WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS (APCS) IS CRITICAL IN

UPTAKE AND PRESENTATION OF ANTIGEN TO T CELLS?[Which of the following types of

antigen-presenting cells (APCs) is critical in uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells?]
A) Macrophage
B) Dendritic cell
C) B cell
ANSWER: B
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TRANSMEMBRANE GLYCOPROTEIN THAT SERVES AS A CO-
RECEPTOR FOR THE T CELL RECEPTOR (TCR), AND IS ALSO KNOWN AS A CYTOTOXIC T CELL
(CTL)?[Which of the following is a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor
for the T cell receptor (TCR), and is also known as a cytotoxic T cell (CTL)?]
A) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
B) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
C) Plasma cells (activated B cells
ANSWER: B
Which of the following does NOT protect body surfaces:
A) Skin.
B) Mucus
C) Gastric acid
D) Salivary amylase
E) Gut microflora.
ANSWER: D
The TLR9 pattern recognition receptor recognises:
A) CpG motifs.
B) Gram +ve peptidoglycan
C) Mycobacterial lipoarabinomannan
D) Gram –ve LPS.
E) dsRNA.
ANSWER: A
Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) include
A) LPS
B) PAMPs.
C) Lipoteichoic acid
D) Lectin-like molecules.
E) Unmethylated CpG sequences
ANSWER: D
The mononuclear phagocyte system does not include:
A) Monocytes.
B) Is a bone marrow stem cell.
C) Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules.
D) Has granules which stain with eosin.
ANSWER: C
A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN):
A) Is a bone marrow stem cell
B) Is closely similar to a mast cell.
C) Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules.
D) Has granules which stain with eosin
E) Is not a professional phagocytic cell.
ANSWER: C
Which of the following is not produced following activation of the NADPH oxidase
microbicidal pathway
A) O2 –
B) O2
C) H2O2
D) NO
E) OH
ANSWER: D
Neutrophil defensins are:
A) Anti-toxins.
B) Oxygen-dependent.
C) Enzymes
D) Glycolipids
E) Peptide antibiotics
ANSWER: E
Which of the following is NOT an acute phase protein:
A) Serum amyloid P component.
B) Chondroitin sulfate
C) C-reactive protein.
D) Mannose binding lectin
E) Fibrinogen
ANSWER: B
Lysozyme
A) Is a cytoplasmic organelle.
B) Activates complement.
C) Is a proteolytic enzyme.
D) Splits peptidoglycan
E) Is released by mast cells.
ANSWER: D
Acute inflammation characteristically involves:
A) Constriction of arterioles.
B) Capillary endothelial cell enlargement
C) Influx of macrophages
D) Influx of mast cells.
E) Influx of neutrophils
ANSWER: E
What stage of an adaptive immune response involves secretion of antibody from a large
plasma cell with extensive endoplasmic reticulum?'[What stage of an adaptive immune
response involves secretion of antibody from a large plasma cell with extensive endoplasmic
reticulum?']
A) Cognitive phase
B) Activation phase
C) Effector phase
ANSWER: C
Natural killer (NK) cells do not:
A) Respond to interferon
B) Contain perforin
C) Contain tumor necrosis factor (TNF).
D) Kill only by damaging the target cell outer membrane
E) Contain serine proteases
ANSWER: D
Acute inflammation can be initiated by
A) Mast cell activation
B) Influx of neutrophils
C) An increase in vascular permeability
D) C3.
E) Lysozyme
ANSWER: A
Interferons
A) Induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell.
B) Are divided into 5 main families
C) Are found only in mammalian species
D) Only affect infected cells
E) Are specific for individual viruses
ANSWER: A
Eosinophils do not:
A) Stain with basic dyes.
B) Contain a major basic protein.
C) Contain peroxidase.
D) Give a respiratory burst on activation
E) Have C3b receptors.
ANSWER: A
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils attack bacteria
A) Exclusively by oxygen-dependent mechanisms.
B) Exclusively by oxygen-independent mechanisms.
C) By phagocytosis
D) By secreting complement
E) By secreting interferon
ANSWER: C
A plasma cell secretes:
A) Antibody of a single specificity related to that on the surface of the parent B-cell
B) Antibody of two antigen specificities
C) The antigen it recognizes
D) Many different types of antibody
E) Lysozyme
ANSWER: A
Specific antibodies are readily detectable in serum following primary contact with antigen
after
A) 10 min
B) 1 h
C) 5–7 days
D) 3–5 weeks
E) Only following a second contact with antigen
ANSWER: C
Plasma cells:
A) Have a thin layer of cytoplasm
B) Are derived from T-cells
C) Develop into B-cells
D) Secrete large amounts of gamma interferon
E) Have a highly developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
ANSWER: E
Clonal selection occurs when antigen is encountered by:
A) Neutrophils
B) Mast cells
C) T-cells
D) Basophils
E) Eosinophils
ANSWER: C
Several of the complement components are:
A) Glycolipids
B) Cytokines
C) Enzymes
D) Hormones
E) Antibodies
ANSWER: C
Match the stage of an adaptive (acquired) immune response with the description:
Recognition of antigen[Match the stage of an adaptive (acquired) immune response with the
description: Recognition of antigen]
A) Cognitive phase
B) Activation phase
C) Effector phase
ANSWER: A
T CELLS ARE MADE IN THE____ AND COMPLETE THEIR DIFFERENTIATION IN THE____.[T cells
are made in the____ and complete their differentiation in the____.]
A) Spleen; Thyroid
B) Spleen; Thymus
C) Bone marrow; Thyroid
D) Bone marrow; Thymus
E) Bone marrow; Thalamus
ANSWER: D
MATCH THE FOLLOWING INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM CELL TYPES WITH THEIR
FUNCTION: TISSUE MAST CELLS[Match the following innate immune system cell types with
their function: Tissue mast cells]
A) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen presentation
B) Lysis of some virally infected cells
C) Killing parasites
D) Release of histamine and other mediators
E) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms
ANSWER: A
MATCH THE STAGE OF AN ADAPTIVE (ACQUIRED) IMMUNE RESPONSE WITH THE
DESCRIPTION: PROLIFERATION OF CELLS WITH MATCHING RECEPTORS[Match the stage of an
adaptive (acquired) immune response with the description: Proliferation of cells with
matching receptors]
A) Cognitive phase
B) Activation phase
C) Effector phase
ANSWER: B
MATCH THE STAGE OF AN ADAPTIVE (ACQUIRED) IMMUNE RESPONSE WITH THE
DESCRIPTION: EVENTUAL ELIMINATION OF ANTIGEN[Match the stage of an adaptive
(acquired) immune response with the description: Eventual elimination of antigen]
A) Cognitive phase
B) Activation phase
C) Effector phase
ANSWER: C
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MAJOR FEATURE (CHARACTERISTIC) OF THE ADAPTIVE
IMMUNE SYSTEM?[Which of the following is NOT a major feature (characteristic) of the
adaptive immune system?]
A) Specificity
B) Diversity
C) Memory
D) Improvement
E) Speed
ANSWER: E
AN INDIVIDUAL IS BITTEN BY A DOG WITH RABIES AND BEGINS TO DEVELOP ANTIBODIES
AGAINSTTHE RABIES. THESE ANTIBODIES ARE HARVESTED AND TRANSFERRED TO
UNIMMUNIZED INDIVIDUALS TOCONFER PROTECTION MORE RAPIDLY FOR THESE
INDIVIDUALS. THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF:[An individual is bitten by a dog with rabies and begins
to develop antibodies againstthe rabies. These antibodies are harvested and transferred to
unimmunized individuals toconfer protection more rapidly for these individuals. This is an
example of:]
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Autoimmunity
ANSWER: B
MATCH THE FOLLOWING INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM CELL TYPES WITH THEIR
FUNCTION: NEUTROPHILS[Match the following innate immune system cell types with their
function: Neutrophils]
A) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen presentation
B) Killing parasites
C) Release of histamine and other mediators
D) Release of histamine and other mediators
ANSWER: A
Which of the following does NOT protect body surfaces
A) Skin
B) Mucus
C) Gastric acid.
D) Salivary amylase
E) Gut microflora.
ANSWER: D
IN A RESTING LYMPHOCYTE, B CELLS AND T CELLS CAN BE DISTINGUISHED FROM EACH
OTHER VIA A SIMPLE BLOOD SMEAR.[In a resting lymphocyte, B cells and T cells can be
distinguished from each other via a simple blood smear.]
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
ANSWER: B
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A GLYCOPROTEIN EXPRESSED ON THE SURFACE OF T HELPER
CELLS, REGULATORY T CELLS, MONOCYTES, MACROPHAGES, AND DENDRITIC CELLS?[Which
of the following is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, regulatory T
cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells?]
A) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
B) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
C) Plasma cells (activated B cells)
ANSWER: A
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PRODUCE LARGE AMOUNTS OF ANTIBODIES (IGS) AND
DIFFERENTIATE UPON STIMULATION FROM CD4+ CELLS?[Which of the following produce
large amounts of antibodies (Igs) and differentiate upon stimulation from CD4+ cells?]
A) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4+)
B) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8+)
C) Plasma cells (activated B cells
ANSWER: C
HOW MANY DOSES OF THE HEPATITIS B VACCINE (5ΜG HBSAG IN 0.5ML INTRAMUSCULAR)
ARE REQUIRED TO REACH A PROTECTIVE LEVEL OF ANTIBODY?[How many doses of the
Hepatitis B vaccine (5µg HBsAg in 0.5mL intramuscular) are required to reach a protective
level of antibody?]
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
ANSWER: C
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF ANTIGEN PRESENTING CELLS (APCS) IS SPECIALIZED
FOR DEGRADATION AND PRESENTATION OF PARTICULATE ANTIGENS TO T CELLS?[Which of
the following types of antigen presenting cells (APCs) is specialized for degradation and
presentation of particulate antigens to T cells?]
A) Macrophage
B) Dendritic cell
C) B cell
ANSWER: A
HUMORAL IMMUNITY IS MEDIATED BY ANTIBODIES FROM____ AND IS INVOLVED IN THE
ELIMINATION OF____ PATHOGENS. CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY IS MEDIATED BY____ AND IS
INVOLVED IN THE ELIMINATION OF____ PATHOGENS.[Humoral immunity is mediated by
antibodies from____ and is involved in the elimination of____ pathogens. Cell-mediated
immunity is mediated by____ and is involved in the elimination of____ pathogens.]
A) B lymphocytes; Intracellular; T lymphocytes; Extracellular
B) B lymphocytes; Extracellular; T lymphocytes; Intracellular
C) T lymphocytes; Intracellular; B lymphocytes; Extracellular
D) T lymphocytes; Extracellular; B lymphocytes; Intracellular
ANSWER: B
MATCH THE FOLLOWING INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM CELL TYPES WITH THEIR
FUNCTION: EOSINOPHILS[MATCH THE FOLLOWING INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM CELL TYPES
WITH THEIR FUNCTION: EOSINOPHILS]
A) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen presentation
B) Lysis of some virally infected cells
C) Killing parasites
D) Release of histamine and other mediators
E) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms
ANSWER: C
MATCH THE FOLLOWING INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM CELL TYPES WITH THEIR
FUNCTION: NATURAL KILLER CELLS[Match the following innate immune system cell types
with their function: Natural killer cells]
A) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms, antigen presentation
B) Lysis of some virally infected cells
C) Killing parasites
D) Release of histamine and other mediators
E) Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms
ANSWER: B
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS (APCS) HAS
IMMUNOGLOBULIN THAT FUNCTIONS AS A RECEPTOR, THEN THE ANTIGEN IS INTERNALIZED,
DEGRADED, AND PRESENTED TO T CELLS?[Which of the following types of antigen-presenting
cells (APCs) has immunoglobulin that functions as a receptor, then the antigen is
internalized, degraded, and presented to T cells?]
A) Macrophage
B) Dendritic cell
C) B cell
ANSWER: C
FROM THE FOLLOWING, IDENTIFY A SPECIFIC COMPONENT OF THE ADAPTIVE IMMUNE
SYSTEM THAT IS FORMED IN RESPONSE TO ANTIGENIC STIMULATION
A) Lysozyme
B) Complement
C) Commensal organisms
D) Immunoglobulin
ANSWER: D
WHICH TWO ORGANS ARE CONSIDERED THE PRIMARY LYMPHOID ORGANS IN WHICH
IMMUNOCOMPETENT CELLS ORIGINATE AND MATURE
A) Thyroid and Peyer’s patches
B) Thymus and bone marrow
C) Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
D) Lymph nodes and thoracic duct
ANSWER: B
WHAT TYPE OF B CELLS ARE FORMED AFTER ANTIGEN STIMULATION?
A) Plasma cells and memory B cells
B) Mature B cells
C) Antigen-dependent B cells
D) Receptor-activated B cells
ANSWER: A
T CELLS TRAVEL FROM THE BONE MARROW TO THE THYMUS FOR MATURATION. WHAT IS
THE CORRECT ORDER OF THE MATURATION SEQUENCE FOR T CELLS IN THE THYMUS?
A) Bone marrow to the cortex; after thymic education, released back to peripheral circulation
B) Maturation and selection occur in the cortex; migration to the medulla; release of mature
T cells to secondary lymphoid organs
C) Storage in either the cortex or medulla; release of T cells into the peripheral circulation
D) Activation and selection occur in the medulla; mature T cells are stored in the cortex until
activated by antigen
ANSWER: B
WHICH CLUSTER OF DIFFERENTIATION (CD) MARKER APPEARS DURING THE FIRST STAGE OF
T-CELL DEVELOPMENT AND REMAINS PRESENT AS AN IDENTIFYING MARKER FOR T CELLS?
A) CD1
B) CD2
C) CD3
D) CD4 or CD8
ANSWER: B
WHICH MARKERS ARE FOUND ON MATURE, PERIPHERALHELPER T CELLS?
A) CD1, CD2, CD4
B) CD2, CD3, CD8
C) CD1, CD3, CD4
D) CD2, CD3, CD4
ANSWER: D
WHICH T CELL EXPRESSES THE CD8 MARKER AND ACTS SPECIFICALLY TO KILL TUMOURS OR
VIRALLY INFECTED CELLS?
A) Helper T
B) T suppressor
C) T cytotoxic
D) T inducer/suppressor
ANSWER: C
HOW ARE CYTOTOXIC T CELLS (TC CELLS) AND NATURAL KILLER (NK) CELLS SIMILAR?
A) Require antibody to be present
B) Effective against virally infected cells
C) Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markersII markers
D) Do not bind to infected cells
ANSWER: B
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE PROCESS BY WHICH PHAGOCYTIC CELLS ARE ATTRACTED TO A
SUBSTANCE SUCH AS A BACTERIAL PEPTIDE?
A) Diapedesis
B) Degranulation
C) Chemotaxis
D) Phagotaxis
ANSWER: C
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE IMMUNOLOGIC FUNCTIONS OF COMPLEMENT _EXCEPT_:
A) Induction of an antiviral state
B) Opsonization
C) Chemotaxis
D) Anaphylatoxin formation
ANSWER: A
which disease attacks the thyroid gland in the neck, causing it to produce too much of its
hormones.
A) Graves' disease
B) type I diabetes
C) Hashimoto's thyroditis
D) Addison's disease
ANSWER: A
which sample is not suitable with RPR test?
A) non centrifuged plasma
B) serum
C) centrifuged plasma
D) serum preserved at -20 C
ANSWER: A
which sample is not suitable with RPR test?
A) non centrifuged plasma
B) fresh serum
C) centrifuged plasma
D) serum preserved at -20 C
ANSWER: A
a definite clumping of the particles in RPR test is reported as following:
A) reactive (R)
B) positive
C) non reactive (N)
D) Negative
ANSWER: A
the type of particles that are used with RPR test is:
A) charcoal particles
B) polystyrene latex particles
C) Bentonite particles
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: A
the RPR test is:
A) specific/treponemal test
B) specific/non treponemal test
C) nonspecific/non treponemal test
D) nonspecific/treponemal test
ANSWER: C
RPR test is used for diagnosis of:
A) syphilis disease
B) Treponema pallidum infection
C) antibodies against Fc part of immunoglobulins
D) both i and ii are correct
ANSWER: D
anti striptolysin O (ASO) is:
A) antibodies produced by group A streptococci
B) antibodies produced by patient infected with streptococci
C) hemolytic toxin produced by group A, C and G streptococci
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: B
high levels of CRP are found in:
A) burns
B) viral infections
C) bacterial infections
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D
one of the following is not a latex agglutination test:
A) C reactive protein
B) antibodies to streptococcus antigens (ASO)
C) blood grouping test
D) rheumatoid factor test
ANSWER: C
which one represent passive agglutination?
A) blood grouping test
B) Widal test
C) rheumatoid factor test (RF
D) none of the above
ANSWER: C
which one represent passive agglutination?
A) blood grouping test
B) Widal test
C) rheumatoid factor test (RF
D) none of the above
ANSWER: C
which one is a limitation for Hybride vaccines with live viral vectors:
A) Repeated administration not possible
B) Relatively high cost
C) Low immunogenicity
D) Instability (termolabile)
ANSWER: A
which one is a limitation for Hybride vaccines with live viral vectors:
A) Repeated administration not possible
B) Relatively high cost
C) Low immunogenicity
D) Instability (termolabile)
ANSWER: A
antisera (antitoxins) is:
A) passive natural immunization
B) passive artificial immunization
C) active natural immunization
D) active artificial immunization
ANSWER: B
which disease cause the immune system to attacks the joints
A) type I diabetes
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) psoriasis
D) lupus
ANSWER: B
Hashimoto's thyroiditis belong to:
A) Type II hypersensitivity
B) Type III hypersensitivity
C) Type I hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
ANSWER: A
the hypersensitivity reaction that takes two to three days to develop is called:
A) cell mediated hypersensitivity
B) immune complex disease
C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) immediate hypersensitivity
ANSWER: A
Predominant Ig in serum/secretions respectively:
A) IgG/IgA
B) IgG/IgE
C) IgA/IgG
D) IgM/IgG
ANSWER: A
which antibodies lack hinge region?
A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) a and b are both correct
ANSWER: D
which drugs are NOT used in treatment of autoimmune diseases
A) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B) immune-suppressing drugs
C) antibiotics
D) ibuprofen
ANSWER: C
which disease is characterized by patches of the skin losing their pigment.
A) celiac disease
B) vitiligo disease
C) Scleroderma disease
D) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
ANSWER: B
which disease is characterized by patches of the skin losing their pigment.
A) celiac disease
B) vitiligo disease
C) Scleroderma disease
D) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
ANSWER: B
which disease affects the adrenal glands
A) Graves' disease
B) type I diabetes
C) Hashimoto's thyroditis
D) Addison's disease
ANSWER: D
which Fc cell receptor is responsible of Transport of maternal IgG to fetus:
A) poly IgR
B) FcRN
C) FcaR
D) none of the above
ANSWER: B
which disease attacks the thyroid gland in the neck, causing it to produce too much of its
hormones.
A) Graves' disease
B) type I diabetes
C) Hashimoto's thyroditis
D) Addison's disease
ANSWER: A
which sample is not suitable with RPR test?
A) non centrifuged plasma
B) serum
C) centrifuged plasma
D) serum preserved at -20 C
ANSWER: A
which sample is not suitable with RPR test?
A) non centrifuged plasma
B) fresh serum
C) centrifuged plasma
D) serum preserved at -20 C
ANSWER: A
a definite clumping of the particles in RPR test is reported as following:
A) reactive (R)
B) positive
C) non reactive (N)
D) Negative
ANSWER: A
the type of particles that are used with RPR test is:
A) charcoal particles
B) polystyrene latex particles
C) Bentonite particles
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: A
the RPR test is:
A) specific/treponemal test
B) specific/non treponemal test
C) nonspecific/non treponemal test
D) nonspecific/treponemal test
ANSWER: C
RPR test is used for diagnosis of:
A) syphilis disease
B) Treponema pallidum infection
C) antibodies against Fc part of immunoglobulins
D) both i and ii are correct
ANSWER: D
anti striptolysin O (ASO) is:
A) antibodies produced by group A streptococci
B) antibodies produced by patient infected with streptococci
C) hemolytic toxin produced by group A, C and G streptococci
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: B
high levels of CRP are found in:
A) burns
B) viral infections
C) bacterial infections
D) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D
one of the following is not a latex agglutination test:
A) C reactive protein
B) antibodies to streptococcus antigens (ASO)
C) blood grouping test
D) rheumatoid factor test
ANSWER: C
which one represent passive agglutination?
A) blood grouping test
B) Widal test
C) rheumatoid factor test (RF
D) none of the above
ANSWER: C
which one represent passive agglutination?
A) blood grouping test
B) Widal test
C) rheumatoid factor test (RF
D) none of the above
ANSWER: C
which one is a limitation for Hybride vaccines with live viral vectors:
A) Repeated administration not possible
B) Relatively high cost
C) Low immunogenicity
D) Instability (termolabile)
ANSWER: A
which one is a limitation for Hybride vaccines with live viral vectors:
A) Repeated administration not possible
B) Relatively high cost
C) Low immunogenicity
D) Instability (termolabile)
ANSWER: A
antisera (antitoxins) is:
A) passive natural immunization
B) passive artificial immunization
C) active natural immunization
D) active artificial immunization
ANSWER: B
which disease cause the immune system to attacks the joints
A) type I diabetes
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) psoriasis
D) lupus
ANSWER: B
Hashimoto's thyroiditis belong to:
A) Type II hypersensitivity
B) Type III hypersensitivity
C) Type I hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
ANSWER: A
the hypersensitivity reaction that takes two to three days to develop is called:
A) cell mediated hypersensitivity
B) immune complex disease
C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) immediate hypersensitivity
ANSWER: A
Predominant Ig in serum/secretions respectively:
A) IgG/IgA
B) IgG/IgE
C) IgA/IgG
D) IgM/IgG
ANSWER: A
which antibodies lack hinge region?
A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) a and b are both correct
ANSWER: D
which drugs are NOT used in treatment of autoimmune diseases
A) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B) immune-suppressing drugs
C) antibiotics
D) ibuprofen
ANSWER: C
which disease is characterized by patches of the skin losing their pigment.
A) celiac disease
B) vitiligo disease
C) Scleroderma disease
D) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
ANSWER: B
which disease is characterized by patches of the skin losing their pigment.
A) celiac disease
B) vitiligo disease
C) Scleroderma disease
D) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
ANSWER: B
which disease affects the adrenal glands
A) Graves' disease
B) type I diabetes
C) Hashimoto's thyroditis
D) Addison's disease
ANSWER: D
which Fc cell receptor is responsible of Transport of maternal IgG to fetus:
A) poly IgR
B) FcRN
C) FcaR
D) none of the above
ANSWER: B
an agglutination reaction that employs particles that are coated with antigens not normally
found in the cell surfacethis is the definition of:
A) slide agglutination
B) passive agglutination
C) indirect agglutination
D) both ii and iii are correct
ANSWER: D
an agglutination reaction that employs particles that are coated with antigens not normally
found in the cell surfacethis is the definition of:
A) slide agglutination
B) passive agglutination
C) indirect agglutination
D) both ii and iii are correct
ANSWER: D
The first production of live but non-virulent forms of chicken cholera bacillus was achieved
by:
A) Pasteur
B) Salk
C) Jenner
D) Montague
E) Sabin
ANSWER: A