1. To find the time flow, it is required to determine the length of channel.

This can be done by

transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1.5 The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of
the rectangle, which is the:
a) square root of the square of width (W) plus half of W
b) square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c) square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d) 3.0 W

2. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will pass
through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed alignment at
an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m

3. A set of revised drawings shows a grade separation structure at railroad crossing with cross sections
of the railroad taken at 20 m interval and extended at least 50m from both sides of the centerline.
Does the 50m extension conform with survey/design requirements?
a) Yes, 50 m is in order
b) No, it should be 100 m both sides
c) No, it should be 200 m both sides
d) No, 100 m left side and 200 m right side

4. Depth of exploration for a highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special problems
should extend to a maximum depth of:
a) 1.0 m below bottom of subbase
b) 1.5 m below the proposed subgrade
c) 2.0 m below the proposed subgrade
d) 3.0 below the proposed subgrade

5. Gradients are categorized into four as listed below. Which of the following is also known as design
gradient?
a) minimum gradient
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient

6. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a) critical length of grade for design
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient

7. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the terms “BK” and
“AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say that:
a) BK means new survey stationing
b) AH means old survey stationing corrected
c) BK means old survey stationing corrected;
AH, new survey stationing
d) Both a and b
 8. The general principles of design of bridges depend on many factors. These may be broadly unified
under the following with the exception of:
a) Selection of site
b) Water discharge
c) Design of bridge
d) Bank protection

9. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design will
generally require:
a) Spread foundations
b) Raft foundations
c) Pile foundations
d) Caisson foundations

10. In general, the minimum concrete cover for primary reinforcement of concrete not exposed to
weather or in contact with the ground should be:
a) 25 mm
b) 38 mm
c) 51 mm
d) 76 mm

11. A given reinforced concrete girder may be subject at one time to positive span moments and at
another to negative span moments. To withstand both types of moments, the girder must be
designed such that tensile steel must be furnished at:
a) the top only
b) the bottom only
c) both the top and bottom
d) the support only

12. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods given below
with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method

13. For drainage mains and outfalls, the discharge should be computed by the use of:
a) Rational Formula
b) Talbot’s Formula
c) Manning Equation for Discharge
d) Synthetic Unit Hydrographs

14. The maximum spacing of manholes for circular conduits should be:
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 150 m

2
15. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the water surface
elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a) freeboard
b) headwater depth
c) tailwater depth
d) scour depth

16. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge of the
designed width should be:
a) 2.00 m
b) 3.00 m
c) 0.50 m
d) 1.00 m

17. Normally within how many hours can sawing of joints commence given that concrete has hardened
suffienciently?
a) 36
b) 72
c) 12
d) 24

18. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly set concrete
pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

19. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition and
saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

20. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:

a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

21. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

22. What will you do if there is evidence of discrepancies on the actual elevation from those shown in
the Plans?
a) Conduct Pre-construction Survey
b) Conduct Parcellary Survey
c) Conduct Geotechnical Survey
d) Conduct Boring Test
3
23. What is the difference between the Net Volume Suitable Materials Embankment and Net Volume of
Suitable Materials from Excavation?
a) Free haul volume
b) Overhaul volume
c) Unsuitable materials
d) Surplus materials

24. The water from the pavement surface is removed by providing which of the following to the
pavement?
a) weep hole
b) drain hole
c) cross drain
d) camber or cross slope

25. What is the method used in constructing an embankment over a low swampy ground that cannot
support the mass of truck loads and other hauling equipment?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

26. What do you call the portion of earth or base course materials left unleveled by a road grader during
longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

27. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching using cold
or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a) ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b) prevent pumping
c) minimize spalling
d) prevent faulting

28. In maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and shrubs should be
left uncut is:
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 400 mm

29. Vegetation control along highways should be undertaken from the outer edge of the shoulder to:
a) Outer edge of side ditch lined canal
b) Center of side ditch
c) Outer edge of shoulder only
d) Road-right-of-way limit

4
30. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m, that is built across or spanning a river or
waterway?
a) Bridge (any type)
b) Culvert (pipe or box)
c) Viaduct
d) chute

31. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to manual
dropping by not more than ________ and where no other special tools and means are used.
a) 3.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 1.5 m

32. Concrete Class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall maintain a slump
between:
a) 5 and 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm

33. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of how
many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

34. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone, other schemes
are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole

35. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments that have an
indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) plastering

36. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that should be
embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

5
37. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work starts, with
the exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) spurdiking

38. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson

39. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8 meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

40. Which of the following is not included in the exploration of foundation strata?
a) Driving test rods
b) Boring with auger
c) Drilling test hole
d) Nuclear density test

41. What is the usual measure undertaken to stop a river from changing its path?
a) shore protection works
b) river training works
c) bank seat
d) wing wall

42. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment of the
abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase road safety factor against
overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing

43. What is the allowable minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe?
a) 50 mm
b) 60 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 100 mm

44. Which of the following is not a result of river mouth improvement works?
a) Easier navigation
b) Ensuring easy maintenance in the future
c) Giving natural balance to the river
d) Fast river bed deposition

6
45. What do you call the limit of drainage of a river system?
a) Service area
b) Project area
c) Drainage area
d) Confluence area

46. What do you call the total covering area of a river system?
a) River basin
b) Drainage area
c) Service area
d) Flooded area

47. Which of the following factors does not affect the stability of an embankment?
a) Active earth pressure
b) Translatory slide
c) Lateral forces
d) Wind load

48. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or shortening of
the proposed structure. What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Issue Notice to Proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b) Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c) Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d) Recheck the as-staked plan

49. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:

a) Pick and shovel
b) Ripper
c) Road grader
d) Bulldozer

50. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway project and you found
out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by one meter. What should you do?
a) Accept the project as is
b) Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c) Install corresponding ogee
d) Reprimand the former Project Engineer

51. When the average thickness of the concrete pavement per lot is deficient by 5 mm, payment for the
lot should be:
a) 100 %
b) Adjusted to 95%
c) Adjusted to 90%
d) Adjusted to 85%

52. Soil will have greater strength if its particles are:

a) Uniformly graded
b) Well-graded
c) One-sized
d) Gap-graded

7
53. Clay can be made plastic by:
a) air-drying
b) adjusting its water content
c) Continuous rolling
d) pulverizing

54. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:

a) sieve analysis test
b) hydrometer test
c) plastic limit test
d) liquid limit test

55. During the curing period, the exposed surfaces of normal cement concrete should be kept
continuously moist for at least:
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

56. Ordinarily, what is the absolute volume of cement in a concrete mix?

a) 7 to 14 percent
b) 15 to 20 percent
c) 21 to 25 percent
d) 26 to 32 percent

57. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete pavement,
the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm ( 2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm ( 3 inches)

58. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all sets of
3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no individual
strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi

59. If 95% of a soil passes the No. 200 mm sieve, its particle size distribution is best determined by:
a) Hydrometer Analysis
b) Sieve Analysis
c) Combination of a and b
d) Atterberg Limit Test

60. In Item 200 – Aggregate Subbase Course, the fraction passing the 0.425 mm (No. 40) sieve should
have a liquid limit not greater than:
a) 25 %
b) 35 %
c) 40 %
d) 50 %

8
61. How many set/s of in-situ density tests is required in a 1500 square meter compacted aggregate
subbase course?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

62. When the grading test results of the three stockpiles are not in accordance with Item 201
requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a) replace the three stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials
b) blend the three stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the
specified grading
c) Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment will be effected
d) Increase the thickness of Item 201

63. A rehabilitation of asphalt pavement is undertaken by a District Office. Per approved program of
work, Item 201 was included in the pay items. However, during construction, the Materials
Engineer certified that the existing base course material is still of good quality. As project/resident
engineer, what is the best recommendation?
a) Remove and replace the existing base course material as required in the approved program of
work
b) Provide additional Item 201 materials for correction purposes and prepare corresponding
change order
c) Deduct from payment due to the contractor the corresponding amount equivalent to the total
volume of Item 201 that was not incorporated into the works
d) b and c

64. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 oC lower than the
required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident engineer of the
project, what decision should you take?
a) allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered
b) advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c) reject the delivered material
d) adjust the job-mix formula

65. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will have a high
degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression Stability Test
d) Plant-Mix Design

66. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the following
with the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too much coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

9
67. If permitted by the Engineer, additional water may be added to the batch concrete materials in
truck mixers for portland cement concrete pavements. Additional mixing may be performed to
increase the slump to meet the specified requirement provided that the water-cement ratio is not
exceeded and that the said operations are performed within ______minutes after the initial mixing
operation.

a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90

68. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in any one
location longer than:

a) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 30 seconds

69. The depth and width of weakened plane joints should not be more _______ and __________of
corrugations during brooming operation of a concrete pavement should not be more than:

a) 2.5 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively

b) 2.0 mm and 1.0 mm, respectively
c) 1.0 mm and 3.0 mm, respectively
d) 3.0 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively

70. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts, pipe
bedding, and gravity walls?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

71. What class of structural concrete is generally used for reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles,
cribbing and for filler in steel grid floors?

a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

72. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

73. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Riprap and grouted riprap
d) Stone masonry

10
74. Rock used in gabions shall consists of hard, durable rock pieces that will not deteriorate when
submerged in water or exposed to severe weather condition, and should be uniformly graded in
sizes ranging from:
a) 50 mm to 100 mm
b) 101 mm to 200 mm
c) 201 mm to 300 mm
d) 301 mm to 400 mm

75. In laying the stone components of Item 506 (Stone Masonry), the exposed faces of the individual
stones should be:
a) Perpendicular to the faces of the walls
b) Parallel to the faces of the walls
c) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 100 mm

76. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

77. Who has the full power and authority to supply to the contractor, during the progress of works,
additional plans and instructions?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

78. Who has the authority to reject questionable materials or suspend the work until it is refereed and
decided upon by the project engineer?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

79. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a) Dummy Activities
b) Float
c) Critical Path
d) End Event

80. Which of the following scheduling features does not describe the bar chart?
a) Shows start and end dates of activities
b) Indicates estimated duration of each activity
c) Allows comparison of actual and planned progress
d) Identifies activity relationship

81. In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction

11
82. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented), which
of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

83. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to monitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a) Normal water level
b) Maximum experienced flood level
c) Existing bank level
d) Headwall level

84. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a) seed money
b) progress payment
c) mobilization costs
d) representation costs

85. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

86. Concerning delayed project implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the contractor?
a) delayed preparation of contract documents
b) faulty construction method
c) defective construction equipment
d) undersized construction materials delivered

87. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

88. If a project is abandoned by the contractor due to peace and order problems, what recommendation
should immediately be submitted?
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Termination of Contract
c) Contract Suspension
d) Blacklisting of Contractor

89. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment of 95%
or more, which of the following is issued?
a) Final Inspection Certificate
b) Acceptance Certificate
c) Punch List
d) Turnover Certificate
12
90. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a) Bar Charts
b) Executive Summary
c) Weather Charts
d) Photographs

91. The procurement process for the opening of bids up to the award of contract shall not exceed:
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

92. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a project that is
awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above

93. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be entitled to
contract price escalation?
a) Less than 2 %
b) Less than 5 %
c) More than 5 %
d) Less than 3 %

94. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a) Delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for billing
b) Existing right-of-way problem
c) Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d) Adverse peace and order conditions

95. From the time of project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many calendar days is
required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150

96. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time duration
imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a) one month
b) two months
c) three months
d) four months

97. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:

a) There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in
the original contract
b) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract cost
c) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
13
 d) The introduction of new work necessary for the completion improvement or protection of the
project which was not included as Item of Work in the original contract

98. A variation orders may be in the form of the following except:

a) Extra Work Order
b) Change Order
c) Supplemental Agreement
d) None of the above

99. Which does not fall under the condition when a change order can be issued?
a)
The cumulative amount of the positive or additive V.O. does not exceed ten percent (10%) of
the original contract price
b) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the
original contract
d) There is reclassification of an existing item due to latent conditions which were not known at
the time of bidding

100. A change order may be issued when:

a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) The aggregate cost exceeds 25% of the original contract cost
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original contract
d) To cover any increase/decrease in quantities of original work items in the contract

1. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be
less than what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the
AASHTO method?
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 98%
d) 100%

2. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the
range of:
a) 0.2 – 0.5 1/m2
b) 0.2 – 0.7 1/m2
c) 0.15 – 0.7 1/m2
d) 0.15 – 0.5 1/m2

3. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:

a) Establish a smooth riding surface.
b) Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway.
c) Provide boundary line for the two lanes.
d) Plant grass for sodding.

4. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:

a) over saturation with water
b) optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c) dry soil
d) cold weather

14
5. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular
base, what liquid asphalt is applied?
a) seal coat
b) tack coat
c) prime coat
d) epoxy coat

6. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength
of all sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength
and when no individual strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550psi

7. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favorable temperature in concrete

is called:
a) consolidation
b) shrinkage
c) curing
d) evaporation

8. A supplemental agreement may be entered into when the aggregate amount of the
variation order:
a) exceeds 25 % but less than 100 % of the escalated original contract price
b) does not exceed 25 % of the escalated original contract price
c) exceeds 100 % of the escalated original contract price
d) is limited to 25 % of the escalated original contract price

9. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a

project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

10. How often can progress payment be requested by a contractor?

a) once a month
b) twice a month
c) as soon as an item of work is completed
d) as often as he desires

11. The Atterberg Limit Tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.
a) 4 (4.75 mm)
b) 16 (1.18 mm)
c) 40 (0.425 mm)
d) 200 (0.075 mm)

15
12. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:
a) Sieve Analysis Test
b) Hydrometer Test
c) Plastic Limit Test
d) Liquid Limit Test

13. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects
should be referred to?
a) Mean Sea Level
b) 10.47 m below mean Sea Level
c) 10.00 below mean Lower Low Water
d) Mean Lower Low Water

14. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road
that will pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made
on the proposed alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m

15. How many core samples should be taken for thickness determination of a 2-
kilometer, 2-lane concrete road pavement?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

16. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a
minimum thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

17. What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural Concrete
b) Prestressed Concrete
c) Riprap and Grouted Riprap
d) Stone Masonry

18. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:

a) blacklisted by the agency
b) required to pay liquidated damages
c) allowed to submit bids
d) disallowed to submit bids

16
19. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for tie bars of a PCCP?
a) plain square bars
b) plain round bars
c) deformed square bars
d) deformed round bars

20. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly
set concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

21. Proper storage of cement especially for big quantities stored at the jobsite must
satisfy the following requirement with the exception of:
a) flooring of warehouse should be well above the ground
b) cement sacks should be stacked close together
c) warehouse doors and windows should be closed except when cement is taken
out for use
d) warehouse should be located in an elevated place

22. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent
to P4.8 million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before the onset
of rainy months, which may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new
Project Engineer, what will you do?
a) risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b) suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize
gap as diversion channel
d) introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

23. What is the method of measurement for determining the depth of a river channel?
a) pacing
b) sounding
c) leveling
d) traversing

24. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?

a) channel improvement
b) dikes
c) spillways
d) reclamation

25. Which of the following is not a function of a groin?

a) it decreases the flow velocity
b) it regulates the flow direction
c) it stabilizes the mountain grade
d) it decreases the scouring effect

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26. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m., that is built across or
spanning a river or waterway?
a) bridge (any type)
b) culvert (pipe or box)
c) viaduct
d) chute

27. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?

a) drainage ditch
b) retaining wall
c) lateral Works
d) pier resting on piles

28. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a) river protection works
b) coastal protection works
c) slope protection works
d) erosion control works

29. In a CPM diagram, these are points in time representing the start or completion of
particular activities:
a) activities
b) connectors
c) events
d) dummies

30. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point in time that any event can
occur, and still be on schedule for the scheduled completion of a project?
a) early start
b) early finish
c) late start
d) late finish

31. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an

accomplishment of 95 % or more, which of the following is issued?
a) final inspection certificate
b) acceptance certificate
c) punch list
d) turnover certificate

32. The catch-up schedule reflects:

a) financial expenditures
b) accomplishment-duration relationship
c) the advance accomplishment
d) preliminary engineering activities

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33. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:
a) volume
b) weight
c) quantity
d) density

34. The amount withheld by the agency equivalent to 10 % of the amount due to a
contractor is referred to as:
a) seed money
b) withholding tax
c) retention money
d) contractor tax

35. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the
design will generally require:
a) spread foundations
b) raft foundations
c) pile foundations
d) caisson foundations

36. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and
compacted in ______ layer (s).
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) uniform

37. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and
history in the implementation of a project from start to completion?
a) Blue Book
b) History Book
c) Log Book
d) Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

38. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair
work starts, with the exception of:
a) earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

39. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non plastic, what Atterberg Limit test can be
performed?
a) Plastic Limit
b) Liquid Limit
c) Shrinkage Limit
d) Both a and b

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40. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following
criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) drainage facilities is well-maintained
b) location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) existing base course is stable
d) flood-prone road section

41. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:

a) a deductive distance
b) an additive (plus) distance
c) no increase in distance
d) the road length

42. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in
the quantities provided for in the original contract?
a) extra work order
b) change order
c) resume order
d) suspension order

43. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

44. The following reasons may cause the granting of contract time extension with the
exception of one:
a) exceptionally adverse climate conditions
b) excusable failure of contractor to provide equipment and manpower
c) causes beyond the control of contractor
d) causes of which government is not directly responsible

45. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

46. Which of the following documents is not necessary at the project site?
a) Bill of Quantities
b) Plans
c) General Specifications
d) Feasibility Study

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47. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?
a) pneumatic foundation
b) box caisson
c) open caisson
d) hydraulic caisson

48. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meters?
a) reinforced concrete slab
b) concrete plank deck
c) girder and slab superstructure
d) beam or plank bridge

49. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended
from the centerline of the bridge at least:
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream

50. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
c) service flow
d) highest 15 minute volume

51. Bearing s for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of the
following is not used to allow such movement?
a) expansion joints
b) rockers
c) sliding plates
d) rollers

52. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a) 15.24 / (L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum
b) 50 / (L+125)
c) 30 %
d) 50 %

53. Gravity loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not
included in this classification?
a) weight of all permanent components
b) architectural components
c) occupants, furnitures, etc.
d) wind load

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54. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods
given below with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method

55. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure?

a) reduction of peak flow by reservoirs
b) confinement of the flow by levees, floodwalls
c) flood plain management
d) highway drainage

56. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall
height must be at least 0.30 m above the super-elevated water surface for velocities
of 10 meter/second or less. This means that if the super-elevated water level is at
elevation 44.30 m., the top of the channel wall will be at least at elevation:
a) 44.0 m
b) 44.3 m
c) 44.6 m
d) 44.9 m

57. Since highways cross many natural drainage channels, provision of cross drainage
as given below is necessary. The one not falling under cross drainage is:
a) culverts
b) bridges
c) dips
d) ditches

58. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist
condition and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

59. What is the most appropriate filling material if you encounter unsuitable roadway
foundation?
a) fine aggregates
b) coarse aggregates
c) broken concrete
d) granular materials

60. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by
a truck mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not
exceed:
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes

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61. Concrete mix not in place within _____ minutes from the time ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a) 90
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15

62. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement
by providing additional and adequate thickness over it?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

63. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment,
etc. Which of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure
reliever on the structure?
a) cut-off wall
b) berm
c) weephole
d) gravel filter

64. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside
to make them denser and grow straight?
a) pruning
b) grafting
c) felling
d) budding

65. In patching works using cold mix (Emulsified Asphalt SS-1 Aggregate Mix), what
color of the mix indicates that it is ready for application?
a) dark brown
b) grayish
c) black
d) blue-white

66. The presence of excessive amount of sulfuric and alkalic materials in water used in
reinforced concrete construction will result to?
a) increase in volume of mix
b) early hardening of concrete
c) corrosion of steel reinforcement
d) whitening of finished surface of concrete

67. What can be done on corners of concrete hollow block walls where no reinforced
concrete column or wall stiffener is required/specified to join them?
a) chipping
b) interlocking
c) epoxy binding
d) bracing

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68. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?
a) embankment
b) approach
c) abutment
d) apron

69. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles
that should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

70. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a) spread footing
b) caisson
c) piles
d) bearing shelf

71. Which of the following is not categorized as a type of steel deck used on bridges?
a) steel jack arches
b) open panel
c) stiffened steel
d) close through panel

72. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction
from its location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm

73. Driving heads of piles are provided to:

a) ensure lateral support to the pile
b) provide a driving surface normal to the pile
c) avoid swaying
d) splice piles

74. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?

a) impervious fill
b) random fill
c) outlet protection works
d) distribution canal

75. Which of the following is not a component of an economic evaluation of flood control
projects?
a) determination of flood discharges
b) determination of estimated amount of damage
c) subsurface investigation
d) economic impact evaluation

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76. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:
a) sieve analysis
b) hydrometer analysis
c) shaking test
d) stripping test

77. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a) 0.5 meter long
b) 1.0 meter long
c) 1.5 meter long
d) 2.0 meter long
78. Under Item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry
aggregate should be between:
a) 4% to 8%
b) 5% to 8%
c) 3% to 5%
d) 5% to 7%

79. The Item No. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard
Specification is;
a) 200
b) 201
c) 310
d) 311

80. The depth of weakened plane joints should not be less than:
a) 45 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 75 mm

81. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be
composed of one part Portland Cement and:
a) 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b) 1” part fine aggregates by volume
c) 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d) 2” parts fine aggregates by volume

82. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut
to a depth of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

83. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the resident
engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
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 d) Contractor’s Engineer

84. Who assists the Project Engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field
operations?
a) Contractor’s Engineer
b) Project Inspector
c) Materials Engineer
d) Resident Engineer

85. The bar chart is also called a:

a) Precedence diagram
b) Gantt chart
c) CPM diagram
d) PERT chart

86. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

87. Which of the following is not a construction safety procedure?

a) The sides of deep excavations must be properly shored
b) All openings above ground level must be guarded
c) Operators and mechanics must be required to log-in when operating
equipment
d) Workers engaged in clearing must be protected from hazardous plants

88. How much percentage is withheld on the general items until the final acceptance of
the project?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

89. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by
the resident engineer thru:
a) logbook entry
b) progress billing deduction
c) inspection report
d) site instruction

90. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a

project with the exception of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

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91. Settlement of right-of-way problems should be done
a) during the construction work
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization

92. When will the Certificate of Final Inspection be issued?

a) after the supervision team has conducted final inspection
b) after the inter-bureau committee has conducted inspection
c) after the contractor has submitted the final completion request
d) after the one-year warranty period

93. If after fifty percent (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on
schedule no additional retention should be made otherwise the progress payment
should be imposed a retention rate of:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

94. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a) Density test
b) Core Boring test
c) California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test
d) Dynamic Cone Penetromenter test

95. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m.
How many Grading and Plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum
testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

96. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum
requirement) can still be used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the
following are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied during construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for a barangay road project
d) the foundation contains unsuitable materials

97. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by

an extra work is equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved
original contract. Up to what level of progress billing would you allow?
a) up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) up to the documented value not more than 65%

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98. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment
oriented), which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

99. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for sides of
concrete beams and girders, the minimum time before forms and supports are
removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

100. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the
cross-sectional area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a) Velocity-Area Method
b) Float Velocity Method
c) Direct Volumetric Method
d) Indirect Method

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