1

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. If both the strands copied during transcription, then 7. Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted?
what will happen? (1) AUG.UGA.UUU
(1) The segment of DNA would be coding for two (2) UAA.UAV.UGG
different proteins (3) UAG.UGA.UUV
(2) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously (4) UGA.UUV.UGG
complementary to each other
(3) There will be formation of double helical RNA 8. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by
(4) All of the above the following stretch of DNA?
3'-ATGCATGCATGCATG-5' Template strand
2. What will happen if the double-stranded RNA is 5'-TACGTACGTACGTAC-3' Coding strand
produced during transcription? (1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG-5'
(1) This would prevent RNA from being translated (2) 5'-UACGUACGUACGUAC-3'
into protein (3) 3'-UACGUACGUACGUAC-5'
(2) This would not prevent RNA from being (4) 5'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG-3'
translated into protein
(3) There will be the continuous synthesis of RNA 9. Promoter and terminator flanks the
(4) Double-stranded RNA will have lower (1) house-keeping gene
stability. It will be degraded very fastly (2) structural gene
(3) recon
3. Which strand of DNA works as template strand? (4) transcription unit
(1) 5' – 3' polarity strand
(2) 3' – 5' polarity strand 10. Which of the following RNAs should be most
(3) Both 1 and 2 abundant in animals’ cell?
(4) None of these (1) rRNA (2) tRNA
(3) mRNA (4) miRNA
4. The strand which do not code for anything is called
(1) coding strand (2) non-coding strand 11. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
(3) template strand (4) antisense strand transcription on one strand of the DNA which is
called the
5. If the coding strand has the sequence (1) template strand (2) coding strand
5' – ATCGATCG – 3' then find out the sea non- (3) alpha strand (4) anti-strand
coding strand
(1) 3' – TAGCTAGC – 5' 12. In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the
(2) 5' – TACGTACG – 3' transcription of all types of RNA (mRNA, RNA and
(3) 5' – UAGGUACG – 3' rRNA)?
(4) 5' – UACFUACG – 3' (1) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(2) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
6. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding (3) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding (4) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU 13. In prokaryotes, which process of transcription is
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT catalysed by RNA polymerase only?
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (1) Initiation (2) Elongation
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA (3) Termination (4) Aminoacylation
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14. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the 22. DNAreplicationrequires

RNA polymerase-I transcribes (1) DNApolymerase
(1) mRNA with additional processing, capping and (2) RNApolymeraseandtranslocase
tailing (3) DNAligase
(2) tRNA, S RNA and snRNAs (4) DNApolymeraseandDNAligase
(3) rRNAs-28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(4) precursor of mRNA, hnRNA 23. Centraldogmaofmodernbiologyis
(1) RNA–DNA –proteins
15. In splicing, the sequences which are kept and those (2) DNA–RNA–Proteins
which are removed, respectively, are (3) RNA–proteins–DNA
(1) exons and introns (4) Proteins–RNA–DNA
(2) introns and exons
(3) exons and cistrons 24. InformationtransferfromRNAtoDNAis
(4) introns and cistrons (1) Transpiration
(2) Translation
16. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of (3) Replication
(1) plants (2) fungi (4) Reversetranscription
(3) animals (4) bacteria
25. Which one cannot be synthesized fromDNAdirectly
17. Name the nucleotide added to 5' end of hnRNA in (1) mRNA (2) tRNA
capping. (3) rRNA (4) proteins
(1) Ethyl cytosine triphosphate
(2) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate 26. The enzyme taking part in joining two
(3) Methyl guanosine triphosphate fragmentsofDNAis
(4) Methyl cytosine triphosphate (1) Ligase (2) Polymerase
(3) Gyrase (4) Helicase
18. Which is present at 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA?
(1) Poly-A tail (2) Modified C at 5’ 27. Which does not follow central dogma
(3) 7 mG (4) Poly-C ofmolecularbiology?
(1) Mucor
19. Choose the correct option. (2) Chlamydomonas
(1) Splicing represent the dominance of RNA (3) Pea
world (4) HIV
(2) The presence of introns is reminiscent of
antiquity 28. WhichoneisnotapplicabletoRNA?
(3) Split gene arrangements represent an ancient (1) Complementarybasepairing
feature of the genome (2) 5’-phosphoryland3’hydroxylends
(4) All of the above (3) Heterocyclicnitrogenbase
(4) Chargaff’srules
20. DNAduplicationis knownas
(1) Replication (2) Transcription 29. Atranscriptionunitis
(3) Transduction (4) Translation (1) Monocistronicinprokaryotes
(2) Polycistronicineukaryotes
21. Semi-conservativereplicationofDNA (3) Monocistronicineukaryotes
using15Nwasdemonstrated by (4) Non-cistronic
(1) Meselson
(2) Taylor 30. Theterminationfactoroftranscriptionis
(3) HersheyandChase (1) Rho (2) Sigma
(4) MeselsonandStahl (3) Alpha (4) Beta
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31. Which of the following have similar code to RNA- 40. Which of the following RNA polymerase transcribe
(1) coding strand of RNA cistron in Eukaryotes
(2) coding strand of DNA (1) RNA polymerase
(3) template strand of DNA (2) RNA polymerase I
(4) transcription unit (3) RNA polymerase II
(4) RNA polymerase III
32. Which of the following is part of structural gene-
(1) promoter 41. Terminal addition of CCA occur in-
(2) terminator (1) 3’ End of primary structure of tRNA
(3) coding strand (2) 5’ end of t RNA
(4) transcriptional unit (3) 5’ end of rRNA
(4) 3’end of rRNA
33. Which is correct for RNA polymerase-
(1) Template is DNA 42. Clover leaf structure is of –
(2) Direction is 5’to 3’ (1) 20 of tRNA (2) 30 of tRNA
(3) Require sigma factor for initiation (3) 10 of tRNA (4) rRNA
(4) All are correct
43. Tertiary structure of tRNA is-
34. Rho factor is required for- (1) inverted L-shape
(1) termination (2) initiation (2) functional
(3) elongation (4) all (3) soluble
(4) all
35. Which of the following is not transcribed by RNA
polymerase(prokaryotes) 44. Which type of RNA is smallest in size-
(1) mRNA (1) rRNA (2) tRNA
(2) tRNA (3) mRNA (4) hnRNA
(3) rRNA
(4) hnRNA 45. Which is most stable RNA-
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA
36. Which of the following is not transcribed by RNA (3) mRNA (4) hnRNA
polymerase(prokaryotes)
(1) 5s rRNA (2) 16s rRNA 46. Which type of RNA is lowest number of types in
(3) 23s rRNA (4) 18s rRNA cell-
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA
37. Which of the following transcribe hnRNA- (3) mRNA (4) hnRNA
(1) RNA pol (2) RNA pol III
(3) RNA pol I (4) RNA pol II 47. 70 to 80 percent amount present in cell -
(1) rRNA
38. Number of replication fork in three replicons are- (2) tRNA
(1) six (2) three (3) mRNA
(3) four (4) one (4) hnRNA

39. Which of the following polymerase transcribe 48. Mark the correct statement-
cistron in prokaryotes- (1) hnRNA is more stable than mRNA
(1) RNA polymerase (2) mRNA is more stable than rRNA
(2) RNA polymerase I (3) mRNA of prokaryotes is more stable than
(3) RNA polymerase II mRNA of Eukaryotes
(4) RNA polymerase III (4) tRNA is present in cell in greater amount than
mRNA
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49. Which of the following is present in tRNA- 57. Which of the following is present in eukaryotes-
(1) Uridine and dihydrouridine (1) Multiple replicon
(2) Pseudouridine and thymidine (2) splicing
(3) Adenosine and cytosine (3) Three type of RNA polymerase
(4) all (4) All

50. Which of the following is not common in tRNA and 58. Mark the incorrectly matched-
rRNA- (1) DHU loop – bindwith amino-acyl t-RNA
(1) synthesize by RNA polymerase in prokaryotes synthetase
(2) have to structure also (2) TψC arm – bindwith ribosome
(3) more stable than mRNA (3) CCA – added at 5’ end of t-RNA
(4) have catalytic role (4) Cistron – codefor mRNA

51. Which type of RNA does not have a direct role in 59. Mark the incorrectly matched-
peptide bond formation- (1) functional structure of t-RNA – 30
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA (2) functional structure of m-RNA – 10
(3) mRNA (4) hnRNA (3) functional structure of r-RNA – 30
(4) main structure of DNA – 10
52. Which of the following location is not correctly
matched- 60. Nucleolus is site for the synthesis of -
(1) RNA polymerase – cytoplasm (1) 28s rRNA (2) 16s rRNA
(2) RNA polymerase I – Nucleolus (3) 5s rRNA (4) 23s rRNA
(3) RNA polymerase III – cytoplasm
(4) RNA polymerase II – Nucellus 61. cDNA can be produced by reverse transcription of-
(1) mRNA (2) hnRNA
53. Which of the following RNA degraded in last- (3) rRNA (4) tRNA
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA
(3) mRNA (4) hnRNA 62. Which of the following is not located on mRNA-
(1) UTR (2) start codon
54. Which of the following is not common in (3) stop codon (4) origin
transcription and DNA replication-
(1) Direction is 5’ to 3’ 63. Arm of tRNA on which charging occur -
(2) Nucleotide is substrate (1) Anticodon arm
(3) Require DNA as template (2) D-Arm
(4) Require primer (3) Amino acid acceptor arm
(4) Extra arm
55. Mark the incorrect statement-
(1) replication fork form at origin 64. Type of RNA having catalyst role -
(2) replication fork moves towards terminus (1) tRNA (2) mRNA
(3) at terminus two replication fork meet of two (3) rRNA (4) ScRNA
continuous replicons
(4) replication fork is not stationary as DNA 65. Type of RNA having role of identifying code on
replication occur in 5’ to 3’ direction mRNA -
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA
56. Which of the following is not the feature of (3) rRNA (4) ScRNA
prokaryotes-
(1) coupled transcription and translation 66. Which of the following is polynucleotide chain-
(2) rho dependent termination (1) tRNA (2) rRNA
(3) split gene (3) polyadenylate (4) all
(4) single replicon
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67. Mark the correctly matched- 75. Which is incorrect about DNA replication-
(1) Miescher – polynucleotidephosphorylase (1) Semi-conservative
(2) Servo Ochoa – copolymer (2) Bidirectional
(3) Lac operon – Jacoband Monod (3) Endothermic
(4) Central dogma – Watsonand crick (4) Substrate can be dinucleotide

68. Which of the following is first step in translation- 76. How many are correctly matched for Eukaryotes –
(1) tRNA combine with 30s (a) Translation- cytoplasm
(2) mRNA combine with 30s (b) Transcription- nucleus
(3) 30s combine with 50s (c) Splicing- Nucleus
(4) 50s with tRNA (d) DNA replication– Nucleus
(1) four (2) three
69. Number of open reading frames present in 210 bases (3) one (4) two
mRNA is-
(1) 70 (2) 3 77. Consider the following statements-
(3) 69 (4) 2 (a) Both DNA replication and transcription occur
in 5’ to 3’ direction
70. Consider the following- (b) phosphodiester bond present in RNA
(a) deletion mutation has no effect on How many statements are correct-
homopolymer frames (1) only a (2) both a and b
(b) UUU code for phenylalanine (3) only b (4) neither a nor b
How many are correct
(1) only a (2) both wrong 78. How many are correctly matched –
(3) only b (4) both a and b (a) Retrovirus – reverse transcription
(b) Non-histone chromosomal protein –
71. In lac operon low level of glucose and low level of packagingof DNA
lactose – (c) Template DNA – 5’ to 3’ direction
(1) Positive regulation of lac operon (d) Rho factor –termination
(2) Negative regulation of lac operon (1) four (2) three
(3) No regulation of lac operon (3) one (4) two
(4) All of the above is correct
79. Consider the following statements-
72. Which of the following are constitutive gene- (A) transcription and translation is coupled in
(1) Lac Z (2) Lac Y prokaryotes
(3) Lac A (4) Lac i (B) UTR is located only at 3’ end of mRNA
How many statements are correct-
73. Which of the following is absent in RNA- (1) only A (2) both A and B
(1) 2’- OH (3) only B (4) neither A nor B
(2) uracil
(3) catalytically active 80. How many are correctly matched –
(4) 5-methyl uracil (a) between two Nucleoside- phosphodiester
linkage present
74. Experiment of Taylor on Vicia faba used- (b) tRNA- functional in two degree
(1) thymine (2) thymidine (c) lac operon – inducibleoperon
(3) thymosine (4) thiamine (d) Okazaki fragment– made up of RNA
(1) four (2) three
(3) one (4) two
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Answer Key
1. (4) 28. (4) 55. (4)
2. (1) 29. (3) 56. (3)
3. (2) 30. (1) 57. (4)
4. (1) 31. (2) 58. (3)
5. (1) 32. (3) 59. (4)
6. (3) 33. (4) 60. (1)
7. (1) 34. (1) 61. (1)
8. (2) 35. (4) 62. (4)
9. (2) 36. (4) 63. (3)
10. (1) 37. (4) 64. (3)
11. (1) 38. (1) 65. (1)
12. (1) 39. (1) 66. (4)
13. (2) 40. (3) 67. (3)
14. (3) 41. (1) 68. (2)
15. (1) 42. (1) 69. (2)
16. (4) 43. (4) 70. (4)
17. (3) 44. (2) 71. (2)
18. (3) 45. (1) 72. (4)
19. (4) 46. (1) 73. (4)
20. (1) 47. (1) 74. (2)
21. (4) 48. (4) 75. (4)
22. (4) 49. (4) 76. (1)
23. (2) 50. (4) 77. (2)
24. (4) 51. (4) 78. (2)
25. (4) 52. (3) 79. (1)
26. (1) 53. (1) 80. (3)
27. (4) 54. (4)