FIRST DAY SUBJECTS RECALL QUESTIONS B) 2.

0 mcg per mL

1. Factor to convert immunoglobulin value from C) 0.2 mg per mL

mg/dL to g/L:
D) 2.0 mg per mL
A) 0.01
6. Detection and quantification of the separated
B) 0.02586 protein after electrophoresis is accomplished by:

C) 0.05551 A) Amperometry

D. 10 B) Chromatography

2. A substance that can yield hydrogen or C) Coulometry

hydronium ion when dissolved in water:
D) Densitometry
A) Acid
7. It transports protein for thyroxine and
B) Base triiodothyronine (thyroid hormones); it also
binds with retinol-binding protein to form a
C) Base excess
complex that transports retinol (vitamin A):
D) Buffer A) Albumin
3. A substance that can yield hydroxyl ions: B) Haptoglobin
A) Acid C) Orosomucoid
B) Base D) Prealbumin
C) Base excess
8. A low _____ level is a sensitive marker of
D) Buffer poor nutritional status.

4. Combination of a weak acid or weak base; a A) Ceruloplasmin

system that resists changes in pH: B) Hemopexin
A) Acid C) Prealbumin
B) Base
D) Transferrin
C) Base excess 9. Major roles of ______ is to maintain the
D) Buffer equilibrium of cholesterol in peripheral cells by
the REVERSE CHOLESTEROL TRANSPORT
5. Heparin is added ____ per mL of blood in pathway:
each test tube.
A) Chylomicrons
A) 0.2 mcg per mL
B) LDL

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

C) VLDL 14. Given the following results: ALP: marked
increased; AST: slight increased; ALT: slight
D) HDL increased; and GGT: marked increased. This is
10. Abetalipoproteinemia is also known as: most consistent with:

A) Anderson's disease A) Acute hepatits

B) Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome B) Osteitis fibrosa

C) Sitosterolemia C) Chronic hepatitis

D. Tangier's disease D) Obstructive jaundice

11. If left unprotected from light, bilirubin 15. A physician orders several laboratory tests
values may reduce by _____ per hour. on a 55-year-old male patient who is
complaining of pain, stiffness, fatigue and
A) 10 to 30% headaches. Based on the following serum test
results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP:
B) 30 to 50%
significantly increased; GGT: normal
C) 50 to 70 %
A) Biliary obstruction
D) 70 to 90%
B) Cirrhosis
12. Use of wetting agents or incorrect pH
C) Hepatitis
buffers ______ the amount of unconjugated
bilirubin: D) Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)

A) Decreases unconjugated bilirubin 16. A 42-year-old male presents with anorexia,

nausea, fever, and icterus of the skin and
B) Increases unconjugated bilirubin
mucous membranes. He noticed that his urine
C) Indeterminate had appeared dark for the past several days.
The physician orders a series of biochemical
D) No effect tests. Based on the following test results, what
is the most likely diagnosis? ALP: slightly
13. ALP isoenzyme that will resist heat
elevated; ALT: markedly elevated; AST:
denaturation at 65°C for 30 minutes:
markedly elevated; GGT: slightly elevated;
A) Bone ALP Serum total bilirubin: moderately elevated;
Urine bilirubin: positive; and Fecal urobilinogen:
B) Intestinal ALP decreased

C) Liver ALP A) Acute hepatitis

D) Placental ALP B) Alcoholic cirrhosis

C) Metastatic carcinoma of the pancreas

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

D) Obstructive jaundice 21. Hirsutism, which can be quantified using a
measurement technique known as the:
17. Assay methods for AST are generally based
on the principle of the Karmen method, which A) Ferriman-Gallwey scale
incorporates a coupled enzymatic reaction
using: B) Liley graph

A) Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase C) T-score

B) Glutamic pyruvic transaminase D) Z-score

C) Lactate dehydrogenase 22. Decreased T3 and T4, increased TSH:

A) Primary hypothyroidism
D) Malate dehydrogenase

18. The typical assay procedure for ALT consists B) Secondary hypothyroidism
of a coupled enzymatic reaction using ____ as C) Primary hyperthyroidism
the indicator enzyme.
D) Secondary hyperthyroidism
A) Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
23. Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes
B) Glutamic pyruvic transaminase with patient thyroxine for antibody in
C) Lactate dehydrogenase homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled
thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy
D) Malate dehydrogenase light.

19. LOW LEVELS of maternal AFP indicate an A) Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
increased risk for:
B) Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition
A) Anencephaly immunoassay

B) Down syndrome C) Chemiluminescence

C) Presence of twins D) Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

D) Spina bifida 24. Fluorogenic substrate–labeled thyroxine

competing with patient T4 for antibody in a
20. Which set of results is consistent with homogeneous assay. Only unbound, leftover
uncompensated metabolic acidosis? labeled T4 reacts with enzyme to form
A) pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg fluorescent product.

B) pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2 28 mm Hg A) Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

C) pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg B) Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition

immunoassay
D) pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
C) Chemiluminescence

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

D) Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA) 29. The methodology for a Lean Six Sigma
quality improvement team will include
25. The half-life of the circulating cocaine is: consideration of all of the following factors
(Bishop)
EXCEPT:
A) 0.5 to 1 hour A) Define
B) 1 to 2 hours B) Measure
C) 2 to 3 hours C) Analyze
D) 3 to 4 hours D) Improve
26. Water that is suitable for human
E) Communicate
consumption (i.e., water that can be used for
drinking or cooking): 30. Project team members:

A) Boiled water A) Black belts

B) Distilled water B) Green belts

C) Filtered water C) Blue belts

D) Potable water D) White belts

27. In the laboratory, a program that monitors 31. Green belts contribute ____ of their time to
the TOTAL TESTING PROCESS with the aim of improvement projects while delivering their
providing the highest quality patient care: normal job functions.

A) Quality assessment/assurance (QA) A) 20%

B) Quality control (QC) B) 40%

C) Quality systems (QS) C) 60%

D) None of these D) 100%

28. In an institution, a COMPREHENSIVE 32. Most effective at reducing hazards:

PROGRAM in which all areas of operation are
monitored to ensure quality with the aim of A) PPE
providing the highest quality patient care: B) Administrative controls
A) Quality assessment C) Engineering controls
B) Quality assurance D) Substitution
C) Quality control E) Elimination
D) Quality systems

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

33. In the hierarchy of controls, arrange the A) Feces submitted for anaerobic culture
following from the least effective to the most
effective: B) Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic
culture
A) PPE, engineering controls, administrative
controls, substitution, elimination C) Rectal swab submitted for direct smear for
gonococci
B) PPE, administrative controls, engineering
controls, substitution, elimination D) Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli

C) Administrative controls, engineering controls, 38. Which of the following is the most
appropriate method for collecting a urine
PPE, elimination, substitution
specimen from a patient with an indwelling
D) Administrative controls, engineering controls, catheter?
elimination, substitution, PPE
A) Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit
34. Duplication of DNA: it for culture

A) Transcription B) Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and

collect urine from the terminal end of the
B) Translation catheter
C) Replication C) Collect urine directly from the bag
D) None of these D) Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter
35. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template: tubing

A) Transcription 39. In thioglycolate broth, strictly aerobic

organisms:
B) Translation
A) Grow throughout the broth
C) Replication
B) Grow toward the top of the broth
D) None of these
C) Grow in the bottom of the broth
36. Synthesis of protein:
D) Demonstrate flocculation
A) Transcription
40. In thioglycollate broth, these organisms will
B) Translation grow slightly below the surface where oxygen
concentrations are lower than atmospheric
C) Replication
concentrations:
D) None of these
A) Obligate aerobes
37. Which one of the following specimen
B) Obligate anaerobes
requests is acceptable?
C) Facultative anaerobes

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

D) Microareophilic organisms D) Kanamycin

41. Susceptibility testing performed on quality 44. Which test is used for the determination of
control organisms using a new media lot inducible clindamycin resistance in
number yielded zone sizes that were too large staphylococci and streptococci?
for all antibiotics tested. The testing was
repeated using media from a previously used lot A) E-test
number, and all zone sizes were acceptable. B) D-zone test
Which of the following best explains the
unacceptable zone sizes? C) A-test

A) The antibiotic disks were not stored with the D) CAMP test
proper desiccant
45. The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test
B) The depth of the media was too thick inducible resistance on S. aureus strains
demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility
C) The depth of the media was too thin profile of:
D) The antibiotic disks were not properly A) Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
applied to the media
B) Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
42. After satisfactory performance of daily disk
diffusion susceptibility quality control is C) Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
documented, the frequency of quality control
D) Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant
can be reduced to:
46. Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in
A) Twice a week
vitro by:
B) Every week
A) Ampicillin
C) Every other week
B) Erythromycin
D) Every month
C) Gentamicin
43. An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was
D) Penicillin
cultured from an ulcer obtained from the leg of
a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The 47. Greater than 100,000 CFU/mL of a gram-
organism showed resistance to methicillin. negative bacilli were isolated on MacConkey
Additionally, this isolate should be tested for from a urine specimen. Biochemical results are
resistance or susceptibility to: as follows: Glucose: acid, gas produced;
Indole: negative; urea: positive; H2S: positive.
A) Erythromycin
The organism is most likely:
B) Gentamicin
A) Morganella morganii
C) Vancomycin
B) Proteus vulgaris

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

C) Proteus mirabilis C) Both of these

D) Providencia stuartii D) None of these

48. A 64-year-old male with lymphoma has a 51. A branching gram-positive, partially acid-
positive blood culture at 18 hours incubation. fast organism is isolated from a bronchial
The organism is a non-lactose fermenting gram- washing on a 63-year-old woman receiving
negative bacillus on MacConkey agar. Further chemotherapy. The organism does not
testing gives the following reactions: oxidase: hydrolyze casein, tyrosine or xanthine. The
negative; motility: positive; TSI: alkaline/acid, most likely identification is:
no hydrogen sulfide; indole: positive; VP:
positive; citrate: positive; urea: positive; A) Actinomadura madurae
phenylalanine deaminase: positive; B) Streptomyces somaliensis
ornithine decarboxylase: negative. The
genus is: C) Nocardia caviae

A) Morganella D) Nocardia asteroides

B) Proteus 52. Identify the organism with these

characteristics: round elementary body, positive
C) Providencia for glycogen-containing inclusions, susceptible
D) Serratia to sulfonamides:

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
49. A community hospital microbiology
laboratory is processing significant numbers of B) Chlamydophila psittaci
stool cultures because of an outbreak of
diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in C) Chlamydia trachomatis
the country. A media that should be
D) Orientia tsutsugamushi
incorporated in the plating protocol is:
53. Identify the organism with these
A) Colistin nalidixic acid for Listeria
characteristics: round elementary body,
B) MacConkey agar with sorbitol for negative for glycogen-containing inclusions,
Campylobacter resistant to sulfonamides:

C) Mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus species A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

D) Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for B) Chlamydophila psittaci

Vibrio species
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
50. Vibrio can be collected and transported in:
D) Orientia tsutsugamushi
A) Cary-Blair medium
54. Culture plate is placed on its own shelf
B) Buffered glycerol saline inside the incubator, which provides for a
homogeneous atmosphere and efficient

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

thermal conductivity in the incubator to bring C) Cycloheximide
the culture plate up to optimal conditions faster:
D) Nystatin
A) Dry-heat oven
59. Energy source in SDA:
B) Humidity incubator
A) Dextrose (glucose)
C) Smart incubator
B) Peptone
D) Orbital shaking incubator
C) Chloramphenicol
55. Recognized as a low-temperature incubator
or refrigerated incubator: D) Cycloheximide

60. Hair, nail and skin scrapings for fungal

A) Agitator
culture:
B) Bioreactor
A) Wipe with soap and water
C) BOD
B) Wipe with 70% alcohol
D) Dry-heat oven
C) Wipe with KOH
56. All of the following terms may be used to
describe fungal colonial TOPOGRAPHY, except: D) Do not wipe affected area

A) Glabrose 61. Number of stool specimens collected for

ova and parasite examination (O&P):
B) Rugose
A) 1
C) Umbonate
B) 2
D) Verrucose
C) 3
57. Added to SDA to inhibit most contaminating
bacteria: D) 4

A) Dextrose 62. Specimens are more likely to contain

trophozoites and should be examined within 30
B) Chloramphenicol minutes of passage:

C) Cycloheximide A) Liquid/diarrheic stool

D) Nystatin B) Soft stool

58. Added to SDA to inhibit saprophytic fungi: C) Formed stool

A) Dextrose D) None of these

B) Chloramphenicol

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

63. May contain both trophozoites and cysts: B) Fasciolopsis buski

A) Liquid stool C) Heterophyes heterophyes

B) Diarrheic stool D) Paragonimus westermani

C) Soft stool 68. Risk factors included a history of drinking

impure water, eating frog or SNAKE MEAT, or
D) Formed stool using frog or snake meat as a poultice:
64. Soil-transmitted helminth: A) Echinococcus granulosus
A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Spirometra mansonoides
B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Taenia saginata
C) Strongyloides stercoralis D) Taenia solium
D) Wuchereria bancrofti 69. For laboratory diagnosis of malaria, which of
65. The eggs of Trichostrongylus are very similar the following should be fixed with methanol:
to those of:
A) Thick blood film
A) Ascaris B) Thin blood film
B) Enterobius C) Both of these
C) Trichuris D) None of these
D) Hookworms 70. All spills and potential surface
66. The worms are incapable of maturation contamination with Cryptosporidium oocysts
within the human host and migrate aimlessly, should be disinfected using the following
causing tissue damage and inflammation: protocol: After removing organic material from
the contaminated surface (e.g., by using a
A) Echinococcus granulosus conventional laboratory detergent/cleaner) and
absorbing the bulk of the spill with disposable
B) Gnathostoma spinigerum
paper towels, flood and completely cover the
C) Taenia solium surface with undiluted _______.

D) Trichinella spiralis A) Ethyl alcohol

67. Transmission of the fluke to humans is by B) Formalin

ingestion of aquatic plants, such as WATER
C) 3% hydrogen peroxide
CHESTNUTS, containing infective metacercariae:
D) 30% hydrogen peroxide
A) Clonorchis sinensis

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

71. Work practice controls, except: B) Donor

A) Handwashing after each patient contact C) Patient

B) No eating, drinking or smoking in the D) Pusher

laboratory
76. Amount of urine for refractometry:
C) Splash guards
A) 1 to 2 drops
D) Warning signage
B) 1 to 2 mL
72. Deadly:
C) 10 to 15 mL
A) 0
D) 15 to 20 mL
B) 4
77. Biggest variable in urinalysis testing is the
C) X conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel
in:
D) Z
A) Physical examination of urine
73. Following collection, urine specimens should
be delivered to the laboratory promptly and B) Interpretation of color reactions
tested within:
C) Microscopic examination
A) 30 minutes
D) Reporting of result
B) 1 hour
78. Hold the reagent strip ______ while
C) 2 hours comparing it with the color chart is
recommended.
D) 3 hours
A) Horizontally
74. In the four-glass urine collection method,
which of the following is tested for urethral B) Vertically
infection:
C) Either of these
A) VB1
D) None of these
B) VB2
79. Reagent pad for protein: trace values are
C) EPS considered to be:

D) VB3 A) Less than 25 mg/dL

75. Individual from whom specimen for drug B) Less than 30 mg/dL
testing is collected:
C) 100 mg/dL
A) Collector

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

D) 300 mg/dL A) Ammonium biurate

80. Nitrite detected by the Greiss reaction: B) Calcium carbonate

A) Green to blue C) Calcium oxalate

B) Red to brown D) Magnesium ammonium phosphate

C) Pink 84. The finding of clumps of calcium oxalate

crystals in fresh urine may be related to:
D) Purple
A) Acute tubular necrosis
81. The purpose of performing an
albumin:creatinine ratio is to: B) Metabolic disorder

A) Estimate the glomerular filtration rate C) Nephrotic syndrome

B) Correct for hydration in random specimens D) Renal lithiasis

C) Avoid interference for alkaline urines 85. Cholesterol crystals are soluble in:

D) Correct for abnormally colored urines A) 10% NaOH

81. Collecting duct RTE cells: B) Ammonia

A) Columnar C) Chloroform

B) Cuboidal D) Dilute HCl

C) Round 86. Differentiation between cystitis and

pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:
D) Oval
A) WBC casts
82. Failure to inherit the gene to produce the
enzyme hypoxanthine guanine B) RBC casts
phosphoribosyltransferase is responsible for the
accumulation of ____ throughout the body. C) Bacteria

A) Calcium carbonate D) Granular cast

87. Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia;

B) Calcium oxalate
bacteriuria; microscopic hematuria; mild
C) Cystine proteinuria and increased pH.

D) Uric acid A) Acute interstitial nephritis

83. Urinary crystals associated with foods high B) Acute pyelonephritis

in oxalic acid, such as tomatoes and asparagus,
C) Acute tubular necrosis
and ascorbic acid:

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

D) Cystitis A) Distilled water

88. Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia; B) Normal saline

bacteriuria; WBC casts; bacterial casts,
C) Acetic acid
microscopic hematuria and proteinuria.

A) Acute interstitial nephritis D) Methylene blue

B) Acute pyelonephritis 93. A CSF WBC count is diluted with:

C) Acute tubular necrosis A) Distilled water

D) Cystitis B) Normal saline

C) Acetic acid
89. Expected staining reaction of Trichomonas
vaginalis in urine sediment (Sedi-stain): D) Methylene blue
A) Pale pink 94. A daily control slide for bacteria in CSF
B) Pale purple should also be prepared using:

A) 95% alcohol
C) Light blue-green

D) Dark shade of blue-purple B) 0.2 mL saline and 95% alcohol

90. Following a head injury, which protein will C) 30% albumin

identify the presence of CSF leakage through D) 0.2 mL saline and 30% albumin
the nose?
95. CSF test is frequently requested for patients
A) C-reactive protein with coma of unknown origin:
B) Myelin basic protein A) Glucose
C) Tau protein B) Glutamine
D) Transthyretin C) Lactate
91. CSF cell count should be performed: D) Protein
A) Immediately 96. The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is
B) Within 5 minutes the:

C) Within 30 minutes A) RPR

D) Within 1 hour B) VDRL

92. A CSF total cell count is diluted with: C) MHA-TP

D) FTA-ABS

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

97. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: A) Tangier disease

A) Clear and colorless B) Anderson disease

B) Clear and pale yellow C) Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome

C) Pale gray with mucus D) Sitosterolemia

D) Pale gray with mucus and food particles 102. Given the following results – ALP: slight
increased, AST: slight increased, ALT: slight
98. Amniotic fluid color in the presence of increased, GGT: slight increased. This is most
meconium: consistent with:
A) Blood-streaked
A) Acute hepatitis
B) Yellow B) Chronic hepatitis
C) Dark green C) Obstructive jaundice
D) Dark red-brown D) Liver hemangioma
99. Presence of plasma cells but noticeable lack
103. Which set of results is consistent with
of mesothelial cells in pleural fluid is associated uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?
with:
A) pH 7.70 HCO3- 30 mmol/L pCO2 25 mm Hg
A) Autoimmune disorders
B) pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg
B) Viral infections
C) pH 7.46 HCO3- 38 mmol/L pCO2 55 mm
C) Malignancy
Hguwin
D) Tuberculosis D) pH 7.36 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 38 mm Hg
100. Rare autosomal recessive disorder 104. Urinalysis results include hematuria,
characterized by complete absence of HDL: possibly macroscopic, mild to moderate
A) Tangier disease proteinuria, numerous WBCs, and WBC casts
without the presence of bacteria:
B) Anderson disease
A) Acute interstitial nephritis
C) Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
B) Acute pyelonephritis
D) Sitosterolemia
C) Acute tubular necrosis
101. Chylomicron retention disease presents in
childhood with fat malabsorption and low levels D) Cystitis
of plasma lipids. This syndrome is distinct from
105. Urinalysis findings include mild proteinuria,
abetalipoproteinemia, as only apo-B48 appears microscopic hematuria, and most noticeably the
to be affected:

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

presence of RTE cells and RTE cell casts SECOND DAY SUBJECTS RECALL QUESTIONS
containing tubular fragments consisting of three
or more cell: 1. All of the following are analytical
(examination) errors, except:
A) Acute interstitial nephritis
A. Oversight of instrument flags
B) Acute pyelonephritis
B. Out-of-control QC results
C) Acute tubular necrosis
C. Verbal reporting of results
D) Cystitis
D. Wrong assay performed
106. IQ 200 preclassifies (auto classified by the
2. Staff responsibility in SPECIMEN
analyzer) the following urine particles EXCEPT:
MANAGEMENT, except:
A) Unclassified casts
A. Specimens and aliquots are stored properly
B) Nonsquamous epithelial cells
B. Specimens are centrifuged correctly
C) Bacteria
C. Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in
D) Uric acid crystals a timely manner

D. Tests begun within specified time frames

-END OF PART 1 RECALLS- 3. The positive predictive value predicts the

probability that an individual with a positive
assay result ___ the disease or condition.

A. Has (have)

B. Could have

C. May have

D. Will have

4. For adult capillary puncture:

A. Index finger

B. Ring finger

C. Index or ring finger

D. Middle or ring finger

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

5. Proper application of the tourniquet: is held 7 inches over the potential phlebotomy
site.
A. Like a ribbon
A. Visible light
B. Loop toward the shoulder
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Ends pointed towards the shoulder
C. Infrared light
D. Ends pointed away from the shoulder
D. UV and infrared light
6. The tourniquet should not remain tied for
more than _______ at a time. 10. The advantage of using a ___-inch needle is
that it provides better control during
A. 1 minute
venipuncture.
B. 2 minutes A. 0.5-inch
C. 3 minutes B. 1-inch
D. 4 minutes C. 1.5-inch
7. The tourniquet should be applied ______
D. 2-inch
above the venipuncture site.
11. Select the needle most commonly used in
A. 1 to 2 inches standard venipuncture in an adult:
B. 3 to 4 inches A. One inch, 18 gauge
C. 6 to 8 inches B. One inch, 21 gauge
D. 10 to 12 inches
C. One-half inch, 23 gauge
8. Blood pressure cuffs can be used as D. One-half inch, 25 gauge
tourniquets. They are used primarily for veins
that are difficult to locate. The cuff should be 12. Higher temperatures can cause:
inflated to a pressure of:
A. Decrease in blood draw volume
A. 40 mm Hg
B. Increase in blood draw volume
B. 80 mm Hg
C. Both of these
C. 100 mm Hg
D. None of these
D. 120 mm Hg
13. High altitude:
9. AccuVein is a handheld medical device that
helps medical staff visualize veins before A. Decrease in blood draw volume
phlebotomy. The device emits ______ light and B. Increase in blood draw volume

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

C. Both of these 18. In the manual reticulocyte count, what is
the ratio of blood and new methylene blue stain:
D. None of these
A. 1:1
14. Leakage of a large amount of blood around
the puncture site: B. 1:3

A. Ecchymosis (bruise) C. 2:1

B. Hematoma D. 3:1

15. Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in 19. Decreased ESR, EXCEPT:

each microscopic field; an equivalent
A. Acanthocytosis
descriptive term is MANY:

A. 1+ B. Bubbles in ESR column

B. 2+ C. Hyperfibrinogenemia

C. 3+ D. Spherocytosis

20. Increased ESR:

D. 4+

16. The most common hemacytometer is the A. Hyperalbuminemia

Levy chamber with improved Neubauer ruling. B. Hyperfibrinogenemia
What is the total area of this counting chamber?
C. Microcytosis
A. 1 mm2
D. Polycythemia
B. 4 mm2
21. Increased ESR:
C. D9 mm2
A. Delay in testing
D. 16 mm2
B. Hyperalbuminemia
17. Full conversion of hemoglobin to
cyanmethemoglobin: C. Marked anisocytosis

A. 1 minute D. Tilted ESR tube

B. 3 minutes 22. Leukemia:

C. 10 minutes A. Decreased ESR

D. 30 minutes B. Increased ESR

C. Indeterminate

D. No effect

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

23. Marked leukocytosis: B. EDTA

A. Decreased ESR C. Heparin

B. Increased ESR D. Oxalate

C. Indeterminate 28. Effects of platelet clumps in most

hematology analyzers:
D. No effect
A. Decreased platelets and WBCs
24. Low room temperature:
B. Increased platelets and WBCs
A. Decreased ESR
C. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs
B. Increased ESR
D. Increased platelets, decreased WBCs
C. Indeterminate
29. Reference values for PTT in adults:
D. No effect
A. 12 to 14 seconds
25. Refrigerated sample not returned to room
temperature: B. 13 to 15 seconds

A. Decreased ESR C. 25 to 35 seconds

B. Increased ESR D. 1 to 2 minutes

C. Indeterminate 30. Factor I deficiency:

D. No effect A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT

26. The major energy source for the platelet is B. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT
______, which is rapidly taken up from the
plasma. C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT

A. Fructose D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged

TCT
B. Glucose
31. Hemophilia A:
C. Proteins
A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT
D. Lipids
B. Prolonged PT, normal APTT, normal TCT
27. Reticulated platelets are cylindrical and
beaded, resembling fragments of C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT
megakaryocyte proplatelet processes: D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged
A. Citrate TCT

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32. Factor X deficiency: C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

B. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT 37. At 1 to 2 days of age, hemoglobin
concentration is normally up to:
C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT
A. 12.0 g/dL
D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged
TCT B. 14.5 g/dL

33. Resting phase: C. 16.0 g/dL

A. Anaphase D. 22.5 g/Dl

B. Interphase 38. The WBC count of a newborn baby is up to:

C. Metaphase A. 5 x 10 9th/L

D. Telophase B. 9 x 10 9th/L

34. The cell selected for chromosome analysis is C. 11 x 10 9th/L

usually in the ______ stage of cellular division.
D. 30 x 10 9th/L
A. Prophase
39. Formed during the promyelocyte stage:
B. Metaphase
A. Primary (azurophilic) granules
C. Anaphase
B. Secondary (specific) granules
D. Telophase
C. Tertiary granules
35. Renal hormone/cytokine which stimulates
and regulates the bone marrow production of D. Secretory granules (vesicles)
red blood cells: 40. Latest method for performing a leukocyte
A. Interleukin 2 differential count:

B. Interleukin 3 A. Manual review of blood film

B. Impedance
C. Erythropoietin

D. Thrombopoietin C. Light-scattering

36. RBC with membrane folded over: D. Digital microscopy

A. Aplastic anemia 41. Early indication of engraftment success after

hematopoietic stem cell transplant:
B. Iron deficiency anemia
A. RBC count

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B. RBC and WBC count D. 1+

C. Immature reticulocyte fraction 46. Family of cytokines that enhance motility

and promote migration of many types of white
D. Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature
blood cells:
platelet fraction
A. Interleukins
42. Solid tumor counterpart of monocytic
leukemia: B. Interferons

A. Chloroma C. Tumor necrosis factor

B. Myeloma D. Chemokines

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma 47. Serum amyloid A (SAA) has been found to
increase significantly more in _____ infections
D. Well-differentiated lymphoma
A. Bacterial infections
43. Solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell
leukemia: B. Fungal infections

A. Chloroma C. Parasitic infections

B. Myeloma D. Viral infections

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma 48. The alternative complement pathway is

activated by:
D. Well-differentiated lymphoma
A. Antigen–antibody complexes
44. Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and
have been termed “flower cells” B. Bacterial and fungal cell walls

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Carbohydrates in microbial cell walls

B. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma D. Properdin

C. Hairy cell leukemia 49. Serum sickness, Arthus reaction and SLE:

D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions

45. A few isolated aggregates; mostly free- B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions

floating cells; supernatant appears red:
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
A. Negative
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
B. Mixed-field

C. Trace

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50. It is considered the gold standard in testing B. Charcoal
for contact dermatitis:
C. Reagin
A. Mantoux test
D. Nichol’s strain of Treponema pallidum
B. Patch test
55. Antigen for the RPR test is dispensed from a
C. RIST small plastic dispensing bottle with a calibrated
____ gauge needle.
D. RAST
A. 18-gauge needle
51. Which of the following would be considered
an organ-specific autoimmune disease? B. 19-gauge needle

A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s C. 20-gauge needle

granulomatosis)
D. 21-gauge needle
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
56. For RPR test, the card is rotated at:
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
52. Anti-phospholipid antibodies have been
found in up to 60 percent of patients with: C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

A. Colorectal cancer D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

B. Lupus 57. For serum VDRL test, the slide is rotated at:

A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes

C. Tuberculosis

D. Syphilis B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

53. Most specific for SLE, because they are C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
mainly seen only in patients with lupus, and D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
levels correlate with disease activity:
58. For CSF VDRL test, the slide is rotated at:
A. Anti-DNP
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. Anti-RNP
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. Anti-dsDNA
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. Anti-Smith
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
54. Antigen for the RPR and VDRL test:

A. Cardiolipin

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59. Which test is recommended for testing D. Mycobacterium
cerebrospinal fluid for detection of
neurosyphilis? 63. First marker to appear in HBV infection,
becoming detectable 2 to 10 weeks after
A. RPR exposure to HBV.

B. VDRL A. HBe Ag

C. FTA-ABS B. HBs Ag

D. Enzyme immunoassay C. Anti-HBc IgM

60. A rapid screening test to help determine the D. Anti-HBs

possibility of typhoid fever; the antigens used in
this procedure include Salmonella O (somatic) 64. Posttransfusion hepatitis of unknown
and H (flagellar) antigens: etiology; may be transmitted by parenteral
exposure to blood, fecal-oral route and from
A. ELISA mother to child:

B. Singer and Plotz A. HIV

C. Weil-Felix B. HBV

D. Widal C. HGV

61. Primary antibody found in Helicobacter D. TTV

pylori infection:
65. Western blot negative test result:
A. IgA
A. No band
B. IgE
B. One band
C. IgG
C. Black band
D. IgM
D. Blue band
62. Current recommendations include the
66. First time a blood transfusion was recorded
combined detection of mannan and anti-
mannan antibodies for the specific in history:
identification of _____ species in serum A. King George
samples:
B. Pope Innocent
A. Bordetella
C. Pope Pius
B. Candida
D. Queen Victoria
C. Cryptococcus

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67. Attempts to find a nontoxic anticoagulant B. Missense mutation
began in 1869, when Braxton Hicks
recommended: C. Nonsense mutation

D. Point mutation
A. EDTA

B. Heparin 72. Centrifugation time for the ABO tube test:

C. Sodium citrate A. 20 seconds

D. Sodium phosphate B. 60 seconds

68. Reported the use of sodium citrate as an C. 2 minutes

anticoagulant solution for transfusions: D. 5 minutes
A. Charles Drew 73. Agglutination with yellow antiserum; no
B. Edward Lindemann agglutination with blue antiserum:

C. Hustin A. Group A

B. Group B
D. Lewisohn

69. Determined the minimum amount of citrate C. Group A+

needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated D. Group B+
its nontoxicity in small amounts:
74. Genotype of a Bombay individual:
A. Charles Drew
A. hh
B. Edward Lindemann
B. Hh
C. Hustin
C. O
D. Lewisohn
D. Oh
70. Second law of genetics:
75. Phenotype of a Bombay individual:
A. Assortment
A. hh
B. Characteristics
B. Hh
C. Dominance
C. O
D. Segregation
D. Oh
71. The simplest type of mutation and includes
substitutions, insertions, and deletions: 76. Second most immunogenic Rh antigen:

A. Frameshift mutation A. D

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B. C D. Tegison

C. E 81. Donors who have ingested aspirin, Feldene,

or aspirin-containing medications should be
D. c
deferred for plateletpheresis for:
77. The antigen was reported in 1973 and is A. 24 hours
present on RBCs of 4% of Indians, 11% of
Iranians, and 12% of Arabs: B. 48 hours

A. Cromer C. 7 days

B. Diego D. 14 days

C. Indian 82. Anticoagulant-preservative for modified

whole blood:
D. Knops
A. ACD
78. Result in an increased rate of antibody
uptake during sensitization and a decreased B. CPD
reaction incubation time:
C. CPDA-1
A. 22% albumin
D. All of these
B. Enzymes
83. Frozen plasma stored at -65C:
C. LISS
A. 1 year
D. Polyethylene glycol
B. 2 years
79. Deferral for donor with multiple puncture
marks: C. 7 years

A. 4 weeks D. 10 years

B. 6 weeks 84. What component is most frequently

involved with transfusion-associated sepsis?
C. 12 months
A. Plasma
D. Indefinite
B. Packed red blood cells
80. Treatment with this drug is a cause of
permanent donor deferral: C. Platelets

A. Accutane D. Whole blood

B. Propecia

C. Proscar

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

85. Blue or purple spots in your mouth or skin A. Infant’s serum or plasma
can be a sign or symptom of:
B. Mother’s serum or plasma
A. Chagas disease
C. Infant’s RBCs
B. Hepatitis
D. Mother’s RBCs
C. HIV/AIDS
90. What is the most possible reason when first
D. Malaria baby suffered from RH HDN?

86. A zoonotic disease, is usually transmitted by A. Naturally occurring Rh antibodies

the bite of an infected deer tick:
B. Strong immunogenicity of the D antigen
A. Babesiosis
C. Leakage of fetal RBCs to maternal circulation
B. Filariasis
D. Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due
C. Malaria to transfusion

D. Toxoplasmosis 91. Mother should receive a full dose of RhIg

within ____ of delivery:
87. A post-transfusion to pre-transfusion brain
natriuretic peptide (BNP) ratio of ___ provides A. 72 hours
diagnosis of transfusion-associated circulatory
overload (TACO): B. 96 hours

A. 0.5 C. 5 days

D. 7 days
B. 1.5

C. 3.0 92. Infection rate is highest for laboratory

professionals exposed to blood and body fluids
D. 4.5 containing:

88. Antibodies not associated with HDN: A. Hepatitis A

A. Duffy B. Hepatitis B

B. I C. CMV

C. Kell D. HIV

D. Rh 93. Which infectious agent is considered to be

the primary occupational health hazard
89. The most important serologic test for regarding transmission of bloodborne
diagnosing HDFN is the DAT with anti-IgG
pathogens:
reagent. What is the specimen for this test?
A. HIV

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023

B. HBV 98. Retention of paraffin blocks:

C. Tuberculosis A. 7 days

D. MRSA B. 2 years

94. It occurs in the bronchi of cigarette smokers C. 3 years

as cellular adaptation to smoke:
D. 10 years
A. Hypertrophy
99. Good materials to use for benchtops, as
B. Hyperplasia they are easy to clean and are resistant to
deterioration from harsh disinfectants and
C. Dysplasia
aggressive cleaning products:
D. Metaplasia A. Cement
95. Due to chronic trauma induced by ill-fitting B. Ceramic
dentures:
C. Steel
A. Hypertrophy
D. Wood
B. Hyperplasia
100. Minimum technical working area for a
C. Dysplasia tertiary category laboratory:
D. Metaplasia A. 10 square meters
96. Commercially available solution of B. 20 square meters
formaldehyde:
C. 30 square meters
A. 10%
D. 60 square meters
B. 10 to 20%
101. An act promoting voluntary blood
C. 15 to 25% donation, providing for an adequate supply of
D. 35 to 40% safe blood, regulating blood banks, and
providing penalties for violation thereof:
97. Preparation of 10% formalin from 40%
formaldehyde: A. RA 1517

A. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water B. RA 5527

B. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water C. RA 7719

C. 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 90 mL water D. RA 8504

D. 1 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water

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102. A blood service facility duly authorized by D. RA 9482
the DOH – Center for Health Development
(CHD), whose main function is to collect blood 106. Waste container for empty aerosol cans:
from volunteer non-remunerated blood donors: A. Yellow
A. Blood Bank (BB) B. Yellow with black band
B. Blood center (BC) C. Black
C. Blood collection unit (BCU) D. Red
D. Blood station (BS)

103. A blood service facility duly authorized by -END OF PART 2 RECALLS-

the DOH – CHD, whose main function is the
storage, issuance, transport and distribution of
whole blood and packed red cells:

A. Blood Bank (BB)

B. Blood center (BC)

C. Blood collection unit (BCU)

D. Blood station (BS)

104. A non-hospital-based blood service facility,

licensed by DOH Bureau of Health Facilities and
Services (BHFS), whose main function is to
process blood units into blood components and
testing these units for five (5) infectious disease
markers:

A. Blood Bank (BB)

B. Blood center (BC)

C. Blood collection unit (BCU)

D. Blood station (BS)

105. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999:

A. RA 7719

B. RA 9288

C. RA 8749

RMT BY MARCH 14, 2023