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CHAPTER - 1
EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Find the relation between the terms in the first pair and complete the second pair. Incandescent lamp
: Tungsten
Heating coil of heating appliances : ……………..

2. (a) Which among the following is not a discharge lamp?

(Sodium vapour lamp, Arc lamp, Fluorescent lamp, LED lamp)
(b) Explain the working of discharge lamp.

3. An incandescent lamp bears the marking 200 V, 100 W.

(a) What does 100 W indicate?
(b) What is the resistance of its filament?
(c) Write an advantage of LED lamp over incan- descent lamp.

4. Write the energy change taking place in the given devices.

(1) Incandescent Lamp (ii) Electric Mixie

5. (a) Name the part of a heating equipment in which the electric energy is converted into heat energy.
(b) Name the substance used to make this part

6. 2A current flows through an electric heating device connected to 230 V supply.

(a) The quantity of charge that flows through the circuit in 5 minutes is:
(b) What is the resistance of the device?
(c) Calculate the power of the heating device.

7. Three resistances of 4 £2, 62 and 12 2 are given to you.

(a) What is the highest resistance that you can get using all of them?
(b) What is the lowest resistance that can be obtained by using the 6 2 and 12 2 resistances?

8. Specification of two electrical heaters are given below:

a) Which heater require a fuse of higher amperage?

b) Which of the heaters generate more heat when they work for 5 minutes under the same voltage rating?
Explain the reason.

9. Correct the following statements by modifying the underlined words appropriately if it is wrong.
a) Heating coils are made up of materials having high resistivity and low melting point.
b) In the incandescent lamps, vaporization of filaments can be reduced by using hydrogen or nitrogen at low
pressure.

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10. If intensity of electric current in a circuit is doubled, the heat energy developed in this circuit
increases……………times

11. Which of the following light source does not contain mercury in it?
(fluorescent lamp, LED, CFL)

12. Write any two characteristic properties of the material used as heating coil in heating devices.

13. Explain how light energy is produced in discharge lamps?

14.(a) Which material is used as filament in incandescent lamps?

(b) What are the characteristic properties of the material used as filament?
(c) Why these lamps are filled with nitrogen?

15. Usually we connect resistors in series and parallel.

(a) In which type of connection does the resultant resistance of the circuit decreases?
(b) Two resistors of 1000 are connected in series with a 250 V supply. Calculate the heat ener-gy produced
when current flows through it for 2 seconds.
(c) State whether the quantity of heat, produced increases or decreases, if these resistors connected in
parallel in the same circuit with 250 V supply. Justify your answer.

16. Write the electrical devices which converts electrical energy to mechanical energy.
 Electric Iron
 Loud speaker
 Soldering Iron
 Electric Mixie

17. Nichrome wires are used as heating coil. Write any two reasons for the same.

18. Why does a heater having low resistant heating coil gets heated more? Explain.

19. The heat generated in a current carrying conductor can be explained by a famous law.
(a) Write the name of this law.
(b) Write the mathematical equation for this law. Explain each letters used in the equation.

20. Identify the relationship in the first pair and complete the second one.
Storage battery (While charging) - Chemical effect
- Heating effect

22. Suppose you have to replace an incandescent lamp at your house. Following lamps are available
Incandescent lamp, CFL, LED, Fluorescent lamp Which of these lamp would you select? Justify your
selection.

23. Analyse the figure and answer the following

a) If the switch S1 is on, which bulb will glow? How much current is flowing through the fuse at this time?
b) If both the switches are on, what changes can be observed in the circuit? Justify your answer.

CHAPTER - 2
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
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1. Observe the figure of a moving coil loudspeaker.

(a) Name the parts labelled as A and B.
(b) Write the function of diaphragm in this device.

2. Write any two methods to increase the magnetic strength of a current carrying solenoid.

3. DC current is flowing through a solenoid AB. The direction of current at the end A is anticlockwise.
(a) Write the polarity at the end A.
(b) The solenoid is replaced by a current carrying conductor. Give the name of the law that helps to
determine the direction of magnetic field produced.

4. The magnetic field around a current carrying conductor AB is

given in the figure. Based on Maxwell's right hand screw rule, find the
direction of the current through the conductor.

5. Observe the figure of a DC motor.

a. Write the name of the parts labelled as A and B.
b. What are the changes to be made so as to convert
this device into an AC generator?

6. Name the arrangement in a DC motor to sustain the rotation of the armature in one direction.

7. Solenoids are used to make electromagnets.

(a) If the direction of the DC current through the solenoid at the end facing us is in clockwise, which
magnetic pole is developed at this end?
(b) Suggest two methods to increase the magnetic field strengths of a solenoid.

8. From the following choose the instrument that works on motor principle.
(AC - Generator, Moving Coil Microphone, DC-Generator, Moving Coil Loud Speaker)

9. Identify the magnetic pole at the end of a solenoid at which current is in the clockwise direction.

10. Correct the following statement by changing the underlined words.

The direction of deflection of magnetic nee- dle placed near a current carrying conductor depends on the
intensity of electric current through that conductor.

11. Explain the working of split ring commutator in a DC motor.

12. a) Write any two important parts of a moving coil loud speaker.
b) Write the working principle of this device

CHAPTER - 3
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

1. Secondary coil of a transformer has double turns in the Secondary ? than that of its primary coil . If the
voltage applied in the primary coil is 25 V , what will be the voltage in the secondary?
( 25 V , 50 V , 2 V , 12.5 V )
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2. Which arrangement converts the AC induced in the armature of DC generator into DC ?

3. Some characteristics of step up transformers and step down transformers are given below. Select the
statements suitable for step up transformers.
(a ) Primary voltage is greater than secondary voltage .
(b) Secondary voltage is greater than primary voltage
(c) Current in the primary coil is greater than that in the secondary coil
(d) Current in the secondary coil is greater than that in the primary coil.
(e) Thick wires are used in the primary.
(f) Thick wires are used in the secondary.

4 . The non - rotating part in a dc motor is : ( Armature , Split ring , Graphite Brush )

5. Write any two relevant first aids to be given in the case of electric shock .

6. Explain the following .

( a ) Electromagnetic induction
( b ) Induced emf .

7. The voltage of electric power generated is increased from 11 kV to 220 kV in power trans mission . But
the household supply is provided at 230 V.
( a ) Write the type of transformer used at the first phase of power transmission .
( b ) Write the type of transformer used at the distribution line .
( c ) Write any two structural differences between step up and step down transformer

8. Observe the figure .

( a ) Identify the Generator .
( b ) Write the working principle of the generator .
( c ) Which type of emf is induced in the armature ?
( d ) Write the function of split ring commutator used in this generator

9. The graphical representation of emf obtained from three electrical sources are given below
( a ) Identify any two sources .
( b ) Write any two peculiarities of each of the emf
Shown in the graph ( A ) and ( B ) .

10. Two stages of experiment conducted with a solenoid and a magnet is given below .

( Magnets shown in fig . A and fig . B are station ary magnet and a
moving magnet respectively) .
(a) In which stage , the galvanometer deflects ?
(b) Explain the reason for this deflection in galvanometer with the
help of scientific principle that you have learned
(c) Write any two devices that works on this principle .

11. What is the use of watt hour meter in a house hold circuit?

12. In household electrical appliances three pin plugs are used to ensure safety .
a ) How is earth pin different from the other pins ?
b ) Which part of the equipment is connected to the earth line ?

13. Which among the following is the graphical representation of the output emf in a DC generator ?

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14. Which rule gives the direction of current produced in a conductor when it moves perpendicular to a
magnetic field ?

15. Pick out the correct relationship associated with a step - down transformer . ( V , N , I represents
voltage , Number of turns and current respectively , P and S represents the primary and secondary )
a ) Vs > Vp b ) Vp > Vs
c ) Np > Ns d ) Ip > Is

16. ( a ) Write any two methods to reduce the trans mission loss in power transmission
( b ) Write the names of any two electric lines that brings electric power to your house.

17. Choose the correct statements associated with the electromagnetic induction .
( a ) When the number of turns in a solenoid is increased , the induced emf decreases .
( b ) When a strong magnet is used , induced emf increases
( c ) When the magnet or solenoid moved in fast , the induced emf increases .

18. The block diagrams represent two type of transformers .

( a ) Identify the step - up transformer from the

figure . Justify your answer .
( b ) Some coils in the transformers shown in
the figure are made up of thick wires . Why ?

19 .

a ) Identify the graphs which represent direct current .

b ) Compare the nature of electromotive forces that produce the direct current represented by the graphs .

20. a ) List out the difference in the designs of a step up and step down transformer .
b ) A transformer without any loss in power has 5000 turns in the primary . The input voltage and output
voltage are 240 volts and 24 volts respectively . If the current through the primary is 0.4 A.
i ) Calculate the number of turns in the secondary
ii ) Calculate the current in the secondary

21. Transformers are playing an important role in reducing transmission losses in electric power
transmission .
a)Name the important stages in power transmission where transformers are used .
(b) What is the cause of power loss in power transmission
(c) Explain how transformers reduce the power loss in transmission

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CHAPTER - 4
REFLECTION OF LIGHT

1. The figure shows a beam of light falling on two different surfaces .

Which type of reflection is represented by figure?

2. When an object of height 5 cm is placed at a distance of 12 cm infront of a concave mirror , a real image
was formed at a distance of 24 cm .
( a ) Calculate magnification ( use New Cartesian Sign Convention )
( b ) Find the height of the image .
( c ) Based on magnification how can we predict whether the image formed is erect or inverted .

3. If the object distance and image distance in a concave mirror is 40cm , what is its focal length ?

4. When an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the mirror , an image is obtained at 15 cm on

the same side .
a ) Write the values of u and y according to the New Cartesian Sign Convention .
b ) Calculate the focal length of the given mirror .

5. The magnification of an image formed in a min is - 1 .

( a ) What is the negative sign indicates with the value of magnification ?
( b ) What is magnification ?
( c ) Identify the mirror used.

6. The radius of curvature of a convex mirror is 24 cm . What is its focal length ?

( 24 cm , 6 cm , 12 cm , 3 cm )
7. Two rays of light OA and OB are coming from an object 0 is falling obliquely on the surface of a plane
mirror as shown .

a ) Draw a ray diagram indicating the image formation .

b ) Write any two properties of the image formed in this case .

8. In the figure , a beam of light which incidents on a surface and its reflection is depicted . If the angle
between them is 60 °, what will be the angle of incidence ?

9. Which of the mirrors forms an image larger than the object ?

( Plane mirror , Concave mirror , Convex mirror )

10. A real image was formed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror when an object was placed at a
distance of 30 cm from the mirror .
( a ) Calculate the focal length of the mirror using New Cartesian Sign Convention .
( b ) What will be the magnification of the image ?

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11. An object is placed 20 cm away from a concave mirror . The image obtained is at a distance of 30 cm on
the same side . Find the focal length of the given mirror .

12. Observe the figure . Use New Cartesian Sign Convention to fill the given blanks .

( Radius of curvature of the given mirror is 30 cm )

a ) Distance from the mirror to the object , u =_____
b ) Focal length of the given mirror f =__
c ) Image is formed at a distance , v =__

13. Write the correct statements regarding irregular reflection .

a ) Parallel incident rays reflected as parallel rays .
b ) Even though the incident rays are parallel , the reflected rays are not in parallel .
c ) After reflection no clear image is formed . d) The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection for each
ray is not equal .

14. Choose the wrong diagram related to the reflec tion of light on a plane mirror .

15. For the same reflecting surface area , which of the following has maximum field of view ?
( Concave mirror , Plane mirror , Convex mirror )

16. An object is placed in between the points F and C of a concave mirror as shown .

a ) Locate the position of the image by drawing another ray .

b ) Write the characteristics of the image obtained here .
c ) Write any one application of this type of mirror .

CHAPTER - 5
REFRACTION OF LIGHT

1) The midpoint of a lens is known as --------

2) Analyse the figure.

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An object is placed between F and 2F of a convex lens.

(a) Copy the diagram and complete to show the image formation.
(b) Write any two features of the image formed here.
(c) Where must the Object be placed to get a real image of same size as that of the object.

3) Light rays entering into air from glass is depicted below. Observe the figures and answer the given
questions.

(a) What is the critical angle of glass here?

(b) Which figure represents total internal reflection?
(c) Explain total internal reflection.
(d) Write any two instances that make use of total internal reflection.

4) Which phenomenon of light is utilized in optical fiber technology? (Refraction, Total internal reflection,
Dispersion, Scattering)

5) The image formed by a convex lens is inverted and diminished. Then the object must be placed
(At 2F, Beyond 2F, Between F and 2F, At F)

6) A ray of light falling obliquely from air to a glass slab is shown in the figure.

a) Find out the angle of incidence.

b) Why the angle of refraction is less than that of the angle of incidence in this case?
c) How can you calculate the refractive index of the material of this slab? (Calculation not required)

7) Observe the given diagram.

(a) When a light ray enters into air from water the light ray………………
[ moves towards the normal/ moves away from the normal]
(b) Name the phenomenon which caused the deviation of light ray when it enters into air from water.
(c) What happens to the speed of light when it enters from water to air?
(Increases, Decreases, No change)
8) Observe the position of the object OB placed in front of a convex lens.

(a)Draw the ray diagram of image formation and find the position of the image.
(b) Write any two features of the image formed.
(c) Calculate the power of a convex lens with focal length 50 cm.

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9) The radius of curvature of a convex lens is 50cm. What is its focal length?

10) An image is obtained at a distance of 40cm away from a convex lens when the object placed at the same
distance on the opposite side.
(a) Write any two characteristics of the image obtained.
(b) Write the focal length of the given lens.

11) Speed of light in three media are given.

(Glass-2x 10^8 m/s, Water -2.25 x 10^8 m/s, Diamond 1.25 x 10^8 m/s)
(a) In which medium does the refraction of light occurs more while falling from air?
(b) Arrange the three given media in the increasing or- der of optical density.

12) Draw the ray diagram of image formation when an object is placed at the 2F of a convex lens.

13) Observe the figure.

a) Write the values of u and f by using Cartesian sign convention.

b) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens

14) Speed of light in certain media are given in the table given below. Analyse the table and answer the
following questions.

a) Rearrange the given media in the increasing order of their optical density.
b) If light enters obliquely making the same angle of incidence from air to these media separately , which
media will give the largest value of the angle of refraction?
(c) What do you mean by absolute refractive index? Calculate the absolute refractive index of glass from the
given data.

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CHAPTER - 6
VISION AND WORLD OF COLOURS
1. When light passes through a medium it suffers partial and irregular reflection by hitting the particles of
the medium. Name this phenomenon.

2. Why does Newton's colour disc appears to be white, when it is rotated at high speed? Explain.

3. The figure given below shows dispersion of white light when it passes through a prism.

(a) Which colour deviates more?

(b) Which colour of the visible light has the longest wavelength?
(c) During dispersion each colour has got different deviations. Why?

4. Choose the least scattered colour in sunlight from the following.

(Violet, Green, Blue, Red)

5.Select the odd one from the group. (Reflection, Dispersion, Refraction, Persistance of vision)
6. Rainbow is formed due to dispersion of sunlight.
a) What is dispersion?
b) Write down the changes in the sunlight in the water droplet as the rainbow forms. Explain

7. The order of various colours observed in the spectrum of sunlight is given below. Choose the correct
order.
(a) Blue, Violet, Green, Red
(b) Violet, Blue, Yellow, Red
(c) Violet, Yellow, Blue, Green
(d) Green, Yellow, Orange, Blue.

8. Write the reason for the twinkling of stars in the sky

9. The picture represents a method of rectification of the defect of an eye using a lens of suitable focal
length.

a) Name the disorder of this eye.

b) Give two reasons for this defect.
c) Explain the role of concave lens in the rectification of this defect.

10. Explain the scientific reason behind the phenomena given below.
a) The path of sunlight is visible in a misty morning.
b) Newton's colour disc appears white when rotated fast.
c) The rising and setting sun appears red.
d) A person can see the far object and near object clearly.

11. Find the odd one from the brackets and give reason behind your selection.

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(Blue, Yellow, Red, Green)

12. Roshan observed a beautiful rainbow in the western sky from his school ground.
a) When did Roshan observe the rainbow?
(Morning, Noon, Evening, Prediction of time is impossible)
b) Draw the diagram of dispersion taking place in a water droplet during the formation of a rainbow.

13. Observe the figure in which image formation in an eye is given.

(a) Name the defect of this eye.

(b) What are the reasons for this defect?
(c) Suggest a remedy for this.

14. Write any two situations in daily life that caused by persistance of vision.

15. Find the odd one from the given list and justify your answer.
( Hypermetropia , Myopia, Power of accommodation, Presbyopia)

16.Analyse the figure.

a) Why violet ray is more deviated?

b) Which phenomenon causes the splitting up of light in the above prism?
c) On the basis of this phenomena, explain how a rainbow is formed?

17. a) Name two defects of eye that can be rectified using convex lens.
b) What are the reasons for these defects?
c) How these defects of eye are rectified by using a convex lens?

18. a) Write an instance in which Tyndall effect is observed.

b) Explain how Tyndall effect is produced.

19. a) Describe an experiment to show the scattering of white light.

Give the details of :
• apparatus required • procedure • observations
b) Based on this experiment explain why the atmosphere of moon appears dark.

CHAPTER - 7
ENERGY MANAGEMENT

1. (a) What is meant by the term "energy crisis"?

(b) Write any two reasons for energy crisis. Suggest two methods to minimise it.

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2. Observe the relations between terms in the first pair and complete the second pair.
CNG: Compressed Natural Gas
LNG: …………………………..

3. Pick out the one which is not a source of Green Energy.

(Solar cell, Wind mill, Biogas, LPG)

4. “Green energy is the energy of the future” Explain the above statement based on the energy crisis.

5. (a) How fossil fuels are formed?

(b) What are the products obtained by fractional distillation of coal?

6. Write any two products obtained while coal is distilled in the absence of air.
7. a) What will be the marking on a cooking gas cylinder that has a maturity period upto March 2020?
b) Write any two precautions to be taken to avoid accidents due to LPG leakage.

8. a) Hydrogen having the highest calorific value but it is not used as a domestic fuel. Why?
b) Give an instance where hydrogen is used as a fuel.
c) Write any four properties of a good fuel

9. Coal is divided into four categories, peat and lignite are two among them.
(a) Which are the other two?
(b) On what basis does coal is categorised like this?
(c) Which are the products obtained when coal is distilled in the absence of air?

10. Write the fossil fuel used to extract coke, coal tar and coal gas.

11. Analyse the relationship between the terms in the first pair and complete the second one accordingly.
LPG : Butane
CNG : …………

12. What is the energy crisis? Write any two suggestions to reduce the energy crisis.

13. Tabulate the following energy sources as green energy, and brown energy.
(a) Naphtha (b) Biogas (c) Sun
(d) Coal (e) Wind (f) CNG

14. Name the system that converts Nuclear energy to electrical energy.

15. 'Energy crisis is the consequence of increasing demand but decreasing availability' - Write any four
possible steps to be taken to reduce the energy crisis as far as possible.

16. Hydrogen is the most efficient fuel while considering the calorific value.
a) What is meant by calorific value?
b) Why hydrogen is not used as a domestic fuel?
c) Write any two properties of a good fuel.

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PERIODIC TABLE AND ELECTRONIC CONFIGURATION

1) Which subshell is common to all shells?

2) In f-block elements, the last electron is filled in ......... subshell

3) In element A (Symbol is not real), the last two electrons are added to the 4s subshell.
(a) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of A.
(b) Which period does it belong to?
(c) Find its group number

4) The atomic number of an element X is 13. (Symbol is not real)

(a) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of element X.
(b) Write down its subshell electronic configuration using the symbol of preceding noble gas.
(c) Which block does it belong to?
(d) Find the total number of electrons in all the p subshells of this element.
(e) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of X3+ ion.

5) Which among the following subshell has the highest energy?

(2s, 3p, 3d, 4s)

6) Select the correct statements that shows the characteristic properties of d block elements.
a) They show high ionisation energies.
b) The last electron is filled in the penultimate shell. c) Most of the compounds of these elements are coloured.
d) Many of them are used as catalysts in the petroleum industry.
e) These elements are found in groups 3 to 12 of the periodic table.
f) They are all non-metals.

7) Which one of the following subshells is not possible in an atom?

(2p, 3f, 1s, 4d)

8) The atomic number of element X is 12.(Symbol is not real)

a) Write the subshell wise electronic configuration of X.
b) Which period does this element belong to?
c) Which block does it belong to?
d) Write down the molecular formula of the chloride of X. (Hint: Valency of CI = 1)

9) The outermost subshell of inert gases except helium contains ............. electrons.
(2, 6, 10, 14)

10) The third shell of an atom X has 6 electrons.

a. Write the subshell electronic configuration of X.
b. What will be the normal valency of X?

11) Atomic number of iron is 26.

a. To which group of the periodic table does iron belong?
b. What is the oxidation state of iron in Fe203?
c. Write down the subshell electronic configuration of the ion of iron with this oxidation state

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12) To which block of the periodic table do Lanthanoids belong?

13) The third shell of an atom has 3 electrons.

a) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of the atom.
b) To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?

14) Subshell electronic configuration of some elements are given (Symbols are not real).
A) [Ne] 3s23p5
B) [Ar] 4s1
C) [Ar] 3d54s2
D) [Ar] 3d104s24p5
a) Which of these elements belong to the same group?
b) Which element has the lowest ionisation energy?
c) Which is the element that always shows +1 oxidation state?
d) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of C4+ ion.

15) Which one of the following subshells has the highest energy?
(1s, 3d, 4s, 3p)

16) How many electrons are donated by first group elements generally in chemical reactions?
(1, 2, 3, 4)

17) What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in 'f' subshell?
(2, 6, 10, 14)

18. The chemical formulae of two different chlorides of iron (Fe) are given below.
i) Ferrous Chloride – FeCI2
ii) Ferric Chloride – FeCI2
[Hint: Oxidation State of Chlorine atom (CI)= -1 Atomic number of iron (Fe) = 26]
a) In which compounds iron (Fe) shows +2 oxidation state?
b) Write the subshell electronic configuration of Fe3+
c) Why does iron show different oxidation- states?

19. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in 'f' subshell?
(2,6,10,14)

20. a) Select the correct subshell electronic configuration of Cr from the following:
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
(b) Write the reason for selecting this configuration

21. The outermost subshell electronic configuration of an element is 3d5 4s2.

a) Write the complete subshell electronic configuration of this element.
b) Write the atomic number of the element.1 c) Identify its block and period.
d) This element shows variable oxidation state. Why?

GAS LAWS AND MOLE CONCEPT

1. The number of molecules present in 1GMM N2 is………..

2. The volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP is 22.4L. What will be the volume of 34gNH3 at STP?
(1GMM NH, = 17g)

3. The relation between pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature is given in the
table.

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(A) Find the values of a, b and c.

(B) Which gas law is applied here?

4. 1 GMM (Gram Molecular Mass) of a substance contains............... number of molecules.

5. Analyse the given table and complete it.

6. a) What is the relation between pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas when temperature kept
constant?
b) Which gas law explains this relationship?
c) The volume of a fixed mass of gas is 100L when it is kept at a pressure of 2atm. Find its volume when its
pressure is doubled keeping the temperature constant.

7. a) Compare the following properties of a substance which exist in liquid state and gaseous state.
i) The energy
ii) Attractive force between molecules
iii) Freedom of movement of molecules
b) Even though gas molecules are continuously colliding with each other, there is no loss of energy. Why?

8. The relationship between volume and number of molecules of a gas at constant temperature and pressure
is known as (Charles' law, Avagadro's law, Boyle's law, Le-Chatelier's principle)

9. The molecular mass of water (H2O) is 18.

a) Find the mass of 1 GMM H20
b) How many moles of molecules are there in 180 g of H2O?

10. The relationship between the volume and temperature of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure is
shown in the table.

a. Find (P) and (Q).

b. Which gas law is associated with the given relation?

11. How much is the volume of 32 g of 02 at STP? (Atomic mass 0 = 16)

12. Some samples of certain elements are given.

8g H2 64g 02 28g N2 10g He
a) Which among the above has the highest number of molecules?
b) Which sample occupies a volume of 22.4 L at STP? (Atomic mass H = 1, He=4, N= 14 and 0 = 16)

13. What will be the molar volume of a gas at STP in litres?

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14. 1GMM of a substance contains number of molecules.

15. Find the mass of 44.8 L of NH, kept at STP. (Hint: Atomic mass N = 14, H = 1)

16. A and B represent two gas cylinders. The gas in the cylinder A is completely transferred to cylinder B,
. keeping the temperature constant.
(a) Compare the gas pressure in cylinder A and cylinder B.
(b) Which gas law is related to this?
(c) 10 L of gas is kept in a cylinder at 2 atm pressure. Keeping the temperature constant, the gas is
completely transferred to a 20 L cylinder. What is the new pressure of the gas?

17. One gram atomic mass (1GAM) of any element contains....... atoms.

18. The CO2 gas kept at STP has volume 112L (Hint: Molecular mass - 44)
a) Find the number of moles of CO2
b) Calculate the mass of 112L CO2
c) How many molecules of CO, are present in it?

19. The volume of one mole of any gas at STP is……..L.

20. Select from the box, the correct gas law related to the given situations.
Boyle's law, Charles' law, Avagadro's law
a) An inflated balloon kept at sunlight bursts after sometime.
b) The size of an air bubble rising from the bottom of an aquarium increases.

21. The molecular mass of methane (CH4) is 16.

a) What is the mass of 1 GMM of CH4?
b) Calculate the number of mole molecules in 160g of CH4
c) What is the mass of 5 x 6.022 x 1023 CH4 molecules?

22. Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14. Which of the following sample contains 6.022 x 1023 Nitrogen atoms?
(7g Nitrogen, 14g Nitrogen, 28 g Nitrogen, 1 g Nitrogen)

23. The chemical equation for the manufacture of ammonia is

N2 (g) +3H2(g) →2NH3(g)
a)Complete the following.
1 mole N2+....... H2 → ………NH3
b) Calculate the amount of H2 required to react with 28g of N2 completely.
(Hint: Molecular mass of N2 = 28, H2 = 2)
c) What will be the volume of NH3 formed at STP, if 22.4L of N2 is completely reacted?

24. The number of moles in 400g CaCO3 is………. (Hint: Gram atomic masses: Ca = 40g,C = 12g, O=16g)

25. The balanced chemical equation for the formation of ammonia gas by the reaction between nitrogen gas
and hydrogen gas is given.
N2+3H2,→2NH3
a) Write the ratio between the number of moles of reactants and products in the correct order.
b) How many moles of ammonia are formed when 6 moles of N2 react with 6 moles of H2?

26. a) What is gram atomic mass?

b) Calculate the following
i) How many gram atoms of sodium is present in 115 g of sodium?
ii) Mass of 5 gram atoms of calcium.
(Hint: Gram atomic masses: Na = 23g, Ca = 40g)

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27. A. Atomic mass of H = 1 and 0 = 16

a) i) Calculate the gram molecular mass of 02.
ii) How many molecules are present in 16 gram of 02?
b) In the reaction 2H2+ 02 → 2H2O
i) How many moles of 02 are required to produce 10 moles of H2O?
ii) What volume of 02 gas at STP is required to produce 2 moles of water?
OR
B. Calculate the number of molecules in each of the following:
i) 22.4L of CO2 gas at STP.
ii) 4 g of H2 (atomic mass of H = 1)
REACTIVITY SERIES AND ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. Which one of the following metals react with hot water?
(Au, Cu, Ag, Mg)

2. Which substance is deposited at the cathode, when molten Sodium Chloride is electrolysed? (Oxygen,
Chlorine, Sodium, Hydrogen)

3. Which of the following metal reacts vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(Mg, Cu, Fe, Pb)

4. When a Zinc rod is dipped in Copper Sulphate (CuSO4) solution, the following observations are found.
(i) Copper is deposited on Zinc.
(ii) The intensity of the colour of Copper sulphate solution decreases.
a) Which metal is more reactive?
b) Explain the reason for observation (ii).
c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction.

5. a) Which metal is deposited at the cathode when molten sodium chloride (NaCl) is electrolysed?
b) Write the chemical equation of the reaction at cathode

6. When molten sodium chloride (NaCl) is electrolysed, the gas liberated at the anode is……

7. Electroplating is one of the practical utilities of electrolysis. Copper can be coated on an iron bangle by
this process.
a) Which metal is connected to negative terminal of the battery in this process?
b) Which is the electrolyte used here?
c) Write down any other practical utility of electrolysis.

8. The given diagram represents a galvanic cell.

a) Which metal acts as the anode?
b) At which electrode reduction reaction takes place?
c) Write down the chemical equation for the reduction reaction at this electrode.
d) Cu electrode is replaced by Ag electrode in this cell. Which metal will act as the anode then?

9. The order of reactivity of certain metals are as follows:

Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu
a) Which among these does not react with dil. HCI?
b) A piece of Mg ribbon is dipped in ZnSO4 solution. Write down the equation showing the redox reaction
taking place.

10.

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A Galvanic cell is represented above.

a) At which metal electrode does oxidation take place?
b) From which metal to which metal do the electrons flow?
c) Which metal acts as the cathode?
d) Write down the equation showing the redox reaction taking place in the cell. (Hint: Reactivity Mg > Fe)

11. The order of reactivity of some elements are given below

Na > Mg > Zn > Fe> Ni > H> Cu
a) Which element looses its lustre most easily on exposure to air?
b) Which is the element that cannot displace Hydrogen from dil.HCl?

12. Examine the figure of the Galvanic cell given below.

a) What are A and B electrodes?

b) From which metal to which metal do the electrons flow?
c) Which metal acts as the cathode?
d) Write down the equation for the redox reaction taking place in the cell.

13. Which gas is produced when metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

14. (a) What is electroplating?

(b) Which is the electrolyte used in electroplating of copper on an iron bangle?

15. A picture of galvanic cell is given below.

(a) What is the energy change taking place in a galvanic cell?

(b) Identify the anode in the given cell.
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at anode.
(d) In which electrode does oxidation take place?
(e) Write the chemical equation of the redox reaction

16. Which is the electrolyte used to electroplate silver on an iron bangle?

17. What is the energy change that takes place in galvanic cell?

18. a) When molten sodium chloride (NaCl) is electrolysed, which is the gas liberated at the anode ?
b) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the cathode.

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19. Which is the gas liberated when metals react with dilute acids?

20. Electrolysis of molten Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is conducted.

a) Which are the ions present in molten Sodium Chloride?
b) Which is the gas liberated at the positive electrode during electrolysis?
c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the cathode.

21. Some materials are given below:

a) From the given materials, choose the appropriate ones to construct a galvanic cell and draw the diagram
of the cell. (Order of reactivity: Mg > Fe > Cu > Ag)
b) Which is the anode of this cell?
c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the cathode.

22. An iron nail is dipped in CuSO4 solution. (Reactivity order Fe> Cu)
a) What is the change that can be noticed on the iron nail after a while?
b) Write down the chemical equation of the oxidation reaction occurs here.

23. Consider the metals and solutions given below.

Zn, Mg, Cu, Ag, CuSO4 solution, MgSO4 solution
a) Which of the above metals are to be selected to construct a Galvanic cell?
b) Identify the anode and cathode of the cell. 1 (Hint: Reactivity order Mg > Zn > Cu > Ag)
c) Write the redox reaction taking place in this cell.

24. Observe the diagram showing a copper rod kept immersed in silver nitrate Solution

a) What is the colour change of the solution?

b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

25. lons are the current carriers in electrolytes.

a) Sodium chloride in solid state is not an electrical conductor, but molten sodium chloride can conduct
electricity. Give reason.
b) What are the products obtained at anode and cathode during the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?
c) If the aqueous solution of sodium chloride is subjected to electrolysis, what are the products obtained at
each electrode?

PRODUCTION OF METALS
1.which is the method used to concentrate sulphide ores?

2.Match columns A,B and C suitably:

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3.The following chemical equations represent the reactions taking place in the blast furnace
During the manufacture of iron.
C + O2  CO2 + Heat
CO2 + C + Heat 2CO
Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
CaCO3  CaO + CO2
CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3

a) Which is the ore of iron used in the blast furnace?

b) Which substance acts as the reducing agent in this process?
c) What is the role of CaO in this process?
d) Which one of the given chemical equations represent slag formation?

4. Bauxite is the ore of ………….. metal.

5. a) Name a method of concentration of an ore in which impurities are heavier than the ore particles.
b) Select an ore which can be concentrated by
using this method.
(Fe,0,, ZnCO,, CaCO,, ZnS)

6. Give the suitable method for refining of a metal with respect to the following.
a) The metal which easily vapourises. b) Melting point of the metal is very low.
c) Refining of copper.

7. Concentrated ore can be converted into its oxide by calcination or roasting.

a) Distinguish between roasting and calcination.
b) Which of the following ores are usually subjected to calcination?
(Sulphide ores, Carbonate ores, Sulphate ores)

8. Match columns A, B and C suitably.

9. Find the relation and fill up suitably.

Iron : Haematite
Aluminium :…………

10. Haematite is converted into iron by using the blast furnace.

(a) Which are the substances fed into the blast furnace along with the ore of iron?
(b) Which compound act as the reducing agent in the blast furnace?

11. Magnetite (Fe304), haematite (Fe203) and copper pyrites are some ores.
a) Which of the ores is concentrated by froth floatation?
b) Which one is concentrated by magnetic separation?

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12. Aluminium is the most abundant metal on the earth's crust.

a) Name the ore of aluminium.
b) This ore is concentrated by Leaching. What is meant by Leaching?
c) What is the role of cryolite in aluminium production?
d) Give the name and any one use of an alloy of aluminium.

13. Fill up the columns by choosing the appropriate ones from those given below.

(Distillation, Cuprite, Electrolytic refining, Bauxite, Calamine, Liquation)

14. Which substance is used to leach the ore in aluminium extraction?

15. a) Complete the given flow chart related with the concentration of Aluminium ore.
b) The anode in Aluminium extraction is replaced frequently. Why?

16. Find the relation and fill up suitably

(a) Tin stone : Magnetic separation
(b) Bauxite : ………………..

17. In which electrode aluminium metal is produced during the electrolysis of Alumina?

18. (a) Molten iron obtained from the blast furnace contains 4% carbon and other impurities.
What is this known as?
(b) Which alloy steel is used for making permanent magnets?
(c) Some alloy steels contain the same component. Then how do they possess different properties?

19. Haematite is converted into iron by reactions taking place in blast furnace.
(a) Write the molecular formula of Haematite.
(b) Which substance acts as the reducing agent in this process?
(c) Molten iron is produced along with slag from the furnace. What is meant by slag?
(d) Write the chemical equation that shows the formation of slag.

20. Metals like gold, platinum are found in the native state in the earth's crust. Why?

21. Two methods are used to convert concentrated ore into its oxide.

22. Some chemical reactions taking place in blast furnace are given.
i) Fe203 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3C02
ii)CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
iii) Cao +SiO3 → CaSiO3
a) What is the chemical formula of haematite?
b) Which compound reduces haematite?
c) Identify the flux used here.

23. Some metals and their refining methods are given. Find the appropriate pair.

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24. Find the relation and fill in the blank.

Bauxite: Leaching,
Tinstone:……………

25.The following chemical equations represent the reactions taking place in the blast furnace during the
manufacture of iron.
Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
CaCO3  CaO + CO2
CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3
a) What are the substances fed into the blast furnace along with the ore of iron?
b) Which compound acts as the reducing agent here?
c) Select the equation for slag formation

26. The ore of a metal is lighter than the impurities. Which method is suitable for its concentration?

27. Alumina is mixed with cryolite and subjected to electrolysis to extract aluminium.
a) Why cryolite is added to alumina?
b) Which are the ions present in alumina?
c) Write the equation of the reduction reaction taking place at negative electrode.

28. a) Write an example for a metal which can be refined by liquation?

b) What is calcination?

COMPOUNDS OF NON METALS

1) Complete the given chemical equation

2) (a) which of the following chemicals are used to prepare ammonia (NH3) in the laboratory
[NaCl, Ca(OH)2,CaCl2,NH4Cl ]
(b) Ammonia gas is produced is passed through quick lime .Give reason?

3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat

How do the following changes affect rate of forward reaction in the given system at equilibrium
(a) Pressure is decreased
(b) Temperature is increased
(c) More H2 is added

4) A few drops of concentrated sulphuric Acid is added to sugar

(a) what do you observe
(b) Which property of concentrated concentrated sulphuric acid is shown here ?
(c) Why concentrated sulphuric acid is not used as a drying agent in a preparation of ammonia?
(d) which substance is used to identify sulphate salts?
( NaCl , KCl, BaCl2, BaSO4 )

5) The gas which produced when ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) heated with hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) is ………

6) 1 mL of sodium sulphate solution is taken in a test tube, add two or three drops of Barium Chloride
(BaCl2) solution in it. A white precipitate is formed and it is not soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid.
a) What is the chemical name of the white precipitate?
b) Which ion can be identified by this test?
c) Write the chemical equation for this reaction.
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7. a) Which are the chemicals required for the preparation of ammonia in the laboratory?
b) Which is the drying agent used to remove moisture from ammonia
c) The gas jar used for collecting ammonia is kept inverted .Why?

8) 2SO2 + O2 ----> 2SO

Represents an important stage in the industrial preparation of sulphuric acid .
(a) By what name is the industrial preparation of sulphuric acid known as?
(b) Which is the catalyst used in this process
(c) How do the following changes influence the forward reaction more oxygen(O2) is added pressure is
decreased

9) what happens to the rates of forward and backward reaction at equilibrium point ?

10) a)which are the two compounds formed when ammonium chloride is strongly heated ?
b) Write the chemical equation for this reaction

11) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat

How does following changes influence the amount of the product
a)Temperature is decreased
b)Pressure increased
c)Ammonia is removed from the system continuously

12) a) Industrial preparation of sulphuric acid is known as ………….

b) Which is the catalyst used in the process
c) Take some sugar in a watch glass and add a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid into it. What is your
observation? Which chemical property of sulphuric acid is shown here?

13) Which is The Drying Agent Used to remove moister Present In Ammonia Gas

14)The flow chart of the industrial preparation of the Sulphuric acid is given .complete it.

15) The graph for the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + HEAT is given below

a) Identify the part of the graph which represents forward reaction (OA, BA,AC).
b) Identify the part of the graph which represents equilibrium state.
c) From the given statements, select the correct ones regarding chemical equilibrium.
i) Chemical equilibrium is static at the molecular level.
ii) Both reactants and products co-exist.
iii) The rates of forward and backward reactions are equal.
iv) Chemical equilibrium is attained in an open system.

16. a) Which are the chemicals used to prepare ammonia in the laboratory?
b) If we show a red litmus paper over ammonia gas, what change can be observed?
c) Which property of ammonia is shown here?

NOMENCLATURE OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS AND ISOMERISMS

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1. Fill up suitably.
-OH : Hydroxyl group
-COOH : ……………….

2. Examine the following compounds and answer the questions.

i) CH3-0-CH3
ii) CH3-CH2-CH3-OH
iii) CH3-CH-CH3
|
OH
(iv) CH3-CH2-OH
(a) Find out the isomeric pairs.
(b) Which is the functional group of CH3-0-CH3?

3. The structural formula of a hydrocarbon is given:

CH3-CH-CH2-CH2-CH3
|
CH2-CH3
(a) Write the molecular formula of the given hydrocarbon.
(b) How many carbon atoms are there in the longest carbon chain?
(c) Name the branch present.
(d) Write its IUPAC name.

4. Select the general formula of alkynes.

(CnH2n , CnH2n+2 , CnH2n-2 , CnH4n)

5. CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
a) Identify the functional group in this compound.
b) Give its IUPAC name.

6. The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon is C4H10 .This is a branched chain compound. The branch is a
methyl group.
a) Write the structural formula of the compound. 1 b) Give its IUPAC name.

7. Given below is the structural formula of a hydrocarbon.

CH3-CH2-CH2-CH-CH3
|
CH2-CH3
(a) What is the molecular formula of this hydrocarbon?
(b) Name the branch present.
(c) Write down the IUPAC name of this hydrocarbon.

8. (a) Which homologous series do the hydrocarbons with general formula Cn2n belong to?
(alkane, alkene, alkyne)
(b) Write the structural formula of a member of the same homologous series having 3 carbon atoms.

9. The structural formula of an organic compound is given below.

CH3-CH2-0-CH3
(a) Identify the functional group present in this compound.
(b) What are the compounds with the given functional group commonly called?
(c) Write down the structural formula of its functional isomer and its IUPAC name.

10. An organic compound has 3 carbon atoms and an - OH functional group on the second carbon atom.
a) Give its IUPAC name.

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b) Write down the structure of a position isomer of this compound.

11. a) Write down the structure of 2, 3 - Di- methyl butane.

b) Write down the IUPAC name of its isomer with a single branch.
c) What is the IUPAC name of
CH3-CH2-CH2-C ≡ C-CH3

12. Answer the following questions by choosing the suitable ones given in the box below:
a) Ether
b) Vinegar
c) A pair of position isomers

13. i) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
ii) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-OH
iii) CH3-CH2-0-CH2-CH3
iv) CH3-CH2-CH3
(a) Identify the isomer pair in the given compounds?
(b) Name the isomerism.
(c) How many isomers are possible for compound (i)?

14. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH-CH3
|
CH3
(a) How many carbon atoms are there in the longest chain of this hydrocarbon?
(b) Give the name of the branch.
(c) What is the position number of the branch?
(d) Write the IUPAC name of the compound.

15. Identify the alkene among the given hydrocarbons.

(C2H6 C2H4 C2H2 CH4)

16. CH4, C2H6, C3H8 and C4H10 are the members of a homologous series.
a) What is the molecular formula of the 6th member of this series?
b) Write the general formula of this homologous series.

17. Select the structural formulae of the given compounds from the box.
a) Propene b) But-1-yne

18. Some information about an organic compound is given.

i) It has three carbon atoms in its main chain.
ii) It has a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to its second carbon atom.
a) Write the structural formula of this organic compound.
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b) Write its molecular formula.

c) Write the structural formula of a functional isomer of this compound and write the IUPAC name of this
isomer.

19. The structure of a hydrocarbon is given below:

CH3-CH-CH2-CH3
|
CH2-CH3
a) How many C - atoms are there in the chain? Which is the word root?
b) Identify the branch and its position number.
c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound

20. The structure of two organic compounds are given below:

i) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-OH
ii) CH3-CH2-0-CH2-CH3
a) Write the molecular formula of these compounds.
b) Which type of isomerism do they exhibit?
c) Explain this isomerism.
d) Write the structural formula of a position isomer of compound (i).

21. The structural formulae of some organic com- pounds are given below:
i. CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
ii. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
a) Which of these is an alkane?
b) Write the structural formula of the position isomer of the first compound.
c) Write the structural formula of the chain isomer of the second compound.

22. a) What are isomers?

b) Write the structural formulae of any two position isomers of an alcohol with molecular formula
C5H12O.

CHEMICAL REACTIONS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

1. choose the name of the reaction from the given box and complete the table

2. Choose the correct answer from the box.

(a) Which alcohol is known as wood spirit?

(b) Which substance is known as rectified spirit?
(c) Name the acid present in vinegar.
(d) Which is the bye-product in the manufacture of soap?

3. Identify the relation and fill the blank.

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Vinyl Chloride: Polyvinylchloride (PVC)

……………………..: Polytetrafluoroethene (teflon)

4. a) How ethanoic acid is industrially prepared?

b) Write the chemical equation of this reaction.

5. Some chemical reactions are given. Select the suitable name of the reactions from the box.

(a) CH2=CH2+ H2 → CH3-CH3

(b) 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O
(c) CH3-CH2-CH3→ CH3 + CH2=CH2
(d) CH4 + Cl2→ CH3CI + HCI

6. Soaps and detergents are cleansing agents.

a) Name the byproduct in the industrial produc-tion of soap?
b) How does excessive use of detergents destroy aquatic life?

7.

Choose the name of the reaction from the box and complete the table.

8. Which is the monomer of polythene?

9. The functional group present in organic acids is ………………..
10. a) How is ethanol manufactured?
b) Complete the equation.
CH3-CH2-OH + CH3COOH → ………………….....+H2O
c) To which category of organic compounds does the product of the above reaction belong?

11. a) Complete the following equations:

i. CH3-CH2-CH3+ Cl2 → ...(A)....+HCl
ii. CH3-CH=CH2+ Cl2 → ……(B).....
b) Which type of reaction is represented by equation (ii)?
c) Write down the structural formula of Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC).

12. (X) CH4 +2O2 → +2H2O + Heat

(Y) nCF2 = CF2 -[CF - CF2]n-
Teflon
(a) Complete the chemical equation X.
(b) Name the reaction Y.
(c) Write any one use of Teflon.

13. Choose the compounds from the box and answer the following questions.

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(a) Which is a carboxylic acid?

(b) Which compound is an ester?
(c) Identify ethanol.
(d) Which substance is used in the industrial preparation of ethanol?

14. Given below are two chemical equations.

a) CH2 = CH2+H2 → A

sunlight
b) A +Cl2 -------------------- B + HCl
identify compound A and B ?

15. Find out the appropriate reactions and match the columns A, B and C suitably.

16. The monomer of natural rubber is

(ethane , vinyl chloride, isoprene, tetrafluoro ethene)

17. (a) How is ethanol manufactured?

(b) Denatured spirit is used for industrial purposes. What is denatured spirit?

18. Match the columns A, B and C suitably.

19. Ethanoic acid is an organic compound having industrial values.

a) How ethanoic acid is manufactured industrially?
b) Give any one use of ethanoic acid.

20. Two organic reactions are given below:

a) Identify the products A and B.

b) Which type of reaction is (i)?
c) The product B has industrial values.
Give its name and use

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ARITHMETIC SEQUENCES[CHAPTER - 1]

1. What is the common difference of the arithmetic sequence 3, 7, 11, ....... ?

2. 5, 8, 11,..... is an arithmetic sequence.

a) What is 20th term?
b) What is the algebraic expression for this sequence?

3. The algebraic expression for the sum of n terms of an arithmetic sequence is n2 + n.

a) Find the first term of this arithmetic sequence.(1)
b) Find the sum of first 10 terms of this arithmetic sequence.

4. 6,10,14,... is an arithmetic sequence.

(a) Find the sum of the first 15 terms of this arithmetic sequence.
(b) What is the difference between the first term and the 16th term?
(c) Find the difference between the sum of first 15 terms and sum of the next 15 terms.

5. Write the first three terms of the arithmetic sequence with first term 6 and common difference 4.

6. The sum of first seven terms of an arithmetic sequence is 84. Find its 4th term.

7. The expression for the sum of first 'n' terms of an arithmetic sequence is 2n2 + 4n. Find the first term and
common difference of this sequence.

8. a) Consider the arithmetic sequence 4, 7, 10, .... what is the algebraic expression for this sequence?
b) Write the 20th term of this sequence. What is the smallest three digit number which is a term of this
sequence?
c) Find the sum of first 20 terms of this sequence. What is the difference between the sum of first 20 terms
of this sequence and sum of first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence with alge- braic form 3n+2.

9. Arithmetic sequence with common difference 2 is:

(a) 7, 10, 13, .....
(b) 7, 5, 3,...
(c) 7, 9, 11,....
(d) 2,5,8,....
10. Write the first term and common difference of the arithmetic sequence 3n+ 2

11. (a) What is the tenth term of the arithmetic sequence a+1,a+2,a+3,...?
(b) What is its common difference?
(c) Write the algebraic form of the above sequence.

12. (a) Write the 20th term of the arithmetic sequence 5,10,15,....
(b) Find the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence 5, 10, 15,
(c) What is the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence 4, 9, 14, .....

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13. Fill up the empty cells of the given square such that the numbers in each row, each column and both
diagonals form arithmetic sequences.

14. 1
2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9 10
……………………………………….
(a) Write the fifth line of the pattern.
(b) How many numbers are there in the tenth line?
(c) How many numbers are there in the first ten lines altogether?
(d) What is the first number in the eleventh line?

15. (a) What is the remainder on dividing the terms of the arithmetic sequence 100, 109, 118, 19 by 9?
(b) Write the sequence of three digit numbers, which are multiples of 9.
(c) What is the position of 999 in the arithmetic sequence of three digit numbers which are multiples of 9?

16. What is the common difference of the arithmetic sequence 4, 10, 16 ,……? (4, 5, 6, 10)

17. Algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is 3n+2.

(a) What is its first term?
(b) Find its 10th term.

18. The 5th term of an arithmetic sequence is 20 and the 8th term is 32.
(a) What is the common difference of this sequence?
(b) Find its 11th term.

19. The 10th term of an arithmetic sequence is 20 and Its 20th term is 10.
(a) What is its common difference?
(b) What is its 30th term?
(c) Which is the first negative term of this sequence?

20. Look at the following number pattern.

1
2 3 4
5 6 7 8 9
……………………………………………………
(a) Write the next line of this pattern.
(b) Write the sequence of last numbers in each line.
(c) What will be the last number in the 9th line?
(d) Write the first and last numbers of the 10th line.

21. The sum of first 31 terms of an arithmetic sequence is 620.

(a) What is its 16th term?
(b) What is the sum of 15th and 17th terms?
(c) Find the sum of first and 31st terms.

CIRCLES [CHAPTER - 2]

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1. a) In the figure AB is the diameter of the circle. Line CD is perpendicular to AB.

AP = 8 centimetres and
PB = 2 centimetres.
Find the length of PC.
b) Draw a rectangle of sides 5 centimetres and 3 centimetres. Draw a square of the
same area.

2. In the figure <C = 110°. Find the measure of <A.

3. Draw a rectangle of sides 4 centimetres and 3 centimetres. Draw a square of area equal to the area of this
rectangle.

4. Suppose we draw a circle with AB as diameter. Among the points C, D, E which lies on the circle?

5. In the figure AB is the diameter of the circle. C is a point on the circle. One of the angles <ACB and
<ADB is twice the other. Write the measures of the angles <ACB and <ADB.

6. In the figure chords AB and CD intersect at P. AB = 10 cm, PB = 4 cm and PC = 3 cm.

(a) What is the length of PA?

(b) Find the length of PD.

7. In the figure C, D, E and G are points on the circle. <D=70°. For the angles given in column I choose
suitable measures from column II.

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8. (a) In the figure area of the rectangle ABCD is 8 sq.cm and BC = BP.

What is the area of the shaded square?

(b) Draw a rectangle of area 8 sq.cm. Draw a square having the same area of the rectangle.

9. In the figure O is the centre of the circle. Write the measure of <ACB? (30°, 60°, 90°, 100°)

10. A, B, C and D are points on the circle with centre O. <AOC = 100°.

(a) What is the measure of <ADC?

(b) Find ABC.

11. The vertices of a triangle are points on a circle of 15. In the figure, <AEB = 90°, radius 3 cm. If two
angles of this triangle are 50° and 60°, draw the triangle.

12. The chords AB and CD intersect at P.

AB = 17 cm, PA = 9 cm, PD = 12 cm.

(a) What is the length of PB?
(b) Find the length of PC.

13. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. AB and CD are two perpendicular chords.

<D= 20°.
(a) Write the measure of A.
(b) What is the central angle of arc BQD?
(c) What is the central angle of arc APC?

14. (a) Draw a rectangle of sides 6 cm and 3 cm.

(b) Draw a square of same area.

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15. In the figure , <AEB = 90°

<C= 50°, <D= 130°

(a) If a circle is drawn with AB as diameter, where is the position of E? (Outside the
circle, on the circle, inside the circle)
(b) Write the positions of the points C and D with respect to this circle
(c) is it possible to draw a circle through the four points A,B,C and D . why ?

16. Chords AB and CD are intersecting at P. AB = 10 cm, PB = 4 cm, PD = 3 cm.

(a) What is the length of PA?

(b) Find the length of PC.

MATHEMATICS OF CHANCES [CHAPTER - 3]

1. A box contains 7 white balls and 3 black balls. If a ball is taken from it, what is the probability of it being
black?

2. A triangle is drawn by joining the mid-point of one side of a parallelogram and the end- points of the
opposite side.
The triangle is shaded as shown in the figure.

a) What is the area of the triangle, if the area of the parallelogram is 50 square centimetres.
b) Find the probability of a dot put without looking, to be within the triangle.

3. A box contains four slips numbered 1,2,3,4 and an- other box contains five slips numbered 5,6,7,8,9. If
one slip is taken from each box.
a) How many number pairs are possible?
b) What is the probability of both being odd?
c) What is the probability of getting the sum of the numbers 10?

4. In the figure AB is the diameter of the circle. Calculate the probability of a dot put inside the circle, A
without looking, to be within the non-shaded region.

5. A box contains 3 red balls and 6 green balls.

a) What is the probability of getting a red ball from this box?
b) How many more red balls should be added so that the probability of getting a red ball is?

6. Natural numbers from 1 to 10 are written on paper slips and are put in a box. Another box contains paper
slips with numbers less than 10 which are multiples of 3. One slip is taken from each box.
a) What is the probability of both being odd?
b) What is the probability of getting at least one even?

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7. One is asked to say a natural number less than 10.

(a) What is the probability of it being an odd number?
(b) What is the probability that it will not be an even number?

8. ABCD is a rectangle. P is the mid-point of CD. If we put a dot in the figure without looking into it:

(a) What is the probability that it would be inside triangle APB?

(b) What is the probability that it would be inside triangle ADP?

SECOND DEGREE EQUATION [CHAPTER - 4]

1. The product of a number and 5 more than that number gives 104.
a) If we take the first number as 'x', what will be the second number?
b) Form a second degree equation using the given details.
c) Find the number.

2. A strip of width 4 centimetres is attached to one side of a square to form a

rectangle. The area of the new rectangle is 77 square centimetres.
a) If we take the width of the new rectangle as x, what will be its length?
b) Find the measure of the side of the square by constructing an equation.

3. A rectangle is to be made with perimeter 60 metres and area 189 square metres. What should be the length
of its sides?

4. (a) Find 1+2+3+ .......+10.

(b) How many consecutive natural numbers star- ting from 1 should be added to get 300?

5. (a) Write the sequence of even numbers.

(b) One added to the product of two consecutive even numbers gives 289. Form a second degree equation
to solve this problem.

6. Write x2 - 1 as the product of two first degree polynomials.

7. (a) The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm. Length of its smaller side is 7 cm.
What is the length of its larger side?
(b) Find the sides of a rectangle with perimeter 40 cm and area 96 sq.cm.

8. Write the second degree polynomial x2-16 as the product of two first degree polynomials.

9. x is a natural number.
(a) What number should be added to x2 + 2x to get a perfect square?
(b) If x2 + 2x = 15. Find the natural number represented by x.

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10. (a) Perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm. Write a pair of numbers that can be the measures of its sides.
(b) Perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm and its area is 84 sq.cm. Find the length of its sides.

11. In the figure, the chords AB and CD are extended to meet at P.

AB= 4 cm,
PC=5 cm, CD = 7 cm.
(a) What is the length of PD?
(b) If the length of PA is taken as x, then what is the length of PB?
(c) Form a second degree equation in x and find the length of PA.

12. Perimeter of the rectangle in the figure is 36 cm. AC = √164 cm.

(a) What is. AB+BC?
(b) Find the length of AB.

13. The product of two consecutive multiples of 8 is 768.

(a) Write this statement in algebraic form.
(b) What are the numbers?

14. The length of a rod is 56 cm. It is bent into a rectangle.

(a) What is the sum of length and breadth of the rectangle?
(b) If the length of diagonal of this rectangle is 20 cm, then find the length and breadth of this rectangle?

15. If x is a natural number

a) What number is to be added to x2 + 6x to get a perfect square?
b) If x2+ax+16 is a perfect square which number is 'a'?
c) If x2 +ax+ b is a perfect square prove that a2 = 4b.

TRIGONOMETRY[CHAPTER - 5]

1. What is the value of tan x if x = 30 ° ?

[1/2 , 1/√2 , 1/√3 , √3]
2. A ladder leans against a wall . The ladder makes an angle 60 ° with the floor .
Length of the ladder is 6 metres .
a ) What is the height of the top of the ladder from the ground ?
b ) How far is the foot of the ladder from the wall ?

3. Two sides of a parallelogram are 20 centimetres and 10 centimetres.

If the angle between them is 40 ° .
a ) What is the height of the parallelogram ?
b ) Find the area of the parallelogram .
( sin 40 = 0.64 ; cos 40 = 0.77 ; tan 40 = 0.84)

4. In the figure AC is the diameter of the circle .

Given that AC = 20 centimetres , <BAC = 60 ° and <ACD = 45 ° .
a ) What is the measure of <ADC ?
b ) Find the perimeter of the quadrilateral ABCD .

5. From the figure , which among the following is tan x ?

( 3/5 , 4/5 , 3/4, 4/3 )

6. In right triangle ABC , <A = 40 ° and AC = 20 centimetres .

Calculate the length of the side BC .
( sin 40 = 0.64 ; cos40 = 0.76 )

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7. In figure , radius of the circle with centre 0 is 7 centimetres <BOC = 100 ° .

a ) Find <A.
b ) Find the length of BC
( sin 50 = 0.76 ; cos 50 = 0.64 tan 50 = 1.19 )

8.
a ) In the figure <A = 45 ° <B = 90 ° , AB = 10 centimetres . What is the length of AC ?
b ) A boy sees the top of a tower at an elevation of 60 ° . Stepping 20 metres back , he
sees it at an elevation of 30 ° . Find the height of the tower .

9. In the figure , <B = 90 ° , AB = 7 cm , BC = 24 cm , AC = 25 cm

( a ) sin A = 24/k , what number is k ?
( b ) Write cos C and sin C.

10. In the figure , <B = 90 ° , BC = 1 cm , sin A =1/2

( a ) What is the length of AC ?
( b ) Find the length of AB .
( c ) What is the measure of <A ?
( d ) sin 60⁰ =____

11. In the figure AB = AC = 4 cm , <A = 120⁰ .

( a ) <B = ___
( b ) Find the perpe ndicular distance from A to BC
( c ) Find the area of the triangle .

12. A man standing at the edge of a river sees the top of a

tree at an elevation of 60 ° . Stepping 20 metres back he
sees it at an elevation of 30 ° . Draw a rough figure and find the width of the river .

13. In the figure , ABCD is a parallelogram ,

<A = 30 ° ,
AB = 12 cm
AD = 6 cm .
( a ) Find the length of DE
( b ) Find the area of the parallelogram ABCD

14. In triangle ABC , <B = 90 ° , <C = 30 ° , <ADC = 120⁰ Also DC= 10 cm .

( a ) What is <DAC ?
( b ) What is the length of AD ?
( c ) Find <ADB .
( d ) Find the lengths of BD and AC .

15. In the figure ,

<ABC = 90 ° , <C = <D = 45 , AB = 10 cm .
( a ) What is the length of AC ?
( b ) What is the radius of the circumcircle of triangle ABC ?
( c ) What is the radius of the A circumcircle of triangle ABD ?

COORDINATES[CHAPTER - 6]

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1. Find the distance between the points

( 0 , 0 ) and ( 4,0 )

2. The rectangle has sides parallel to the axes . The co - ordinates of one pair of
opposite vertices are ( 2 , 1 ) and ( 7,5 ) .
a ) Find the co - ordinates of the other two opposite vertices .
b ) Find the length and breadth of the rectangle
c ) Find the length of the diagonal AC .

3. A line parallel to x - axis passes through the point ( 2,1 ) . Find the co - ordinates of the point on this line
intersecting with y - axis .

4. Draw the x and y axes . Mark the point ( 2 , 3 ) . Draw a circle with origin as centre and passing through
the point ( 2 , 3 ) .

5. Which among the following is a point on the x axis ?

[(2,0);(0,2);(1,1);(3,4)]

6. ABCD is a square .
Coordinates of A are( 1 , -5 ) . Diagonals of the square intersect at P ( 1 , 0 ) .
Write the coordinates of B , C and D.

7. ( a ) Draw the x , y axes and mark the points A( 1,0 ) , B ( 6 , 0 ) , C ( 8 , 3 ) , D ( 3 , 3 )

( b ) Write the most suitable name for quadrilat eral ABCD .
( c ) Find its area .

8. Which of the following is a point on the x axis ?

[ ( 3 , 0 ) , ( 0 , 3 ) , ( -3 , 2 ) , ( 0 , -2 ) ]

9. In the figure , ABCD is a square Its diagonals are parallel to the coordinate axes . AC = 6
and the coordinates of A is ( 3 , 2 ) , write the coordinates of the vertices C , B and D.

10. Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points A ( -3,0 ) , B ( 3 , 0 ) and C ( 0 , 3√3 ) .

11. In the figure , OABC is a trapezium .

OC = 4√2 , < COA = 45 ° .
Coordinates of A is ( 6 , 0 ) .
( a ) What is the perpendicular distance from C to OA ?
( b ) Write the coordinates of B and C.

12. ( a ) Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points A ( 1 , 1 ) , B ( 7 , 1 ) .

( b ) Draw an isosceles right triangle ABC with AB as hypotenuse .
( c ) Write the coordinates of C.

TANGENTS[CHAPTER 7]

1. If the perimeter of a triangle is 24 centimetres and its inradius is 2 centimetres , find its area in square
centimetres .

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( 12 , 20 , 24 , 26 )

2. In the figure PA = 4 centi metres , AB = 5 centimetres and PC is a

tangent to the circle . Find the length of PC .

3.
a ) The two tangents AC and BC of the circle with
centre 0 meets at C. What is the measure of <OAC ?
If< AOB = 110 ° find the measure of <ACB .
b ) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimetres . Draw a triangle with
angles 50 ° , 60 ° , 70 ° and all its sides are tangents to this circle .

4. Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimetres and mark a point 6 centimetres away from the centre of the circle .
Draw tangents to the circle from this point .

5. In the figure chord BA extended and the tangent at C meet at P. PA = 4 centimetres

and PB = 9 centimetres What is the area of the square with side PC ?
( 6 , 36 , 13 , √6 )

6. Find the radius of the incircle of a triangle with perimeter 42 centimetres and area 84 square centimetres .

7.
a ) Tangents at the points A , B on the circle meet at P. If PA = 5 cm , what is PB ?
b ) Draw a circle of radius 3 centimetres Mark a point P , at a distance 7
centimetres away from the centre of the circle . Then construct tangents from
P to the circle .

8.
a ) In figure , the incircle of triangle ABC touches its sides at the points P ,
Q and R. O is the centre of the circle
( i ) Find <OQB .
( ii ) Examine whether quadrilateral POQB is cyclic
( iii ) If <B = 50 ° , then <POQ = ____
b ) Draw a triangle with radius of the in circle 2.5 centimetres and
two angles 50 ° , 60 °

9. P is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm .

( a ) How many tangents can be drawn from the point P to the circle ?
( b ) Find the lengths of the tangents .

10. ( a ) In the figure , circle with centre 0 touches the sides of the
triangle ABC at the points P , Q and R. If <B = 50 °,
what is < POR ?

( b ) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 cm . Draw a triangle of angles 50 ° , 60 ° , 70 ° with all its sides touching the
circle

SOLIDS[CHAPTER 8]

1.From the circle of radius 12 centimetres, a sector of central angle 90° is cut out and made into a cone.
What is the base radius of this cone?

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2. Find the surface area of a cone having base radius 9 centimetres and height 12 centimetres.

3. The lateral faces of a square pyramid are equilateral triangles. If the length of one base edge is 20
centimetres, what will be the measure of its slant height in centimetres?

4. The radius of a solid metal sphere is 6 centimetres.

a) Find the volume of the sphere.
b) This sphere is melted and recast into a solid cone of radius 6 centimetres. Find the height of the cone.

5. The radii of two hemispheres are in the ratio 1:2. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

6. The figure shows one lateral face of a square pyramid. Its sides are 5 centimetres, 5 centimetres and 6
centimetres. What would be the slant height of square pyramid in centimetres?(3,4,5,6)

7. From cube of side 6 centimetres, the largest sphere is carved out.

(a) What is the volume of the sphere?
(b) This sphere is cut into two equal halves. What is the volume of one hemisphere?

8. From a circular metal sheet of radius 30 centimetres, a sector of central angle 120° is cut out and made
into a cone.
a) What are the slant height and base radius of this cone?
b) Calculate the area of the curved surface of this cone.
c) What would be the radius of the cone that can be made by rolling up the remaining sector?

9. A sector of central angle 120° and radius 12 cm is rolled up into a cone.

(a) What is the slant height of the cone?
(b) Find the radius of the cone.

10. (a) Radius of a solid metal cone is 5 cm, its slant height is 13 cm. Find its height.
(b) Find the volume of the cone.
(c) It is melted and recast into small cones of radius 1 cm and height one centimetre. How many cones will
we get?

11. The diameters of two spheres are in the ratio 1:2.

(a) What is the ratio of their radii?
(b) Find the ratio of their surface areas.
(c) If the surface area of the first sphere is 10 sq.cm. What is the surface area of the second sphere?

12. The base radius and slant height of a cone are 6 cm and 10 cm respectively.

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(a) What is its height?

(b) Find its volume.

13. The diameters of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3,

(a) What is the ratio of their radii?
(b) Find the ratio of their surface areas.
(c) If the surface area of the first sphere is 16 sq.cm. Find the surface area of the second sphere.

14. The base radius and height of a cylindrical block of wood are 8 cm and 15 cm. A cone of maximum size
is carved out of this.
(a) What are the radius and height of the cone?
(b) Find its slant height.
(c) Find the curved surface area of thiscone.

15. The figure of a square sheet of paper is shown here. Length of one side of the paper sheet is 36 cm and
AB = 10 cm. The shaded portion is cut out and folded into a square pyramid.
(a)What is the length of the base edge of the pyramid?
(b) What is the slant height of the pyramid? (c) Find the lateral surface area of the pyramid.

16. A sector of radius 12 cm and central angle 120° is rolled up into a cone.
(a) What is the slant height of the cone?
(b) Find the radius and the height of the cone.
(c) What is the central angle of the sector to be used to make a cone of base radius √2 centimetres and height
4 centimetres?

17. (a) The radius of a solid sphere is 6 cm. Find its volume and surface area.
(b) It is cut into two equal halves. What is the total surface area of each hemisphere? What is the volume of
a hemisphere?

18. The length of base edge of a square pyramid is 12 centimetres and slant height is 10 centimetres.
(a) What is the height of the pyramid?
(b) Calculate the volume of the pyramid.

GEOMETRY AND ALGEBRA[CHAPTER 9]

1. The equation of a line is 2x + y = 5 if the x co - ordinate of a point on this line is 2 , what is the y co -
ordinate of this point ?
( 0 , 1 , -1 , 2 )

2. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining the points ( 1 , 2 ) and ( 7,5 )
in the ratio 2 : 1 .

3. ( a ) Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points ( 2,1 ) and ( 4,3 ) .
( b ) Find the slope of the line joining these points .
( c ) The centre of a circle is ( 3 , 2 ) and the coordinates of one end of its diameter is ( 1 , 2 ) . Find the

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co- ordinates of the other end of the diameter.

4. The coordinates of three vertices of a parallelogram are given .

a ) Find the coordinates of the vertex C.
b ) Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the diagonal AC .

5. The equation of a line is y = 2x . Which of the following is not a point on this line ?
[ ( 1 , 2 ) ; ( 5 , 10 ) ; ( 1/2,1 ) ; ( 3 , 1 ) ]

6. Find the equation of the circle with centre at the origin and radius 5 .

7. a ) Draw the x and y axis . Mark the points ( 1 , 2 ) and ( 3,5 ) .

b ) Find the slope of the line , passing through the points ( 1 , 2 ) and ( 3 , 5 ) .
c ) The x co - ordinate of a point on this line is 21 What is its y co - ordinate ?

8. In the rectangle , its sides are parallel to the axes .

a ) Find the co - ordinates of the remaining two vertices of the rectangle .
b ) Find the length of its one diagonal .
c ) Find the co - ordinates of the centre of its circum circle .

9.
a ) What are the co - ordinates of the fourth vertex of the parallelogram ?
b ) What are the co - ordinates of the point of intersection of its diagonals ?

10. What is the slope of the line passing through the points ( 2 , 5 ) and ( 3 , 7 ) ?
(2,3,4,5)

11. A circle is drawn with ( 1 , 1 ) as centre . ( 4 , 5 ) is a point on the circle .

( a ) Find the radius of the circle

( b ) Write the equation of the circle
( c ) The x coordinate of a point on the circle is 6. What is the y coordinate of that
point ?
12. The sides of a rectangle are parallel to the axes . One pair of its opposite
vertices are A ( 2 , and
C ( 6 , 12 ) .
( a ) Write the coordinates of the other two vertices .
( b ) Write the coordinates of the midpoint of AC .
( c ) x coordinate of a point on AC is ' a ' . What is its y coordinate ?

13. ( 3,4 ) is a point on a circle with centre at the origin

( a ) Find its radius .
( b ) Write the coordinates of the points where the circle cuts the x - axis .

14. The coordinates of the end points of a diameter of a circle are ( 3 , 4 ) and ( -3 , -4 ) .
( a ) Write the coordinates of the centre of the circle .
( b ) What is the radius of the circle ?
( c ) Write the equation of this circle .

15. A circle with centre at the origin cuts the y - axis at the point ( 0,5 )
( a ) Write the coordinates of other two points on this circie .
( b ) What is the radius of this circle ?

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( c ) Verify whether the point ( 4,4 ) lies on this circle .

16. In the figure , 0 is the centre of the circle and x² + y² = 25 is the equation of the circle .

( a ) What is the radius of the circle ?

( b ) Write the equation of the circle whose centre is at the origin and radius is 3 .

17( a ) What is the slope of the line passing through the points ( 5,0 ) and ( 3 , 2 ) ?
Write the equation of the line .
( b ) The x coordinate of a point on the line x - y = 5 is 5. What is the y coordinate of that point ?
( c ) Write the coordinates of the point of intersection of the lines x + y = 5 and x - y = 5 .

18. A circle is drawn with ( 5 , 3 ) as centre . ( 5 , 6 ) is a point on the circle .

( a ) What is the radius of the circle ?
( b ) Write the equation of the circle .
( c ) What is the distance from the centre of the circle to the x axis ?
( d ) What is the length of the tangents from the origin to the circle ?

19. Write the coordinates of the point which di vides the line joining A ( 2 , 5 ) and B ( 7 , 10 )
in the ratio 3 : 2 .

20. ( a ) What is the slope of the line joining the points ( 2,7 ) and ( 6 , 4 ) ?
( b ) Write the equation of this line .
( c ) If ( x , y ) is a point on this line , then prove that ( x - 4 , y + 3 ) is also a point on the same line

POLYNOMIALS[CHAPTER - 10]

1. If (x-1) is a factor of the polynomial p(x), write p(1).

2. Write the second degree polynomial x2 + x as the product of two first degree polynomials.

3. Consider the second degree polynomial p(x) = x2 - 3x + 5.

(a) Find p(1).
(b) Write one first degree factor of the polynomial (0) p(x) - p(1).
(c) Write p(x) - p(1) as the product of two first degree factors and find the solutions of the equation
p(x) - p(1) = 0.

4. p(x) = x2 + 2x.
Find the number to be subtracted from p(x) to get a polynomial for which x-1 is a factor?

5. Write the polynomial x2- ¼ as the product of two first degree polynomials.

6. p(x) = x2-5x+6.
a) Find p(2).
b) Write p(x) as the product of two first degree polynomials.
c) Find the solutions of the equation x2-5x+6=0
7. Write x2 - 1 as the product of two first degree polynomials.

8. (a) P(x) = x2-5x+9, find P(2) and P(3).

(b) Write P(x) - P(2) as the product of two first degree polynomials.

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9. (a) P(x) = x2-5x + 10. What number is P(2)?

(b) Write P(x) - P(2) as the product of two first degree polynomials.

10. Write the polynomial p(x) = x2 - 4 as the product of two first degree polynomials

11. If p(x) = 2x2 - 3x + 1, then

(a) What number is p(1)?
(b) Write a first degree polynomial which is a factor of p(x).

STATISTICS[CHAPTER - 11]

1. The table below shows the households of an area sorted according to consumption of electricity.

(a) If the households are arranged according to the consumption of electricity, the consumption of which
house is taken as median?
(b) What is the consumption of 20th household according to our assumption?
(c) What is the median consumption?

2. The weight of 7 pupils in a class are given (in kilo- grams). Find the median weight.
35, 43, 38, 45, 32, 44, 42

3. The scores of 10 students in an examination are given below.

30, 28, 25, 32, 20, 36, 24, 33, 27, 38. Calculate the median score.

4. The daily wages of workers in a firm is given below.

a) If workers are arranged according to their wages (lower to higher).

i) Which position is taken as median ?
ii) What will be the assumed wage of the 13th worker?
b) calculate the median of daily wages

5. Scores of 10 students are given below.

11, 32, 33, 35, 39, 41, 45, 47, 48, 49
(a) Find the mean score.
(b) Find the median score

6. The table below shows, children of a class sorted according to their scores in an examination.

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(a) If the children are arranged in the ascending order of their scores, then what will be the assumed score of
the 14th child?
(b) Compute the median score.

7. The marks got by 6 students in an examination are given below.

26, 21, 32, 38, 45, 48
(a) Find the mean of the marks.
(b) What is the median mark?

8. The following table shows the students in a class sorted according to their heights.

(a) If the students are arranged in the increasing order of their heights, student at what position will be in the
middle?
(b) What is assumed to be the height of the 20th student?
(c) Find the median height.

CHAPTER - 1
SENSATIONS AND RESPONSES

1. Choose the action of sympathetic system from the following.

(a) Peristalsis become normal
(b) Heartbeat increases
(c) Gastric activities becomes normal
(d) Trachea contracts

2. Analyse the picture given below and answer the questions.

(a) Identify (i).
(b) Write any two functions of this part.

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3. Redraw the diagram, and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify and label the parts with their names.

(i) Maintains equilibrium of the body.
(ii) Controls voluntary movements
(iii) Acts as relay station of impulses.
b) Name the part labelled "X" and write its function.

4. Identify the part of brain which helps to maintain homeostasis.

a) Cerebrum b) Thalamus
c) Medulla oblongata d) Hypothalamus

5. Complete the following table appropriately.

6. Suitably arrange the information under the given headings.

 Evokes sensations.
 Co-ordinates the repeated movements during walking and running.
 Impulses from the different parts of the body are transmitted to and from the brain.
 Co-ordinates muscular activities and maintains equilibrium of the body.

7. Analyse the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Write the names of (i) and (ii).

(b) Are all accidental responses controlled by (iii)?
Explain with an example.

8. "Myelin sheath accelerates the speed of impulses through axon and provides nutrition to it."
How does myelin sheath form?

9. Redraw the diagram. Name and label the parts that perform the given functions.
a) Relay station of impulses
b) Controls heartbeat, breathing etc.
c) Maintains equilibrium of the body.

10. Find out the correct pair from the following:

a) Thalamus - Maintenance of homeostasis
b) Medulla oblongata - Centre of thought, intelligence etc.
c) Cerebellum - Coordinates muscular activities
d) Cerebrum - Relaying of impulses

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11. a) Identify the disease from the following symptoms.

 Continuous muscular contraction
 Frothy discharge from the mouth
 Clenching of the teeth
 Patient falls unconscious
b) Write the cause of this disease.

12. a) Identify the given diagram

b) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.

13. Redraw the diagram. Name and label the parts indicated below.
a) Carries impulses away from the cell body.
b) Secretes neurotransmitter.
c) Branches of dendrons.

14. Observe the figure of synapse and answer the following questions.
(a) Which synapse is shown in the figure?
(b) What is a synapse?
(c) Name the chemical substance which is secreted from the part labelled as X.

15. Redraw the diagram, identify and label the parts given below.
(a) Longest filament from the cell body.
(b) Secretes neurotransmitter.
(c) Part that receives impulses from adjacent neuron.

16. Redraw the diagram of neuron. Name and label the parts performing the following functions.
(1) Receive impulses from adjacent neuron.
(ii) Carries impulses away from the cell body to outside.
(iii) Secretes neurotransmitter

17.
What does x indicate?
 Sensory nerve
 Mixed nerve
 Motor nerve
 Interneuron

18. Give suitable explanations for each statement given below.

a. Synapses are of different types.
b. Spinal nerves are mixed nerves.

19. Observe the illustration and answer the questions

a. Identify the part labelled as (i).
b. What is the difference between the impulses transmitted
through (ii) and (iii)?

20. From the following pairs, select the one that comes under the peripheral nervous system

21. Select suitable words from the box given below and complete the following table.

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22. Select the correct statements regarding cerebrum.

a) Centre of thought, intelligence, memory and imagination.
b) Maintains equilibrium of the body.
c) Sensations.
d) Maintenance of homeostasis

23. Redraw the diagram of cross section of the spinal cord. Name and label
the following parts.
a) Part through which the sensory impulses reach the spinal cord.
b) Part through which the motor impulses go out of the spinal cord.
c) Part filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

CHAPTER - 2
WINDOWS OF KNOWLEDGE

1. Identify the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks.

Housefly : Ommatidia;
Planaria : ................

2. Identify the given photoreceptor cell.

3. The feature of a fluid in the eye is given below. Analyse it and answer the following questions.
“It is formed from blood, and is reabsorbed into blood”
a) Name the fluid.
b) What is its function?
c) Name the eye disease associated with the fluid.
d) How does this diseases can be rectified?

4. Analyse the given table and arrange columns B and C according to Column A.

5. Which of the following statement is true about yellow spot?

(a) There is no vision at this point.
(b) Photoreceptors are absent here.
(c) The optic nerve begins from this point.
(d) This is the point of maximum visual clarity.

6. The process that leads to the formation of impulses in photoreceptors is :

(a) The dissociation of visual pigments in the presence of light.
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(b) Formation of Vitamin A in the presence of light.

(c) The transmission of impulses to cerebrum through the optic nerve.
(d) The reunion of retinal and opsin.

7. Redraw the picture given below. Identify the name indicated

and label the parts.
(a) The part refracts light rays into the eye.
(b) The part that adjusts its size as the intensity of light varies.
(c) The part of retina where plenty of photoreceptors

8. Find out the parts that are not related to retina from the following.
Photoreceptor , Yellow spot , Conjunctiva , Blind spot , Iris

9. Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements.

a) Curvature of lens increases when viewing near objects.
b) Vitreous humor is formed from blood, and is reabsorbed by blood.
c) Membraneous labyrinth in the inner ear is filled with perilymph.
d) Eustachian tube amplifies and transmits the vibrations of tympanum to the internal ear.

10. Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

a) Name the cells A and B.
b) Explain the role of these cells in making vision possible.

11. Fill the blanks in the statement.

"Three types of cone cells are present in human eye. This is due to the change in. ........ in the Opsin
molecule."

12.

a) What do A, B and C indicate in the above illustration?

b) How do conjunctiva and tears protect the eye?

13. Identify the word pair relation and complete the following.
Rod cells: Rhodopsin
Cone cells: ................

14. Write the function of the part labelled as A in the figure.

15. Complete the flow chart regarding sense of hearing suitably.

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16. Analyse the information given below and answer the questions.
(A) The water like fluid provides oxygen and nourishment to the tissues of the eye
(B) The jelly like fluid seen in the chamber between the retina and the lens.
(a) Identify the fluids (A) and (B).
(b) How fluid (A) is formed?
(c) Name the eye disease related to the fluid (A).1 (d) What is the function of fluid (B)?

17. Correct the mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements.
(a) The layer which has photoreceptors is called Retina.
(b) Yellow spot is the part of retina having no vision.
(c) The aperture seen at the centre of iris is called pupil.

18. Analyse the given model and complete the illustration Model

19. Observe the figure and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the parts indicated as (i) and (ii).
(b) How do (iii) and (iv) help in maintaining the balance of the body?

20. Select the activity which regulates the size of the pupil according
to the intensity of light.
a) The action of ciliary muscles.
b) The contraction of ligaments.
c) The contraction and relaxation of iris muscles. d) The changes in the curvature of lens.

21. Analyse the illustration of internal ear and answer the questions.
a) Write name and functions only of the body balancing parts from
among A, B, C and D.
b) Write the functions performed by the other parts.

22. Different organisms and sense organs are given in pairs. Select the correct pair.
a) House fly - Eye spot
b) Shark - Lateral line
c) Snake - Ommatidia

23. Give reason for the following:

a) Persons with colour blindness cannot distinguish red and green colour.
b) Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness.
c) Maximum visual clarity is there in yellow spot

24. Analyse the indicators. Name the parts of ear indicated and write the functions they perform.
a) The tube that connects middle ear and pharynx.
b) Coiled tube, like a snail shell.
c) The membrane that separates external ear from the middle ear

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CHAPTER - 3
CHEMICAL MESSAGES FOE HOMEOSTASIS

1. Choose the correct pair.

 Dormancy of embryo : Cytokinin
 Sprouting of leaves : Abscisic acid .
 Fruit formation : Gibberellin .
 Ripening of leaves and fruits : Ethylene

2. Evaluate the statement and answer the questions.

"Ants moving in a line along a particular trait by the production of certain chemical sub- stances."
(a) Such chemicals are known as
(b) Write two examples for these chemical sub- stances.
(c) Write other two uses of these chemical substances.

3. Analyse the process related to the regulation of blood glucose level and answer the ques- tions.

(a) Identify the hormones indicated as X and Y.

(b) Name the gland which produces these hormones.
(c) Name the disease caused due to the reduced production of the hormone X.
(d) Write the symptoms of this disease.
(e) Write another action of the hormone Y in regulating the level of glucose in blood.

4. Choose the correct pair.

a. Prolactin - Production of milk
b. Aldosterone - Promotes growth
c. Cortisol - Salt water balance
d. Melatonin - Maintains blood pressure

5. Which hormone is known as youth hormone?

a. Adrenaline b. Thymosin c. Aldosterone d. Testosterone

6. Complete the table including the name of endocrine glands and their hormones responsible for the balance
calcium level in blood.

7. Complete column B of the given table using suitable functions given in the box.

8. Analyse the given symptoms and identify the disease.

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Low metabolic rate

Inflammation in tissues
Hypertension

9. Identify the gland indicated in the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Name the hormone produced by the part indicated as (i) which slows down the action of defense cells.
b) Name the two hormones produced by the part indicated as (ii). Give their functions.
c) Write two important functions of aldosterone.

10. Complete the statement suitably.

In......(a)......., the specialised part in pancreas two types of cells are found. Of these ...(b)... cells produce
insulin.

11. There are certain mistakes in the given chart. Find out and correct it.

12. Analyse the given informations related to plant hormones and answer the questions.
a) to increase the size of apple.
b) to prevent dropping of premature fruits.
c) to increase the production of latex.
d) to enable flowering of pineapple plants at a time.

13. Choose the names of pheromones from the terms given below
Cortisol, Bombycol, Gibberellin, Civeton

14. Certain hormones released from the anterior lobe of pituitary gland are given.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormoné (TSH)
Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)
Gonado Tropic Hormone (GTH)
a) Write the common feature of these hormones.
b) Write one function of ACTH and TSH.
c) Name two hormones secreted by the action of GTH.

15. Analyse the statement and answer the questions.

"The normal level of glucose in blood is 70-110mg/100ml. The level of glucose in blood is maintained by
the combined action of two hormones."
(a) Which are the two hormones mentioned here?
(b) How do these hormones regulate the level of glucose in blood?

16. Complete the table relates to plant hormones and their functions.
(a) Auxin (d) Ethylene
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Sprouting of (b) Falling (e)

leaves (c) ripened
leaves and
fruits

17. Analyse the information given below and answer the questions.
Gland X → Hormone A → Reduces the level of calcium in blood.
Gland Y → Hormone B → Increases the level of calcium in blood.

18. Complete the illustration.

19. Identify the word pair relation and fill in the blank.
Female silkworm moth: Bombykol.
Civet cat : ……………………….

20. Choose the correct pair from the answers given below by analysing the statements.
i) Gibberellins stimulates breakdown of stored food to facilitate germination.
ii) Cytokinin helps in the ripening of leaves and fruits.
ii) Abscisic acid helps in the dropping of ripened leaves and fruits.
iv) Ethylene helps in the elongation of stem and growth of terminal bud.

21. Observe the figure and answer the questions

a) Identify the gland indicated as

b) Which are the hormones produced by this gland to over- come emergency situations?
c) How do these hormones coordinate the activity of nervous system and endocrine system?

22. Observe the figure and answer the questions.

a) Identify the cells indicated as i and ii.

b) How does the hormones produced in (ii) control the blood glucose level?
c) Hormones acts only upon target cells. Why?

23. Analyse the following illustration and identify the hormones indicated as A and B.

24. Complete the following table by adding appropriate hormones, diseases and symptoms.
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25.Complete the illustration using the words given in the box.

26. A) In all seasons, Ramu drinks 10 litres of water per day. Given below is an illustration of how the
normal level of water is maintained in his blood during rainy season and summer season. Analyse the
illustration and answer the questions given below.

a) Identify 'X'.
b) Explain how 'X' acts to produce more urine during rainy season.
c) Explain how hypothalamus and pituitary glands are related to 'X'.
OR
B) The level of glucose in blood is maintained by the combined action of insulin and glucagon. The graph
given below shows three conditions of glucose level in blood.
a) Which condition shows the normal level of glucose in blood?
b) Which among the two hormones function in condition B and explains its action?
c) What is the role of insulin in liver and muscles?

27. Appu is a farmer. He uses Ethyphon in his rubber plantation and Abscisic acid in his orchard.
a) What is Ethyphon? What is its use in rubber plantation?
b) What is the use of Abscisic acid?

28. Following are the four different types of hormones. Which hormone is produced from the ovary?
a) Calcitonin b) Testosterone c) Progesterone d) Aldosterone

29. Make necessary corrections if any, in the underlined portions of the statements given below.
a) Thyroxine promotes growth of the body during its growth phase.
b) Thyroxine raises the rate of metabolism.

30. Increases of glucose in blood is said to be diabetes. Shouldn't one be more energetic if the glucose level
in his/her blood rises? This is the doubt of Balu. What is your opinion about the above statement? Explain.

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31. The thymus gland is situated just below the sternum.

a) Name the hormone that is produced by the Thymus gland.
b) "This gland is active during infancy". What is the significance of it?

32. Irregularity in the production of a certain hormone causes the following problems.
 Weight loss
 High metabolic rate
a) Identify the disease.
b) What are the other symptoms of the disease?

CHAPTER - 4
KEEPING DESEASES AWAY

1. Based on the given model (A) complete (B).

AIDS – Virus - HIV
Rat fever – ……..(i)………- ….(ii)…….

2. Analyse the informations related to Tuberculosis and Malaria.

 Classify them in the given table.
 Spread through air. Bacteria is the pathogen
 High fever with shivering and profuse sweating
 Spread through Anopheles mosquito
 Loss of body weight, fatigue, persistent cough
 Protozoa is the pathogen

3. Change in the shape of Red blood cells in a genetic disease is given below. Analyse it and answer the
questions.
a. Name the disease indicated.
b. Why do the shape of Red Blood Cells change?
c. How does the deformity of red blood cells affect the body?

4.Identify the protozoal disease.

(a) Malaria (b) AIDS (c) Rat fever (d) Nipah

5. Read the statement and answer the questions. "Cancer is caused by the uncontrolled division of cells."
(a) What is the reason for uncontrolled division of cells?
(b) Write any two factors causing cancer.
(c) Suggest any two measures that reduce the chance for cancer.

6. Analyse the following statements related to certain diseases and give the reasons for each.
a) In hepatitis, dark yellow colour appears in white portion of the eyes and the nails.
b) In diphtheria an ash coloured thick coating forms in the throat.

7. Find out the fungal diseases from the following

Malaria, Ringworm, Filariasis, Athletes' foot

8. Write the name of pathogens and symptoms of the given diseases.

A. Malaria
B. Tuberculosis

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9. 'Smoking harmfully affects internal organs.' This is a general statement. Explain how smoking affects
brain, heart and lungs.

10. List out four concepts that can be included in the pamphlet to be distributed in an awareness programme
against dengue fever.

11. a) Name the factors that lead to transformation of normal cells into cancer cells.
b) Name two methods used in the treatment of Cancer.

12. If there is mistake in the underlined portion, correct it.

(a) Leptospira is the pathogen that causes Diptheria.
(b) Rat fever is a bacterial disease.

13. Analyse the part of the pamphlet and answer the questions.
“The disease can be transmitted by the sharing needle and syringe contaminated with HIV components”
Identify the disease mentioned in the pamphlet.
How does this disease affect the immune system of the body?

14. Analyse the figure and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the disease.

(b) What is the cause of this disease?
(c) How does the deformity of red blood cells affect the patients body?

15. Which among the following is the correct pair related to malaria?
Filarial worm - Culex mosquito
Filarial worm - Anopheles mosquito
Plasmodium - Anopheles mosquito
Plasmodium - Culex mosquito

16. Prepare a list of concepts to be included in a notice to build awareness on AIDS.

Hints: Spread (Any two situations)
Do not spread (Any one situation)

17. Analyse the news and answer the questions.

“Diphtheria case confirmed in Culcutta”
a. Identify the pathogen of disease indicated in the news.
b. How does this pathogen cause disease?

18. Analyse the illustration and answer the questions.

a. Complete (iii) and (iv).

b. How do cancer cells differ from normal cells?
c. Why is early diagnosis of cancer is so crucial in the treatment of cancer?

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19. Identify the disease caused by the pathogen which multiplies by taking control over the genetic
mechanism of host cells.
“ Anthrax, AIDS, Tetanus “

20. Write any three suitable concepts for a poster exhibition in connection with the awareness programme on
the topic 'prevention of communicable diseases.'

21. Fill the blanks in the illustration suitably.

22. Observe the figure.

a) Which disease is indicated by the structural change of RBC?
b) Explain the cause of this disease.

CHAPTER - 5
SOLDIERS OF DEFENSE

1. Identify the blood group which has the following peculiarities.

2. Analyse the illustration related to the process of blood clotting and answer the following questions.

a. Name the enzyme indicated as "X".

b. How does this enzyme form?
c. Write the subsequent steps involved in this process.
3. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a. Identify the part indicated (i).

b. Name any two chemicals which provide rigidity to the part indicated (i).
c. How do the germs that have crossed (i) are prevented from entering the
cell?

4. Skin is considered as the safety shield of the body. Why?

5. Name the secretions which defend pathogens in the following body parts.

6. The functions of the cells in specific defense are illustrated below. Identify (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

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7. In plants which is the chemical substance that prevents the germs that have crossed the cell wall from
entering the cell membrane?

8. Make suitable pairs of different white blood cells and the

function they perform.

9. "Mucus and Cilia in the respiratory tract provide defense."

What is the role of mucus and cilia in defense?

10. "Though antibiotics are effective medicines, their regular use develops immunity in pathogens against
antibiotics."
Write any two other side effects of the regular use of antibiotics.

11. How do the following substances protect the plants from diseases?
a) Lignin b) Callose c) Cuticle

12. Phagocytosis is a process of engulfing and destroying germs.

a) Prepare a flow chart showing the phagocytosis of a pathogen using the following hints
Hints:
i. Engulf pathogen in membrane sac.
ii. The enzymes in lysosome destroys pathogen.
iii. Membrane sac combines with the lysosome
iv. Phagocytes reach near pathogen.
V. Expels the remnants.
b) Name the two phagocytes seen in our blood.

13. Which of the following statements related to mucous membrane?

(a) Keratin is present
(b) Sebum makes it oily
(c) Cilia cells present
(d) Sweat glands present

14. Different processes involved in inflammatory response are given below.

White blood cells reach the wound site through the walls of the capillaries.
Chemicals are produced.
White blood cells engulf and destroy germs
Germs enter through wounds.
Blood capillaries dilate.
(a) Arrange the processes involved in inflammatory response in sequential order.
(b) Name the white blood cells involved in this process.
(c) What is the advantage of dilation of the capillaries at the wound site?

15. Some facts regarding lymphocytes are given below. Arrange them in the table giving suit- able headings.
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Neutralise the toxin of the antigens

Destroy the cells affected by virus
Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane
Destroy cancer cells
Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.

16. Name the protein present in the epidermis of skin that prevents the entry of germs.

17. Read the statement and answer the questions. 'One person requires blood for a major surgery. Antigen A
and
Antigen B are identified in his blood.'
(a) Which is the blood group of that person?
(b) Everyone cannot receive blood from all blood groups. Why?

18. Read the statement and answer the questions. 'Antibiotics are effective medicines. Even though their
regular use creates many side effects.'
(a) Are antibiotics effective against all communi- cable diseases? Why?
(b) Mention any two side effects of antibiotics.

19. 'Vaccines develop immunity against specific diseases.' Do you agree with this statement?

20. Analyse the given illustration and complete (i) and (ii) suitably.

Hint: (i) Enzyme (ii) lon

21. Complete the table.

22. Analyse the statement given below and answer the questions.
'When pathogens enter, body temperature raises. It is a defense mechanism of the body.' (a) What is the
normal temperature of the human body?
(b) Why does body temperature raise when pathogens enter the body?
(c) Raise in body temperature is considered as a defense mechanism. Why?

23. Analyse the illustration related to the process of blood clotting and answer the following questions.

a) Identify A and B.
b) How does thromboplastin form?
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c) How does the molecule labelled 'B' helps in the formation of a blood clot?

24. "White blood cells have a role in an increase in body temperature."

a) Do you agree with this statement? Give reason.
b) How does the rise in body temperature advantageous at certain occasions?

25. A person severely injured in an accident needs blood. Antigen A is detected in his blood on blood test.
a) Identify the blood group of this person. From the following persons, whose blood can be received by him?
b) i) X-A group ii) Y-B group iii) Z-AB group a. A group b. X-A group

CHAPTER - 6
UNRAVELLING GENETIC MYSTERIES

1. Find the genetic constitution of the sperm.

(a) 44 + X (b) 22+ X
(c) 44 + XX (d) 22+ Y

2. Analyse the given genetic makeup and answer the questions.

44 + XX
(a) Give the number of somatic chromosomes.
(b) Is the individual with this genetic makeup male or female? Why?

3. Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions.

(a) Fill (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).

(b) Which is the dominant character?
(c) Why does the recessive trait in the first generation appear in the second generation?

4. Complete the illustration according to the model.

Ribose sugar Model : RNA
……………………….. : DNA

5. Analyse the illustration and answer the questions.

a) Fill up (i) and (ii).
b) 'The chromosome of the father determines the sex of the child'.
Explain.

6. What are indicated by (i) and (ii) in the illustration of DNA molecules
given below?

7. Analyse the table related to human chromosomes and arrange the column B in accordance

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8. The hybridization process of a tall round seeded plant with a dwarf wrinkled seeded plants is illustrated
below.

a) Identify and fill (i) and (ii).

b) What may be the characters that will appear in the plants produced as a result of the self pollination of the
first generation?

9. Identify the relation in the Indicator A and complete B accordingly.

10. Observe the illustration

a) What does R, r denote in the illustration?
b) Which character is expressed in first generation? Why?

11. Observe the figure and answer the questions.

a) Identify the parts A and B.
b). What is the function of 'A'?
c) Explain the process that takes place in 'B'.

12. MAN - 44 + X
WOMEN - 44 + XY
What does the number 44 indicate in this illustration?

13. a) Identify the picture given.

b) What do A and B indicate?

14. Complete the illustration of the hybridisation experiment conducted by Mendel in pea plants.
(i)

(ii) Which are the characters expressed in second generation?

15. Nitrogen bases in DNA are given below. Make them into suitable pairs.
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(Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine)

Adenine: ……………
Guanine: ……………

16. Complete the table related to human

chromosomes suitably.

17. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the process illustrated here.
(b) What does X and Y indicate?
(c) What is the role of transfer RNA in this process?

18. Complete the table showing the determination of sex in human beings (Hint: X and Y are sex
chromosomes.)

19. Observe the illustration and answer the questions

a) Identify this process.

b) Name A and B.
c) What is the role of B in this process?

20. Analyse the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Which process does the illustration indicate?

(b) What is the role of this process in generating Variations?

21. Observe the illustration and answer the questions

(a) Identify the alleles in the first generation plant related to the trait, tallness.
(b) What may be the characters expressed in the second generation plants?
(c) Why do the characters which are not expressed in parents appear in off springs?

22. Analyse the illustration of DNA nucleotides and select the correctly labelled one.

a) X-Phosphate, Y-ribose sugar, Z - adenine

b) X-Phosphate, Y-deoxyribose sugar, Z - guanine

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c) X-Phosphate, Y-ribose sugar, Z-thymine

d) X-Phosphate, Y - Deoxyribose sugar, Z - Adenine

23. Analyse the given illustration related to hybridization process and answer the questions.

a) Identify A, B and C.
b) Illustrate the hybridization experiment of a tall, round seeded plant (TTRR) with a dwarf, wrinkled seeded
plant (ttrr) to produce the first generation.

24. Observe the following illustration and answer the questions

a) Identify the process indicated. select the correctly labelled one.

b) mRNA is considered as the messenger of DNA. Why?
c) Write the role of tRNA and ribosome in this process.

25. First generation raised from the hybridisation experiment of Mendel is given. Write the gametes formed
from this generation.

26. Correct the word underlined in the given statements if there is any mistake.
a) The different forms of a gene are called autosomes.
b) The sugar seen in RNA is ribose.
c) The RNA that carries amino acids to ribosome is called mRNA.

27.Given below is the hybridization between two pea plants - one with green colour and round seeds and the
other with yellow colour and wrinkled seeds.

a) Write the alleles of the gametes formed while self pollinating the first generation.
b) Identify the new combination of characters that appear in the second generation.
c) What reason did Mendel give for the appearance of new combination of characters in the second
generation?

28. DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. Illustrate the process of protein synthesis with the
help of flow chart given below.

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CHAPTER - 7
GENETICS OF THE FUTURE

1. The vector used in genetic engineering is:

(a) Ligase (b) Plasmid (c) tRNA (d) Rrna

2. Analyse given statement and answer the following questions.

"Genetic engineering has made a great leap in the treatment of genetic diseases".
(a) Name the treatment method indicated.
(b) What is the specific peculiarity of this treatment method?

3. The protein produced through genetic engineering which is used against viral diseases:
Interferons Insulin Endorphin Somatotropin

4. Write any two uses of DNA finger printing technology.

5. Analyse the part of an illustration related to genetic engineering and answer the following questions.

(a) Add further steps and complete the illustration.

(b) Mention any other advantages of genetic engineering.

6. Select the correct pair from the following options.

7. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a. Name the enzymes used for the processes A and B.

b. Will the future generation of this bacteria have the ability to produce insulin? Why?

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8. "The basis of genetic engineering is the discovery of the fact that genes can be cut and joined with the
help of enzymes."
a) Name the enzyme used for cutting genes.
b) Name the enzyme used for joining the genes.

9. A) A debate is to be conducted in the class about "Genetic engineering - its beneficial and harmful
effects."
a) Write two beneficial and two harmful effects of genetic engineering.
b) Name the enzymes used as genetic scissors and genetic glue.
OR
B) DNA finger printing is an important technique in the field of Genetic engineering.
a) Name the person who proposed this technique.
b) List the uses of DNA finger printing.

10. Some of the stages in the production of insulin through genetic engineering is given below. Identify the
step labelled as B.

11. Analyse the statement and answer the questions given below.
"Treatment using genetic engineering triggered great hope in the control of genetic diseases."
(a) What is this method of treatment called?
(b) What is the specific feature of this method of treatment?

12. Read the newspaper report and answer the questions.

“The killer was identified by scientific testing of the blood stain obtained from the crime scene.”
a) Which is the scientific test mentioned in this news?
b) What is the scientific basis of this technology?

13. Rearrange the stages of insulin production in the correct order.

Joining insulin gene with plasmid.
Cutting of insulin gene from Human DNA.
Isolation of plasmid from bacterium.
Produce inactive insulin
Plasmid with ligated insulin gene is inserted into bacterial cell.
Active insulin is produced.

14. Examine the following steps in genetic engineering to produce insulin producing bacteria and answer the
following questions.

a) Mention the function of the enzyme Ligase in this process.

b) Write the subsequent steps in this process

15. "Genetic diseases can be controlled by removing disease causing genes and inserting desired genes.”
a) Name the technique that makes this possible.
b) Give the role of Human Genome Project in the growth of such techniques.

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16. a) Steps of the genetic engineering process through which new gene become the part of genetic
constitution of target cell are given in disorder form. Write them in correct sequence.

b) Name the genetic glue used to join the new gene to the bacterial DNA.

17. Identify the correct statement.

a) Non functional genes are called vectors.
b) The sum total of the genetic material present in an organism is called its genome.
c) The technology used to identify the location of a gene is called gene therapy.
CHAPTER - 8
THE PATH TRAVERSED BY LIFE

1. If there is any mistake in the underlined part of the given statements, correct it.
(a) Chemical evolution theory was proposed by Simple organic molecules Oparin and Haldane.
(b) Organic molecules such as Nucleic acids are formed in Urey-Miller experiment

2. Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Fill (i).

(b) What are the characteristics of organisms belong to (ii)?

3. The following are the main concepts of a theory of evolution. Analyse it and answer the following
questions.
(i) Accumulation of variations inherited through generations.
(ii) Origin of new species
(iii) Struggle for existence
(iv) Favourable variations are transferred to the next generation.
(v) Those with no favourable variations are destroyed and survival of others.
(vi) Over production
(a) Name of the evolutionary theory.
(b) Rearrange the concepts given above in sequential order.

5. An illustration related to chemical evolution is given below. Complete it appropriately.

6. Based on the given model, make a suitable pair from the following
Model : Charles Darwin - The Theory of Natural Selection.
Hugo-deVries, Lamarck , Chemical Evolution Theory, Panspermia , Mutation theory, Robert Malthus

7. Analyse the following illustration and answer the questions.

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(a) What proof of evolution does the illustration give?

(b) Does the study of homologous organs give similar proof? How?

8. An illustration related to human evolution is given. Analyse it and answer the following questions.

(a) Write the names of categories (i) and (ii).

(b) Mention the two important characteristics of organisms belong to (ii).
(c) How does the comparative study of haemoglobin helped to identify the evolutionary relationship
between man and chimpanzee?

9. Identify the word pair relation and fill the blanks.

a) Monkeys : Cercopithecoidea::Chimpanzee:
b) A.I.Oparin : Theory of chemical evolution:: Hugo deVries: ......

10. Mutations cause variations in organisms. It leads to evolution of species.

a) What is mutation?
b) Explain two other factors that cause variations in organisms.

11. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a) Name the scientists who devised the experimental setup shown above.
b) Which theory of evolution is substantiated by this experiment?

12. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a) Why do the forelimbs of these organisms show differences in external appearance?

b) What inferences regarding evolution can be drawn from the anatomy of these organs?
c) Write any two other scientific evidences which proves evolution

13. Which one of the following gases was not present in the atmosphere of primitive earth?
a) Methane b) Ammonia c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen

14. The main concepts of two theories regarding the origin of life on earth are given. Arrange them in the
following table. Write name of theories as title.
i)Life has originated in some other planet in the universe.
ii) Changes occurred in the chemical substances in water, under specific conditions of the earth.
iii) Organic substances identified in meteors supports this theory.
iv) Life originated in the ocean.

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15.Observe the illustration given below. These birds paved the way to formulate the theory of natural
selection by Charles Darwin

a) What are the peculiarities of these birds which help in the formulation of the theory?
b) How this peculiarity helps these birds in their survival?

16.Complete the illustration related to evolution of human beings.

17. "There is a common ancestor for all the different species that exist today." Write any two evidences
which support the above statement from Biochemistry and Physiology.

18. Analyse the information given below and answer the questions
Artificially recreated the atmosphere of primitive earth.
Organic molecules were formed
a) Which theory on the origin of life is proved through this experiment?
b) Name the scientists who conducted this experiment for the first time.
c) Briefly describe the experiment.

19. The main concepts of a theory of evolution are given below. Analyse them and answer the questions.
Over production
Struggle for existence
Natural selection.
Origin of new species
a) Which theory is mentioned here?
b) Who proposed this theory?

20. Make suitable pairs as show in the model using the information given in A and B.
Model: Australopithecus afarensis - slender body.
A - Ardipithecus ramidus, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Australopithecus afarensis
B - Contemporary to modern man, slender body, Most primitive member of the human race, Ability to stand
erect, Made weapons from stones and bone pieces.

21. "Bacteria and man are different in their external appearance but there are close resemblances in their cell
structure and physiology". Give two example to the similarities indicated in the statement.

22.Analyse the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Fill (i) appropriately.

(b) What are the features that differentiate between groups (i) and (ii)?
(c) What evidence does molecular biology provide that the Chimpanzee is the closest creature to humans, in
evolutionary grounds?

23. Identify the evolutionary theory which is substantiated by the given experimental set-up.

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24. Analyse the activities in the evolution of life and modify the flow chart by arranging them in the correct
order.

25. Studies in the cell structure and physiology of bacteria and human being recognize the significance of a
common ancestor in evolution.
Write any three facts to prove this.

26. Analyse the names and characteristics of the organisms in human evolutionary history and answer the
questions.

a) Correct mistakes if any in the names of organisms in A and B.

b) Mention the major change that helped modern man to survive.
c) Do human beings become a threat to the survival of other organisms? Substantiate your answer by giving
suitable evidences.

CHAPTER - 1
REVOLUTIONS THAT INFLUENCED THE WORLD

1. Explain the causes and consequences of American War of Independence.

Hints:
 Mercantilist laws
 Thinkers

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 First and Second Continental Congresses

 Influence of American war of Independence

2. Name the author of the novel 'The Mother'.

3. How did the American war of independence influence the later history of the world?

4. Explain the French revolution based on the following hints.

• Three Estates of the French Society
• Thinkers

5. Explain the factors that led to the American War of Independence.

Hints.
Mercantilist laws
Continental congress

6. Explain the background of the French revolution based on the following hints.
• French Society
• Thinkers and their ideologies.

7. Analyse the causes and results of the Russian revolution.

Hints: (i) Writers
(ii) February revolution

8. Explain the first and the second continental congresses that led to the formation of the United States of
America.

9. Name the revolution that is related with the slogan liberty, equality and fraternity.'

10. Explain the features of the three estates existed in the French Society.
11. How did the colonial rule influence the Latin American countries?

12. Explain how China became a People's Republic.

Hints:
• The revolution under the leadership of Sun Yat-Sen
• The rule of Chiang Kai-Shek
• The revolution led by Mao Zedong.

CHAPTER - 2
WORLD IN THE TWENTIETH CENTURY

1. Which among the following countries was a member of Triple Entente?

(a) France
(c) Italy
(b) Germany
(d) Austria-Hungary

2. Explain the features of Fascism?

3. Identify the countries which belonged to the Axis powers of the Second World War.

4. Analyse the growth of Nazism in Germany. Areas to be considered:

a. Factors that helped Hitler to come to power in Germany.
b. Policy of Hitler in Germany

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5. Explain the features of globalization and its impact on the world.

6. Describe the causes and consequences of the Second World War.

The causes of the Second World War that lasted from 1939 to 1945.

7. The Brown Shirts' is related with:

(a) Adolf Hitler (b) Lenin
(c) Benito Mussolini (d) Marshal Tito

8. Explain the following:

(i) Impact of the first world war.
(ii) The Vesailles Treaty

9. Identify the countries which belonged to the Allied Powers of the Second World War

10. Explain the rise and growth of Fascism in Italy. Hints:

(a) Circumstances that helped the Fascist party to come to power in Italy.
(b) Policies of Mussolini

11. Analyse the causes of the first world war

CHAPTER - 3
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

1. Identify an example for All India Service.

(a) Indian Railway Service
(b) Sales Tax Officer
(c) State Public Service Commission
(d) Indian Police Service

2. Identify the function of Primary Health Centre:

(a) Maintain law and order
(b) Provide treatment facilities
(c) Issue income certificate
(d) Promote agriculture

3.What is E-governance?

4. Which of the following is an All India Service?

(i) Indian Foreign Service
(ii) Indian Police Service
(iii) Indian Railway Service
(iv) Sales Tax Officer

5. What are the features of Bureaucracy?

6. Elucidate the significances of Public Administration.

Write a short note on Central Services

8. What do you mean by E- governance ? Mention any two Examples.

9. Distinguish between All India Services and State Services.

10. Name the institution constituted at the national level to prevent corruption at administrative, bureaucratic
and political levels:

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(a) Lokayuktha (b) Ombudsman

(c) Lokpal (d) State Vigilance Commission

11. Clarify the importance of Right to Information Act.

12. What do you mean by administrative reforms? Identify the administrative reforms implemented in India.

13. Explain central service with example

14. Who appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission?
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister

15. Which of the following institution has the responsibility to maintain law and order?
(a) Krishi Bhavan (b) Primary Health Centre
(c) Village Office (d) Police Station

16. Name the category of Indian Civil Service which Indian Administrative service is included.
(i) All India Service
(ii) State Services
(iii) Central Services
(iv) Public Service Commission

17. Identify the three categories of Indian Civil Service.

 All India Service
 State Services
 Central Services

18. Elucidate the features of Central Service.

19. Explain the benefits of E-governance.

20. Describe the features of Bureaucracy.

21. Who appoints the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Governor (d) Vice-President

22. Write any three features of Bureaucracy.

CHAPTER - 4
BRITISH EXPLOITATION AND RESISTANCE

1. Explain the following:

(a) features of permanent land revenue settlement. (b) mahalwari system.

2. What are the causes for the decline of the indian textile industry?

3. Write any three social evils legally abolished by the british in india.

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4. What were the factors that led to the decline of textile industry in india during the british rule?

5. Explain the features of the permanent land revenue settlement and the ryotwari system.

6. List out any three causes of the first war of indian independence , 1857

7. Explain the factors that led to the decline of traditional industries in india

8. Explain why the sepoys and the kings fought against the british during the first world war of indian
independence , 1857

9. Name the land revenue system implemented by the british in bengal , bihar and orissa

10. Mention any two causes for kurichya revolt

11. What do you mean by commercialization of agriculture ? Explain the circumstances that led the farmers
to commercialisation of agriculture

12. Do you think that the famines in india were creation of the british ? Why ?

CHAPTER - 5
CULTURAL AND NATIONALISM

1. Village Drummer is the painting of : (a) Raja Ravi Varma (b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Nandalal Bose
(d) Amritha Sher-Gil

2. Match the items in column 'A' with those in column 'B'.

3. Explain how Raja Rammohan Roy tried to modernise Indian society.

4. Who founded the University of Visva Bharati? What were its peculiarities?
5. Match the following

6. Elucidate the role of literature in the emergence of Indian nationalism.

7. Kerala Kalamandalam was founded by:
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Shoukath Ali
(c) Vallathol Narayana Menon
(d) G.G. Agarkar

8.match the following

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9. Elucidate the Social reform activities of Swami Vivekananda.

10. Mention any three paintings which paved the way for the emergence of Nationalism in India
11. Link column 'A' with appropriate items from Column 'B'.

12. English education was introduced in India to prepare a generation that favour English life- styles. This
has created a different effect among Indians. Substantiate.

CHAPTER - 6
STRUGGLE AND FREEDOM

1. Analyse the Non-cooperation movement based on the following hints:

• Characteristics of Non-cooperation Move- ment.
• Indian Society's response to Gandhiji's ap- peal.
• Chouri-Choura Incident

2. The champaran satyagraha took place in the year :

3. match the following

4. write a note on the early struggles that mahatma Gandhi took up in India
5. Name the founder of the political party , forward Bloc :
6. Explain the Champaran and kheda satyagrahas involved by Gandhiji
7. Prepare an essay on civil disobedience movement
8. Identify the incident which forced mahatma Gandhui to stop the Non – cooperative movement

9. match the following

10. prepare a short note on khilafat Movement

11. how did Indian society respond to mahatma Gandhi’s appeal for Non-cooperative movement

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CHAPTER - 7
INDIA AFTER INDEPENDENCE

1. List out any four principles of panchsheel agreement signed by India and China
2. Write any three recommendations of the National policy on education 1986
3. what are the achievements of independent India in the fields of Science and technology
4. Write a sort on the states reorganisation of independent India
5.what is the instrument of accession ? name the persons who prepared it .
6. elucidate any four main principles of India’s foreign policy ?
7. What are the recommendations of the Radhakrishnan commission ?
8. who was the Chairman of the states organisation commission in India ? Explain the different stages of
states reorganisation
9. Identify the year on which India and China signed the Panchsheel principle . Name the leaders who signed
the panchsheel principles .
10. Evaluate the achievements of India in the fields of missile technology and space mission

CHAPTER - 8
KERALA TOWARDS MODERNITY

1. Identify the place where Pazhassi Raja led the revolt against the British.
(a) Kochi (b) Travancore
(c) Malabar (d) Kollam

2. Battle of Colachel is related to:

(a) Kunhali Marakkar (b) Paliathachan
(c) Zamorin (d) Marthanda Varma

3. Write a short note on Pazhassi Revolts.

4. Link column A with appropriate items from column B.

5. Write a short note on Malabar Rebellion.

6. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and prepare a timeline.
 Guruvayur Satyagraha
 Nivarthana Prakshobham
 Temple Entry Proclamation in Travancore
 Vaikom Satyagraha

7. Identify the freedom fighter from Kerala.

(a) Akkamma Cherian (b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Annie Besant (d) Sarojini Naidu

8. Kundara Proclamation was issued by:

(a) Pazhassi Raja (b) Marthanda Varma
(c) Kunhali Marakkar (d) Veluthampi

9. Prepare a short note on Vaikom Satyagraha.

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10. Arrange the items in column B appropriate to column A.

CHAPTER - 9
THE STATE AND POLITICAL SCIENCE

1. Answer the following :

a) what are the obligatory functions of the state ?
b) name any two theories on the origin of the state

2. what is citizenship ? identify the two types of citizenship

3. territory is an important factor in the formation of a state . substantiate the statement
4. Prepare a note on the topic state and citizen.
5. "The goal of state is the maximum happiness of the maximum number." Name the thinker who made this
statement.
6. Who is known as the father of Political Science?
7. Describe the Evolutionary Theory of the origin of state and explain its significance.
8. What is citizenship? Distinguish between natural citizenship and acquired citizenship
9. What do you mean by Discretionary Functions of a State? Write any two examples.
10. Population is an indispensable factor in the formation of a state. Substantiate the statement.

CHAPTER - 10
CIVIC CONSCIOUSNESS

1. Elucidate the role of family in fostering civic consciousness

2. Describe the problem caused by the lack of civic consciousness . List the important factors which
determine civic consciousness

3. Point out the role of associations in fostering civic consciousness

4 Explain the role of morality in fostering civic consciousness.

5. The collective action of the people and their co-operation is essential for Civic Conscious- ness. Explain
with examples.
6. How can we overcome the challenges faced by civic consciousness?
7. Explain the meaning and significance of Civic Consciousness.
8.Prepare a note on social problems and suggestions to solve it.
9. Explain the role of media in the formulation of Civic Consciousness.

CHAPTER - 11
SOCIOLOGY : WHAT ? WHY ?

1. Name four methods commonly used in the study of Sociology.

2. Who is the father of Sociology?

(i) D.P. Mukherjee (ii) Emile Dhurkheim
(iii) Herbert Spencer (iv) Auguste Comte

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3. Identify the method by which whatever is seen, heard and experienced is recorded truthfully.
(i) Observation (b) Case study
(iii) Social Survey (d) Interview

4. Write a note on the importance of the study of sociology.

CHAPTER - 1
SEASONS AND TIME
1. Name the major season experienced during 23rd September to 22nd December in the
Northern Hemisphere.
a) Summer b) Autumn
c) Spring d) Winter

2. Write a short notes on:

a) Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) b) Indian Standard Time (IST)

3. Name the major season experienced in the Northern Hemisphere during 22nd December to
21st March.
(i) Summer (ii) Spring
(iii) Autumn (iv) Winter

4. Local time of which longitude is selected as the standard time of India?

(i) Zero degree (ii) 82 1⁄2o E
(iii) 180° (iv) 15° E

5. Complete the following table.

6. Prepare a note on International Date Line.

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7. What is Indian Standard Time? Explain how Indian Standard Time is determined?

8. The apparent movement of the Sun is the basic cause for occurrence of seasons.
i) What is the apparent movement of the Sun?
ii) Compare Uttarayanam and Dakshinayanam.

9. The date of winter solstice in the Northern Hemisphere.

(a) March 21 (b) June 21
(c) September (d) December 22

10. Name the major season experienced during 21 June to 23 September in Northern
Hemisphere.
(1) Spring (ii) Summer
(iii) Winter (iv) Autumn

11. The local time at 82½0 E is known as:

(i) International Date Line (ii) Indian Standard Time
(iii) Greenwich time (iv) Greenwich Meridian

12. Write a short note on Greenwich time

13. Write a short note on equinoxes.

14. Elucidate Local Time, Greenwich Mean Time and Standard Time. Estimate the Local
Time at the following longitudes assuming Greenwich Mean Time as 2 pm.
i) 82°30' East ii) 82°30' West

CHAPTER - 2
IN SEARCH OF SOURCE OF WIND

1. Prepare a note on the following :

a) any two planetary winds
b) any two global pressure belts
2. Name the planetary winds.
3. How are cyclones formed? Differentiate between the Cyclones in Northern and Southern
hemispheres.
4. Answer the following questions related to atmospheric pressure.
(i) What is atmospheric pressure?
(ii) Name the instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure.
(iii) How do altitude, temperature and humidity influence atmospheric pressure?
5. Why does the atmospheric pressure vary from place to place?
6. Identify the planetary winds blowing in between the following pressure belts.
7.Write an essay on planetary winds
8. Write a note on trade winds.
9. What is Coriolis Force? How do the Coriolis force influence the winds in northern and
southern hemispheres?
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10. What are variable winds? Distinguish between cyclones and anticyclones.
11. Name the global pressure belts between which each of the following winds blows:
a) Westerlies b) Trade winds c) Polar winds
12. What is monsoon? Explain the role of Trade winds in the formation of South-west
monsoon winds.
13. What are Global pressure belts? Explain the formation of Equatorial low pressure belt
and polar high pressure belts.

CHAPTER - 3
HUMAN RESOURCE DEVOLOPMENT IN INDIA

1. Explain how education helps in the development of a country.

2. Mention four advantages in developing human resource.
3. The expected years of life of a person lives is:
(i) Life expectancy
(ii) Infant Mortality rate
(iii) Literacy rate
(iv) Birth rate

4. List any three projects implemented in India to develop education and skills
5. Mention any three levels of human resource development.
6. Explain the qualitative aspects of human resource.
7. Explain how education helps in the development of country.
8. Explain why the population studies are conducted.
9. Explain how education helps in the development of a country.
10. Explain the qualitative features of human resource.
11. Write a short note on the Quantitative features of human resources
12. Explain the ways in which healthy persons can participate in the progress of a country.
13. Explain the qualitative factors that improve the human resource.
14. The people who have manpower which can be utilized in the production sector is known
as:
(i) Population (ii) Literacy rate
(ii) Human resource (iv) Population density
15. Human resource development makes possible the development and use of advanced
technology. What are the other advantages of human resource development?

CHAPTER - 4
LANDSCAPE ANALYSIS THROUGH MAPS

1. write any two uses of topographic maps

2. write a short note on topographic map
3. The relief in topographical maps are represented by contour lines.

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4. Identify the features represented by the given map symbols and also mention the colours
by which they are shown in topographical maps.

5. Analyse the reference grids and answer the following questions

6. Point out the uses of topographic maps.

7. Analyse the model reference grids given and find out the following:

CHAPTER - 5
PUBLIC EXPENDITURE AND PUBLIC REVENUE
1. list two types of taxes
2.what is budget ? explain 3 types of budgets
3. what are the sources of non tax revenue of the government of India ?
4. Elucidate the differences between direct taxes and indirect taxes with examples
5. what is the fiscal policy ? explain the goals of the fiscal policy
6. mention any 2 types of budgets
7. List the types of goods and services tax (GST)
8. what is fiscal policy ? write any 3 goals of fiscal policy
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9. the bills obtained from shops are often marked with GST,CGST and IGST . What does
these represent ?
10. Explain any 4 sources of non-tax revenue of government

CHAPTER - 6
EYES IN THE SKY AND DATA ANALYSIS
1. The method of obtaining the photos of earth’s topography using cameras from the ground:
a)aerial remote sensing b)terrestrial photography
c)satellite remote sensing d)passive remote sensing

2. what are the limitations of aerial remote sensing ?

3. substantiate the capability of buffer analysis in geographical information system with

examples . list the other analytical capabilities if GIS

4. What do you mean by remote sensing ? Explain the types of remote sensing based on
platform

5. list out the features of sun synchronous satellites

6. The method of obtaining photographs of earths surface from the sky using cameras
mounted on aircraft
a)terrestrial photography b)aerial remote sensing
c)satellite remote sensing d)passive remote sensing

7. write any 2 uses of remote sensing technology

8. write any three uses of geographic information system (GIS)

9. what is aerial remote sensing ? Explain ‘Overlap’ in aerial photographs and its importance

10. How are satellites imageries prepared ? What is spatial Resolution ?

CHAPTER - 7
INDIA : THE LAND OF DIVERSITIES

1. Name the island groups in India

2. Mention any four factors which influence the climate of India
3. The place receiving the highest rainfall in the world:
(1) Cherrapunji (ii) Shimla
(iii) Dehradun (iv) Darjeeling
4. Which among the following is a Himalayan river originating from lake Manasarovar in
Tibet?
(i) Ganga

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(ii) Indus
(iii) Mahanadi
(iv) Godavari
5. What are the characteristic features of Himalayan rivers?
6. Explain the characteristics features of Eastern Coastal Plain.
7. Mark and label the following on the outline map of India provided.
(a) Aravalli ranges Aravali ranges
(b) Chotanagpur plateau
(c) River Tapti
(d) Western ghats

8. Explain the characteristic features of Himadri and Himachal ranges.

9. The highest range of the Himalaya mountains:

(a) Ladakh (b) Himachal
(c) Shiwalik (d) Himadri

10. Mark and label the given geo information in the outline map of India provided.
(A) River Kaveri (B) Chotanagpur Plateau (C) Kuchchh Peninsular (D) Karakoram Range

11. Tamil Nadu coast receives comparatively heavy rain during North-east monsoon. Why?
What is the other name by which North-east monsoon is known?

12. Identify the wrong statement regarding the Himalayan rivers:

a. Extensive Catchment area
b. High irrigation potential
c. Intensity of erosion is less.
d. Flow through deep Gorges

CHAPTER - 8
RESOURCES WEALTH OF INDIA
1. Which among the following is a mineral based industry?
(a) Sugar Industry (b) Jute Industry
(c) Iron and Steel Industry (d) Cotton Textile Industry

2. Water transport has many advantages. Mention any two.

3. Mark and label the following on the outline map of India provided.
(a) Western Ghat (b) Malwa Plateau
(c) Mumbai Port (d) River Kaveri

4. Prepare a note on cash crops in India.

5. What are the advantages of non conventional energy sources?

6. The first public sector Iron and Steel plant in India:

(a) Indian Iron and Steel Company
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(b) Hindustan Steel Limited

(c) Visweswarayya Iron and Steel works Limited
(d)Tata Iron and Steel Company

7. Write a short note on Coal Production in India.

8. Identify any three Iron and Steel industries founded in India with the assistance of foreign
countries.

9. The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region of West Bengal is known for:

a) Tea plantations b) Wheat cultivation
c) Cotton cultivation d) Jute cultivation

10. Write down the geographical requirements for the cultivation of wheat in India.

11. Which state in India is the leading producer of rubber?

12. List out the regions in India where inland water transport is largely used?
13. Which among the following is a cash crop? (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Maize
14. What are the advantages of water transport?

15. Mark and label the following on the outline map of India provided.
(a) Western Ghats (c) Chennai Port
(b) Malwa Plateau (d) River Narmada

16. Name the agricultural seasons in India.

17.The cropping season in India from November to March:
(a) Kharif (b) Zaid
(c) Greeshma (d) Rabi

CHAPTER - 9
FINANCIAL INSTITUTION AND SERVICES

1. The Kudumbasree is an example of:

(a) Micro Finance (b) Mutual Fund Institution
(c) Insurance Companies (d) Non-Banking Financial Institution

2. Prepare short notes on:

(a) Electronic banking (E- banking)
(b) CORE banking (Centralised Online Real time Exchange Banking)

3. Mention any three collateral that the banks accept to provide loans.

4. Co-operation, self help and mutual help are the working principles of:
(a) Development banks (b) Mahila banks
(c) Payment banks (d) Co-operative banks

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5. What are the functions of the Reserve Bank of India?

6. Women empowerment is Indian empowerment is the slogan of:

(a) MUDRA Bank (b) Mahila Bank
(c) EXIM Bank of India (d) Development Bank

7. What are the purposes for which the Commercial banks provide loans to the public?

8.List down the following.

(i) The purposes for which banks provide loan to the public.
(ii) Three collaterals that the banks accept to provide loan to the public.

9. An example for specialised bank is:

(a) EXIM Bank of India (b) State Bank of India
(c) Canara Bank (d) Indian Overseas Bank

10.Which among the following serves as the banker to the central and state governments in
India?
a) State Bank of India b) Indian Bank
c) Bank of India d) Reserve Bank of India

CHAPTER – 10
CONSUMER : SATISFACTION AND PROTECTION

1. Name any two departments and institutions working for the protection of consumer's
interest.

2. Mention any two aspects that a consumer expects while purchasing products and using
services,

3. Who gives verdict on consumer disputes where compensation claimed is above Rs.20
lakhs but up to rupees one crore?

4. Explain the various circumstances where the consumers are exploited or cheated.

5. List out the Acts for the protection of the consumers apart from the consumer protection
Act, 1986.

6. Prepare a short note on different departments and institutions working for the protection of
Consumers' interest.

7. Mention the situations when complaints when complaints about the consumer disputes can
be filed.

8. List 2 rights of the consumer as per the Consumer Protection Act 1986.

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9. Who gives verdict on Consumer disputes where Compensation claimed exceeds rupees
one crore?

10. Who ensures the quality of food products ?

11. Write down the compensations obtained for consumer disputes through consumer courts.

JAMSHID AHAMMED