PATIENT CARE AND MANAGEMENT

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the
box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE: D. Provide comfort on the x-ray table

1.) Arm and leg restraint applied without either patient᾿s 10.) An object that has been contaminated with a pathogenic
permission or physician᾿s order could result in charges of: organism is called a:
A. False imprisonment A. Vehicle
B. Negligence B. Fomite
C. Invasion of privacy C. Vector
D. Battery D. Prion

2.) Grief caused by death or loss may characterized by 11.) Microorganism that live on or inside the body without
expression of: causing disease are referred to as:
A. Anger A. Pathogens
B. Denial B. Parasite
C. Depression C. Prion
D. AOTA D. Microbial flora

3.) Failure of professional person to act at all times within 12.) Under the system of protective precautions (for immune-
accepted standards of profession: compromise patients), the “dirty” technologist touches the:
A. Malpractice 1. X-ray equipment
B. Crime 2. Patient
C. Negligence 3. Covered image receptor
D. Perjury . 4. Sterile items
A. 1 only
4.) Which of the following positions is considered safe for a B. 2, 3 and 4 only
patient who is nauseated and may vomit: C. 1 and 3 only
A. Supine D. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. Prone
C. Trendelenburg 13.) Tubercolosis is transmitted by:
D. Lateral recumbent A. Direct contact or touching the patient
B. Airborne route
5.) When a patient arrives by wheelchair and cannot stand to C. Droplet route
get onto the x-ray table, which of the following methods is D. Contact with a fomite
most appropriate:
A. Sliding board transfer 14.) The term reservoir refers to the:
B. Two- or three-person lift A. Method by which the pathogen enters the body
C. Face-to-face assist B. Method by which the pathogen leaves the body
D. Draw sheet transfer C. Place where the pathogen resides
D. Individual with reduced natural resistance to
6.) A patient who has recently had a spinal injury or spinal infection
surgery is lying down and must be assisted. You should first
turn the patient to the: 15.) The standard principles of surgical asepsis include:
A. Prone A. Not passing between the surgeon and sterile field
B. Lateral recumbent B. Never reaching across a sterile field
C. Fowler C. Discarding items that become contaminated
D. Sims D. AOTA

7.) When assisting a stroke patient to walk a few steps, you 16.) The most common workplace disabilities reported by
should position yourself: healthcare workers are:
A. In front of the patient A. Vision problems
B. Behind the patient B. Respiratory disorders
C. On the patient’s strong side C. Musculoskeletal disorders
D. On the patient’s weak side D. Allergies

8.) Which of the following types of hepatitis are great 17.) Health care workers have lower risk of contracting this
concerns to the health care workers: type of hepatitis:
A. Hepa B and C A. Hepa A
B. Hepa A only B. Hepa B
C. Hepa A and E C. Hepa C
D. Hepa C only D. Hepa D
E. Hepa B and E E. Hepa E

9.) A sliding board can be used to: 18.) The most common form of hepatitis and usually there is
A. Evacuate the area available vaccine for this:
B. Immobilized a child A. Hepa A
C. Facilitate a stretcher transfer B. Hepa B
 C. Hepa C C. 1 and 2 only
D. Hepa D D. 2 and 3 only
E. Hepa E
27.) Which of the following documents are part of the
19.) What is the most likely mode of transmission for patient’s medical records:
hepatitis? 1. Record of medication given
A. Airborne contamination 2. Consent form
B. Droplet contamination 3. Radiographs
C. Vehicle or direct contact A. 1 and 2 only
D. Vector B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
20.) The function of “clean” radiographer in the radiography D. AOTA
of isolation patient, EXCEPT:
A. Touches the patient 28.) Which of the following is a valid method of verifying
B. Touches the bed patient identification:
C. Touches the sterile items 1. Reading wrist identification band
D. Touches uncovered IR 2. Checking bed name plate
3. Questioning unconscious patient
21.) The following are parenteral routes, EXCEPT: A. 1 and 2 only
A. Intradermal B. 1 and 3 only
B. Intrathecal C. 2 and 3 only
C. Oral D. AOTA
D. Subcutaneous
29.) What is intended by the abbreviation “HAMA“:
21.) Sterilization method that involves the immersion and A. Home Advice Medical Advice
soaking of clean objects in a bath of germicidal solution B. Hospital Advice Medical Advice
followed by a sterile water rinse: C. Home Against Medical Assurance
A. Dry heat D. Home Against Medical Advice
B. Chemical sterilization
C. Gas sterilization 30.) What is intended by the abbreviation “c“:
D. Autoclaving A. Cubic centimeter
B. With
22.) A device that provides steam sterilization under pressure C. Centimeter
and the most commonly used sterilization method: D. Without
A. Dry heat
B. Chemical sterilization 31.) What is the appropriate action if a patient complains of
C. Gas sterilization pain in the left wrist, no pain in the right wrist, but the request
D. Autoclave for examination is for the right wrist:
A. Radiograph the left wrist
23.) This type of sterilization method is used primarily for B. Radiograph the right wrist
electrical, plastic, rubber items and for optical ware: C. Radiograph both left and right wrist
A. Dry heat D. Request clarification from the ordering physician
B. Chemical sterilization
32.) Who was the first chairman of the Board of the
C. Gas sterilization
Radiologic Technology?
D. Autoclave A. Fortunato C. Gabon
B. Luis Ibarra
24.) Items that would be damaged by high temperatures are
C. Wilhelmina Gana
usually sterilized with a mixture of freon and ethylene oxide
D. Atty. Oscar Romero
heated in 135o F or 57 o C:
A. Dry heat 33.) Where is the center of gravity ofr a standing patient:
B. Chemical sterilization A. In the cervicothoracic region
C. Gas sterilization B. At the center of the diaphragm
D. Autoclave C. At the midline level with the iliac crests
D. In the pelvis near the symphysis pubis
25.) This method of sterilization is used to sterilize some sharp
instruments, certain powders and greasy substances and 34.) A yellowish discoloration of the skin, mucous
usually takes 1-6 hours at a temperature of 329-338o F or 165- membranes, and sclera of the eyes caused by greater than
170 o C: normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood:
A. Dry heat A. Flatus
B. Chemical sterilization B. Eructation
C. Gas sterilization C. Belching
D. Autoclave D. Icterus

26.) Which of the following persons may diagnose from a 35.) The most frequent site of nosocomial infection is the
radiograph: A. urinary tract
1. Radiographer B. blood
2. Radiologist C. respiratory tract
3. Chief technologist D. digestive tract
A. 1 only
36.) What is nevus?
B. 2 only
 A. Birthmark 2. Remove clothing first from injured side
B. Blister 3. Place clothing first on the injured side
C. Spot 4. Place clothing first on the uninjured side
D. Scratch thing A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
37.) Which are parts of the sphenoid bones? C. 2 and 3 only
1. Anterior clinoid process D. 2 and 4 only
2. Posterior clinoid process
3. Crista galli 48.) The period of relaxation of the heart is termed:
A. 1 and 2 only A. Systole
B. 2 and 3 only B. Diastole
C. 1 and 3 only C. Hypertension
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. Dyspnea

38.) What vertebral body is located at the level of the 49.) To reduce back strain associated with transferring
sternal angle? the patient from stretcher to x-ray table, you should:
A. T5 C. T4 A. Push the patient
B. T1 D. T10 B. Bend at the waist and pull the patient
C. Hold the patient away from the body and lift
39.) The incumbent chairman of the Board of the D. Pull the patient
Radiologic Technology?
A. Fortunato C. Gabon 50.) The normal adult axillary temperature is:
B. Luis Ibarra A. Higher than rectal temperature
C. Wilhelmina Gana B. Lower than rectal temperature
D. Atty. Oscar Romero C. The same as the rectal temperature
D. NOTA
40.) What is intended by the abbreviation “prn”:
A. With 51.) A pulse can be detected only by the use of
B. Without stethoscope in which of the following locations?
C. Nothing by mouth A. Wrist
D. As needed B. Neck
C. Groin
41.) Which is the largest and longest nerve of the human D. Apex of the heart
body?
A. Sciatic 52.) Which of the following communication/s messages
B. Vagus to the patient?
C. Phrenic 1. Rate of speech
D. Ulnar 2. Eye contact
3. Readiness of radiographic room
42.) Which organ receives blood from the portal vein? A. 1 only
A. Small bowel B. 1 and 2 only
B. Large bowel C. 3 only
C. Liver D. AOTA
D. Pancreas
53.) Instruments needed to assess vital signs include:
43.) What is the role of a manager? 1. Tongue blade
A. Servant 2. Watch with a second hand
B. Leader 3. Thermometer
C. Administrator A. 1 only
D. Manager B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
44.) What is meningocele?
D. AOTA
A. A protrusion of the meninges through a defect
B. An inflammation of the covering membrane to the 54.) Which of the following diseases require/s airborne
brain or spinal cord precautions?
C. A defect in the skull or spinal column 1. TB
D. An inflammation of the meninges 2. Varicella
3. Rubella
45.) A patient with a fever is said to be:
A. 1 only
A. Weak
B. 1 and 2 only
B. Sick
C. 1 and 3 only
C. Ill
D. AOTA
D. Febrile
55.) Which of the following diseases require/s airborne
46.) Which of the following physical signs of patient
precautions?
weakness?
1. Rubeola
A. Paleness
2. Mumps
B. Pale, cool skin
3. Influenza
C. Hot, dry skin
A. 1 only
D. Sweaty palm
B. 1 and 2 only
47.) To avoid unnecessary/painful movements: C. 2 and 3 only
1. Remove clothing first from uninjured side D. AOTA
56.) Diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact C. 4, 2, 3, 1
include: D. 4, 3, 2, 1
1. Skin infections
2. Syphilis 64.) Medications the reduce coughing:
3. Influenza A. Anticoagulant
A. 1 only B. Anticonvulsion
B. 1 and 2 only C. Antitussive
C. 2 and 3 only D. Antidiuretic
D. AOTA
65.) Which of the following is/are symptom/s of
57.) In which of the following conditions is protective or inadequate oxygen supply?
reverse isolation indicated? 1. Diaphoresis
1. Transplant recipient 2. Cyanosis
2. Burns 3. Dyspnea
3. Leukemia A. 1 only
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. AOTA
D. AOTA
66.) The usual patient preparation for an upper GI
58.) Which of the following means of indirect examination is:
transmission of microorganism? A. NPO 8 hours after the examination
1. Fomite B. NPO after midnight
2. Vector C. Empty the bladder before scout film
3. Airborne D. NOTA
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only 67.) Before performing which of the following
C. 1 and 2 only examinations is a cathartic almost always required?
D. AOTA 1. Lower GI
2. Upper GI
59.) What is the name of the practice that serves to retard 3. IVU
the growth of pathogenic bacteria? A. 1 only
A. Antisepsis B. 1 and 2 only
B. Bacteriogenesis C. 2 and 3 only
C. Sterilization D. AOTA
D. Disinfection
68.) Which of the following gauge needle has the largest
60.) Which of the following can be transmitted via bore?
infected blood? A. 12
1. TB B. 18
2. HIV C. 20
3. HBV D. 23
A. 1 only
B. 2 only 69.) A patient᾿s feeling of spinning, or room spinning
C. 2 and 3only about him, is called:
D. 1 and 3 only A. Orthostaic hypotension
B. Epistaxis
61.) Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria C. Vertigo
carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, D. Syncope
fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an
example of transmission of an infection by: 70.) A patient᾿s feeling of spinning, or room spinning
A. Droplet contact about him, is called:
B. The airborne route A. Orthostaic hypotension
C. A vector B. Epistaxis
D. A vehicle C. Vertigo
D. Syncope
62.) Pathogens are:
1. Always harmful 71.) A patient᾿s IV bottle or bag should be hung:
2. Sometimes harmful A. 18-24 inches above the vein
3. Capable of producing disease B. 18-24 inches below the vein
A. 1 only D. 18-24 inches above the heart
B. 2 only C. 18-24 inches below the heart
C. 1 and 3 only 72.) What is the most frequently used site for
D. 2 and 3 only intravenous injection of contrast agents?
63.) Arrange the following examinations in sequence: A. Basilic vein
1. Examination of the urinary tract B. Cephalic vein
2. Examination of the gallbladder D. Antecubital vein
3. Examination of the lower GI tract C. Femoral vein
4. Examination of the upper GI tract 73.) Parenteral administration of drugs may be
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 performed:
B. 2, 3 ,1 ,4 1. Intrathecally
 2. Intravenous A. Right main bronchus
3. Oral B. Left main bronchus
A. 1 only C. Esophagus
B. 1 and 2 only D. Proximal stomach
D. 3 only
C. AOTA 82.) Chest radiography should be performed using 72
inches SID whenever possible in order to:
74.) Proper treatment for contrast media extravasation 1. Maximize magnification of the heart
into tissues around a vein includes: 2. Obtain better lung detail
1. Application of cold wet towel to affected area 3. Visualize vascular markings
2. Application of moist heat to affected area A. 1 only
3. Apply pressure to injection site B. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. AOTA
D. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only 83.) Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA
projection of the chest can be an indication of:
75.) What is the relationship of the MSP and transverse A. Pleural effusion
plane? B. Ascites
A. Parallel C. Bronchitis
B. Perpendicular D. Emphysema
D. 45 degress
C. 75 degrees 84.) Which of the following conditions is characterized
by widening of the intercostal spaces and flattening of
76.) The position of hypersthenic gallbladder, as the diaphragm?
compared to the position of the asthenic gallbladder is A. Emphysema
more: B. Empyema
A. Superior, medial C. Atelectasis
B. Superior, lateral D. Pneumonia
D. Inferior, medial
C. Inferior, lateral 85.) Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood
as it returns from the lungs to the heart:
77.) The radiographer should be able to: A. Pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle,
1. Take a short patient history after the aortic valve
examination B. A. Pulmonary artery, left atrium, left
2. Modify routine positions to obtain similar ventricle, aortic valve
images in patients unable to move C. Pulmonary veins, right atrium, right ventricle,
3. Evaluate patient conditions and needs pulmonary semilunar valve
A. 1 only D. Pulmonary artery, right atrium, right
B. 1 and 2 only ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve
D. 2 and 3 only
C. AOTA 86.) The following arteries form the three branches of
the aortic arch, EXCEPT:
78.) The lower portion of the costal margin is A. Brachiocephalic artery
approximately at the same level as the: B. Left common carotid artery
A. Mid-thorax C. Right common carotid artery
B. Umbilicus D. Right subclavian artery
C. Third lumbar vertebra
D. Xiphoid tip 87.) The apex of the heart is formed by the:
A. Right atrium
79.) Before bringing the patient into the radiographic B. Left atrium
room, the radiographer should: C. Right ventricle
1. Be certain that the x-ray room is clean and D. Left ventricle
orderly
2. Check all the necessary accessories are 88.) The four major arteries supplying the brain include
available in room the:
3. Check for clean x-ray table and fresh pillow 1. Brachiocephalic artery
cases 2. Common carotid arteries
A. 1 only 3. Vertebral arteries
B. 1 and 2 only A. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
D. AOTA C. 2 and 3 only
D. AOTA
80.) With the body in the dorsal recumbent position, the
diaphragm moves: 89.) Any dressing removed in the imaging department
A. 2 to 4 inches higher than when erect must be considered:
B. 2 to 4 inches lower than when erect A. Sterile
D. 2 to 4 inches inferiorly B. Contaminated
C. Unpredictably C. Surgically aseptic
D. Medically aseptic
81.) Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adult
are most likely to lodge in the:
90.) If there is a question about the sterility of an item, D. At a time that is convenient for the
the radiographer must: radiographer
A. Use it as if it were sterile
B. Call the radiologist and ask him about the 98.) An alert patient who swallowing reflex is intact is
item placed into what position in preparation for suctioning?
C. Consider it unsterile and replace it A. Prone
D. All of these must be considered B. Sims
C. Semi-Fowler
91.) Why anaphylactic shock the most frequently seen D. Lateral
type of shock in the diagnostic imaging?
A. Patients who come for diagnostic imagin 99.) What are two points to remember when caring for a
procedures are weak and debilitated patient with a new tracheostomy in place?
B. Patient here have more allergies A. He or she may be talkative and may need to
C. Patients are prone to allergies be suctioned
D. Iodinated contrast agents are frequently B. He or she will be anxious and unable to
used speak
C. He pr she will be in the stage of denial and
92.) Fainting is a common medical emergency in the will express anger
diagnostic imaging department. If a patient appears to be D. He or she will be unconcious and will be
fainting, what is the first thing to do? accompanied by a nurse
A. Assist the patient to a safe position and
then call for help 100.) Oxygen administration equipment, face masks,
B. Give smelling salts suction, and all other emergency equipment and drugs
C. Get the emergency cart must be on hand with which of the following type/s of
D. Prepare to administer oxygen patient?
A. Geriatric
93.) A radiographer must consider that all patients with B. Ambulatory
head injuries may also have: C. Pediatric
A. Fractures D. Non-ambulatory
B. Seizures
C. Shock
D. Cervical spine fractures
E. Vital signs -THE END-
94.) Special care is necessary when caring for a patient
whose brain or spinal cord might be injured because:
A. Extreme pain may result from the “If plan doesn’t work, change
movements
B. This type of injury heals slowly the plan but never the goal”
C. The incidence of infection is high
D. These tissues have very little ability to heal
Prepared by:
95.) When caring for a 6 year-old child, the radiographer
should: Meynard Y. Castro, RRT
A. Explain the procedure to the patient in great 06/21/14
detail
B. Tell the patient that there will be no pain or
discomfort, regardless of the type of examination
C. Be friendly, honest, and conside in your
explanation to the child
D. Routinely immobilized the child to be
examined

96.) When caring for a pediatric patient, the best method

of transport is always:
A. A gurney
B. A crib
C. Depends on the distance involved and the age
of the child
D. Carrying the child

97.) When radiographer must schedule an elderly patient

for a difficult diagnostic examination, it is best to
schedule the examination for:
A. Evening hours so that the patient has the day
to rest
B. Early morning hours so that the patient
can have breakfast as close to the usual time as
possible
C. In the middle of the day so that traffic is less
hectic