Corporate Law Amendments for Nov 2020
Corporate Law Amendments for Nov 2020
Relevant amendments: Given here are the relevant amendments which shall be read in
line with the principal Act. These amendments are arranged chapter wise as per the study
material for the convenience of the students.
Part I: COMPANY LAW & INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE, 2016
The Companies Act, 2013 have been continuously amended by the Government vide
enforcement of various amendment Act, namely Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017, the
Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018, the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance Act, 2019
and the Companies (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 and Companies (Amendment) Act,
2019. However, on July 31, 2019, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs introduced the Companies
(Amendment) Act, 2019.
This Amendment Act considers the changes brought in by the Companies (Amendment)
Ordinance, 2018, the Companies (Amendment) Ordinance Act, 2019 and the Companies
(Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 to further amend the Companies Act, 2013.
The Amendment has enforced the 2018 Ordinance and 2019 Ordinances, and all provisions
deemed to have come into force from November 2, 2018 except some sections which have
come into force from August 15, 2019.
“(6) This rule shall not apply to One Person Company or Small Company”.
(iii) after rule 8, the following rule 8A shall be inserted, namely:-
“8A. Matters to be included in Board’s Report for One Person Company and Small
Company-
(1) The Board’s Report of One Person Company and Small Company shall be
prepared based on the stand alone financial statement of the company, which
shall be in abridged form and contain the following:-
(a) the web address, if any, where annual return referred to in sub-section (3)
of section 92 has been placed;
(b) number of meetings of the Board;
(c) Directors’ Responsibility Statement as referred to in sub-section (5) of
section 134;
(d) details in respect of frauds reported by auditors under sub-section (12) of
section 143 other than those which are reportable to the Central
Government;
(e) explanations or comments by the Board on every qualification, reservation
or adverse remark or disclaimer made by the auditor in his report;
(f) the state of the company’s affairs;
(g) the financial summary or highlights;
(h) material changes from the date of closure of the financial year in the nature
of business and their effect on the financial position of the company;
(i) the details of directors who were appointed or have resigned during the
year;
(j) the details or significant and material orders passed by the regulators or
courts or tribunals impacting the going concern status and company’s
operations in future.
(2) The Report of the Board shall contain the particulars of contracts or
arrangements with related parties referred to in sub-section (1) of section 188 in
the Form AOC-2.”.
3. Enforcement of the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Amendment
Rules, 2018 vide Notification G.S.R. 865 (E) dated 19th September, 2018
The Central Government makes the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy)
Amendment Rules, 2018 to amend the Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy)
Rules, 2014.
In Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Rules, 2014,
financial statement (a) the words and figures "within the time specified
to be filed with under section 403" shall be omitted;
Registrar). (b) in the second proviso, the words and figures
"within the time specified under section 403" shall
be omitted;
(c) after the fourth proviso, the following proviso shall
be inserted, namely:—
'Provided also that in the case of a subsidiary which has
been incorporated outside India (herein referred to as
"foreign subsidiary"), which is not required to get its
financial statement audited under any law of the country
of its incorporation and which does not get such
financial statement audited, the requirements of the
fourth proviso shall be met if the holding Indian
company files such unaudited financial statement along
with a declaration to this effect and where such financial
statement is in a language other than English, along
with a translated copy of the financial statement in
English.'.
(ii) in sub-section (2), the words and figures “within the time
specified, under section 403” shall be omitted;
(iii) in sub-section (3), for the words and figures “in section
403”, the word “therein” shall be substituted.
Amendment of section In section 139 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), the
139 (Appointment of first proviso shall be omitted.
auditors).
7. Amendments through the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019
Relevant Amendment Date of enforcement
sections
Amendment (a) after sub-section (1), the following 15th August, 2019
of Section sub-section shall be inserted,
132 namely:—
“(1A) The National Financial
Reporting Authority (NFRA) shall
perform its functions through such
divisions as may be prescribed.”
(b) after sub-section (3), the following
sub-sections shall be inserted,
namely:—
10. Enforcement of the Companies (Accounts) Amendment Rules, 2019 vide Notification
G.S.R. 803 (E) dated 22nd October, 2019 w.e.f. 1 st December, 2019
The Central Government has amended the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, by the
Companies (Accounts) Amendment Rules, 2019.
In the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, in rule 8, in sub-rule (5), after clause (iii), the
following clause shall be inserted namely:—
“(iiia) a statement regarding opinion of the Board with regard to integrity, expertise and
experience (including the proficiency) of the independent directors appointed during the
year”.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, the expression “proficiency” means the
proficiency of the independent director as ascertained from the online proficiency self-
assessment test conducted by the institute notified under sub-section (1) of section 150.
11. Explanation added in the definition of "Government company" [Section 2(45)]:
In this section, the following explanation has been inserted in the definition [inserted by
notification dated 2-3-2020 by way of Exemptions to Government Companies under
section 462 with effect from 3-3-2020]
“Explanation.- For the purposes of this clause, the "paid up share capital" shall be
construed as "total voting power", where shares with differential voting rights have been
issued.”
12. Amendments related to Schedule VII vide Notification G.S.R. 313(E) dated 26th May,
2020 w.e.f. 28th March, 2020
The Central Government has amended the Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013.
In Schedule VII, item (viii), after the words “Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund”, the words
“or Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM
CARES Fund)” shall be inserted.
CHAPTER 3: APPOINTMENT AND QUALIFICATION OF DIRECTORS
1. Enforcement of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Third
Amendment Rules, 2018 vide Notification G.S.R. 558 (E) dated 12th June 2018
The Central Government makes the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of
Directors) Third Amendment Rules, 2018 to amend the Companies (Appointment and
Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014.
In the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014, in the
annexure, for form DIR-3 which deals with the Application for allotment of Director
Identification Number, a new form shall be substituted.
2. Enforcement of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) fourth
Amendment Rules, 2018 vide Notification G.S.R. 615(E) w.e.f. 10 thJuly, 2018
(a) the expression “institute” means the ‘Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs at
Manesar’ notified under sub-section (1) of section 150 of the Companies
Act, 2013 as the institute for the creation and maintenance of data bank of
Independent Directors;
(b) an individual who has obtained a score of not less than sixty percent. in
aggregate in the online proficiency self-assessment test shall be deemed
to have passed such test;
(c) there shall be no limit on the number of attempts an individual may take for
passing the online proficiency self-assessment test.”
10. The Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Amendment Rules,
2020
MCA vide Notification G.S.R. 145(E) dated 28th February, 2020 notified the Companies
(Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Amendment Rules, 2020 further to amend
the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 w.e.f. the date of
their publication in the Official Gazette.
1In the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014, in rule 6:
(i) in sub-rule (1), in clause (a), for the words “three months”, the words “five months”
shall be substituted,
(ii) in sub-rule (4),- For the first Proviso, following proviso shall be substituted-
“Provided that an individual shall not be required to pass the online proficiency self -
assessment test, when he has served as a director or key managerial personnel, for
a total period of not less than ten years, as on the date of inclusion of his name in the
databank, in one or more of the following, namely:-
(a) listed public company; or
(b) unlisted public company having a paid-up share capital of rupees ten crore
or more; or
(c) body corporate listed on a recognized stock exchange:”
(iii) in sub-rule (4),- in the second proviso, for the word “companies”, the words
“companies or bodies corporate” shall be substituted.
1Vide notification no. G.S.R. 804(E), dated 22nd October, 2019 w.e.f. 1st day of December, 2019, Rule 6 have
been amended. The amended Rule 6 is given in Point no. I., the above para. This Rule have been further
amended by the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Second Amendment Rules, 2020,
w.e.f. 29-3-2020 and Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Amendment Rules, 2020, w.e.f.
8-2-2020.
(i) in rule 4 i.e., related the matters not to be dealt with in a meeting trough video
conferencing or other audio visual means, the following proviso shall be inserted,
namely:-
“Provided that where there is quorum in a meeting through physical presence of
directors, any other director may participate through video conferencing or other
audio visual means.”
(ii) In the principal rules, in rule 6 related to the Committees to the Board, for the words
“every listed company”, the words “every listed public company” shall be substituted.
(iii) In the principal rules, for rule 13 i.e. related to the Special Resolution, the following
rule shall be substituted, namely:-
“13. Special Resolution- A resolution passed at a general meeting in terms of sub-
section (3) of section 186 to give any loan or guarantee or investment or providing
any security or the acquisition under sub-section (2) of section 186 shall specify the
total amount up to which the Board of Directors are authorised to give such loan or
guarantee, to provide such security or make such acquisition:
Provided that the company shall disclose to the members in the financial statement
the full particulars in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (4) of section 186.”
2. Amendments through the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017
Relevant sections Amendment
Amendment of In section 173 of the principal Act,
section 173 in sub-section (2), after the first proviso, the following proviso
(Meetings of shall be inserted, namely:—
Board) "Provided further that where there is quorum in a meeting through
physical presence of directors, any other director may participate
through video conferencing or other audio visual means in such
meeting on any matter specified under the first proviso."
Amendment of In section 177 of the principal Act,—
section 177 (Audit (i) in sub-section (1), for the words "every listed company",
Committee). the words "every listed public company" shall be
substituted;
(ii) in sub-section (4), in clause (iv), after the proviso, the
following provisos shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided further that in case of transaction, other than
transactions referred to in section 188, and where Audit
Committee does not approve the transaction, it shall make
its recommendations to the Board:
Provided also that in case any transaction involving any
amount not exceeding one crore rupees is entered into by a
its Powers) Rules, 2014 to be enforced from the date of their publication in the Official
Gazette.
Sl. No. Amended law
1. In rule 15, in sub-rule (3), in clause (a),-
(a) in sub-clauses (i) and (ii), the words “or rupees one hundred crore,
whichever is lower”, shall be omitted
2. In rule 15, in sub-rule (3), in clause (a),-
(a) in sub-clause (iii), for the words “amounting to ten per cent or more of the net
worth of the company or ten per cent or more of turnover of the company or rupees
one hundred crore, whichever is lower”, the words “amounting to ten per cent
or more of the turnover of the company” shall be substituted;
3. In rule 15, in sub-rule (3), in clause (a),-
(a) in sub-clause (iv), the words “or rupees fifty crore, whichever is lower”,
shall be omitted
6. The Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Amendment Rules, 2020
Vide notification G.S.R. 186(E) dated 19th March, 2020, the Central Government hereby
amended the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014 through the
enforcement of the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Amendment Rules,
2020 from the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.
In the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014, rule 4 shall be
renumbered as sub-rule (1) thereof and after sub-rule (1) as so renumbered, the following
sub-rule shall be inserted, namely:-
“(2) For the period beginning from the commencement of the Companies (Meetings of
Board and its Powers) Amendment Rules, 2020 and ending on the 30th June, 2020, the
meetings on matters referred to in sub-rule (1) may be held through video conferencing or
other audio visual means in accordance with rule 3.”
7. Further exemptions to Government company: Vide Notification G.S.R. 151(E) dated
2nd March, 2020, the Central Government, in the public interest, hereby makes the
following further amendments in the notification of the Government of India, in the Ministry
of Corporate Affairs, number G.S.R. 463(E), dated the 5th June, 2015 which dealt with the
exemptions to Government Companies:
Sl. No. Amended law
1. Chapter XII, first and second proviso to sub-section (1) of section 188, Shall
not apply to –
date being a date subsequent to the date of filing the order with the Registrar under
section 232(5), the company shall file an intimation of the same with the Registrar
within 30 days of such scheme coming into force.
3. Enforcement of section 230(11) and 230(12): Government of India through Ministry of
Corporate Affairs vide notification dated 3rd February, 2020, appoints 3rd day of February,
2020 as the date on which the provisions of sub-sections (11) and (12) of section 230 of
the said Act shall come into force.
CHAPTER 8: PREVENTION OF OPPRESSION AND MISMANAGEMENT
1. Enforcement of the National Company Law Tribunal (Second Amendment) Rules,
2019 vide Notification G.S.R. 351(E) dated 8th May, 2019
The Central Government makes the National Company Law Tribunal (Second Amendment)
Rules, 2019 to amend the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016.
In National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016,
In rule 84, after sub-rule (2), the following sub-rules shall be inserted, namely: –
“(3) In case of a company having a share capital, the requisite number of member or
members to file an application under sub-section (1) of section 245 shall be -
(i) (a) at least five per cent. of the total number of members of the company ; or
(b) one hundred members of the company,
whichever is less; or
(ii) (a) member or members holding not less than five per cent. of the issued
share capital of the company, in case of an unlisted company;
(b) member or members holding not less than two per cent. of the issued share
capital of the company, in case of a listed company.
(4) The requisite number of depositor or depositors to file an application under sub -
section (1) of section 245 shall be -
(i) (a) at least five per cent. of the total number of depositors of the company;
or
(b) one hundred depositors of the company,
whichever is less; or
(ii) depositor or depositors to whom the company owes five per cent. of total
deposits of the company.”
“Explanation III.─ For the purposes of this rule and Annexure IV, ‘equivalent’ shall
mean professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by the Ministry
of Human Resources and Development as equivalent to professional and technical
degree.”.
(iv) In the said rules, in rule 10, the words “and he may conduct valuation as per these
rules if required under any other law or by any other regulatory authority” shall be
omitted.
(v) In the said rules, in rule 12, in sub-rule (1), in clause (ii), for the words “a professional
institute”, the words “it is a professional institute” shall be substituted.
4. Enforcement of the Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Amendment Rules, 2019
vide Notification G.S.R. 131(E) dated 19 th February, 2019
The Central Government makes the Companies (Adjudication of Penalties)
Amendment Rules, 2019 to amend the Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Rules,
2014.
In the Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Rules, 2014, for Rule 3, the following rule
shall be substituted:
“3. Adjudication of Penalties. - (1) The Central Government may appoint any of its
officers, not below the rank of Registrar, as adjudicating officers for adjudging penalty
under the provisions of the Act.
(2) Before adjudging penalty, the adjudicating officer shall issue a written notice in the
specified manner, to the company, the officer who is in default or any other person, as the
case may be, to show cause, within such period as may be specified in the notice (not
being less than 15 days and more than 30 days from the date of service thereon), why the
penalty should not be imposed on it or him.
(3) Every notice issued under sub-rule (2), shall clearly indicate the nature of non-
compliance or default under the Act alleged to have been committed or made by such
company, officer in default, or any other person, the company, and each of the officers in
default, or the other person. as the case may be and also draw attention to the relevant
penal provisions of the Act and the maximum penalty which can be imposed on the
company, and each of the officers in default, or the other person.
(4) The reply to such notice shall be filed in electronic mode only within the period as
specified in the notice.
However, the adjudicating officer may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, extend the
period referred to above by a further period not exceeding 15 days, if the company or
officer in default or any person as the case may be, satisfies the adjudicating officer that it
or he has sufficient cause for not responding to the notice within the stipulated period or
the adjudicating officer has reason to believe that the company or the officer or the person
has received a shorter notice and did not have reasonable time to give reply.
(5) If, after considering the reply submitted by such company, its officer, or any other
person, as the case may be, the adjudicating officer is of the opinion that physical
appearance is required, he shall issue a notice, within a period of 10 working days from
the date of receipt of reply fixing a date for the appearance of such company, through its
authorised representative, or officer of such company, or any other person, whether
personally or through his authorised representative.
If any person, to whom a notice is issued under sub-rule (2), desires to make an oral
representation, whether personally or through his authorised representative and has
indicated the same while submitting his reply in electronic mode, the adjudicating officer
shall allow such person to make such representation after fixing a date of appear ance.
(6) On the date fixed for hearing and after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard
to the person concerned, the adjudicating officer may, subject to reasons to be recorded
in writing, pass any order in writing as he thinks fit including an order for adjournment:
Provided that after hearing, adjudicating officer may require the concerned person to
submit his reply in writing on certain other issues related to the notice under sub-rule (2),
relevant for determination of the default.
(7) The adjudicating officer shall pass an order,-
(a) within 30 days of the expiry of the period referred in sub-rule (2) or of such extended
period as referred therein, where physical appearance was not required under sub-
rule (5);
(b) within 90 days of the date of issue of notice under sub-rule (2), where any person
appeared before the adjudicating officer under sub-rule (5):
Provided that in case an order is passed after the aforementioned duration, the reasons of
the delay shall be recorded by the adjudicating officer and no such order shall be invalid
merely because of its passing after the expiry of such 30 days or 90 days as the case may
be.
(8) Every order of the adjudicating officer shall be duly dated and signed by him and shall
clearly state the reasons for requiring the physical appearance under sub-rule (5).
(9) The adjudicating officer shall send a copy of the order passed by him to the concerned
company, officer who is in default or any other person or all of them and to the Central
Government and a copy of the order shall also be uploaded on the website.
(10) For the purposes of this rule, the adjudicating officer shall exercise the following
powers, namely:-
(a) to summon and enforce the attendance of any person acquainted with the facts and
circumstances of the case after recording reasons in writing;
(b) to order for evidence or to produce any document, which in the opinion of the
adjudicating officer, may be relevant to the subject matter.
(11) If any person fails to reply or neglects or refuses to appear as required under sub-
rule (5) or sub-rule (10) before the adjudicating officer, the adjudicating officer may pass
an order imposing the penalty, in the absence of such person after recording the reasons
for doing so.
(12) While adjudging quantum of penalty, the adjudicating officer shall have due regard
to the following factors, namely:-
(a) size of the company;
(b) nature of business carried on by the company;
(c) injury to public interest;
(d) nature of the default;
(e) repetition of the default;
(f) the amount of disproportionate gain or unfair advantage, wherever quantifiable, made
as a result of the default; and
(g) the amount of loss caused to an investor or group of investors or creditors as a result
of the default:
However, in no case, the penalty imposed shall be less than the minimum penalty
prescribed, if any, under the relevant section of the Act.
(13) In case a fixed sum of penalty is provided for default of a provision, the adjudicating
officer shall impose that fixed sum, in case of any default therein.
(14) Penalty shall be paid through Ministry of Corporate Affairs portal only.
(15) All sums realised by way of penalties under the Act shall be credited to the
Consolidated Fund of India.
5. Amendments through the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019
Relevant Amendment Date of Enforcement
sections
Amendment In section 248 of the principal Act, in 2nd November, 2018
of section sub-section (1),—
248 (i) in clause (c), for the word and
figures “section 455,”, the words
and figures “section 455; or” shall
be substituted;
6. Amendment in Section 406: Section 406 has been substituted by the Companies
(Amendment) Act, 2017, with effect from 15th August, 2019
Section 406: (1) In this section, "Nidhi" or "Mutual Benefit Society" means a company
which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a
Nidhi or Mutual Benefit Society, as the case may be.
(2) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, direct that an y
of the provisions of this Act specified in the notification—
(a) shall not apply to any Nidhi or Mutual Benefit Society; or
(b) shall apply to any Nidhi or Mutual Benefit Society with such exceptions,
modifications and adaptations as may be specified in the notification.
(3) A copy of every notification proposed to be issued under sub-section (2), shall be laid
in draft before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of
thirty days, and if, both Houses agree in disapproving the issue of notification or both
Houses agree in making any modification in the notification, the notification shall not
be issued or, as the case may be, shall be issued only in such modified form as may
be agreed upon by both the Houses.
(4) In reckoning any such period of thirty days as is referred to in sub-section (3), no
account shall be taken of any period during which the House referred to in sub-section
(3) is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days.
(5) The copies of every notification issued under this section shall, as soon as may be
after it has been issued, be laid before each House of Parliament.
7. Enforcement of the Nidhi (Amendment) Rules, 2019 via G.S.R. 467(E) dated
15th August, 2019
The Central Government makes the Nidhi (Amendment) Rules, 2019 to amend Nidhi Rules,
2014. In the Nidhi rules, 2014 (hereinafter referred to as “said rules”):
Sl. Nidhi rules, 2014 Amendment vide Nidhi (Amendment) Rules,
No. 2019
1. In rule 2, after clause (c) Insertion of clause (d), namely:-
“(d) every company declared as Nidhi or Mutual
Benefit Society under sub-section (1) of section 406
of the Act”.
2. In rule 3, after clause (d) Following clause (da) is inserted:-
‘(da) “Nidhi” means a company which has been
incorporated as a Nidhi with the object of cultivating
the habit of thrift and savings amongst its members,
receiving deposits from, and lending to, its members
only, for their mutual benefit, and which complies
with the rules made by the Central Government for
regulation of such class of companies.’
3. After rule 3 New rule 3A is inserted:-
“3A. Declaration of Nidhis.─ The Central
Government, on receipt of application (in Form
NDH-4 along with fee thereon) of a public company
for declaring it as Nidhi and on being satisfied that
the company meets the requirements under these
rules, shall notify the company as a Nidhi in the
Official Gazette:
Provided that a Nidhi incorporated under the Act
on or after the commencement of the Nidhi
(Amendment) Rules, 2019 shall file Form NDH-4
within sixty days from the date of expiry of:-
(a) one year from the date of its incorporation; or
(b) the period up to which extension of time has
been granted by the Regional Director under
sub-rule (3) of rule 5:
Provided further that nothing in the first proviso
shall prevent a Nidhi from filing Form NDH-4 before
the period referred therein:
Provided also that that in case a company does not
comply with the requirements of this rule, it shall
not be allowed to file Form No. SH-7 (Notice to
(iii) in the proviso, for the (iii) the words, “Central Government” shall be
words “Regional substituted.
Director”,
9. After rule 23 following rules 23A & 23B shall be inserted,
namely:-
23A. Compliance with rule 3A by certain
Nidhis:- Every company referred to in clause (b)
of rule 2 and every Nidhi incorporated under the
Act, before the commencement of Nidhi
(Amendment) Rules, 2019, shall also get itself
declared as such in accordance with rule 3A within
a period of one year from the date of its
incorporation or within a period of six months from
the date of commencement of Nidhi (Amendment)
Rules, 2019, whichever is later:
Provided that in case a company does not comply
with the requirements of this rule, it shall not be
allowed to file Form No. SH-7 (Notice to Registrar
of any alteration of share capital) and Form PAS-3
(Return of Allotment).
23B. Companies declared as Nidhis under
previous company law to file Form NDH-4:-
Every company referred in clause (a) of rule 2 shall
file Form NDH-4 along with fees as per the
Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules,
2014 for updating its status:
Provided that no fees shall be charged under this
rule for filing Form NDH-4, in case it is filed within
six month of the commencement of Nidhi
(Amendment) Rules, 2019:
Provided further that, in case a company does not
comply with the requirements of this rule, it shall
not be allowed to file Form No. SH-7 (Notice to
Registrar of any alteration of share capital) and
Form PAS-3 (Return of Allotment).
8. The Nidhi (Second Amendment) Rules, 2020
Vide Notification G.S.R. 114(E) dated 14th February, 2020, to further amend the Nidhi
Rules, 2014, said Rule have come into force on the date of their publication in the Official
Gazette.
"Provided that where the interim resolution professional is not appointed in the
order admitting application under section 7, 9 or section 10, the insolvency
commencement date shall be the date on which such interim resolution
professional is appointed by the Adjudicating Authority;";
(iv) after clause (24), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
'(24A) "related party", in relation to an individual, means—
(a) a person who is a relative of the individual or a relative of the spouse of the
individual;
(b) a partner of a limited liability partnership, or a limited liability partnership or
a partnership firm, in which the individual is a partner;
(c) a person who is a trustee of a trust in which the beneficiary of the trust
includes the individual, or the terms of the trust confers a power on the
trustee which may be exercised for the benefit of the individual;
(d) a private company in which the individual is a director and holds along with
his relatives, more than two per cent. of its share capital;
(e) a public company in which the individual is a director and holds along with
relatives, more than two per cent. of its paid-up share capital;
(f) a body corporate whose board of directors, managing director or manager,
in the ordinary course of business, acts on the advice, directions or
instructions of the individual;
(g) a limited liability partnership or a partnership firm whose partners or
employees in the ordinary course of business, act on the advice, directions
or instructions of the individual;
(h) a person on whose advice, directions or instructions, the individual is
accustomed to act;
(i) a company, where the individual or the individual along with its related
party, own more than fifty per cent. of the share capital of the company or
controls the appointment of the board of directors of the company.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause,—
(a) "relative", with reference to any person, means anyone who is related to
another, in the following manner, namely:—
(i) members of a Hindu Undivided Family,
(ii) husband,
(iii) wife,
(iv) father,
(v) mother,
(vi) son,
(vii) daughter,
(viii) son's daughter and son,
(ix) daughter's daughter and son,
(x) grandson's daughter and son,
(xi) granddaughter's daughter and son,
(xii) brother,
(xiii) sister,
(xiv) brother's son and daughter,
(xv) sister's son and daughter,
(xvi) father's father and mother,
(xvii) mother's father and mother,
(xviii)father's brother and sister,
(xix) mother's brother and sister, and
(b) wherever the relation is that of a son, daughter, sister or brother, their
spouses shall also be included;'
(3) In section 7(1) of the principal Act which deals with the initiation of CIRP by financial
creditor, for the words "other financial creditors", the words "other financial creditors,
or any other person on behalf of the financial creditor, as may be notified by the
Central Government," shall be substituted.
(4) In section 8(2) of the principal Act which deals with the Insolvency resolution by
operational creditor, following are the amendments—
(i) in clause (a), for the words "if any, and", the words "if any, or" shall be
substituted;
(ii) in clause (b), for the word "repayment", the word "payment" shall be substituted;
In the Explanation, for the word "repayment", the word "payment" shall be substituted.
(5) In section 9(3) of the principal Act, which states of the provision related to the filing
of an application for initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process by
operational creditor—
(i) in clause (c), for the words "by the corporate debtor; and", the words "by the
corporate debtor, if available;" shall be substituted;
(ii) for clause (d), the following clauses shall be substituted, namely:—
"(d) a copy of any record with information utility confirming that there is no
payment of an unpaid operational debt by the corporate debtor, if available;
and
(e) any other proof confirming that there is no payment of an unpaid
operational debt by the corporate debtor or such other information, as may
be prescribed.";
(6) in section 9(5) of the principle Code which deals with the provision related to the
filing of an application for initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process by
operational creditor —
(a) in clause (i), in sub-clause (b), for the word "repayment", the word "payment"
shall be substituted;
(b) in clause (ii), in sub-clause (b), for the word "repayment", the word "payment"
shall be substituted.
(7) Section 10 (3) of the principal Act, deals with the initiation of corporate insolvency
resolution process by corporate applicant, shall be substituted with the following -
"(3) The corporate applicant shall, along with the application, furnish—
(a) the information relating to its books of account and such other documents
for such period as may be specified;
(b) the information relating to the resolution professional proposed to be
appointed as an interim resolution professional; and
(c) the special resolution passed by shareholders of the corporate debtor or
the resolution passed by at least three-fourth of the total number of partners
of the corporate debtor, as the case may be, approving filing of the
application.";
(8) In Section 10 (4) related to the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process
by corporate applicant, following amendments have been made—
(i) in clause (a), after the words "if it is complete", the words "and no disciplinary
proceeding is pending against the proposed resolution professional" shall be
inserted;
(ii) in clause (b), after the words "if it is incomplete", the words "or any disciplinary
proceeding is pending against the proposed resolution professional" shall be
inserted.
(9) In section 12(2) of the principal Act, related to the time limit for completion of
corporate insolvency resolution process, for the word "seventy-five", the word "sixty-
six" shall be substituted.
(10) After section 12 of the principal Act, the section 12A shall be inserted-
(iii) Insertion of new sub-section 6(A) & 6(B) after sub-section (6)-
"(6A) Where a financial debt—
(a) is in the form of securities or deposits and the terms of the financial debt
provide for appointment of a trustee or agent to act as authorised
representative for all the financial creditors, such trustee or agent shall act
on behalf of such financial creditors;
(b) is owed to a class of creditors exceeding the number as maybe specified,
other than the creditors covered under clause (a) or sub-section (6), the
interim resolution professional shall make an application to the
Adjudicating Authority along with the list of all financial creditors, containing
the name of an insolvency professional, other than the interim resolution
professional, to act as their authorised representative who shall be
appointed by the Adjudicating Authority prior to the first meeting of the
committee of creditors;
(c) is represented by a guardian, executor or administrator, such person shall
act as authorised representative on behalf of such financial creditors,
and such authorised representative under clause (a) or clause (b) or clause
(c) shall attend the meetings of the committee of creditors, and vote on
behalf of each financial creditor to the extent of his voting share.
(6B) The remuneration payable to the authorised representative—
(i) under clauses (a) and (c) of sub-section (6A), if any, shall be as per
the terms of the financial debt or the relevant documentation; and
(ii) under clause (b) of sub-section (6A) shall be as specified which shall
form part of the insolvency resolution process costs.";
(iv) for sub-sections (7) and (8), the following sub-sections shall be substituted,
namely:—
"(7) The Board may specify the manner of voting and the determining of the
voting share in respect of financial debts covered under sub-sections (6) and
(6A).
(8) Save as otherwise provided in this Code, all decisions of the committee of
creditors shall be taken by a vote of not less than fifty-one per cent. of voting
share of the financial creditors:
Provided that where a corporate debtor does not have any financial creditors,
the committee of creditors shall be constituted and shall comprise of such
persons to exercise such functions in such manner as may be specified."
(17) In section 22(2) of the principal Act, for the word, "seventy-five", the word "sixty-six"
shall be substituted;
(18) In section 23(1) of the principal Act, the following proviso shall be inserted-
"Provided that the resolution professional shall, if the resolution plan under sub-
section (6) of section 30 has been submitted, continue to manage the operations of
the corporate debtor after the expiry of the corporate insolvency resolution process
period until an order is passed by the Adjudicating Authority under section 31."
(19) In section 24(3) of the principal Act, in clause (a), for the words "Committee of
creditors", the words, brackets, figures and letter "committee of creditors, including
the authorised representatives referred to in sub-sections (6) and (6A) of section 21
and sub-section (5)" shall be substituted;
(20) Insertion of new section 25A which deals with the Rights and duties of authorised
representative of financial creditors.
'25A. (1) Right to participate and Vote on behalf of FC: The authorised
representative(AR) under section 21(6) & 21(6A) or section 24(5) shall have the right
to participate and vote in meetings of the committee of creditors on behalf of the
financial creditor(FC) he represents in accordance with the prior voting instructions of
such creditors obtained through physical or electronic means.
Duty of AR to circulate agenda & minutes to FC: It shall be the duty of the
authorised representative to circulate the agenda and minutes of the meeting of the
committee of creditors to the financial creditor he represents.
AR to act on instruction of FC: The authorised representative shall not act against
the interest of the financial creditor he represents and shall always act in accordance
with their prior instructions:
Provided that if the authorised representative represents several financial creditors,
then he shall cast his vote in respect of each financial creditor in accordance with
instructions received from each financial creditor, to the extent of his voting share:
Provided further that if any financial creditor does not give prior instructions through
physical or electronic means, the authorised representative shall abstain from voting
on behalf of such creditor.
To ensure recording of instruction by IRP/RP: The authorised representative shall
file with the committee of creditors any instructions received by way of physical or
electronic means, from the financial creditor he represents, for voting in accordance
therewith, to ensure that the appropriate voting instructions of the financial creditor
he represents is correctly recorded by the interim resolution professional or resolution
professional, as the case may be.
(21) Amendment in section 27(2) of the principal Act which deals with the Replacement
of Resolution Professional (RP) by Committee of creditors (CoC): This sub-section is
substituted with the following provision-
“The committee of creditors may, at a meeting, by a vote of sixty-six per cent. of voting
shares, resolve to replace the resolution professional appointed under section 22 with
Provided that this clause shall not apply to a person after the expiry of a period
of two years from the date of his release from imprisonment:
Provided further that this clause shall not apply in relation to a connected person
referred to in clause (iii) of Explanation I;"
(iii) in clause (e), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided that this clause shall not apply in relation to a connected person
referred to in clause (iii) of Explanation I;";
(iv) in clause (g), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided that this clause shall not apply if a preferential transaction,
undervalued transaction, extortionate credit transaction or fraudulent transaction
has taken place prior to the acquisition of the corporate debtor by the resolution
applicant pursuant to a resolution plan approved under this Code or pursuant to
a scheme or plan approved by a financial sector regulator or a court, and such
resolution applicant has not otherwise contributed to the preferential transaction,
undervalued transaction, extortionate credit transaction or fraudulent
transaction;"
(v) in clause (h), —
(a) for the words "an enforceable guarantee", the words "a guarantee" shall be
substituted;
(b) after the words "under this Code", the words "and such guarantee has been
invoked by the creditor and remains unpaid in full or part" shall be inserted;
(vi) in clause (i), for the words "has been", the word "is" shall be substituted;
(vii) the Explanation occurring after clause (j) shall be numbered as
Explanation I, and in Explanation I as so numbered, for the proviso, the following
provisos shall be substituted, namely:—
'Provided that nothing in clause (iii) of Explanation I shall apply to a resolution
applicant where such applicant is a financial entity and is not a related party of
the corporate debtor:
Provided further that the expression "related party" shall not include a financial
entity, regulated by a financial sector regulator, if it is a financial creditor of the
corporate debtor and is a related party of the corporate debtor solely on account
of conversion or substitution of debt into equity shares or instruments convertible
into equity shares, prior to the insolvency commencement date;';
(viii) after Explanation I as so numbered, the following Explanation shall be inserted,
namely:—
'Explanation II—For the purposes of this section, "financial entity" shall mean
the following entities which meet such criteria or conditions as the Central
Government may, in consultation with the financial sector regulator, notify in this
behalf, namely:—
(a) a scheduled bank;
(b) any entity regulated by a foreign central bank or a securities market
regulator or other financial sector regulator of a jurisdiction outside India
which jurisdiction is compliant with the Financial Action Task Force
Standards and is a signatory to the International Organisation of Securities
Commissions Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding;
(c) any investment vehicle, registered foreign institutional investor, registered
foreign portfolio investor or a foreign venture capital investor, where the
terms shall have the meaning assigned to them in regulation 2 of the
Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by a Person
Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2017 made under the Foreign
Exchange Management Act, 1999.
(d) an asset reconstruction company registered with the Reserve Bank of India
under section 3 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial
Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002;
(e) an Alternate Investment Fund registered with the Securities and Exchange
Board of India;
(f) such categories of persons as may be notified by the Central Government.'.
(24) Amendment in section 30: The said section deals with the submission of resolution
plan. Following are the amendments-
(i) in sub-section (1), after the words "resolution plan", the words, figures and letter
"along with an affidavit stating that he is eligible under section 29A" shall be
inserted;
(ii) in sub-section (2),—
(a) in clauses (a) and (b), for the word "repayment" at both the places where it
occurs, the word "payment" shall be substituted;
(b) after clause (f), the following Explanation shall be inserted, namely:—
"Explanation.—For the purposes of clause (e), if any approval of
shareholders is required under the Companies Act, 2013 or any other law
for the time being in force for the implementation of actions under the
resolution plan, such approval shall be deemed to have been given and it
shall not be a contravention of that Act or law.";
(iii) in sub-section (4),—
(a) for the word "seventy-five", the word "sixty-six" shall be substituted;
(b) after the third proviso, the following proviso shall be inserted,
namely:—
"Provided also that the eligibility criteria in section 29A as amended by the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018 shall
apply to the resolution applicant who has not submitted resolution plan as
on the date of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2018."
25. Amendment in section 31 of the principal Act, which deals with the approval of
resolution plan—
(a) in sub-section (1), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
"Provided that the Adjudicating Authority shall, before passing an order for
approval of resolution plan under this sub-section, satisfy that the resolution plan
has provisions for its effective implementation."
(b) after sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall be inserted namely:—
"(4) The resolution applicant shall, pursuant to the resolution plan approved
under sub-section (1), obtain the necessary approval required under any law for
the time being in force within a period of one year from the date of approval of
the resolution plan by the Adjudicating Authority under sub-section (1) or within
such period as provided for in such law, whichever is later:
Provided that where the resolution plan contains a provision for combination, as
referred to in section 5 of the Competition Act, 2002, the resolution applicant
shall obtain the approval of the Competition Commission of India under that Act
prior to the approval of such resolution plan by the committee of creditors."
26. Amendment made in section 33(2) of the principal Act. This section deals with the
initiation of liquidation process. Amendments made is that after the words "d ecision
of the committee of creditors", the words "approved by not less than sixty-six per cent.
of the voting share" shall be inserted.
27. In section 34 of the principal Act, which states of appointment of liquidator and fee
to be paid, following amendments are made—
a. in sub-section (1), for the words and figures "Chapter II shall", the words and
figures "Chapter II shall, subject to submission of a written consent by the
resolution professional to the Adjudicatory Authority in specified form," shall be
substituted;
b. in sub-section (4),—
i. in clause (b), for the words "in writing", the words "in writing; or" shall be
substituted;
ii. after clause (b), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
"(c) the resolution professional fails to submit written consent under sub-
section (1).";
c. in sub-section (5), for the word, brackets and letter "clause (a)", the words,
brackets and letters "clauses (a) and (c)" shall be substituted;
d. in sub-section (6), after the words "another insolvency professional", the words
"along with written consent from the insolvency professional in the specified
form," shall be inserted.
28. In section 42 of the principal Act, which deals with the provisions related to the appeal
against the decision of liquidator, after the words "of the liquidator", the words
"accepting or" shall be inserted.
29. In section 45(1) of the principal Act, which deals with the Avoidance of undervalued
transactions, the words and figures "of section 43" shall be omitted.
(II) Usage of the word “any other person on behalf of the financial creditor, as may be
notified by the Central Government” under section 7(1) of the IBC has been clarified by
notification issued by Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Vide Notification S.O. 1091(E), dated
27th February, 2019, the Central Government hereby notifies following persons who may
file an application for initiating corporate insolvency resolution process against a corporate
debtor before the Adjudicating Authority, on behalf of the financial creditor: -
(i) a guardian;
(ii) an executor or administrator of an estate of a financial creditor;
(iii) a trustee (including a debenture trustee); and
(v) a person duly authorised by the Board of Directors of a Company.
(III) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019
Ministry of Corporate Affairs vide Notification S.O. 2953(E) dated 16th August, 2019, in
exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of section 1 of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019, the Central Government hereby appoints the
date of publication of this notification in the Official Gazette as the date on which the
provisions of the said Act shall come into force.
Following are the relevant amendments:
(i) In section 5(26) pertaining to the definition “resolution plan”, following explanation is
added.
“Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that a resolution plan
may include provisions for the restructuring of the corporate debtor, including by way
of merger, amalgamation and demerger;”
(ii) In section 7(4) of the Code, following proviso shall be inserted:
“Provided that if the Adjudicating Authority has not ascertained the existence of
default and passed an order under sub-section (5) within such time, it shall record its
reasons in writing for the same.”
(iii) In section 12which deals with the Time-limit for completion of insolvency resolution
process. – Following provisos have been added after the proviso to section 3:
“Provided further that the corporate insolvency resolution process shall mandatorily
be completed within a period of three hundred and thirty days from the insolvency
commencement date, including any extension of the period of corporate insolvency
resolution process granted under this section and the time taken in legal proceedings
in relation to such resolution process of the corporate debtor:
Provided also that where the insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor is
pending and has not been completed within the period referred to in the second
proviso, such resolution process shall be completed within a period of ninety days
from the date of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(Amendment) Act, 2019”.
(iv) In section 25A after sub-section 3, following sub-section shall be added:
“(3A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in sub-section (3), the
authorised representative under sub-section (6A) of section 21 shall cast his vote on
behalf of all the financial creditors he represents in accordance with the decision
taken by a vote of more than fifty per cent, of the voting share of the financial creditors
he represents, who have cast their vote:
Provided that for a vote to be cast in respect of an application under section 12 A,
the authorised representative shall cast his vote in accordance with the provisions of
sub-section (3).”
(v) In section 30(2)(b), the following shall be substituted:
(b) provides for the payment of debts of operational creditors in such manner as
may be specified by the Board which shall not be less than—
(i) the amount to be paid to such creditors in the event of a liquidation of the
corporate debtor under section 53; or
(ii) the amount that would have been paid to such creditors, if the amoun t to be
distributed under the resolution plan had been distributed in accordance with the
order of priority in sub-section (1) of section 53,
whichever is higher, and provides for the payment of debts of financial creditors, who
do not vote in favour of the resolution plan, in such manner as may be specified by
the Board, which shall not be less than the amount to be paid to such creditors in
accordance with sub-section (7) of section 53 in the event of a liquidation of the
corporate debtor.
Explanation 1.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that a distribution in
accordance with the provisions of this clause shall be fair and equitable to such
creditors.
Explanation 2.—For the purposes of this clause, it is hereby declared that on and
from the date of commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(Amendment) Act, 2019, the provisions of this clause shall also apply to the corporate
insolvency resolution process of a corporate debtor—
(i) where a resolution plan has not been approved or rejected by the Adjudicating
Authority;
(ii) where an appeal has been preferred under section 61 or section 62 or such an
appeal is not time barred under any provision of law for the time being in force;
or
(iii) where a legal proceeding has been initiated in any court against the decision of
the Adjudicating Authority in respect of a resolution plan;”
(vi) In section 31(1) of the Code, after the words “members, creditors,” the following
words shall be inserted:
“including the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority to
whom a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under any law for the time
being in force, such as authorities to whom statutory dues are owed,”.
(vii) In section 33(2), following explanation shall be added:
“Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, it is hereby declared that the
committee of creditors may take the decision to liquidate the corporate debtor, any
time after its constitution under sub-section (7) of section 21 and before the
confirmation of the resolution plan, including at any time before the preparation of the
information memorandum.”
IV. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2020
Ministry of law and justice notified on 13 th March, 2020, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code (Amendment) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 28th day of December, 2019. With the enforcement of
this Amendment Act, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019
was hereby repealed.
Following are the relevant amendments:
1. In section 5 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (here after referred to as
the principal Act),—
Sl. Amended Law
No.
1. in clause (12), the given proviso-
3
“Provided that where the interim resolution professional is not appointed in
3
Proviso was Ins. by Act No. 26 of 2018, sec. 3 (w.e.f. 6-6-2018)
9. After section 32 of the principal Act, the following section 32A shall be
inserted, namely:—
"32A. (1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Code
or any other law for the time being in force, the liability of a corporate debtor
for an offence committed prior to the commencement of the corporate
insolvency resolution process shall cease, and the corporate debtor shall
not be prosecuted for such an offence from the date the resolution plan
has been approved by the Adjudicating Authority under section 31, if the
resolution plan results in the change in the management or control of the
corporate debtor to a person who was not—
(a) a promoter or in the management or control of the corporate debtor
or a related party of such a person; or
(b) a person with regard to whom the relevant investigating authority has,
on the basis of material in its possession, reason to believe that he
had abetted or conspired for the commission of the offence, and has
submitted or filed a report or a complaint to the relevant statutory
authority or Court:
Provided that if a prosecution had been instituted during the corporate
insolvency resolution process against such corporate debtor, it shall stand
discharged from the date of approval of the resolution plan subject to
requirements of this sub-section having been fulfilled:
Provided further that every person who was a "designated partner" as
defined in clause(j) of section2 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act ,2008, or
an "officer who is in default", as defined in clause (60) of section 2 of the
Companies Act,2013, or was in any manner incharge of, or responsible to
the corporate debt or for the conduct of its business or associated with the
corporate debtor in any manner and who was directly or indirectly involved
in the commission of such offence as per the report submitted or complaint
filed by the investigating authority, shall continue to be liable to be
prosecuted and punished for such an offence committed by the corporate
debtor notwithstanding that the corporate debtor's liability has ceased
under this sub-section.
(2) No action shall be taken against the property of the corporate debtor
in relation to an offence committed prior to the commencement of the corporate
insolvency resolution process of the corporate debtor, where such property
is covered under a resolution plan approved by the Adjudicating Authority
under section 31, which results in the change in control of the corporate
debtor to a person, or sale of liquidation assets under the provisions of
Chapter III of Part II of this Code to a person, who was not—
(a) in the marginal heading, after the word ‘‘directions’’, the words ‘‘and levy
penalty’’ shall be inserted;
(b) section 11B shall be numbered as sub-section (1) thereof and after subsection
(1) as so renumbered, the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
“(2) Without prejudice to the provisions contained in sub-section (1), sub-section
(4A) of section 11 and section 15-I, the Board may, by an order, for reasons to
be recorded in writing, levy penalty under sections 15A, 15B, 15C, 15D, 15E,
15EA, 15EB, 15F, 15G, 15H, 15HA and 15HB after holding an inquiry in the
prescribed manner.’’.
3. In the principal Act, in section 15A which deals with the Penalty for failure to furnish
information, return, etc.,—
(i) in clause (a), after the words “fails to furnish the same”, the words “or who
furnishes or files false, incorrect or incomplete information, return, report, books
or other documents” shall be inserted;
(ii) in clause (b), after the words “furnish the same within the time specified therefor
in the regulations”, the words “or who furnishes or files false, incorrect or
incomplete information, return, report, books or other documents” shall be
inserted.
4. In the principal Act, after section 15E, the following sections shall be inserted,
namely:—
“15EA. Where any person fails to comply with the regulations made by the Board in
respect of alternative investment funds, infrastructure investment trusts and real
estate investment trusts or fails to comply with the directions issued by the Board,
such person shall be liable to penalty which shall not be less than one lakh rupees
but which may extend to one lakh rupees for each day during which such failure
continues subject to a maximum of one crore rupees or three times the amount of
gains made out of such failure, whichever is higher.
15EB. Where an investment adviser or a research analyst fails to comply with the
regulations made by the Board or directions issued by the Board, such investment
adviser or research analyst shall be liable to penalty which shall not be less than one
lakh rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees for each day during which such
failure continues subject to a maximum of one crore rupees.”.
5. In the principal Act, in section 15F which deals with the Penalty for default in case of
stock brokers, in clause (b), for the words “he sponsors or carries on any such
collective investment scheme including mutual funds”, the words “such failure
continues” shall be substituted.
6. In the principal Act, in section 15-I which deals with the Power to adjudicate, in sub-
section (1),—
(i) after the figures and letter “15E,”, the figures and letters “15EA, 15EB,” shall be
inserted;
(ii) for the word “shall” the word “may” shall be substituted.
7. In the principal Act, in section 15J,—
(a) for the marginal heading, the following marginal heading shall be substituted,
namely:— “Factors to be taken into account while adjudging quantum of
penalty.”;
(b) after the words, figures and letter “section 15-I, the adjudicating officer”, the
figures, letters and words “15-I or section 11 or section 11B, the Board or the
adjudicating officer” shall be substituted;
(c) in the Explanation, the words “of an adjudicating officer” shall be omitted.
8. In the principal Act, in section 15JB which deals with the Settlement of administrative
and civil proceedings, after sub-section (4), the following subsection shall be inserted,
namely:—
“(5) All settlement amounts, excluding the disgorgement amount and legal costs,
realised under this Act shall be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.”.
9. In the principal Act, in section 24 which states about the Offences,—
(i) after the words “adjudicating officer” at both the places where they occur, the
words “or the Board” shall be inserted;
(ii) in sub-section (2), the words “of his” shall be omitted.
10. In the principal Act, in section 27 which deals with the Contravention by companies,—
(i) for the marginal heading, the following marginal heading shall be substituted,
namely:— “Contravention by companies.”;
(ii) in sub-section (1), for the words “an offence under this Act,”, the words “a
contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or any rule, regulation, direction
or order made thereunder” shall be substituted;
(iii) for the word “offence”, wherever it occurs, the word “contravention” shall be
substituted. 189. In the principal Act, in section 28A, in sub-section (1), for the
words “by the adjudicating officer”, the words “under this Act” shall be
substituted.
11. In the principal Act, after section 28A which deals with recovery of money, the
following section shall be inserted, namely:—
‘28B. (1) Where a person dies, his legal representative shall be liable to pay any sum
which the deceased would have been liable to pay, if he had not died, in the like
manner and to the same extent as the deceased: Provided that, in case of any penalty
payable under this Act, a legal representative shall be liable only in case the penalty
has been imposed before the death of the deceased person.
(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1),—
(a) any proceeding for disgorgement, refund or an action for recovery before
the Recovery Officer under this Act, except a proceeding for levy of penalty,
initiated against the deceased before his death, shall be deemed to have
been initiated against the legal representative, and may be continued
against the legal representative from the stage at which it stood on the date
of the death of the deceased and all the provisions of this Act shall apply
accordingly;
(b) any proceeding for disgorgement, refund or an action for recovery before
the Recovery Officer under this Act, except a proceeding for levy of penalty,
which could have been initiated against the deceased if he had survived,
may be initiated against the legal representative and all the provisions of
this Act shall apply accordingly.
(3) Every legal representative shall be personally liable for any sum payable by him
in his capacity as legal representative if, while his liability for such sum remains
undischarged, he creates a charge on or disposes of or parts with any assets of
the estate of the deceased, which are in, or may come into, his possession, but
such liability shall be limited to the value of the asset so charged, disposed of or
parted with. Amendment of section 15JB. Amendment of section 24. Amendment
of section 27. Amendment of section 28A. Insertion of new section 28B.
Continuance of proceedings.
(4) The liability of a legal representative under this section shall be limited to the
extent to which the estate of the deceased is capable of meeting the liability.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section “legal representative” means a
person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any
person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party
sues or is sued in a representative character, the person on whom the e state
devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.’.
3. Inserted by Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019, w.e.f. 20-1-2020.
(i) In section 15C of the principal Act, which deals with the Penalty for failure to redress
investors’ grievances after the words "after having been called upon by the Board in
writing", the words "including by any means of electronic communication" shall be
inserted.
(ii) In section 15F of the principal Act, which deals with the Penalty for default in case of
stock brokers in sub-clause (a), after the words "one lakh rupees but which may
extend to", the words "one crore rupees" shall be inserted.
(iii) After section 15HA of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted,
namely:—
‘15HAA. Penalty for alteration destruction, etc., of records and failure to protect the
electronic database of Board
Any person, who—
(a) knowingly alters, destroys, mutilates, conceals, falsifies, or makes a false entry
in any information, record, document (including electronic records), which is
required under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder, so as to
impede, obstruct, or influence the investigation, inquiry, audit, inspection or
proper administration of any matter within the jurisdiction of the Board.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, a person shall be deemed to have
altered, concealed or destroyed such information, record or document, in case
he knowingly fails to immediately report the matter to the Board or fails to
preserve the same till such information continues to be relevant to any
investigation, inquiry, audit, inspection or proceeding, which may be initiated by
the Board and conclusion thereof;
(b) without being authorised to do so, access or tries to access, or denies of access
or modifies access parameters, to the regulatory data in the database;
(c) without being authorised to do so, downloads, extracts, copies, or reproduces in
any form the regulatory data maintained in the system database;
(d) knowingly introduces any computer virus or other computer contaminant into the
system database and brings out a trading halt;
(e) without authorisation disrupts the functioning of system database;
(f) knowingly damages, destroys, deletes, alters, diminishes in value or utility, or
affects by any means, the regulatory data in the system database; or
(g) knowingly provides any assistance to or causes any other person to do any of
the acts specified in clauses (a) to (f), shall be liable to a penalty which shall not
be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to ten crore rupees or three
times the amount of profits made out of such act, whichever is higher.
Explanation.—In this section, the expressions "computer contaminant",
"computer virus" and "damage" shall have the meanings respectively assigned
to them under section 43 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
CHAPTER 21: The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1965
Vide Finance Act, 2018, w.e.f. 8.3.2019 following Changes are made in the SCRA-
(i) In the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (hereafter in this Part referred to as the
principal Act), section 12A shall be numbered as sub-section (1) thereof and after sub-
section (1) as so numbered, the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:-
"(2) Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (1) and section 23-I, the Securities
and Exchange Board of India may, by an order, for reasons to be recorded in writing, levy
penalty under sections 23A, 23B, 23C, 23D, 23E, 23F, 23G, 23GA an d 23H after holding
an inquiry in the prescribed manner.".
(ii) In section 23 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), in the long line, after the words
"Adjudicating officer", the words "or the Securities and Exchange Board of India" shall be
inserted.
(iii) In section 23A of the principal Act, in sub-clause (a), after the words "bye-laws of the
recognised stock exchange", the words "or who furnishes false, incorrect or incomplete
information, document, books, return or report" shall be inserted.
(iv) In section 23E of the principal Act, after the words "mutual fund", the words "or real estate
investment trust or infrastructure investment trust or alternative investment fund", shall be
inserted.
(v) In section 23G of the principal Act, after the words "periodical returns", the words "or
furnishes false, incorrect or incomplete periodical returns" shall be inserted.
(vi) After section 23G of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:-
"23GA. Where a stock exchange or a clearing corporation fails to conduct its business with
its members or any issuer or its agent or any person associated with the securities markets
in accordance with the rules or regulations made by the Securities and Exchange Board of
India and the directions issued by it under this Act, the stock exchange or the clearing
corporations, as the case may be, shall be liable to penalty which shall not be less than
five crore rupees but which may extend to twenty-five crore rupees or three times the
amount of gains made out of such failure, whichever is higher.".
(vii) In section 23-I of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), for the word ''shall'', the word ''may''
shall be substituted.
(viii) In section 23J of the principal Act,-
(a) for the marginal heading, the following marginal heading shall be substituted,
namely:- "Factors to be taken into account while adjudging quantum of penalty.";
(b) for the word, figures and letter "section 23-I" the words, figures and letters "section
12A or section 23-I" shall be substituted.
(c) for the words "the adjudicating officer", the words "the Securities and Exchange Board
of India or the adjudicating officer" shall be substituted.
(ix) In section 23JA of the principal Act, after sub-section (4), the following sub-section shall
be inserted, namely:-
"(5) All settlement amounts, excluding the disgorgement amount and legal costs, realised
under this Act shall be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.".
(x) In section 23JB of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), for the words "by the adjudicating
officer", the words "under this Act" shall be substituted.
(xi) After section 23JB of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:-
'23JC. (1) Where a person dies, his legal representative shall be liable to pay any sum
which the deceased would have been liable to pay, if he had not died, in the like manner
and to the same extent as the deceased: Provided that, in case of any penalty payable
under this Act, a legal representative shall be liable only in case the penalty has been
imposed before the death of the deceased person.
(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1),- (a) any proceeding for disgorgement, refund or
an action for recovery before the Recovery Officer under this Act, except a proceeding for
levy of penalty, initiated against the deceased before his death shall be deemed to have
been initiated against the legal representative, and may be continued against the legal
representative from the stage at which it stood on the date of the death of the deceased
and all the provisions of this Act shall apply accordingly; (b) any proceeding for
disgorgement, refund or an action for recovery before the Recovery Officer under this Act,
except a proceeding for levy of penalty, which could have been initiated against the
deceased if he had survived, may be initiated against the legal representative and all the
provisions of this Act shall apply accordingly.
(3) Every legal representative shall be personally liable for any sum payable by him in
his capacity as legal representative if, while his liability for such sum remains
undischarged, he creates a charge on or disposes of or parts with any assets of the estate
of the deceased, which are in, or may come into, his possession, but such liability shall be
limited to the value of the asset so charged, disposed of or parted with.
(4) The liability of a legal representative under this section shall, be limited to th e extent
to which the estate of the deceased is capable of meeting the liability. Explanation. -For
the purposes of this section ''Legal representative" means a person who in law represents
the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the
estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is sued in a representative character,
the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.'.
(xii) In section 23M of the principal Act,-
(1) after the words "adjudicating officer" at both the places where they occur, the words
"or the Securities and Exchange Board of India" shall be inserted;
(2) in sub-section (2), for the words, "any of his direction or orders" the words "the
direction or order" shall be substituted.
(xiii) In section 24 of the principal Act,-
(a) for the marginal heading, the following marginal heading shall be substituted: -
"Contravention by companies;'';
(b) in sub-section (1), for the words "an offence", the words "a contravention of a ny of
the provisions of this Act or any rule, regulation, direction or order made thereunder"
shall be substituted;
(c) in sub-section (2), for the words ''an offence under this Act'', the words ''a
contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or any rule, regulation, direction or
order made thereunder'' shall be substituted;
(d) for the word "offence", wherever it occurs, the word "contravention" shall be
substituted.
CHAPTER 22: The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
1. Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions)
(Amendment) Regulations, 2019
Reserve Bank of India makes the amendment in the FEM (Permissible Capital Account
Transactions) Regulations, 2000 through the enforcement of the Foreign Exchange
Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) (Amendment) Regulations,
2019 w.e.f. 26-2-2019. Following are the relevant amendments -
(i) In the Para 2 (Definitions) – After the clause (d), clause (da) is added:
“(da) 'Derivative' means a financial contract, to be settled at a future date, whose
value is derived from one or more financial, or non-financial variables.”
(ii) In schedule I (classes of capital account transactions of persons resident in India) of
FEM (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000, for the existing
clause (k), the following shall be substituted:
(b) the limit up to which foreign exchange shall be admissible for such transactions;
(c) any conditions which may be placed on such transactions:
[Provided that the Reserve Bank or the Central Government shall not impose any
restrictions on the drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of
amortisation of loans or for depreciation of direct investments in the ordinary course
of business.
(2A) The Central Government may, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, prescribe —
(a) any class or classes of capital account transactions, not involving debt
instruments, which are permissible;
(b) the limit up to which foreign exchange shall be admissible for such transactions;
and
(c) any conditions which may be placed on such transactions.
(3) [***]
(4) A person resident in India may hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency,
foreign security or any immovable property situated outside India if such curre ncy,
security or property was acquired, held or owned by such person when he was
resident outside India or inherited from a person who was resident outside India.
(5) A person resident outside India may hold, own, transfer or invest in Indian currency,
security or any immovable property situated in India if such currency, security or
property was acquired, held or owned by such person when he was resident in India
or inherited from a person who was resident in India.
(6) Without prejudice to the provisions of this section, the Reserve Bank may, by
regulation, prohibit, restrict, or regulate establishment in India of a branch, office or
other place of business by a person resident outside India, for carrying on any activity
relating to such branch, office or other place of business.
(7) For the purposes of this section, the term "debt instruments" shall mean, such
instruments as may be determined by the Central Government in consultation with
the Reserve Bank.
3. Amendments in External Commercial Borrowings
Vide FED Master Direction No.5/2018-19, amendments have been made in the
Transactions on account of External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) . Here is the updated
master direction –external commercial borrowings.
Within the contours of the Regulations, Reserve Bank of India also issues directions to
Authorised Persons under Section 11 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA),
1999. These directions lay down the modalities as to how the foreign exchange business
has to be conducted by the Authorised Persons with their customers/constituents with a
view to implementing the regulations framed.
Index
Para. Particulars
No.
External Commercial Borrowings Framework
2 Introduction
2.1 External Commercial Borrowings Framework
2.2 Limit and leverage
3 Issuance of Guarantee, etc. by Indian banks and Financial Institutions
4 Parking of ECB proceeds
4.1 Parking of ECB proceeds abroad
4.2 Parking of ECB proceeds domestically
5 Procedure of raising ECB
6 Reporting Requirements
6.1 Loan Registration Number
6.2 Changes in terms and conditions of ECB
6.3 Monthly reporting of actual transactions
6.4 Late Submission Fee for delay in reporting
6.5 Standard Operating Procedure for Untraceable Entities
7 Powers delegated to AD Category I banks to deal with ECB cases
7.1 Change of the AD Category I bank
7.2 Cancellation of LRN
7.3 Refinancing of existing ECB
7.4 Conversion of ECB into equity
7.5 Security for raising ECB
7.6 Additional Requirements
8 Special Dispensations under the ECB framework
8.1 ECB facility for Oil Marketing Companies
8.2 ECB facility for Start-ups
9 Borrowing by Entities under Investigation
10 ECB by entities under restructuring/ ECB facility for refinancing stressed
assets
11 Dissemination of information
12 Compliance with the guidelines
4Inserted vide A.P.(DIR Series) Circular No. 04 dated July 30, 2019.
5
Substituted vide A.P.(DIR Series) Circular No. 04 dated July 30, 2019. Prior to substitution it read as below:
(a) Working capital purposes except from foreign equity holder.
(b) General corporate purposes except from foreign equity holder.
(c) Repayment of Rupee loans except from foreign equity holder.
(d) On-lending to entities for the above activities.
Note: The ECB framework is not applicable in respect of investments in Non -Convertible
Debentures in India made by Registered Foreign Portfolio Investors. 6Lending and
borrowing under the ECB framework by Indian banks and their branches/subsidiaries
outside India will be subject to prudential guidelines issued by the Department of Banking
Regulation of the Reserve Bank. Further, other entities raising ECB are required to follow
the guidelines issued, if any, by the concerned sectoral or prudential regulator.
2.2. Limit and leverage: Under the aforesaid framework, all eligible borrowers can raise ECB
up to USD 750 million or equivalent per financial year under the automatic route. Further,
in case of FCY denominated ECB raised from direct foreign equity holder, ECB liability -
equity ratio for ECB raised under the automatic route cannot exceed 7:1. However, this
ratio will not be applicable if the outstanding amount of all ECB, including the proposed
one, is up to USD 5 million or its equivalent. Further, the borrowing entities will also be
governed by the guidelines on debt equity ratio, issued, if any, by the sectoral or prudential
regulator concerned.
3. Issuance of Guarantee, etc. by Indian banks and Financial Institutions: Issuance of any
type of guarantee by Indian banks, All India Financial Institutions and NBFCs relating to
ECB is not permitted. Further, financial intermediaries (viz., Indian banks, All India
Financial Institutions, or NBFCs) shall not invest in FCCBs/ FCEBs in any manner
whatsoever.
4. Parking of ECB proceeds: ECB proceeds are permitted to be parked abroad as well as
domestically in the manner given below:
4.1 Parking of ECB proceeds abroad: ECB proceeds meant only for foreign currency
expenditure can be parked abroad pending utilisation. Till utilisation, these funds can be
invested in the following liquid assets (a) deposits or Certificate of Deposit or other
products offered by banks rated not less than AA (-) by Standard and Poor/Fitch IBCA or
Aa3 by Moody’s; (b) Treasury bills and other monetary instruments of one-year maturity
having minimum rating as indicated above and (c) deposits with foreign
branches/subsidiaries of Indian banks abroad.
4.2 Parking of ECB proceeds domestically: ECB proceeds meant for Rupee expenditure
should be repatriated immediately for credit to their Rupee accounts with AD Category I
banks in India. ECB borrowers are also allowed to park ECB proceeds in term deposits
with AD Category I banks in India for a maximum period of 12 months cumulatively. These
term deposits should be kept in unencumbered position.
5. Procedure of raising ECB: All ECB can be raised under the automatic route if they
conform to the parameters prescribed under this framework. For approval route cases, the
6 Inserted vide A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 17 dated January 16, 2019.
borrowers may approach the RBI with an application in prescribed format (Form ECB) for
examination through their AD Category I bank. Such cases shall be considered keeping in
view the overall guidelines, macroeconomic situation and merits of the specific proposals.
ECB proposals received in the Reserve Bank above certain threshold limit (refixed from
time to time) would be placed before the Empowered Committee set up by the Reserve
Bank. The Empowered Committee will have external as well as internal members and the
Reserve Bank will take a final decision in the cases taking into account recommendation
of the Empowered Committee. Entities desirous to raise ECB under the automatic route
may approach an AD Category I bank with their proposal along with duly filled in Form
ECB.
6. Reporting Requirements: Borrowings under ECB Framework are subject to following
reporting requirements apart from any other specific reporting required under the
framework:
6.1 Loan Registration Number (LRN): Any draw-down in respect of an ECB should happen
only after obtaining the LRN from the Reserve Bank. To obtain the LRN, borrowers are
required to submit duly certified Form ECB, which also contains terms and conditions of
the ECB, in duplicate to the designated AD Category I bank. In turn, t he AD Category I
bank will forward one copy to the Director, Reserve Bank of India, Department of Statistics
and Information Management, External Commercial Borrowings Division, Bandra -Kurla
Complex, Mumbai – 400 051 (Contact numbers 022-26572513 and 022-26573612).
Copies of loan agreement for raising ECB are not required to be submitted to the Reserve
Bank.
6.2 Changes in terms and conditions of ECB: Changes in ECB parameters in consonance
with the ECB norms, including reduced repayment by mutual agreeme nt between the
lender and borrower, should be reported to the DSIM through revised Form ECB at the
earliest, in any case not later than 7 days from the changes effected. While submitting
revised Form ECB the changes should be specifically mentioned in the communication.
6.3 Monthly Reporting of actual transactions: The borrowers are required to report actual
ECB transactions through Form ECB 2 Return through the AD Category I bank on monthly
basis so as to reach DSIM within seven working days from the close of month to which it
relates.
Changes, if any, in ECB parameters should also be incorporated in Form ECB 2 Return.
6.4 Late Submission Fee (LSF) for delay in reporting:
6.4.1 Any borrower, who is otherwise in compliance of ECB guidelines, can regularise the delay
in reporting of drawdown of ECB proceeds before obtaining LRN or delay in submission of
Form ECB 2 returns, by payment of late submission fees as detailed in the following matrix:
(iii) Applicable pricing guidelines for shares are complied with; [Link] case of partial or full
conversion of ECB into equity, the reporting to the Reserve Bank will be as under:
(a) For partial conversion, the converted portion is to be reported in Form FC -GPR
prescribed for reporting of FDI flows, while monthly reporting to DSIM in Form
ECB 2 Return will be with suitable remarks, viz., "ECB partially converted to
equity".
(b) For full conversion, the entire portion is to be reported in Form FC-GPR, while
reporting to DSIM in Form ECB 2 Return should be done with remarks “ECB fully
converted to equity”. Subsequent filing of Form ECB 2 Return is not required.
(c) For conversion of ECB into equity in phases, reporting through Form FC-GPR
and Form ECB 2 Return will also be in phases.
(iv) If the borrower concerned has availed of other credit facilities from the Indian banking
system, including foreign branches/subsidiaries of Indian banks, the applicable
prudential guidelines issued by the Department of Banking Regulation of Reserve
Bank, including guidelines on restructuring are complied with;
(v) Consent of other lenders, if any, to the same borrower is available or atleast
information regarding conversions is exchanged with other lenders of the borrower.
(vi) For conversion of ECB dues into equity, the exchange rate prevailing on the date of
the agreement between the parties concerned for such conversion or any lesser rate
can be applied with a mutual agreement with the ECB lender. It may be noted that
the fair value of the equity shares to be issued shall be worked out with reference to
the date of conversion only.
7.5. Security for raising ECB: AD Category I banks are permitted to allow
creation/cancellation of charge on immovable assets, movable assets, financial securities
and issue of corporate and/or personal guarantees in favour of overseas lender / security
trustee, to secure the ECB to be raised/ raised by the borrower, subject to satisfying
themselves that:
i. the underlying ECB is in compliance with the extant ECB guidelines,
ii. there exists a security clause in the Loan Agreement requiring the ECB borrower to
create/cancel charge, in favour of overseas lender/security trustee, on immovable
assets/movable assets/financial securities/issuance of corporate and/or personal
guarantee, and
iii. No objection certificate, as applicable, from the existing lenders in India has been
obtained in case of creation of charge.
Once the aforesaid stipulations are met, the AD Category I bank may permit creation
of charge on immovable assets, movable assets, financial securities and issue of
corporate and/or personal guarantees, during the currency of the ECB with security
co-terminating with underlying ECB, subject to the following:
xiii Other Provisions: Other provisions like parking of ECB proceeds, reporting
arrangements, powers delegated to AD banks, borrowing by entities under
investigation, conversion of ECB into equity will be as included in the ECB framework.
However, provisions on leverage ratio and ECB liability: Equity ratio will not be
applicable. Further, the Start-ups as defined above [8.2. (i)] as well as other start-ups
which do not comply with the aforesaid definition but are eligible to receive FDI, can
also raise ECB under the general ECB route/framework.
9. Borrowing by Entities under Investigation: All entities against which investigation /
adjudication / appeal by the law enforcing agencies for violation of any of the provisions of
the Regulations under FEMA pending, may raise ECB as per the applicable norms, if they
are otherwise eligible, notwithstanding the pending investigations / adjudications / appeals,
without prejudice to the outcome of such investigations / adjudications / appeals. The
borrowing entity shall inform about pendency of such investigation / adjudication / appeal
to the AD Category-I bank / RBI as the case may be. Accordingly, in case of all applications
where the borrowing entity has indicated about the pending investigations / adj udications
/ appeals, the AD Category I Banks / Reserve Bank while approving the proposal shall
intimate the agencies concerned by endorsing a copy of the approval letter.
10. ECB by entities under restructuring/ ECB facility for refinancing stressed assets:
10.1 An entity which is under a restructuring scheme/ corporate insolvency resolution process
can raise ECB only if specifically permitted under the resolution plan.
10.2 7Eligible corporate borrowers who have availed Rupee loans domestically for capital
expenditure in manufacturing and infrastructure sector and which have been classified as
SMA-2 or NPA can avail ECB for repayment of these loans under any one time settlement
with lenders. Lender banks are also permitted to sell, through assignment, such loans to
eligible ECB lenders, provided, the resultant external commercial borrowing complies with
all-in-cost, minimum average maturity period and other relevant norms of the ECB
framework. Foreign branches/ overseas subsidiaries of Indian banks are not eligible to
lend for the above purposes. The applicable MAMP will have to be strictly complied with
under all circumstances.
10.3 Eligible borrowers under the ECB framework, who are participating in the Corporate
Insolvency Resolution Process under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 as resolution
applicants, can raise ECB from all recognised lenders, except foreign
branches/subsidiaries of Indian banks, for repayment of Rupee term loans of the target
company. Such ECB will be considered under the approval route, procedure of which is
given at paragraph No. 5 above.
7 Inserted vide A.P.(DIR Series) Circular No. 04 dated July 30, 2019.
markets in which the parties to the combination operate, shall be filed for the purpose
of publishing the same on the website of the Commission.”;
(b) sub-regulation (1B) shall be omitted;
CHAPTER 25: PREVENTION OF MONEY LAUNDERING ACT, 2002
1. Amendment in section 8 vide Finance Act, 2019, w.r.e.f. 20-3-2019.
Sub-section (3) dealing with the computation of period of attachment/ retention of
property / record seized / frozen during investigation, is amended as follows:
(3) Where the Adjudicating Authority decides that any property is involv ed in money-
laundering, he shall, by an order in writing, confirm the attachment of the property made
under section 5(1) or retention of property or record seized or frozen under section 17 or
section 18 and record a finding to that effect, whereupon such attachment or retention or
freezing of the seized or frozen property or record shall—
(a) continue during investigation for a period not exceeding three hundred and sixty-
five days or the pendency of the proceedings relating to any offence under this Act
before a court or under the corresponding law of any other country, before the
competent court of criminal jurisdiction outside India, as the case may be; and
(b) become final after an order of confiscation is passed under sub-section (5) or sub-
section (7) of section 8 or section 58B or sub-section (2A) of section 60 by the Special
Court.
Explanation.—For the purposes of computing the period of three hundred and sixty-
five days under clause (a), the period during which the investigation is stayed by any
court under any law for the time being in force shall be excluded.
2. Insertion of Section 11A vide the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019,
w.e.f. 25-7-2019
Verification of identity by reporting entity.
11A. (1) Every reporting entity shall verify the identity of its clients and the beneficial owner,
by—
(a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other
Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 if the reporting entity is a banking
company; or
(b) offline verification under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other
Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016; or
(c) use of passport issued under section 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other officially valid document or modes of identification as may be notified
by the Central Government in this behalf:
Provided that the Central Government may, if satisfied that a reporting entity other than
banking company, complies with such standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016,
and it is necessary and expedient to do so, by notification, permit such entity to perform
authentication under clause (a):
Provided further that no notification under the first proviso shall be issued without
consultation with the Unique Identification Authority of India established under sub-section
(1) of section 11 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies,
Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 and the appropriate regulator.
(2) If any reporting entity performs authentication under clause (a) of sub-section (1), to
verify the identity of its client or the beneficial owner it shall make the other modes of
identification under clauses (b), (c) and (d) of sub-section (1) also available to such
client or the beneficial owner.
(3) The use of modes of identification under sub-section (1) shall be a voluntary choice
of every client or beneficial owner who is sought to be identified and no client or
beneficial owner shall be denied services for not having an Aadhaar number.
(4) If, for identification of a client or beneficial owner, authentication or offline verification
under clause (a) or clause (b) of sub-section (1) is used, neither his core biometric
information nor his Aadhaar number shall be stored.
(5) Nothing in this section shall prevent the Central Government from notifying additional
safeguards on any reporting entity in respect of verification of the identity of its client
or beneficial owner.
Explanation.—The expressions “Aadhaar number” and “core biometric information” shall
have the same meanings as are respectively assigned to them in clauses (a) and ( j) o f
section 2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and
Services) Act, 2016.’.
3. Amendment in section 12 vide Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019,
w.e.f. 25-7-2019
Clause (c) & (d) of section 12(1) have been omitted by the Aadhaar and Other Laws
(Amendment) Act, 2019, w.e.f. 25-7-2019.
Prior to their omission, clauses (c) and (d) read as under:
"(c) verify the identity of its clients in such manner and subject to such conditions, as may
be prescribed;
(d) identify the beneficial owner, if any, of such of its clients, as may be prescribed;"
(c) It cannot order investigation by SFIO under the provisions of section 212 of the
Companies Act.
(d) It can order investigation by inspectors under section 210 or by SFIO under section
212 of the companies Act.
2. Is Director, SFIO is a competent authority to arrest the directors of DEF Limited, an unlisted
public company?
(a) Yes, Director, SFIO is competent authority to arrest the directors of the unlisted public
company.
(b) Yes, Director, SFIO is competent authority subject to approval of Central
Government.
(c) No, Director, SFIO cannot arrest the directors of the unlisted public company.
(d) Yes, Director, SFIO is competent authority subject to approval of special court to
arrest the directors of the unlisted public company.
3. Is it the duty of the director, SFIO to inform the arrestee the grounds of arrest?
(a) Yes, it is the duty of the director, SFIO to inform the grounds of arrest and as well as
right of arrestee to know the grounds of his arrest.
(b) No, it is not necessary to inform the grounds of arrest.
(c) No, the ground of arrest may be informed, if asked for.
(d) No, it is prerogative of the authority to arrest the accused, there is no need to inform
the grounds of arrest.
4. Within how much time are the arrested directors of DEF Limited required to be produced
before jurisdictional judicial magistrate by the director, SFIO after arrest?
(a) Within 24 hours of such arrest.
(b) Within 48 hours of such arrest.
(c) Within 72 hours of such arrest.
(d) Within 60 hours of such arrest.
5. When do the directors of DEF Limited vacate the office of director in the company?
(a) On the date when the directors were arrested by the SFIO.
(b) On the date when the charge sheet was submitted in the court by the SFIO.
(c) On the date when the directors were arrested and produced before jurisdictional
Judicial Magistrate.
(d) On the date when the directors were convicted by the Special Court.
Considering the given situation, examine whether Appeal to be filed before the Supreme
Court will be admissible?
19. 'X' Stock Exchange Limited was granted recognition by Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI). The stock brokers of the Stock Exchange did not pay much heed to the
concept of governance and focused on increasing their wealth and snubbed the protection
of investors. Their activities were against the interest of the trade and general public.
Examine whether the SEBI has the power to withdraw the recognition granted to 'X' Stock
Exchange Limited under the provisions of Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act, 1956?
Whether a person can be a member of an unrecognized Stock Exchange for the purpose
of performing any contracts in Securities?
20. The Income Tax Authorities in the current financial year 2019-20 observed, during the
assessment proceedings, a need to re-open the accounts of Chetan Ltd. for the financial
year 2008-09 and, therefore, filed an application before the National Company Law
Tribunal (NCLT) to issue the order to Chetan Ltd. for re-opening of its accounts and
recasting the financial statements for the financial year 2008-09. Examine the validity of
the application filed by the Income Tax Authorities to NCLT.
21. Mr. Kunal used his car for smuggling cash and for other illegal activities. On trial before
the Special Court, it was found that an offence of money laundering was committed by Mr.
'Kunal'. Also found that the car was under hypothecation to a Bank for the car loan
obtained. Referring to provisions of the PMLA, 2002, examine whether the car can be
confiscated in the light of the given situation?
22. Quality Rubber Limited, a supplier of raw materials filed a petition before the NCLT for the
recovery of ` 10,00,000 against Smart Latex Limited. Smart Latex Limited, the Corporate
Debtor, has other financial creditors to the extent of ` 1,50,00,000 and they also joined
together and filed petitions to NCLT. The Corporate Debtor has a total of 40 financial
creditors and 2 operational creditors. Further, all the financial creditors are having equal
voting rights/shares.
Notice was issued on 1 st August, 2019 for the conduct of the first meeting to be held on 5 th
August, 2019 at a common venue. The meeting was attended by all 40 financial creditors
and 2 operational creditors. A resolution was passed to appoint Mr. Naveen as a Resolution
Professional. 25 of the financial creditors voted in favour of the resolution and 10 voted
against the resolution and 5 financial creditors and 2 operational creditors abstained from
voting.
Decide in terms of the given information whether the resolution passed to appoint Mr.
Naveen is valid? In the light of the provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
read with rules framed thereunder, explain the requirements of valid quorum for the
conduct of the meeting.
23. Referring to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, state the kind
of approval required for the following transactions:
(i) M requires U.S. $ 5,000 for remittance towards hire charges of transponders.
(ii) P requires U.S. $ 2,000 for payment related to call back services of telephones.
24. Mr. Ramesh Kulkarni conducts private tuition classes from his residence. It was alleged by
the Enforcement Directorate that Mr. Kulkarni has under reported his income and collected
income in tax and used the proceeds to purchase a house property in Marol, Mumbai. The
ED officers through written orders provisionally attached the properties on suspicion of it
being derived from the proceeds of crime. Comment on the validity of the provisional
attachment on the order issued by the ED officers.
SUGGESTED ANSWERS/HINTS
exceed 5% of the net profits of the company and if there is more than one such
director then remuneration shall not exceed 10% of the net profits to all such directors
and manager taken together.
In the present case, since the International Technologies Limited is being managed
by a Managing Director, the commission at the rate of 5% of the net profit to Mr.
Kamal, the Managing Director is allowed and no approval of company in general
meeting is required.
(ii) The directors other than the Managing Director are proposed to be paid monthly
remuneration of ` 50,000 and also commission at the rate of 1 % of net profits of the
company subject to the condition that overall remuneration payable to ordinary
directors including monthly remuneration payable to each of them shall not exceed 2
% of the net profits of the company. Part (ii) of the Second Proviso to Section 197(1)
provides that except with the approval of the company in general meeting by a special
resolution, the remuneration payable to directors who are neither managing directors
nor whole time directors shall not exceed-
(A) 1% of the net profits of the company, if there is a managing or whole -time
director or manager;
(B) 3% of the net profits in any other case.
In the present case, the maximum remuneration allowed to directors other than
managing or whole-time director is 1% of the net profits of the company because the
company is managed by a managing director. Hence, if the company wants to fix
directors’ remuneration at not more than 2% of the net profits of the company, the
approval of the company in general meeting is required by passing a special
resolution.
18. According to Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013, any person aggrieved by an order
of the Appellate Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the Supreme Court.
Every appeal shall be filed within a period of 60 days from the date on which a copy of the
order of the Appellate Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved and shall be in
such form, and accompanied by such fees, as may be prescribed.
Supreme Court may entertain an appeal even after the expiry of the said period of 60 days
from the date aforesaid, but within a further period not exceeding 60 days, if it is satisfied
that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within period.
In above case, since Mr. Rama even aggrieved by an order of Appellate Tribunal desires
to fill an application before Supreme Court on 30 th October 2020. But as Supreme Court
can entertain appeal only upto 60 days + 60 Days (Extension if sufficient cause). Since
this appeal was to be filled beyond 120 days by Mr. Rama, so, appeal to be filed before
the Supreme Court will not be admissible.
19. (i) Section 5(1) of the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act, 1956 states that if the
Central Government/ SEBI is of the opinion that the recognition granted to a stock
exchange under the provisions of this Act, should, in the interest of the trade or in
the public interest, be withdrawn, the Central Government or SEBI may serve on the
governing body of the stock exchange, a written notice that the Central Government
or SEBI is considering the withdrawal of the recognition for the reasons stated in the
notice and after giving an opportunity to the governing body to be heard in the matter,
the Central Government/SEBI may withdraw the recognition granted to the stock
exchange.
Thus, Central Government or SEBI can withdraw the recognition of ‘X’ Stock
Exchange Limited on the grounds that their activities were against the interest of the
trade and general public.
(ii) As per section 19 of the Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act, 1956, no person shall
organise or assist in organising or be a member of any stock exchange (other than a
recognised stock exchange) for the purpose of assisting in, entering into or
performing any contracts in securities, except with the approval of Central
Government or SEBI.
Hence, no person can be a member of an unrecognised Stock exchange for the
purpose of performing any contracts in Securities, except with the approval of Central
Government or SEBI.
20. As per section 130 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company shall not re -open its books of
account and not recast its financial statements, unless an application in this regard is made
by the Central Government, the Income-tax authorities, the Securities and Exchange
Board, any other statutory body or authority or any person concerned and an order is made
by a court of competent jurisdiction or the Tribunal to the effect that—
the relevant earlier accounts were prepared in a fraudulent manner; or
the affairs of the company were mismanaged during the relevant period, casting a doubt
on the reliability of financial statements:
However, no order shall be made in respect of re-opening of books of account relating to
a period earlier than eight financial years immediately preceding the current financial year.
In the given instance, an application was filed for re-opening and re-casting of the financial
statements of Chetan Ltd. for the financial year 2008-2009.
Though application filed by the Income Tax Authorities to NCLT is valid, its
recommendation for reopening and recasting of financial statements for the period earlier
than eight financial years immediately preceding the current financial year i.e. 2019-2020,
is invalid.
23. Under section 5 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, and Rules relating
thereto, some current account transactions require prior approval of the Central
Government, some others require the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of India, some
are free transactions and some others are prohibited transactions. Accordingly,
(i) It is a current account transaction, where M is required to take approval of the Central
Government for drawal of foreign exchange for remittance of hire charges of
transponders.
(ii) Withdrawal of foreign exchange for payment related to call back services of telephone
is a prohibited transaction. Hence, Mr. P will not succeed in acquiring US $ 2,000 for
the said purpose.
24. As per Section 5(5) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the Director or any
other officer who provisionally attaches any property under sub-section (1) shall, within a
period of thirty days from such attachment, file a complaint stating the facts of such
attachment before the Adjudicating Authority.
As per Section 8(4) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, where the
provisional order of attachment made under sub-section (1) of section 5 has been
confirmed under sub-section (3), the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this
behalf shall forthwith take the possession of the property attached under section 5 or frozen
under sub-section (lA) of section 17, in such manner as may be prescribed. Accordingly
the Director is to file a petition with the Adjudicating Authority within 30 days of attachment.
After order of attachment is confirmed, the Director take possession of the attached
property.