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GPAT-2013
1. What is mechanism of aprotinin
(a) Inhibits Corboxypeptidase (b) Inhibits Plasminogen
(c) Inhibits plasmin (d) Inhibits plasminogen activator

2. Absolute alcohol is prepared from spirit by……………..

(a) Distillation (b) Azeotropic distillation
(c) Fractional distillation (c) All of the above

3. A compound with an –OH group and –OR group bonded to the same carbon atom is………..
(a) An actal (b) A hemicacetal (c) A simple ether (d) An aldol

4. The reaction of Grignard reagent with aldehydes and ketones gives alcohols .
This is known as ………………
(a) NEcleophilic addition reaction (b) Necleophillic substitution reaction
(c) Electrophllic substitution reaction (d) Electrophilic addition reaction

5. Osazone is formed by reaction of ………… moles of phenylthdrazine with monosaccharide

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

6. If a sugar contains………… fuction, it is a reducing sugar

(a) Hemiacetal (b) Acetal (c) Aldehyde (d) Ketal

7. Which of the following criteria should be considered when reviewing a medication for addition to
the hospital formulary
(a)The amount of samples provided to hospital physicians
(b)Research funds donated to the hospital by the pharmaceutical company
(c)National adverse drug reaction reports
(d)Whether is a gluten-free oral formulation

8. Identify the GABA reuptake inhibitor

(a) Progabide (b) Tigabine (c) Bicuculline (d) Baclofen

9. What in the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier
(a)High lipid solubility of a drug
(b)High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
(c)Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
(d)Meningitis

10. Reynold’s number is given by………………

(a) Re=ŋ/⍴vD (b) Re = ⍴v/ŋD (c) Re= ⍴vD/ŋ (d) Re= vD/⍴ŋ
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11. The increase in concentration of second messengers (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) leads to:
(a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
(b) Protein kinases activation and protein phosphorylation
(c) blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
(d) Antagonism with endogenous legands

12. Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
(a) Lobeline (b) Pilocarpine (c) Carbachol (d) Bethanechol

13. Adverse effect of cerivastatin is ……………..

(a) Higher risk of rhabdomyolysis (b) Anaphylaxis
(c) Hepatic disorder (d) Hemolytic anemia

14. Following emigration from blood vesels, leucocyte migration to the site of infection or injury in
mediated by
(a) Bradykinin (b) Chemokines and Complements C5a
(c) Histamine (d) Prostaglandins

15. Which of the following is interleukin agonist

(a) Aldesleukin (b) Rituximab (c) Anakinra (d) Etarecept

16. When the angle of repose exceeds…………… , the powder flow is rarely acceptable for
pharmaceutical manufacturing purpose
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 60

17. The chelate, EDTA4: can described as what type of chelating ligand
(a) Bidentate (b) Tetradentate (c) hexadentate (d) Tridentafe

18. Living cells are negatively charged inside primarily because of………………
(a)ATP, organic acids, and other negative molecules that cannot escape
(b)Removal of sodium ions, which are positively charged, by the Na+/K pump
(c)Extrusion of Ca2+ ion, which is much more concentrated outside a cell than inside
(d)Cell membranes that are more permeable to potassium than sodium

19. Which of the following drugs requires administration on an empty stomach

(a) Naproxen (b) Levothyroxine (c) Prednisone (d) Nitrofurantoin

20. Which of the following is a non- aqueous binder

(a) Ethyl cellulose (b) Starch (c) Veegum (d) Bentonite

21. Which of the following drugs requires administration on an empty stomach

(a) Cannbichromene (b) Cannabinol
(c) Cannabidiol (d) Tetrahydorcannabinol
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22. What is the osmolality of a solution if one mmole of glucose and two mmoles of NaCl are dissolved
in 1 kg of the water
(a) 3 mOsm (b) 4 mOsm (c) 5 mOsm (d) 6 mOsm

23. How much can be the working revolution per minute (RPM) of the ball mill
(a) 23-28 √D where D means the diameter of jar
(b) Two times more than the critical revolution per minute
(c) 42.3 √D (D=diameter of the jar)
(d) The average of critical RPM and the optional RPM

24. An extension of the normal pharmacological effects of a drug or its metabolite is termed as ………..
(a) Type A ADR (b) Type B ADR (c) Type C ADR (d) Type D ADR

25. Heckel’s plot represents …………………

(a) Extent of plastic and elastic deformation of material during compaction
(b) Force-time of force-displacement relationship
(c) Pressure-porosity (volume) relationship
(d) Stress relaxation measurements

26. Which of the following would cause increase in the binding strength at the dry granulation
process in significant degree
(a) Carboxymethylamylopectiglycolate (b) Macrogol 4000
(c) Magnesium Stearate (d) Lactose

27. The correct statements concerning concertation microencapsulation

(1) Concertation always leads to monophasic microcapsule
(2) When the gelatin is used for microcapsule’s wall material, the concertation is bound to
happen
(3) Only gelatin can be used for microcapsule’s wall
(4) Simple or compound concertation can be distinguished according to the number of
macromolecular colloids taking part in the process
(5) The pH conditions of the system and the solubility of the auxiliary materials do not have any
effect on the preparation of the microcapsule
(a) Only 1 and 4 are correct (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 1 and 5 are correct (d) Only 2 and 4 are correct

28. Cyclohexanone exhibits only …………….. peaks in 13CNMR spectrum due to symmetry
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

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29. If an organic compound does not absorb UV visible radiation it means compound does not contain
…………………
(a)Single bond (b)Sigma bond (c)Conjugated double bond (d)Dative bond

30. Which of the following parameters is/are important in determining bioequivalence

(a) Tmax (b) Cmax (c) AUC and Cmax (d) AUC

31. What does the Hammett substituent constant (σ) measure

(a) The steric effect of a substituent (b) The electronic effect of a substituent
(c) The hydrophobic effect of a substituent (d) The effect on pH of a substituent

32. Property exploited by electroanalytical technique of caoulemetry is……………………

(a) Electric potential (b) Electrical charge
(c) Elcectrical current (d) Electrical resistance
33. All are true EXCEPT………………….
(a) Soft soaps give emulsions with a pH in the basic range
(b) Hard soaps form water-in-oil emulsions
(c) Water-soluble polymers favor the formation of water-in-oil (w/o) emulsions
(d) On the HLB system, lower numbers are assigned to lipophilic compounds while higher
numbers are assigned to hydrophilic compounds

34. In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of……………………

(a) Auxin and no cytokinin
(b) Higher concentration of auxin and lower concertation of cytokinin
(c) Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
(d) Auxin and cytokiinin in equal proprotions

35. Deoxy position of deoxyribose in DNA is at……………….

(a) 1st carbon (b) 2nd carbon (c) 3rd carbon (d) 5th carbon

36. All are potent 3A4 inhibitors EXCEPT……………..

(a) antifungals (-azoles) (b) Protease inhibitors (-avir)
(c) Macrolides (-mycin) (d) Barbiturates

37. ‘Probability of nonsterility’ is given by……………

(a) F value (b) Z value (c) D value (d) None of the above

38. Which of the following is a selective medium for the growth of vibreochelerae
(a) Thayer martin medium (b) Cefoxitin cycloserine fructose agar
(c) Skirrow’s medium (d) Thiosulfate citratr bile surcrose agar

39. Specific conductance unit is………………….

(a) Ohm cm-1 (b) Mho cm-1 (c) Ohm cm (d) None of the above

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40. Karplus curve is associated with which spectroscopy

(a) UV (b) Mass (c) FTIR (d) NMR

41. What are known as balsams

(a) resins dissolved in volatile oil
(b) A mixture of volatile oils with sesquiterpenes
(c) Solidified resin devoid of votatile terpenes
(d) Polysaccharide mixed with volatile oil

42. Sesquiterpenes are formed from …………. In the plants

(a)Farnesyl-pyrophosphate (b)Geranyl farnesyl pyrophosphate
(c)coloring material (d)Degraded products of trierpenes

43. Which of the following is a type of phytoestrogen

(a) Lutein (b) Indoles (c) Isothicotynates (d) Genistein

44. In adults, drugs are an important cause of Fanconi’s syndrome. Drugs that cause Fanconi’s
Syndrome include which group below . Select One
(a) Antiretroviral agents, aminoglycosides, glucocorticoids
(b) Tenofovir, outdated tetracycline, cisplatin
(c) Cidofovir, galactose supplements, NSAIDs
(d) Cyclosporin, Tenofovir, lamivudine

45. Which of the following is a type of phytoestrogen

(a) F (b) W (c) G (d) Y

46. Which aerosol particles will be deposited in alveoli

(a) >20 µm (b) <0.6 µm (c) 2 and 6 µm (d) 1-2 µm

47. Drugs that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which of the following property
(a) A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increase.
(b) The elimination half – life increasing as the administered dose increase
(c) The area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve increasing in direct
proportion to an increase in the administered dose.
(d) Both low and high doses follow first order elimination kinetics
(e) The steady state drug concentration increases in direct proportion to the dosing rate

48. Which of the following pair of volujmetric method of argentometric titration and indicator used is
matched correctly
(1) Fajan’s Method Chromate
(2) Mohr’s method Fluroescein
(3) Vohlard’s method Ferric salt
The method and indicator matches correctly in……………..
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
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49. The reaction of the citric acid cycle that is most similar to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
catalyzed conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is the conversion of
(a) Citrate to isocitrate (b) Fumarate to malate
(c) Malate to oxaloacetate (d) α-ketogultarate to succinyl-CoA

50. Which one of the following pairs of lipids & related compounds exbibit opposite biological
activities
(a) 5-HPETE & leukotriene D4 (b) Cholic acid & Lithocholic acid
(c) Neuraminidase Inhibitors (d) Acetone & β-hydroxybutyprate

51. HIV may NOT respond to……….

(a) Nucleoside analogues (b) Protease inhibitors
(c) Neuraminidase inhibitors (d) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

52. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester of cholesterol used manufacture of cosmetic creams is………….
(a) Oleo oil (b) Lanoline (c) Spermaceti (d) Chaulmoogra oil

53. Appropriate reasons for the deviation form the beer’s law among the following are
(P) Mnonchromaticity of light (Q) Very high concentration of analyte
(R) Association of analyte (S) Dissociation of analyte
(a) P, Q AND R (b) Q, R, and S (c) P,R and S (d) P, Q and S

54. An alternaive to glycolysis pathway is…………..

(a) Glyoxylate pathway (b) Pentose phosphate pathway
(c) Citric acid cycle (d) Gluconeogenesis

55. LeChatelier’s principle states that increasing temperature favors a reaction that………..
(a) Release energy as heat (b) Requires energy as heat
(c) Involves a chemical catalyst (d) Gluconeogenesis

56. In absorption spectrometry, high values of absorbance values (grater than 1 or 2) tend to give
poorer precision because
(a) Too much light saturates the detector (b) Little light reaches the detector
(c) Beer’s law deviations are worse (d) Monochromators work poorly under intense light

57. According to lipinskl’s rule of 5 , which of the following properties of drug molecules are likely to
cause poor oral absorption
(a) A molecular weight lesser than 500 (b) a log P less than 5
(c) Less than 5 hydrogen bond donors (d) More than 10 hydrogen bond accepters

58. Polarographic method of analysis to obtain indivisual amonuts of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in a given mixture
of the ions (Cu 2+ and Cd2+) is achieved by measuring their………..
(a) Half way potentials (b) Migration currents
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(c) Decomposition potentials (d) Diffusion currents

59. Which of the following phytohormone usually acts as bud inhibitor

(a) Gibberlin (b) Ctyokinin (c) Zeatin (d) Indole Acetic acid

60. The positively polarized carbon atom of a carbonyl group acts as…………
(a) An electrophile and a lewis base (b) A nucleophile and a lewis acid
(c) A nucleophile and a lewis base (d) An electrophile and a lewis acid

61. The Pinene hydrochloride rearranged into bornylterpenoid is called as………….

(a) Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement (b) A nucleophile and a lewis acid
(c) Fries rearrangements (d) Backmann rearrangement

62. The mouse model for type I diabetes mellitus is………………….

(a) NZB mouse (b) SCID mouse (c) Nude mouse (d) NOD mouse

63. Cholesterol contributors to …………………. Of the biological membrane

(a) Rigidity (b) Fluidity (c) Permeability (d) Osmolality

64. Active site for all serine proteases consists of which triad
(a) Ser-Glu-Asp (b) Ser-Glu-Met (c) Ser-His-Asp (d) Ala-Glu-Met

65. What is the main different between HPLC and UPLC

(a)HPLC is reverse-phase whereas UPLC in normal-phase
(b)UPLC employs smaller stationary-phase particle size
(c)HPLC and UPLC employ different mobile phase
(d)HPLC and UPLC employ different detection methods
(e) HPLC operates at higher mobile phase pressures

66. Which drug is associated with hepatic/ renal toxic metabolite, N-acetyl-pbenzoquione
(a) Diclofenac (b) Meclofenamate (c) Indomethacin (d) Acetaminophen

67. What is the percentage of chlorpromazine (pKa = 9.3) exiting in ionized form in a solution of
chlorpromazine hydrochloride at pH 7.4
(a) 98.76 (b) 1.24 (c) 0.32 (d) 99.68

68. ……………. Is needed for suspensions, lotions, emulsions, creams and ointments to keeps a high
container consistency and yet pour and spread easily when neede (d)It also is satisfactory for
IM slow release yet easy to inject
(a) Thinxotropy (b) Rheopecty (c) Rheology (d) Newtonian flow

69. The enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD) converts

(a) O2-to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) (b) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to H2O
(c) H2O to hydroxyl (OH) redicals (d) O2- toO2
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70. For first order reactions the rate constant, k, has the units as…………………
(a) Ms-1 (b) M-1 s-1 (c) M-2 s-1 (d) s-1

71. Which of the following may be used to assess the relative bioavailability of two chemically
equivalent drug product in a crossover study
(a) Dissolution test (b) Peak concentration
(c) Time-to-peak concentration (d) Area under the plasma level time curve

72. A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of a monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution the
titration curve shows equivalence point at 7.05. which of the following indicators would be best
for this titration
(a) Methyl red (b) Bromthymol blue (c) Thymol blue (d) Phenopltalein

73. Which of the following in termed as mass filter

(a) Time of flight (b) Farady cup (c) Quadupole (d) Ion trap

74. Which of the following is produced in phenyl propanoid pathway

(a) PHenolics (b) Catotenes (c) Alkaloids (d) Terpenes

75. Which of the following is a GLP-1 agonist

(a) Sitagliptin (b) Pramiltide (c) Exenatide (d) Eparlrestat

76. Attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) to proteins/ drugs do all of the following EXCEPT
(a)Protect them form rapid hydrolysis or degradation
(b)Improves micromole solubility
(c)Increases absorption form the gut
(d)Minimizing the uptake by the cells of the reticuloendothelial systems

77. Identify the harmful drug-drug interaction

(a) Imipenem- cilastatin (b) L-Dopa-Entacapone
(c) Meperidine- Pargyline (d) Methotrexate- leucovorin

78. Prostaglandin used in the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage is……………

(a) Carboprost (b) Latanoprost (c) Bimatotprost (d) Travoprost

79. Identity 5HT3 receptor antagonist which is 5HT4 agonist also

(a) Metoclopramide (b) Cispride (c) Cilassetron (d) Graniseton

80. Which of the following AT-II receptor antagonists (SARTANs) does not possess tetrazole moiety in
its structure
(a) Losartan (b) Irbesartan (c) Telmisartan (d) Valsartan

81. What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot
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(a) Optimum selectivity factor (b) Optimum mobile phase flow rate
(c) Optimum column temperature (d) The capacity factor

82. Brockman activity Scale’ is used in the characterization of ……….

(a) Stationary phase (b) Mobile Phase
(c) Buffer System used (d) Column specification

83. Drugs that have been found to be useful in one or more types of heart failure include all of the
following EXCEPT……………
(a) Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors (b) α adrenoceptor agonitst
(c) β Adrenocepotor agonists and antagonists (d) ACE inhibitors

84. Which of the following is selective α2 selective antagonist

(a) Clonidine (b) Prozocin (c) Phentalamine (d) Yohimbine

85. Which one of the following in NOT a protoplast fusion agent

(a) Incacitivated Sendai Virus (b) Ca++ at alkaline pH
(c) Polythelen glycol (d) Coltchicine

86. Clinically used Labetolol is …………..

(a) S,S (b) R, R (c) R, S (d) S,R

87. For intramuscular in jection, angle of administration is……………. Degree

(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90

88. Aromatase is an enzyme complex that is the target for several anticancer drugs. Which of the
following anticancer drugs targets aromatase
(a) Cyptoteraone acetate (b) Reloxifene
(c) Aminoglutethimide (d) Testosterone propionate

89. Vinca alkaloids that are used in combination therapy to treat a variety of tumors. How to cancer
cells normally gain resistance to these agents
(a) Mutation of the target structure
(b) Overexpression of the carrier protein called P- glycoprotein
(c) Increased metabolism of the drug
(d) Decreased ability of the drug to enter target cells

90. A set of closely related genes of generic markers that are inherited as a single unit is
(a) Cistron (b) Gene families (c) Haplotype (d) Haploid

91. Which one of the following is used in the Ames test

(a) E. coli (b) Streptococcus aureus
(c) Pseudomonas aerogenosa (d) Salmonielia typhimurium

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92. Which of the ultrashort acting adrenergic blocker

(a) Carvedilol (b) Atenolol (c) Esmolol (d) Acetutotol

93. A diode array detector coupled with UV detection is advantageous because it

(a) Covers a range of wavelengths
(b) Allow lower concentrations of analyte to be detected
(c) Speeds up the detection at a single wavelength
(d) Allows a single wavelength of detection to be moreprecisely chosen

94. The LOD of an analysis is at the femtogram level. This corresponds to detection at the
(a) 1 in 10-18 level (b) 1 in 10-15 level (c) 1 in 10-12 level (d) 1 in 10-9 level

95. Which are those therapeutic systems, which liberate the active ingredient through a special hole,
prepared by laser
(a) TTS patches (b) IUD systems (c) OCUSERT systems (d) OROS systems

96. Which of following chromatographic technique is most suitable for small, nonvolatile water-
insoluble solutes
(a) GC (b) Reverse phase LC (c) Normal phase LC (d) SEC

97. Which of the following antiviral agent in not a nucleoside analog

(a)Moroxidin (b)Vidarabine (c)Cytarabine (d)Idoxuridine

98. Regarding two compartment pharmocokenitics all are true EXCEPT

(a) A drug is always removed from the peripheral compartment
(b) A drug with a high volume of distribution is likely to be lipophilic
(c) A drug can have a short duration of action while being eliminated very slowly
(d) Most anesthetic drugs are modelled well with a two-compartment model

99. Match the following biochemical transformations with coenzymes involved

(i) α –Ketoglutarate to glutamic acid (a) Tetrahydrofalate
(ii) Uridine to thymidine (b) NADH
(iii) Pyruvid acid to acetyl coenzyme A (c) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(d) Pyridoxamine
(a) i-d, ii-a, iii-c (b) i-a, ii-b, iii-d (c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c (d) i-d, ii-b, iii-c

100. The FDA allows a maximum of …………… salicylic acid in commercial aspirin tablets
(a)0.05 % (b) 0.1 % (c) 0.15% (d) 0.25 %

101. A phenolic acid compound isolated from the ripe fruits of myrobalan (karitaki)……………..
(a) Chebulic acid (b) Ferulic acid (c) Emblicanin (d) Pivalic acid

102. Asafoetida _Nitric acid gives………………………

(a) Reddish-brown colour (b) Green colour
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(c) Yellowish-orange colour (d) Blue fluorescence

103. Endocrine effects of antipsychotic like chlorpromazine include all of the following EXCERT
(a) Decrease in adrencorticotrophins, Decrease in gonadotrophins
(b) Decrease in release of pituitary growth hormone
(c) Increase in prolactin secretion
(d) Decrease in thyroid hormone production

104. The most widely used agent for the treatment of acute gout arthritis is…………
(a) Indemethacin (b) Allopurinol (c) Colchicine (d) Probenecid

105. Which of the following actions of norepinephrine would be antagonized by prazosin but not by
propranolol .
(a) Increased heart rate (b) Mydriasis
(c) Relases of rennin (d) Glycogenolysis

106. Arginine serves as a precursor for which of the vasodilatory product

(a) Bradykinin (b) Atrial natriuretic peptide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) L- Citrulline

107. Which of the following is a test of digitoxose

(a) Keller Kiliani’s (b) Kedde’s reagent
(c) Raymond’s reagent (d) Baljet’s reagent

108. The Vd for phenytoin is 70 L and half life is 1.5 hours. What is the total clearance of phenytoin
(a) 34.32 L/h (b) 32.34 L/h (c) 151.5 L/h (d) 51.51 L/h

109. For electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, which substituent possesses all of the
following properties ………………………
(1) Inductive electron withdrawer
(2) Electron donor by resonance
(3) Ring deactivator
(a)–Cl (b)–NO2 (c)–COCH3 (d)–OCH3

110. Phenothiazine is obtained by…………..with sulfur

(a) Cyclization of dibenzyl (b) Cyclization of diphenyl amine
(c) Reduction of diphenyl amine (d) Reduction of dibenzyl amine

111. Vitamin K is constituted of ……………….ring

(a)Hdroquinone (b)Nathphaquinone (c)Lonone (d)Denzimidazole

112. To balace intellectual property protection, competition and access to affordable prescription
drug, the act made by US government is
(a) Drug Price Competition act (b) Patent term Restroration act
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(c) Hatch-Waxman act (d) Orphan Drug Act

113. Ginseng saponins belong to the series of………………..

(a) Lupane (d) Brsane (c) Oleanane (d) Dammrane

114. Stokes Einstein equation to the series of…………….

(a) Enegy changes in Sedimentaition suspension setting
(b) Sedimetation of suspention
(c) Diffusion coefficient
(d) Coefficient of energy consumption

115. The source of radiation for FAR IR spectrometer is…………….

(a) Golay cell (b) Nernst glower and globar
(c) Mercury lamp (d) Highly heated tungsten filament

116. Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine

(a) Emtin (b) Cinchonidin (c) Brucin (d) Lobelin

117. The agent that can only be given intravenously for heart failure is……………….
(a)Digoxin (b) Amiodarone (c) Quinidine (d) Dobutamine

118. A prescription order for an antibiotic preparation includes the directions ‘ii gtt AU q.i.d” what
auxiliary label should be affixed to the prescription order container
(a) Take with meals (b) For the eye (c) For rectal use (d) For the ear

119. Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognized by chymotrypsin
during peptide bond cleavage
(a) Phe (b) Leu (c) Val (d) Asp

120. Gridnard test is used for the detection of………………….

(a) Falavonoids (b) S- gyycosides
(c) Cyanogenetic glycosides (d) O-glycosides

121. Which hormone works antagonistically to parathormone………………….

(a) Triiodothyronine (b) Insulin (c) Estrogen (d) Calcitronin

122. Synthesis of thyroid hormone in inhibited by all EXCEPT………………..

(a) Propyl thiouracil (b) Methimazole (c)Perchlorate (d)Diatrazoate

123. Alkaline hydrolysis of one mole of + ᵞ -Ruxilline yields………………..

(a) ᵞ - Ecgonine base (one mole) + ᵞ-Truxillic acid (one mole) + Methanol (one mole)
(b) Methyl ecgonine base + ᵞ-truxillic acid(one mole)
(c) Methyl ecgonine base (one mole) + ᵞ -truxillic acid (one mole) + Methanol (two moles)
(d) Ecgonine base (two moles) + ᵞ-Truxillic acid (one mole)+ Methanol (two Moles)
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124. Which of the following is a common herbal remedy for insomnia

(a) Milk thistle (b) Echinacea (c) Eucalyptus (d) Valerian

125. In which category of in vitro in vivo correlation the mean in vitro dissolution time is compared
either to the mean residence time of to the mean residence time or to the mean in vivo
dissolution time
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Answer 2013
1-c 2-b 3-b 4-a 5-c 6-a 7-c 8-b 9-c 10-c
11-b 12-c 13-a 14-b 15-c 16-c 17-c 18-a 19-b 20-a
21-d 22-c 23-a 24-a 25-c 26-b 27-d 28-c 29-c 30-c
31-b 32-b 33-c 34-b 35-b 36-d 37-a 38-d 39-b 40-d
41-a 42-a 43-d 44-b 45-c 46-d 47-b 48-c 49-d 50-c
51-c 52-d 53-b 54-b 55-b 56-b 57-d 58-d 59-d 60-d
61-a 62-d 63-a 64-c 65-b 66-d 67-a 68-a 69-a 70-d
71-c 72-b 73-c 74-a 75-c 76-c 77-c 78-a 79-b 80-c
81-b 82-a 83-b 84-d 85-d 86-b 87-d 88-c 89-d 90-c
91-d 92-c 93-a 94-b 95-d 96-d 97-a 98-a 99-c 100-c
101-a 102-b 103-d 104-c 105-b 106-c 107-a 108-b 109-a 110-b
111-b 112-c 113-d 114-c 115-c 116-d 117-d 118-d 119-a 120-c
121-d 122-d 123-d 124-d 125-b

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