10.

A general term that refers to an increased white blood

cell count is
MIDTERM SECOND LONG EXAM (VMC40) a. leukopenia
b. inflammation
c. leukocytosis
1. This may refer to the objective evidence of infection d. Leukemia
a. Syndrome
b. Signs 11. An example of nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is
c. symptoms a, unbroken skin
d. Sequelae b. lysozyme in saliva
c. cilia in the respiratory tract
2. The property of microorganisms to cause infection. d. all of these
a.Virulence
b. Morbidity 12. Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the
c. mortality trachea
d. Pathogenicity a. lacrimation
b. ciliary lining
3 The minimum number of microbes needed to produce an c. Desquamation
infection. d. lactic acid
a. infective dose
b. minimum dose 13. Which of the following blood cells function primarily as
c. pathogenicity phagocytes
d. maximum dose a. eosinophils
b. basophils
4. Virulence factors include c. lymphocytes
a. toxins d. Neutrophils
b. enzymes
c. capsules 44. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue
d. all of these a. spleen
b. thyroid gland
5.The specific actions of hemolysin is to c. lymph nodes
a. damage white blood cells b. cause fever d. GALT
c. damage red blood cells
d. cause leukocytosis 15. What is included in GALT
a. thymus
6. This term refers to the time that lapses between encounter b. Payers patches
with a pathogen and the first symptoms. c. tonsils
a. prodromium d. breast lymph nodes
b. period of invasion
c. period of convalescence 16. Monocytes are___leukocytes that develop into_____
d. period of incubation a. granular, phagocytes
b. agranular, mast cells
A The presence of a few bacteria in the blood is termed c. granular, macrophages
a. septicemia d. granular, T cells
b. toxemia
c. bacteremia 17. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain
d. a secondary infection a. tumor
b. dolor
8. This refers to an infection acquired in a hospital c. Calor
a. subclinical d. Rubor
b. focal
c. nosocomial 18 An example of inflammatory mediator that stimulates
d. Zoonosis vasodilation
a. histamine
b. collagen
9. An example of a non-communicable infection. c. complement C5a
inflammation d. Interferon
a. measles
b. leprosy 19.____is an example of inflammatory mediator that
c. tuberculosis stimulates chemotaxis
d. tetanus. a. endotoxin
b. serotonin
c. fibrin clot
d. Interleukin-2 b. group A streptococci
c. pneumococci
20. An example of exogenous pyrogen is d. Enterococci
a. interleukin-1
b. complement 30. Rheumatic fever damages the___and glomerulonephritis
c. interferon damages the___
d. Endotoxin a. skin, heart
b. joints, bone marrow
12.___interferon is secreted by____and is involved in c. heart valves, kidney
destroying viruses d. brain, kidney
a. Gamma, fibroblast
b. Beta, lymphocytes 31.__hemolysis is the partial lysis of red blood cells due to
c. Alpha, natural killer cells bacterial hemolysins
d. Beta, fibroblast a. Gamma
b. Alpha
22. Which of the following substances is not produced by c. Beta
phagocytes to destroy engulfed microorganism d. Delta
a. hydroxyl radicals
b. superoxide anion 32. Viridans streptococci cause
c. hydrogen peroxide a. pneumonia
d. Bradykinin b. meningitis
c. subacute endocarditis
23. Which of the following is the end product of the d. otitis media
complement system
a. properdin 33. Otitis media is a/an infection often caused by
b. cascade reaction a. bone, Staphylococcu aureus
c. membrane attack complex b. eye, N. gonorrheae
d. complement facto C9 c. middle ear, Streptococcus pneumonia
d. brain, N. meningitidis
24.Immunologic memory refers to the ability of the immune
system to 34. Which genus of bacteria has pathogens that can cause
a. recognize millions of different antigen blindness and deafness
b. react with millions of different antigens a. Streptococcus
c. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissue b.Staphylococcus
d.recall a previous immune response c. Neisseria
25, Which subsets of WBCS accounts for acquired, specific d. Branhamella
immunity
a. monocytes 35. An important test for identifying Neisseria is
b. B cells a. production of oxidase
c. T cells b. production of catalase
d. both b and c c. sugar fermentation
d. beta-hemolysis
26, Which of the following are pyogenic cocci
a. Streptococcus 36. Which among these gram positive bacilli is endospore
b. Staphylococcus former
c. Neisseria a. Listeria
d. all of these b. Erysipelothrix
c. Bacillus
27 The coagulase test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus d. Corynebacterium
aureus from
a. other staphylococci 37. This bacteria causes myonecrosis
b. streptococci a. Clostridium tetani
c. micrococci b. Clostridium perfringens
d. Enterococci c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Bacillus subtilis
28. The symptoms in scarlet fever are due to
a. streptolysin BONUS 38. The target organ of diphtherotoxin
b. coagulase a. heart
c. pyogenic toxin b. both a and b
d. alpha toxin c. nerves
d. muscles
29. The most severe streptococcal disease are caused by
a. group B streptococci 39 The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the
a. neuromuscular junction a, anthrax
b. sensory neurons b. gas gangrene
c. spinal interneurons c. diphtheria
d. cerebral cortex d. both a and b

40. The probable habitat of Listeria is 50. Actinomycetes are__that produce chronic granulomatous
a. the human intestine disease.
b. animals a. filamentous bacteria
c. soil and water b. yeast
d. Plants c. Molds
d. cocci
41. An infection peculiar to swine causes___when
transmitted to humans 51. A unique characteristics of many isolates of Pseudomonas
a. anthrax useful in identification
b. diphtheria a. fecal odor
c. tuberculosis b. fluorescent green pigment
d. erysipeloid c. drug resistance
d. Motility
42 TB is spread by
a. contaminated fomites 52 Human brucellosis is also known as
b. Food a. Bang disease
c. .respiratory droplets b. undulant fever
d. vector c. rabbit fever
d. Malta fever
43. Diagnosis of tuberculosis is by
a. x ray 53. Francisella tularensis has which portal of entry
b. Mantoux test a. tick bite
c. acid-fast stain b. intestinal
d. all of these c. respiratory
d. all of these
44 The form of leprosy associated with severe disfigurement
of the face 54 A classic symptom of pertussis is
a. tuberculoid a. labored breathing
b. lepromatous b. paroxysmal coughing
c. borderline c. convulsions
d. Popular d. Headache

45. Soil mycobacteria can be a cause of 55. The severe symptoms of pertussis are due to what effect?
a. tuberculosis a. irritation of the glottis by the microbe
b. leprosy b. destruction of the respiratory epithelium
c. swimming pool granuloma c. pneumonia
d. Neurosis d. blocked airways

46. Caseous lesions containing inflammatory white blood 56. Escherechia coli displays which antigen
cells are a. capsular
a. lepromas b. somatic
b. pseudomembranes c. flagellar
c. eschar d. all of these
d. Tubercles
57. Which of the following is not an opportunistic enteric
47 Which infectious agent is an obligate parasite bacterium
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis a. E. coli
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Klebsiella
c. Mycobacterium leprae c. Proteus
d. Clostridium difficile d. Shigella

48 Which infectious agents are facultative pathogens 58/Which of the following represents a major difference
a. Bacillus anthracis between Salmonella and Shigella infections
b. Clostridium tetani a. mode of transmission
c. Clostridium perfringens b. likelihood of septicemia
d. all of these c. portal of entry
d. presence/absence of diarrhea and fever
49. Which infection would be categorized as zoonosis
59 Complications of typhoid fever are
a. neurological damage
b. intestinal perforation
c. liver abscess
d. b and c 69. This bacteria is considered as a common nosocomial
opportunist
60. Shigella is transmitted by a. Psuedomonas aureginosa
a. food b. Brucella abortus
b. flies c. E. coli
c. feces d. Franciscella tularensis
d. all of these
70. A notable component of all gram-negative rods that act
61. The bubo of bubonic plague ia a/an as an endotoxin
a. ulcer where the flea bite occurred a. Cytoplasm
b. granuloma in the skin b. flagella
c. enlarged lymph node C. LPS of cell wall
d. infected sebaceous gland d. cell membrane

62. Haemophilus influenza requires____for growth 71. Treponema pallidum is cultured in/on
a. hemin a. blood agar
b. NAD b. animal tissues
c. blood C. serum broth
d. a and b d. Eggs

63. The following are primarily zoonotic except 72) A gumma is

a. tularemia a. primary lesion of syphilis
b. Salmonellosis b. A syphilitic tumours
c. Shigellosis c. result of congenital syphilis
d. Brucellos d. a damaged aorta

64. Which one is considered as non-enteric gram negative 73. The treatment of choice for syphilis is
rods a. tetracycline
a. Shigella sonnei b. antiserum
b. Shigella dysenteriae c. penicillin
c. Yersinia pestis d. sulfa drugs
d. Salmonella typh
74.Which of the treponematosis are not STDs
65. Division of Family Enterobacteriacea between coliform a. yaws
and non-coliform is based on b. pinta
a. gas production C. syphilis
b. lactose fermentation d. both a and b
c. sucrose fermentation
d. toxin production 75. Lyme disease is caused by____and spread by____.
a. Borrelia recurrentis, lice
66. Haemophilus influenza is considered as the cause of b. Borrelia hermsii, ticks
a. flu c. Borrelia burgdorferi, flea
b bacterial meningitis d. Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks
c. pertussis
d. Diarrhea 76. Which of the following manifestations occur in Lyme
disease
67. The principal agent in the transmission of plague bacillus a. arthritis
from reservoir host b. Rash
a. ticks c. heart disorder
b. flea d. a and b
c. lice
d. snails1 77. Relapsing fever is spread by
a. lice
68. Designated code for the fimbrial antigen in gram-negative b. ticks
enterics c. animal urine
a. H antigen d. a and b
b. K antigen
c. O antigen 78. The primary habitat of Vibrio cholera is
d. none of these a. intestines of humans
b. intestines of animals c. skin
c. natural waters d. Meninges
d. exoskeleton of crustaceans
88. Which virus is responsible foe the Korean Hemorrahgic
fever
a.Ebola virus
b. hantavirus
79. The best therapy for cholera c. arenavirus
a. oral tetracyclines d. Flavivirus
b. oral rehydration therapy
c. antiserum injection 89. For which disease is an exanthem(skin rash) not a
d. oral vaccine symptom
a. measles
80. Rickettsias and Chlamydias are similar in being b. rubella
a. free of a cell wall c. Coxsackie virus infection
b. the cause of eye infection d. Parainfluenza
c. carried by arthropod vectors
d. obligate intracellular bacteria 90. A common highly diagnostic sign of measles is
a. viremia
81 Which of the following is not an arthropod vector of b. red rash
rickettsiosis c. sore throat
a. mosquito d. Kopliks spot
b. . louse
c. ticks 91. Rabies virus has an average incubation period of
d. Flea a. 2 to 3 weeks
b. 1 to 2 years
82. Chlamydiosis caused by C. trachomatis attacks which c. 4 to 5 days
structure d. 1 to 2 months
a. eye
b. urethra 92. For which disease are active and passive immunization
c. fallopian tubes given simultaneously
d. all of these a. influenza
b. yellow fever
83. Ornithosis is a___infection associated with_____ c. measles
a. Rickettsial, parrot d. Rabies
b. chlamydial, mice
c. chlamydial, birds 93) Which of the following conditions is not associated with
d. rickettsial, flies AIDS
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
84 Mycoplasmas attack the____of host cell b. Kaposis sarcoma
a. nucleus c. dementia
b. cell walls d. adult T cell leukemia
c. ribosome
d. cell membrane 94 Polio and hepatitis A viruses are___viruses
a. arbo
84. This organism is considered as the causative agent of Q b. enteric
fever c. cold
a. Ehrlichia d. syncytial
b. Vibrio
c. Coxiella 95. Rhinoviruses are the most common cause of
d. Rickettsia a. conjunctivitis
b. gastroenteritis
86. Which receptor of the influenza virus are responsible for c.hand-foot-mouth disease
binding to the host cells d. the common cold
a. hemagglutinin
b. neuraminidase 96. The following are trematodes except
c. Type A a. Ascaris
d. capsid proteins b. Heterophyes
c. Fasciola
d. Schistosoma
87. The primary site of attack in influenza is the
a. small intestine
b. respiratory epithelium
97. An unequal relationship in one specie derives benefit
without harming the other
a. synergism
b. commensalism
c. parasitism
d. Mutualism

98.The common name for tapeworms that parasitize human

and domestic animals
a. trematodes
b. nematodes
c. cestodes
d. Parasite

99. This pertains to pus formers

a. pyrogen
b. pyogen
c. immunogen
d. Lactogen

100 An infectious disease indigenous to animals that humans

can acquire through direct or indirect contact with
infected animals.
a. zoonotic disease
b. virulent
c. infectious disease
d. contagious disease