In the symphony of academia, UPSC questions are

the notes that compose the melody of

enlightenment. “Treat PYQs as a subject.”

Pavan Patel

POLITY PYQS
(2014 – 2023)
Decoding UPSC
 Polity 10 Years PYQs (2013 – 2023)

2023
1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law' mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

2. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own
rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly
kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the
'Constitution' of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security

4. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely

believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental
Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

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(d) 86th Amendment

5. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

6. Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court
of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her
office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the
ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections
are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes

time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

7. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider
the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can
amend or reject the Bill.

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend
or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

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 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha,
there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary
for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

8. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place

through an Order of the President.

2. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following

statements:

3. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place

through an Order of the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

9. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the
reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be
limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of
administration'.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

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(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

10. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central
Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in
maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border

Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

11. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action The Act under which it is covered

Unauthorised wearing of police or military

1. The Official Secrets Act, 1923
uniforms

Knowingly misleading of otherwise interfering

2. with a police officer or military officer when The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
engaged in their duties

Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the

3. The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
personal safety of others

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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12. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India
According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400
mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

13. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to

promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a

Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft
Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

14. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.

2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor

pregnant women.

3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one
year of age.

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How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

15. Consider the following statements in the context interventions being

undertaken under Anaemin Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children,

adolescents and pregnant women.

2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.

3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.

4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with

special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

16. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative
care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States
are primarily responsible for organising health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

17. Consider the following statements:

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 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to
protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a
person being held for preventive detention.

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the

accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

18. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of

India :

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative

Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of
each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of
Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal
Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats
in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

19. Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

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 4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many
of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

2022
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of
Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High
Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on
Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

2. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3.Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the
President of India.

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2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of
India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet
Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy
Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime
Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok
Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

6. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within
six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of
India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8.With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a
public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government
Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ
of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following

statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election
of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker
of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over
the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy
Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3

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(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

10. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

2021
1. Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates -
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare

2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right

3. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

4. Constitutional government means

(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

5. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma

Awards.
(a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the
Constitution of India.
(b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only
once.

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(C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a
particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate
and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such
prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

9. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an

unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application
of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28

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(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44

10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates
that it is federal in character?
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
(c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law

11. Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent
of external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority
to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard
their means of sustenance.
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long
time with their own culture, tradition and government.
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive
responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

12. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the
Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme
Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any
circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

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14. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a
liberal democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers

15. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how
does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in
India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act
of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be
designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of
the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime
Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

18. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok
Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies.

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3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from
many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the
constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the
constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

2020
1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions

2. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area

Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are
correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure
for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be
carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation
every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

3. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporated

against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality

4. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

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(b) A Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice

5. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before
the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The
aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

6. A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government

7. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the
Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the
following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹
3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

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9. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which -
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it
before completion of a fixed term

10. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic
appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

13. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is -

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

14. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.

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3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the
State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

15. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be
made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the
Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a
criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently
disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as
he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year,
but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

2019
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts
from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

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(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

3. Consider the following statements:

(1) The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing
the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review
(2) Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution of
India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot
be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity
and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by
a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total
members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

5. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the
person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19

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(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

6. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions

contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the
constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by
laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can
declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence
of the Union Legislature.

7. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the

following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the
commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the
Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups

(PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG
status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

9. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

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1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

11. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent
person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense
political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

2018
1. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights

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Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she
ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between
law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

5. In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary

Power was given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors

6. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote
of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2

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7. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply
the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

8. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary

Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated
by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of
such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

9. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule
of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined
by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements:

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1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra
Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in
1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader
cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the
authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

2017
1. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of -
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology

2. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy
constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not
elected but only nominated by the President of India.

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2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for
the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of
Ministers through -
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the
following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties

6. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that -

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

7. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship
between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the
citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

8. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity -
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

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(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

9. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

11. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle
underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism against the Government whose
responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose
responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility
of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold
over the people is in a state of decline.

12. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an
Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the
Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability

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3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation
of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2and 3

15. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a -

(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right

16. In India, Judicial Review implies -

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or
different cases.

17. Consider the following statements :

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for
the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

18. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok
Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the
Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

2016
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25
years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the
remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha,
shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State
List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) RajyaSabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and
voting

4. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute

the Global Hunger Index Report?
1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 , 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

7. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to -

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(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable
sources of livelihood
(b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative
sources of livelihood
(c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual
scavengers
(d) release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

8. With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons

(OPCW)’, consider the following statements :
1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
2. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical
weapons threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following
statements:
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for
any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal
rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2015
1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

2. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of

State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country

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2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule

4. Consider the following statements :

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among
the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to
be passed by -
(a) a simple majority of member present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the House
(d) absolute majority of the House

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7. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision
made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitute
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties

8. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the
Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that
particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution
of India are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between states
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States

11. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India

12. With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.

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1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget
that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the
authorization of Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization
from the Parliament of India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

13. India is a member of which among the following?

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them

2014
1. Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which -
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of
individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the
business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the
said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in
the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is

included in the -
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule

4. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

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(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

7. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions

8. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains

provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

10. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in -
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission

11. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre
and the States falls under its -
(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction.

(c) original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

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