. root cutting
A. there is congestion in the lower D. stem cutting
abdomen

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24. What will be the 27. Which of the following
chromosome number of the statements about photosynthesis
hybrid of two varieties of a plant is not true?
with 36 chromosomes in the
endosperm cell? A. plants can photosynthesize
without an increase in dry weight
A. 12 B. carbon dioxide is absorbed by
B. 24 the leaves in bright light
C. 36 C. oxygen is produced during
D. 48 photosynthesis from the
breakdown of water
25. Kreb’s cycle occurs in the D. photosynthesis occurs in green
_____ plants

A. mitochondria 28. The equation below

B. cytoplasm represents the process of
C. nucleus Glycolysis.
D. ribosomes
Glucose heterokinase X + ADP.

26. The process whereby X in the equation represents ____

electrons are emitted from

chlorophyll and returned to it A. glucose diphosphate

unchanged is known as _____ B. glucose phosphate

C. glucose triphospate

A. non-cyclic phosphorylation D. fructose phosphate

B. photochemical reaction
C. photophorylation 29. The removal of all phloem

D. cyclic photophorylation tissues of the stem of a plant

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close to the root system for a long D. pyruvate and cellulose
period of time is likely to _____
32. A purple colour was obtained
A. provide more energy to the when sodium hydroxide solution
roots and a drop of copper sulphate
B. accumulate more starch in the solution was added to a food
roots substance. The food substance is
C. cause the underground roots to likely to be a _____
develop buds
D. cause the plant to wither and A. carbohydrate
die B. fat
C. protein
30. The conversion of glucose to D. sugar
starch in the leaf during the day
principally _____ 33. Which of the following
enzymes is active in the
A. enables photosynthesis duodenum?
B. prevents osmotic problems
C. enables the leaf to store the A. pepsin
starch B. rennin
D. enables glucose to be used up C. trypsin
D. amylase
31. Which of the following groups
of substances are not six-carbon 34. The following organisms are
compounds? producers except _____

A. glucose and lactose A. hibiscus

B. lactose and cellulose B. mushroom
C. glucose, lactose and pyruvate C. cactus

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D. spirogyra 37. The total number of organism
therefore is _____
35. Which of the following
structures produces the greatest A. 200
variety of digestive enzymes? B. 360
C. 600
A. salivary gland D. 800
B. pancreas
C. stomach 38. Ecological investigation in a
D. colon habitat includes the following
procedures except _____
36. The following are abiotic
components of the ecosystem A. choosing a habitat
except _____ B. identification of specimen
C. determining the genetic make-
A. temperature up of specimens
B. oxygen D. measuring biotic and abiotic
C. bacteria factors
D. soil
39. Which of the following
Use the information on substances when lost from the
capture-recapture method to body of a mammal will not be
calculate the total number of returned to the ecosystem?
organisms in a habitat.
A. sweat
First capture = 200 B. urea
Second capture = 120 C. heat energy
Number of organism with mark in D. carbon dioxide
second capture = 40

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40. The rate of decomposition of B. enables the plant to
organisms is faster in the tropical conveniently eliminate its
rainforest than in other biomes excretory products
because _____ C. enables the plant to bear more
fruits
A. of the relatively constant D. ensures that the limited
daylight mineral salts gets to only growing
B. there are more plants per regions
square feet
C. of abundance of water 43. A sample of wet garden soil
D. of constant cool temperature of known weight was heated to
constant weight. The loss of
41. A xerophytes conserves water weight is due to loss of _____
by possession of the following
features except _____ A. water
B. organic matter
A. thick cuticles C. water and organic matter
B. sunken stomata D. water and inorganic matter
C. broad leaves
D. fleshy stem 44. Assuming that a period of
stable population size is followed
42. The falling off of leaves of by a period when natality
deciduous trees is helpful to the increases by 10% and
plant because it _____ immigration by 20% of the
population size. The population
A. reduces the rate of size will _____
transpiration
A. be at equilibrium
B. increase by 40%

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C. begin to increase C. increase the rate of soil
D. begin to decrease formation
D. improve upon the water
45. Which of the following holding capacity of the soil
methods does not make water fit
for drinking? 48. Which of the following
practices improves crop yield in a
A. addition of chlorine clayey soil? Addition of _____
B. boiling
C. distillation A. more water and humus
D. addition of alum B. lime and humus
C. fertilizers
46. Vaccination results in _____ D. weedicides and fertilizers

A. aiding red blood cells to carry 49. Which of the following

more oxygen activities promotes forest
B. production of antibodies which conservation?
destroys toxins of germs
C. arresting excessive bleeding A. lumbering
D. production of white blood cells B. use of firewood for cooking
which engulfs and digests bacteria C. afforestation
D. production of paper
47. Leguminous crops are
incorporated into crop rotation in 50. Which of the following
order to _____ statements is not true about
continuous variation? It _____
A. improve aeration in soil
B. promote nitrogen fixation A. is usually controlled by several
genes

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B. can be influenced by
environmental factor
C. follows a normal distribution
curve
D. is usually controlled by one or
two pairs of genes

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.3)

1. The science of life is referred to 4. The disadvantages of

as _____ complexity of organisation in the
higher organisms is that it leads
A. Anatomy to _____
B. Biology
C. Ecology A. mutual interdependence
D. Phylogeny between component cells
B. internal structure specialization
2. The epidermis of a leaf is C. increased adaptation to
considered an example of a tissue environment
because the cells _____ D. slower rate of diffusion of
oxygen to individual cells
A. allow sunlight to pass through
B. are covered by a waxy cuticle 5. In which of the following
C. all possess a similar structure multicellular organisms is
and function interdependence of cells
D. allow water to enter them by maintained?
osmosis
A. spirogyra
3. The organism at the organ B. volvox
level of organisation of life is C. eudorina
_____ D. pandorina

A. euglena 6. Which of the following

B. spirogyra processes occur in the second
C. ginger phase of meiosis?
D. tapeworm

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A. homologous chromosomes animals shows this pattern of
separate growth?
B. two daughter cells are formed
C. fertilization occur
D. segregation of genes occur

7. The muscle cell fluid of an

athlete was tested immediately
after a 100m race and was found
to contain a high concentration of
A. cestoda
lactic acid. Explain what could
B. reptilia
have done this. The _____
C. amphibia
D. insecta
A. athlete must have eaten food
containing lactic acid just before
9. The pulmonary circulation
the race
involves movement of the blood
B. athlete must have injected
to and from the _____
lactic acid into his blood just
before the race
A. brain
C. athlete’s muscle must have
B. kidneys
carried out anaerobic respiration
C. liver
during the race
D. lungs
D. athlete must have inhaled
lactic acid from the environment
The table below shows the
during the race
blood composition of four
individuals. Use the
8. The graph below represents
information in the table to
the growth pattern of an animal.
answer questions 10 and 11.
Which of the following groups of

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Blood Plasma Red White Platelets B. reptile
composition blood blood
(individuals) cells cells C. amphibian
I Normal Normal High Normal
D. bird
II Normal Normal Normal Normal
III Normal Normal Low Normal
IV Normal Normal Normal Low

10. Which of the individual is

likely to be suffering from
haemophilia?

A. I
B. II 13. The diagram above are parts
C. III of a human lung. Which of the
D. IV labelled parts is diagram Z taken
from?
11. Which of the individuals is
likely to have HIV? A. II
B. III
A. I C. IV
B. II D. V
C. III
D. IV

12. A student dissecting an

animal specimen discovered that
it had two auricles and one
ventricle. The animal is likely to
be a/an _____
14. The diagram above is an
A. fish illustration of the human
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excretory system. Which of the 17. Impulses are conducted
labelled parts contains the highest towards the nerve cell through
amount of nitrogenous waste? the _____

A. I A. myelin sheath
B. II B. dendrons
C. IV C. axons
D. VI D. synaptic nodes

15. Increasing adrenaline content 18. The function of the convex

of the blood would be expected to lens in the correction of eye
decrease the flow of blood to the defects is _____
_____
A. diverge light rays from far
A. liver objects to focus image on the
B. heart retina
C. lungs B. converge light rays to focus
D. brain image behind the retina
C. converge light rays to focus
16. The following are all examples image before the retina
of a simple reflex action except D. converge light rays from far
_____ objects to focus their image on
the retina
A. swallowing
B. sneezing 19. Which of the following parts
C. walking of the eye contains light sensitive
D. blinking cells?

A. choroid

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B. iris 22. Which of the following
C. retina structures in a flower develops
D. lens into a seed?

20. The hair on the human skin A. testa

will stand erect when the person B. integument
is _____ C. ovule
D. ovary
A. in an air-conditioned room
B. strolling in the sun
C. taking a hot drink
D. doing strenuous exercise

21. When fertilization occurs that

leads to the formation of a
zygote, which of the following
processes take place?
23. An illustration of a human

A. the tail of the sperm fuses with male reproductive system is

the egg cell shown above. Which of the

B. both tail and head of the sperm labelled part can be cut to ensure

fuses with egg cell permanent sterility?

C. the nucleus of the sperm fuses

with egg cell A. I

D. the egg cell develops on its B. II

own without the sperm C. III

D. IV

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24. The brightly coloured petals C. transfer energy from
in some plants is an adaptive chlorophyll to other pigments
colouration for _____ D. prevent chlorophyll from
absorbing unnecessary light
A. feeding
B. pollination 27. The main raw material
C. dispersal required for photosynthesis are
D. shedding _____

25. Squirrels easily kill some A. oxygen and water

trees because _____ B. oxygen and carbon dioxide
C. oxygen and chlorophyll
A. they inject poisonous D. carbon dioxide and water
substances into the trees
B. most trees are susceptible to 28. What is the benefits of
squirrel bites thunder and lightning to farmers?
C. they feed voraciously on the
roots A. addition of nitrates to the soil
D. they gnaw the bark and B. aeration of the soil
destroy the phloem C. removal of harmful bacteria
from the soil
26. The major role played by D. addition of rain water to the
accessory pigments during soil
photosynthesis is to _____
29. Which of the following
A. add colours to plant but not to substances must be present in the
trap light energy soil for growth of a healthy green
B. trap light energy that plant?
chlorophyll cannot absorb

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A. amino acid A. sodium and iron
B. carbon B. iron and manganese
C. glucose salts C. calcium and phosphorus
D. magnesium ions D. magnesium and surphur

30. The purpose of proteins in the 33. The diagram above is an

diet of a mammal is to _____ illustration of an experimental
setup to test the action of yeast.
A. promote growth and repair What test would be used to
cells confirm the nature of the gas
B. break down molecules given off at I?
C. regulate the flow of chime
D. serve as co-factors for
enzymes

31. Excess carbohydrates can be

stored in the muscles in form of
_____

A. cellulose
B. glucogen
C. chitin A. insert a glowing splint
D. lipids B. pass the gas through lime
water
32. The bones of the legs of a six C. insert a piece of litmus paper
year old boy are observed to be D. smell the gas
weak and crooked. Which of the
following elements were deficient 34. Which of the following
in his mother’s diet at pregnancy? digestive enzymes would be

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greatly affected if the liver fails to A. proteins
produce bile? B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
A. amylase D. water
B. cellulose
C. lipase 37. A space containing a group of
D. protease interactive organisms is called
_____
35. The appropriate food to be
given to the child in the picture A. community
below is _____ B. habitat
C. ecosystem
D. population

38. The area around the earth

where life activities go on is
referred to as _____

A. biosphere
B. lithosphere
C. habitat
A. beans
D. ecosystem
B. garri
C. bread
39. The following are abiotic
D. avocado pear
components of the ecosystem
except _____.
36. Which of the following food
substances will have little or no
A. bacteria
calorific value?
B. topography

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C. water C. aquatic food web
D. wind D. aquatic food chain

40. Which of the following 42. How many food chains are in
instruments would be most the diagram?
appropriate in comparing the air
pressure at different places in a A. three
habitat? B. four
C. five
A. hygrometer D. six
B. barometer
C. photometer 43. Plants with breathing roots
D. air pressure disc are characteristic features of
vegetation in _____
Study the diagram below and
use it to answer questions 41 A. tropical grasslands
and 42. B. temperate grasslands
C. saltwater swamps
D. tropical rainforest

Study the diagram of the

zones of a marine habitat
below and use it to answer
questions 44 and 45.
41. The best title for the above
diagram is _____

A. terrestrial food web

B. terrestrial food chain

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 46. The use of water closet and
septic tanks is preferred to the
use of buckets and pit latrines
because _____

A. it is cost effective
B. contaminated faeces are
completely kept away from flies
C. the water for flushing contains
chlorine which kills germs

44. In which of the zones can D. it prevents flies from breeding

very few organism be found?

47. The detection of vibro

A. I cholerae in public drinking water

B. II is a sign of _____

C. III
D. IV A. clean water
B. outbreak of disease

45. Which of the following factors C. water pollution

exert a major effect on the D. decayed organism in water

distribution of living organisms in

the habitat? 48. Which of the following factors
will be less likely to act as a

A. salt density dependent limiting factor

B. pH in a population of mice?

C. light
D. rainfall A. build-up of waste products
B. predation
C. parasitism

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D. unfavourable climate GET YOUR ANSWERS

49. The primary cause of species

Would you like to get the correct
endangerment is _____
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C. acid rain
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D. exposure to hazardous waste

50. The following pairs of traits

are examples of continuous and
discontinuous variations
respectively except _____.

A. eye colour and body weight

B. height and blood group
C. skin colour and fingerprints
D. body weight and tongue rolling

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.4)

1. In which of the following levels A. IV

of classification are the members B. III
most similar? C. II
D. I
A. order
B. genus 4. Spirogyra is regarded as a
C. species multicellular plant because _____
D. phylum
A. the cylindrical cells are linked
Use the diagram below to end to end
answer questions 2 and 3. B. its cells are linked together by
cytoplasmic strands
C. its cells are large
D. it is an algae containing a large
vacuole

5. Which of the following pairs of

structures in living organisms do
not perform similar functions?
2. The diagram represents a
_____
A. lungs and spiracles
B. root hairs and mammalian hair
A. cell
C. feathers and scales
B. filament
D. contractile vacuoles and
C. colony
kidneys
D. part of a living organism

6. Which of the following

3. Pyrenoid is present in the
sequence is the correct
structure labelled _____
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arrangement of tissues in the 8. The opening of the guard cells
anatomy of a young of the epidermis in plants is by
dicotyledonous stem from the the process of _____
inside to the outside?
A. osmosis
A. pith, phloem, cambium, xylem, B. diffusion
parenchyma, collenchyma and C. active transport
epidermis D. transpiration
B. xylem, phloem, cambium,
cortex, endodermis, collenchymas 9. What happens to a plant if the
and epidermis shoot tip is cut off and replaced
C. pith, xylem, cambium, phloem, by an agar block containing
collenchyma, parenchyma and auxin? It will _____
epidermis
D. phloem, xylem, cambium, A. stop growing
cortex, endodermis, collenchyma B. grow rapidly
ad epidermis C. continue to grow normally
D. die completely
7. An animal which possesses
scale, nares and backbone is 10. Anaerobic respiration results
likely to be a _____ in the production of a _____

A. toad A. more energy than aerobic

B. lizard respiration
C. rat B. no energy
D. bat C. an equal amount of energy to
aerobic respiration
D. less energy than aerobic
respiration

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11. Which of the following is not a B. lungs, mouth and eardrum
skeletal tissue? C. mouth, skin and gill
D. skin, lungs and mouth
A. plasma
B. chitin 14. Which of the following
C. cartilage structures is used for respiration
D. bone in insects?

12. Which of the following A. lungs

statement is not correct about the B. thorax
mammalian heart? C. cuticle
D. spiracle
A. oxygenated blood enters the
left auricle from the pulmonary 15. Which of the following
vein statements is correct about the
B. the walls of the ventricle are diaphragm of a mammal is not
thicker than those of the auricle correct? It _____
C. blood passes from the right
ventricle to the left auricle A. separates the thorax from the
through the aorta abdomen
D. the tricuspid value prevents B. is a thick layer of muscle
the back flow of blood in the right C. is made of epithelial cells
auricle D. is part of the human
respiratory apparatus
13. Which of the following organs
are used for gaseous exchange in 16. A substance represented in
a mature toad? the glomerular filtrate in the
mammalian kidney is _____
A. gills, lungs and eardrum

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A. glucose C. collecting duct
B. fibrinogen D. bowman’s capsule
C. albumen
D. blood platelets 20. Which of the following
condition would result in a
17. In humans, excretion of decrease in the production of
hypertonic urine is associated antidiuretic hormone?
with the _____
A. abnormally high blood sugar
A. distal convoluted tubule level
B. loop of Henle B. drinking large quantities of
C. Bowman’s capsule water
D. proximal convoluted tubule C. increase in osmotic pressure of
the blood
18. The maintenance of a stable D. period of strenuous exercise
internal environment within the
body of a mammal is known as 21. Which of the following
_____ structures is not essential in wind
pollinated flowers?
A. osmosis
B. plasmolysis A. anther
C. homeostasis B. ovary
D. excretion C. stigma
D. petal
19. Which part of the nephron is
associated with ultra-filtration? Study the diagram below and
use it to answer questions 22-
A. distal convoluted tubule 24.
B. proximal convoluted tubule

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 A. I
B. II
C. IV
D. V

25. The resolution of a

microscope refers to its power to
_____
22. Which part of the flower
produces the structure labelled A. increase an object’s apparent
III? size
B. distinguish clearly between two
A. carpel objects
B. pollen C. scan the surface of an object
C. stigma D. focus on an object
D. anther

26. The process by which plants

23. The parts labelled III and IV manufacture food from carbon
respectively are called _____ dioxide and water using energy
from the sun is called _____
A. pollen tube and style
B. pollen grain and pollen tube A. chemosynthesis
C. anther and filament B. photosynthesis
D. stigma and style C. anabolism
D. catabolism
24. Which of the labelled parts
will become a component of the 27. Conduction of water and
seed after fertilization? mineral salt through the xylem

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vessels is enhanced because the C. hexokinase
xylem cells are _____ D. glucose-6-kinase

A. thickened with lignin 30. The correct arrangement of

B. long, narrow tubes placed end food classes of the same quantity
to end in the order of magnitude of
C. close to the endodermis energy value in animals in
D. centrally placed in the roots descending order is _____

28. Which of the following factors A. carbohydrates, fats and oils,

is likely to increase the rate of water, proteins
transpiration in plant? B. fats and oils, carbohydrates,
protein, water
A. reduction in the number of C. water, fats and oils,
stomata per unit surface area carbohydrates and proteins
B. increase in humidity around D. proteins, fats and oils, water,
the leaves of plants carbohydrates
C. an increase in leaf surface area
to volume ratio 31. Which of the following
D. removal of leaves from plants substances is not a complex
carbohydrate?
29. The name of the enzyme that
catalyses the conversion of A. glycogen
glucose to glucose-6-phosphate at B. cellulose
the beginning of glycolysis is C. starch
_____ D. glucose

A. phospho-fructokinase
B. glucose isomerise

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32. Which of the following A. worms
association is an example of B. seed
epiphytism? C. nectar
D. fishes
A. lice in human hair
B. mistletoe on citrus fruits 35. Ecology simply means the
C. egret on cow study of _____
D. fern on palm tree
A. particular species of plants and
Study the diagram below animals
carefully and use them to B. the inter-relationship between
answer questions 33 and 34. organisms and their environment
C. the properties of a habitat
D. the inter-relationship between
plants and animals

36. The maximum size of a

population that a given area can
support is known as _____
33. What is the likely food of the
bird in I? A. population density
B. carrying capacity
A. worms C. population growth
B. seed D. maximum population
C. nectar
D. fishes 37. The producers in a food chain
in an aquatic environment are
34. The food of the bird in II is _____
_____

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A. birds A. comparing living and non-living
B. phytoplankons things
C. zooplanktons B. measuring productivity
D. fishes C. conducting census
D. labelling the living organisms
38. The frog is considered a
better swimmer than the toad 41. The main reason for
because it _____ immunizing children is to _____

A. has more pronounced webbed A. destroy pathogens in their

digits bodies
B. has much longer and stronger B. increase the production of
hind limbs white blood cells
C. lives in water most of the time C. stimulate the production of
D. is more streamlined than the antibodies
toad D. stimulate the production of
antigens
39. The bacteria that reduces
nitrates in the soil into gaseous 42. Rhizobium which lives in the
nitrogen are referred to as root nodules of leguminous plants
______ is an example of the association
known as _____
A. nitrifying bacteria
B. denitrifying bacteria A. commensalism
C. putrefying bacteria B. epiphytism
D. saprophytic bacteria C. mutualism
D. saprophytism
40. A pyramid of numbers is
constructed by _____

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43. Ascaris lumbricoides is a A. attraction of tourists into the
parasitic _____ country
B. serving as a source of food
A. flatworm C. serving as a source of income
B. roundworm D. increasing the amount of
C. arthropod rainfall
D. elastic worm
47. Which of the following human
44. The following organisms are activities would help prevent
pests of plants except _____ endangered species from
extinction?
A. birds
B. nematodes A. uncontrolled killing of the
C. bacteria species
D. rodents B. regular clearing of the forest
vegetation
45. The absence of alimentary C. temporary maintenance of the
canal in the parasitic flatworm can species in zoological gardens
be attributed to the fact that D. regular irritation of their
_____ natural habitat

A. its body does not feed 48. In genetics, linkages refer to

B. it has no enzymes the linking of genes of the _____
C. its body absorbs digested food
D. it has suckers on the scolex A. same chromosomes
B. different chromosomes
46. Which of the following C. same nucleus
statement is not a reason for D. different nuclei
conserving wildlife?

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49. A man’s blood group is AB. GET YOUR ANSWERS
What is the probability of the man
giving birth to a child with blood
Would you like to get the correct
group O?
answers to these questions &
also join our special WAEC
A. 0%
Biology practice group online?
B. 25%
C. 50%
To Get & Join NOW!
D. 100%

50. When a man who is Rh-

positive marries a woman who is
Rh-negative, there will be an
incidence of _____

A. stillbirth
B. sicklers
C. albinos
D. living children

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.5)

1. The excretory product of A. substances from a region of

protozoans is _____ higher concentration to a region
of lower concentration
A. amino acids B. substances from a region of
B. uric acids lower concentration to a region of
C. ammonia higher concentration across a
D. urea living cell membrane
C. substances across a living cell
2. Which of the following is a membrane using energy from the
living organism? cell
D. movement of molecules in a
A. muscle medium
B. nucleus
C. yeast 5. Which of the following cell
D. mitochondrion inclusion can destroy other cell
organelles?
3. Which of the following
organisms is the most A. centriole
specialised? B. ribosome
C. lysosome
A. paramecium D. mitochondrion
B. amoeba
C. spirogyra 6. In which of the following yam
D. rhizopus tissue will osmosis occur?

4. Active transport can be defined A. boiled and peeled

as the movement of _____ B. raw and peeled
C. boiled and unpeeled

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D. roasted and peeled The correct sequence of the
events is _____
7. The line XZ in the diagram
below represents an actual A. III, II, IV, I
distance of 10.0cm and the length B. II, III, I, IV
of the diagram is 5.0cm. What is C. II, I, III, IV
the magnification of the diagram? D. II, IV, I, III

9. Which of the following

statements about asexual
reproduction is correct? It _____

A. always involve one parent but

the offspring are genetically
different from the parent
B. may involve two parent but the
A. x0.2
offspring is always identical to one
B. x0.5
parent
C. x2.0
C. always involves one parent and
D. x50.0
the offspring are genetically
identical to the parent
8. The following events occur
D. involves two parents but the
during mitosis in a cell:
offspring are not genetically
identical to any of the parents
I. Chromatids separate
II. Chromosomes become visible
III. Chromosomes align at the The diagram below is an
equator illustration of the mammalian
IV. Cytoplasm divides (cytokinesis) bone. Use it to answer
questions 10 and 11.

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 12. Which of the following is not a
function of the mammalian skin?

A. regulation of body temperature

B. reception of external stimuli
C. excretion
D. gaseous exchange

13. The legs of an accident victim

with a fractured vertebra column
and injured spinal cord could not
10. The bone illustrated above is
be raised because _____
the _____

A. impulses from receptors in the

A. femur
legs cannot travel to the brain
B. humerus
B. impulses from the brain cannot
C. radius
travel to the legs
D. ulna
C. chemical substances will be
released at synapses in the
11. The function of the part
central nervous system
labelled I is to _____
D. reflex actions cannot take
place in the legs
A. fit into the glenoid cavity of the
scapula
14. Which of the following
B. fit into the acetabulum of the
conditions in flowering plants
pelvic girdle
enhances self-pollination?
C. support the lower arm
D. prevent the arm from bending
A. cleistogamy
backwards
B. heterostyly

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C. protandry 16. The diagram above is an
D. protogyny illustration of _____

15. The diagram below illustrates A. normal sight

the left side if the human B. short-sightedness
cerebrum. The part labelled X C. correction of long-sightedness
controls _____ D. correction of short-sightedness

17. The inability to make proper

balance of the body in humans
may be due to the defect in the
_____

A. cochlea
B. Eustachian tube
C. semi-circular canals
A. general memory D. oval window
B. speech
C. sight 18. The following substances pass
D. respiratory functions into the blood of the foetus from
the mother’s blood via the
Use the diagram below to placenta except _____
answer question 16 only.
A. carbon dioxide
B. glucose
C. viruses
D. antibodies

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19. An inferior ovary of a flower is 22. The purpose of treating poor
situated _____ soils with lime is to increase the
quantity of _____
A. below the floral parts
B. above the floral parts A. nitrogen
C. at the same level with all the B. phosphorous
floral parts C. calcium
D. at the centre of the floral parts D. sulphur

20. Older parts of plants’ roots do 23. A meal consisting of yam and
not normally absorb water a lot of vegetables is not balanced
because _____ because it does not contain _____

A. they lack xylem A. carbohydrates

B. they have small surface area B. proteins
C. the phloem is dead C. vitamins
D. they lack root hairs D. minerals

21. The amount of starch in a 24. In a Biuret test, some protein

germinating seed decreases was mixed with sodium hydroxide
because the starch is used up solution. Which of the following
_____ chemicals should be added to the
mixture for a positive result?
A. for respiration and building up
of cells A. mercurous nitrate
B. to build cellulose cell walls B. copper sulphate
C. to develop meristemic tissues C. sodium carbonate
D. for the production of enzymes D. silver nitrate

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25. A characteristic feature of A. mangrove swamp
plant parasite is _____ B. sahel savanna
C. savanna grassland
A. possession of holdfast D. temperate grassland
B. possession of rhizoids
C. development of hanging roots 29. The difference between a
D. development of haustoria community and a population is
_____
26. The part of a leguminous
plants where bacteria like A. a community is made up of
Azotobacter can be found is organisms of the same species
_____ while a population is made up of
organisms of different species
A. at the nodes of the stem B. a community is made up of
B. at the internodes populations of living organisms
C. in the root nodules while a population is made up of
D. in the spongy mesophyll organisms of the same species
C. an ecological niche does not
27. The following adaptations are exist in the community but it does
associated with the flight of birds in a population
except _____ D. a community attracts
competition but a population does
A. reduced body weight not
B. streamlined shape
C. presence of powerful muscles 30. Which of the following
D. clawed digits statements about the circulation
of water in nature is not correct?
28. The following habitats can be Water _____
found in West Africa except ____

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A. constantly evaporates from 32. The instrument is used to
seas, rivers, lakes and soil measure the _____
B. vapour rises, cools, condenses
and precipitates as rain and dew A. direction of wind
C removed from oceans is B. speed of wind
permanently lost C. air pressure in a habitat
D. is lost in plants by D. turbidity of water
transpiration and decay
33. The following organisms are
The diagram below illustrates consumers except _____
an ecological instrument. Use
it to answer questions 31-32. A. earthworm
B. spirogyra
C. bacteria
D. rhizopus

Use the substances listed

below to answer questions 34
and 35.

I. Fertilizer
II. Insecticides
III. Sewage
31. The instrument is _____ IV. Crude oil
V. Sulphur dioxide
A. an anemometer
B. a hygrometer 34. The atmosphere can be
C. a barometer polluted by _____
D. a wind vane

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A. I only A. water
B. III only B. coal
C. IV only C. forest
D. II and V only D. air

35. Which of the substances 38. Which of the following

constitute domestic waste? statements is not a reason for
banning bush burning? It _____
A. I only
B. III only A. allows for quick regrowth of
C. IV only grasses
D. II and V only B. kills soil microorganisms
C. leaves the soil bare of
36. The table below shows the vegetation
oxygen level, number of green D. burns off organic soil nutrients
plants and fishes in rivers flowing
through four towns. Which of the 39. Which of the statements
towns is likely to be discharging below explains why fertilizers are
untreated sewage in the river? added to soil?

Town Oxygen Green Fish A. increasing the humus content

level plants of the soil
A. High Few Many B. improving the water-retaining
B. Low Many Many property of the soil
C. High Few Few C. increasing the nutrient level of
D. Low Many Few the soil
D. preventing soil erosion

37. Which of the following natural

resources is non-renewable?

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40. Characteristics that exhibits 43. Which of the following
continuous variation are statements about chromosomes is
genetically controlled by _____ correct?

A. a single gene A. all the chromosomes of a

B. recessive genes species are the same in shape
C. epistatic interaction B. the number present in a
D. multiple genes species is constant
C. they are neatly arranged in
41. Differences in characteristics cytoplasm
that exist among individual of the D. they bear ribosomes in their
same species is referred to as outer membrane
_____
44. A small stem from a Hibiscus
A. genetics plant was placed in a nutrient
B. dominance medium, and it developed into a
C. hybrid plant. The new plant was
D. variation reproduced _____

42. Which of the following traits is A. asexually with a different

not a morphological variation in genotype from the parent plant
human? B. sexually with a different
genotype from the parent plant
A. ability to taste PTC C. asexually with the same
B. colour genotype as the parent plant
B. fingerprints D. sexually with the same
D. size genotype as the parent plant

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45. The F1 generation of a cross 48. The main reason of nuptial
between a red cock and white hen flight in termites is to _____
were all red because the gene for
the _____ A. escape unfavourable conditions
B. search for food
A. white colour did not segregate C. form new colonies
B. red colour was dominant D. communicate with one another
C. white colour was dominant
D. red colour was recessive 49. Which of the following
organism is not a social insect?
46. Which of the following
diseases can be inherited? A. termites
B. ants
A. pneumonia C. grasshoppers
B. AIDS D. bees
C. sickle cell anaemia
D. goitre 50. Lamarck’s theory of evolution
is based on the fact that _____
47. In dihybrid inheritance,
Mendel considered _____ A. organisms acquire genes from
their parents
A. a pair of contrasting characters B. organisms pass on acquired
B. two pairs of contrasting characters to their offspring
characters C. characteristics of organisms
C. three pairs of contrasting are determined by the creator
characters D. characteristics of organisms
D. four pairs of contrasting are not the sum of their parents’
characters characters

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.6)

1. Which of the organisms is not a 4. The following organisms have

protozoan? structures for movement except
_____
A. amoeba
B. ascaris A. amoeba
C. plasmodium B. spirogyra
D. paramecium C. volvox
D. paramecium
2. The structure of the cell
membrane is a _____ 5. Which of the following
statement about protoplasm of a
A. double layer and a double cell is not correct? It _____
protein layer
B. middle bi-layer of protein with A. is a gelatinous mass
lipid layer on either surface B. consist of cytoplasm and
C. middle bi-layer of lipid with a nucleus
protein layer on either surface C. is the liquid part of the nucleus
D. protein layer with two inner D. contain cellular organelles
lipid layers
6. When a spirogyra filament is
3. Which of the following cells is a placed in a concentrated salt
specialized cell? solution for 30 minutes, the cell
would become _____
A. amoeba
B. plasmodium A. plasmolysed
C. guard cell B. turgid
D. meristematic cell C. shortened
D. elongated

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The diagram below is an A. breath and sweat
illustration of a crocodile. Use B. breath and urine
it to answer questions 7-8. C. breath, urine and sweat
D. sweat and urine

10. Which of the following

features could be used to
determine the growth of a
seedling?

7. Which of the labelled part

A. number of flowers
enables the animal to stay under
B. number of leaves
water most of the time?
C. length of flowers
D. length of radicle
A. I, IV and V
B. I, II and V
The following diagrams show
C. I, III and IV
the sequence of events in cell
D. III, IV and V
division. Study the diagram
and answer question 11.
8. Two characteristic features of
the class to which the crocodile
belongs are labelled _____

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II and IV 11. In which of the following cells

D. II and V is the division likely to take place?

9. Water and salt are both lost A. sperm cell

from the human body in _____ B. blood cell

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C. muscle cell C. cervical vertebrae
D. uterine cell D. thoracic vertebrae

12. A plant that commonly 14. The function of the part I is to

undergoes vegetative propagation _____
by means of leaves is_____
A. provide support to the spinal
A. hibiscus cord
B. bryophylum B. provide surface for attachment
C. crotalaria of the muscle
D. spirogyra C. carry the spinal cord
D. articulate with adjacent
The diagram below illustrates vertebrae
a part of the mammalian
skeleton. Use it to answer 15. Blood pressure is higher in
questions 13 and 14. the arteries as a result of _____

A. stress
B. contraction and relaxation
C. blockage in the arteries
D. pressure of valves

16. A farmer who wants to keep

seeds for three years before
13. The part of the mammalian
planting and wants to prevent
skeleton illustrated in the diagram
them from sprouting out uses
is the _____
_____

A. atlas vertebrae
A. auxins
B. axis vertebrae
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B. gibberellins A. well differentiated sepals and
C. abscisin petals
D. cytokinin B. presence of fibrous root system
C. presence of narrow leaves
17. A person had an accident that D. floral parts are multiples of
affected the skull but not the nose three
and later lost the sense of smell.
The accident must have affected 20. The main difference between
the _____ a seed and a fruit is that a fruit
_____
A. nose by extension
B. olfactory lobes in the brain A. is large while a seed is small
C. passages from the nose to the B. has two scares while a seed
brain has one
D. part of the skull near the nose C. is pigmented while a seed is
not
18. Ability of the human eye to D. can be dispersed by animals
focus images accurately on the while a seed cannot
retina is called _____
21. Which of the following
A. astigmatism processes removes carbon (IV)
B. myopia oxide from the atmosphere?
C. adjustment
D. accommodation A. burning fuels
B. putrefaction
19. Which of the following C. photosynthesis
characteristic feature is not D. respiration in plants
associated with
monocotyledonous plants?

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A student used the following steps A. neutralize the sugar solution
in testing for non-reducing sugar. B. soften the sugar solution
C. change the colour of the sugar
I. added Benedict’s solution to the solution
sugar solution D. increase the acid content of
II. added diluted hydrochloric acid to the sugar solution
the sugar solution and boiled it
III. added sodium hydroxide solution
24. The colour change to be
to the solution in II and boiled
observed in step IV is _____
IV. added Benedict’s solution to the
solution in III
A. blue-black

Use the information above to B. brick red

answer questions 22 to 24. C. purple

D. violet

22. Why did the student add the

dilute hydrochloric acid to the 25. Which of the following organs

sugar solution in step II? To of the alimentary canal is not

_____ correctly matched with its

function?

A. oxidize the sugar solution

B. hydrolyse the sugar solution A. gall bladder – stores bile

C. dry the sugar solution B. liver – stores glycogen

D. increase the volume of the C. appendix – releases enzymes

sugar solution D. teeth – grind food

23. What is the importance of 26. A person suffering from

step II in the testing process? To obstruction of the bile is advised

_____ not to eat fats and oils because

_____

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A. bile digests fats and oils D. plants, decomposers and non-
B. fats and oil can only be living factors
absorbed when bile is absent
C. bile emulsifies fats and oil 29. The major problem
D. bile adds water to digesting experienced by organisms living
food in small water bodies is _____

27. A community reaches a A. drying up

climax when _____ B. oxygen deficiency
C. scarcity of food
A. only pioneer organisms are D. wave action
present
B. new habitats are constantly 30. The capillarity of a soil refers
being formed to _____
C. there is an introduction of new
plants and animals in the A. the particle size of the soil
community B. how easily water passes
D. the composition and size of a through the soil
community remains constant over C. how well water rises up in the
a long period soil
D. proportion of water a soil holds
28. Which of the following
component make up an 31. An organism at the start of a
ecosystem? food chain which provides the
A. decomposers, animals and total input of energy into an
non-living factors ecosystem is the _____
B. living and non-living factors
C. plants and non-living factors A. sun
B. producer

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C. consumer 33. The structure labelled I is
D. decomposer _____

Study the diagram below and A. a pitcher

use it to answer questions 32 B. an onion
to 34. C. a flower
D. a tendril

34. In which type of soil is the

plant found? Soil that is _____

A. poorly aerated
B. waterlogged
C. exposed
D. nitrogen deficient

35. Which of the following

organisms is an endo-parasite?

A. tapeworm
32. The mode of nutrition of the
B. flea
plant in the diagram is _____
C. tick
D. aphid
A. photosynthetic and
chemosynthetic
36. Oil applied to the surface of
B. saprophytic and carnivorous
water kills the larvae of
C. photosynthetic and carnivorous
mosquitoes through _____
D. chemosynthetic and
saprophytic
A. dehydration

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B. poisoning 40. Which of the following
C. starvation statements about human blood
D. suffocation group is not true?

37. Which of the following natural A. A is dominant over B

resources is most readily available B. O is recessive
to all organisms? C. B is dominant over O
D. A and B are co-dominant
A. oil
B. water 41. Which of the following traits is
C. air not inheritable? Ability to _____
D. food
A. taste PTC
38. Which of the following B. roll the tongue
resources is non-renewable? C. move the ear
D. roll the eyeball
A. forest reserve
B. mineral deposit 42. A woman with blood group A
C. water gives birth to a child with blood
D. wildlife group O. Which of the following
blood group cannot belong to the
39. Soil erosion could be father?
prevented by _____
A. A
A. flooding a farmland B. B
B. cover-cropping C. AB
C. deforestation D. O
D. leaving the soil bare

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43. How many chromosomes will B. black cat and spotted cat are
be in a gamete if the normal cell co-dominant
has four chromosomes? C. the gene for the spotted cat is
dominant over the gene for the
A. 2 black cat
B. 4 D. the genotype for F1 are
C. 6 homozygous dominant
D. 8
45. What are the genotypes of
Use the diagram below to the parents if the gene for skin
answer questions 44 and 45. colour is H?

Spotted Leopard Black Panther

A. HH hh
B. HH Hh
C. Hh Hh
D. Hh hh

46. According to Mendel’s first

law of inheritance, segregation of
genes occur when _____
44. Which of the following
statements about the cross is
A. tall plants are crossbred
correct?
B. short plants are crossbred
C. tall plants and short plants are
A. the gene for the spotted cat is
crossbred
recessive to the gene for the D. plants are crossbred
black cat

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47. Which of the statements 48. Which of the varieties is likely
about sex-linked characters is not to increase most in number if a
true? predatory fish is introduced in the
river?
A. they are usually borne on the
X-chromosome A. P
B. they are more common in B. Q
males C. R
C. males are usually carriers D. S
D. they are not usually carried on
the Y-chromosome 49. Which of the varieties is most
likely to outlive the other?
In explaining the term
camouflage, to a class, the A. P
diagram below showing four B. Q
varieties P, Q, R and S of the C. R
same species of fish living D. S
amongst water plants in a river
were used. 50. The variety selected in
question 49 will outlive the others
Use the diagram to answer because the _____
questions 48 to 50.
A. variety is the most beautiful
B. variety does not have markings
C. markings of the variety are
similar to those of the
environment
D. predator does not like eating
the variety

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 WAEC BIOLOGY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.5)

1. An example of an organism A. spleen

that exists as a colony is _____ B. adrenal gland
C. thyroid gland
A. Spirogyra D. pancreas
B. Paramecium
C. Euglena 5. Which of the following actions
D. Volvox is not a voluntary action?

2. Gymnosperms bear naked A. stealing

seeds because they lack _____ B. fighting
C. cheating
A. ovary D. sneezing
B. colourful flowers
C. pollen grains 6. Hydra is considered to be at a
D. stigma tissue level of organization of life
because it _____
3. DNA formation is associated
with _____ A. has numerous cells that
perform different functions
A. golgi bodies B. has developed organs and
B. lysosomes systems
C. mitochondria C. has poorly developed nervous
D. nucleus system
D. reproduces by budding
4. Which of the following organs
is responsible for the production 7. Which of the following parts of
of insulin? the ear does not contain
endolymph?

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A. Semi-circular canals 11. In artificial vegetation,
B. Utriculus individuals without desirable traits
C. Tympanum may be prevented from mating by
D. Sacculus _____

8. The function of the villi in the A. outbreeding

alimentary canal is to _____ B. sterilization
C. inbreeding
A. secrete gastric juice D. genetic engineering
B. curdle milk
C. emulsify fat 12. In a family of eight, all the
D. increase the surface area for children are girls. Which of the
absorption following reasons correctly
explains this?
9. Flaccidity in plants is
associated with _____ A. the woman cannot produce
male children
A. cessation of photosynthesis B. the man has low sperm count
B. wilting C. the Y component of the man’s
C. turgidity sex chromosome was always
D. discolouration of leaves involved
D. the X component of the man’s
10. The direction of wind is sex chromosome was always
determined by _____ involved

A. an anemometer 13. Which of the following is

B. a secchi disc correct about the structure of a
C. a wind vane chromosome? A chromosome
D. a barometer consist of _____

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A. two chromatids joined at the 16. The percentage probability
centromere that a normal male married to a
B. two chromatids joined at the carrier woman would have a
spindle haemophilic male child is _____
C. two chromatids threads joined
at the centrioles A. 35%
D. thread-like structures not B. 50%
joined together C. 75%
D. 100%
14. Mr. Andrew, his wife and child
belong to blood group A, B and O 17. The importance of courtship
respectively. The genotypes of in animals include the following
both parents are _____ except _____

A. IAIO and IBIB A. ensuring that the female

B. IAIA and IBIB chooses the right male species
C. IAIB and IAIO B. arousing both male and female
D. IAIO and IBIO partners
C. protection of territory
15. What could be the phenotypic D. to coincide with the ovulation
ratio of the offspring of a cross period and ensure fertilization
between a heterozygous dominant
parent and a double recessive 18. In evolution, analogous
parent? structures are significant because
they show _____
A. 1:2:1
B. 1:1 A. physiological diversity
C. 3:1 B. functional diversity
D. 2:1 C. genetic diversity

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D. structural diversity D. caused by mutation

19. Which of the following 22. Differences in the

statements reflects the characteristics observed between
mechanism of natural selection? individual of the same species is
known as _____
A. There are variations within
every species A. trait
B. Individuals of every species are B. phenotype
genetically identical C. mutation
C. No organism in a species dies D. variation
before sexual maturity
D. Organisms with selective 23. Which of the following
advantage are less likely to statements best describes protein
survive synthesis?

20. Which of the following A. DNA is directly involved in

animals exhibit territoriality? translation
B. translocation of the
A. Rabbit chromosomes exposes a new
B. Earthworm codon for base pairing and amino
C. Lizard acid
D. Toad C. each tRNA with a particular
anticodon always carries a
21. Acquired characters are ____ different protein in the process
D. one amino acid is always
A. received from parents carried by more than one tRNA
B. passed to offspring
C. caused by the environment

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24. If a person has two alleles of C. B
the sickle cell anaemia gene, the D. AB
person _____
27. Natural selection is a
A. is a heterozygous carrier of the consequence of _____
disease
B. is immune to the disease and A. distribution of organism
cannot pass it on an offspring B. adverse conditions
C. has the disease C. variation in organisms
D. is probably an Asian ancestry D. inbreeding

25. What is the probability of a 28. Which of the following

man of blood group AB married to components of Lamarck’s theory
a woman of blood group O of evolution is considered faulty?
producing a child of blood group
O? A. individuals of the same species
growing under different
A. 0% environmental conditions differ
B. 25% from each other
C. 50% B. use of certain organs result in
D. 75% the development of those parts
C. unused organs degenerate
26. A man with blood group IAIA D. changes that results in
is married to a woman of IAIO. The individuals of the same species
blood group of their son is likely are transmitted to offspring
to be _____
29. A vestigial structure in
A. A humans is _____
B. O

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A. earlobe 32. The classes of fingerprint in
B. toe bone man are _____
C. tail bone
D. spleen A. whorl, alternate, opposite and
compound
30. Adenine pairs with thymine B. compound, loop, whorl and
because _____ alternate
C. whorl, arch, compound and
A. the two occur in the same loop
nucleic acid D. arch, simple, compound and
B. one is a strong base and the opposite
other is a weak base
C. two purine bases easily pair up 33. Which of the following
D. one is a purine base and the diseases is transmittable through
other is a pyrimidine genes?

31. Which of the following A. HIV/AIDS

statements is true about ABO B. sickle cell anaemia
blood group system? C. diabetes
D. presbyopia
A. antigens are located on the
surface of white blood cells 34. Two plants with red flowers
B. antibodies are located in the were back crossed. Which of the
blood plasma following results indicate that the
C. antibodies are located on the plants are heterozygous red
surface of red blood cells flowers, where red flowers are
D. antigens are located in the dominant?
plasma
A. 75% red and 25% white

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B. 50% red and 50% white 37. Two yellow-flowered hybrid
C. 100% white plants each carrying a recessive
D. 100% red factor for flowers with green
colour were crossed. Which of
35. In the structure of DNA, the following ratios show the
which of the following statement correct proportion of offspring
is true? that have green flowers?

A. a double helix are held A. 2 in 2

together by covalent bond B. 1 in 3
B. nucleotide is made up of C. 1 in 4
ribose, phosphate and organic D. 1 in 5
nitrogen compound
C. guanine is the opposite of 38. What name is given to a
cytosine sudden change in gene or
D. adenine is the opposite of chromosome?
cytosine
A. allele
36. In a case of complete B. genotype
dominance, what is the C. mutation
phenotypic ratio of the cross Bb x D. phenotype
Bb; where B = black and b =
white? 39. Bees are of great importance
to farmers because they _____
A. 1 black : 1 grey : 2 whites
B. 1 black : 3 whites A. provide him with honey
C. 1 black : 2 blues : 1 white B. pollinate flowers
D. 3 blacks : 1 white C. sting crop pests to death

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D. destroy flowers by sucking A. expressed in females only
nectar from them B. defective
C. sex-linked
40. Which of the following D. expressed in males only
sequences is the correct
evolutionary trend in plant? 43. If a boy has blood type O and
his mother has blood type A, what
A. algae  liverworts  mosses is the genotype of his father?
 ferns
B. liverworts  mosses  ferns  A. BB
algae B. AA
C. mosses  algae  ferns  C. AO
liverworts D. AB
D. ferns  liverworts  mosses 
algae 44. A man who suffers from
haemophilia marries a woman
41. The genotypic ratio of the who is a carrier. What percentage
offspring of a hybrid is 1:2:1. of their children are likely to be
Which of the following laws haemophilic?
illustrates this ratio?
A. 25%
A. use and disuse B. 50%
B. dominance C. 75%
C. segregation D. 100%
D. linkage
45. Which of the following traits
42. A gene that is only located on may be considered in marriage
the X-chromosome is said to be counselling?
_____

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A. height D. adaptive colouration
B. fingerprint
C. rhesus factor 49. A scientist who was involved
D. colour of skin in the evolutionary theory was
_____
46. Which of the following
structures is only formed during A. Lamarck
cell division in animals? B. Mendel
C. Morgan
A. cell membrane D. Pasteur
B. cytoplasm
C. centrosome 50. Darwin noticed that
D. ribosome organisms in similar habitat
across the world looked alike. This
47. The function of the drone in a illustrates _____
colony of bees is to _____
A. convergent evolution
A. clean the cell B. adaptive radiation
B. mate with the queen C. co-evolution
C. protect the colony D. descent with modification
D. lay eggs

48. Which of the following

features is used by the chameleon
to escape predation?

A. fearsome appearance
B. coiling tail
C. offensive smell

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 DISCLAIMER
These are not WAEC expo questions for this

year, but past questions of previous years.

Study these past questions, know their correct

answers and how each answer was gotten to

better prepare for your WAEC Biology exam.

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