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TEST – 1
(TEST CODE: 201201)
QUESTION 1
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies
Q. Recently RBI has mandated risk officers for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). Consider the
following statements in this regard.
1. It is mandatory for all the shadow banks to appoint Chief Risk Officers (CROs) with clearly specified
roles and responsibilities.
2. Removal or transfer of CRO would not require the approval of the NBFC Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, RBI has issued a regulation making it mandatory for the all shadow banks with a size of
over ₹5,000 crore to appoint chief risk officers (CROs) with clearly specified roles and
responsibilities. Statement 1 is therefore incorrect, because not all, but only those NBFCs or shadow
banks with size of more than ₹5,000 crore need to appoint Chief Security Officer to augment the risk
management practices.

MORE ABOUT THE DEVELOPMENT:

 The CRO shall be a senior official in the hierarchy of an NBFC [non-banking finance company].
 He/she shall possess adequate professional qualification/ experience in the area of risk
management.
 Removal or transfer will need the NBFC board’s approval and has to be reported to the regulator.
Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
 The CRO shall have direct reporting lines to the Managing Director (MD) & CEO or the Risk
Management Committee (RMC) of the Board.
 In case the CRO reports to the MD & CEO, the Risk Management Committee of the NBFC Board shall
meet the CRO without the presence of the MD & CEO, at least on a quarterly basis.

RATIONALE BEHIND THIS MOVE:

 RBI's directive comes at a time when India's shadow banks are facing a funding crisis as some of the
firms are burdened with over-leveraging and mismatch between assets and liabilities.
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 With the increasing role of NBFCs in direct credit intermediation, there is a need for NBFCs to
augment risk management practices.

WHAT IS A SHADOW BANKING?

 The term refers to the practice of banking like activities performed by non-banking finance
companies, which are not subject to strict regulation.
 However, these institutions function as intermediaries between the investors and the borrowers,
providing credit and generating liquidity in the system.
 Although these entities do not accept traditional demand deposits offered by banks, they do
provide services similar to what commercial banks offer.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]

2. The Economic Times dated May 16th, 2019

Link: [Link]
appoint-credit-risk-officer/articleshow/[Link]

QUESTION 2
DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices

Q. ‘Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision 2019 – 2021’ was sometimes seen in news. Which
of the following statements about it is/are correct?
1. It is published by Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. The theme of this publication is: ‘Empowering Exceptional E-payment Experience’.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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Recently, on 15th May 2019, RBI released its vision document titled - ‘Payment and Settlement Systems
in India: Vision 2019 – 2021’. Hence statement 1 is correct.

CORE THEME OF THE DOCUMENT: ‘Empowering Exceptional (E)payment Experience’. Hence

statement 2 is also correct.

OBJECTIVE ENSHRINED IN THE DOCUMENT:

 It aims at empowering every Indian with access to a bouquet of e-payment options that is safe,
secure, convenient, quick and affordable.
 It envisages to achieve a ‘highly digital’ and ‘cash-lite’ society through the goal posts of Competition,
Cost effectiveness, Convenience and Confidence (4Cs).

OTHER SALIENT FEATURES OF THE VISION DOCUMENT:

 The Payment Systems Vision 2021 has been formalised based on inputs from various stakeholders
and guidance of the Board for Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS).
 With concerted efforts and involvement of all stake holders, the Payment Systems Vision 2021, with
its 36 specific action points and 12 specific outcomes, aspires to:
(a) Enhance customer experience, including robust grievance redressal
(b) Empower Payment System Operators and Service Providers
(c) Enable the payments eco-system and infrastructure
(d) Put in place forward-looking regulations
(e) Undertake risk-focused supervision.
 The ‘no-compromise’ approach towards safety and security of payment systems remains a
hallmark of the Vision.
 The Reserve Bank of India will implement the approach outlined in this Vision during the period
2019 – 2021. The previous Vision document covered the period 2016-2018.

The payment systems landscape will continue to change with further innovation and entry of more
players which is expected to ensure optimal cost to the customers and freer access to multiple payment
system options.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu Business Line dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]
transactions/[Link]
2. RBI Website
Links: [Link]

QUESTION 3
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) that was
seen in news sometimes:

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1. It is a law enforcement agency and economic intelligence agency, primarily responsible for enforcing
economic laws and fighting economic crime in India.
2. It works under Central Board of indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Only statement 2 is correct because there is a JUMLAA in statement 1. Statement 1 is describing about
the Enforcement Directorate and not Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI).

Recent Context:

Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) busted a network operating across India, China,
Pakistan and Myanmar that had been engaged in smuggling high-end drones.

Now, UPSC won’t ask you what all items were seized and what is their worth. Rather certain static
questions based in DRI may be asked, so let us revise some important facts about Directorate of
Revenue Intelligence.

ABOUT DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE INTELLIGENCE:

 The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. Statement 1 is
therefore incorrect, because it is referring to Enforcement Directorate (ED). While the ED is
entrusted with the responsibility of enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crimes in India,
DRI on the other hand is primarily concerned with the anti-smuggling operations.
 It is working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance,
Government of India. Statement 2 is therefore correct.
 It is tasked with detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit
international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial
frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty.
 DRI enforces provisions of the Customs Act in addition to over 50 other statutes including the NDPS
Act, Arms Act, WMD Act etc.
 DRI is also a part of the Cabinet Secretariat's National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention,
the Special Investigation Team on Black Money, the Task Force on Shell Companies, the Multi
Agency Center (MAC) on National Security, the Ministry of Home Affairs/NIA's special wings on
Left Wing Extremism Financing, as well as various inter-ministerial committees on Terror Financing,
Coastal Security, Fake Indian Currency Notes, etc.
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 Though its early days were committed to combating the smuggling of gold, it now also addresses
narcotics and economic crimes.
 DRI routinely makes fake Indian currency note seizures.
 In the last 5 years, the DRI has seized more than 540 kg of heroin and 7,409 kg of ephedrine along
with other narcotics and psychotropic substances.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
network/[Link]

QUESTION 4
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Asian Summer Monsoon:

1. The rainfall from the Asian Summer Monsoon has been declining over the past 80 years.
2. Tree Ring records can help in reconstructing the chronological record of the monsoon with a great
accuracy.
3. The decline in the rainfall from Asian Summer Monsoon coincides with the boom in industrial
development in Asia.
4. Sulphate aerosols have been identified as the major cause for the decline in the rainfall from Asian
Summer Monsoon.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All given statements are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
All the given statements are correct. Let us understand the recent context of this question and also
some important facts needed to answer this question correctly.

Recent Context:

Recently a study conducted by University of Arizona in US has revealed that rainfall from the Asian
summer monsoon, which influences water availability, ecosystems and agriculture in India, has been
decreasing over the past 80 years.
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Statement 1 is therefore correct.

METHODOLOGY OF THE STUDY:

 The study, used tree ring records to reconstruct the Asian summer monsoon back to 1566. The
researchers were able to gather nearly 450 years’ worth of tree ring data with clear annual resolution
from an area where tree ring growth correlates very strongly with rainfall. Hence statement 2 is
also correct.
 In wetter years, trees tend to grow thicker rings and precipitation records can be gleaned by
measuring the thickness and density of the individual layers.
 One of the primary advantages of using tree rings to study precipitation is the annual resolution
and the exact dating. This again validates the correctness of statement 2.
 The tree rings captured drought periods such as the one that struck in 1928 and 1929 that led to
widespread famine where more than 500,000 people died in China alone.
 The findings were also cross-checked with Chinese historical records of locust plagues, which tend
to occur in drought years, as well as previously published tree ring chronologies.
 The new study found that the 80-year declining rainfall trend is unprecedented in the last 450
years, with more thin growth rings in the last 80 years than any other period.
 Prior to the 1940s, drought periods tended to be intermittent and shorter in duration with no other
decades-long declines since 1566.
 Several factors are thought to affect the strength of the Asian Summer Monsoon, including solar
variability, volcanic eruptions and anthropogenic aerosols.
 The researchers used climate models to show sulphate aerosols — atmospheric pollutants that
cause haze — are likely the dominant forcing agent controlling the decline of the Asian Summer
Monsoon over the past 80 years. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

MORE ABOUT THE STUDY:

 The study found that the monsoon has been weakening since the 1940s, resulting in regional
droughts and hardships.

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 The researchers have identified that the man-made atmospheric pollutants are likely the reason
for the decline – which was unprecedented in the last 448 years.
 The 80-year decline in the monsoon coincides with the ongoing boom in industrial development
and aerosol emissions in China and the northern hemisphere that began around the end of World
War II, according to the study. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.

IMPACT OF THE DECLINING MONSOON RAINFALL:

 Nearly half of the world’s population is affected by the Asian summer monsoon, which dumps the
majority of the continent’s rainfall in a few short, torrential months.
 Summer rainfall has been declining in recent decades, influencing water availability, ecosystems
and agriculture from India to Siberia.
 These trends have serious ramifications not just for the people in Asia but also for the entire world.
FODDER FOR MAINS:
Fodder Type: Statistics
 Recently a study conducted by University of Arizona in US has revealed that rainfall from the Asian
summer monsoon, which influences water availability, ecosystems and agriculture in India, has been
decreasing over the past 80 years.
 The 80-year decline in the monsoon coincides with the ongoing boom in industrial development
and aerosol emissions in China and the northern hemisphere that began around the end of World
War II, according to the study.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
weakening-unprecedented-study/[Link]

QUESTION 5
DOMAIN: International Treaties, Declarations and Protocols

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Communications Compatibility and Security

Agreement (COMCASA), which was often seen in news:
1. It is an India-specific version of the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of
Agreement (CISMOA).
2. It is a part of the foundational agreements that USA signs with its allies and close partners to facilitate
interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology.
3. It came into force in the year 2016.
4. It gives access, to both countries (India & USA), to designated military facilities on either side for the
purpose of refuelling and replenishment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only

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(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, on the side-lines of the Asia Pacific naval and maritime event, International Maritime
Defence Exhibition (IMDEX), John Richardson (the US Navy, chief of naval operations) remarked that
COMCASA Agreement between India and USA will help both the countries to exchange critical
information that will help them fight against terrorism.

WHAT IS COMCASA?
 COMCASA stands for Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement.
 It is one of the four foundational agreements that the U.S. signs with allies and close partners to
facilitate interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology. Hence statement 2
is correct.
 COMCASA is an India-specific version of the Communication and Information on Security
Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). Therefore statement 1 is correct.
 It came into force on September 6th, 2018 - immediately after India and USA signed this agreement.
 It shall be valid for a period 10 years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

SIGNIFICANCE OF COMCASA FOR INDIA

 It will allow India to procure transfer specialised equipment for encrypted communications for US
origin military platforms like the C-17, C-130 and P-8Is.
 It would facilitate access to advanced defence systems and enable India to optimally utilize its
existing U.S.-origin platforms.
 Statement 4 is therefore incorrect. The JUMLAA in statement 4 is that it is trying to confuse the
aspirants by mentioning the objective of LEMOA and not COMCASA.
 LEMOA is another foundational agreement that USA signs with its allies and close partners to
facilitate interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology. We shall be explaining
LEMOA in the upcoming sections of this answer.

DOES IT COMPROMISE THE SOVEREIGNTY AND SECURITY OF INDIA?

 Not likely. Specific additional provisions have been incorporated in the text to safeguard our security
and national interests.

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 The US. Data acquired through such systems cannot be disclosed or transferred to any person or
entity without India’s consent.
 Both countries will implement this agreement in a manner that is consistent with the national
security interests of the other.

WHAT ARE THE OTHER FOUR FOUNDATIONAL AGREEMENTS THAT THE USA SIGNS WITH ITS ALLIES
AND ITS CLOSE PARTNERS?
 In addition to Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA),
there are 3 other agreements:
1. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) which India had signed in 2002.
2. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) which India had signed in 2016.
3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA) India is yet to
sign this agreement.

Significance of Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA:

 LEMOA gives access, to both countries, to designated military facilities on either side for the
purpose of refuelling and replenishment. The JUMLAA of statement 4.
 India and the U.S. already hold large number of joint exercises during which payments are done each
time, which is a long and tedious process.
 Under this agreement, a mechanism has been instituted for book-keeping and payments and
officials, who will act as nodal points of contact, will be designated on both sides. Thus, streamlining
the process.
 The agreement will primarily cover four areas — port calls, joint exercises, training and
Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief.
 Any other requirement has to be agreed upon by both sides on a case-by-case basis.

Apprehensions against LEMOA:

 Many believe that LEMOA will allow USA to use Indian Soil to base its military troops.
 However, LEMOA is not a basing agreement.
 There will be no basing of the U.S. troops or assets on Indian soil.
 This is purely a logistical agreement. India can access the string of U.S. facilities across the globe for
logistical support and the U.S., which operates in a big way in Asia-Pacific, will benefit from Indian
facilities.

Significance of General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA):

 It allows the sharing of classified information from the U.S. government and American companies
with the Government of India and Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSU) but not with Indian
private companies.
 It helps to develop defence services of both the countries.

Significance of Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA):

 It would provide India with topographical and aeronautical data and products, which will aid
navigation and targeting.

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Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: International Treaties, International Declarations, International Protocols
 The four foundational agreements mentioned below can be quoted in various answers to
substantiate the strategic tis between India and USA. Alternately it can also be quoted in answers to
substantiate India’s efforts to strengthen its military partnership.
a. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
b. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA
c. Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA)
d. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA)

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
to-fight-terror-says-us-admiral/[Link]

2. The Hindu dated September 6th, 2018

 Link: [Link]

3. The Hindu dated August 30th, 2018

 Link: [Link]

QUESTION 6
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. In context of Parliament of India, which of the following best describes the term ‘casual vacancy’?
(a) It refers to a situation when a Member of Parliament is on a casual leave and is unable to discharge
his/her parliamentary obligations.
(b) It refers to a situation when a member of Parliament is unable to discharge his/her Parliamentary
obligations on account of being suspended from the house by the speaker or chairman on the grounds
of indiscipline.
(c) It refers to a situation in which a Parliamentary seat becomes vacant during its term on account of
death, resignation or disqualification of the sitting member, or for other reasons.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

The term ‘casual vacancy’ was in news due to the 17th Lok Sabha Elections being conducted this year.

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What does casual vacancy mean?

 When the seat of a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly or a
State Legislative Council becomes vacant, or when his or her election is declared void, the
constituency from where the member was elected can vote for another person to fill up the vacancy.
 Such a vacancy is referred to as ‘Casual Vacancy’
 If the vacancy is in a seat reserved for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, the person to fill that
seat must also belong to a Scheduled Caste or Tribe, as the case may be.
 A by-election to fill up such a vacancy should be held within a period of six months from the date of
the occurrence of the vacancy.
 Hence all other options except option C are incorrect and our correct answer is option C.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
mean/[Link]

QUESTION 7
DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions

Q. Consider the following statements in context of ‘Christchurch Call to Action Summit’ which was in
news recently:
1. It is a political summit initiated by New Zealand.
2. It is aimed at stopping abuse of the Internet by extremists.
3. It concluded with ‘Christchurch Call to Action’ – which is a non-binding agreement on the signatories.
4. France has refrained from signing the agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) All statements are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
The first thing to be noted here is that the question has asked for the incorrect statements. Hence the
correct option will consist of the statements which are incorrect.
And a spoiler alert – at least one of the statements is incorrect and therefore option D can also not be
our answer.

Recent Context:

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WHAT IS ‘CHRISTCHURCH CALL TO ACTION’ Summit?

 The Christchurch Call to Action Summit (also called the Christchurch Call), is a political summit
initiated by New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Ardern following the Christchurch mosque
shootings of 15 March 2019. Statement 1 is therefore correct.
 The summit took place in Paris on 15 May 2019.
 It was Co-chaired by Prime Minister of New Zealand Jacinda Ardern and President Emmanuel
Macron of France. Hence, statement 3 cannot be correct because France co-hosted the Summit and
therefore it is unlikely that it refrained from signing the agreement.

OBJECTIVE OF THE SUMMIT:

 It aims to "bring together countries and tech companies in an attempt to bring to an end “the ability
to use social media to organise and promote terrorism and violent extremism".
 The World leaders and technology companies pledged to "eliminate terrorist and violent extremist
content online"
 17 countries signed the non-binding agreement – referred to as “Christchurch Call to Action.
 The pledge/agreement consists of three sections or commitments: one for governments, one for
online service providers, and one for the ways in which the two can work together.
 India is also a signatory to this agreement.
 Online Service Providers like – Amazon, Microsoft, Dailymotion, Qwant, Facebook, Twitter, Google
and YouTube are also the signatories of the agreement.

USA did not participate?

 The United States declined to attend the summit, expressing concerns that US compliance with the
agreement could create conflicts with free-speech protections in the country's Constitution.
 The United States however did support the summit's "overarching message" and "endorsed its
overall goals.
 Although, the document stresses on the need to ensure that it does not impinge upon the rights of
free speech of citizens of any country. Yet, USA has refrained from being a signatory to this
agreement.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Summits, Conferences and Conventions
“Christchurch call to action” is an important agreement to tackle the growing menace of extremism that
has made deep in roots into various social media platforms.
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]
action/[Link]
2. India Today
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 8
DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Lancet Global Health Report 2015:
1. India has missed the Millennium Development Goals (MDG) Target for reducing under 5 mortality
rate.
2. Most of the deaths among children below 5 years in India was primarily caused by preventable
infectious diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, a new study in The Lancet Global Health has flagged the deaths among children under
five in India, which was higher than in any other country in 2015.
 Researchers at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health also found large disparities in
the child mortality rate between richer and poorer states.

MORE ABOUT THE NEWS:

Status of under 5 Mortality in India:
 Annual mortality among children under 5 in India was 2.5 million in 2000. While the under 5
mortality rates was 90.5 per 1000 live birth.
 This has reduced significantly since then and as per the Lancet report, the annual under 5 mortality
in India in 2015 reduced to 0.12 million out of 2.5 million live births. This translates to the under 5
mortality rate of 47.8 per 1000.
 In spite of this improvement, the annual mortality among children under the age of 5 years in India
was still the highest in the world.

Disparity among States:

 Among the states, the highest mortality rate, in Assam at 73.1 per 1,000, was more than seven
times that in Goa’s 9.7.
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 Among the regions, the mortality rate ranged from a low of 29.7 per 1,000 (South) to 63.8
(Northeast).

Mortality Rate & Millennium Development Goals:

 The United Nations Millennium Development Goals (MDG) set in 2000 was to reduce the under-
five mortality rate in 2015 to one-third of the 1990 figure.
 For India, that would have meant reducing the under-five mortality rate to 39 deaths per 1,000 live
births.
 However, as per the lancet data, India could not achieve this target. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Reasons for higher Mortality among children below 5 years of age:

The Lancet analysis found that although most under-five deaths were due to preterm complications,
preventable infectious diseases featured prominently as causes of death in higher-mortality states.
Hence statement 2 is also correct.

Way forward for India:

• The Lancet Report Suggests that India can accelerate its reduction of under-five mortality rates by
scaling up vaccine coverage and improving childbirth and neonatal care, especially in states where
mortality rates remain high.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics; Reports, Rankings and Indices
1. According to Lancet Report, annual mortality among children under
5 in India was 2.5 million in 2000 and the under 5 mortality rate was
90.5 per 1000 live births (year 2000).
2. The Lancet report found that in 2015, the annual mortality in India
among children under 5 years was 0.12 million out of 2.5 million live
births which was the highest in the world. The under 5 mortality rate
in India was 47.8 per 1000 live birth (year 2015).
3. The United Nations Millennium Development Goals (MDG) set in
2000 was to reduce the under-five mortality rate in 2015 to one-
third of the 1990 figure. For India, that would have meant reducing
the under-five mortality rate to 39 deaths per 1,000 live births.
Which means India missed the MDG Target of under 5 mortality
rate.
4. Disparity among States:
a. Among the states, the highest mortality rate, in Assam at 73.1
per 1,000, was more than seven times that in Goa’s 9.7.
b. Among the regions, the mortality rate ranged from a low of
29.7 per 1,000 (South) to 63.8 (Northeast).
5. The Lancet Report Suggests that India can accelerate its reduction
of under-five mortality rates by scaling up vaccine coverage and
improving childbirth and neonatal care, especially in states where
mortality rates remain high.

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Source: Lancet Global Health Report 2019

Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express Explained dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
among-states-5729952/

QUESTION 9
DOMAIN: Latest technology in news

Q. Facial Recognition Technology is a newly emerging technology that has a wide range of applications
but at the same time there are certain apprehensions associated with it. Which of the following may be
the reasons for such apprehensions?
1. Concerns over loss of privacy.
2. Lower accuracy as compared to other biometric technologies.
3. Ability of this technology to classify the people based on their race, age and gender.
4. It includes a contactless and non-invasive process for identification.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Out of the given statements all the statements except statement 4 is a reason for apprehensions against
the facial recognition technology. Statement 4 is rather considered an advantage of the facial
recognition technology over the other biometric technologies.

Recent Context:

Recently, there has been some unease around the use of facial recognition which stems from concerns
over the loss of privacy, and fears that the state may be unwilling or incapable of protecting this
fundamental right of citizens.

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WHAT IS FACIAL RECOGNITION?

 Facial recognition is a biometric technology that uses distinctive features on the face to identify and
distinguish an individual.
 There are multiple methods in which facial recognition systems work, but in general, they work by
comparing selected facial features from given image with faces within a database.
 It is also described as a Biometric Artificial Intelligence based application that can uniquely identify
a person by analysing patterns based on the person's facial textures and shape.
 The accuracy of facial recognition system as a biometric technology is lower than iris recognition
and fingerprint recognition which leads to an apprehension against its use.
 However, it is widely adopted due to its contactless and non-invasive process.

EMERGING APPLICATIONS OF FACE RECOGNITION TECHNOLOGY:

A. Access control in security systems:
 The technology is extensively used to offer access to secure environments or devices.
 This technology is now incorporated into various affordable smartphones which are now able to
identify faces as male and female, and even mark an age.

B. Public Surveillance for Law and Order:

 With machine learning, the technology has become capable of sorting out types of faces.
 CCTV cameras in public places, plugged into powerful computers, can pick out faces and match them
against a database, or just pick out certain types of faces.
 As camera capabilities have improved, facial recognition has become possible in low light, and
even from long distances.
 Such applications can be useful for Law Enforcement Agencies to trace the movements of a
notorious criminal or terrorist on streets.

Advantages of Facial Recognition:

 Compared to other biometric techniques, facial recognition is of a non-contact nature. Hence
statement 4 is incorrect as contactless nature of this technology is actually an advantage.
 Face images can be captured from a distance and can be analyzed without ever requiring any
interaction with the user/person.
 As a result, no user can successfully imitate another person.
 Facial recognition can serve as an excellent security measure for time tracking and attendance.
Facial recognition is also cheap technology as there is less processing involved, like in other
biometric techniques.

APPREHENSIONS ASSOCIATED WITH FACIAL RECOGNITION TECHNOLOGY:

Misuse by the ‘STATE’
 With rapid penetration of facial recognition technology, avenues have opened up for the misuse or
abuse of facial recognition technologies.
Example: China, which has possibly the most extensive network of CCTV cameras in the world, has
reportedly been using facial recognition to pick out wanted individuals from crowds at airports and
railways station.
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 There have also been reports of China using facial recognition technology to racially profile its
citizens — sorting faces into categories of Han Chinese and Uyghur Muslim. Statement 3 is
therefore correct.
 The Uyghurs, a Turkish race people living in China’s western Xinjiang Autonomous Region, have been
restive under Beijing’s rule, and the Chinese state has responded with an oppressive system of
surveillance, arrests and detentions.
 Given the fact that the technology continues to have a not-insignificant error rate, punitive state
action based on such profiling could lead to grave miscarriages of justice.

Privacy Concerns:
 The unease around the use of facial recognition stems from concerns over the loss of privacy, and
fears that the state may be unwilling or incapable of protecting this fundamental right of citizens.
 Civil liberties advocacies have warned that the identification of people without their knowledge and
consent stands in the way of their ability to act and move about freely. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Technological Drawbacks:
 Facial recognition can only identify people when the conditions such as lighting are favourable.
 The application could be less reliable in case of insufficient light or if the face is partially obscured.
Another disadvantage is that facial recognition is less effective when facial expressions vary.
This implies statement 2 is correct.

FACIAL RECOGNITION IN INDIA:

 Recently, Bengaluru’s Kempegowda International Airport has prepared itself to roll out facial
recognition as part of the boarding procedure for passengers later this year.
 The facial biometric programme will be implemented as part of the Ministry of Civil Aviation’s Digi
Yatra initiative.
 Airport operator Bengaluru International Airport Ltd had signed an agreement last year with a
Portuguese software firm to implement the technology.

Impact:
 There is massive potential for both the use and misuse of facial recognition technology in India.
 This is because the country has the largest verified biometric database of faces in the world, thanks
to the Unique Identification Authority of India’s (UIDAI) efforts to capture the data of as many
citizens as possible.
 With UIDAI opening up its face recognition API, the same can be used as an additional verification
method for financial or other transactions.
 At the same time, the system can, unless strong checks are put in place, be subject to massive abuse
or misuse.

Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express Explained dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
recognition-technology-5729943/

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QUESTION 10
DOMAIN: Space in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of “Chang’e-4 spacecraft” which was often seen in news:
1. It is a Japanese space craft, named after the moon Goddess in mythology.
2. It is the first ever space craft to touch down on the far side of the Lunar Surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Aspirants should first note the JUMLAA in this question. That is, it has asked us for the incorrect
statements, therefore the correct answer should contain the incorrect statement.

Recent Context:

 Recently, in January this year China has become the first country in the world to have send its space
rover onto the far side of the Moon.
 The Rover has started its expeditions and is bringing out some important facts associated with the
far side of the moon.

MORE ABOUT THE NEWS:

 China used Chang’e-4 Lunar Rover to make a soft landing on the far side of the Lunar Surface and
send back close up images of the hitherto unexplored region of the moon.
 Statement 1 is therefore incorrect as Chang’e-4 is a Chinese Lunar rover and not a Japanese one.

ABOUT CHANG’E-4:
 It is named after a Chinese moon goddess and comprises of a lander and a rover.
 It landed on the Von Karman crater in the South Pole-Aitken basin and then sent back a picture of
the landing site shot by one of the monitor cameras on the probe’s lander, marking the world’s first
image taken on the moon’s far side.
 The robotic spacecraft is carrying instruments to analyse the unexplored region’s geology and will
conduct biological experiments.
 It includes two main parts:
1. The main lander weighing about 2,400 pounds
2. 300-pound rover.
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 The probe was launched by a Long March-3B carrier rocket on December 8 from the Xichang
Satellite Launch Centre in Sichuan Province.

Chang’e-4: Lander & Rover

Chang’e Legacy:
 Chang’e-4 is the fourth lunar probe launched by China since the country’s lunar programme was
opened in 2004.
 The spacecraft is largely a clone of Chang’e-3, which landed on the moon in 2013.
 Named after the goddess of the moon in Chinese legends, the first Chang’e spacecraft was launched
in 2007 to verify China’s lunar probe technology, obtain lunar images and perform scientific surveys.
 The Chang’e 2 followed in 2010 to carry out high-definition imaging of the moon and investigate
landing conditions for the Chang’e 3.
 Chang’e 3 landed on the moon in 2013. Chang’e 3 released the first Chinese lunar rover, Yutu, on
the moon. It worked there for around 1,000 days.

Why has no one tried to send a probe to the far side of the Moon for so many years?
 Direct communication with the far side of the moon, however, is not possible, which is also one of
the many challenges for the Chang’e-4 lunar probe mission.

How has China tackled this issue?

 China launched a relay satellite, named Queqiao, in May, to set up a communication link between
the Earth and Chang’e-4 lunar probe.

What is far side of the moon?

 The far side of the moon is the hemisphere that never faces Earth, due to the moon’s rotation.
 It is sometimes mistakenly referred to as the “dark side of the moon,” even though it receives just
as much sunlight as its Earth-facing side.

How will Chang’e-4 aid the exploration to the unexplored side of the Moon?
The scientific tasks of the Chang’e-4 mission include:
1. Low-frequency radio astronomical observation
2. Surveying the terrain and landforms
3. Detecting the mineral composition and shallow lunar surface structure
4. Measuring the neutron radiation and neutral atoms to study the environment on the far side
of the moon, according to CNSA
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Equipment onboard Chang’e-4:

It has four scientific payloads developed by scientists from the Netherlands, Germany, Sweden and Saudi
Arabia.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]
moon/[Link]

2. The Hindu dated January 3rd, 2019

Link: [Link]
side-sends-back-images/[Link]

QUESTION 11
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. The term Magma Ocean Hypothesis was often seen in News, which of the following correctly describe
it?
(a) It is a hypothesis according to which a large amount of energy was liberated in the formation of the
moon as a result of which a large portion of the moon was once completely molten forming a lunar
magma ocean.
(b) It is a hypothesis according to which Moon was formed as a result of the collision between the Earth
with an ancient planet Thea which also caused tilting of the Earth on its axis and exposed the molten
magma of the Earth’s Crust.
(c) It is a hypothesis according to which nearly a third of Mars Surface was covered by an ocean of liquid
water that later turned into molten magma due to an incident of solar flare.
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Only option A is correct.
Recent Context:

Recently, Chines rover on the far side of the moon has started to send important data back to Earth
which supports Magma Ocean Theory.

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What is Magma Ocean Theory?

 It is also referred to as Magma Ocean hypothesis or Giant impact hypothesis.
 According to it a large amount of energy was liberated in the formation of moon due to which a huge
portion of the body was once completely molten, forming a lunar magma ocean.
 The Chinese rover has detected materials such as olivine and low-calcium pyroxene that are rare
elsewhere on the surface and their presence supports Magma Ocean Hypothesis and Giant Impact
Hypothesis.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]
moon/[Link]
2. Wikipedia:
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 12
DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions

Q. Consider the following statements in context of the recently held joint meeting of the three
international conventions on Chemicals and Waste:
1. The meeting was held on the theme - Clean Planet, Healthy People: Sound Management of Chemicals
and Waste.
2. Decision to include plastic waste into PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure was a major outcome
of the meeting.
3. It was decided to add ‘Dicofol’ and ‘PFOA’ without any exemption in the Annex A of the Stockholm
Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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Recently, joint meetings of three conventions on chemicals and waste that is:
1. 14th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to Basel Convention on the Control of
Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (COP 14)
2. 9th meeting of the COP to Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for
Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
3. 9th meeting of the COP to Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.

Theme of the meetings this year was:

 “Clean Planet, Healthy People: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”.
Statement 1 is therefore correct.

KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF THE MEETING:

A. Basel Convention:
Developments regarding Technical Guidelines on e-waste (Basel Convention):
 The draft technical guidelines stipulated the conditions that used electrical and electronic
equipment should be considered as non-waste if they are destined for direct reuse, repair,
refurbishment or failure analysis.

India’s Stance on these draft guidelines:

 The Indian delegation strongly objected the proposed decision on these guidelines during plenary
and did not allow it to be passed by the conference of the parties (COP).
 Apprehensions of India: In the name of re-use, repair, refurbishment and failure analysis there was
a possibility of dumping from the developed world to the developing countries including India in view
of the growing consumption of electronic equipment and waste across the world.

Addressing India’s Apprehensions:

 On the final day of the COP, a modified decision was adopted in which all the concerns raised by
India were incorporated (on an interim basis).

B. Rotterdam Convention
i. Inclusion of plastic waste in the PIC (Prior Informed Convention) procedure:
 A decision was also taken to amend the convention to include unsorted, mixed and contaminated
plastic waste under PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure and improve the regulation of its
transboundary movement. This makes statement 2 correct.
 This is a significant step taken towards addressing plastic pollution which has become a major
environmental concern across the globe.
 These steps will help prevent the illegal dumping of plastic wastes in developing countries.
 India has already imposed a complete prohibition of import of solid plastic waste into the country.
 India has also made an international commitment to phase-out single-use plastic.
Single Use Plastics: Single-use plastics, or disposable plastics, are used only once before they are
thrown away or recycled.
These items are things like plastic bags, straws, coffee stirrers, soda and water bottles and most
food packaging

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ii. In addition two new chemicals (Phorate and HBCD) were added in the list for mandatory PIC
procedure in international trade.

C. Stockholm Convention:
 Under the Stockholm Convention the COP decided to list “Dicofol” in Annex A without any
exemption.
 The “PFOA” i.e. Teflon and Perfluorooctanoic Acid was also listed with some exemptions in the
Annex A of the Stockholm Convention.
Hence statement 3 is not correct because out of Dicofol and PFOA, the addition of PFOA into the
Annexure A of the Stockholm Convention comes with some exceptions.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Summits, Conferences and Conventions
 Decision to include Plastic Waste in the Prior Informed Convention procedure in the backdrop of COP
14 on Basel Convention is a major international development in context of solid waste management
in general and Plastic Waste Management in particular.
 India has made an international commitment to phase out single-use plastic.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
QUESTION 13
DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions

Q. Match the following pairs in context of International Conventions on Chemical and Waste:

Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1-B; 2-C; 3-A
(b) 1-A; 2-C; 3-B
(c) 1-C; 2-B; 3-A
(d) 1-B; 2-A; 3-C
CORRECT ANSWER: A

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, joint meetings of three conventions on chemicals and waste that is:
4. 14th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to Basel Convention on the Control of
Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (COP 14)
5. 9th meeting of the COP to Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for
Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
6. 9th meeting of the COP to Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.

Hence the correctly matched pair is as follows:

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019
 Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 14
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Recently, the website of Lokpal was launched, which of the following statements in this context is/are
correct?
1. The Website has been developed by NIC and provides the basic information with respect to the
working and functioning of the Lokpal.
2. The Lokpal is the first institution of its kind in independent India, established under the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
3. The selection committee for the appointment of the chairperson of Lokpal must consist of the Prime
Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition of Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India or a sitting
Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by
the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection
committee.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, the website of the Lokpal was inaugurated by the first chairperson of Lokapal in India –
Justice Shri Pinaki Chandra Ghose.

Who developed the website?

 The Website has been developed by NIC and provides the basic information with respect to the
working and functioning of the Lokpal. The Website can be accessed at [Link]
Hence statement 1 is correct.

What is Lokpal?
 It is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public interest in the
Republic of India.

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 The Lokpal is the first institution of its kind in independent India, established under the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013 to inquire and investigate into allegations of the corruption against public
functionaries who fall within the scope and ambit of the above Act.
Hence statement 2 is also correct.
 In India Lokpal is a non-constitutional, statutory body that derives its powers from Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act (2013).

Salient Features of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013:

1. It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the
State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for the nation both
at the Centre and at the States.
2. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and
Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.
3. The Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial
members.
4. 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities
and women.
5. The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall be through a Selection
Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the
Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated
by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on
the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.
However, the recent appointment of the Lokpal Chairperson has been made without taking into
account the opinion Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha as no political party had this status. Therefore,
statement 3 is incorrect as it says that the selection committee must have the Leader of Opposition
of the Lok Sabha.
6. A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the
members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs,
minorities and women.
7. The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter
exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.
8. Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants, including Group A, Group B, Group
C, and Group D officers and employees of Government.
9. On complaints referred to the CVC by the Lokpal, the CVC will send its report of preliminary enquiry
in respect of Group A and Group B Officers back to the Lokpal for further decision.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019
Link: [Link]

2. Indian Polity by M. Lakshmikant – 5th Edition

 Chapter 59

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QUESTION 15
DOMAIN: Awards

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Sasakawa awards that was in news recently:
1. It is awarded to an individual or institutions that have taken active efforts in the sphere of
Environmental Conservation.
2. The theme of 2019 Sasakawa award was – Building Inclusive and Reselient Society.
3. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the administrator of the Sasakawa Award.
4. P.K. Mishra from India has received the 2019 Sasakawa Award on account of his long term dedication
to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Sasakawa Award was in news because recently, Dr. P.K. Mishra (Adnl Principal Secretary to Prime
Secretary) was conferred this award by United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
 The award was announced during 6th Session of Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction
(GPDRR) 2019 at Geneva.

About Sasakawa Award:

 It is awarded to an individual or institutions that have taken active efforts in reducing disaster risk
in their communities and advocates for disaster risk reduction (and not environmental
conservation).
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

 UNDRR – United Nations office for Disaster Risk Reduction (formerly known as UNISDR) is the
administrator of the UN Sasakawa Award for Disaster Reduction.
Hence statement 3 is also incorrect.

 The United Nations Sasakawa Award for Disaster Reduction is one of three prestigious prizes
established in 1986 by founding Chairman of the Nippon Foundation, Mr. Ryoichi Sasakawa.

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 It is worth approximately US $50,000 and is shared among the Laureates.

 Nominees also receive Certificates of Distinction and Merit.
 The Award recognizes individuals, organizations and initiatives that have best contributed to
ensuring inclusive, accessible and non-discriminatory participation in disaster risk reduction activities
for all sections of society, especially the poor.
 The theme of the 2019 Sasakawa award was “Building Inclusive and Resilient Societies”
Statement 2 is therefore correct.

About Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDR):

 GPDRR is a biennial multi-stakeholder forum established by the UN General Assembly to review
progress, share knowledge and discuss the latest developments and trends in reducing disaster risk.

About UNDRR:
 The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) was created in December 1999 to
ensure the implementation of the International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (General Assembly
(GA) resolution 54/219).
 UNDRR (formerly UNISDR) is part of the United Nations Secretariat and it supports the
implementation & review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction adopted by the
Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction on 18 March 2015 in Sendai, Japan.
 The Sendai Framework is a 15-year voluntary people-centred approach to disaster risk reduction,
succeeding the 2005-2015 framework.
 UNDRR coordinates international efforts in Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) and it reports on the
implementation of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.
 It convenes the biennial Global Platform on Disaster Risk Reduction.

Why did Dr. P.K Mishra received the award?

 Dr. P. K. Mishra from India received the 2019 Sasakawa award in recognition of his long-term
dedication to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters and his personal
commitment to social inclusion as a critical principle to reduce inequality and poverty, enhancing
the safety net of the socially and economically marginalized.
Statement 4 is therefore correct.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Awards
 “Dr. P. K. Mishra from India received the 2019 Sasakawa award in recognition of his long-term
dedication to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters and his personal
commitment to social inclusion as a critical principle to reduce inequality and poverty, enhancing the
safety net of the socially and economically marginalized.”
(Can be quoted as example in Questions asked in context of Disaster Management)

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May16th, 2019
Link: [Link]

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2. UNDRR Website
Link: [Link]
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 16
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. It is surrounded by South China Sea in the south, Phillipine Sea in the east and East China Sea in the
North.
2. It is neighboured by People’s Republic of China (PRC) to the west and Japan to the North East.
3. Recently, it became the first country in Asia to have a comprehensive law that allows same sex
marriage.
4. It is considered to be the largest Economy which is not a member of the United Nations.
Which of the following countries is being referred to in the above statements?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Malaysia
(c) Philippines
(d) Taiwan
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, Taiwan’s legislature voted to legalize same-sex marriage.

 This development has made Taiwan the first Asian Country to have a comprehensive law which not
only allows same sex marriage but also lays the terms for it.
The answer is therefore Option D Hence, if you read the Hindu regularly, you will be able to solve
this question easily.
About Taiwan:
 Taiwan, officially known as the Republic of China (ROC), is a state in East Asia.

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 It is surrounded by water bodies on all its sides:

a. South China Sea on the South
b. Philippine Sea in the East
c. East China Sea in the North

Neighbouring Countries:

Neighbouring states include:

a. The People's Republic of China (PRC) to the west
b. Japan to the northeast and
c. Philippines to the south.
 The island of Taiwan has an area of 35,808 square kilometres (13,826 sq mi), with mountain ranges
dominating the eastern two thirds and plains in the western third, where its highly urbanised
population is concentrated.
 Taipei is the capital and largest metropolitan area.

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 With nearly 23.5 million inhabitants, Taiwan is among the most densely populated states, and is the
most populous state and largest economy that is not a member of the United Nations (UN).
Therefore, statement 4 indicates that it is Taiwan which is being referred to in the given
statements.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
asia/[Link]
2. Wikipedia
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 17
DOMAIN: Terms in news; Defence in news

Q. In context of defence technology the term ‘Cooperative Engagement’ was often seen in news. Which
of the following describes this term correctly?
(a) It is a bilateral agreement between India and USA that will allow both the countries to access each
other’s designated military facilities for the purpose of refuelling and replenishment.
(b) It refers to a recently concluded agreement between India & Afghanistan that will allow India to use
Afghan soil to base its military troops.
(c) It refers to a sensor network with integrated fire control capability that combines data from multiple
battle force’s air search sensors into a single, real-time, composite track picture.
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, Indian Navy successfully conducted test firing of Medium Range Surface to Air Missile
(MRSAM) on the Western Seaboard.

MORE ABOUT THE NEWS:

 This was the first attempt by the Indian Navy to undertake “cooperative engagement firing” of
Medium Range Surface to Air Missile (MRSAM).
 This test has achieved a significant milestone in enhancing India’s Anti Air Warfare Capability.

What is ‘Cooperative Engagement Firing’?

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 Cooperative Engagement Capability (CEC) is a sensor network with integrated fire control capability
that is intended to significantly improve battle force’s air and missile defense capabilities.
 It combines data from multiple battle force’s air search sensors on CEC-equipped units into a
single, real-time, composite track picture. Hence option C is the correct Answer.
 This significantly enhances fleet air defense by making the jamming more difficult and allocating
defensive missiles on a battle group basis.
 By proving this cooperative mode of engagement and successful conduct of test, Indian Navy has
now become a part of a select group of Navies that have this niche capability.
 This capability further enhances combat effectiveness of Indian Navy thus providing an operational
edge over potential adversaries.
 These Surface to Air Missiles are for now fitted onboard Kolkata Class Destroyers (comprised of INS
Kolkata, INS Kochi and INS Chennai).
 Gradually they shall be fitted into other major warships of the Indian Navy.

About MRSAM
 It is Medium Range Surface to Air Missile which i.e. it is capable of engaging multiple aerial targets
at range of more than 50 km.
 It is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Limited, India.
 It is jointly developed by DRDL Hyderabad (a DRDO Lab), in collaboration with Israel Aerospace
Industries.
 It is designed to provide Indian defence force with air defensive capability against a variety of aerial
threats at medium ranges.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link:[Link]
2. PIB Link: [Link]
3. Live Mint Link: [Link]

QUESTION 18
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Zero budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):
1. It is a farming practice wherein net cost of production of all crops is almost zero.
2. ZBNF has various advantages but retention of soil fertility is not one of them.
3. Andhra Pradesh became India’s first Zero Budget Natural Farming state.
4. Indonesia has sought the support of the Andhra Pradesh government to replicate its success in ZBNF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
CORRECT ANSWER: D

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, Indonesia has sought the support of the Andhra Pradesh government to replicate its
success in Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) due to its concerns over contamination of the
groundwater and lakes on account of excessive use of chemicals in agriculture.
 Among the Indian states, it first evolved in Karnataka (source: Food and Agricultural Organization).
 Earlier in June 2018 Andhra Pradesh became India’s first Zero Budget Natural Farming state.
Hence statements 3 and 4 are correct.

What do we mean by Zero Budget Natural Farming?

 Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a farming practice that believes in natural growth of crops
without adding any fertilizers and pesticides or any other foriegn elements.
 The word Zero Budget refers to the zero-net cost of production of all crops (inter crops, border
crops, multi crops). The inputs used for seed treatments and other inocluations are locally available
in the form of cowdung and cow urine. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 A ZBNF practicing farmer has lower cost of inputs and thus has better capacity to increase the
incomes.
 At the same time, ZBNF crops helps in retaining soil fertilising and is climate change resilient.
Statement 2 is therefore incorrect.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Flow Charts

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Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
implementing-zbnf/[Link]

2. Food and Agricultural Organization:

Link: [Link]

QUESTION 19
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Recently, Lawn Armyworm became a cause of concern for the farmers of Kerala. Which of the
following statements in context of this pest is/are correct?
1. A fully grown Larva of Lawn Army Worm has a smooth striped pale coloured body.
2. It feeds on the crops during the day and hides in the night.
3. It damages crops by causing leaf holes in the plants.
4. Preventive measures against this pest include – introduction of Bolas Spiders into the fields, spraying
of chlorantraniliprole pesticide and using biocontrol agent such as Bacillus thuringensis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the statements are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, an invasion of rice swarming caterpillar or armyworm on lawns and vegetable crops in in
certain parts of Kerala has caused concerns among farmers, who are readying their field for the first rice
crop of the season.
It is suspected that a sharp decline in rice cultivating area in the State is the major reason for pest
infection on alternate host plants such as lawn grass and vegetable crops.

What is Lawn Armyworm?

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Scientific Name: Spodoptera mauritia

 The term "armyworm" can refer to several species, often describing the large-scale invasive behavior
of the species' larval stage.
 Lawn Armyworm is also referred to as Rice Swarming Arming Worm.
 It is a moth of the family Noctuidae. The species was first described by Jean Baptiste Boisduval in
1833. Able to eat many types of food, it is a major pest throughout the world.
 The lawn armyworm is a species in the order of Lepidoptera and is the larval life stage of a lawn
armyworm moth.
 It is regarded as a pest and can damage and destroy a wide variety of crops, which causes large
economic damage.
 They are considered one of the major international agricultural pests on crops and pastures.
 Unlike other insects, armyworm caterpillars of their sixth instar do not excrete uric acid, instead
they excrete urea as nitrogenous wastes.
 A fully-grown larva (of Armyworm) has smooth striped pale coloured body and feeds during night
and hides during day.

Damage Caused by Armyworm:

 Close to 1.25 lakh hectares of kharif paddy in 13 districts of western Odisha was destroyed in a pest
outbreak, recording about 80-90%
damage, in 2009.
 The damage is generally permanent, and
the chances of revival are low, if the
plant develops leaf holes and starts
withering away.

How to Cure and Prevent?

 The detection and management of the
pest is important in the initial stage.
 Neem-based pesticides and biocontrol
agent such as Bacillus thuringiensis could be recommended in initial stages of infestation.
 If the infestation is severe, pesticides such as chlorantraniliprole, 3ml/10 litre water, could be
sprayed.

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 Adult Worms can be eliminated by introducing bolas spiders to the fields.

 This spider has the ability to spray a pheromone similar to the female moth, to attract male moths.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
farms/[Link]

2. Wikipedia
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 20
DOMAIN: Terms in news; Latest technology in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of properties of ‘polydimethylsiloxane’:

1. It belongs to a group of polymeric organosilicon compounds that are commonly referred to as
silicones.
2. It is a hydrophobic substance.
3. It is optically opaque, nontoxic and non-inflammable substance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the given statements are incorrect.
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION Recent Context:

Recently, low-cost lens was developed by IIT Bombay that will elevate smartphone cameras to the
power of a microscope.
A polymer named ‘polydimethylsiloxane’ has been the lynchpin of this novel method of creating high
powered and cost-effective lenses.
IMPORTANT PROPERTIES OF POLYDIMETHYLSILOXANE:
 Polydimethylsiloxane (PDMS), also known as
dimethylpolysiloxane or dimethicone, belongs to a group of
polymeric organosilicon compounds that are commonly
referred to as silicones. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 PDMS is the most widely used silicon-based organic polymer
and is particularly known for its unusual rheological (or flow)
properties.
 It is a hydrophobic Substance. Therefore statement 2 is
correct.

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 PDMS is optically transparent, and, in general, inert, non-toxic, and non-flammable. Statement 3 is
therefore incorrect.

APPLICATIONS:
 Its applications range from contact lenses and medical devices to elastomers; it is also present in
shampoos (as dimethicone makes hair shiny and slippery), food (antifoaming agent), caulking,
lubricants and heat-resistant tiles.

Let us understand the significance of the new technology:

 The idea, researchers said, was to build a microscope that could be used through a mobile phone
and solve problems caused by spherical lenses.

Problems caused by Spherical Lens – Spherical Disruption:

 ‘Spherical disruption’ is a phenomenon where light rays that
strike the edges of the lens do not focus at the same
location as the light that comes through the centre of the
lens. See the diagram below – the figure at the bottom
depicts the problem of spherical Disruption.
 It is caused because - Light rays that strike a spherical surface
off-centre are refracted or reflected more or less than those
that strike close to the centre.

 Such deviation causes a reduced quality of the image

produced.
 In addition to this traditionally, lenses have been fabricated
by polishing and grinding glass or moulding plastic against a
template. This method is expensive – requiring skilled
workmanship and costly equipments.

What has been developed by IIT Bombay? How does it address the issue?
 Researchers at IIT Bombay devised an alternative technology to make aspherical lenses using fluids.
 To address the problem of spherical disruption, the researchers never used plastic solution and
water (Fluid Mechanics), and this enables a controlled curvature of the lens.
 This method significantly reduced the cost of production of the lens down to ₹1 or ₹2 with it taking
30 minutes to be made.

Methodology – Using ‘Fluid Mechanics’:

 They took a plastic sheet and made a small hole in it, following which the sheet was put on a surface
of water in a little bowl.
 On top of the plastic sheet, polymer polydimethylsiloxane, which is a hydrophobic substance, was
poured.
 While the gravity tries to pull the polymer into the water through the hole, the surface tension
pushes it up. If you cure the polymer for it to solidify, there is a sheet with round shapes — the lens.
The lens will then have to be positioned properly on the mobile camera’s lens.

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Application and Utility of this development:

 The lens with a resolution of 1.4 micrometre, which has been prepared by using natural interface,
has been successfully tested to verify the authenticity of currency notes and in biomedical
applications like identifying infected blood cells and contaminants in water.
 This lens could be used with a mobile phone and see things that a naked eye or a magnifying glass
miss.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
microscope/[Link]
2. Wikipedia:
Links: [Link]

QUESTION 21
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Areca Palm (Areca Catechu) which was sometimes
seen in news:
1. It is native to Madagascar and South India.
2. The leaves of Arecca Palm are characterised by numerous crowded leaflets and are 1.5m to 2m in
length.
3. Leaves of Arecca Palm can be used to make biodegradable utensils.
4. Arecca Palm can be grown indoor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All statements are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:
 Arecca Palm was in used because a south Indian lady – Santosh Mary has harnessed the natural
properties of Arecca Palm to manufacture flatwares (utensils).
 The bio-degradable nature of theses flatwares made from Arecca Palm spathes (leaves), Santosh
Mary’s products have become a popular alternative to the plastic disposable utensils in both India
as well as abroad.

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About Arecca Palm:

 Scientific Name: Areca Catechu
 Areca catechu is a species of palm which grows in much of the tropical Pacific, Asia, and parts of east
Africa.
 The palm is believed to have originated in the Philippines, but is widespread in cultivation and is
considered naturalized in southern China, India, Bangladesh, the Maldives, Cambodia, Laos,
Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, New Guinea, many of the islands in the Pacific Ocean, and
also in the West Indies. This implies that it is not native to India but has been naturalized here.
Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.
 The species has many common names - including the areca palm, areca nut palm, betel palm, Indian
nut, etc.
 In English this palm is called the betel tree because its fruit, the areca nut, is often chewed along with
the betel leaf.

Important Characteristics:
 It is a medium-sized palm tree, growing straight to 20 m
(66 ft) tall, with a trunk 10–15 cm (4–6 in) in diameter.
 The leaves are 1.5–2 m (4.9–6.6 ft) long, pinnate, with
numerous, crowded leaflets. Statement 2 is therefore
correct.
 It is grown for its commercially important seed crop, the
areca nut.

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 The Areca seed contains alkaloids such as arecaidine and arecoline, which, when chewed, are
intoxicating and slightly addictive. They also contain condensed tannins (procyanidins) called areca
tannins which are carcinogenic.
 The areca palm is also used as an interior landscaping species. It is often used in large indoor areas
such as malls and hotels. It will not fruit or reach full size if grown in this way. In indoors, it is a slow
growing, low water, high light plant that is sensitive to spider mites and occasionally mealybugs.
Hence statement 4 is correct.
 In India the dry, fallen leaves are collected and hot-pressed into disposable palm leaf plates and
bowls which are biodegradable in nature. Hence statement 3 is also correct.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Case Study
 Santosh Mary from Tamil Nadu harnessed the natural properties of Areca Palm (Areca Catechu) to
manufacture biodegradable utensils (flatware).
 This flatware is an effective alternative to the plastic disposable utensils.
 Her venture has become popular not only in India but abroad as well.
 Santosh Mary’s Venture is an important example of ‘women empowerment’; ‘women
entrepreneurship’ and ‘role of women in conserving environment’.
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
made-from-areca-palm-spathes-are-making-a-big-splash/[Link]
2. Wikipedia:
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 22
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Which of the following correctly describe the term ‘H1B’ which was often seen in news?
(a) It refers to a category of Multi Drug Resistant Swine Flu.
(b) It is a new cryptocurrency developed by scientists from Belgium and Hungary.
(c) It is a cryptocurrency aimed at using cryptography to provide enhanced privacy for its users compared
to other cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin.
(d) It is a visa in the United States under the Immigration and Nationality Act, that allows U.S. employers
to temporarily employ foreign workers in specialty occupations.
CORRECT ANSWER: D

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 H-1B is a US Visa under the Immigration and Nationality Act, that allows U.S. employers to
temporarily employ foreign workers in specialty occupations. Therefore, option D is correct.
 It has been in news a lot because, the US administration is taking reform measures to modify the
terms and conditions for extending this Visa to foreign Nationals including Indians.
Let us learn some important facts about H1B Visa.

What is H1B Visa?

 The H1B visa is an employment-based, non-immigrant visa for temporary workers.
 For this visa, an employer must offer a job in the US and apply for your H1B visa petition with the US
Immigration Department.
 This approved petition is a work permit which allows a person to obtain a visa stamp and work in the
U.S. for that employer.
Eligibility:
The H1B visa is issued for a specialty occupation which requires theoretical and practical application of
a body of specialized knowledge and requires the visa holder to have at least a Bachelors degree or its
equivalent.

Possible Modifications:
 The Trump administration has said it is planning to “revise” the definition of employment and
specialty occupations under the H-1B visas, a move which will have an adverse impact on Indian IT
companies in the US and small and medium-sized contractual firms mostly owned by Indian-
Americans.
 The H-1B visa, most sought-after among Indian IT professionals, is a non-immigrant visa that allows
US companies to employ foreign workers in speciality occupations that require theoretical or
technical expertise.
 The technology companies in USA depend on it to hire tens of thousands of employees each year
from countries like India and China.
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
denying-h-1b-visa-to-indian-professional/[Link]
2. Path2 USA:
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 23
DOMAIN: Terms in news; Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements in context of VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail) and
identify the incorrect one/s:
1. It is an independent system attached with the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).
2. It allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended by them.
3. VVPAT prints out a slip containing the serial number, name and symbol of the candidate voted which
is kept by the voter for verification of his/her vote.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
The first thing to be noted here is that question has asked for incorrect statements.

Recent Context:

Recently, VVPAT was in news because a Public Interest Litigation said that Supreme Court’s order in April
to raise the physical verification of votes using Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail (EVM-VVPATs) from one
EVM to five EVMs per Assembly segment was not enough of a safeguard from tampering.
There was a need for 100% physical counting for fool proof poll results.

What is Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)?

 Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is an independent system attached with the Electronic
Voting Machines that allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended. Statement
1 and 2 are therefore correct.
 When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name and symbol of the
candidate and remains exposed through a transparent window for 7 seconds. Statement 3 is
therefore incorrect, and the answer therefore is Option C.
 Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls in the sealed drop box of the VVPAT.

Where were VVPATs used for first time in India?

 VVPATs with EVMs were used for first time in a bye-election from 51-Noksen (ST) Assembly
Constituency of Nagaland.

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Does VVPAT run on electricity?

 No. VVPAT runs on a power pack Battery.

Who conducts the First Level Checking of EVMs & VVPATs?

 Only authorized engineers of the manufacturers, namely Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and
Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), conduct the First Level Checking (FLC) of EVMs and
VVPATs under control of District Election Officer and direct supervision of Dy. DEO in the presence
of representative of Political Parties under videography.

Is it compulsory to count printing paper slips of VVPAT on the counting day?

 Counting of printed paper slips of VVPAT is done only in the following cases:
1. Mandatory verification of printed VVPAT paper slips of 01 randomly selected polling station of
(a) Assembly Constituency in case of election to State Legislative Assembly and
(b) each Assembly Segment in case of election to the House of the People.
2. In case of no display of result from the Control Unit, the printed paper slips of the respective
VVPAT is counted.
3. If any candidate, or in his absence, his election agent or any of his counting agents make a
written request to count the printed paper slips of the VVPAT in respect of any polling station or
polling stations under Rule 56 D of the Conduct of Elections Rules 1961, the Returning Officer
taking into consideration various factors decides and issue written orders, whether to count or
not to count the printed paper slips of the VVPAT of that particular polling station(s).

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
verification/[Link]

2. Election Commission Website:

Link: [Link]

QUESTION 24
DOMAIN: Trends of important parameters

Q. Consider the following statements in context of women Parliamentarians in India:

1. Since independence, the women representation reached the highest level of nearly 12% in the
sixteenth Lok Sabha.
2. Representation of women Members of Parliament dipped consistently from 1962 to 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

In the wake of Lok Sabha Polls, various surveys were conducted to assess the Gender equality of the
Parliamentarians in India.
The surveys have depicted a dismal picture of representation of women in the Indian Parliament.

Let us revise some important facts associated with this:

 The representation of women MPs has shown a mixed trend in the analysis.
 It dipped consistently from 1962 to 1977, after which it has generally risen, with occasional
exceptions. Statement 2 is therefore correct.

 Women’s representation among MPs reached 11.6% in the outgoing Lok Sabha, the highest yet,
since Independence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 Of the 8,048 candidates contesting this year’s Lok Sabha elections, 711 are women, according to
an analysis by Ashoka University’s Trivedi Centre for Political Data. The 711 women represent only
8.8% of the fray, but that is still the highest in six decades, and marginally better than the 7.6% in
2014.

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 Among the states and Union Territories, Chandigarh has the highest female representation among
candidates this year, at one-fourth. Among the larger states, Odisha with 15.5% has the highest
representation.
 At the other extreme are Nagaland, Daman & Diu, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Arunachal
Pradesh and Manipur, where no women are contesting.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics; Graphs & Curves

Statistics in context of Women Parliamentarians:

 India ranks 153 out of 190 nations in the percentage of women in the lower house of world
parliaments. According to a list compiled by the Inter-Parliamentary Union.
 Rwanda ranks first with 61% of its lower house representatives being women.
 As a region, Nordic countries are leaders with an average of about 40%.
 The UK and the US are relative laggards with 32% and 23%, respectively.
 Even Pakistan with 20% participation from women is ahead of India.
 India had 65 women out of 545 members of Parliament (MPs) elected to the 16th Lok Sabha in
May 2014, for a 12% representation.

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 Only the 15th and 16th Lok Sabha changed a previously stagnant representation of under 9%
recorded by Indian women MPs since Independence.

Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
than-in-last-lok-sabha-polls-still-just-8-8-5732091/
2. Live Mint dated February 19th, 2019
Link: [Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 25
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. The Election Commission of India derives its powers from which of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Article 315
(b) Article 280
(c) Article 148
(d) Article 324
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, the Election Commission had invoked its powers under Art 324 to curtail campaigning in
West Bengal following violence in Kolkata.

The Election Commission of India passed an unprecedented order, ending the campaign in West Bengal
much earlier than its stipulated time.
It also removed the state’s Home Secretary, and a senior police officer.
The decisions were taken under Article 324 of the Constitution, in response to street violence in Kolkata
between cadres of the BJP and Trinamool Congress.
Only option D is correct.
The following tale matches the Constitutional Articles with the Constitutional Bodies with which the
articles are associated:

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Provisions under Article 324:

1. The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other
election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
2. The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be
made by the president.
3. When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as
the chairman of the election commission.
4. The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional
commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.
5. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional
commissioners shall be determined by the president.

Provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election
Commission:
1. The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from
his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In
other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect
by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour
or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is
appointed by him.
2. The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after
his appointment.
3. Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office
except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.

ECI’s Freedom, Responsibility:

 There are just five Articles in Part XV (Elections) of the Constitution. (324-329)
 The Constituent Assembly was concerned mainly with ensuring the independence of the Election
Commission.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Quotes; Important Judgements
 Babasaheb Ambedkar introduced this Article (324) on June 15, 1949, saying “the whole election
machinery should be in the hands of a Central Election Commission, which alone would be entitled
to issue directives to returning officers, polling officers and others”.

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Supreme Court Judgement:

 The Supreme Court in Mohinder Singh Gill & Anr vs The Chief Election Commissioner, New Delhi and
Ors (1977) held that Article 324 “operates in areas left unoccupied by legislation and the words
‘superintendence, direction and control’ as well as ‘conduct of all elections’ are the broadest
terms”.
 The framers of the Constitution, the court said, had left “scope for exercise of residuary power by
the Commission, in its own right, as a creature of the Constitution, in the infinite variety of
situations that may emerge from time to time…”
 The court observed: “No one is an “imperium in imperio” in our constitutional order. It is reasonable
to hold that the Commissioner cannot defy the law armed by Art. 324. Likewise, his functions are
subject to the norms of fairness and he cannot act arbitrarily. Unchecked power is alien to our
system.”

Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
5731889/
2. Indian Polity by M. Lakshmikant 5th Edition
Chapter 42

QUESTION 26
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Which of the following correctly describes the term ‘skimmer’ which was sometimes seen in news in
context of ATM theft?
(a) Skimmer is a person who makes fraudulent calls to ATM card holder to seek his/her credentials on
the pretext of certain benefits being offered by the Bank.
(b) A skimmer is a device designed to look like and replace the card insertion slot at an ATM and is used
to clone the card.
(c) A skimmer refers to a group of persons who exploit the mobile number and Adhar Card linkage to
commit ATM Fraud.
(d) A skimmer is a device that looks like a Point of Sale (POS) Machine but is used by fraud salesmen to
extract critical data of the ATM card to extract money from the account of the card holder.
CORRECT ANSWER: B

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EXPLANATION
Only option B is correct, all other options are merely JUMLAAS, just to confuse the aspirants.
Recent Context:

 Delhi police found that Rs 19 lakh had been fraudulently withdrawn from 87 accounts in three ATMs
in the space of seven days.
 This was done by skimming, a procedure in which criminals clone ATM cards with stolen data. There
have been precedents in the country.

What is a ‘Skimmer’?
 A skimmer is a device designed to look like and replace the card insertion slot at an ATM.
 The skimmers, which cannot be usually spotted by an untrained eye, have circuitry that read and
store the data on the magnetic strip of an ATM card even as the ATM processes the same data.
 Typically, fraudsters also install pinhole cameras in inconspicuous places like the top of the cash
dispenser, the deposit slot or just above the keyboard.
 This steals the PIN for the card. In some cases, criminals have also used a fraudulent PIN pad fitted
with a skimming device and placed atop the original pin pad.
 Days after installation, criminals recover the skimming machines and cameras and collect the stolen
data and decode the PIN for a card.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
criminals-clone-cards-5731877/

QUESTION 27
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Which of the following is the first Indian State to tap into Masala Bond?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
CORRECT ANSWER: C

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 Recently, Kerala Chief Minister opened trading on the London Stock Exchange by ringing the iconic
bell after the state-owned Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB) debuted its ‘masala
bond’ issue of Rs 2,150 crore on the bourse.
 Kerala is the first Indian state to tap into the market for masala bonds.
 KIIFB became the first sub-sovereign entity in India to tap the offshore rupee international bond
market.
 The proceeds from the bond issue are slated to be used to part-finance the rebuilding of
infrastructure in Kerala that was devastated by last year’s floods.
 Canadian investor CDPQ was the anchor investor in the masala bond issue.

What are Masala Bonds?

 Masala Bonds can be understood as the debt papers sold overseas by an Indian entity that are
denominated in rupees — to raise development funds.

About Kerala Infrastructure Investment Board (KIIFB):

 KIIFB is a state agency that mobilises fund for infrastructural projects, over and beyond funds
earmarked in the budgets.
 In the last three state budgets, Kerala Government is heavily banking on KIIFB funds, and had
announced projects worth Rs 50,000 crore funded by the agency.
 Of these, projects worth Rs 9,900 crore are in the process of tendering or implementation.

Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express dated May 18th, 2019
Link: [Link]
masala-bond-market-5734351/

QUESTION 28
DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Dumping of Chinese Goods into India.
2. Depreciation of Indian Rupee.
3. Weaker FPI investments into India
4. Likelihood of the growth of Indian Economy
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Which of the above can be the outcome of ongoing trade war between USA and China?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 The US-China trade tensions have been in news a lot.

 These tensions are likely to have a negative impact the other economies of the world especially the
Emerging Markets including India.
Some of the likely impacts on India have been forecasted by a report compiled by “India Ratings and
Research (Ind-Ra)” and have been summarized in the following picture:

Major Highlights:
A. Dumping of Chinese Goods in India:
 The rise in trade tensions between the U.S. and China could lead the latter to divert its exports to
emerging markets (EMs), including India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 This could potentially disrupt the demand-supply dynamics in the Indian domestic markets,
especially for products such as electronic goods, iron and steel and organic chemicals

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B. Competitive Depreciation of Indian Rupee:

 A fall in Chinese exports to the U.S. could potentially put downward pressure on the Chinese yuan
(RMB).
 A likely devaluation in the RMB could stimulate a competitive depreciation in the Indian rupee,
failing which the competitiveness of Indian exports could be affected. Hence statement 2 is correct.

C. Inflationary Pressures in USA and consequent weak FPI in India

 Chinese exports accounted about 18% of the total U.S. imports in 2018, representing 2.34% of the
U.S. GDP.
 Hence, lower (Chinese) imports (in USA) or a rise in the cost of imported goods could stimulate
inflationary pressures in the U.S.
 This is likely to cascade onto India in the form of weaker Foreign Portfolio Investments. Hence
statement 3 is also correct.

D. Shrinkage in China’s Trade Surplus:

 A continued shrinkage in the Chinese trade surplus is likely to transform China from an exporter of
capital to a net importer of foreign capital. Therefore, Ind-Ra expects the combined effect of higher
capital flows into China and a rise in inflation in the U.S. to crowd out impinge upon flows into EMs.
 It is opined that India is unlikely to benefit much from the ongoing trade frictions between the U.S.
and China.

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Based on the diagram above, it can be understood that the trade war between USA and China is likely
to have a negative impact on Indian Economy and therefore statement 4 is incorrect.

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FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Flow Charts
Relation between Trade Tariffs and Export Volume:

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 18th, 2019
Link: [Link]
stakes/[Link]

QUESTION 29
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Recently, it has been found that the share of greenhouse gas emissions from information and
communication technologies is on a rise. Which of the following can be a cause behind this?
1. Surge in Video Streaming
2. Use of Cloud to store Data
3. Surge in the e-mail services.
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, studies and surveys have been conducted indicating that the share of greenhouse gas
emissions from information and communication technologies will rise.

GREEN HOUSE GAS EMMISSIONS FROM ICT INDUSTRY:

a. Email:
 Around 25 watts per hour of energy is consumed for sending an email, representing 20 grams of
carbon dioxide emissions, according to France’s CNRS research centre.
 Radicati research group (a think tank) expects 293 billion emails will be sent every single day this
year and the power needs to be generated — mostly from fossil fuels. Thereby increasing the
carbon footprint of the ICT Industry.
Statement 3 is therefore correct.
b. Cloud Storage and the Data Centres:
 Most of the data stored on the cloud is maintained in servers that are housed in specialized ‘data
centres’ that consume an extremely high amount of energy (electrical). The generation of which is
based mostly on the non-renewable energy.
 The energy is used to maintain the servers and also provide them an AC Climate.
 To cope with the voracious energy needs, the local power company Dominion turned to non-
renewable fuel sources — drawing the ire of tech firms
 As the demand for Cloud Storage is likely to increase in the coming years, it can contribute to the
higher carbon footprint.
Statement 2 is also correct.
c. Video Streaming:
 The surge in video and streaming services poses a particular challenge in terms of Green House Gas
Emission.
 Transmission and storage of data (on cloud) requires high amount of Energy which is largely met
from fossil fuels, thereby leading to Green House Gas Emissions.
 (Example - In 2017 Greenpeace estimated that the viral K-pop sensation Gangnam Style, viewed
more than 2.7 billion times, had consumed a year’s worth of production from a small nuclear power
plant.)
 Video streaming now accounts for nearly 60% of all “downstream” internet traffic from servers to
individual devices. Music services also take a toll.
Hence statement 1 is correct.

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FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics

Digitization has many benefits, but they all come at a price:

 “Under the current global energy mix, the share of greenhouse gas emissions from information and
communication technologies will rise from 2.5% in 2013 to 4% in 2020,” the French think-tank Shift
Project said in a recent report.
 That makes the sector more carbon-intensive than civil aviation (a 2% share of emissions in 2018)
and on track to reach automobiles (8%), it said.
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 18th, 2019
Link: [Link]
planet/[Link]

QUESTION 30
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following Statements:

1. It is a country located on the horn of Africa.
2. It shares its border with Eritrea and Somalia both.
3. It opens out to Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
4. Lake Assal is an important Lake of this country.
5. The country is the part of the rail network of Africa’s first Electrified Railway.
Which of the following Countries is being referred to in the above given statements?
(a) Ethiopia
(b) Sudan
(c) Kenya
(d) Djibouti
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
The correct answer of this question is Djibouti i.e. option D. IT has been in news due to the following
reason:
Recent Context:

Funded by China’s Exim Bank for $4.2 billion, 700-km Ethiopia-Djibouti Railway is Africa’s first electrified
railway.
It has been in news due to various issues being faced such as shortage of electricity to sustain its
operations particularly in Djibouti.
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Location of Djibouti:

 It is located on the Horn of Africa.

 It opens out to Gulf of Aden and Shares its coast with the Red Sea.
 It shares its border with Eritrea, Ethiopia and Somalia.
 Lake Assal (crater Lake) is an important lake of Djibouti.
 Lake Abbe (salt Lake) is shared between Ethiopia and Djibouti.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 18th, 2019
Link: [Link]
planet/[Link]

2. World Atlas

QUESTION 31
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. What could be the possible impact if there is a sudden decline in the population of bees in a region?
1. Higher nutrition levels of fruits.
2. There will be higher yield of fruits in the region.
3. Production of products like honey-wax, honey etc. will be adversely impacted.

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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the given codes are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, World Bee Day was celebrated on May 20th.

The occasion was seen as the right moment for the environmentalists and the bee keepers to let the
world community understand the significance of bees for the environment and Ecology.

About Bees and their impact on the Environment:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
 Bees act an important pollinating agents.
 The decline in a bee population is likely to impact the production and costs of vitamin-rich crops
like fruits and vegetables, leading to increasingly unbalanced diets and health problems, such as
malnutrition and non-communicable diseases.
 In fact in certain parts of the country, man made bee hives are specially set up near the farm to
maintain the ecological balance and increase the nutrition and yield of the fruits in the nearby
planted crops.

Farmers Setting up Bee Hive in nearby Farms

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Source: Food and Agricultural Organization

 Most bees are polylectic (generalist) meaning they collect nectar from a range of flowering plants,
however, some are oligoleges (specialists), in that they only gather nectar from one or a few species
of closely related plants.
 By virtue of this process, bees play an important role in the process of ‘pollination’ – that
subsequently leads to germination of fruits (from flowers).
 In an event of a decline in the population of the bees in a region, this process would be adversely
impacted, leading to a deterioration in the yield of fruits. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

 Statement 3 is correct because a decline in the population of bees (honey-bees) is likely to have an
adverse impact on the apiculture and also the products that are produced from this activity such as
honey, honey wax etc.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
striving-for-conserving-bees/[Link]

2. Food and Agricuktural Organization

Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 32
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of World Bee Day:

1. It will be celebrated in 2019 for the first time in the world.
2. It coincides with the birthday of Anton Janša – a Slovenian who in the 18th century pioneered modern
beekeeping techniques.
Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
First of all, the aspirants must understand that there was a JUMLAA in this question. The question has
asked the candidates to identify the incorrect statement. Hence the correct answer would consist of the
incorrect statements.

Recent Context:
The Question has been framed in the backdrop of the World Bee Day, which is observed on May 20th
every year.

Significance of the BEE:

 For centuries, bees have laboured the world’s fields without gaining much recognition for their
contributions to food production and biodiversity.
 Pollinators such as bees, birds and bats, affect 35 percent of the world's crop production,
increasing outputs of 87 of the leading food crops worldwide, plus many plant-derived medicines.
 About two-thirds of the crop plants that feed the world rely on pollination by insects or other
animals to produce healthy fruits and seeds for human consumption.

Adverse Impact on Bee:

 Despite their critical roles, bees, pollinators, and many other insects are declining in abundance,
adversely impacting global food security.
 The absence of pollinators would remove a variety of nutritious foods from our diets, including
potatoes, pepper, coffee, pumpkins, carrots, apples, almonds and tomatoes.
 In this context, pollinator-friendly approaches for their crops are crucial.
 Actions adopted by farmers in their agricultural practices therefore impact the environment as well
as all pollinators that feed on plants and crops.
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 In areas where there is intensive agriculture, it is important for farmers and beekeepers to
collaborate very closely in order to reach mutual benefits and to also safeguard the well-being of
these pollinators.

UN RESOLUTOIN FOR RECOGNIZING THE SIGNIFICANCE

 To bring global attention to the importance of bees and other pollinators, the UN General Assembly
in 2017 adopted by consensus a resolution declaring 20 May as World Bee Day.
 An inaugural celebration took place around the world in May 2018. This implies that that in 2019,
the World Bee day will be observed for the second time. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Significance of 20th May:

 20 May coincides with the birthday of Anton Janša, who in the 18th century pioneered modern
beekeeping techniques in his native Slovenia and praised the bees for their ability to work so hard,
while needing so little attention. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Objectives
 The overall objective of the 2019 World Bee Day is to focus public attention on the role of
beekeeping, bees and other pollinators in increasing food security and fighting hunger as well as
in providing key ecosystem services for agriculture.

Source Food and Agricultural Organization

1. United Nations Organizations
Link: [Link]
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 33
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. Consider the following statements in context of WTO Appellate which has been in news recently:
1. Standing committee of seven members that presides over appeals against judgments passed in trade-
related disputes brought by WTO members.
2. It is located in New York, USA.
3. The new appointments to the Appellate Body are always made by a consensus of WTO members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, over 20 developing countries met in New Delhi last week to discuss ways to prevent the WTO’s
dispute resolution system from collapsing due to the logjam in these appointments.

What is the WTO’s Appellate Body, and why is it important?

 The WTO Appellate Body, set up in 1995, is a standing committee of seven members that presides
over appeals against judgments passed in trade-related disputes brought by WTO members.
Statement 1 is therefore is correct.
 It was established under Article 17 of the Understanding on Rules and Procedures Governing the
Settlement of Disputes (DSU).
 The Appellate Body has its seat in Geneva, Switzerland. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
 Statement 3 is also incorrect and is related to the ongoing issue being faced by the WTO Appellate
Body. Let us first understand this issue before we understand that what makes statement 3 incorrect.

Who can appeal to the Appellate Body?

 Countries involved in a dispute over measures purported to break a WTO agreement or obligation
can approach the Appellate Body if they feel the report of the panel set up to examine the issue
needs to be reviewed on points of law.
 Existing evidence is not re-examined; legal interpretations are reviewed.

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 The Appellate Body can uphold, modify, or reverse the legal findings of the panel that heard the
dispute. Countries on either or both sides of the dispute can appeal.

Problem with WTO Appellate Body:

 Over the last two years, the membership of the body has dwindled to just three persons instead of
the required seven.
 Reason behind the vacuum in appointments:
 This is because the United States, which believes the WTO is biased against it, has been blocking
appointments of new members and reappointments of some members who have completed their
four-year tenures.
 The appellate has set 2-3 months as the deadline for settling the appeals made. However, the
understaffed appeals body has been unable to stick to its deadline for appeals filed in the last few
years, and the backlog of cases has prevented it from initiating proceedings in appeals that have
been filed in the last year.

What can happen if this situation is not addressed in time?

 Countries may be compelled to implement rulings by the panel even if they feel that gross errors
have been committed.

Impact on India:
 India is facing a rising number of dispute cases, especially on agricultural products.
 In the last four months alone, four cases have been brought to the WTO against India’s alleged
support measures for its sugar and sugarcane producers.
 In absence of an appellate body, India might be forced to implement the rulings by the panel even if
it entails gross errors in terms of interpretation of law.
Impact on the World:
 The overall weakening of the WTO framework could have the effect of undoing over two decades
of efforts to avoid protectionism in global trade.
 This is a major concern currently, as trade tensions, for example between the US and China and the
US and India, are on the rise.

Possible Way Forward:

 The new appointments to the Appellate Body are usually (not always) made by a consensus of WTO
members. In fact, there is a provision for voting where a consensus is not possible. Therefore,
statement 3 is incorrect.
 The group of 17 least developed and developing countries, including India, that have committed to
working together to end the impasse at the Appellate Body can submit or support a proposal to this
effect, and try to get new members on the Appellate Body by a majority vote.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Quotes; Statistics
 “With over 500 international disputes brought to the WTO and over 350 rulings issued since 1995,
the organisation’s dispute settlement mechanism is one of the most active in the world, and the
Appellate Body is the highest authority in these matters.”

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Important Sources:
1. The Indian Express Explained dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
if-process-breaks-down-5736410/

2. WTO Website
Link: [Link]
QUESTION 34
DOMAIN: Space in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of RISAT -2B which has been in news:
1. It is an Indian earth Observation satellite which will be carried into space using PSLV C-46.
2. RISAT -1 was the first among the family of RISAT Satellites to be launched into space by India.
3. RISAT-1 was the first indigenous microwave remote sensing satellite designed and developed by ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has recently announced its plans to launch its
latest radar imaging reconnaissance satellite ‘RISAT 2BR1’.
 Its launch was earlier scheduled in 2020 after RISAT-2A but is now preponed.

Launch Vehicle:
 The RISAT (radar imaging satellite), will be carried by PSLV-C46. (Statement 1 is therefore correct).
 PSLV-C46 is one of the reusable variants of ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket,
which have offered significant progress and technology sophistication in terms of advancement in
space technologies.
 It would depart from first launch pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

Significance:
 The RISAT series by ISRO are first all-weather earth observation satellites.
 These Radar imaging satellites are designed to all-weather surveillance using synthetic aperture
radars (SAR) i.e. they provide a continuous (24×7) view of earth day or night and even during bad
weather for defence forces to detect infiltration along border.

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Background of RISAT Series:

A. RISAT-2 – The first RISAT to be launched into SPACE
 The first among the RISAT family to be launched into space was the RISAT 2 which was deployed
in April 2009 prior to RISAT 1. Statement 2 is therefore incorrect.
 This was because following 2008 Mumbai terror attacks Indian forces were in dire need of round the
clock surveillance.
 The Israeli built X-band synthetic aperture radars (SAR) which was the main sensor onboard RISAT-
2 provided Indian defence forces all-weather surveillance for monitoring national borders to notice
any potential threat or malicious activity and to carry out anti-infiltration and anti-terrorist
operations.

B. RISAT-1
 RISAT-1 was successfully launched a few years later in April 2012 for a period of five years. It is first
indigenous microwave remote sensing satellite designed and developed by ISRO. Statement 3 is
therefore correct.
 It was launched by PSLV-C19 into sun’s synchronous orbit at an altitude of 536 km.
 It was not designed as a surveillance satellite as it relied on the C-band.
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Applications (RISAT-1):
 Its data was extensively used for applications like natural resources management, in areas of
agriculture planning, mainly paddy monitoring in kharif season, forestry surveys and disaster
management support, during natural disasters like floods and cyclones.

C. RISAT-2B:
 About to be deployed RISAT-2B satellite uses same SAR band and will further improve India’s imaging
reconnaissance (surveillance) abilities.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
satellite/[Link]

QUESTION 35
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) that is in
news every now and then:
1. It is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance, which entered into force on 15 June 2001 in
Shanghai, China.
2. India was one of the founding members of SCO.
3. All founding members of SCO were previously members of Shanghai Five Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All statements are incorrect
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

SCO was in news recently on account of its foreign minister’s meet scheduled for May 22-22, 2019.

Let us learn some important facts associated with the Shanghai Cooperation organization:
A. Foundation:

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 The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), is a Eurasian political, economic, and security
alliance, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai, China.
 The Charter that formally endorsed the creation of SCO, was signed in June 2002 and entered into
force on 19 September 2003 (and not on 15th June 2001).
Statement 1 is therefore incorrect.

Founding Members:
 The founding members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization include China, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
 India was not the founding member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation therefore statement
2 is incorrect.
 The original five nations, with the exclusion of Uzbekistan, were previously members of the
Shanghai Five group. Hence statement 3 is also incorrect.
 The organisation has now expanded its membership to eight countries when India and Pakistan
joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana, Kazakhstan.
 It is the largest regional organisation in the world in terms of geographical coverage and population,
covering three-fifths of the Eurasian continent and nearly half of the human population.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
meet-in-bishkek/[Link]
2. Wikipedia
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 36
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Bishkek’ - a city which was in news:
1. It is the capital city of Kazakhstan.
2. Shanghai Cooperation Organization 2019 Summit is being hosted here.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:
The 2019 Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) summit is being hosted at Bishkek. Therefore
statement 2 is correct.

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About Bishkek and Kyrgyzstan:

Bishkek is the capital city and also the largest city of Kyrgyzstan (and not Kazakhstan), hence statement
1 is incorrect.
Kyrgyzstan is a landlocked central Asian Country.
It shares its border with 4 countries:
1. Tajikistan
2. Uzbekistan
3. Kazakhstan
4. China
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 18th, 2019
Link: [Link]
meet-in-bishkek/[Link]

QUESTION 37
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. A term Joint Comprehensive Action Plan was often seen in news, which of the following correctly
describes it?
(a) It is a U.S. trade program designed to promote economic growth in the developing world by providing
preferential duty-free entry for certain goods from the designated beneficiary countries
(b) It is an international deal aimed at containing Iran’s nuclear programme in exchange for stopping
crippling sanctions against the country.
(c) It is an action plan formulated by the ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change,
Government of India that outline the roadmap to achieve India’s Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions.
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: B
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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

The US-IRAN strained relations are in news quite often.

Tensions between the two countries resumed a little over a year ago when the U.S. withdrew from the
Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA).

About Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)

 It is international deal aimed at containing Iran’s nuclear programme in exchange for stopping
crippling sanctions against the country. Hence option B is the correct answer.
 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action or JCPOA is an agreement of China, France, Germany, Russia,
the UK, the US and the European Union (EU) [P5+1] with Iran signed in 2015.
 The "P5+1" was formed in 2006 when the United States, Russia and China joined France, Britain
and Germany to negotiate an agreement concerning Iran's nuclear program, with the goal of
preventing Iran from obtaining a nuclear weapon. All of these countries, except Germany, are
permanent members of the United Nations Security Council.
 The P5 countries all have nuclear weapons, as well.
 The "P5+1" is also referred to as the "E3+3." The "E3" includes France, Britain and Germany, and
the "3" includes the non-European countries, the United States, Russia and China.

What does JCPOA provide for?

 As per the agreement, Iran agreed to make certain changes to its nuclear programme to ensure it
does not threaten the regional stability.
 In return, the EU and the US agreed for diluting their sanctions against Iran. Nuclear related
sanctions on Iran were lifted by the US effective January 1, 2016.
 US has withdrawn from the JCPOA and that US sanctions will be re-imposed on Iran. The other
participating nations, France, Germany and UK have expressed disappointment over the move and
continue to remain a part of the JCPOA.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
end/[Link]

QUESTION 38
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Arrange the following cities from west to east:

1. Kiev
2. Minsk
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3. Warsaw
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3-2-1
(b) 1-2-3
(c) 1-3-2
(d) 2-1-3
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION The items given in these questions are the capital cities of the following countries:

These countries can be arranged from West to East as:

Poland – Belarus – Ukraine; consequently, their capitals can be arranged as:
Warsaw – Minsk – Kiev. Hence option A is the correct answer.

Recent Context:

 Ukraine has been in news due to its Presidential elections, which have concluded recently.
 Ukraine’s new President Volodymyr Zelensky (41 year old) was sworn in as Ukraine’s youngest post-
Soviet President.
 Announcing that his first priority was ending the five-year conflict with Moscow-backed separatists
in the industrial east that has claimed over 13,000 lives, he declared that he would dissolve
Parliament in order to call early elections, originally scheduled for October. This has caused a
turbulence in domestic politics of Ukraine.

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Geographical Location of Ukraine is important for UPSC Prelims:

 Ukraine shares its border with 7 countries:

1. Russia
2. Belarus
3. Poland
4. Slovakia
5. Hungary
6. Romania
7. Maldova
 It opens out to Sea of Azov and Black Sea.
 The Crimean Territory is a bone of contention between Ukraine and Russia.

ABOUT CRIMEA CONFLICT.

Geographical Location of Crimea:
 It is a peninsula on the northern coast of the Black Sea in Eastern Europe that is almost completely
surrounded by both the Black Sea and the smaller Sea of Azov to the northeast.
 It is located south of the Ukrainian region of Kherson, to which it is connected by the Isthmus of
Perekop, and west of the Russian region of Kuban, from which it is separated by the Strait of Kerch
though linked by the Crimean Bridge.

The Conflict:
 In February 2014, following the 2014 Ukrainian revolution, the pro-Russian separatists and Russian
Armed Forces took over the territory.

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 A controversial Crimea-wide referendum (being unconstitutional under Crimean Constitution), was

held on the issue of reunification with Russia which official results indicated was supported by a
large majority of Crimeans.
 Russia formally annexed Crimea on 18 March 2014, incorporating the Republic of Crimea and the
federal city of Sevastopol as the 84th and 85th federal subjects of Russia.

Crimea Status:
 Crimea is now controlled and governed as part of the Russian Federation (except Ukrainian-
controlled part of Arabat Spit), though internationally recognised as part of Ukraine.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
elections/[Link]

2. Wikipedia
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 39
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
and identify the incorrect statement/s:
1. It is a non-statutory executive body.
2. It functions under the aegis Department of Pharmaceuticals under Ministry of Chemicals and
Fertilizers.
3. Its functions include regulation of import of drugs, grant of licenses to the Blood banks and enforce
laws to fight drug trafficking in the country.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All statements are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
The question has asked for the incorrect statements and all the given statements are incorrect therefore
the correct answer is Option C.

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Recent Context:

Recently, a nationwide alert was announced by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(CDSCO) on some faulty pacemakers’ models sold by the world’s largest medical device manufacturer,
Medtronic.

Important for PRELIMS - About Central Drugs Standard Control Organization:

 The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the Central Drug Authority for
discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Hence it is a statutory body and therefore statement 1 is incorrect. And therefore it should appear
in the correct option as the question has asked us to identify the incorrect statements.
 CDSCO functions under Ministry if Health & Family Welfare and not under Ministry of Chemicals and
Fertilizers as a result of which statement 2 is also incorrect.
 CDSCO has six zonal offices, four sub-zonal offices, 13 port offices and seven laboratories under its
control.

Major Functions of CDSCO:

The major functions of CDSCO include:
 Regulatory control over the import of drugs
 Approval of new drugs and clinical trials,
 Meetings of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) and Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)
 It acts as Central License Approving Authority in matters if granting Licences for certain tasks such
as: approving Blood Banks, Vaccines, r-DNA products etc.

Why is statement 3 incorrect?

 Statement 3 mentions law enforcement for controlling and abating drug trafficking as one of the
functions of CDSCO.
 However, it is not its function. This function is actually enforced by Narcotics Control Bureau of India.

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Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
pacemakers/[Link]

2. Website of Central Drugs Standard Control Organization:

Link: [Link]

QUESTION 40
DOMAIN: Terms in news; Disease in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Pacemakers:

1. It is a tiny tube that your doctor can insert into a blocked passageway of the blood stream to keep it
open.
2. They are usually needed when plaque blocks a blood vessel
3. It works on a feedback mechanism that allows your heart rhythm to be normal.
4. A surgery is generally needed to modify the programming of a pacemaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
This Question is full of JUMLAAS.
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Its trying to confuse the candidates between the ‘Pacemakers’ and ‘Stents’.

‘Pace Maker’ ‘Stent’

Recent Context:

Recently, a nationwide alert was announced by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(CDSCO) on some faulty pacemakers’ models sold by the world’s largest medical device manufacturer,
Medtronic.

 The first 2 statements are referring to the Stent which is used to treat the blockage in the blood
vessels due to the accumulation of Plaque.
 Pacemakers on the other hand are used to treat the Arrhythmia.

Important for PRELIMS – Facts about Pacemakers

 A pacemaker is a small device that's placed in the chest or abdomen to help control abnormal heart
rhythms.
 This device uses electrical pulses to prompt the heart to beat at a normal rate.
 Pacemakers are used to treat arrhythmias.
 A pacemaker can relieve some arrhythmia symptoms, such as fatigue and fainting. A pacemaker
also can help a person who has abnormal heart rhythms resume a more active lifestyle.

What is Arrhythmia?

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 Arrhythmias are problems with the rate or rhythm of the heartbeat. During an arrhythmia, the heart
can beat too fast, too slow, or with an irregular rhythm.
 Tachycardia: A heartbeat that's too fast is called tachycardia.
 Bradycardia: A heartbeat that's too slow is called bradycardia.

Impact of Arrhythmia:
 During an arrhythmia, the heart may not be able to pump enough blood to the body.
 This can cause symptoms such as fatigue (tiredness), shortness of breath, or fainting. Severe
arrhythmias can damage the body's vital organs and may even cause loss of consciousness or death.

HOW DOES A PACEMAKER WORK?

 A pacemaker consists of a battery, a computerized generator, and wires with sensors at their
tips.
 The battery powers the generator, and both are surrounded by a thin metal box. The wires
connect the generator to the heart.
 A pacemaker helps monitor and control your heartbeat. The electrodes (sensors) detect your
heart's electrical activity and send data (feedback) through the wires to the computer in the
generator.
 If your heart rhythm is abnormal, the computer will direct the generator to send electrical
pulses to your heart. The pulses travel through the wires to reach your heart.

 Newer pacemakers can monitor your blood temperature, breathing, and other factors too. They
also can adjust your heart rate to changes in your activity.
 The pacemaker's computer also records your heart's electrical activity and heart rhythm. Your
doctor will use these recordings to adjust your pacemaker so it works better for you.

Your doctor can program the pacemaker's computer with an external device. He or she doesn't have
to use needles or have direct contact with the pacemaker.

Types of Pacemaker Programming

The two main types of programming for pacemakers are demand pacing and rate-responsive pacing.
a. Demand Pacing:
 A demand pacemaker monitors your heart rhythm.

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 It only sends electrical pulses to your heart if your heart is beating too slow or if it misses a beat.
b. Rate Responsive Pacing:
 A rate-responsive pacemaker will speed up or slow down your heart rate depending on how active
you are.
 To do this, the device monitors your sinus node rate, breathing, blood temperature, and other
factors to determine your activity level.
Your doctor will work with you to decide which type of pacemaker is best for you.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
pacemakers/[Link]

2. National Heart Lung and Blood Institute Website

Link: [Link]

QUESTION 41
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following table:

Match the animal species given in the table above with the reason for them being trafficked:
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
(b) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(c) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(d) A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently a campaign named ‘Not all Animals Migrate by Choice’ was launched by Wildlife Crime Control
Bureau of India in support with UN International.

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The campaign seeks to generate awareness by displaying its philosophy at major airports across the
country.
The first phase of the campaign will focus on the following animals:

Tiger Pangolin Star Tortoise Tokay Gecko

These animals are among the most vulnerable species in terms of the animal trafficking.
The major reasons for them being trafficked is as follows:

A. Tiger:
 It is traded for its skin, bones and body parts
B. Pangolin:
 It is the most illegally traded wild mammal on the planet is trafficked for its meat and its scales are
used in traditional medicines
C. Star Tortoise
 It is trafficked for meat and pet trade
D. Tokay Gecko
It has a significance in traditional medicine mostly into South East Asia and particularly Chinese Markets.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated 20th, May 2019
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 42
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of “Exit Polls” in India:

1. It is a kind of voter behaviour survey conducted to gauge the public opinion before voting takes place
2. Section 126 A of Representation of People’s Act, 1951, puts a ban on the exit polls until the final phase
of voting is complete.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B

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EXPLANATION
The JUMLAA in this question is that it is trying to confuse the candidates between two terms that were
in news – Exit Poll and Opinion Poll
Recent Context:

The Month of May 2019 celebrated the grand festival of Democracy i.e. “Elections”.
While it’s important to be aware of political debates to cast the vote to the right candidate, yet, for
UPSC, concepts and terms associated with the electoral process are more important than these
politicking.

What is Exit Poll?

 Exit poll is a post-voting poll, which is conducted just after a voter walks out after casting his or her
vote.
 Such polls aim at predicting the actual result on the basis of the information collected from voters.
They are conducted by a number of organisations. The basic step to predict exit polls is sampling.

Status of Exit Poll in India:

 Section 126A of the Representation of the People’s Act, 1951, puts a ban on exit polls from the period
between the commencements of the poll until half an hour after the closing of the final phase of
the poll. Statement 2 is hence correct.

Credibility of Exit Polls:

 Exit polls have often proved unreliable in India.
 In the past, there had been instances when exit polls had predicted the verdict of an election
incorrectly.
 In 2004, the exit polls wrongly predicted the BJP-led NDA coalition winning again.

Difference between an exit poll and an opinion poll?

 An opinion poll, sometimes simply referred to as a poll, is a kind of voter behaviour survey
conducted to gauge the public opinion before voting takes place, while an exit poll happens right
after voting. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
 Through a scientific survey in the opinion poll, the views of a particular group of people are
ascertained.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]
will-be-in-consonance-with-exit-polls-outcome/[Link]

2. The Live Mint dated May 19th, 2019

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Link: [Link]

QUESTION 43
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of Ongole Cattle which was sometimes mentioned in
news:
1. It is an indigenous cattle breed from India.
2. Due to the susceptibility of this animal to diseases, consuming its milk is not recommended.
3. The animal has a high tolerance to the Tropical Heat.
Which of the statements given above are not true?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION Firstly, the candidates should be aware that the question has asked for the statemens
which are not true hence, the correct option would contain the incorrect statements.
In this question only statement 2 is incorrect. Let us see how and let us also understand as to why this
cattle breed was in news.
Recent Context:

 Recently, the Vice President of India, Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu has lamented the neglect of the
indigenous Ongole cattle breed (hence statement 1 is correct) and called for protecting and
promoting the animal, which has become popular all over the world.
 Vice President pointed out that Brazil which has imported these cattle and produced hybrid Ongoles
was earning huge revenue through export.
 The Minister mentioned that research needs to be promoted to explore the social significance of
Ongole Cattle as the animal, which is known for its toughness, high milk yield, tolerance to tropical
heat and disease resistance. (Hence statement 2 is false while statement 3 is True)
 Such a research can help a rural family to augment their income, thereby contributing to the aim
of doubling farmers’ income.

About Ongole Cattle:

 Ongole is a prominent dual-purpose breed of Andhra Pradesh.
 The breed got its name from its geographical area of origin, i.e. Ongole. It occupies a small area
between Gundlakamma and Musi rivers in Andhra Pradesh.
 It is also nicknamed as ‘Nelore cattle’ as Ongole was once part of the Nellore area.

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 The breeding tract of the breed includes East Godavari, Guntur, Ongole, Nellore and Kurnool
districts of Andhra Pradesh and extends all along the coast from Nellore to Vizianagram.

Important Charateristics:
 The breed is known for hardiness, disease resistance and capacity to thrive on scanty resources. It
is more resistant to the foot and mouth disease than other common breeds.
 Its salient characteristics attracted an international demand of the animal.
 Animals of the Ongole breed were extensively exported to the following countries:
1. USA for beef production
2. Brazil for beef and milk production
3. Sri Lanka, Fiji and Jamaica for draught
4. Australia for heat tolerance and beef
5. Switzerland for disease resistance.
 The breed has glossy white coat colour. Males possess dark markings on head, neck and hump and
black points on knees and pastern.
 Horns are short and stumpy, growing outward and backward from the outer angles of the poll, thick
at the base and firm without cracks.
 In cows, horns are thinner than bulls.
 Horns in cows generally extend outward, upward and inward. Breed can be identified visibly by its
majestic gait, stumpy horns and large fan shaped and fleshy dewlap.
 The breed produces moderate milk with an average of 798 kg per lactation and with an average fat
percentage of 3.79%

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

2. Dairy Knowledge:
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 44
DOMAIN: Terms in news; Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements in context of a campaign named – ‘Not all animals migrate by
choice’:
1. It is an awareness campaign to be displayed all the airports across the country
2. It has been launched by Animal Welfare Board of India.
3. It is supported by UN Environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
It is a very straight forward, knowledge-based question. Out of the given statements only statement 3
is correct. The other two statements have a JUMLAA in them. Let us learn about this campaign to identify
these JUMLAAS.
Recent Context:

Name of the Campaign: Not All Animals Migrate by Choice

Launched by: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau of India (Hence statement 2 is incorrect as it is trying to
confuse you between another similarly named organization i.e. Animal Welfare Board of India)
International Support by UN Environment (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Key Species being focused:
 In the first phase of the campaign, Tiger, Pangolin, Star Tortoise and Tokay Gecko have been chosen
as they are highly endangered due to illegal trading in International markets.
 Phase two will see more threatened species and explore other routes of trafficking.

Tiger Pangolin Star Tortoise Tokay Gecko

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Why these Animals?

A. Tiger:
 It is traded for its skin, bones and body parts
B. Pangolin:
 It is the most illegally traded wild mammal on the planet is trafficked for its meat and its scales are
used in traditional medicines
C. Star Tortoise
 It is trafficked for meat and pet trade
D. Tokay Gecko
 It has a significance in traditional medicine mostly into South East Asia and particularly Chinese
Markets.

Objective of the Campaign:

 Ahead of the International Day of Biological Diversity celebrated on May 22, UN Environment India
and Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) of India launched an awareness campaign ‘Not all animals
migrate by choice’ to be displayed at major airports across the country. (Hence statement 1 is
incorrect as the campaign will be displayed at the major airports and not all the airports of the
country).
 The campaign also complements worldwide action on illegal trade in wildlife through UN
Environment’s global campaign, Wild for Life.

Key Highlights of the Campaign:

 In collaboration with the Airports Authority of India and GMR Group, the campaign will travel across
22 airports across India over the next year.
 Both WCCB and UN Environment initiated a comprehensive approach with a focus on awareness
building of various stakeholders towards the issue of prevention of illegal trade and smuggling of
wildlife and wildlife products through exit points.
 The awareness campaign is expected to complement the efforts of the Govt. Agencies.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Quotes
 A ready-made phrase that can be used as the opening line or a concluding remark in case a question
about Wild life Conservation comes:
“Conservation is innate to India’s ethos. While wildlife faces threat across the globe and India’s flora and
fauna’s demand continues in illegal global markets, in keeping with our stringent provisions for
protection of wildlife under the Wild life (Protection) Act, 1972, efforts towards creating awareness
among public at large would go a long way to help protect our wildlife”
Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 45
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Recently, a historic decision was taken to base the SI units entirely on fundamental properties of
nature through seven defining constants. Which of the following is not one of those seven defining
constants?
(a) Caesium Hyperfine Frequency
(b) Speed of Light in Vacuum
(c) Gravitational Constant
(d) Plank’s Constant
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Out of the given constants, the Gravitational Constant (represented by ‘G’ ) is not one of the defining
constant that will be used to base the SI Units as per the new convention.
It is a knowledge-based question, therefore let us learn as to why was this question asked and what kind
of facts are needed to solve this question.

Recent Context:

 Recently, a landmark decision has been implemented to base the SI units entirely on fundamental
properties of nature.
 This decision was taken in the open session of the General Conference on Weights and Measures
(CGPM) at BIPM (Bureau International des Poids et Mesures) on 16 November 2018,
 The world has now unanimously adopted the resolution to redefine four of the seven base units,
1. kilogram (SI unit of weight)
2. Kelvin (SI unit of temperature)
3. mole (SI unit of amount of substance)
4. ampere (SI unit of current)

 All SI units shall now be defined in terms of constants that describe the natural world.
 This will assure the future stability of the SI and open the opportunity for the use of new
technologies, including quantum technologies, to implement the definitions.
 The seven defining constants of the SI are:
1. the caesium hyperfine frequency ΔVCs;
2. the speed of light in vacuum c;
3. the Planck constant h;
4. the elementary charge e;
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5. the Boltzmann constant k;

6. the Avogadro constant NA; and
7. the luminous efficacy of a defined visible radiation Kcd.

 The SI was previously defined in terms of seven base units and derived units defined as products of
powers of the base units.
 The seven base units were chosen for historical reasons, and were, by convention, regarded as
dimensionally independent:
[Link] metre
2. the kilogram
3. the second
4. the ampere
5. the kelvin
6. the mole
7. the candela.
This role for the base units continues in the present SI even though the SI itself is now defined in terms
of the defining constants above.

 The new SI is being implemented worldwide from 20th May 2019 i.e. the World Metrology Day.
 The World Metrology Day (WMD) is celebrated annually on this very day as the Metre Convention
was signed by representatives of seventeen nations on May 20, 1875.
 The Convention set the framework for global collaboration in the science of measurement and in its
industrial, commercial and societal applications.
 On this occasion CSIR-NPL also published a book entitled, “Redefined SI Units and Glimpses of NPL
Metrological Activities” to percolate and disseminate the information accommodating details on
new changes, posters and documents mentioned above and role of NPL in strengthening the Indian
metrological infrastructure for the govt. representatives, policy makers, regulator, certification
bodies, academic institutions, industries and public as a whole.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

2. BIPM Website
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 46

DOMAIN: Awards

Q. Which of the following Ministries instituted Vayoshreshtha Samman Awards?

(a) Ministry of Women & Child Development
(b) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Vayoshreshtha Samman Awards are also known as National Award for Senior Citizens and hence they
are conferred on Senior Citizens. They conferred by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment which
had also instituted these awards in 2005.

Recent Context:

Recently, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has invited nomination for Vayoshreshtha
Samman 2019 which is the National Awards for Senior Citizens for both Individuals and Institutions
categories.

About Vayoshreshtha Samman Awards:

 The series of National Award-Vayoshreshtha Samman awards were instituted by the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment in 2005.
 In 2013 these were elevated to the level of national awards.
 It is an annual award which is conferred in thirteen categories.

Nominees:
 The award can be conferred to both individual and institution.
 Various Ministries and Departments of Government of India, their autonomous organistions, State
Government, Union Territory’s (UT) Administration all can nominate suitable individuals and
institutions for the said National Awards.

Awardees:
 These are conferred to eminent senior citizens and Institutions who are involved in providing
distinguished services for the cause of elderly persons.
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Awarded on:
 In general, these are conferred by the President of India on 1st October each year on the occasion
of International Day of Older Persons (IDOP).

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 47
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context of Wildlife Crime Control Bureau of India:
1. It is statutory body established under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,1960.
2. It functions under Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate Change.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Out of the given statements only statement 2 is correct because although Wildife Crime Control Bureau
of India is a Statutory Body, but it is not established under “Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960”,
rather it has been established under “Wildlife Protection Act, 1972”.
Let us learn why this organization was in news and what are some important facts that we must know
about it to crack PRELIMS.
Recent Context:

The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau of India in news because it recently launched an awareness campaign
against the animal trafficking.
The campaign is known as ‘Not All Animals migrate by Choice’.

Some important Facts about Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is as follows:

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 It is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the Ministry
of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
 Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to collect and collate
intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and
other enforcement agencies for:
1. Taking immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals
2. Establishing a centralized wildlife crime data bank
3. Co-ordinating the actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the
provisions of the Act;
4. Assisting foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-
ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control
5. Capacity building of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional
investigation into wildlife crimes
6. Assisting State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes
7. Advising the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and
international ramifications, relevant policy and laws.
 It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna
as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Government Schemes and Programmes
 A Campaign named – ‘Not all animals migrate by choice’ is a government programme, which can be
quoted in various answers to depict the leadership steps taken by India to fight Organized Wildlife
Crimes such as Animal Trafficking.
Fodder Type: Important Bills, Acts and Amendments
 Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 is an important Act in the sphere of Biodiversity Conservation and
provides a legislative framework to deal with Organized Crimes.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 48
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. Consider the following statements in context of UN Environment which is often in news and identify
the correct statements:
1. It is headquartered in Nairobi.
2. It was set up as a result of the Stockholm conference in 1972
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

 United Nations Environment Programme is also referred to as UN Environment.

 It was in news recently because it has launched an awareness campaign in collaboration with the
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau of India to generate awareness about animal trafficking.
 The campaign is known as ‘Not all Animals migrate by choice’

Important Points about UN Environment:

 UN Environment is the leading global voice on the environment.
 It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
 The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), a programme of the United Nations,
coordinates the organization's environmental activities and assists developing countries in
implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
 It was founded by Maurice Strong, its first director, as a result of the United Nations Conference
on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) in June 1972 and has overall responsibility for
environmental problems among United Nations agencies.
 It provides leadership and encourages partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring,
informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising
that of future generations.
 UN Environment works with governments, the private sector, the civil society and with other UN
entities and international organizations across the world.

Important Sources:
1. PIB dated May 20th, 2019
Link: [Link]

2. UN Environment Website
Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 49
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. Consider the following statements in context of FATF (Financial Action Task Force) and identify the
correct one/s:
1. FATF is an intergovernmental body that came into existence in 1989 as an outcome of G-20 summit
on combatting money laundering in Paris.
2. FATF has developed a series of recommendations on issues that include - combating of money
laundering, financing of terrorism and proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Only statement 2 is correct because there is JUMLAA in statement 1.
FATF was definitely established in 1989 and it was definitely an outcome of a summit but the summit
was not of G-20 but of G-7.
Let us learn the context of this question and some important facts needed to solve it.

Recent Context:

Recently, the policy experts and international think tanks are speculating that Pakistan which is currently
in grey list of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
The FATF plenary had formally placed Pakistan in the grey list in June 2018 after the country could not
secure a minimum of three votes.

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ABOUT FINANCIAL ACTION TASK FORCE:

A. Breif History
 The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the
Ministers of its Member jurisdictions.
 It was an outcome of the G7 summit in Paris, 1989. The summit was aimed to combat money
laundering.
 At the time of its formation FATF had 16 members, which till 2016 have grown to 37.

Objectives and Functions:

 The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal,
regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and
other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
 The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to
bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas.
 The FATF's decision making body, the FATF Plenary, meets three times per year.
 The FATF has developed a series of recommendations that are recognised as the international
standard for combating of money laundering and the financing of terrorism and proliferation of
weapons of mass destruction.
 First issued in 1990, the FATF Recommendations were revised in 1996, 2001, 2003 and most recently
in 2012 to ensure that they remain up to date and relevant, and they are intended to be of universal
application.
 The FATF monitors the progress of its members in implementing necessary measures, reviews money
laundering and terrorist financing techniques and counter-measures, and promotes the adoption
and implementation of appropriate measures globally.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 17th, 2019
Link: [Link]
fatf-grey-list-official/[Link]
2. FATF Website
Links: [Link]
QUESTION 50
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI):
1. It attached to the Ministry of Tourism.
2. It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Smuggling of precious artefacts is a grave problem in many countries including India. Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI) was in news because it had recently seized certain artefacts from a smuggler.

The artefacts seized from the smuggler include: -

Manjushri Lingodhbhava Mithuna

1. Manjushri - belonging to Eastern Pala Region. Manjushri is a Bodhisattva associated with Mahayana
Buddhism.

2. Lingodhbhava belonging to Late Chola Period. Lingodhbhava is an iconic representation of Hindu God
Shiva, commonly found in south Indian Temples.

3. Mithuna belonging to Kalachuris of Tripuri.

About ASI:
 ASI or Archaeological Survey of India is an Indian Government agency attached to the Ministry of
Culture that is responsible for archaeological research and the conservation and preservation of
cultural monuments in the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
 It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham who became its first Director-General. And that
makes statement 2 correct.

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Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
smuggler/[Link]

QUESTION 51
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. As per the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) guidelines, criteria for heat waves includes which
of the following?
1. A departure of 5oC to 6oC when the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal
to 40oC.
2. A departure of 4oC to 5oC when the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40oC.
3. When the actual maximum temperature remains 45oC or more irrespective of normal maximum
temperature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Recently, as the summer season reaches its peak, meteorologists are speculating the various factors
associated with the rising mercury especially in the north Indian Region.
This has brought the term ‘Heat Wave’ into the headlines.

What is heat wave?

 Heat wave refers to the period of prolonged abnormally high surface temperature relative to those
normally expected. Heat waves can span from several days to several weeks.
 World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) defines heat wave as five or more consecutive days
during which the daily maximum temperature surpasses the average maximum temperature by 5
degree Celsius (9 degree Fahrenheit ) or more.

What is WMO?

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 It is a specialized agency of United Nations created to promote the establishment of a worldwide

meteorological observation system, the application of meteorology to other fields, and the
development of national meteorological services in less developed countries.
 The WMO was preceded by the International Meteorological Organisation (IMO), a non-
government organisation of the heads of various national weather services founded in 1873.
 WMO was created by World Meteorological Convention, 1947.
 Headquarters of WMO are at Geneva, Switzerland. It began its operations in 1951.

How are heat wave guidelines set up in India?

 Heat wave guidelines in India are provided by INDIAN METEOROLOGICAL DEPARTMENT (IMD).
 It functions under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.
 It was established in 1875. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country and the
principal government agency in matters relating to meteorology, seismology and allied subjects.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Maps

Heat Wave Conditions in 2017.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
heat/[Link]

QUESTION 52
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. With reference to Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:

1. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
2. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering
Act, 2002 (PMLA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

ABOUT ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE:

 Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of
Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India, which enforces the following laws. Statement 1
is therefore correct.
 Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (FEMA) - A Civil Law, with officers empowered to conduct
investigations into suspected contraventions of the Foreign Exchange Laws and Regulations,
adjudicate, contraventions, and impose penalties on those adjudged to have contravened the law.
 Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) - A Criminal Law, with the officers empowered
to conduct investigations to trace assets derived out of the proceeds of crime, to provisionally
attach/ confiscate the same, and to arrest and prosecute the offenders found to be involved in
Money Laundering.
Hence statement 2 is also correct.
Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
ministers-brother/[Link]

QUESTION 53
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. What is Fall Armyworm often mentioned in the news?

(a) It is an insect pest that feeds on crops like maize.
(b) It is a recently discovered fungal infection.
(c) It acts as pest resistant for GM crops.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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 Agriculture scientists and environmentalists predict that the deadly pest, fall armyworm (FAW),
could turn out to be a scourge for farmers in former undivided Adilabad district in the coming crop
seasons.
 The pestilence, which had primarily attacked maize crop in Nirmal and Adilabad districts, had
damaged crop to the extent of 90% in some cases and is expected to attack even cotton and
soyabean crops.

Fall Armyworm
 (Spodopterafrugiperda) is an insect pest that feeds on more than 80 crop species, causing damage
to economically important cultivated cereals such as maize, rice, sorghum, and also to legumes as
well as vegetable crops and cotton. Hence option A is the correct answer.
 It is native to tropical and subtropical regions of the Americas. High infestations can lead to
significant yield loss.

About Fall Armyworm

 The adult moth is able to move over 100 km per night.
 It lays its eggs on plants, from which larvae hatch and begin feeding.
 The female moth can lay up to a total of 1000 eggs in her lifetime.
 The eggs of FAW are white in colour and later turn into brown. They hatch in 2-3 days.

Integrated Pest Management for FAW

 IPM is an integrated strategy of pest control which aims at prevention of pests and its damage
through a combination of techniques such as chemical, biological, new cropping system,
modification of cultural practices, use of resistant varieties and through mechanical methods.
 IPM emphasizes the growth of a healthy crop with the least possible disruption to agro-
ecosystems and encourages natural pest control mechanisms.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
adilabad/[Link]

QUESTION 54
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. What is Vesak, recently seen in the news?

(a) It is a festival celebrated to commemorate the birth of Buddha, his attainment of enlightenment and
his passing away
(b) It is a military exercise between India and Vietnam
(c) It is a Buddhist monastery in Bhutan
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
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Recent Context:

 Recently, the term Vesak was in news because, the Vice President of India will be participating in the
16th United Nations Day of Vesak at Tam Chuc pagoda in Vietnam's northern Ha Nam province in
the backdrop of his official visit to Vietnam.

About Vesak:
 Considered sacred to Buddhists, Vesak is celebrated to commemorate the birth of Buddha, his
attainment of enlightenment and his passing away. And that makes Option A the correct answer.

Tam Chuc pagoda Vietnam:

 The ancient pagoda (meaning temple) built in Dinh dynasty dating back 1000 years ago has been
entirely damaged with the passage of time.
 People started to reform it a few years ago and now it is being rebuilt with the first phase expected
to be completed in May 2019 when the pagoda hosts the UN Day of Vesak (Buddha’s Birthday,
Enlightenment and Passing Away).

Three colossal Buddha statues in black bronze representing the past, present, and future are situated
in the very heart of Dien Tam The in which great pictures about Nirvana are hung.
These statues are over 100 tons weight and they are the biggest statues in Vietnam, defeating the record
of those in Bai Dinh Pagoda.

What is a pagoda??
 A pagoda is a tiered tower with multiple eaves, built in traditions originating as stupa in
historic Asia and further developed in East Asia with respect to those traditions, common
to Nepal, China, Japan, Korea, Vietnam, Myanmar, India, Sri Lanka and other parts of Asia.

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Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]

QUESTION 55
DOMAIN: Disease in news

Q. With reference to Leprosy, consider the following statements:

1. It is a disease which mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosal surfaces of the upper
respiratory tract and the eyes.
2. It is a viral disease.
3. It is a disease which occurs mainly in the old age.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

What is Leprosy?
 Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s disease, is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium
leprae. Hence, it is a bacterial disease. Statement 2 is therefore incorrect.
 The disease mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosal surfaces of the upper respiratory
tract and the eyes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Leprosy is known to occur at all ages ranging from early infancy to very old age. Which makes
statement 3 incorrect.
 Leprosy is curable and early treatment averts most disabilities.

How is leprosy transmitted?

 The exact mechanism of transmission of leprosy is not known.
 At least until recently, the most widely held belief was that the disease was transmitted by contact
between cases of leprosy and healthy persons.
 More recently the possibility of transmission by the respiratory route is gaining ground.

The National Leprosy Eradication Programme

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 It is a centrally sponsored Health Scheme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of
India.
 The Programme is headed by the Deputy Director of Health Services (Leprosy) under the
administrative control of the Directorate General Health Services Govt. of India.
 While the NLEP strategies and plans are formulated centrally, the programme is implemented by
the States/UTs.
 The Programmes also supported by partners such as the World Health Organization, the
International Federation of Anti-leprosy Associations (ILEP) and few other Non-Govt.
Organizations.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Government Schemes and Programmes
National Leprosy Eradication Programme of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to eradicate leprosy
from India.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
kottayam/[Link]

QUESTION 56
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Red Sanders:

1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has reclassified Red Sanders as ‘near
threatened’.
2. Red Sanders is endemic to India.
3. Foreign Trade Policy allows the export of Red Sanders wood.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Firstly, the aspirant should note that there is a JUMLAA in the question. It is asking for the incorrect
statements here.
Hence the correct answer is supposed to have the incorrect statements and not the correct ones.

Recent Context:

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About Red Sanders

 Pterocarpussantalinus, with the common names red sanders, red sandalwood, and saunderswood,
is a species of Pterocarpus endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range of South India.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
 This tree is valued for the rich red colour of its wood.
 The wood is not aromatic.
 The tree is not to be confused with the aromatic Santalum sandalwood trees that grow natively in
South India.
 The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), an international organisation for
nature conservation, has now reclassified red sanders (Pterocarpussantalinus) as ‘near
threatened’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 However, as the species is endemic to India and had been considered endangered, the Foreign
Trade Policy of India doesn’t allow its export. Hence statement 3 is incorrect and since the
question has asked us to identify to the incorrect statement (which is 3 only). Hence option C is the
Correct answer.
 This ban, coupled with its high demand, made illegal trade of red sanders rampant in states where
it is found like Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

About IUCN
 The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a membership Union uniquely
composed of both government and civil society organisations.
 It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools
that enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place
together.

The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species (also known as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List)
 It was founded in 1965, has evolved to become the world's most comprehensive inventory of
the global conservation status of biological species.
 It uses a set of criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies.
These criteria are relevant to all species and all regions of the world.
 With its strong scientific base, the IUCN Red List is recognized as the most authoritative guide to
the status of biological diversity.
 A series of Regional Red List are produced by countries or organizations, which assess the risk of
extinction to species within a political management unit.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
seized/[Link]

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QUESTION 57
DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices

Q. “Sand and Sustainability: Finding new solutions for environmental governance of global sand
resource” is a report released by:
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(c) United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
(d) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About the report:

 The report has been released by United Nations Environment Programme.
 The report notes that China and India head the list of critical hotspots for sand extraction impacts
in rivers, lakes, and on coastlines.
 Sand and gravel, the report says, are the second largest natural resources extracted and traded by
volume after water, but among the least regulated.

About United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):

 UNEP, established in 1972, is the voice for the environment within the United Nations system.
 UNEP acts as a catalyst, advocate, educator and facilitator to promote the wise use and sustainable
development of the global environment.
 UNEP has its headquarters at Nairobi, Kenya.

About International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN):

 Created in 1948, IUCN has evolved into the world’s largest and most diverse environmental network.
 The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a membership Union uniquely
composed of both government and civil society organisations.
 It provides public, private and non-governmental organisations with the knowledge and tools that
enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.
 IUCN has its headquarter at Gland, Switzerland.

About United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):

 Established in 1994, the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the sole
legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land
management.

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 The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
 The new UNCCD 2018-2030 Strategic Framework is the most comprehensive global commitment
to achieve Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN).

About World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

WWF is the world's largest conservation organization with over five million supporters worldwide,
working in more than 100 countries, supporting around 1,300 conservation and environmental projects.
They have invested over $1 billion in more than 12,000 conservation initiatives since 1995.
WWF is a foundation with 55% of funding from individuals and bequests, 19% from government
sources (such as the World Bank, DFID, USAID) and 8% from corporations in 2014.
WWF aims to "stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and to build a future in which
humans live in harmony with nature.”
The Living Planet Report is published every two years by WWF since 1998; it is based on a Living Planet
Index and ecological footprint calculation.
In addition, WWF has launched several notable worldwide campaigns including Earth Hour and Debt-
for-Nature Swap, and its current work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater,
wildlife, forests, and oceans.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics
As per the UNEP report Sand and Sustainability: While 85% to 90% of global sand demand is met from
quarries, and sand and gravel pits, the 10% to 15% extracted from rives and sea shores is a severe
concern due the environmental and social impacts.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
challenge-un-report/[Link]

QUESTION 58
DOMAIN: Government Schemes and Programmes

Q. With reference to Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) workers, consider the following
statements:
1. Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) is a trained female community health activist, selected from
the community itself and accountable to it.
2. Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA), has been instituted by the government of India's Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) as a part of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) workers:

 An accredited social health activist (ASHA) is a community health worker instituted by the
government of India's Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) as a part of the National
Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Hence statement 2 is correct.
 The mission began in 2005; full implementation was targeted for 2012.
 Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) is a trained female community health activist selected from
the community itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between
the community and the public health system. Hence statement 1 is also correct.
 There is one Community Health Volunteer i.e. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) for every
village with a population of 1000.
 The States have been given the flexibility to relax the population norms as well as the educational
qualifications on a case to case basis, depending on the local conditions as far as her recruitment is
concerned.

About National Rural Health Mission:

 It was launched on 12th April 2005, to provide accessible, affordable and quality health care to the
rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
 The key features in order to achieve the goals of the Mission include making the public health
delivery system fully functional and accountable to the community, human resources management,
community involvement, decentralization, rigorous monitoring & evaluation against standards,
convergence of health and related programmes form village level upwards, innovations and flexible
financing and also interventions for improving the health indicators.
 At the National level, the NHM has a Mission Steering Group (MSG) headed by the Union Minister
for Health & Family Welfare and an Empowered Programme Committee (EPC) headed by the Union
Secretary for Health & FW.
 The EPC will implement the Mission under the overall guidance of the MSG.
 At the State level, the Mission would function under the overall guidance of the State Health
Mission headed by the Chief Minister of the State. The functions under the Mission would be carried
out through the State Health & Family Welfare Society.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
warpath/[Link]

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QUESTION 59
DOMAIN: Awards

Q. With reference to Nari Puraskar Award, consider the following statements:

1. It is conferred by Ministry of Human Resource Development.
2. It is India’s highest civilian award for recognising the achievements and contributions of women.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Nari Shakti Puraskar

 Nari Shakti Puraskar (formerly Stree Shakti Puraskar), literally meaning "Woman Power Award",
is India's highest civilian award for recognising the achievements and contributions of women.
 The awards are given away by the President of India every year on 8 March, International Women's
Day at RashtrapatiBhavan in New Delhi.
 The Nari Shakti Puraskar is conferred on individual women, public and private institutions and public
departments for their activism and/ or their contributions to the cause of women's empowerment.
 The award, instituted in the year 1999 by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development, Government of India, is given in six institutional categories and two individual
categories.
 The award carries a cash prize of rupees one lakh (INR 100,000) and a citation.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Case Studies
Animal rights activist Mini Vasudevan won the NariPuraskar Award.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
Link: [Link]
about-her-work-in-coimbatore-that-won-her-the-nari-shakti-puraskar/[Link]

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QUESTION 60
DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions

Q. With reference to World Customs Organisation (WCO), consider the following statements:
1. It is a non- governmental organisation which administers technical aspects of WTO.
2. It is headquartered in Germany.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About World Customs Organisation (WCO)

The World Customs Organization (WCO) is an intergovernmental organization headquartered
in Brussels, Belgium.
The WCO is noted for its work in areas covering the development of international conventions,
instruments, and tools on topics such as commodity classification, valuation, rules of origin, collection
of customs revenue, supply chain security, international trade facilitation, customs enforcement
activities, combating counterfeiting in support of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), drugs enforcement,
illegal weapons trading, integrity promotion, and delivering sustainable capacity building to assist with
customs reforms and modernization.
The WCO maintains the international Harmonized System (HS) goods nomenclature, and administers
the technical aspects of the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreements on Customs
Valuation and Rules of Origin.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
 Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 61
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following countries:

1. Laos
2. Vietnam
3. Malaysia
4. Philippines
5. China
6. Brunei
7. Taiwan
Which of the above mentioned countries face the South China Sea?
(a) 1, 2, 3 ,4 ,5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 ,5, 6 and 7
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Laos is a landlocked country in the south east Asian region. Hence, the options could easily be
eliminated.

About South China Sea:

 The South China Sea is a marginal sea that is a part of the Pacific Ocean, encompassing an area from
the Karimata and Malacca Straits to the Strait of Taiwan of around 3,500,000 square kilometres
(1,400,000 sq mi).
 The sea carries tremendous strategic importance; one-third of the world's shipping passes through
it, carrying over $3 trillion in trade each year.
 It contains lucrative fisheries, which are crucial for the food security of millions in Southeast Asia.
Huge oil and gas reserves are believed to lie beneath its seabed.
Geography of South China Sea:
 States and territories with borders on the sea (clockwise from north) include: the People's Republic
of China, Republic of China (Taiwan), the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and
Vietnam.
 Major rivers that flow into the South China Sea include:
The Pearl, Min, Jiulong, Red, Mekong, Rajang, Pahang, Agno, Pampanga, and Pasig Rivers.

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Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
• Link: [Link]
sea/[Link]

QUESTION 62
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs/dams mentioned in news State where dams these are located
1. Mettur Dam Tamil Nadu
2. Gajuladinne Reservoir Karnataka
3. Mekedatu Dam Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: A

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

To meet the drinking water needs of Kurnool, about 50 cusecs is being diverted from the Gajuladinne
reservoir to the city. The administration is also planning to divert 120 cusecs from the
HandriNeevaSujalaSravanthi(HNSS) project via the Kanakadinne stream to the city.

Mettur Dam - The Mettur Dam is one of the largest dams in India and the largest in Tamil Nadu, located
across the river Cauvery where it enters the plains.
Built in 1934, it took 9 years to complete.
Maximum height and width of the dam are 214 and 171 feet respectively.
The dam receives inflows from its own catchment area, Kabini Dam and Krishna Raja Sagara Dams
located in Karnataka.

Mekedatu Dam - Mekedatu is located along Kaveri in Kanakapura Taluk of Ramanagara District of
Karnataka.
Sangama is the place where Arkavati merges with Kaveri.
From this point, about 3.5 Kilometers downstream, the river Kaveri flows through a deep and
narrow gorge.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
gajuladinne-reservoir/[Link]

QUESTION 63
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Intelligence Bureau comes under the ambit of Ministry of Defence.
2. Intelligence Bureau is used to garner intelligence from within India and also execute counter-
intelligence and counter-terrorism tasks.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Intelligence Bureau:

 It was recast as the Central Intelligence Bureau in 1947 under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
 The Intelligence Bureau (IB) is India's internal intelligence agency.

Responsibilities of Intelligence Bureau:

 Shrouded in secrecy, the IB is used to garner intelligence from within India and also execute counter-
intelligence and counter-terrorism tasks.
 The Bureau comprises employees from law enforcement agencies, mostly from the Indian Police
Service (IPS) or the Indian Revenue Service (IRS) and the military. However, the Director of
Intelligence Bureau (DIB) has always been an IPS officer.
 In addition to domestic intelligence responsibilities, the IB is particularly tasked with intelligence
collection in border areas, following the 1951 recommendations of the Himmat Singh Ji Committee
(also known as the North and North-East Border Committee), a task entrusted to the military
intelligence organisations prior to independence in 1947.
 All spheres of human activity within India and in the neighbourhood are allocated to the charter of
duties of the Intelligence Bureau.
 The IB was also tasked with other external intelligence responsibilities as of 1951 until 1968, when
the Research and Analysis Wing was formed.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
marriage-certificate-was-issued-to-couple-in-kerala/[Link]

QUESTION 64
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. ‘Sustainable Cities: Integrated Approach’ is a project under:

(a) United Nations Industrial Development Organisation (UNIDO)
(b) World Bank
(c) Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: A

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

The United Nations Industrial Development Organisation has identified Mysuru, Vijaywada, Guntur,
Bhopal and Jaipur as pilot cities as part of a project titled ‘Sustainable Cities’ Integrated Approach’.
Mitigation of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions is among the objectives of the project.

About United Nations Industrial Development Organisation (UNIDO):

The United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), French/Spanish acronym ONUDI, is
a specialized agency in the United Nations system, headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
The mission of UNIDO, as described in the Lima Declaration adopted at the fifteenth session of the
UNIDO General Conference in 2013, is to promote and accelerate inclusive and sustainable industrial
development (ISID) in Member States. It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group.
It publishes the INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT REPORT.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
mysuru-a-sustainable-city/[Link]

QUESTION 65
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Ramanuja:

1. Ramanuja was one of the most important exponents of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition within Hinduism.
2. Ramanuja's guru was YādavaPrakāśa, a scholar who was a part of the more ancient Advaita
Vedānta monastic tradition.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Ramanuja:
 Ramanuja was an Indian theologian, philosopher, and one of the most important exponents of
the Sri Vaishnavism tradition within Hinduism. His philosophical foundations for devotionalism
were influential to the Bhakti movement.
 Ramanuja's guru was YādavaPrakāśa, a scholar who was a part of the more ancient Advaita
Vedānta monastic tradition.
 Sri Vaishnava tradition holds that Ramanuja disagreed with his guru and the non-dualistic Advaita
Vedānta, and instead followed the footsteps of Indian Alvārs tradition, the
scholars Nāthamuni and Yamunacharya.
 Ramanuja is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta and his disciples
were likely authors of texts such as the Shatyayaniya Upanishad.
 Ramanuja himself wrote influential texts, such as bhāsya on the Brahma Sutras and the Bhagavad
Gita, all in Sanskrit.

About Vaishnavism tradition

 Vaishnavism is one of the major Hindu denominations along with Shaivism, Shaktism,
and Smartism.
It is also called Vishnuism, its followers are called Vaishnavas or Vaishnavites, and it
considers Vishnu as the Supreme Lord.
 The tradition is known for the loving devotion to an avatar of Vishnu (often Krishna), and it has been
key to the spread of the Bhakti movement in South Asia in the 2nd millennium CE.
 Key texts in Vaishnavism include the Vedas, the Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita, the Pancaratra
(Agama) texts and the Bhagavata Purana.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
debator/[Link]

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QUESTION 66
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Yakshagana:

1. It is one of the most popular folk theatre forms of Andhra Pradesh.
2. It uses a percussion instrument called Maddale in it.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Yakshagan
 Yakshagana is one of the most popular folk theatre forms of Karnataka
 It is noted for its music, colourful costumes, vigorous dance movements, subtle expressions and
extempore dialogues.
 Yakshagana has two main variations, each of which has many variations: Moodalapaya (the
eastern form which is popular in north Karnataka) and Paduvalapaya (western style also known as
coastal Yakshagana).
 A traditional Yakshagana performance spans the period from dusk to dawn. Nowadays ‘limited-
time’ Yakshagana has become more popular, as most spectators are taken up with busy schedules.
 Regardless of where the Yakshagana is performed, at the back of the stage there is always a raised
bench or table on which two persons (bhagavata or the playback singer and maddalegara, the
artist who plays the percussion instrument maddale) can sit.

Some other important theatre forms of India:

THEATRE OF ENTERTAINMENT
Bhavai – Gujarat and Rajasthan
Daskathia- Odisha
Jatra – Eastern India
Kariyila- Himachal Pradesh
Maanch- Madhya Pradesh
Powada- Maharashtra

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THEATRES OF SOUTH INDIA

Burra Katha – Andhra Pradesh
PagatiVeshalu – Telangana
Baylata – Karnataka
Theyyam – Karnataka
Krishna Attam- Karnataka

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
end-seasons-tour-this-month/[Link]

QUESTION 67
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Chota Nagpur Plateau:

1. Chota Nagpur Plateau in Jharkhand is arguably the world’s largest collection of megaliths spread over
53 known sites.
2. Chota Nagpur Plateau is called the heart of industrial India.
3. Chota Nagpur Plateau covers the states of Jharkhand and Odisha only.
Which of the statement/s given is/above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Chota Nagpur Plateau:

The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well
as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar and Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The Indo-Gangetic plain lies to the north and east of the plateau, and the basin of the Mahanadi
River lies to the south.
The total area of the Chota Nagpur Plateau is approximately 65,000 square kilometres.

Formation of Chota Nagpur Plateau:

The Chhota Nagpur Plateauis a continental plateau—an extensive area of land thrust above the general
land.

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The plateau has been formed by continental uplift from forces acting deep inside the earth.
The Gondwana substrates attest to the plateau's ancient origin. It is part of the Deccan Plate, which
broke free from the southern continent during the Cretaceous to embark on a 50-million-year journey
that was interrupted by the collision with the Eurasian continent.
The northeastern part of the Deccan Plateau, where this ecoregion sits, was the first area of contact
with Eurasia.

Why is it called the heart of industrial India?

1. It is rich in power fuels like coal and various other minerals.
2. It is located close to industrial centres of India like Jamshedpur etc.

What are megaliths?

A megalith is a large stone that has been used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or
together with other stones.
The word megalithic describes structures made of such large stones without the use of mortar or
concrete, representing periods of prehistory characterised by such constructions.
For later periods, the word monolith, with an overlapping meaning, is more likely to be used.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 9th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
plateau/[Link]

QUESTION 68

DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Finance Commission.
2. Prime Minister constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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About Finance Commission:

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly
to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and
amongst the States themselves.
Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between
the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and
equalization of all public services across the States.

Functions of Finance Commission:

 It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—
 the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or
may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of
such proceeds;
 the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India;
 the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of
the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission
of the State;
 the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of
the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance
Commission of the State;
 any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

The Commission determines its procedure and has such powers in the performance of their functions
as Parliament may by law confer on them.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 8th, 2019
• Link: [Link]

QUESTION 69
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements:

[Link] asteroids in our solar system are found in the main asteroid belt, a region between Mercury and
Venus.
2. Small pieces of the asteroid that break off to form pieces are called meteoroids.
3. If a meteoroid comes close enough to Earth and enters Earth’s atmosphere, it vaporizes and turns
into a meteor.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only

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(d) 1 and 3 only

CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About asteroids:
 An asteroid is a small rocky body orbiting the Sun.
 Most asteroids in our solar system are found in the main asteroid belt, a region between Mars and
Jupiter. But they can also hang out in other locations around the solar system. For example, some
asteroids orbit the Sun in a path that takes them near Earth.

About meteoroids:
 Sometimes one asteroid can smash into another. This can cause small pieces of the asteroid to break
off. Those pieces are called meteoroids.

About meteors:
 If a meteoroid comes close enough to Earth and enters Earth’s atmosphere, it vaporizes and turns
into a meteor: a streak of light in the sky.
 Because of their appearance, these streaks of light are sometimes called "shooting stars." But
scientists know that meteors are not stars at all—they are just bits of rock.

About comets:
 Comets orbit the Sun, like asteroids. But comets are made of ice and dust—not rock.
 As a comet’s orbit takes it toward the Sun, the ice and dust begin to vaporize. That vaporized ice and
dust become the comet’s tail. You can see a comet even when it is very far from Earth. However,
when you see a meteor, it’s in our atmosphere.

About meteorites:
 Sometimes meteoroid rocks don’t vaporize completely in the atmosphere. In fact, sometimes they
survive their trip through Earth’s atmosphere and land as rocks on the Earth’s surface. Those rocks
are called meteorites.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]

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QUESTION 70
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements about Airport Authority of India (AAI):

1. It is a statutory body under Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It is Miniratna, category 1 PSE.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Airports Authority of India or AAI

It is a statutory body (created through the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994) working under the
Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil aviation infrastructure in
India. It provides Communication Navigation Surveillance / Air Traffic Management (CNS/ATM) services
over Indian airspace and adjoining oceanic areas.
It also manages a total of 126 Airports, including 11 International Airports, 11 Customs Airports, 89
Domestic Airports and 26 Civil enclaves at Military Airfields.

Public sector undertakings in India:

A state-owned enterprise in India is called a public sector undertaking (PSU) or a public sector
enterprise.
These companies are owned by the union government of India or one of the many state or territorial
governments or both.
The company stock needs to be majority-owned by the government to be a PSU.
PSUs strictly may be classified as central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) or state level public
enterprises (SLPEs). In 1951 there were just five enterprises in the public sector in India, but in March
1991 this had increased to 246.
CPSEs are companies in which the direct holding of the Central Government or other CPSEs is 51% or
more. They are administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.

Category status of PSU:

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MAHARATNA:Three years with an average annual net profit of over Rs. 2500 crore, OR
Average annual Net worth of Rs. 10,000 crore for 3 years, OR Average annual Turnover of Rs. 20,000
crorefor 3 years (against Rs 25,000 crore prescribed earlier).

NAVRATNA:A score of 60 (out of 100), based on six parameters which include net profit, net worth,
total manpower cost, total cost of production, cost of services, PBDIT (Profit Before Depreciation,
Interest and Taxes), capital employed, etc., AND
A company must first be a Miniratna and have 4 independent directors on its board before it can be
made a Navratna.

MINIRATNA CATEGORY-1:
Have made profits continuously for the last three years or earned a net profit of Rs. 30 crore or more
in one of the three years

MINIRATNA CATEGORY 2:
Have made profits continuously for the last three years and should have a positive net worth.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
space/[Link]

QUESTION 71
DOMAIN: Disease in news

Q. Consider the following statements about H1N1:

1. It is an influenza subtype A virus.
2. Its respiratory transmission occurs mainly by droplets disseminated by unprotected coughs and
sneezes.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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About H1N1:
Influenza viruses belonging to the family Orthomyxoviridae.
The influenza viruses are classified into types A, B and Conthe basis of their core proteins. Only types A
and B cause human disease of any concern. The subtypes of influenza A viruses are determined by
envelope glycoproteins possessing either haemagglutinin (HA) or neuraminidase (NA) activity.
Influenza A (H1N1) virus emerged in 2009. It is a new reassortment that has never before circulated
among humans.
This virus is not closely related to previous or current human seasonal influenza viruses.

TRANSMISSION
Respiratory transmission occurs mainly by droplets disseminated by unprotected coughs and sneezes.
Short-distance airborne transmission of influenza viruses may occur, particularly in crowded enclosed
spaces. Hand contamination and direct inoculation of virus is another possible source of transmission.

NATURE OF DISEASE
An acute respiratory infection of varying severity,
ranging from asymptomatic infection to fatal
disease.
Typical influenza symptoms include fever with
abrupt onset, chills, sore throat, non-productive
cough and, often accompanied by headache,
coryza, myalgia and prostration. Complications of
influenza viral infection include: primary influenza
viral pneumonitis, bacterial pneumonia, otitis
media and exacerbation of underlying chronic
conditions.
Illness tends to be most severe in the elderly, in
infants and young children, and in
immunocompromised hosts. Death resulting from
seasonal influenza occurs mainly in the elderly and
in individuals with pre-existing chronic diseases.
Influenza A (H1N1) is similar to seasonal influenza
but has been characterized by higher activity
during the northern summer season, higher
fatality rates among healthy young adults and
higher incidence of viral pneumonia.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
karnataka/[Link]

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QUESTION 72
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. India is the third largest producer of cashew in the world.
2. In India, Karnataka is the largest producer of cashew amongst the states.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About cashew production in India:

 Cashew often referred to as ‘wonder nut’, is one of the most valuable processed nuts traded on the
global commodity markets and is also an important cash crop
 Maharashtra is leading in cashew production (198,000 MT) with 32.3% share.
 It is cultivated widely throughout the tropics for its kernels.
 In India, it is grown in the west coast, east coast and in a few plain areas in Karnataka and Madhya
Pradesh. The highest productivity is noticed in Maharashtra.
 India is the largest producer of cashew in the world with 25.52% share in world production. In India
each metric ton of raw cashew seed produced and processed, yields about 230 kg (23%) of
exportable grade kernels
 Cashew generates employment in the processing and agrarian sector of India employing over 3 lakh
persons with more than 95% of them being women.
 Cashew is mainly cultivated in Asia, Africa and Latin America
 The annual growth rate during this period was 4.55% with variations ranging from 8.22 to 20.08%.
 India is the premier exporter of cashew kernels and earns a sizeable amount of foreign exchange.
 India is the second largest exporter after Vietnam, accounting for 34% of the world’s export of
cashew kernels.

Importance of Cashew:
 The cashew tree plays an important role in maintaining the ecological balance of the dry regions,
the cashew tree is multi-functional: apart from exportable cashew nuts, it supplies timber,
firewood, medicines, fodder, etc.

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 By-products from cashew offer opportunities for development of local industry, the world market
for cashews is dynamic, with sustained growth rates of approximately 10% per year and the nuts
produced could receive the “organic” label as they are chemical free and get premium price.
 Various value added products such as juice, fenny, wine, dried cashew apple, syrup and jam can be
prepared from cashew apple which paves the wave for the development of cashew based industry
and economic development of our country.

Fodder for MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics
Cashew production in India:
India is the largest producer of Cashew in the world and is the second largest exporter after Vietnam.
Highest productivity is noticed in Maharashtra.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
funds/[Link]

QUESTION 73
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, Peopleand Communities in news

Q. Consider the following pairs:

Dams sometimes mentioned in news Indian state where these are located
1. Narayanpur Dam - Karnataka
2. Idukki Dam - Kerela
3. Aliyar Dam - Tamil Nadu
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Narayanpur dam – Karnataka:

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Also known as Basva Sagar Dam, it is built as a part of Krishna Sagar Dam in Yadgir district of Karnataka,
on Krishna river. It used in hydroelectricity generation and for irrigation purposes.

About Idukki Dam- Kerela:

It is in Idukki district of Kerala. It is operated on Periyar river as a part of Idukki Hydroelectric Project.

About Aliyar Dam- Tamil Nadu:

AliyaReservoir is a 6.48 km2 reservoir locatedin Aliyar village near Pollachi town in Coimbatore
District, Tamil Nadu, South India. The dam is located in the foothills of Valparai, in the Anaimalai
Hills of the Western Ghats.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
narayanpur-dam/[Link]

QUESTION 74
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Cyclone Fani:

1. It has been classified as an extremely severe cyclone.
2. It’s name Fani has been suggested by Bangladesh.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Cyclone Fani:

Extremely Severe Cyclonic StormFani was the strongest tropical cyclone to strike the Indian
state of Odisha since Phailin in 2013.
The second named storm and the first severe cyclonic storm of the 2019 North Indian Ocean cyclone
season, Fani originated from a tropical depression that formed west of Sumatra in the Indian Ocean on
26 April.

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Fani rapidly intensified into an extremely severe cyclonic storm and reached its peak intensity on 2
May as a high-end extremely severe cyclonic storm—the equivalent of a high-end Category 4 major
hurricane. Fani weakened before making landfall, and its convective structure rapidly degraded
thereafter, degenerating into a remnant low on 4 May, and dissipating on the next day.

About an extremely severe cyclone:

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies cyclones on the basis of the maximum sustained
surface wind speed (MSW) they generated.
The cyclones are classified as severe (MSW of 48-63 knots), very severe (MSW of 64-89 knots),
extremely severe (MSW of 90-119 knots) and super cyclonic storm (MSW of 120 knots or more).
One knot is equal to 1.8 kmph.

What makes cyclone Fani different?

Timing and strength are two factors that make Cyclone Fani, pronounced as Foni, different from most
other tropical cyclones in this time of the year. Cyclone Fani started developing around April 25 and has
made a landfall this morning in Odisha on the east coast.
Traversing for nearly 10 days over the sea allowed Fani to gather such strength that it is now classified
as an extremely severe cyclone. Generally, tropical cyclones over the Bay of Bengal have a lifespan of
four-seven days. But Cyclone Fani is different.
It has been observed that cyclones/hurricanes/tornados that spend a long time travelling over the sea
are generally more powerful than the ones that hit the landmass within a few days.
The reason is that the longer duration at sea allows storms to gather more water and momentum and
thus generate stronger winds.
Another aspect that makes Cyclone Fani special is its trajectory. Fani started developing around the
Equator and moved upwards (see image below). It thus has had a much longer journey from its
starting point to the point where it made a landfall, than other cyclones that generate in the Bay of
Bengal.

How is a cyclone named?

The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) has a process in which countries give a list of name
suggestions from time to time. Countries like India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Maldives, Myanmar, Oman,
Pakistan and Thailand submit a list of names to the regional tropical cyclone committee for the cyclones
developing in the North Indian Ocean. All the eight countries have suggested eight names for naming
future cyclones.
The name Fani for this cyclone was suggested by Bangladesh. Fani means snake’.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
seeks-more-kerosene-for-odisha/[Link]

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QUESTION 75
DOMAIN: Latest technology in news

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Compressed Natural gas consists mostly of methane and is drawn from gas wells or in conjunction
with crude oil production.
2. Liquefied Petroleum Gas or LPG consists mainly of propane, propylene, butane, and butylene in
various mixtures.
3. Liquefied Natural Gas or LNG is natural gas stored as a super-cooled (cryogenic) liquid.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Compressed Natural Gas or (CNG):

 Compressed Natural Gas or CNG is stored on the vehicle in high-pressure tanks - 20 to 25Mpa.
Natural gas consists mostly of methane and is drawn from gas wells or in conjunction with crude oil
production.
 As delivered through the pipeline system, it also contains hydrocarbons such as ethane and propane
as well as other gases such as nitrogen, helium, carbon dioxide, sulphur compounds, and water
vapour.
 A sulphur-based odourant is normally added to CNG to facilitate leak detection. Natural gas is
lighter than air and thus will normally dissipate in the case of a leak, giving it a significant safety
advantage over gasoline or LPG.

About Liquified Natural Gas:

 Liquefied Natural Gas or LNG is natural gas stored as a super-cooled (cryogenic) [Link]
temperature required to condense natural gas depends on its precise composition, but it is typically
between -120 and -170°C (-184 and –274°F). The advantage of LNG is that it offers an energy density
comparable to petrol and diesel fuels, extending range and reducing refuelling frequency.

About Liquified Petroleum Gas:

 Liquefied Petroleum Gas or LPG (also called Autogas) consists mainly of propane, propylene,
butane, and butylene in various mixtures.
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 It is produced as a by-product of natural gas processing and petroleum refining. The components
of LPG are gases at normal temperatures and pressures.
 One challenge with LPG is that it can vary widely in composition, leading to variable engine
performance and cold starting performance.
 At normal temperatures and pressures, LPG will evaporate. Because of this, LPG is stored in
pressurised steel bottles.
 Unlike natural gas, LPG is heavier than air, and thus will flow along floors and tend to settle in low
spots, such as basements. Such accumulations can cause explosion hazards, and are the reason that
LPG fuelled vehicles are prohibited from indoor areas in many jurisdictions.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
refills/[Link]

QUESTION 76
DOMAIN: Government Schemes and Programmes

Q. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a scheme of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
2. It aims to safeguard the health of women & children by providing them with a clean cooking fuel –
LPG, so that they don’t have to compromise their health in smoky kitchens or wander in unsafe areas
collecting firewood.
3. It willalso provide a great boost to the ‘Make in India’ campaign as all the manufacturers of cylinders,
gas stoves, regulators, and gas hose are domestic.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)

 Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas for providing
LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.

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 Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) aims to safeguard the health of women & children by
providing them with a clean cooking fuel – LPG, so that they don’t have to compromise their health
in smoky kitchens or wander in unsafe areas collecting firewood.
 Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on May
1st, 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh. Under this scheme, 5 Cr LPG connections will be provided to BPL
families with a support of Rs.1600 per connection in the next 3 years.
 Ensuring women’s empowerment, especially in rural India, the connections will be issued in the
name of women of the households.
 Identification of the BPL families will be done through Socio Economic Caste Census Data.
 PMUY is likely to result in an additional employment of around 1 Lakh and provide business
opportunity of at least Rs. 10,000 Cr. over the next 3 Years to the Indian Industry. Launch of this
scheme will also provide a great boost to the ‘Make in India’ campaign as all the manufacturers of
cylinders, gas stoves, regulators, and gas hose are domestic.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
minimal/[Link]

QUESTION 77
DOMAIN: Government Policies

Q. With reference to MCA 21, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative under Ministry of Finance.
2. The MCA21 application is designed to fully automate all processes related to the proactive
enforcement and compliance of the legal requirements under the Companies Act, 1956, New Companies
Act, 2013 and Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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About MCA 21:

MCA21 is an e-Governance initiative of Ministry of Company Affairs (MCA), Government of India that
enables an easy and secure access of the MCA services to the corporate entities, professionals and
citizens of India.
The MCA21 application is designed to fully automate all processes related to the proactive
enforcement and compliance of the legal requirements under the Companies Act, 1956, New Companies
Act, 2013 and Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008. This will help the business community to meet
their statutory obligations

Benefits of MCA- 21:

The MCA21 application offers the following
1. Enables the business community to register a company and file statutory documents quickly and
easily.
2. Provides easy access of public documents
3. Helps faster and effective resolution of public grievances
4. Helps registration and verification of charges easily
5. Ensures proactive and effective compliance with relevant laws and corporate governance
6. Enables the MCA employees to deliver best of breed services.

Services offered:
1. Obtain Digital Signature Certificate.
2. Apply for Direct Identification Number (DIN).
3. View master details of any company/LLP registered with Registrar of Companies.
4. e-Filing for Limited liability partnership (LLP).
5. LLP Services for Business User
6. Registration of a new Company
7. Raise complaint or concerns with respect to MCA services
8. Document Related Services
9. Fee and Payment Services
10. Investor Services

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
impact-on-gdp-working/[Link]

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QUESTION 78
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. What is ‘KothapalliKobbari’ sometimes mentioned in news?

(a) A variety of mango from Andhra Pradesh.
(b) A tribal dance form belonging to Tamil Nadu.
(c) A newly discovered plant species from Maharashtra.
(d) None of the above.

CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About KothapalliKobbari:
It is a palm sized Mango found locally in Andhra Pradesh.
It is mostly used in pickles, as it has a dominant sweet and sour taste.
This variety’s longer shelf life makes it a better investment unlike the ripe ones, that perish soon.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
andhra-pradesh/[Link]

QUESTION 79
DOMAIN: Disease in news

Q. consider the following statements about Lupus:

1. It is considered a chronic disease because the signs and symptoms tend to last longer than six weeks
and often many years.
2. In it any part of the body — skin, joints and even the internal organs of the patients — get badly
damaged.
3. It is a systematic autoimmune disease.
4. It is an entirely genetic disease.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) All except 1
(b) All except 2
(c) All except 3

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(d) All except 4

CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About lupus:
 World Lupus Day is observed on May 10 to promote public awareness about this rare disease.
 Any part of the body — skin, joints and even the internal organs of the patients — get badly
damaged. It is considered a chronic disease because the signs and symptoms tend to last longer
than six weeks and often many years.
 It is an autoimmune disease. Autoimmunity disease means that the immune system is unable to tell
the difference between these foreign invaders and body’s healthy tissue. As a result antibodies are
created to attack and destroy health tissue also. These antibodies cause inflammation, pain and
damage in different parts of the body.
 Three in a thousand were afflicted by this disease.
 People having Lupus could even end up having a heart attack,
 “Lupus is a multifactorial disease,”.It is not a contagious disease and not an entirely genetic.
 Lupus is not like or related to cancer, but some treatments could be similar to that of cancer, for
example chemotherapy.
 Lupus could not be compared to HIV in which theimmune system is underactive, in the former the
immune system is hyperactive.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
late/[Link]

QUESTION 80
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. What are Red Crested Pochard, Great Crested Grebe and Pacific Golden Plover sometimes seen in
news?
(a) Migratory birds visiting India.
(b) Critically endangered species of South East Asia.
(c) Dolphin species present in Pacific Ocean.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: A

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

Why in news?
There has been a decline in the number of migratory birds visiting, Meghadrigedda Reservoir,
Vishakhapatnam.
These birds include Red Crested Pochard, Great Crested Grebe and Pacific Golden Plover.

Meghagrigedda Reservoir:
MeghadriGedda Reservoir is a reservoir in Visakhapatnam, India. It is one of the main water source for
the entire Visakhapatnam [Link] reservoir capacity is 11 MGD and maintained by Greater
Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation.

Reasons for decline in the number of migratory bird:

Global warming, depleting water levels in rivers and wetlands and plastic pollution have taken a toll on
a wide range of species including birds, aquatic creatures like turtles, fish and whale.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 10th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
migratory-birds-of-visakhapatnam/[Link]

QUESTION 81
DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news

Q. ‘Houthi Movement’ is associated with which of the following countries?

(a) Sudan
(b) Yemen
(c) Iran
(d) Syria
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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What is Houthi Movement?

 The Houthi movement, is an Islamic religious-political-armed movement that is allegedly backed by
Iran and emerged from Sa'dah in northern Yemen in the 1990s.
 They are of the Zaidi sect.
 The Houthi movement attracts its Zaidi-Shia followers in Yemen by promoting regional political-
religious issues in its media, including the overarching US-Israeli conspiracy and Arab "collusion".
 In 2003, the Houthis' slogan "God is great, death to the US, death to Israel, curse the Jews, and
victory for Islam", became the group's trademark. Houthi officials, however, have rejected the
literal interpretation of the slogan.
 The movement's expressed goals include combating economic underdevelopment and political
marginalization in Yemen while seeking greater autonomy for Houthi-majority regions of the
country. They also claim to support a more democratic non-sectarian republic in Yemen. The Houthis
have made fighting corruption the centrepiece of their political program.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
hodeidah/[Link]

QUESTION 82
DOMAIN: Defence in news

Q. What is “AH-64 Apache”, recently seen in news?

(a) It is European Union’s anti-missile system.
(b) It is world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopter and is used by the U.S.
(c) It is an aircraft system manufactured by France.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

The first AH-64E Apache attack helicopter built for India was formally handed over to the Indian Air
Force (IAF) at the Boeing production facility in Mesa, Arizona in the U.S.

About AH-64E Apache:

 The AH-64 Apache is the world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopter and is used by
the U.S. Army and a growing number of international defence forces.

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 Boeing has delivered more than 2,100 Apaches to customers around the world since the aircraft
entered production.
 The U.S. Army Apache fleet has accumulated (as of Jan 2015) more than 3.9 million flight hours
since the first AH-64A was delivered to the U.S. Army in 1984.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
helicopter/[Link]

QUESTION 83
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements about ‘3D printing’:

1. It is a process of making two dimensional solid objects from a digital file.
2. It is achieved using additive processes.
3. It enables us to produce (functional) shapes using less material than traditional manufacturing
methods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About 3D printing:
 3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects
from a digital file.
 The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved using additive processes. In an additive process
an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each
of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object.
 3D printing is the opposite of subtractive manufacturing which is cutting out / hollowing out a
piece of metal or plastic with for instance a milling machine.

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 3D printing allows you to produce complex (functional) shapes using less material than traditional
manufacturing methods.

Examples & Applications of 3D Printing:

 Applications include rapid prototyping, architectural scale models & moquette’s, 3D printed
prosthetics and movie props.
 Other examples of 3D printing would include reconstructing fossils in palaeontology,
replicating ancient artefacts in archaeology, reconstructing bones and body parts in forensic
pathology and reconstructing heavily damaged evidence acquired from crime scene
investigation.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
Link: [Link]
opportunities-in-diagnostics-and-therapy/[Link]

QUESTION 84
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Why was the animal species ‘Smithophis atemporalis’ recently seen in news?
(a) It is ‘rain-loving’ snake discovered from Mizoram.
(b) It is a spider species discovered from Western Ghats.
(c) It is an ant species discovered from Nilgiris.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Smithophis atemporalis:

It is aquatic in nature, and is usually seen during the monsoon, near streams or after spells of rain.
The new genus, Smithophis, is named after eminent British herpetologist, Malcom A Smith for his
incredible contribution to the field of Indian herpetology.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
mizoram/[Link]
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QUESTION 85
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Bioremediation is a process used to treat contaminated media, including water, soil and subsurface
material, by altering environmental conditions to stimulate growth of microorganisms and degrade the
target pollutants.
2. Bioremediation can be used to remove arsenic from contaminated soil.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

What is bioremediation?
 Bioremediation is a process used to treat contaminated media, including water, soil and
subsurface material, by altering environmental conditions to stimulate growth of
microorganisms and degrade the target pollutants
 In many cases, bioremediation is less expensive and more sustainable than other remediation
alternatives.
 Biological treatment is a similar approach used to treat wastes including wastewater, industrial
waste and solid waste.
 Most bioremediation processes involve oxidation-reduction reactions where either an electron
acceptor (commonly oxygen) is added to stimulate oxidation of a reduced pollutant (e.g.
hydrocarbons) or an electron donor (commonly an organic substrate) is added to reduce
oxidized pollutants (nitrate, perchlorate, oxidized metals, chlorinated solvents, explosives and
propellants).
 In both these approaches, additional nutrients, vitamins, minerals, and pH buffers may be added
to optimize conditions for the microorganisms. In some cases, specialized microbial cultures are
added (bioaugmentation) to further enhance biodegradation.

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 Some examples of bioremediation related technologies are phytoremediation,

microembolisation, bioventing, bioleaching, landfarming, bioreactor, composting,
bioaugmentation, Rhizofiltration, and bio stimulation.

Types of bioremediation:
 Microbial bioremediation - uses microorganisms to break down contaminants by using them as
a food source.
 Phytoremediation - uses plants to bind, extract, and clean up pollutants such as pesticides,
petroleum hydrocarbons, metals, and chlorinated solvents.
 Mycoremediation - uses fungi’s digestive enzymes to break down contaminants such as
pesticides, hydrocarbons, and heavy metals.

Facts about arsenic contamination:

 Arsenic is naturally present at high levels in the groundwater of a number of countries.
 Arsenic is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
 Contaminated water used for drinking, food preparation and irrigation of food crops poses the
greatest threat to public health from arsenic.
 Long-term exposure to arsenic from drinking-water and food can cause cancer and skin lesions.
It has also been associated with cardiovascular disease and diabetes. In utero and early
childhood exposure has been linked to negative impacts on cognitive development and
increased deaths in young adults.
 The most important action in affected communities is the prevention of further exposure to
arsenic by provision of a safe water supply.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
• Link: [Link]
bacteria/[Link]

QUESTION 86
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. What is a Supernova?
(a) It the heaviest particle existing in the atmosphere.
(b) It is the largest explosion that takes place in the space.
(c) It is the smallest star present in the solar system.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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About Supernova
 A supernova is the explosion of a star. It is the largest explosion that takes place in space.

Where Do Supernovas Take Place?

 Supernovas are often seen in other galaxies. But supernovas are difficult to see in our own Milky
Way galaxy because dust blocks our view. In 1604, Johannes Kepler discovered the last observed
supernova in the Milky Way. NASA’s Chandra telescope discovered the remains of a more recent
supernova. It exploded in the Milky Way more than a hundred years ago.

What Causes a Supernova?

 A supernova happens where there is a change in the core, or center, of a star. A change can occur
in two different ways, with both resulting in a supernova.
 The first type of supernova happens in binary star systems. Binary stars are two stars that orbit the
same point. One of the stars, a carbon-oxygen white dwarf, steals matter from its companion star.
Eventually, the white dwarf accumulates too much matter. Having too much matter causes the star
to explode, resulting in a supernova.
 The second type of supernova occurs at the end of a single star’s lifetime. As the star runs out of
nuclear fuel, some of its mass flows into its core. Eventually, the core is so heavy that it cannot
withstand its own gravitational force. The core collapses, which results in the giant explosion of a
supernova. The sun is a single star, but it does not have enough mass to become a supernova.

Why Do Scientists Study Supernovas?

 A supernova burns for only a short period of time, but it can tell scientists a lot about the universe.
 One kind of supernova has shown scientists that we live in an expanding universe, one that is
growing at an ever-increasing rate.
 Scientists also have determined that supernovas play a key role in distributing elements
throughout the universe. When the star explodes, it shoots elements and debris into space. Many
of the elements we find here on Earth are made in the core of stars. These elements travel on to
form new stars, planets and everything else in the universe.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
Link: [Link]
supernovae-formation/[Link]

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QUESTION 87
DOMAIN: Disease in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Cancer:

1. The bloodstream or lymphatic system may carry cancer cells to other parts of the body.
2. Leukaemia is a cancer of skin.
3. All cancer cells form tumours.
Which of the above written statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

What is Cancer?
Cancer is a group of more than 100 different diseases. It can develop almost anywhere in the body.

Types of cancer:
Doctors divide cancer into types based on where it began. Four main types of cancer are:
 Carcinomas: A carcinoma begins in the skin or the tissue that covers the surface of internal organs
and glands. Carcinomas usually form solid tumours. They are the most common type of cancer.
Examples of carcinomas include prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and colorectal cancer.
 Sarcomas: A sarcoma begins in the tissues that support and connect the body. A sarcoma can
develop in fat, muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, blood vessels, lymph vessels, cartilage, or bone.
 Leukaemia: Leukaemia is a cancer of the blood. Leukaemia begins when healthy blood cells change
and grow uncontrollably. The four main types of leukaemia are acute lymphocytic leukaemia, chronic
lymphocytic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia, and chronic myeloid leukaemia.
 Lymphomas: Lymphoma is a cancer that begins in the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is a
network of vessels and glands that help fight infection. There are two main types of lymphomas:
Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

How cancer spreads?

 As a cancerous tumour grows, the bloodstream or lymphatic system may carry cancer cells to other
parts of the body. During this process, known as metastasis, the cancer cells grow and may develop
into new tumours.
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 One of the first places a cancer often spreads is to the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are tiny, bean-
shaped organs that help fight infection. They are located in clusters in different parts of the body,
such as the neck, groin area, and under the arms.
 Cancer may also spread through the bloodstream to distant parts of the body. These parts may
include the bones, liver, lungs, or brain. Even if the cancer spreads, it is still named for the area
where it began. For example, if breast cancer spreads to the lungs, it is called metastatic breast
cancer, not lung cancer.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 11th, 2019
Link: [Link]
study/[Link]

QUESTION 88

DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. With reference to PET (polyethylene terephthalate) bottle recycling, consider the following
statements:
1. PET is a thermoplastic polymer.
2. PET recycling can be used to produce low grade products such as carpets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About PET bottle recycling:

 Bottles made of polyethylene terephthalate (PET, sometimes PETE) can be used to make lower
grade products, such as carpets. To make a food grade plastic, the bottles need to be hydrolysed
down to monomers, which are purified and then re-polymerised to make new PET.
 PET is used as a raw material for making packaging materials such as bottles and containers for
packaging a wide range of food products and other consumer goods. Examples include soft drinks,
alcoholic beverages, detergents, cosmetics, pharmaceutical products and edible oils. PET is one of
the most common consumer plastics used.
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 Polyethylene terephthalate can also be used as the main material in making water-resistant paper.

About PET (Polyethylene terephthalate)

 It is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family and is used in fibres for
clothing, containers for liquids and foods, thermoforming for manufacturing, and in combination
with glass fibre for engineering resin.

What is a thermoplastic polymer?

 A thermoplastic, or thermo-softening plastic, is a plastic polymer material that becomes pliable or
mouldable at a certain elevated temperature and solidifies upon cooling.
 Most thermoplastics have a high molecular weight. The polymer chains associate by intermolecular
forces, which weaken rapidly with increased temperature, yielding a viscous liquid. In this state,
thermoplastics may be reshaped and are typically used to produce parts by various polymer
processing techniques such as injection moulding, compression moulding, calendaring, and
extrusion. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers which form irreversible chemical
bonds during the curing process. Thermosets do not melt when heated, but typically decompose
and do not reform upon cooling.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated June 11th, 2019
Link: [Link]
bottles/[Link]

QUESTION 89
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following about NCC (National Cadet Corps):

1. It is the world’s largest uninformed youth organisation.
2. It is mandatory for all government school and college students to join NCC.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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About NCC (National Cadet Corps):

 The National Cadet Corps is Youth Wing of Armed Forces with its Headquarters at New Delhi, India.
It is open to school and college students on voluntary basis. National Cadet Corps is a Tri-Services
Organization, comprising the Army, Navy and Air Wing, engaged in grooming the youth of the
country into disciplined and patriotic citizens. The National Cadet Corps in India is a voluntary
organization which recruits cadets from high schools, colleges and universities all over India. The
Cadets are given basic military training in small arms and parades. The officers and cadets have no
liability for active military service once they complete their course.
 The NCC is the world's largest uniformed youth organization.
 Its motto is 'Unity and Discipline'.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 12th, 2019
Link: [Link]
way/[Link]

QUESTION 90
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Himalayan Yak:

1. It is an endangered animal species as per IUCN list.
2. It is found only in the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Himalayan Yak:

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 The wild yak (Bos mutus) is a large wild bovid native to the Himalayas. It is found in Himalayan
region of Indian subcontinent.
 In India, it is found in states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh
and Jammu and Kashmir.
 It is the ancestor of the domestic yak (Bos grunniens).
 Wild yaks are among the largest bovids and are second only to the gaur in shoulder height. They
are also the largest native animal in their range.
 It is currently considered to be Vulnerable as per IUCN.

Threats to Himalayan Yaks:

 The increasing trend of environmental temperature at high altitudes is resulting in heat stress
in yak during warmer months of the year. This, in turn, is affecting the rhythms of physiological
responses of the animal.
 Yak is accustomed to very cold temperatures and can survive up to -40 degrees but finds is
difficult when the temperature crosses 13 degrees. Hence, survival becomes difficult as
temperature increases.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 12th, 2019
Link: [Link]
sikkim/[Link]

QUESTION 91
DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions
Q. Which of the statement/s is/are correct about ‘Endemic Bird Day’?
1. It’s 5th edition took place on 4th May, 2019.
2. It is a day to document the endemic or near endemic birds of our subcontinent.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Endemic Bird Day:

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 Its 5th edition took place on 4th May, 2019. It is a day to document the endemic or near endemic
birds of our subcontinent.
 As many as 115 bird species, including endemic ones, were sighted during the fifth edition of the
Endemic Bird Day organised by the Salem Ornithological Foundation.
 The day also coincides with the Global Big Day, a worldwide event where bird watchers all over the
world document as many species as they can in a period of 24 hours. With all the migratory birds
back to their breeding grounds, it was an opportunity for the birders to focus on the resident bird.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 12th, 2019
Link: [Link]
bird-day/[Link]

QUESTION 92
DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies

Q. Consider the following statements about NGT (National Green Tribunal):

1. It is a non-statutory constitutional body.
2. It shall be bound by procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
Which the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About National Green Tribunal (NGT):

 The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal
Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and
conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating
to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereof. Hence, a statutory body.

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 It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes
involving multi-disciplinary issues.
 The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
 The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental
justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
 The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within
6 months of filing of the same.
 Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of sittings and will follow circuit procedure
for making itself more accessible.
 New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai
shall be the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 12th, 2019
Link: [Link]
brahmapuram-plant/[Link]

QUESTION 93
DOMAIN: International Organizations and Groupings

Q. What are the possible benefits of India joining Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Organisation
(CTBTO) as an observer nation?
1. India will surpass China in terms of nuclear arms.
2. India will have access to International Monitoring System (IMS) data.
3. India will automatically become member of Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty in the next 5
years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
CORRECT ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

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The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organisation (CTBTO) has offered India an "Observer"
status and access to International Monitoring System (IMS) data.

About Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty:

 CTBT is a global treaty with the objective of banning all nuclear explosions across the world.
 In 1996, it was opened for signature after being adopted by the UN General Assembly.
 Its headquarters are at Vienna, Austria.
 However, the treaty has yet to come into force as it is considered "discriminatory" by several
countries including India.
 India has not signed the treaty yet as it favours five nuclear weapon states -- China, US, Russia, France
and UK.
 India wants the treaty to have a clause on complete nuclear disarmament.
 Although US and China have signed the treaty, but they are yet to ratify it. Pakistan has also not
signed the treaty yet.

About International Monitoring System (IMS):

 CTBTO runs International Monitoring System (IMS) that constantly monitors the planet for nuclear
explosions and shares findings with its member states.
 At present, IMS has 337 facilities, located in 89 countries.

How will India benefit from IMS?

India will gain a lot with data that it does not have access to now. This quality of data is necessary for
earthquake monitoring and following the radioisotope dispersion.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
• Link: [Link]
at-meetings/[Link]

QUESTION 94
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Consider the following statements about Indian Rhino:

1. It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN list.
2. 90% of Rhino population in India is concentrated in Kaziranga National Park, Assam.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Indian Rhino:

 The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-
brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armor-plated appearance.
 There are three species of rhinos, of which only one — the Indian rhino — is found in the country.
 The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to
graze.
 Males have loosely defined home ranges that are not well defended and often overlap.
 They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches
of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.
 The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species.
 Once widespread across the entire northern part of the Indian sub-continent, rhino populations
plummeted as they were hunted for sport or killed as agricultural pests.
 This pushed the species very close to extinction and by the end of the 20th century, fewer than 200
animals remained.

Where are Rhinos found?

 There are about 2,600 rhinos in India, with more than 90% of the population concentrated in
Assam’s Kaziranga National Park.
 Outside Kaziranga, there are about 200 rhinos in West Bengal, 40 in Uttar Pradesh and 1 in Bihar.

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About India Rhino Vision 2020:

 Launched in 2005, Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at
least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of
Assam by the year 2020.

About Kaziranga National Park:

 Kaziranga National Park – a world heritage site, the park hosts two-thirds of the world’s Great One-
horned rhinoceros.
 Kaziranga also boasts the highest density of tigers among the protected areas in the world and was
declared a Tiger Reserve in 2006.
 Though sighting of tigers are difficult because of the tall grasses that provide excellent camouflage,
their presence can be felt everywhere by way of pug marks, kills and territorial markings.
 The park is home to large breeding populations of elephants, wild water buffalo and swamp deer.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
Link: [Link]
rhino/[Link]

QUESTION 95
DOMAIN: Environment in news

Q. Kukkarahalli Lake, which is also recognized as an International Bird Area, is found in which of the
following states:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Kukkarahalli Lake:

 Kukkarahalli Lake is spread over 58 hectares with a shoreline of roughly five kilometers in
Manasagangothri, the sprawling campus of the University of Mysore.
 Mummadi Krishnaraja Wodeyar was responsible for getting the lake created, in the year 1864, to
provide water for irrigation to about 10,000 acres of land outside the city.

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 It is reckoned to be a jewel in the crown of Mysore.

 Kukkarahalli Kere is a recognised International Bird Area and is home to nearly 180 species of birds,
and 85 species of butterflies apart from scores of insects, reptiles, mammals and plants.
 It attracts migratory birds and is among the most popular spots for morning walks.

About Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBA):

 These are designated by BirdLife Interntional.

The main aim of the IBA Programme of BirdLife International is to attain an appropriate form of
protection for IBAs, and the provision of convincing bird data is an essential part of any argument for
statutory protection.
Importantly, the application of criteria to significant species, together with future data-gathering and
the development of monitoring programmes, permit not only the assessment of changes in species’
numbers but also an examination of how these changes impact on the overall importance of the site,
thus helping to guide the management and conservation of the area.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
Link: [Link]
lake/[Link]

QUESTION 96
DOMAIN: Latest technology in news

Q. Which of the following statements is correct about Hydroponics?

(a) It is a method of growing plants without soil in a solution medium.
(b) It does not require addition of any nutrient material to the solution medium.
(c) It can be used to grow only leafy vegetables.
(d) It is similar to aquaponics.
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About hydroponics:
 is a subset of hydroculture, which is a method of growing plants without soil by Hydroponics
instead using mineral nutrient solutions in a water solvent. Terrestrial plants may be grown with
only their roots exposed to the nutritious liquid, or the roots may be physically supported by an
inert medium such as perlite or gravel.
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 The nutrients used in hydroponic systems can come from an array of different sources,
including (but not limited to) from fish excrement, duck manure, or purchased chemical
fertilisers.
 Plants commonly grown hydroponically include tomatoes, peppers, cucumbers, lettuces, and
marijuana.

Advantages of Hydroponics:
 Make better use of space and technology.
 Hydroponics is water saving.
 Effective use of nutrients.
 Better growth rate.
 Fewer pests and diseases.

About aquaponics:
 Aquaponics refers to any system that combines conventional aquaculture (raising aquatic
animals such as snails, fish, crayfish or prawns in tanks) with hydroponics (cultivating plants in
water) in a symbiotic environment. In normal aquaculture, excretions from the animals being
raised can accumulate in the water, increasing toxicity.
 In an aquaponic system, water from an aquaculture system is fed to a hydroponic system where
the by-products are broken down by nitrifying bacteria initially into nitrites and subsequently
into nitrates that are utilized by the plants as nutrients. Then, the water is recirculated back to
the aquaculture system.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
Link: [Link]
last/[Link]

QUESTION 97
DOMAIN: International Treaties, International Declarations, International Protocols; Environment in
news

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to Nagoya Protocol:

1. It is a supplementary agreement to the United Nations Framework for Climate Change.
2. Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic
resources, thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: B

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Nagoya Protocol:

 The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of
Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a
supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. It provides a transparent
legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the
fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
 The Nagoya Protocol on ABS was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan and entered
into force on 12 October 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.
Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic
resources, thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

Importance of Nagoya Protocol:

 The Nagoya Protocol will create greater legal certainty and transparency for both providers and
users of genetic resources by:
 Establishing more predictable conditions for access to genetic resources.
 Helping to ensure benefit-sharing when genetic resources leave the country providing the
genetic resources.

What all Nagoya Protocol covers:

 The Nagoya Protocol applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the
benefits arising from their utilization. The Nagoya Protocol also covers traditional knowledge
(TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from
its utilization.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
Link: [Link]
tnnlu-workshop-on-biological-diversity/[Link]

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QUESTION 98
DOMAIN: Disease in news

Q. ‘Diabetic Retinopathy’ sometimes seen in news refers to:

(a) It is a diabetes complication which affects eyes.
(b) It is a disease related to colour blindness.
(c) It is a method of improving eyesight of a diabetic patient.
(d) None of the above.
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About diabetic retinopathy:

 Diabetic retinopathy is a diabetes complication that affects eyes. It's caused by damage to the
blood vessels of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina).
 At first, diabetic retinopathy may cause no symptoms or only mild vision problems. Eventually, it can
cause blindness.
 The condition can develop in anyone who has type 1 or type 2 diabetes.
 The longer you have diabetes and the less controlled your blood sugar is, the more likely you are to
develop this eye complication.

Symptoms of diabetic retinopathy:

 Spots or dark strings floating in your vision (floaters)
 Blurred vision
 Fluctuating vision
 Impaired colour vision
 Dark or empty areas in your vision
 Vision loss

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
 Link: [Link]
retinopathy/[Link]

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QUESTION 99
DOMAIN: Defence in news

Q. What is ABHYAS, recently seen in news?

(a) It is a high-speed expendable aerial target developed by DRDO.
(b) It is naval exercise between India and China.
(c) It is high speed aircraft developed by Russia.
(d) None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
 Link: [Link]

QUESTION 100
DOMAIN: Terms in news

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to consumer price index:

1. Its base year has been revised to 2012 from 2010.
2. It is released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
CORRECT ANSWER: C

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EXPLANATION
Recent Context:

About Consumer Price Index:

The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket
of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food and medical care.
It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging
them.
Changes in the CPI are used to assess price changes associated with the cost of living.
The CPI is one of the most frequently used statistics for identifying periods of inflation or deflation.
It is calculated by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation.

Understanding the CPI

The CPI measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods
and services, commonly known as inflation.
Essentially it attempts to quantify the aggregate price level in an economy and thus measure the
purchasing power of a country's unit of currency.
The weighted average of the prices of goods and services that approximates an individual's consumption
patterns is used to calculate CPI.

Important Sources:
1. The Hindu dated May 13th, 2019
 Link: [Link]

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