ANATOMY

1. The structure which does not develop from the First Mandibular Arch is:
A. Incus
B. Malleus
C. Meckel’s cartilage
D. Spheno mandibular ligament
E. Stapes
2. Ureter is narrow at the following points except:
A. Pelvic brim
B. Pelvic ureteric junction
C. Where it crosses the genito femoral junction
D. Where it lies on psoas
E. Where it passes through the bladder
3. The source which does not contribute to the development of diaphragm is
a. Cervical myotomes
b. Oesophageal mesentery
c. Pleuropericardial membranes
d. Pleuroperitoneal membranes
e. Septum transversum
4. PDA is the persistent part of the left
A. 4th arch
B. 5th arch
C. 6th arch
D. Dorsal aorta
E. Ventral aorta
5. Neural crest does not contribute to the development of
a. Schwann’s cells
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Autonomic ganglion
d. Neuroglia
e. Posterior root ganglion
6. The absorptive surface area of small intestine in normal adult is about
a. 100sqm
b. 200sqm
c. 350sqm
d. 50sqm
e. 500sqm
7. A medical student was studying a microscopic slide of transitional epithelium. He noticed UNDULY thick & darkly
stained luminal plasma membrane of the surface cells. It is most likely due to
a. A layer of glycocalyx
b. Aggregation of cytoskeletal elements
c. An artifact
d. An oblique section of plasma membrane
e. Presence of surface microvilli
f.
8. Characteristic features of MUCOUS CONNECTIVE tissue include the following except
a. Collagen fibers
b. Intrinsic blood vessels
c. Intrinsic lymphatics
d. Intrinsic nerves
e. Scanty fibroblast
9. Which of the following is the characteristic microscopic feature of parietal cells of stomach
a. Copious eosinophilic cytoplasm & a central nucleus
b. Extensive RER
c. Extensive SER
d. Granular cytoplasm with basally located nucleus
e. Located at the basal third of gastric glands
10. Microscopic stricture of the pituitary gland reveals that:
a. Chromophils contain few cytoplasmic granules
b. Chromophils have little affinity for basic dyes
c. Chromophobes are the smallest cell types in the ant pituitary
d. Corticotrophs constitute about 50% of the ant pituitary mass
e. Somatotrophs represent the basophils of traditional light microscopy
11. The undifferentiated germ cells found in the basal compartment of seminiferous tubules, are called
a. Primary spermatocytes
b. Primordial germ cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Type A spermatogonia
e. Type B spermatogonia
12. If one under the microscope A mass of lymphoid tissue covered by respiratory epithelium. The most likely
diagnosis:
a. Lingual tonsil
b. Palatine tonsil
c. Peyer’s patch
d. Pharyngeal tonsil
e. Tubal tonsil
13. The sinusoid of liver a type of
a. Arterio-venous shunts
b. Continuous capillaries
c. Discontinuous capillaries
d. Fenestrated capillaries
e. Venous sinuses
14. The taste buds are associated with all of the following except:
a. Cicumvallate papillae
b. Epiglottis
c. Filiform papilla
d. Fungiform papilla
e. Palate
15. The roof of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is formed by:
a. Body of the corpus callosum
b. Genu of the corpus callosum
c. Head of caudate nucleus
d. Rostrum of the corpus callosum
e. Superior surface of thalamus
16. Most likely nerve injury causing waddling gait in a young person is to the:
a. Common peroneal
b. Deep peroneal
c. Superficial peroneal
d. Superior gluteal
e. Tibial
17. The most important muscle in unlocking of the knee joint is:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Plantaris
c. Popliteus
d. Semi membranous
e. Soleus
18. The muscle which is not included in the rotator cuff of the shoulder is:
a. Teres major
b. Teres minor
c. Infra spinatus
d. Subscapularis
e. Supra spinatus
19. The thymus develops mainly from the:
a. Ectoderm of second branchial pouch
b. Endoderm of the fourth branchial pouch
c. Endoderm of the third branchial pouch
d. Mesoderm of the fourth branchial pouch
e. Mesoderm of the third branchial pouch
20. The vagus nerve in the abdomen supply all except:
a. Ascending colon
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Jejunum
e. Stomach
21. The narrowest part of the male urethra is:
a. Bulbous
b. External meatus
c. Membranous
d. Penile
e. Prostatic
22. Fetal movements can be recognized by mother during the:
a. 3rd week
b. 4th week
c. 5th week
d. 6th week
e. 7th week
f.
23. Ostium secundum defect, characterized by a large opening between the left and the right atria is caused by:
a. Absence of atrial septum
b. Excessive cell death & resorption of the septum primum
c. Failure of fusion of endocardial cushions
d. Inadequate development of septum primum
e. Partial fusion of endocardial cushions
24. Neural tube defect in which the neural folds fail to elevate throughout the lower thoracic and lumbo-sacral
region is called spina bifida:
a. Cystica
b. Occulta
c. With meningocele
d. With myeloschisis
e. With rachischisis
25. A transverse section through the inferior half of the medulla oblongata, a short distance above the level of
decussation of the pyramids involves the following except:
a. Decussation of pyramids
b. Dorsal accessory olivary nucleus
c. Internal arcuate fibers
d. Medial accessory olivary nucleus
e. Nucleus ambiguous
26. Free nerve endings:
a. Are a type of special visceral enteroceptor
b. Are found in voluntary muscle
c. Are non-capsulated receptors
d. Are not present in the epidermis of the skin
e. Detect only pain
27. The true statement regarding thymus:
a. Epithelial reticular cells form Hassal’s corpuscles
b. Lymphoid nodules form much of the thymic cortex
c. Macrophages are essential components of the blood thymus barrier
d. T-cells migrate into the medulla where immunologically competent
e. The epithelial framework of medulla is fine and scanty
28. The wall of the terminal bronchioles:
a. Contains cartilaginous plates
b. Has many goblet cells
c. Has relatively higher proportion of smooth muscle thean the other bronchioles
d. Is lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium
e. Is rich in glandular elements
29. Hyaline cartilage:
a. Forms menisci of knee
b. Is found in the epiglottis
c. Is found in the pinna
d. Is not found in the nasal septum
e. Is precursor of intracartilaginous ossification
30. The sciatic nerve supplies the following muscles except:
a. Adductor magnus
b. Biceps femoris
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Semi membranosus
e. Semitendinosus
31. Subdural hemorrhage results from injury to the:
a. Ant division of middle meningeal artery
b. Inferior cerebral veins
c. Middle cerebral artery
d. Posterior division of the middle meningeal artery
e. Superior cerebral veins
32. In male human fetus, the mesonephric tubules form the following except:
a. Appendix epididymis
b. Appendix testis
c. Efferent ductules of the testis
d. Ejaculatory ducts
e. Seminal vesicles
33. Lungs in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome are deficient in:
a. Alveoli
b. Beta adrenergic nerves
c. Bronchial cartilage
d. Bronchial cilia
e. Surfactant
34. Columnar epithelium lines the:
a. Epitheloid covering of choroid plexus
b. Germinal layer of ovaries
c. Pigmented epithelium of retina
d. Rete testis
e. Uterine tubes
35. The characteristic feature of a macrophage is that the cells:
a. Are very mobile
b. Most abundant along the small blood vessels
c. No cell processes
d. Outline is regular
e. Processes are long and slender
36. The following organs contribute secretions to form the semen except:
a. Bulbourethral gland
b. Prostate
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Testis
e. Urethra
37. The following are specialized sweat gland except:
a. Axillary glands
b. Ceruminous glands
c. Ciliary glands
d. Mammary glands
e. Sebaceous glands
38. All the hyperkinetic disorders associated with basal nuclei except:
a. Huntington’s chorea
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Syderham’s chorea
d. Athetosis
e. Hemilbalismus
39. The transpyloric plane crosses the following structures except:
a. Celiac artery
b. Conus medularis
c. Gall bladder fundus
d. Lower border of first lumbar vertebra
e. Ninth costal cartilage
40. Line of weight bearing does not pass through the:
a. Acetabulum
b. Arcuate line
c. Pubic rami
d. Sacroiliac joint
e. Sacrum
41. The esophagus which has squamocolumnar junction 3 cm or more above the gastroesophageal junction is:
a. Barett’s esophagus
b. Cork screw esophagus
c. Due to achalasia cordia
d. Due to hiatus hernia
e. Normal esophagus
42. The sensory cells in the neuroepithelium of the nose are:
a. Bipolar neurons
b. Columnar epithelium
c. Modified glial cells
d. Modified goblet cells
e. Unipolar neurons
43. The chances of injury to the left recurrent laryngeal nerve during an operation of the thyroid gland are high
because the left recurrent nerve:
a. Hooks around the arch of aorta
b. Is buried in the thyroid tissue
c. Lies more superficial in the groove b/w esophagus and trachea
d. Lies within pretracheal fascia
e. Passes b/w the branches of the inferior thyroid artery
44. The functional cortical area if electrically stimulated conjugate movements of the eyes, specially towards the
opposite side and controls the scanning movements of the eye, is:
a. Cortical eye field
b. Frontal eye field
c. Pre frontal cortex
d. Primary visual area
e. Secondary visual area
45. The internal capsule of the brain is mainly supplied by the:
a. Branches of posterior basilar artery
b. Branches of posterior cerebellar artery
c. Branches of posterior communicating artery
d. Central branching of ant cerebral artery
e. Medial and lateral striate central branches of the middle cerebral artery
46. The number of valves in the great sephanous vein is about:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
e. 25
47. The root value of nerve supply to all the short muscles of hand is:
a. C6
b. C7
c. T1
d. T2
e. T4
48. Hartmann’s pouch is:
a. A congenital malformation of the gallbladder
b. Formed in the calot’s triangle
c. Only present in pathological conditions of the gall bladder
d. Part of the cystic duct
e. The most common site for perforation of gall bladder
49. Appendicular artery is the branch of:
a. Anterial cecal artery
b. Ileal branch of superior mesenteric artery
c. Iliocolic artery
d. Posterior cecal artery
e. Right colic artery
50. The posterior rami of the spinal nerve which has cutaneous branches is:
a. C1
b. C6
c. C7
d. L5
e. T1
51. The following are the true regarding glossopharyngeal nerve except that it:
a. Carries taste fibers from posterior 1/3 of the tongue
b. Is entirely sensory
c. Is the nerve of 3rd pharyngeal arch
d. Leaves the skull through internal jugular foramen
e. Supplies soft palate
52. Regarding the commissures the following are true except:
a. Corpus callosum is the largest commissure
b. The anterior commissure is a small bundle of nerve fibers that cross the midline in lamina terminalis
c. The commissure of fornix consists of transverse fibers that cross the midline from one column to another
d. The fornix is composed of unmyelinated nerve fibers
e. The posterior commissure crosses the midline immediately above the opening of cerebral aqueduct
53. Regarding cerebrum the following are true except:
a. Auditory area is located in the frontal lobe
b. Gustatory area is located in post central gyrus
c. Primary motor area is located in pre central gyrus
d. Visual area is supplied by posterior cerebral artery
e. Motor speech area is located in the dominant hemisphere
54. Regarding spinal nerves the true statement is that:
a. Their dorsal roots contain both sensory and motor fibers
b. They are completely derived developmentally from neural crest cells
c. They are distributed to the limbs through their dorsal rami
d. They have ganglia on their ventral roots
e. They leave the vertebral canal via intervertebral foramina
55. Regarding the development of the genital system the following are true except:
a. Appendix epididymis is the remnant of mesonephric duct
b. Appendix testis is the remnant of para mesonephric duct in male
c. Genital swellings from the labia majora in females
d. Mesonephric duct forms the ductus epididymis
e. Para mesonephric ducts form the vagina
56. The hyoid arch gives rise to the following except
a. Buccinators
b. Part of thyroid cartilage
c. Stapedius
d. Stapes
e. Stylohyoid ligament
57. The following statements are true regarding gametogenesis except:
a. It results in the formation of spermatocytes
b. Meiotic cell division is involved in the process
c. Occurs only in gonads
d. Only one gamete is formed in the female in one month of sexual cycle
e. Starts one year after birth in males
58. The posterior lobe in pituitary gland develops from
a. Diencephalon vesicle
b. Neural crest cells
c. Oral ectoderm
d. Oral endoderm
e. Telencephalic vesicle
59. The fourth pharyngeal pouch contributes to the development of the
a. Auditory tubes
b. Palatine tonsils
c. Superior parathyroid glands
d. Thymus gland
e. Thyroid gland
60. Pleuropeicardial folds fuse to form
a. Diaphragm
b. Fibrous pericardium
c. Parietal pleura
d. Supra pleural membrane
e. Visceral pleura
61. The sternal angle is a landmark of the following except:
a. Ascending aorta ends
b. Azygous vein arches over the root of the right lung
c. Ribs can be counted
d. Thoracic duct crosses from right to left side
e. Trachea divides
62. The true statement regarding the internal auditory meatus is that it:
a. Closed at its medial end or fundus
b. Has a difference of vertical diameter b/w its two sides which exceeds 1mm normally
c. Is 2.5 cm in length
d. Passes in a medial direction from cerebellopontine angle
e. Transmits facial, cochlear & vestibular nerves
63. The true statement regarding the internal jugular vein is that it
a. Has deep cervical lymph nodes along its course
b. Is the direct continuation of transverse sinus
c. Joins the external jugular vein to form the brachiocephalic vein
d. Receives inferior petrosal sinus near its termination
e. Runs downward through the neck in the carotid sheath deep to sternocleidomastoid muscle
64. RENAL VEIN
A. IS CROSSED POSTERIORLY BY SUPERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY
B. JOIUNS THE PORTAL VEIN BEHIND THE PANCREAS
C. LIES BEHIND THE LEFT RENAL ARTERY
D. OPENS DIRECTLY INTO INFERIOR VENA CAVA
E. RECIEVES THE INFERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY
65. THE GREATER SCIATIC FORAMEN TRANSMITS THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A. INFERIOR GLUTEAL VESSELS
B. OBTURATOR INTERNUS MUSCLE
C. PIRIFORMIS MUSCLE
D. POSTERIOR CUTANEOUS NERVE OF THIGH
E. SUPERIOR GLUTEAL VESSELS
66. THE DIAPHRAGM IS ATTACHED TO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A. 7TH COSTAL CARTILAGE
B. 9TH RIB
C. BODY OF 10TH THORACIC VERTEBRA
D. BODY OF 1ST LUMBAR VERTEBRA
E. XIPHOID PROCESS
67. REGARDING ANAL CANAL
A. EXTERNAL ANAL SPHINCTER IS INVOLUNTARY
B. INFERIOR RECTAL VEIN DRAINS INTO PORTAL SYSTEM
C. INTERNAL ANDAL SPHINCTER IS SUPPLIED BY INFERIOR RECTAL NERVE
D. SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL LYMPH NODES DRAIN THE UPPER HALF OF ANAL CANAL
E. SUPPORTED BY BOTH SUPERIOR AND INFERIOR RECTAL ARTERIES
68. REGARDING STOMACH
A. IT IS THE MOST DILATED PART OF THE ALIMENTARY CANAL
B. ITS CARDIAC ORIFICE IS SITUATED AT THE LEVEL OF 11TH THORACIC VERTEBRA
C. THE CARDIAC GLANDS ARE SPACIFIED AS SIMPLE TUBULAR GLANDS
D. THE RIGHT GASTRIC ARTERY IS THE BRANCH OF CELIAC ARTERY
E. THE VAGUS NERVE SUPPLIES BOTH SENSORY AND MOTOR FIBERS TO THE STOMACH
69. THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE BEHIND THE KIDNEY EXCEPT:
A. DIAPHRAGM
B. QUADRATUS LUMBORUM
C. SERRATUS POSTERIR SUPERIOR
D. SUBCOSTAL NERVE
E. THORACO LUMBAR FASCIA
70. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT REGARDING THE INFERIOR EPIGASTRIC ARTERY ARE TRUE EXCEPT THAT IT
A. ENDS BY ANASTOMOSING WITH A BRANCH OF INTERNAL THORACIC ARTERY
B. GIVES A PUBLIC BRANCH WHICH MAY REPLACE THE OBTURATOR ARTERY
C. IS A BRANCH OF EXTERNAL ILIAC ARTERY
D. LIES LATERAL TO THE DEEP INGUINAL RING
E. SUPPLIES THE SPERMATIC CORD
71. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE REGARDING INVERSION OF FOOT EXCEPT THAT INVERSION
A. AND EVERSION ENABLES US TO WALK ACROSS UNEVEN SURFACES
B. IS ASSISTED BY FLEXOR AND EXTENSOR HALLUCIS LONGUS
C. IS PERFORMED BY PERONEUS LONGUS AND BREVIS
D. IS PERFORMED BY TIBIALIS ANTERIOR AND TIBIALIS POSTERIOR
E. TAKES PLACE AT MID TARSAL JOINT
72. STRUCTURES PASSING THROUGH LESSER SCIATIC FORAMEN INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A. INFERIOR GLUTEAL VESSELS
B. INTERNAL PUDENDAL ARTERY
C. NERVE TO BTURATOR INTERNUS MUSCLES
D. PUDENDAL NERVE
E. TENDON OF OBTURATOR INTERNUS MUSCLE
73. WRIST DROP
A. IS ASSICIATED WITH VOLKMAN’S ISCHEMIC CONTRACTURE
B. IS DUE TO DAMAGE TO UNAR NERVE AT MEDIAL EPICONDYLE OF HUMERUS
C. IS DUE TO FRACTURE OF RADIAL GROOVE OF SHAFT OF HUMERUS
D. IS SEEN IN PATIENTS WITH CARPAL TUNNEL SYNDROME
E. OCCURS DUE TO FRACTURE OF SURGICAL NECK OF HUMERUS
74. REGARDING THE STERNOCLAVICULAR JOINT IT
A. ALLOWS MOVEMENT OF THE FIRST RIB
B. IS A FIBROCARTILAGINOUS JOINT
C. IS INNERVATED BY 1ST INTERCOSTAL NERVE
D. IS SUPPLIED BY SUPRASCAPULAR ARTERY
E. PERMITS MOVEMENTS IN VERTICAL DIRECTION ONLY
75. THE TRUE STATEMENT REGARDING THE TUBEROSITY OF THE HUMERUS IS THAT IT
A. GIVES ATTACHMENT TO SUBSCAPULARIS
B. IS BURRIED DEEP TO TERES MAJOR MUSCLE
C. IS FELT BELOW THE ACROMION
D. IS THE MOST MEDIAL POINT IN THE REGION OF THE SHOULDER
E. IS VULNERABLE TO FRACTURE
76. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS REGARDING ESOPHAGUS ARE TRUE EXCEPT
A. BEGINS OPPOSITE TO THE 6TH CERVICAL VERTEBRA
B. IN THE NECK IS RELATED TO THE LOBES OF THE THYROID GLAND
C. IS IN CONTACT WITH THE TRACHEA AND RECURRENT LARYNGEAL NERVE IN THE NECK
D. IS SEPARATED FROM THE LEFT ATRIUM BY PERICARDIUM ONLY
E. PASSES THROUGH DIAPHRAGM AT THE LEVEL OF THE 8TH THORACIC VERTEBRA
77. THE TRUE STATEMENT REGARDING THE BONES IS THAT
A. AT THE INNERMOST ASPECT OF COMPACT BON, CIRCUMFERENTIAL LAMELLAE MERGE WITH TRABECULAE OF
CANCELLOUS BONE
B. COMPACT BONE IS MADE UP OF PARALLEL BONY COLUMNS WHICH ARE DISPOSED AT RIGHT ANGLES TO ITS
LONG AXIS
C. IN THE COMPACT BONES, OSTEOCYTES ARE ARRANGED IN CONCENTRIC RINGS, COMLETELY OCCUPYING THE
LACUNAE DURINGLIFE
D. SPONGY BONE USUALLY CONTAINS THE HARVESIAN SYSTEM
E. THE TRABECULAE OF SPONGY BONE ARE LINED BY A DELICATE PERIOSTEUM
78. THE GOBLET CELLS ARE PRESENT IN ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT
A. ALVEOLAR DUCTS
B. LARYNX
C. MAIN BRONCHI
D. TERTIARY BRONCHI
E. TRACHEA
79. THE TRUE STATEMENT ABOUT VOCAL CORD IS THAT IT HAS
A. HYALINE CARTILAGE
B. LINING OF CILIATED PSEUDO STRATIFIED COLUMMNAR EPITHELIUM
C. RICH NETWORK OF CAPILLARIES
D. SENSORY INNERVATION THROUGH SUPERIOR LARYNGEAL NERVE
E. UNSTRIATED MUSCLE
80. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE REGARDING MITOSIS EXCEPT THAT
A. MITOSIS INVOLVES PAIRING OF HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES
B. MITOSIS OCCURS IN ALL SOMATIC CELLS
C. MITOSIS OCCURS IN OOGONIA DURING EARLY FOETAL LIFE
D. MITOSIS RESULTS IN DIPLOID DAUGHTER CELLS IDENTICAL TO PARENT CELLS
E. SPERMATOGONIA DIVIDE BY MITOSIS
81. REGARDING EPITHELIA AND CELLS
A. AN ENDOCRINE GLAND IS MARKED BY THE PRESENCE OF A NUMBER OF DUCTS
B. HOLOCRINE TYPE OF SECRETION OCCURS IN THE MAMMARY GLANDS
C. IN A PSEUDOSTRATIFIED EPITHELIUM, ALL CELLS DO NOT REST ON THE BASEMENT MEMBRANE
D. MOST OF THE RESPIRATORY TRACT IS LINED BY TRANSITIONAL EPITHELIUM
E. THE SIMPLE SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM IS USUALLY FOUND AT PLACES WHERE EXCHANGE OF GASES TAKES PLACE
82. A 35 YEAR OLD MALE LABOURER PRESENTS WITH ACUTE, SUDDEN PAIN STARTING FROM LOWER LUMBAR AREA
AND RADIATING ALONG POSTERIOR ASPECT OF LEFT LOWER LIMB. HIS SYMPTOMS STARTED AFTER LIFTING A
HEAVY CONTAINER 3 DAYS BACK. ON EXAMINATION, STRAIGHT LEG RAISING TEST IS RESTRICTED TO 30 DEGREE
ON LEFT SIDE, DECREASED SENSATION ALONG LATERAL BORDER OF LEFT FOOT, WEAKNESS OF LEFT FLEXOR
HALLUCIS LONGUS AND DIMINISH ANKLE JERK. THIS PATIENT HAS COMPRESSION OF
a. 1st sacral nerve root
b. 2nd sacral nerve root
c. 4th lumbar nerve root
d. 5th lumbar nerve root
e. Sciatic nerve
83. Facial nerve collects taste information from anterior two thirds of the tongue through its chorda tympani
branch. The functional components for taste sensations is
a. General somatic afferent (GSA)
b. General visceral afferent (GVA)
c. General somatic efferent (GVE)
d. Special somatic afferent (SSA)
e. Special visceral afferent (SVA)
84. On looking at a cut section of the cerebellar hemisphere, one can see the cerebellar nuclei embedded within the
white matter of cerebellum. The most medial nucleus is
a. Claustrum
b. Dentate
c. Emboliform
d. Festigeal
e. Globose
85. After an incised wound on the front of wrist, he patient was unable to perform abduction and adduction of his
fingers and abduction of thumb. Sensations of the skin of palm were intact. The most likely nerve injured is
a. Deep branch of ulnar nerve
b. Dorsal branch of ulnar nerve
c. Main trunk of median nerve
d. Recurrent branch of median nerve
e. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
86. Following are the effect of herniation of disc b/w L5 and S1
a. Atrophy of gastrocnemius & soleus muscle
b. Difficulty in walking on toes
c. Diminished ankle jerk
d. Numbness in back of calf, lateral heel, foot and toe
e. Pain above sacro iliac joint only
87. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland is
a. Cheeks
b. Lips
c. Palate
d. Pharynx
e. Tongue
88. Regarding parotid gland following are true except
a. Has a tough capsule derived from deep cervical fascia
b. Is provided with secretomotor fibers by auriculotemporal nerve
c. Is related superiorly to external acoustic meatus and temporomandibular joint
d. Is supplied by superficial temporal and posterior auricular arteries
e. Is traversed by facial and auriculo temporal nerves
89. The structure passing through foramen ovale is
a. Branch of occulomotor nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Maxillary nerve
d. Meningeal branch of maxillary nerve
e. Middle meningeal artery
90. Regarding Meckel’s diverticulum the following statement is correct except
a. Is a remnant of urachus
b. Is found on the anti-mesenteric side of ileum
c. Is located within 60cm of ileocecal valve
d. Is present in 2% of population
e. May be lined by gastric mucosa at its base
91. Following structure passes through lesser sciatic foramen except
a. Inferior gluteal vessels
b. Internal pudendal artery
c. Nerve to obturator internus muscle
d. Pudendal nerve
e. Tendon of obturator internus muscle
92. Following statements are true regarding abdominal aorta except that it
a. Divides at the level of L4
b. Gives out paired lateral branches to parieties
c. Gives out renal arteries at level of L2
d. Has inferior vena cava on its right
e. Lies to the right of cisterna chili
93. Regarding diaphragm all statements are true except that
a. It is an inspiratory muscle
b. It is supplied by pericardiophrenic artery
c. The central tendon is inseparable from fibrous pericardium
d. The crura are supplied by phrenic nerves
e. The oesophageal opening transmits the vagal trunks
94. Contents of the lesser omentum include
a. Left gastric artery
b. Lymph nodes
c. Portal vein
d. Right gastric artery
e. Short gastric artery
95. Regarding mammary glands all are true except that
a. Infiltration of lactiferous ducts by cancer cells results in fixity of gland and puckering of skin
b. Peau’d orange is due to obstruction of cutaneous lymphatics by cancerous cells
c. Pectoralis major, serratus anterior and external oblique are in deep relation to the gland
d. The connection of posterior intercostal vein with the vertebral plexus of veins provide a route for cancerous
spread to bones
e. The retro mammary space makes the breast freely moveable
96. Regarding the lymph glands in axilla all statements are true except that
a. Apical group receives lymph from shoulder joint and adjoining area
b. Central group drains lymph from all the groups above except the apical group
c. Lateral group receives lymph from upper limb
d. Pectoral group receives lymph from upper half of trunk anteriorly and major part of breast
e. Subscapular group receives lymph from upper half of trunk posteriorly and axillary tail of breast
97. Regarding arterial supply of the heart all statements are true except
a. Left coronary artery is larger than the right coronary artery
b. Left coronary artery is the first branch of the arch of aorta
c. Right coronary artery arises from anterior aortic sinus
d. Right coronary artery supplies both ventricles
e. The interventricular septum is supplied by left coronary artery
98. Regarding shoulder joint following statements are true except that
a. Depends for most of its stability on the rotator cuff of muscles and accessory ligaments
b. Has lax capsule
c. Is the most mobile joint in the body
d. Is weakest superiorly
e. Rotation is restricted in frozen shoulder
99. Regarding musculo cutaneous nerve all the following are true except that it
a. Arises from lateral cord of brachial plexus
b. Has no articular branch
c. Is situated deep to the biceps brachii
d. Pierces through the coracobrachialis muscle
e. Supplies skin of anterolateral aspect of forearm
100. Regarding biceps brachii muscle following statements are true except that it
a. Helps to prevent anterior dislocation of shoulder joint
b. Is a powerful pronator of the shoulder joint
c. Is a weak flexor of shoulder joint
d. Is indirectly inserted into posterior border of ulna
e. Is supplied by musculocutaneous nerve
101. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from all except that it
a. Anterior abdominal wall below the level of umbilicus
b. External genitalia excluding testis
c. Lower part of anal canal
d. Skin and fascia of front of thigh
e. Upper third of vagina
102. The bone which is the keystone of the medial longitudinal arch of foot is the
a. Calcaneus
b. Intermediate cuneiform
c. Medial cuneiform
d. Navicular
e. Talus
103. The hyoid arch gives rise to the following structures
a. Buccinators
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Part of hyoid bone
d. Stapes
e. Stylohyoid ligament
104. The diaphragm develops from the following sources except
a. Mesenchyme bordering the sides of aorta
b. Mesenchyme of the costal body walls
c. Paired pleuro peritoneal membranes
d. Septum transversum
e. Ventral mesogastrium
105. Neural crest cells form the following structures except
a. Autonomic ganglia
b. Bones of face
c. Ganglia of cranial nerves V & VII
d. Medulla of suprarenal gland
e. Pia and dura matter
106. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland develops from
a. Diencephalic vesicle
b. Neural crest cells
c. Oral ectoderm
d. Oral endoderm
e. Telencephalic vesicle
107. The 4rth pharyngeal pouch contributes to the development of the
a. Auditory tubes
b. Palatine tonsils
c. Superior parathyroid glands
d. Thymus gland
e. Thyroid gland
108. Free nerve endings
a. Are a type of special visceral enteroceptor
b. Are found in voluntary muscle
c. Are non-encapsulated receptors
d. Are not present in the epidermis of the skin
e. Detect only pain
109. Regarding thymus
a. Epithelial reticular cells form Hassal’s corpuscles
b. Lymphoid nodules form much of the thymic cortex
c. Macrophages are essential components of the blood thymus barrier
d. T-cells migrate into the medulla where immunologically competent
e. The epithelial framework of medulla is fine and scanty
110. Regarding the tongue following statements are true except
a. Circumvallate papillae are covered by stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
b. Filiform papillae are devoid of taste buds
c. Mucous glands lie in the posterior third of the tongue
d. No submucosa is indistinguishable on the dorsum of the tongue
e. Von Ebner glands do not open on to the surface
111. The following statements regarding thymus are true except
a. Develops from the ventral part of fourthpharyngeal pouch
b. Has no glandular function
c. Is largest at puberty
d. May have parathyroid tissue in its substance
e. Weighs 12 grams at about 2 years of age
112. The following statements are true regarding sympathectomy except that
a. L1 ganglia removal results in ejaculation failure
b. In cervical sympathectomy T2 & T3 ganglia with their rami& trunk are removed
c. In cervical sympathectomy cervical part of sympathectic chain is removed
d. In lumbar sympathectomy L3 & L4 ganglia & intervening trunk is removed
e. Removal of T1 results in Horner’s syndrome
113. The following statements regarding lateral horn of spinal cord are true except that it
a. Contains viscera motor nucleus
b. Corresponds to Rexed lamia VII which includes sympathetic intermedius nucleus
c. Is co-extensive with nucleus dorsalis of Clarke
d. Is present in the cervical segments
e. Receive viscera sensory input
114. Regarding medulla oblongata thetrue statement is that
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve emerges from a groove lying b/w the pyramid and olive
b. Its dorsal surface forms the roof of the 4th ventricle
c. Nucleus gracilis projects into the ipsilateral thalamic nucleus
d. Sensory decussation takes place caudal to motor decussation
e. The main output from its inferior olivary complex is to the opposite cerebellar hemisphere
115. Muscles supplied by the 12th cranial nerve do not include
a. Geniglossus
b. Hyoglossus
c. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
d. Palatoglossus
e. Styloglossus
116. All of the following structures contribute to the formation of the diaphragm except
a. Body wall
b. Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus
c. Pleuropericardial membranes
d. Pleuroperitoneal membranes
e. Septum tansversum
117. The true statement regarding the fetal heart is that
a. Ductus arteriosus carries most of the blood from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta
b. Due to spiral nature of bulbar septum, aorta comes to open
c. Foramen ovale regurgitates most of the blood from the LA to the RA
d. Interventricular septum has a larger muscular and a smaller membranous part
e. Oxygenated blood returns to the fetus from the placenta by way of umbilical arteries
118. The true statement regarding the neural tube is that it
a. arises from notochord
b. Gets incorporated in the body (connecting) stalk
c. Gives rise to the components of the CNS
d. Give rise to the meninges of the brain and spinal cord
e. Is responsible for the formation of the primitive streak
119. The following statements regarding the digestive system are true except
a. Annular pancreas may cause stenosis of the duodenum
b. During herniation, the loop of the midgut rotate along the axis formed by the superior mesenteric artery
c. Herniation of the loops of midgut takes place during 12th-16th weeks of intra uterine life
d. Meckel’s diverticulum when present is situated approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal junction
e. The stomach rotates through 90 degrees along the vertical axis
120. In the developing embryo
a. Incomplete fusion of the neural (vertebral arch) part of sclerotome results in anencephaly
b. Sclerotome surrounding the notochord forms the segmental muscle
c. Somites are developed along both sides of the notochord
d. The somites arise from “intermediate” mesoderm
e. The somite saris from “lateral plate” mesoderm
121. The following statements regarding the results of fertilization are except
a. A cell with diploid number of chromosomes
b. Activation of meiosis II in secondary oocyte
c. Determination of genetic sex
d. Determination of phenotypic sex
e. Restoration of biparental inheritance
122. The following statements regarding parotid gland are true except
a. Auriculo temporal nerve emerge from its upper pole
b. Facial nerve passes through its deep lobe
c. It has two surgicallobes
d. Parotid duct lies in the deep lobe
e. Retromandibular vein emerge from its lower pole
123. In quiet breathing the principal inspiratory muscle is
a. Diaphragm
b. Internal intercostal
c. Levator costae
d. Pectoralis major
e. Scalenus anterior
124. The following statements regarding superior ophthalmic vein are true except that it
a. Crosses superior to optic nerve
b. Ends in cavernous sinus
c. Is valveless
d. Leaves the orbit through optic canal
e. Receives the central vein if retina
125. branches of the following arteries supply stomach except
a. coeliac
b. common hepatic
c. gastro duodenal
d. splenic
e. superior mesenteric
126. the following statements about adrenal glands are true except
a. adrenal cortex & medulla have different embryological origin
b. the glands are supplied by many arteries but drained by a single vein each
c. the perinephric fascia separates adrenal gland from the kidney
d. the right gladn is larger than the left
e. they have attained nearly adult size at birth
127. following are the contents of the lesser omentum except
a. left gastric artery
b. lymph nodes
c. portal vein
d. right gastric artery
e. short gastric artery
128. The true statement regarding the rectum is that it
a. Also obtains its blood supply from the median sacral artery
b. Commences at the level of the first sacral vertebra
c. Has two lateral curves
d. Is approximately 9 inches in length in adults
e. Is covered with peritoneum all around
129. The following statements about ischio rectal fossa are true except that it
a. Allows dilation of anal canal during defecation
b. Extends forwards into urogenital triangle
c. Has pudendal canal in lower medial wall
d. Is bounded laterally by obturator internus
e. Is bounded posteriorly by sacro tuberous ligament
130. The statement regarding suprarenal glands are true except that it
a. It has a cortex rich in lipids
b. It is enclosed in renal fascia
c. Its cortex develops from mesoderm
d. The foetal gland is one third the size of a kidney
e. The nerve fibers synapse directly on medullary cells
131. The statements regarding the epiploic foramen are true except that it
a. Allows comminucation b/w the lesser and greater sacs
b. Has the inferior vena cava as its posterior boundry
c. Is bounded anteriorly by the free margin of the lesser omentum
d. Lies at the level of thoracic nine vertebra
e. May allow intestinal herniation
132. Extension of big toe will test all of the following except
th
a. 5 lumbar spinal nerve
b. Deep peroneal nerve
c. Extensor halluics longus
d. Superficial peroneal nerve
e. The integrity of S1 segment
133. Femoral artery
a. Is medial to femoral nerve in femoral triangle
b. Is the communication of common iliac artery
c. Leaves the thigh by passing through adductor longus
d. Lies behind the midpoint of inguinal ligament
e. Lies outside the femoral sheath
134. Hip joint receives its nerve supply from the following except
a. Accessory Obturator nerve
b. Femoral nerve
c. Nerve to quadratus femoris
d. Obturator nerve
e. Sciatic nerve
135. Regarding carpal tunnel the following statements are true except that it
a. Compression causes weakness of thenar muscle
b. Contains the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
c. Contains the ulnar artery
d. Is a fibro osseus tunnel
e. Transmits the median nerve
136. Regarding biceps brachii muscle following statements are true except that it
a. Helps to prevent anterior dislocation of shoulder joint
b. Is a powerful pronator of the shoulder joint
c. Is a weak flexor of shoulder joint
d. Is indirectly inserted into posterior border of ulna
e. Is supplied by musculocutaneous nerve
137. Descending thoracic aorta
a. Ends at 1st lumbar vertebra and becomes continuous with the abdominal aorta
b. Runs downward in the middle mediastinum
c. Begins on the left side of the upper border of the body of 4th thoracic vertebra
d. Supplies blood to pericardium, esophagus and lungs
e. Supplies lower 8th intercostal space on each side
138. At birth an apparently male has no testicles in the scrotum, later it is determined that both are in the
abdominal cavity, what is the term given to this condition
a. Cryptorchidism
b. Gonadal gysgenesis
c. Hermaphrodite
d. Klinefelter syndrome
e. Turner syndrome
139. Regarding mitosis all statements are true except
a. Mitosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Mitosis occurs in all somatic cells
c. Mitosis occurs in oogonia during early foetal life
d. Mitosis results in diploid daughter cells identical to parent cells
e. Spermatogonia divide by mitosis
140. Regarding the development of genital system all statements are true except
a. Appendix epididymis is the remnant of mesonephric duct
b. Appendix testis is the remnant of para mesonephric duct in male
c. Genital swellings from the labia majora in females
d. Mesonephric duct forms the fallopian tube
e. Para mesonephric ducts form the uterus
141. Regarding the development of face all statements are true except
a. Cleft upper lip is caused by of the maxillary process to fuse with the lateral nasal process
b. Frontonasal prominence forms the forehead and bridge of the nose
c. Lateral nasal prominence forms the alae of nose
d. Lower lip is formed by mandibular process
e. Medial nasal prominence forms philtrum of upper lip, crest and tip of nose
142. Regarding the development of arteries all statements are true except
rd
a. 3 aortic arch forms the common carotid artery and the first part of internal carotid artery
b. 4th aortic arch persists on both sides
c. 5th aortic arch forms the subclavian artery
d. 6th aortic arch is also known as pulmonary arch
e. The persistence of 4th aortic arch on left side may result in patent ductus arteriosus
143. During a histology practical test, a medical student observes under the microscope, a tubular structure
having a small lumen, lined by transitional epithelium, supported by connective tissue lamina propria and three
layers of smooth muscle with adventitia as the outer most layers. What anatomical structure has the above
microscopic appearances?
a. Prostate
b. Renal pelvis
c. Ureter
d. Urethra
e. Urinary bladder
144. Following are the structures present in dermis except
a. Fibroblasts
b. Macrophages
c. Mast cells
d. Melancocytes
e. Reticulocytes
145. Following statements are true regarding nervous tissue except one
a. Astrocytes are ectoderm in origin
b. Conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body
c. Golgi type II neurons have short axons
d. Nissl substance is absent in axon hillock
e. Pseudounipolar neurons are sensory in function
146. The incorrect statement regarding the BONES is
a. Circumferential lamellae merge with trabecullae of cancellous bone at the innermost aspect of compact bone
b. Compact bone is made up of parallel bony columns which are disposed at right angles to its long axis
c. In compact bones, osteocytes are arranged in concentric rings, completely occupying the lacunae during life
d. The lining epithelium is pseudostratified
e. The trabeculae of spongy bone are lined by a delicate periosteum
147. Following are the muscles supplied by the 12th cranial nerve except
a. Genioglossus
b. Hypoglossus
c. Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
d. Palatoglossus
e. Styloglossus
148. Fibers of corpus callosum
a. Connect the two cerebral hemisphere
b. Pass through the internal capsule to the frontal lobe
c. Unite adjacent and widely separated gyri in the same hemisphere
d. Unite the olfactory area of the two sides of the cerebrum
e. Unite the two hippocampi
149. Following tracts are in the inferior cerebellar peduncle except
a. Cuneocerebellar tract
b. Ollivocerebellar
c. Posterior spinocerebellar
d. Tectocerebellar
e. Vestibulocerebellar
150. Following are the nuclei in the floor of the 4th ventricle except
a. Abducent nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Vagus nerve
e. Vestibular nerve
151.