r..

DOCUMENT RESUNE
ED 195 404 SF 033 252
TITLE Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane (Air Carrier)
Written Test Guide.
INSTITUTION Federal Aviation Administration (DOT), Washington,
D.C. Flight Standards Service.
TESORT NO AC-61-B7
PUB DATE 79
NOTE 228p.
AVAILABLE FROM Superintendent ^7 Documents, U.S. Government Printing
Office, Washinytc,n, DC 20402 (Stock No.
050-007-00472-9: $3.751.
EDPS PRICE MF01/PC10 Plus Postage.
DESCRIPTORS *Aerospace Education: *Aircraft Pilots: Aviation
Vocabulary: *Flight Traininc. Government
Publications: Higher Educatity,. Science Education:
*Study Guides: *Tests
ABSTRACT
Presented is information useful to applicants who are
preparing for the Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane (Air Carrier)
Written Test. The guide describes the basic aeronautical knowledge
and associated requirements for certification, as well as information
on source material, instructions for taking the official test, and
cuesticns that are representative of the test. (Author/JN)

***********************************************************************
Reproductions supplied by EDRS are the best that can be made
from the original document.
***********************************************************************
 AC 61- 87

AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT - AIRPLANE

(AIR CARRIER)
U.S DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH,
EDUCATION 8 WELFARE
NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF
EDUCATION

trs THIS DOCUMENT HAS BEEN REPRO-

r DUCED EXACTLY AS RECEIVED FROM

o4 THE PERSON OR ORGANIZATION ORIGIN.
ATING IT POINTS OF 'JIEW OR OPINIONS
STATED DO NOT NECESSARILY REPRE-
SENT OFFICIAL NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF
EDUCATION POSITION OR POLICY

WRITTEN TEST
GUIDE
srAns 0*1311e

c?

U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

co
cq FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
O
2.
AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT-AIRPLANE (AIR CARRIER)
WRITTEN TEST GUIDE

of TRANS
1)4,

a.
7
0 z

STATES Of P31'4.

1979

U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
FLIGHT STANDARDS SERVICE

For sale by the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Oovernnwent Printing Offke

Washington, D.C. 20402
 PREFACE

This written test guide has been prepared by the Federal Aviation Admin-
istration to assist applicants who are preparing for the Airline Transport Pilot-
Airplane (Air Carrier) Written Test. It supersedes AC 6148E, Airline Trans-
port Pilot-Airplane Written Test Guide, dated 1977.
This guide briefly explains the need for comprehensive instruction and de-
scribes the basic aeronautical knowledge and associated requirements for certi-
fication. Information on source material that may be used to acquire essential
knowledge in the various subject areas is also included. Further, it provides the
instructions for taking the official test as well as the questions representative of
those from which the FAA makes selections in composing that test, The ques-
tions given in this guide are predicated on regulations, principles, and practices
that were valid at the time of publication. Consequently, the questions in the
official test, whenever updated, may vary somewhat from those contained in
this guide.
Since the written test places major emphasis on requirements relating to
airline operations, all pilots taking it should expect to be examined on that
basis.
Comments regarding this publication: should be directed to the Depart-
ment of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Flight Standards Na-
tional Field Office, P. O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.

JAMES M. VINES
Acting Director
Flight Standards Service

4
 CONTENTS

Page

Preface
Contents iii
Introduction 1
Eligibility Requirements for Certificate 1
The Written Test 3
Study Materials 4
Aeronautical Knowledge Covered by the Written Test 7

Appendix 1

Test Questions 1

Appendix 2

Legend-Instrument Approach Procedures (Charts) 171

Legend - Instrument Approach Procedures (Charts) 172
Legend-SID and STAR Charts 173
Aircraft Approach Categories 174
Inoperative Components or Visual Aids Table 174
Legend-Enroute High Altitude Chart 175
Legend-Enroute High Altitude Chart 176
Legend-Enroute Low Altitude Chart 177
Legend-Enroute Low Altitude Chart 178
Relationship of Temperature to ISA 179
PIREP Decoding 180
Turbulence Reporting Criteria Table 180
Intensity and Ice Accumulation Reporting 160
Legend-Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft 180
Key to Aviation Weather Reports 181
Key to Aviation Weather Forecasts 181
Weather Chart Symbols 182
Physiological Training 183
Definitions 184
Question Selection Sheet 186
Test Answer Sheet 187
Flight Time Analysis Worksheet 189
Order Blank 191

iii
 I

AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT-AIRPLANE (AIR CARRIER)

WRITTEN TEST GUIDE

INTRODUCTION
ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS FOR CER-
The Federal Aviation Administration has TaICATE
adopted the "question book" concept for use in
determining an applicant's aeronautical knowl- The following excerpts from the Federal Avia-
edge. tion Regulations, Part 61, pertaining to eligibility,
are given for the convenience of the applicant.
At the testing center, the applicant is issued a
question book containing over nine hundred ques- "561.151 Eligibility requirements: general.
tions, an eighty-item question selection sheet
which indicates the specific questions to be an- To be eligible for an airline transport pilot cer-
swered, and an Airman Written Test Application tificate, a person must--
(AC Form 8080-3) which contains the answer (a) Be at least 23 years of age;
sheet. The question book includes all the sup- (b) Be of good moral character;
plementary material required to answer the test (c) Be able to read, write, and understand the
questions. Supplementary material, such as a per- English language and speak it without accent or
formance chart, will normally be found within impediment of speech that would interfere with
one page of the question with which it is associat- two-way radio conversation;
ed. Where this is not practicable, page reference (d) Be a high school graduate, or its equivalent
numbers will be given. Chart legends and other in the Administrator's opinion, based on the ap-
pertinent reference materials are contained in the plicant's general experience and aeronautical ex-
Appendix of the question book. perience, knowledge, and skill;
(e) Have a first-class medical certificate issued
This guide includes questions which are repre- under Part 67 of this chapter within the 6 months
sentative of those in the question book. The Sub- before the date he applies; and
ject Matter Outline (SMO) reference code for (f) Comply with the sections of this Part that
each question appears directly below each ques- apply to the rating he seeks."
tion number. This SMO code, and the Subject
Matter Outline, which appears on page 7, will en-
"561.153 Airplane rating: aeronautical knowl-
able the applicant to readily identify the refer-
ence upon which each question is based. A edge.
sample 80-item question selection sheet is in- An applicant for an airline transport pilot cer-
cluded in the Appendix, along with an example of tificate with an airplane rating must, after meet-
the answer sheet used by the applicant for the of- ing the requirements of 55[61.151] (except par-
ficial test. agraph (a) thereof) and [61.155], pass a written
test on --
It should be emphasized that a written test
merely samples an applicant's knowledge in a par- (a) The sections of this Part relating to airline
ticular area. The objective of Section 61.153 is to transport pilots and Part 121, subpart C of Part
ensure that the applicant has the knowledge re- 65, and "91.1 through 91.9 and subpart B of Part
quired for competent performance as an Airline 91 of this chapter, and so much of Parts 21 and 25
Transport Pilot in airplanes. A careful study of all of this chapter as relate to the operations of air
the questions contained in this guide along with carrier aircraft;
the associated reference material will give the ap- (b) The fundamentals of air navigation and use
plicant this broad knowledge base. of formulas, instruments, and other navigational
1
aids, both in aircraft and on the ground, that are (i) 500 hours of cross-country
necessary for navigating aircraft by instruments; flight time;
(c) The general system of weather collection (ii) 100 hours of night flight time;
and dissemination; and
(d) Weather maps, weather forecasting, and (iii) 75 hours of actual or simu-
weather sequence abbreviations, symbols, and lated instrument time, at least 50 hours
nomenclature; of which were in actual flight.
(e) Elementary meteorology, including knowl-
edge of cyclones as associated with fronts; Flight time used to meet the requirements of sub-
(f) Cloud forms; paragraph (1) of this paragraph may also be used
(g) National Weather Service Federal Meteoro- to meet the requirements of subparagraph (2) of
logical Handbook No. 1, as amended; this paragraph. Also, an applicant who has made
(h) Weather conditions, including icing condi- at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full
tions and upper-air winds, that affect aeronautical stop may substitute one additional night takeoff
activities; and landing to a full stop for each hour of night
(i) Air navigation facilities used on Federal air- flight time required by subparagraph (2)(ii) of this
ways, including rotating beacons, course lights, paragraph. However, not more than 25 hours of
radio ranges, and radio marker beacons; night flight time may be credited in this manner.
(j) Information from airplane weather observa- (c) If an applicant with less than 150 hours of
tions and meteorological data reported from ob- pilot in command time otherwise meets the re-
servations made by pilots on air carrier flights; quirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, his
(k) The influence of terrain on meteorological certificate will be endorsed "Holder does not
conditions and developments, and their relation meet the pilot in command flight experience re-
to air carrier flight operations; quirements of ICAO," as prescribed by Article 39
(1) Radio communication procedure in aircraft of the "Convention on International Civil Avia-
operations; and tion." Whenever he presents satisfactory written
(m) Basic principles of loading and weight dis- evidence that he has accumulated the 150 hours
tribution and their effect on flight characteristics:' of pilot in command time, he is entitled to a new
certificate without the endorsement.
"161.155 Airplane rating: aeronautical experi- (d) A commercial pilot may credit toward the
ence. 1500 hours total flight time requirement of sub-
paragraph (b)(2) of this section the following
(a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot flight time in operations conducted under Part
certificate with an airplane rating must hold a 121 of this chapter:
commercial pilot certificate or a foreign airline (1) All second in command time acquired
transport pilot or commercial pilot license without in airplanes required to have more than one
limitations, issued by a member state of ICAO, or pilot by their approved Aircraft Flight Manuals
he must be a pilot in an Armed Force of the or airworthiness certificates; and
United States whose military experience qualifies (2) Flight engineer time acquired in air-
him for a commercial pilot certificate under planes required to have a flight engineer by
1[61.73] of this Part. their approved Aircraft Flight Manuals, while
(b) An applicant must have had participating at the same time in an approved
(1) At least 250 hours of flight time as pilot training program approved under Part
pilot in command of an airplane, or as copilot 121 of this chapter.
of an airplane performing the duties and func-
tions of a pilot in command under the supervi- However, the applicant may not credit under sub-
sion of a pilot in command, or any combination paragraph (2) of this paragraph more than 1 hour
thereof, at least 100 hours of which were cross- for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time so
country time and 25 hours of which were night acquired, nor more than a total of 500 hours.
flight time; and (e) If an applicant who credits second in com-
(2) At least 1500 hours of flight time as a mand or flight engineer time under para-
pilot, including at least- graph (d) of this section toward the 1500 hours
2
total flight time requirement of subparagraph tion sheet, answer sheet, and any papers used for
(b)(2) of this section computations or notations, to the proctor before
(1) Does not have at least 1200 hours of leaving the test room.
flight time as a pilot including no more than 50 When taking the test, the applicant should keep
percent of his second in command time and the following points in mind:
none of his flight engineer time; but 1. Answer each question in accordance with
(2) Otherwise meets the requirements of the latest regulations and procedures.
subparagraph (b)(2) of this section, 2. Read each question carefully before looking
his certificate will be endorsed "Holder does not at the possible answers. You should clearly
meet the pilot flight experience requirements of understand the problem before attempting
ICAO," as prescribed by Article 39 of the "Con- to solve it.
vention on International Civil Aviation." When- 3. After formulating an answer, determine
ever he presents satisfactory evidence that he has which of the alternatives most nearly corre-
accumulated 1200 hours of flight time as a pilot sponds with that answer. The answer chosen
including no more than 50 percent of his second should completely resolve the problem.
in command time and none of his flight engineer 4. From the answers given, it may appear that
time, he is entitled to a new certificate without there is more than one possible answer;
the endorsement." however, there is only one answer that is
correct and complete. The other answers are
[(f) either incomplete or are derived from popu-
[Reserved]]
lar misconceptions.
5. If a certain question is difficult for you, it is
THE WRITTEN TEST best to proceed to other questions. After the
less difficult questions have been answered,
Questions and Se,ring return to those which gave you difficulty. Be
sure to indicate on the question selection
The official test questions are of the multiple- sheet the questions to which you wish to re-
choice type. Answers to questions listed on the turn.
question selection sheet should be marked on the 6. When solving a computer problem, select
answer sheet of the Airman Written Application the answer nearest your solution. The prob-
(AC Form 8080-3). Directions should be read lem has been checked with various types of
carefully before beginning the test. Incomplete or computers; therefore, if you have solved it
erroneous personal information entered on this correctly, your answer will be closer to the
form delays the scoring process. correct answer than to any of the other
The answer sheet is sent to the Mike Monroney choices.
Aeronautical Center in Oklahoma City where it is 7. Enter personal data in appropriate spaces on
scored by a computer to indicate by code, the the test answer sheet in a complete and leg-
knowledge areas in which the applicant is found ible manner to aid in scoring. The test num-
to be deficient. A written test Subject Matter ber is printed on the question selection
Outline, which lists these knowledge areas by sheet. It is not the number on the question
code, is enclosed with the Airman Written Test book.
Report (AC 8080-2). The applicant must present
this report for a flight test, or for retesting in the RetestingFAR 61.49
event of written test failure.
Applicants who receive a failing grade, may
Taking the Test apply for retesting by presenting their Airman
Written Test Report, AC Form 8080-2
The written test may be taken at FAA Flight
Standards District Offices and other designated (1) after 30 days from the date the applicant
places. After completing the test, the applicant failed the test; or,
must surrender the question book, question selec- (2) in case of the first failure, the applicant
may apply for ret ,sting before the 30 days

3
 have expired upon presenting a written Airport/Facility Directory Issued every 8
statement from an authorized instructor weeks (National Ocean Survey, NOAA, De-
certifying that the instructor has given partment of Commerce.)
ground instruction to the applicant and
finds the applicant competent to pass the FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS (FARs)
test. (Sup't. Doe's.)
Part 1, Definitions and Abbreviations
STUDY MATERIALS
Individuals preparing for the Airline Trans- Part 61, Certification: Pilots and Flight In-
port Pilot-Airplane (Mr-Carrier) Written Test will structors
find the following list of publications and mater- Part 65, Certification: Airmen Other than
ials helpful. Textbooks and other reference Flight Crewmembers
materials are available from many commercial
publishers. It is the responsibility of each appli- Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules
cant to obtain appropriate study materials. Part 121, Certification and Operations: Do-
These publications identified. as mestic, Flag, and Supplemental Air Carriers
"(Sup't.
Doe's.)" are for sale from: and Commercial Operators of Large Aircraft

Superintendent of Documents
U. S. Government Printing Office ADVISORY CIRCULARS
Washington, D. C. 20402
00--6AAviation Weather
or from GPO bookstores located in major cities Provides an up-to-date and expanded text for
throughout the United States. Those publications pilots and other flight operations personnel whose
identified as "(Free from FAA)" may be obtained interest in meteorology is primarily in its applica-
from: tion to flying. (Sup't. Doc's.)

U. S. Department of Transportation 00-24Thunderstorms

Publications Section, M-443.1 Contains information concerning flights in or
Washington, D. C. 20590 near thunderstorms. (Free from FAA)

The Advisory Circular Checklist, AC 00-2, is 00-30Rules of Thumb for Avoiding or Minimiz-
also available free of charge from the above ad- ing Encounters with Clear Air Turbulence
dress. The Checklist contains complete titles and Brings to the attention of pilots and other inter-
ordering instructions for both free and for sale ested personnel, the "Rule of Thumb" for avoid-
FAA advisory circulars. ing or minimizing encounters with clear air turbu-
lence (CAT). (Free from FAA)
AIRMAN'S INFORMATION MANUAL (AIM) --
Issued semiannually (Sup't. Doe's.) 00-45AAviation Weather Services
Supplements AC 00-6A, Aviation Weather, in
This publication presents information neces- that it explains the weather service in general and
sary for the planning and conduct of flight in the the use and interpretation of reports, forecasts,
U.S. National Airspace System. This manual is weather maps, and prognostic charts in detail. Is
complimented by other operational publications an excellent source of study for pilot certification
which are available upon separate subscription. examinations. (Sup't. Doc's.)
These publications are:
Graphic Notices and Operational Data Issued 00-50Low Level Wind Shear
quarterly (Sup't. Doe's.) Provides guidance fIr recognizing the meteoro-
logical situations that produce the phenomenon
Notices to Airmen (Class-II) -- Issued every 14 widely known as low level wind shear. (Free from
days. (Sup't. Doc's.) FAA)

4
20-32B-Carbon Monoxide (CO) Contamination equipped air traffic control facilities. (Free from
in AircraftDetection and Prevention FAA)
Provides information on the potential dangers
of carbon monoxide contamination -from faulty 91--6A-Water, Slush, and Snow on the Runway
engine exhaust systems or cabin heaters of the ex- Provides background and guidelines concerning
haust gas heat exchanger type. (Free from FAA) the operation of turbojet aircraft with water,
slush, and/or snow on the runway. (Free from
60-4-Pilot's Spatial Disorientation FAA)
Acquaints pilots flying under visual flight rules
with the hazards of disorientation caused by the 91.11-1-Guide to Drug Hazards in Aviation
loss of reference with the natural horizon. (Free Medicine
from FAA) Lists all commonly used drugs by pharma-
cological effect on airmen with side effects and
61-27B-Instrument Flying Handbook recommendations. (Sup't. Doe's.)
Provides the pilot with basic information
needed to acquire an FAA instrument rating. It is 91 - -23A- Pilot's Weight and Balance Handbook
designed for the reader who holds at least a pri- Provides an easily understood text on aircraft
vate pilot certificate and is knowledgeable in all weight and balance for pilots who need to ap-
areas covered in the "Pilot's Handbook of Aero- preciate the importance of weight and balance
nautical Knowledge." (Sup't. Doc's.) control for safety of flight. Progresses from an ex-
planation of basic fundamentals to the complete
61-77-Airline Transport Pilot Airplane Practical application of weight and balance principles in
Test Guide large aircraft operations. (Sup't. Doe's.)
Designed to assist the applicant and his instruc-
tor in preparing for the Airline Transport Pilot 91--24-Aircraft Hydroplaning or Aquaplaning on
Certificate with an Airplane Rating under FAR Wet Runways
Part 61 (revised). (Sup't. Doc's.) Provides information on the problem of aircraft
tires hydroplaning on wet runways. (Free from
90-1A-Civil Use of U.S. Government Produced FAA)
Instrument Approach Charts
Clarifies landing minimums requirements and
revises instrument approach charts. (Free from 91--25A-Loss of Visual Cues During Low Visibil-
FAA) ity Landings
Provides information concerning the impor-
90 - -23D -Wake Turbulence tance of maintaining adequate visual cues during
Alerts pilots to the hazards of aircraft trailing the descent below MDA or DA. (Free from FAA)
vortex wake turbulence and recommends related
operational procedures. (Free from FAA) 91 --43- Unreliable Airspeed Indications
Alerts pilots to the possibility of erroneous air-
90-62- Flying DME Arcs speed/Mach indications that may be caused by
Describes the procedures and techniques for blocking or freezing of the pitot system and ad-
intercepting DME arcs from radials, maintaining vises of corrective action that can be taken. (Free
DME arcs, and intercepting radials and localizers from FAA)
from DME arcs. (Free from FAA)
95-1-Airway and Route Obstruction Clearance
90-64 Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) Advises all interested persons of the airspace
III areas within which obstruction clearance is con-
Advises the aviation community of the capabili- sidered in the establishment of Minimum En
ties of the Automated Radar Terminal System Route Instrument Altitudes (MEA's) for publica-
and the associated services provided by ARTS III tion in FAR Part 95. (Free from FAA)

5
120-5High Altitude Operations in Areas of Tur- 121-12Wet or Slippery Runways
bulence Provides uniform guidelines in the application
Recommends procedures for use by jet pilots of the "wet runway" rule by certificate holders
when penetrating areas of severe turbulence. operating under FAR 121. (Free from FAA)
(Free from FAA)
121-18Aviation SecurityCarriage of Weapons
120-28BCriteria for Approval of Category Ilia and Escorted Persons
Landing Weather Minima Provides information and guidence for the im-
States an acceptable means, not the only plementation of amendments to FAR Part 121 re-
means, for obtaining approval of Category Illa garding the carriage of weapons on aircraft and
minima and the installation approval of the associ- for the carriage of persons in the custody of law
ated airborne systems. (Free from FAA) enforcement officers. (Free from FAA)
120-29Criteria for Approving Category / and 121.195(d)-1Alternate Operational Lauding
Category II Landing Minima for FAR Distances for Wet Runways; Tur-
121 Operators bojet Powered Transport Category
Sets forth criteria used by FAA in approving Airplanes
turbojet landing minima of less than 300-3/4 or Sets forth an acceptable means, but not the
RVR 4,000 (Category I) and Category II minima only means, by which the alternate provision of
for all aircraft. (Free from FAA) section 121.195(d) may be met. (Free from FAA)

6
 AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE COVERED BY THE WRITTEN TEST

To determine the knowledge areas in which you experienced difficulty, compare the subject
Test Report, AC Form 8080-2, with the coded items on the subject matter outline below. Thematter codes on the enclosed Airman Written
total number of test items you missed cannot
be determined by the number of subject matter codes shown on AC Form 8080-2, since
each subject matter code identified. you may have missed more than one question in

NOTE: FAR Parts 1, 61, 85, 91 and 121

are modified under "srbehopter D, Mrinen, of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
FAR PART 1: DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS
A10 General definitions (1.1) Transport category airplanes: Reciprocating engine powered:
A20 Abbreviations; symbols (1.2)
Ell takeoff limitations (121.177)
E12 en route limitations: all engines operating (121.174)
FAR PART 81: E13 landing limitations: destination airport (121.185)
CERTIFICATION: PILOTS AND FLIGHT E14 landing ihnlations: alternate airport (121.187)
INSTRUCTORS
Subpart A - General Transport category airplanes: turbine engine powered:
E15 takeoff limitations (121.189)
BIO Requirements: certificates; ratings (81.3)
E18 en route limitation.% one engine inoperative (121.191)
Duration: E17
B11 CAT H pilot authorization (01.21) en route limitations: two engines inoperative (121.193)
B12
Eld landing limitations: destination; alternate
medical certificates (81.23) airports
B13 Pilot logbooks: logging flight time (31.51) (121.195;:21.197)
E19 Carriage of cargo in passenger compartment.;
B14 Recent flight experience: pilot in command; instrument (121.285)
E20 Demonstration of emergency evacuation
(81.57) procedures
(121.291)
Subpart B - Aircraft Ratings and Special Certificates
B20 Category 11 pilot authorization (81.87) Subpart K -Inrument and Equipment Requirements
Subpart F - Airline Transport Pilots E3 navigational equipment (121.305)
/330Eligibility (81.151) E31 Emergency t luipment (121.309)
B31 Airplane rating: aeronautical E32 Additional emergency equipment (121.310)
knowledge (81.153) E33 Seat and safety belts (121.311)
experience (81.155) Supplements,' oxygen: reciprocating engine powered air.
skill (81.157) planes:
B32 Instruction in air transportation service (81.160) E34 unpressurired cabin (121.327)
B33 General privileges; limitations (81.171) E35 pressurized cabin (121.331)
FAR PART 65: CERTIFICATION: AIRMAN OTHER THAN E36 Supplemental oxygen for sustenance:
turbine engine
powered airplanes (121.329)
FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS
Subpart C - Aircraft Dispatchers E37 Supplemental oxygen for emergency descent; first
(121.333)
aid
CIO Certificate required (85.51) E38 Emergency equipment for extended overwater operations
C11 Eligibility requirement: general (85.53)
(121.339)
C12 Knowledge requirements (85.55)
£39 Emergency flotation means (121340)
C13 Experience requirements (85.57) E40 Flight recorders (121.343)
C14 Skill requirements (85.59)
Radio equipment
FAR PART 91, GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT E41 routes navigated by pilotage (VFR) (121.347)
RULES E42 routes not navigated by pilotage (VFR); IFR; over-the-top
Subpart A - General (121.349)
D10 Pilot in command: responsibility; E43 Airborne weather radar equipment reouirements (121.357)
DI 1 Preflight action (91.5)
authority (91.3)
E44 Cockpit voice recorders (121.359)
D12 Category' 11 operation; general operating rules (91.6) E45 Ground proximity warning-glide slope deviation alerting
D13 Flight crewmembers at stations (01.7) system (121.380)
D14 Interference with crewmembers (918)
Subpart NI - Airman and Crewmember Requirements
D15 Fuel requirements: IFR conditions (91.23)
D18 ATC transponder equipment (91.24) FIO Composition of flight crew (121.385)
Fi 1 Flight attendants (121.391)
D17 VOR equipment check (IFR) (91.25)
D18 Authorization: ferry flight; one engine inoperative (91.45) Subpart N - Training Program
Subpart B - Flight Rules F20 Applicability and terms used (121.400)
D20 Aircraft speed (91.70) F21 Training program: general (121.401)
D21 Alt clearances; instructions (91.75) F22 Crewmember emergency training (121.417)
D22 ATC light signals (91.77) Subpart 0 - Crewmember Qualifications
D23 Flight plan; information required (91.83) F30 General (121.432)
D24 Operations at airports: with operating control towers F31 Handling, carriage of dangerous articles (121.433a)
(91.87)
F32 Operating experience (121.434)
D25 Operations at airports: without control towers (91.89) F33 Pilot qualification: certificates required (121.437)
D28 Terminal Control Areas (91.90) F34 Recent experience (121.439)
D30 Weather minimums: basic VFR (91.105) F35
D31 Line checks (121.440)
Weather minimums: special VFR (91.107) F38 Proficiency checks (121.441)
D32 VFR cruising altitudes; flight levels (91.109)
D40 ATC clearance, flight plan required (IFR) (91.115) Pilot in command qualifications: routes and airports:
D41 F37 domestic; flag (121.443)
Takeoff and landing (IFR): general (31.118)
D42 Limitations on use of LAP (91.117) F38 supplemental; commercial (121.445)
D43 Minimum altitudes (IFR) (91.119) F39 Pilot; route; airport qualifications for particular trips:
D44 Cruising altitudes or flight levels' FR) (91.121) domestic; flag (121.447)
D45 Radio communications (IFR) (91.125) Subpart P - Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time
D48 Two-way communications failure (IFR) (91.127)
D47 Operation in controlled airspace (IFR) malfunction re- Limitations: Domestic and Flag Air Carriers
ports (91.129) F40 Aircraft dispatcher qualifications (121.483)
F41 Duty time limitations: domestic; flag (121A85)
Appendix A - Category II Operations
D50 Required instruments; equipment (App. A, 2) Subpart Q - Flight Time Limitations: Domestic Air Carriers
D51 Instruments; equipment approval (App. A, 3)
C10 All flight crewmembers (121.471)
D52 Maintenance program (App. A, 4)
FAR PART 121: DOMESTIC, FLAG, AND SUPPLEMENTAL Subpart R - Flight Time Limitations: Flag Air Carriers
AIR CARRIERS AND COMMERCIAL OPER- C20 One or two pilot crews (121.4131)
ATORS OF LARGE AIRCRAFT C21 Two pilots; one additional flight crewmember (121.483)
Subpart 1 - Airplane Performance %mating limitations C22 Three or more pilots; one additional flight crevnnember
EIO Applicability (121.171) (121.485)
C23 Other commercial flying (121.489)

7
Subpart S - Flight Time Limitations: Supplemental Air Carriers 149 Applicability of reported weather minimums (121.655)
and Commercial Operators 150 Flight altitude rules (121.657)
C30 Pilots: airplanes (121.503) Initial approach altitude:
C31 Two pilot crews: airplanes (121.505) 151 domestic; supplemental; commercial (121.659)
C32 Three pilot crews: airplanes (121.507) 160 Responsibility for dispatch release: domestic; flag (121.663)
C33 Four pilot crews: as (121.509) 161 Load manifest (121.665)
C34 An Airmen: airplanes (121.515) 162 Flight plan: VFR, IFR: Supplemental; commercial (121.667)
C35 Other commercial flying: airplanes (121.517) Subpart V - Records and Reports
C38 Crew of two pilots; one additinnal airman (121.521) 170 Dispatch release: flag; domestic (121.687)
C37 Crew of three or mnre pilots; additional airmen (121.523) 171 Flight release form: supplemental; commercial (121.689)
C38 Pilots serving in more than one kind of flight crew
(121.525) Load manifest:
172 domestic; flag (121.691)
Subpart T - Flight Operations 173 supplemental commercial (121.693)
Responsibility for operational control: Disposition of load manifest, dispatch release, and flight plans:
H10 domestic (121.533) 174 domestic; flag (121.695)
H11 flag (121.535) 175 supplemental; commercial (121.697)
H12 supplemental; commercial (121.537) 176 Mechanical reliability reports (121.703)
H13 Aircraft security (121.538) 177
H14 Flight crewmembers at controls (121.543) Airworthiness release or aircraft log entry (121.709)
178 Communications records: domestic; flag (121.711)
H15 Manipulation of controls (121.545)
H16 Admission to flight deck (121.547) Subpart W - Crewrnember Certificate: International
1117 Admission to pilot's compartment-aviation safety inspector 180 Applicability (121.721)
(121.548) 190 First aid kits (App. A)
H18 Flying equipment (121.549) 191 Doppler radar; INS (App. C)
H19 Admission to flight deck-Secret Service Agents (121350)
Emergencies: AVIATION WEATHER, AC 00-6A
H2O domestic; flag (121.557)
H21 supplemental; commercial (121.559) The Earth's Atmosphere (Ch. 1)
H22 Reporting: potentially hazardous meteorological condi- J10 Composition
ditions/irregularities of ground/navigation facilities ill Vertical structure
(121.561) 312 Standard atmosphere
H23 mechanical irregularities (121.583) 313 Density and hypoxia
H24 engine inoperative-landing (121.565) Temperature (Ch. 2)
1125 Instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums J20 Scales
(121.567) 321 Heat and temperature
1126 Briefing passengers before takeoff (121.571) 322 Variations
1127 Briefing passengers: extended overwater operations (121.573) . Atmospheric Pressure and Altimeby (Ch. 3)
H28 Alcoholic beverages (121.575) J30 Pressure
1129 Minimum altitudes for use of autopilot (121.579) 331 Altimetry
1130 Forward observer's seat: en route inspection (121.581) Wind (Ch. 4)
H31 Carriage of passengers under control of armed law enforce- J40 Convection
ment officers (121.584) 341 Pressure gradient
1132 Carriage of weapons (121.585) J42 Coriolis force
1133 Ckeing; locking of flight compartment door (121.587) 343 General circulation
1134 Carry-on baggage (121.589) 344 Friction
Subpart U - Dispatching and Flight Release Rules 345 Jet stream
I10 Dispatching authority: domestic (121.593) 346 Local, small scale winds
Ill Dispatching authority: flag (121.595) 347 Wind shear
112 Flight release authority: supplemental; commercial (121.597) 348 Wind, pressure systems, and weather
113 Aircraft dispatcher information to PIC: domestic; flag Moisture, Cloud Formation, and Precipitation (Ch. 5)
(121.601) IC10 Water vapor
114 Facilities; services: supplemental; commercial (121.603) 1(11 Change of state
115 Communication; navigation facilities: domestic; flag IC12 Cloud formation
(121.607) IC13 Precipitation
118 Communication; navigation facilities: supplemental; com- IC14 Land and water effects
mercial (121.609) Stable and Unstable Air (Ch. 8)
117 Dispatch or flight release - VFR (121.611) IC20 Changes within upward/downward movement
118 Dispatch or flit release -IFB or over-the-top (121.813) 1(21 Stability, instability
119 Dispatch or flight release - overwater: flag; supplemental; Clouds (Ch. 7)
commercial (121.615) 1(30 Identification
Alternate airport for. 1(31 Signposts
120 departure (121.617)
121 destination: IFR or over-the-top: domestic air carriers Airmasses and Fronts (Ch. 8)
(121.619) 1(40 Airmasses
122 destination: flag (121.621) 1(41 Fronts
123 destination: 1FR or over-the-top: supplemental; commer- 1(42 Flight planning
cial (121.623) Turbulence (Ch. 9)
124 Alternate airport weather minimums (121.625) L10 Convective currents
125 Continuing flight in unsafe conditions (121.627) L11 Obstructions to wind flow
126 Operation in icing conditions (121.629) L12 Wind shear
130 Original dispatch or flight release (amendment) (121.631) L13 Wake turbulence
131 Dispatch to/from refueling or provisional airports: domestic; Icing (Ch. 10)
flag (121.835) L20 Structural
134 Takeoffs from unlisted; alternate airports: domestic; flag L21 Induction system
(121.637) L22 Instrument
Fuel supply: L23 Icing and cloud types
140 all operations: domestic (121.639) L24 Other factors
141 nonturbine; turbopropeller-powered airplanes: flag L25 Ground
(121.641) L26 Frost
142 nonturbine; turbopropeller-powered airplanes: supplemen- Thunderstorms (Ch. 11)
tal; commercial (121.643)
143 turbine-engine-Flowered airplanes other than turbopro- L30 Development
peller: flag; supplemental; commercial (121.645) L31 Cycles, stages
144 Factors for computing fuel required (121.647) L32 Types
Takeoff; landing weather minimums: L33 Hazards
L34 Thunderstorm flying; radar
145 VFR: domestic (121.649)
148 IFR: domestic; flag (121.651) 1FR Producers (Ch. 12)
147 IFB: supplemental; commercial (121.653) L40 Fog
148 Landing weather minimums: IFR: all certificate holders L41 Low stratus clouds
(121.652) L42 Haze and smoke

8 13
 1.43 Blowing restrictions to visibility P13 Formats
L44 Precipitation P14 Use of charts
ILA5 Obscured or partially obscured sky
Tropopause, Max Wind, and Wind Shear Charts (Sec. 15)
High Altitude Weather (Ch. 13) P20 Observed tropopause chart
MW Tropopause P21 Domestic tropopause wind; wind shear progs
M11 Jet stream P22 International tropopause; wind shear progs
M12 Cirrus clouds
M13 Clear air turbulence Tables and Conversion Graphs (Sec. 18)
M14 Haze layers P30 Icing intensities
M15 Icing P31 Turbulence intensities
MW Thunderstorms P32 Locations of turbulence by intensities vs. weather; terrain
P33 Standard conversions
AVIATION WEATHER SERVICES, AC 0043 P34 Density altitude computation
Surface Aviation Weather Report (Sec. 2) P35 Selected contractions
NIO Type and time of report
N11 Sky condition. ceiling, and visibility ENROUTE LOW/HICH ALTITUDE/AREA CHARTS
N12 Weather; obstructions to vision Legend:
N13 Sea level pressure Q10 Aerodromes
N14 Temperature, dewpoint Q11 Radio aids to navigation, communication boxes
N15 Wind Q12 Air traffic services; airspace information
NW Altimeter setting Q13 Special use
N17 Remarks Q14 Cruising alti es
N18 Report identifiers Q15 A/C voice communications
N19 Reading the report Route/Airway
Pilot and Radar Reports (Sec. 3) Q20 Identification, route structure
NW Pilot weather reports (PIREPS) Q21 Substitute; unusable
N21 Radar weather reports (RAREPS) Q22 Changeover points
Aviation Weather Forecasts (Sec. 4) Q23 Operational status: VOR/VORTAC/NDB
Q24 Altitudes: MEA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, MM
N30 Terminal forecastsFT
N31 Area forecastsFA INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE CHARTS
N32 TWEB Route Forecasts: Sync Q30 Pilot control of airport lighting
N33 Inflight AdvisoriesWS, WA, WAC Q31 Approach lighting systemslegend
N34 Winds; Temperatures Aloft ForecastFD Q32 General information; abbreviations
N35 Spedal Flight Forecast Q33 Plan view symbols
N38 Hurricane AdvisoryWH Q34 Profile
N37 Convective OutlookAC Q35 Inoperative components; visual aids
N38 Severe Weather Watch BulletinWW Q38 Aircraft approach categories
Surface Analysis (Sec. 5) Q37 Takeoff minimums; departure procedures
N40 Valid time Q38 IFR alternate minimums
N41 Isobars Q39 Civil radar instrument approach minimums
N42 Pressure systems Q40 Interpretation
N43 Fronts AIRMAN'S INFORMATION MANUAL BASIC FLIGHT
N44 Other information INFORMATION & ATC PROCEDURES
N45 Use of chart
Navigation Aids (ch. 1)
Weather Depiction Chart (Sec. 8)
010 Plotted data RIO Aeronautical information; NAS
011 Analysis R11 NDB
R12 VOA. VORTAC, DME; equipment check
012 Use of chart R13 Class, operational use
Radar Summary Chart (Sec. 7) R14 Marker beacons
020 Echo pattern; coverage R15 Instrument landing systems
021 Weather associated with echoes R le SDF
022 Intensity; trend of precipitation R17 Maintenance
023 Heights of echo bases; tops R18 VHF/UHF DF
024 Milvement of echoes R19 Radar: ASK, PAR
025 Additional information Airport, Air Navigation Lighting; Masking Aids (Ch. 1)
028 Use of chart R20 Rotating beacon
Significant Weather Prognostics (Sec. 8) R21 Obstructions
030 Domestic flights R22 Instrument approach light stems
031 International flights R23 Runway edge light systems
032 Using significant weather progs. R24 Marking
Winds and Temperatures Aloft (Sec. 9) 1125 In-runway lighting
040 Forecast winds; temperatures aloftFD 1128 VASI
041 Observed winds aloft Airspace (Ch. 2)
042 Use of charts Distance from clouds, visibilityVFR
Freezing Level Chart (Sec. 10) R30 uncontrolled airspace
050 Plotted data R31 controlled airspace
051 Analysis R32 Control Areas, Transition Area, Terminal Control Area,
052 Use of chart Positive Control Area, Control Zone
R33 Special Use AirspaceProhibited Area, Restricted Area,
Stability Chart (Sec. 11)
Warning Area, Alert Area, !WA. MOA
000 Lifted index 1134 Airport Advisory/Traffic Areas, temporary MO restric-
081 K index Cons
082 Stability analysis Air Traffic Control (Ch. 3)
083 Use of chart
R40 Servicescontrol tower, FSS, VFR advisory service, air-
Severe Weather Outlook Chart (Sec. 12) port
070 General thunderstorms R41 UNICOM, MULTICOM
071 Severe thunderstorms 1142 ATIS
072 Tornadoes R43 Radar servicetraffic information, advisory, assistance,
073 Use of chart Stage I, II, III
R44 Terminal Control Area operationsCroup I, II, III
Constant Pressure Chart (Sec. 13)
080 Plotted data R45 Transponder operation
081 Analysis Airport Operations
082 Three-dimensional aspects R50 Use of runways, intersection takeoffs
083 Use of charts 1151 Landings, approaches (instrument option)
Constant Pressure Prognostics (Sec. 14) 1152 Light signals
P10 Height, contours, streamlines ATC Clearance/Separations (Ch. 3)
Pll Telmer:ter -SIC Clearance items
P12 W S11 Amended clearance

-1 4
 512 Special VFR clearance X12 Fuel requirements.
S13 1FR reparation standards X13 Airspeed, mach adjust
S14 Speed Adjustments X14 Specific range (NAM/1,000)
SI5 Visual separation X15 Density altitude
S 18 VFR restrictions X16 Rate of climb, descent
S17 Runway separation X17 Wind drift/speed
Preflight (Ch. 3) X18 Off-course corrections
S20 Weather briefing, NOTAMs Performance Charts
S21 Flight planVFR Y10 Crosswind, effective wind
S22 DVFR Y I I Takeoff EPR
S23 VFR/IFR (composite) YI2 STAB trim
S24 Flight planIFR Y13 Takeoff, distance/speeds
S25 Airways/jet routes YI4 Takeoff, limiting weights
S28 Direct flights Y25 Climb EPR
S27 VFR operations Y26 Cruise EPR, mach
S28 Change in IFR flight plan, cancelling Y27 Fuel flow, consumption
S29 Closing VFR/DVFR flight plan Y28 Descenttime/distance/fuel
Departures 1FR (Ch. 3) Y30 Holdingtime, fuel, speed
TIO Pre-taxi/taxi clearance . Y3I Fuel dumptime, weights
TI1 Abbreviated IFR departure clearance Y32 Landinglimiting
T12 Takeoff denial Y33 Co-around EPR /speeds
T13 Departure control; instrument departures Y40 Simplified flight planning
T14 SIDS; filing, ATC clearance, procedures, transitions Y41 Short Distance Cruise Altitude Chart
En route IFR (C11. 3) MISCELLANEOUS
Communications ZIO Airport/Facility Directory
T20 Direct controller/pilots Z11 Restrictions to Enroute Navigation Aids
T21 Frequency change ZI2 Preferred routes
T22 IFR position reporting, additional reports ZI3 Area navigation
T23 Airway/route systems, course changes ZI4 DME Arc
T24 Changeover points ZI5 Instrument interpretation; indications
T25 Aircraft climbing/descending Z18 Hydroplaning
T26 Operation in restricted airspace ZI7 Aircraft performancefactors affecting
T27 Holding ZI8 Mach, mach number, critical mach
T28 STARsfiling, ATC clearance, procedures, transitions ZI9 Unusual attitude recovery
Arrival IFR (Ch. 3) STUDY MATERIALS
U10 Radar approach control, instrument approach The following materials may be obtained from:
U 11 Advance information
U12 Clearance Superintendent of Documents
Procedures U.S. Government Printing Office
U14 Radar approaches Washington, D.C. 20402
U15 Simultaneous ILS approaches AC 61-87 Airline Transport Pilot (Airplane) Air Carrier
U16 Radar monitoring Written Test Guide
U17 Timed approaches AC 65-4B Aircraft Dispatcher Written Test Guide
U18 Procedure turn AC 00.8A Aviation Weather
U19 Visual approach AC 00-45A Aviation Weather Services
U20 Contact approach AC 91-23A Pilot's Weight and Balance Handbook
U21 Side-step maneuver AC 61-27B Instrument Flying Handbook
U22 Weather minimums AC 91.11-1 Cuide to Drug Hazards in Aviation Medicine
U23 Missed approach Airman's Information Manual
U24 Landing priority Airport /Facility Directory
Emergency Procedures (Ch. 3) Federal Aviation Regulations. Parts 1.61, 65, 91. and 121
VIO General
VII VHF/UHF DF approach procedures The following Advisory Circulars may be obtained free from:
V12 Two-way communications failure U.S. Department of Transportation
V13 Special emergency Publications Section, TAD-443.1
V14 Hijack procedures Washington, D.C. 20590
V15 Fuel dumping AC 00-24 Thunderstorms
VI6 Ditching AC 00-30 Rules of Thumb for Avoiding or Minimizing En-
V17 Search; rescue counters with Clear Air Turbulence
National Security (Ch. 3) AC 00-50 Low Level Wind Shear
V20 Security control of aircraft domestic/coastal ADIZ. AC 20-3213 Carbon Monoxide (CO) Contamination in Aircraft
DEW IZ Detection and Prevention
V21 SCATANA AC 60-4 Pilot's Spatial Disorientation
V22 Interception pattern, signals AC 90-IA Civil Use of U.S. Government Produced Instrument
Safety of Flight (Ch. 4) Approach Charts (90-IA is included in the Instru-
V30 En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) ment Flying Handbook)
V3I Transcribed weather broadcasts AC 90 23D Wake Turbulence
V32 Scheduled weather broadcasts AC 90-62 Flying DME Arcs
V33 In-flight weather advisories AC 90.64 Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) Ill
V34 Pilot weather reports (PIREP) Al' 91-6A Water. Slush, and Snow on the Runway
V35 Wake turbulence AC 91-24 Aircraft Hydroplaning or Aquaplaning on Wet Run-
V38 Medical facts for pilots ways
V37 NTSB Part 830 AC 9I-25A Loss of Visual Cues During Low Visibility Landings
AC 91-43 Unreliable Airspeed Indications
WEIGHT & BALANCE, COMPUTATIONS, PERFORMANCE AC 95-1 Airway and Route Obstruction Clearance
CHARTS AC 120-5 High Altitude Operations in Areas of Turbulence
Weight & Balance (AC 91-23A) AC 120-2613 Criteria for Approval of Category Illa Landing
WIO Terms & definitions Weather Minima
W11 Stability, balance AC 120-29 Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II
W12 Index, graphic limits Landing Minima for FAR Part 121 Operators
W13 CC location, determination AC 121-12 Wet or Slippery Runways
W14 Shift/change of weight AC 121-18 Aviation SecurityCarriage of Weapons and Es-
WI5 Pallet/cargo loading corted Persons
Computations AC 121-195 Alternate Operational Landing Distances for Wet
(d)-I Runways; Turbojet Powered Transport Category
XIO True airspeed. groundspeed, mach Airplanes
XII Time en route

10

15
 Page 1,. ,

APPENDIX 1

TEST QUESTIONS

001. VSl is defined as the stalling speed 004. A four-engine turbine powered domestic
or minimum steady flight speed air carrier airplane must be ferried to
A20 D18 another base for repair of an inopera-
1- obtained in a specified con- tive engine. What operational require-
figuration. ment must be observed?
2- at which the airplane is
controllable. 1- Only the required flight crew-
3- in the landing configuration. members may be on board the
4- with the critical engine airplane.
inoperative. 2- The takeoff gross weight must
not exceed 65% of the maximum
certificated gross takeoff
002. If an emergency requiring immediate weight.
action causes you to deviate from a 3- The computed takeoff distance to
D10 rule in FAR Part 91, what is your reach V1 must not exceed 70% of
responsibility as pilot in commanc: the available runway determined
with all engines operating.
1- A written report of the 4- The existing and forecast weather
deviation must be submitted for departure, en route, and
within 7 calendar days to landilig must be VFR.
the Administrator.
2- No report is necessary unless
priority handling by ATC was 005. FAR Part 1 defines VSO as the stalling
required. speed or minimum steady flight speed
3- A written report shall be A20
made immediately to the 1- at which the airplane is
nearest Air Carrier District controllable.
Office upon landing at 2- obtained in a specified
destination. configuration.
4- A written report of the 3- with the critical engine
deviation shall be sub- inoperative.
mitted only if requested 4- in the landing configuration.
by the Administrator.

006. FAR Part 1 defines Vi as the

003. When an air carrier airplane is to be
dispatched to an airport forecast to A20 1- takeoff safety speed.
E18 have a wet or slippery runway at the 2- speed at which the airplane is
ETA, which performance factor is controllable.
required? 3- takeoff decision speed.
4- critical engine failure speed.
1- Extra fuel must be loaded to
allow return to the departure
airport in the event runway 007. A pilot may not serve as pilot in
conditions do not improve. command during a CAT II instrument
2- Effective runway length must 811 approach operation unless certain
be calculated at 60% of the experience requirements have been
actual runway available. met regarding the make and basic
3- Extra fuel must be loaded to model flight control guidance system
allow holding until the runway used in that operation. This required
contamination has been cleared. recent experience includes
4- Effective runway available
must be 115% of that required 1- three ILS approaches within the
for landing on a dry runway. preceding 3 months.
2- six ILS approaches within the
preceding 6 months.
3- six ILS approaches within the
preceding 3 months.
4- three ILS approaches within the
preceding 6 months.

16
Page 2

008. Unless otherwise required by the appli- 012. Transport category airplanes (except
cable distance from cloud criteria, and C-46 type airplanes), operated in the
D24 until further descent is required for a E43 conterminous United States, must have
safe landing, a pilot of a turbine- airborne weather radar equipment
powered airplane shall maintain which installed
altitude within an airport traffic area?
1- only if the airplane is jet
1- 700 feet powered and used in passenger
2- 1,200 feet operations.
3- 1,500 feet 2- regardless of the airplane size,
4- 2,000 feet powerplants, and certificated
gross weight.
3- and the alternate source of
009. The maximum altitude loss for a mal- electrical power for the
functioning automatic pilot with an weather radar operational.
H29 approach coupler for your-airplane is 4- only if the airplane's maximum
45 feet. The reported weather condi- -takeoff weight is over 50,000
tions for a particular airport are less pounds and it is used in
than basic VFR minimums. To what mini- passenger operations.
mum altitude can the automatic pilot be
used for an ILS approach to a landing?
013. What flight time limitations are estab-
1- 30 feet AGL lished for flight deck crewmembers for
2- 50 feet AGL G10 FAR Part 121 operations?
3- 95 feet. AGL
4- 105 feet AGL 1- All commercial flying in any
flight crewmember position.
2- Any commercial flying in any
010. An airport may not be listed as an flight crewmember position
alternate in the dispatch release conducted under FAR Part 121
124 unless the weather reports or fore- operations.
casts indicate that the weather condi- 3- Only that flight time in FAR
tions will be at or above the alternate Part 121 operations.
minimums 4- All flight time in any flight
crewmember position.
1- specified in the certificate
holder's operations specifica-
tion for that airport, when 014. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunc-
the flight arrives. tioning automatic pilot with an approach
2- listed on the approach charts H29 coupler is 20 feet. The reported
of that airport, from 2 hours weather is below basic VFR minimums and
before to 2 hours after the you are making an ILS approach using an
ETA for that flight. approach coupler. What is the minimum-
3- specified in the certificate altitude to which the autopilot may be
holder's operations specifica- used?
tion for that airport, from 1
hour before to 1 hour after 1- 150 feet AGL.
the ETA for that flight. 2- 90 feet AGL
4- listed on the approach charts 3- 70 feet AGL
of that airport, at the time 4- 40 feet AGL
the flight is expected to
arrive.

011. A passenger-carrying landplane is

certificated with an escape slide
E32 which deploys automatically. When
must the system be armed?

1- All phases of flight and

ground operations.
2- Takeoff and landing only.
3- Taxi, takeoff, and landing.
4- Anytime an emergency condi-
tion exists.
 Page 3
015. Which speed restrictions should you 019. Which operational requirement must be
observe upon arriving at Los Angeles observed when ferrying an air carrier
D20 International Airport (TCA) in a D18 airplane when one of its three turbine
turbine-engine powered airplane? engines is inoperative?

Within 1- Weather conditions must exceed

Airport Below the basic VFR minimums for the
Traffic 10,000 Within entire route, including takeoff
Area feet TCA and landing.
2- The flight cannot be conducted
1- 230 knots 250 knots 200 knots between official sunset and
2- 250 knots 250 knots 250 knots official sunrise.
3- 180 knots 230 knots 230 knots 3- The weather conditions at takeoff
4- 156 knots 230 knots 230 knots and destination must be VFR.
4- The computed takeoff run must
not exceed 50% of the available
016. A passenger-carrying landplane is certif- runway; the computed landing
icated with the automatic deploying distance must not exceed 60%
E32 escape slide system. During which oper- of the available runway.
ations must this system be armed?

1- During taxi, takeoff, and landing. 020. When cargo is carried aft of the fore-
2- Only for takeoff and landing. most seated passengers in an air carrier
3- Only for taxi and takeoff. E19 airplane, what requirement must be met
4- Anytime an emergency condition regarding this cargo?
exists which would require
system deployment. 1- The cargo may be carried in an
open bin if it is of a non-toxic
or non-flammable nature.
017. What requirement must be met regarding 2- The container or bin in which
cargo that is carried aft of the fore- the cargo is carried must be
E19 most seated passengers in an air carrier made of material which is at
airplane? least flash resistant.
3- The cargo may be carried in a
1- The cargo may be carried in an passenger seat if properly
open bin if the bin is of a non- secured by a safety belt.
toxic or non-flammable nature. 4- The bin in which the cargo is
2- The container or bin in which carried must not be installed
the cargo is carried must be in a position that restricts
made of material which is at access to or use of any required
least flash resistant. emergency exit.
3- The cargo may be carried in a
passenger seat if properly
secured by a safety belt. 021. Which is one of the requirements that
4- The bin in which the cargo is must be met by a required pilot flight
carried must not be installed F34 crewmember in reestablishing recency
in a position that restricts of experience?
access to, or use of, any
emergency exit. 1- At least two takeoffs must be
made with a simulated failure
of the most critical power-
018. What instrument flight time may be logged plant.
by a pilot second in command of a two- 2- If Category II qualified, at
B13 pilot domestic air carrier flight? least one approach to landing
must be made to a CAT II DH
1- All of the time the airplane is of 150 feet AGL.
in actual IFR conditions or the 3- At least one landing must be
pilot is wearing a view-limiting made to a complete stop.
device. 4- At least one non-precision
2- All of the time the pilot is con- approach must be made to the
trolling the airplane solely by lowest minimums authorized
reference to flight instruments. for the certificate holder.
3- One-half the time the flight is on
an IFR flight plan.
4- One-half the time the airplane is
in actual IFR conditions.
Page 4

022. An air carrier airplane has a seating 026. To renew CAT II authorization, what is
capacity for 67 passengers. How many the minimum recent instrument approach
E31 approved first aid kits are required B20 experience required prior to the due
for the treatment of minor accidents date of the practical test?
likely to occur in flight?
1- Within the previous 12 months
1- 5
three ILS approaches flown by
2- 4
use of an approach coupler to
3- 3
CAT II minimum landing altitudes.
4- 2 2- Within the previous 12 calendar
months, six ILS approaches flown
by use of an approach coupler to
023. To act as pilot in command of an air- CAT II minimum landing altitudes.
plane for an IFR flight requiring an 3- Within the previous 6 months,
B14 Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, six ILS approaches, three of
you must have had at least which may be flown to CAT I
minimum landing altitudes by use
1- 2 hours of actual or simu- of an approach coupler.
lated instrument flight time 4- Within the previous 12 months,
within the preceding 90 days. six ILS approaches flown
2- 6 hours of actual or simu- manually to CAT I minimum land-
lated instrument flight time ing altitudes.
within the preceding 6
calendar months.
3- 2 hours of instrument flight 027. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a
time under actual or simu- Boeing 727 operate within the Los
lated instrument flight condi- D20 Angeles TCA without special ATC author-
tions, or 2 hours in a simu- ization?
lator, within the preceding
6 months. 1- 200 knots
4- 2 hours of instrument flight 2- 230 knots
time under actual or simu- 3- 250 knots
lated instrument flight condi- 4- 275 knots
tions within the preceding 6
months.
028. For a 2-hour flight in a turbine engine
powered airplane at a cabin pressure
024. That is the highest flight level that E36 altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supple-
operations may be conducted without mental oxygen for sustenance must be
E37 the pilot at the controls wearing and provided? Enough oxygen for
using an oxygen mask while the other
pilot is away from the duty station? 1- 10% of the passengers for 1.5
hours.
1- FL 410 2- each passenger during the entire
2- FL 310' flight.
3- FL 250 3- each passenger for 30 minutes.
4- FL 180 4- 30% of the passengers for the
entire flight.
025. An airplane operating under FAR Part
121, equipped with a single ADF 029. What is the recent instrument approach
E42 receiver, is to be flown in VFR condi- experience required prior to the due
tions over a route not navigated by B20 date of the practical test for pilots
pilotage. This airplane must also be to renew their CAT II authorization?
equipped with Within the previous

1- VOR and marker beacon receivers. 1- 12 months, six ILS approaches

2- VOR, ILS, and marker beacon flown manually to CAT II DHs.
receivers. 2- 6 months, six ILS approaches
3- one VOR and DME. flown to CAT I DHs, three of
4- dual VOR receivers and one DME. which may be by the use of an
approach coupler.
3- 6 months, three ILS approaches
flown by the use of an approach
coupler to CAT II DHs.
4- 12 months, six ILS approaches
7 9 flown by the use of an approach
coupler to CAT II DHs.
 Page 5
030. An airplane operating under FAR Part 035. What action should be taken by the pilot
121, equipped with a single ADF in command if the airborne weather radar
E42 receiver, is to be flown in VFR over- E43 becomes inoperative en route on an air
the-top conditions navigating by low carrier IFR flight for which weather
frequency radio facilities. This reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
airplane must also be equipped with
1- Return to the departure airport
1- one VOR and marker beacon if closer than the destination
receivers. airport.
2- one VOR and DME. 2- Proceed in accordance with the
3- dual VOR receivers and one approved instructions in the air
DME. carrier's operations manual for
4- VOR, ILS, and marker beacon such an event.
,.receivers. 3- Fly to and land at the nearest
approved air carrier airport.
4- Request ATC for radar vectors to
031. Above which minimum cabin altitude must the nearest airport suitable for
supplemental oxygen be provided for all large aircraft landings.
E36 persons during an entire flight on a
turbojet powered airplane?
036. Which condition meets the minimum recent
Crewmembers Passengers IFR experience requirement for a pilot
B14 to act as pilot in command of an air-
1- 10,000 feet 15,000 feet plane for an IFR flight requiring an
2- 10,000 feet 12,000 feet Airline Transport Pilot Certificate?
3- 12,000 feet 15,000 feet
4- 14,000 feet 14,000 feet 1- An instrument competency check
administered by another pilot
qualified as pilot in command.
032. During Category II operations, an 2- Three hours of instrument flight
operative rollout runway visual range time under simulated flight
D12 system is required when the RVR in the conditions within the preceding
touchdown zone is reported to be less 180 days.
than 3- Two hours of actual or simulated
instrument flight time within
1- RVR 14. the preceding 90 days.
2- RVR 16. 4- An instrument competency check
3- RVR 18. in the category of aircraft
4- RVR 20. involved.

033. All flight crewmembers on flight deck 037. Under which conditions are two persons
duty on a turbine engine powered, pres- permitted to share one safety belt in
E37 surized airplane are not equipped with E33 a divan?
quick-donning oxygen masks. In this
case, the maximum flight altitude 1- For all operations except the
authorized without one pilot wearing en route portion of the flight.
and using an oxygen mask is 2- During all operations except
during the landing phase of
1- FL 410. flight.
2- FL 300. 3- Only during the en route portion
3- FL 250. of flight.
4- FL 200. 4- When one is an adult and one is
a child under 4 years of age.

034. The pilot in command of a4lomestic air

carrier airplane must have had certain 038. When computing takeoff weight limita-
811 experience with the make and basic model tions, for which aircraft is the "clear-
flight control guidance system used dur- E15 way" considered for a particular runway?
ing a CAT II instrument approach. What
is that recent experience requirement? 1- Passenger-carrying transport
airplanes.
Number 2- Large aircraft (more than 12,500
of ILSs Time Period pounds).
3- U.S. certificated air carrier
1- 3 Within preceding 6 months airplanes.
2- 6 Within preceding 6 months 4- Turbine-engine powered transport
3- 3 Within preceding 3 months airplanes.
4- 6 Within preceding 3 months

4f)
Page 6

039. Which ground components are required 043. Information recorded during normal opera-
to be operative for a CAT II approach tion by a required cockpit voice recorder
D12 in addition to LOC, glide slope, E44 in a passenger-carrying airplane
marker beacons, and approach lights?
1- must be retained for 30 minutes
1- Radar and RVR. after landing.
2- HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and REIL. 2- may be erased only once each
3- RCLS and REIL. flight.
4- HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. 3- may all be erased except the last
30 minutes after recording.
4- must be retained for at least
040. The pilot in command of a flag air 12 hours.
carrier airplane must have had
B20 certain experience with the make and
basic model flight control guidance 044. What additional airplane equipment (in
system used during a CAT II instru- addition to that basic equipment
ment approach. What is that recent D50 necessary for CAT II operations), is
experience requirement? required for CAT II decision heights
below 150 feet?
Number
Time Period of ILSs 1- Dual radio altimeter systems.
2- Both aural and visual indica-
1- Within preceding 3 tions of the inner marker loca-
6 months tion must be provided.
2- Within preceding 6 3- Dual glide slope and localizer
6 months receiving antennae.
4- Low altitude alert warning
3- Within preceding 6 system.
12 months
4- Within preceding 6
9 months 045. When carrying cargo forward of the fore-
most seated passengers, what restric-
E19 tions must be observed?
041. In an emergency requiring immediate
action, the pilot in command may 1- Cargo may be carried in a
D10 deviate from any rule of FAR Part 91 passenger seat if properly
to the extent secured by a safety belt.
2- The cargo may be carried in an
1- necessary except flight con- open bin if the bin is of a non-
trary to an ATC clearance. toxic or non-flammable nature.
2- necessary to meet that emer- 3- All cargo must be carried in a
gency. suitable bin and secured to the
3- authorized by the air carrier's floor structure of the airplane.
4- All cargo must be separated from
operations specifications.
4- necessary to conform to ATC all passengers by a partition
instructions. capable of withstanding specific
load stresses.

042. When carrying cargo forward of the

046. In what altitude structure is an opera-
foremost seated passengers, what
E19 restrictions must be observed? tive, appropriately equipped ATC trans -
D16 ponder required when operating in all
1- All cargo must be carried in controlled airspace of the 48 contiguous
a suitable bin and secured to states and the District of Columbia?
the floor structure of the
airplane. 1- Abov6 12,500 feet MSL, excluding
2- The cargo may be carried in an the airspace at and below 1,500
open bin if the bin is of a non- feet AGL.
toxic or non-flammable nature. 2- Above 14,500 feet AGL, excluding
3- Cargo may be carried in a the airspace at and below 1,200
passenger seat if properly feet AGL.
secured by a safety belt. 3- Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding
4- All cargo must be separated the airspace at and below 2,500
from all passengers by a parti- feet AGL.
tion capable of withstanding 4- Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding
specific load stresses. the airspace at and below 2,500
feet AGL.

21
 Page 7
047. What information, if any, recorded 052. An airline transport pilot instructing
during normal operation by a cockpit other pilots in air transportation
E44 voice recorder may be erased or other- B32 service is restricted to
wise obliterated?
1- a maximum of 7 hours of instruc-
1- All information except that tion in any 1 day.
recorded more than 1 hour 2- instruction only in aircraft
previously. with functioning dual controls.
2- All information except that 3- a maximum of 30 hours of instruc-
recorded within the latest tion in any 7-day period.
30-minute period. 4- instruction in any aircraft of
3- No amount of information may the category for which a rating
be erased. is held.
4- All information may be erased.

053. Before each takeoff of a passenger-

048. What is the lowest altitude or flight carrying airplane, on what items shall
level a flight can be conducted with- H26 the passengers be orally briefed?
E37 out having a crewmember instruct
passengers on the proper use of supple- 1- Proper use of seat belts,
mental oxygen?
smoking, and location of emer-
gency exits.
1- 14,500 feet MSL 2- Location of emergency exits, use
2- FL 180
of oxygen masks, and life pre-
3- FL 250 servers.
4- FL 300 3- Proper use of seat belts, life
preservers, and oxygen masks.
4- Proper use of liferafts, oxygen
049. If a flag air carrier flight lands at masks, and location of emergency
an intermediate airport at 1825Z, what exits.
Ill is the latest time it may depart before
a redispatch release is required for
the destination airport? 054. Should it become necessary to shut one
engine down on a domestic air carrier
1- 0025Z H24 three-engine jet transport, the pilot
2- 0125Z in command
3- 2025Z
4- 1925Z 1- may continue to the planned
destination if VFR can be main-
tained including approach and
050. In addition to ensuring that appropriate landing.
aeronautical charts and approach pro- 2- may continue to the planned
H18 cedures charts are aboard each aircraft, destination if approved by the
what other item of equipment must be dispatcher.
available for each crewmember on each 3- may continue to the planned
flight?
destination if this is con-
sidered as safe as landing at
1- Sun glasses a closer airport.
2- Personal oxygen mask 4- must land at the nearest
3- Protective gloves suitable airport in point of
4- Flashlight time.

051. While in controlled airspace in VFR 055. A person who appears to be intoxicated
conditions, what distance from cloud has created a disturbance aboard an air
D30 criteria should be maintained when H28 carrier aircraft. Within which time
flying below 1,200 feet AGL? period shall the certificate holder
submit a written report of the incident
1- 500 feet below; 500 feet above; to the Administrator?
1 mile horizontal.
2- Clear of clouds. 1- 10 days
3- 500 feet below; 500 feet above; 2- 7 days
2,000 feet horizontal. 3- 5 days
4- 500 feet below; 500 feet above; 4- 48 hours
1,000 feet horizontal.
Page 8

056. What are the line check requirements for 061. What restriction is imposed by FAR Part
the pilot in command for a domestic air 61 regarding flight instruction of other
F35 carrier? B32 pilots in air transportation by an air-
line transport pilot? A pilot may
1- The line check is required only instruct no more than
when the pilot is scheduled to
fly a new route. 1- 36 hours in any 7-day period.
2- The line check is required each 2- 30 hours in any 7-day period.
12 calendar months in one of the 3- 7 hours in any 1-day period.
types of airplanes to be flown. 4- 6 hours in any 1-day period.
3- The line check is required each
12 calendar months in each type
of aircraft in which the pilot 062. An appropriate number of acceptable
may serve. oxygen-dispensing units are required for
4- If the pilot has had refresher E37 first aid treatment of occupants for
flight traiqing in the same type physiological reasons following descents
airplane within the preceding 90 from cabin pressure altitudes above
days, the line check may be waived. FL 250. What is the minimum number
required?
057. An airplane requires only one battery-
1- One
powered megaphone. Unless waived by
2- Two
E31 the Administrator, what should be the
location of the megaphone within the 3- Four
4- Six
cabin of a domestic air carrier
passenger-carrying airplane?
063. What minimum number of approved first
1- The most rearward location
readily accessible to a aid kits are required for treatment of
E31 injuries likely to occur in flight on
normal flight attendant seat.
2- As close as practicable to the an air carrier airplane with a seating
midsection of the airplane. capacity in excess of 250?
3- The most accessible location in
1- 8
the forward portion of the cabin.
2- 6
4- On the flight deck readily
3- 4
accessible to any crewmember.
4- 2

058. What minimum RVR value requires an

operative rollout RVR system for CAT II 064. In determining takeoff limitations for a
D12 operations? turbine engine powered transport cate-
E15 gory airplane, what restrictions apply
1- RVR 24 to the net takeoff path data?
2- RVR 18
3- RVR 16 1- The takeoff run must not exceed
4- RVR 14 the length of the runway plus
any stopway.
2- The airplane is not banked more
059. Which is a correct airplane speed symbol
and definition? than 15° after reaching a height
A20 of 50 feet.
1- V - maximum speed for flap
3- The airplane is not banked before
F reaching a height of 150 feet.
extension.
2- V LE - maximum landing gear
4- The airplane is not banked more
operating speed. than 30° after reaching a height
of 100 feet.
3- V - design maximum maneuvering
MA
speed.
4- V - design cruising speed.
065. Domestic air carriers operating IFR on
victor or jet airways must be equipped
060. ATC requests a detailed report of the E42 with an approved DME receiver
inflight emergency that required your
D21 flight to be issued a priority clearance. 1- for operations in positive
This report must be submitted no later than airspace only.
2- regardless of operating altitude.
1- 48 hours to the chief of that 3- for operations at or above
ATC facility. FL 180 only.
2- 10 days to the FAA Administrator. 4- for operations at or above
3- 24 hours to the nearest FAA
district inspector.
3 FL 240 only.

4- 7 days to the Chief of the National

Transportation Safety Board.
 Page 9

066. To serve as pilot in command during a 070. An airplane operating under FAR Part
CAT II approach, a pilot must have had 121, equipped with a single ADF
811 certain experience with the make and E42 receiver, is to be flown in VFR over-
basic model flight control guidance the-top conditions navigating by low
system used in that operation. What frequency radio facilities. With what
does this required recent experience additional equipment must this airplane.
include? be equipped?

1- Three ILS approaches within 1- TACAN or Doppler radar.

the preceding 3 months. 2- VOR, ILS, and marker beacon
2- Six ILS approaches within receivers.
the preceding 6 months. 3- Dual VOR receivers and one DME.
3- Three ILS approaches within 4- VOR and marker beacon receivers.
the preceding 6 months.
4- Six ILS approaches within
the preceding 3 months. 071. Which minimum condition meets the
requirement for a pilot in command of
F39 a domestic air carrier to maintain
067. What are the certificate and rating route qualification?
requirements for the pilot second in
F33 command of a supplemental air carrier 1- One trip between terminals within
flight requiring three pilots? the preceding 6 months.
2- One trip between terminals within
1- Commercial pilot with airplane the preceding 12 months.
type rating only. 3- One takeoff and landing at each
2- Commercial pilot with airplane regular, provisional, and refuel-
type and instrument rating. ing airport within the preceding
3- Commercial pilot with instru- 6 months.
ment rating only. 4- Two round trips between terminals
4- Airline transport pilot with within the preceding 12 months.
airplane type rating.

072. For domestic or flag air carrier opera-

068. What are the certificate and rating tions, the pilot in command line check
requirements for the pilot second in F35
F33 command of a commercial operator air 1- must include a landing at each
carrier flight requiring three pilots? regular, provisional, and refuel-
ing stop along the route.
1- Commercial pilot with airplane 2- is required each 12 calendar
type and instrument rating. months in only one type of air-
2- Airline transport pilot with craft in which the pilot serves
airplane type rating. as pilot in command.
3- Commercial pilot with instru- 3- may be waived if the pilot has
ment rating only. had refresher flight training
4- Commercial pilot with airplane in the aircraft type within the
type rating only. preceding 6 months.
4- is required only when the pilot
is scheduled on a new route.
069. Except during an actual emergency, when
must emergency lights in a passenger
E32 carrying airplane be armed or turned ON? 073. Transport category airplanes (except
C-46 type airplanes), operated in the
1- During taxiing, takeoff, and E43 conterminous United States, must have
landing. airborne weather radar equipment
2- For night operations and installed
extended overwater operations
only. 1- regardless of the airplane size
3- Prior to every flight during and use.
preflight. 2- only if the airplane's maximum
4- On preflight prior to night takeoff weight is over 50,000
flights. pounds and it is used in
passenger operations.
3- only if the airplane is jet
powered and used in passenger
operations.
4- regardless of the airplane size
and powerplants, unless it is
used for cargo-only operations.
24
Page 10

074. When a flight engineer is a required 078. While in conZ-rolled airspace in VFR
crewmember, which is an operational conditions, what distance from clouds
F10 requirement regarding the qualifica- D30 should be maintained when flying more
tions of all flight deck crewmembers? than 1,200 Feet AGL, and at or above
10,000 feet MSL?
1- The pilot in command and second
in command must hold flight 1- 1,C00 feet below; 1,000 feet
engineer certificates. above; 1 statute mile horizontal.
2- No other flight deck crewmember 2- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above;
need be qualified or certificated. 1 statute mile horizontal.
3- One of the, pilots must be quali- 3- 1,000 feet below; 500 feet above;
fied to perform flight engineer 2,00C feet horizontal.
duties; no flight engineer cer- 4- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above;
tificate is required. 2,000 feet horizontal.
4- One pilot must hold a flight
engineer's certificate.
079. What check, or checks, must a pilot
second in command of a three-pilot
075. While in controlled airspace in VFR F36 flight crew complete to meet currency
conditions, what distance from clouds requirements?
D30 should be maintained when flying more
than 1,200 feet AGL, but below 10,000 1- A proficiency check or a line
feet MSL? check every 6 calendar months.
2- A proficiency check every 12
1- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; calendar months.
2,000 feet horizontal. 3- A proficiency check or an
2- 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet approved simulator course each
above; 1 mile horizontal. 6 calendar months.
3- 500 feet below; 500 feet above; 4- A line check every 12 calendar
1,000 feet horizontal. months.
4- 1,000 feet below; 500 feet above;
2,000 feet horizontal. 080. What recent instrument experience must
you have had to act as pilot in command
B14 of an airplane for an IFR flight
076. In addition to the localizer, glide requiring an Airline Transport Pilot
slope, marker beacons, approach Certificate?
012 lighting, and HIRL, which ground
components are required to be oper- 1- Two hours of instrument flight
ative for a CAT II instrument approach time under actual or simulated
to a DH below 150 feet AGL? instrument flight conditions
within the preceding 6 months.
1- TDZL, RCLS, and REIL. 2- Six hours of actual or simulated
2- RCLS and REIL.
instrument flight time within
3- Radar and RVR.
the preceding 6 calendar months.
4- TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. 3- Two hours of actual or simulated
instrument flight time within
the preceding 90 days.
077. What are the minimum certificate and 4- Two hours of instrument flight
rating requirements for the pilot time under actual or simulated
F33 second in command of a three-pilot crew instrument flight conditions,
on a flag air carrier flight? or 2 hours in a simulator,
within the preceding 6 months.
1- Airline Transport Pilot
Certificate with an airplane
category rating. 081. Which ground component or equipment is
2- Commercial Pilot Certificate not required for a CAT II ILS instru-
with an instrument rating. 012 ment approach to the published RA
3- Airline Transport Pilot decision height of 150 feet?
Certificate with an aircraft
type rating. 1- RVR system for the touchdown
4- Commercial Pilot Certificate zone.
with an airplane type rating. 2- The Inner Marker.
3- Touchdown Zone Lighting.
4- Centerline lighting and marking.
 Page 11

082. A flag air carrier flight lands at an 087. Which procedure should you follow if it
intermediate airport at 1322Z. What should become necessary to shut down one
Ill is the latest time it may depart for H24 engine on a three-engine domestic air
the destination airport without a carrier airplane after takeoff?
redispatch release?
1- Proceed to an airport as directed
1- 0122Z by the company dispatcher.
2- 1922Z 2- Land at any. airport you consider
3- 1622Z as safe as the nearest suitable
4- 1422Z airport in point of time.
3- Land at the nearest suitable
airport in point of time only.
083. The emergency lights on a passenger 4- Land at the takeoff alternate
carrying airplane must be armed or airport listed in the original
E32 turned ON during actual emergencies and flight release.

1- on preflight prior to night

operations. 088. Your logbook shows these entries:
2- for night operations and extended
overwater operations only. G10 April 28 - 4.5 hrs. - Air carrier flight
3- during taxiing, takeoff, and April 29 - 6.5 hrs. - Air carrier flight
landing. April 30 - 5.5 hrs. - Charter flight
4- prior to every flight during May 1 - 3.0 hrs. - Flight instruction
preflight. 2.0 hrs. - Pleasure flight
May 3 - 1.0 hr. - Pleasure flight
May 4 - 7.5 hrs. - Air carrier flight
084. What is the minimum number of flight
attendants required for an airplane How many additional hours, if any, can
Fil having a seating capacity of 160 passen- you fly for this domestic air carrier on
gers, if only 100 passengers are aboard? May 5 and not exceed the maximum author-
ized in any 7 consecutive days?
1- Five
2- Four 1- None
3- Three 2- 3.0 hours
4- Two 3- 5.5 hours
4- 7.5 hours

085. A flight crew of two pilots originally

scheduled out on a domestic flight was 089. Which is a requirement reprding the
G20 delayed on the inbound flight and now erasure of data in a flight recorder,
has 5 1/2 hours of duty aloft within E40 for the purpose of testing?
the preceding 24 hours. This crew can
be dispatched 1- A maximum of 45 minutes of the
oldest prerecorded data may be
1- only after 11 hours of rest.' erased.
2- without rest, provided the 2- A total of 1 hour of the oldest
estimated time en route is recorded data accumulated at the
not more than 2 1/2 hours. time of testing may be arased.
3- after 8 hours of rest only 3- A total of no more than 1 hour
provided the estimated time of recorded data may be erased.
en route is not more than 4- A maximum of 30 minutes of pre-
2 1/2 hours. recorded data may be erased.
4- only after 16 hours of rest.

090. The supplemental oxygen requirements for

086. When operating to an airport with an passengers when a flight is operated up
operating control tower each pilot of a E37 to FL 250 is dependent upon the air-
D24 large airplane shall, unless otherwise plane's [Link] make an emergency
required by the applicable distance from descent to a flight altitude of
cloud criteria, enter the airport traffic
area and, until further descent is 1- 8,000 feet at a minimum rate of
necessary for landing, maintain an 3,000 feet per minute.
altitude above the surface of at least 2- 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.
3- 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
1- 2,500 feet. 4- 12,000 feet within 4 minutes,
2- 1,500 feet. or at a minimum rate of 2,500
3- 1,200 feet. feet per minute, whichever is
4- 1,000 feet. quicker.
 Page 12

091. The pilot in command line check for 096. What is the maximum permissible varia-
a domestic air carrier pilot must be tion between the two bearing indicators
F35
D17 on a dual VOR system when checking one
I- administered within the pre- VOR against the other? (Each unit is
ceding 12 months in all types independent of each other except for the
of airplanes in which the receiving antenna.)
pilot is to fly.
2- administered by a pilot check 1- Six degrees in flight and four
airman who is currently quali- degrees on the ground.
fied on both the route and 2- Four degrees on the ground and
the airplane. in flight.
3- administered within the pre- 3- Six degrees on the ground and
ceding 90 days after being in flight.
type rated in a different 4- Four degrees in flight and six
airplane.
degrees on the ground.
4- flown during daylight hours
only and include a regular
refueling stop along the route. 097. A commercial pilot has a DC-9 and DC-3
type rating. A flight test is completed
B32 for an Airline Transport Pilot Certifi-
092. If your airplane flight manual specifies cate in a Boeing 727. What pilot
a maximum altitude loss of 75 feet for privileges may be exercised?
H29 an autopilot malfunction, what is the
lowest height above the terrain the 1- ATP - Boeing 727 and DC-3;
autopilot may be used during en route Commercial - DC-9.
operations, including climb and descent? 2- ATP - Boeing 727 only; Commer-
cial - DC-9 and DC-3.
1- 125 feet 3- ATP - Boeing 727 and DC-9;
2- 150 feet Commercial - DC-3.
3- 175 feet 4- ATP - Boeing 727, DC-9, and DC-3.
4- 500 feet

098. Your flight logbook for the month of

093. Which instrument indicates that both July shows these entries:
VOR navigation systems are within G10
D17 accepted tolerances for a VOT check? July 3 pleasure flight - 3.7
(Fig. 1) July 4 charter flight - 4.5
July 6 pleasure flight - 4.0
1- D
July 7 flight instruction - 6.4
2- C
July 9 air carrier flight - 3.8
3- B
charter flight - 6.4
4- A
How many additional hours can you fly
094.
for this domestic air carrier on July 12
Which instrument indicates that both without exceeding the maximum authorized
VOR navigation systems are within in any 7 consecutive days?
D17 accepted tolerances for a VOT check?
(Fig. 2) 1- 17.4 additional hours
2- 13.4 additional hours
1- D 3- 4.9 additional hours
2- C
4- .2 additional hours
3- B
4- A
099. Within which maximum preceding time
period must a pilot in command of a
095. Which instrument indicates that both F38 supplemental air carrier operation
VOR navigation systems are within certify the possession of adequate
017 accepted tolerances for a VOT check? knowledge in specific areas of opera-
(Fig. 3)
tion to remain route and airport
qualified?
1- D
2- C 1- 180 days
3- B 2- f."0 days
4- A 3- 6,0 days
4- 30 days

27
 Page 13

A B C 0
Figure 1

A B C 0
Figure 2

A B C
Figure 3
Page 14

100. A copy of which documents is a flag 104. As pilot in command, you are given a
air carrier required to carry aboard priority ATC clearance during an emer-
174 each airplane to the destination D21 gency and do not deviate from a rule
airport? of FAR Part 91. What report, if any,
is required?
1- Load manifest and dispatch
release. 1- None, since no deviation from a
2- Weight and balance release rule of FAR Part 91 was made.
and flight plan. 2- Within 72 hours to the chief of
3- Dispatch release, and weight that ATC facility.
and balance release. 3- Within 48 hours to the chief of
4- Dispatch release, load -mani- that ATC facility when requested.
fest, and flight plan. 4- Within 48 hours to the nearest
FAA Air Carrier District Office.

101. The airplane is certificated for oper-

ation with a minimum flight deck crew 105. You are pilot in command of a flag air
F10 of two pilots and one flight engineer. carrier airplane having a three-pilot
For domestic air carrier operations G22 crew and one additional flight crew-
under FAR Part 121, the flight member. What is the maximum number of
engineer must be qualified, certifi- hours you may fly during any 12-calendar
cated, and current. In addition, in month period?
case of emergency,
1- 900 hours
1- each pilot must be qualified to 2- 1,000 hours
perform flight engineer duties. 3- 1,200 hours
2- at least one pilot must have 4- 1,500 hours
served as flight engineer within
the preceding 90 days.
3- the flight engineer must be 106. What is the maximum time a flag air
qualified to perform duties at carrier may remain on the ground after
one pilot position. Ill landing at an intermediate airport
4- at least one pilot must be before a redispatch release is required
qualified to perform flight for the destination airport?
engineer duties.
1- 6 hours
2- 3 hours
102. What are the IFR takeoff minimums for 3- 1 hour
commercial operators? 4- 30 minutes
147
1- One-half statute mile--aircraft
having more than two engines. 107. One item of information that must be
2- As specified in the operations contained in the load manifest for a
specifications. 172 domestic air carrier is the
3- As printed on the approach
chart for that runway. 1- distribution of passengers and
4- As printed on IFR takeoff and cargo.
departure procedures. 2- CG position at takeoff.
3- maximum allowable weight for
the flight.
103. Your FAR Part 121 flight time as pilot 4- names of passengers.
in command consists of only 80 hours in
148 a DC-10 type airplane. How does this
affect the MDA, DH, or minimum visi- 108. Which information must be contained in,
bility for IFR CAT I approaches? or attached to, the dispatch release for
170 a flag air carrier flight?
1- Has no affect.
2- MDA or DH and visibility 1- Type of operation (e.g., IFR,
minimums are decreased by VFR).
100 feet and 1/2 mile. 2- Total fuel supply on board
3- MDA or DH and visibility the airplane.
minimums are increased by 3- Passenger manifest and cargo
100 feet and 1/2 mile. weight.
4- The MDA or DH is decreased 4- Weight and balance data.
by 100 feet.

29
 Page 15

109. A flag air carrier transport category 113. Which certificated air carrier operator
airplane is certificated for opera- must prepare a load manifest containing
F10 tion with a fully qualified, minimum 173 information concerning the airplane at
flight deck crew of two pilots and one takeoff, with regard to the maximum
flight engineer. In addition, in case allowable takeoff weight for the intended
of emergency, runway?

1- at least one pilot must be quali- 1- Supplemental only.

fied to perform flight engineer 2- Flag and Domestic.
duties. 3- Domestic only.
2- at least one pilot must have 4- Commercial and Supplemental.
served as flight engineer within
the preceding 90 days.
3- the flight engineer must be 114. The prescribed takeoff minimum of RVR
qualified to perform duties at 32 for the runway of intended operation
one pilot position. D41 is not reported. What minimum ground
4- each pilot must be qualified to visibility shall be used in lieu of the
perform flight engineer duties. RVR requirement?

1- 3/4 statute mile

110. While en route, an assigned pilot in 2- 5/8 statute mile
command is taking a rest period away 3- 3/8 statute mile
H14 from the flight deck duty station. 4- 1/2 statute mile
What are the requirements for the
relief pilot?
115. Any person whose duties include the
1- Airline Transport Pilot handling or carriage of dangerous
Certificate and appropriate F31 articles and magnetized materials must
type rating. have satisfactorily completed an estab-
2- Commercial Pilot Certificate lished and approved training program
and type rating. within the preceding
3- Airline Transport Pilot
Certificate; no type rating 1- 24 calendar months.
is required. 2- 12 calendar months.
4- Commercial Pilot Certificate 3- 6 months.
and instrument rating. 4- 3 months.

111. In addition to the basic aircraft equip- 116. What is the maximum indicated airspeed
ment required for CAT II operations, a turbine-powered aircraft may be
D50 which additional equipment is necessary D20 operated below 10,000 feet MSL?
for CAT II instrument approaches with
decision heights below 150 feet AGL? 1- 200 knots
2- 230 knots
1- A radio altimeter displaying 3- 250 knots
height of the flight deck within 4- 288 knots
plus or minus 5 feet above the
terrain.
2- A third gyroscopic pitch-and- 117. A refueling airport within the conti-
bank indicating system. nental United States has no prescribed
3- Dual localizer and glide slope 134 takeoff minimums. If this airport is
receiver antennas. not listed in the air carrier's opera-
4- A marker beacon receiver pro- TIEns specifications, which of the
viding visual and aural indica- following minimum weather conditions
tions of the inner marker. must exist at takeoff?

1- 800-2 1/2
112. What information from the load manifest 2- 800-3
must the pilot in command of a domestic 3- 900-1 1/2
172 air carrier operator carry to the 4- 1,000-2
destination airport?

1- Cargo and passenger distribution.

2- Names of passengers.
3- Evidence that the aircraft is
loaded according to an approved
schedule.
4- The maximum allowable weight for
that flight.
 Page 16

118. What flying equipment must be readily 123. What are the requirements for a pilot
available for the use of each crew-
H18 that is to relieve the pilot second in
member on each flight? H14 command of a three-pilot crew for a
rest period on flight deck duty during
1- Sun glasses
the en route portion of a flight?
2- Flashlight
3- Protective gloves 1- Airline Transport Pilot
4- Personal oxygen mask Certificate; no type rating
is required.
2- Commercial Pilot Certificate
119. Your FAR Part 121 flight time as pilot
with class and type rating.
in command consists of only 100 hours 3-
148
Airline Transport Pilot
in a Boeing 707 type airplane. How Certificate with appropriate
does this affect the MDA, DH, or minimum type rating.
visibility for IFR CAT I approaches? 4- Commercial Pilot Certificate
and instrument rating.
1- MDA or DH and visibility
minimums are increased by
100 feet and 1/2 mile. 124. When takeoff minimums are not pre-
2- Has no affect. scribed for a civil airport, what are
3- MDA or DH and visibility D41 the takeoff minimums under IFR for a
minimums are decreased by three-engine airplane?
100 feet and 1/2 mile. 1- 2,000 feet RVR
4- The MDA or DH is decreased 2- 300 feet and 1/2 statute mile
by 100 feet. 3- 1/2 statute mile
4- 1 statute mile
120. What information from the load mani-
fest must the pilot in command of a 125.
172
What is the maximum indicated airspeed
domestic air carrier operator carry
a reciprocating engine airplane may be
to the destination airport? D20 operated within a 1CA?
1- Cargo and passenger distribu- 1- 250 knots
tion. 2- 230 knots
2- Evidence that the aircraft is 3- 200 knots
loaded according to an 4- 180 knots
approved schedule.
3- Names of passengers.
4- Flight number and statement 126. When a flight is operated up to FL 250,
of type of operation (e.g., what operational consideration deter-
IFR, VFR). E37 mines the supplemental oxygen require-
ment for passengers?
121. To maintain route qualification, the 1- The passenger load versus seat-
pilot in command (as pilot or other ing capacity.
F39 flight crewmember) must have made at 2- The airplane's ability to make
least an emergency descent to 14,000
feet MSL within 4 minutes.
1- one trip between terminals 3- The airplane's ability to make
within the preceding 3 months. a normal descent to 14,000 feet
2- two round trips between termi- MSL within 8 minutes.
nals within the preceding 12 4- The seating capacity of the
months. airplane.
3- one takeoff and landing at each
regular, provisional, and refuel- 127. What is the maximum distance specified
ing airport within the preceding for an alternate airport for two-engine
6 months. 120 airplanes, if weather conditions at the
4- one trip between terminals departure airport are below the landing
within the preceding 12 months. minimums in the operations specifica-
tions for that airport?
122. What minimum ground visibility shall 1- Two hours at normal cruise
be used in lieu of a prescribed take- speed in still air with both
D41 off minimum of RVR 32 when that RVR engines operating.
requirement is not reported? 2- Two hours at normal cruise
speed in still air with one
1- 1/2 statute mile engine operating.
2- 3/8 statute mile 3- One hour at normal cruise
3- 5/8 statute mile speed in still air with one
4- 3/4 statute mile engine operating.
31 4- One hour at normal cruise
speed in still air with both
engines operating.
 Page 17
128. The minimum steady flight speed or 132. At what maximum indicated airspeed may
stalling speed in the landing config- reciprocating-engine aircraft be oper-
A20 uration is represented by the symbol D20 ated within an Airpo.t Traffic Area?
1- Vs. 1- 230 knots
2- 2- 200 knots
3- VVS1 3- 180 knots
0' 4- 156 knots

129. A person, in the custody of law enforce- 133. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunc-
ment personnel, is scheduled on your tioning automatic pilot with an approach
H31 flight. What procedures are required H29 coupler for your airplane is 45 feet.
regarding boarding of this person and The reported weather conditions for a
the escort?
particular airport are better than basic
VFR minimums. To what minimum altitude
1- They shall enplane and deplane can the automatic pilot be used for an
before all other passengers. ILS approach to a landing?
2- They shall be boarded after all
other passengers enplane, and 1- 105 feet AGL
deplaned before all other 2- 95 feet AGL
passengers deplane. 3- 50 feet AGL
3- They shall be boarded before 4- 30 feet AGL
all other passengers enplane,
and deplaned after all passen-
gers have left the aircraft. 134. You are assigned as a flight crewmember
4- They must be seated next to, for a flag air carrier using three
or directly across from, the G22 pilots and an additional flight crew-
rearmost emergency exit. member. What is the maximum number of
hours you may fly during any 90 consecu-
tive days?
130. Within what time period before depar-
ture should a certificate holder 1- 275 hours
H31 normally be notified that a person, in 2- 300 hours
the custody of law enforcement personnel, 3- 325 hours
will be aboard the aircraft? 4- 350 hours

1- At least 5 hours, if the person

being escorted is considered 135. A pilot, second in command of a three-
dangerous by the government pilot flight crew, must complete a
entity having custody. F36 proficiency check
2- At least 1 hour.
3- Anytime, provided the escorted 1- or an approved simulator course
person is seated in the foremost every 6 calendar months.
portion of the passenger cabin. 2- or a line check every 12
4- At least 2 hours. calendar months.
3- or a line check every 6 calendar
months.
131. A passenger notifies the certificate . 4- every 12 calendar months.
holder prior to checking baggage that
H32 an unloaded weapon is in the baggage. 136. What is the minimum number of flight
What is the requirement regarding this
attendants required for an air carrier
baggage aboard the aircraft? Fll airplane which has a seating capacity
for 335 passengers when 299 passengers
1- The baggage may be carried in are aboard?
the flight crew compartment,
provided the baggage remains 1- Seven
locked. 2- Six
2- The baggage must remain locked 3- Five
and only the passenger retains 4- Four
the key.
3- The baggage must remain locked
and custody of the key shall
remain with a designated
person other than the owner of
the weapon.
4- The baggage must be placed under
the passenger's seat and the key
retained by a flight crewmember.

30
Page 18

137. Which indication is within acceptable 141. Which is an operational requirement

tolerances when checking a dual VCR regarding airplane interior emergency
D17 installation using a VOT? E32 exit lights on passenger-carrying
airplanes?
VOR #1 TO/FROM VOR #2 TO/FROM
1- If the lights require arming to
1- 360° TO 002° TO function automatically, they must
2- 180° TO 182° TO be armed for taxi, takeoff, and
3- 001° FROM 005° FROM landing operations.
4- 180° FROM 184° FROM 2- Each light must provide the
required level of illumination
for at least 15 minutes at
138. An operative, appropriately equipped critical ambient temperatures
transponder is required in controlled after emergency landing.
D16 airspace above 12,500 feet MSL, 3- Each light must have a completely
excluding the airspace at or below self-contained battery power
source.
1- 1',500 feet MSL. 4- Manual operation is required in
2- 2,500 feet MSL. addition to automatic operation
3- 1,500 feet AGL. in the event of interruption of
4- 2,500 feet AGL. the normal electrical generating
power source.

139. What are the minimum number of accept-

able oxygen-dispensing units for first 142. The weather conditions must be at or
E37 aid treatment of occupants who might above what minimum requirements for an
require undiluted oxygen for physiolog- 124 airport to be listed as an alternate
ical reasons? airport in the dispatcher release for
a domestic air carrier flight?
1- Six
2- Four 1- Listed on the approach charts of
3- Three that airport, at the time the
4- Two flight is expected to arrive.
2- Specified in the certificate
holder's operations specifica-
140. What determines the minimum weather tions for that airport, when
conditions that must exist for an air- the flight arrives.
124 port to be listed as an alternate air- 3- Specified in the certificate
port for a domestic air carrier flight? holder's operations specifica-
tions for that airport, from 1
1- The sliding scale alternate air- hour before to 1 hour after
port weather minimums of 800-2, the ETA for that flight.
900-1 1/2, or 1000-1, until 1 Listed on the approach charts
hour after the flight arrives at of that airport, from 2 hours
that airport. before to 2 hours after the
2- The sliding scale alternate air- ETA for that flight.
port weather minimums of 800-2,
900-1 1/2, or 1000-1, when the
flight arrives at that airport. 143. You are given a priority clearance
3- The alternate weather minimums because of an in-flight emergency, and
listed in the certificate D21 ATC requests a detailed report of the
holder's operations specifica- emergency. This report must be sub-
tions, when the flight arrives mitted within
at the airport.
4- If the airport has only non-pre- 1- 48 hours to the FAA Administrator.
cision approaches, 600-2; if the 2- 10 days to the Chief of the
airport has a precision approach, National Transportation Safety
800-2, when theflight arrives Board.
at that airport. 3- 48 hours to the nearest FAA _
district inspector.
4- 48 hours to the chief of that
ATC facility.

33
 Page 19
144. What is the minimum recent instrument 147. Which document is required to be
approach experience required, prior
B20 carried aboard each flag air carrier
to the date of the practical test, to 174 flight conducted under FAR Part 121?
renew CAT II pilot authorization?
1- Flight release.
1- Within the previous 6 months, 2- Dispatch release.
six ILS approaches, three of 3- Weight and balance release.
which may be flown to CAT I 4- Maintenance release.
DHs by use of an approach
coupler.
2- Within the previous 6 months, 148. A domestic air carrier has a seating
three ILS approaches flown by capacity for 343 passengers. How many
use of an approach coupler to E31 approved first aid kits must be pro-
CAT II DHs.
vided for the treatment of minor
3- Within the previous 12 calendar injuries likely to occur in flight?
months, six ILS approaches
flown by use of an approach 1- 6
coupler to either CAT I or 2- 5
CAT II DHs. 3- 4
4- Within the previous 12 months, 4- 3
six ILS approaches flown
manually to CAT I DHs.
149. Which documents are required to be
145.
carried aboard each domestic air
A domestic air carrier may list an 174 carrier flight conducted ander FAR
airport as an alternate airport when Part 121?
124 the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination thereof, 1- Load manifest and flight
indicate that the weather conditions
release.
at that airport will be at or above 2- Dispatch release and weight
and balance release.
1- the alternate weather minimums 3- Dispatch release, load mani-
listed in the certificate
fest, and flight plan.
holder's operations specifi- 4- Maintenance release, weight
cations, when the flight and balance release, and
arrives at the airport. flight plan.
2- the sliding scale alternate
airport weather minimums of
800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1000-1, 150 Each certificate holder operating a
until 1 hour after the flight
passenger-carrying airplane shall ensure
arrives at that airport. H26 that all passengers are orally briefed
3- 600-2 if the airport has a
by an appropriate crewmember before each
precision approach or 800-2 takeoff on the use of seatbelts,
if it has only non-precision
approaches when the flight 1- location of life preservers,
arrives at that airport. and rules for smoking.
4- the sliding scale alternate 2- location of emergency exits,
airport weather minimums of and rules for smoking.
800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1000-1, 3- use of oxygen, location of
when the flight arrives at
emergency exits and life
that airport.
preservers, and rules for
smoking.
4- location of emergency exits,
146. What minimum ground visibility shall and use of oxygen.
be used in lieu of a prescribed land -
D41 ing minimum of RVR 40 when that RVR
requirement is not reported? 151. Which indication is within acceptable
tolerances when checking a dual VOR
1- 3/8 statute mile D17 installation using a VOT?
2- 5/8 statute mile
3- 3/4 statute mile VOR #1 TO/FROM VOR #2 TO/FROM,
4- 7/8 statute mile
1- 360° TO 002° TO
2- 180° TO 182° TO
3- 001° FROM 005° FROM
4- 180° FROM 184° FROM

34
Page 20

A B C I)
Figure 4

A B C 0
Figure 5

A B C 0
Figure 6

35
 Page 21
152. What operational requirement must be 156. May flight crewmembers on flight deck
observed when ferrying a four-engine
duty leave their stations during
018 turbine powered domestic air carrier H14 cruising flight?
airplane from one facility to another
to repair an inoperative engine? 1- Yes, to perform duties in connec-
1- tion with aircraft operation.
The existing and forecast 2- ND, unless there is a relief
weather for departure,
crewmember to take their place.
en route, and approach 3- Yes, if there is one pilot and
must be VFR.
2- the flight engineer on duty.
The computed takeoff distance 4- Only in case of an emergency.
to reach V1 must not exceed
70% of the effective runway
length. 157. Under which conditions are two persons
3- The gross weight at takeoff
permitted to share one safety belt in
cannot exceed 65% of the E33 a lounge seat?
maximum certificated gross
takeoff weight. 1-
4- When one is an adult and one is
No passengers can be carried;
a child under 3 years of age.
only the required flight crew 2- Only during the en route portion
may be on board the airplane. of a flight.
3- During all operations except
153. turbulent air penetration.
To maintain route qualification, the 4-
pilot in command of a domestic air During all operations except the
F39 landing portion of a flight.
carrier must have made at least

1- one trip between terminals 158. To perform duties associated with the
within the preceding 12
handling of dangerous articles and
months. F31 magnetized materials, a crewmember must
2- one trip between terminals
have completed an established training
within the preceding 3 months. program within the preceding
3- one takeoff and landing at
each regular, provisional, and 1- 24 months.
refueling airport within the 2- 18 calendar months.
preceding 6 months. 3- 12 calendar months.
4- two round trips between termi- 4- 6 months.
nals within the preceding 12
months.
159. Which instrument indicates that both VOR
154. navigation systems are within accepted
The prescribed landing minimum for a D17 tolerances during a VOT check? (Fig. 4)
particular instrument approach procedure
041 is RVR 40. That minimum ground visi- 1- D
bility shall be used in lieu of the RVR 2- C
requirement? 3- B
4- A
1- 7/8 statute mile
2- 3/4 statute mile
3- 5/8 statute mile 160. Which instrument indicates that both VOR
4- 3/8 statute mile
navigation systems are within accepted
D17 tolerances during a VOT check? (Fig. 5)
155. When dual independent VOR receivers are 1- D
installed in an airplane (except for the 2- C
D17 antenna), what is the maximum acceptable 3- B
variation between the bearing indicators 4- A
when checking the receivers using a VOT?

VOR #1 TO/FROM, VOR #2 TO/FROM 161. Which instrument indicates that both VOR
1- navigation systems are within accepted
180° FROM 184° FROM D17
2- tolerances during a VOT check? (Fig. 6)
360° TO 002° TO
3- 180° TO 184° TO 1- D
4- 001° FROM 005° FROM 2- C
3- B
4- A
Page 22

162. Which is the correct symbol for the 166. Which inflight conditions are required
stalling speed or the minimum steady for a domestic air carrier to conduct a
A20 flight speed at which the airplane 150 day, over-the-top, flight below the
is controllable? specified IFR minimum en route altitude?

1- VSO 1- The flight must be conducted at

2- V least 1,000 feet above an over-
2
3- cast or broken cloud layer and
VS
4- have at least 5 miles flight
VS1
visibility.
2- The flight must remain clear of
163. A flight crew of two pilots originally any clouds by at least 500 feet
scheduled out on a domestic air carrier vertically and 1,000 feet hori-
G10 flight was delayed on the inbound zontally and have at least 3
flight and now has 5 1/2 hours of duty miles flight visibility.
aloft within the preceding 24 hours. 3- The flight must be conducted at
This crew can be dispatched least 2,000 feet above and 1,000
feet below any overcast or
1- without rest, provided the broken cloud layer and have at
estimated time en route is least 5 miles flight visibility.
not more than 2 1/2 hours. 4- The height of any higher over-
2- only after 11 hours of rest. cast or broken layer must be at
3- after 8 hours of rest only, least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.
provided the estimated time
en route is not more than
2 1/2 hours. 167. IFR altitudes or flight levels assigned
4- only after 16 hours of rest. by ATC normally conform to the hemi-
D44 spheric rule. Which of the following
groups contain altitudes or flight
164. The forecast weather conditions for a levels appropriate for an eastbound IFR
particular destination and alternate flight in uncontrolled airspace?
121 airport are considered marginal for a
domestic air carrier's operation. 1- 7,500, 9,500, FL 295, FL 315.
What specific action should you take? 2- 7,000, 9,000, FL 290, FL 330.
3- 6,500, 8,500, FL 285, FL 315.
1- Delay the flight, not to exceed 4- 6,000, 8,000, FL 280, FL 310.
1 hour, for possible weather
improvement.
2- Add one-additional hour of fuel 168. What is the maximum number f hours you
based on cruise power settings may fly in 7 consecutive days as pilot
for the airplane in use. G20 in command of a two-pilot crew for a
3- Reroute the flight along a flag air carrier?
different route if better
weather conditions exist. 1- 35 hours
4- List at least one additional 2- 32 hours
alternate airport. 3- 30 hours
4- 28 hours

165. What is the minimum recent instrument

approach experience required, prior 169. Unless waived by the Administrator, when
B20 to the date of the practical test, to only one battery-powered megaphone is
renew CAT II pilot authorization? E31 required, where must it be located
within the passenger cabin on a flag
1- Within the previous 6 months, passenger-carrying airplane?
six ILS approaches, three of
which may be flown to CAT I DHs 1- The most accessible location in
by use of an approach coupler. the forward portion of the
2- Within the previous 6 months, passenger cabin.
six ILS approaches flown by use 2- As close as practicable to the
of an approach coupler to CAT I midsection or the overwing exit.
OHs. 3- The most rearward location
3- Within the previous 12 calendar readily accessible to a normal
months, three ILS approaches flight attendant seat.
flown-by use of an approach 4- On the flight deck readily
coupler to CAT II DHs. accessible to any crewmember.
4- Within-the previous 12 months,
six ILS approaches flown manually
to CAT I DHs.
37
 Page 23
170. A commercial pilot has a DC-3 type 174. In addition to the required trip fuel,
B32 rating and successfully completes a
which factor is used when computing
flight test for the Airline Transport 144 fuel requirements for all operations?
Pilot Certificate in a Boeing 737.
Instruction may be given by this pilot 1-
in air transportation service in Enough fuel for one instrument
approach and possible missed
1 1- any airplane in which a rating 2-
approach at destination.
Forty-five minutes of reserve
is held, provided a Flight
fuel computed at normal cruise
Instructor Certificate is held fuel flow at 10,000 feet.
2- the Boeing 737 only, unless a 3- Thirty minutes reserve :imputed
Flight Instructor Certificate
at normal cruise fuel flow.
is also held.
4- Additional fuel for unanticipated
3- both the DC-3 and Boeing 737.
4- traffic delays and two missed
any airplane, provided the approaches.
student is training for an
Airline Transport Pilot
Certificate. 175. Which certificated air carrier must
prepare a load manifest containing
171 names of passengers?
171. In addition to fully equipped liferafts
and life preservers, what emergency
1- Commercial air carriers only.
E38 equipment must be provided on an air 2- Supplemental and commercial
carrier airplane during extended over-
air carriers.
water operations?
3- Flag air carriers only.
4- Domestic and flag air carriers.
1- One survival kit for each 25
occupants.
2- One self-buoyant, water resist- 176. Which equipment requirement must be met
ant, portable emergency radio by an air carrier that uses an Inertial
transceiver for each 10 occu- 191 Navigation System (INS) on a proposed
pants.
flight?
3- One pyrotechnic signaling
device for each 10 occupants. 1-
4- Dual ILS systems with an opera-
One survival-type emergency
tive Flight Director System can
locator transmitter.
be substituted for one inopera-
tive INS.
2- Both INS systems must be opera-
172. What in-flight visibility is required
tional.
when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL 3-
D30 A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be
(but less than 10,000 feet MSL) in
VFR conditions in controlled airspace? substituted for an inoperative
INS.
4- Only one INS is required if an
1- 3 miles
2- 2 miles operative Doppler Radar can be
3- 1
substituted for the other INS.
4- One-half statute mile
177. If a scheduled flight in a four-engine
173. domestic air carrier airplane requires
A flag air carrier flight is dis- 120 a departure alternate airport, what is
patched to an airport within the
143 the greatest distance in flying time
48 contiguous states for which an it may be located from the departure
alternate airport is available.
airport at normal cruising speed in
What minimum amount of fuel is still air?
required after reaching, the alter-
nate airport? 1- Two hours, with one engine
1- inoperative.
Two hours at normal cruising 2- One hour, with all engines
fuel consumption.
2- operative.
Enough fuel to return to the 3- Two hours, with all engines
destination airport. operative.
3- Ten percent of the time to fly 4- One hour, with two engines
from the departure airport to inoperative.
the destination airport.
4- Forty-five minutes at normal
cruising fuel consumption.

38
Page 24

178. An air carrier airplane had a brake 183. When a required item of aircraft equip-
failure during landing." After ment becomes inoperative, which docu-
177 repairs have been made, the air- I25 ment contains the approved procedures
worthiness release is the responsi- for dispatch or continuing flight?
bility of the
1- Minimum Equipment List.
1- certificate holder. 2- Amended flight/dispatch release.
2- flight engineer. 3- Original dispatch release.
3- pilot in command. 4- Operations Specifications.
4- chief aircraft dispatcher.

184. If a flag air carrier aircraft has a

179. For which of these aircraft is the seating capacity of 153, how many
"clearway" for a particular runway E31 approved first aid kits must be provided
E15 considered in computing takeoff for the treatment of injuries likely to
weight limitations? occur in flight?

1- Large aircraft (more than 1- 2

12,500 pounds). 2- 3
2- Passenger-carrying transport 3- 4
aircraft. 4- 5
3- U.S. certificated air carrier
airplanes.
4- Turbine-engine powered 185. What are the IFR takeoff minimums for
transport airplanes. supplemental air carriers?
147
1- As printed on the approach
180. A domestic flight crew is scheduled for chart for that runway.
10 hours of duty aloft within 24 consec- 2- As printed on IFR takeoff and
G10 utive hours. The inbound flight took departure procedures.
5 hours; the outbound flight is scheduled 3- One-half statute mile--aircraft
for 5 hours. What is the minimum crew having more than two engines.
rest period required after the inbound 4- As specified in the operations
flight before the same flight crew can specifications.
be redispatched for the outbound flight?

1- 16 hours 186. To utilize an approved visual simulator

2- 10 hours to reestablish recency of experience
3- 8 hours F34 for takeoffs and landings, what minimum
4- 5 hours number of flight hours must have been
previously logged in the same type air-
plane in which a pilot will serve?
181. While in uncontrolled airspace in VFR
conditions, what distance from clouds 1- 50 hours
D30 should be maintained when flying more 2- 75 hours
than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 3- 90 hours
10,000 feet MSL? 4- 100 hours

1- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above;

1 statute mile horizontal. 187. A domestic air carc'er shall keep copies
2- 1,000 feet below; 500 feet above; of the flight plans. dispatch releases,
2,000 feet horizontal. 174 and load manifests at least
3- 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet
above; 1 statute mile horizontal. 1- 6 months.
4- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 2- 3 !Tenths.
2,000 feet horizontal. 3- 45 days.
4- 30 days.

182. Which information must be contained in,

or attached to, the dispatch release
170 for a domestic air carrier flight?

1- A statement of the type of

operation (e.g., IFR or VFR).
2- Total fuel supply on board
the airplane.
3- Passenger manifest, cargo load, 39
and weight and balance data.
4- Name of each flight crewmember.
 Page 25
188. During takeoff and landing, which use 192. A three-engine air carrier airplane is
E33 of seat belts is approved in the
on the ground at an airport where the
passenger compartment of a flag air 120 weather has deteriorated so that it is
carrier airplane?
below the air carrier's landing minimums
for that airport. The airplane may be
1- Each person, regardless of age, dispatched from that airport when an
must occupy a single seat with alternate airport is located not more
an approved safety belt. than
2- Two persons, one of which is
under two years of age, may 1- 2 hours from the departure air-
occupy one seat and share one port at normal cruising speed in
approved safety belt.
3-
still air with one engine inop-
Two persons, regardless of erative.
age, may occupy a berth and 2- 1 hour from the depart'' * air-
share one approved safety belt. port at normal cruisiLs, speed.
4- Persons who have reached their 3- 2 hours from the departure air-
second birthday, may occupy a port at normal cruising speed
divan when individual safety under the most adverse wind
belts are provided.
conditions forecast during that
period.
4- 1 hour from the departure airport
189. Within which minimum preceding time
at normal cruising speed in still
period must a pilot have made three
air with one engine inoperative.
F34 takeoffs and landings in the airplane
of the type in which the pilot is to
serve as pilot in command? 193. While in uncontrolled airspace in VFR
1- conditions, what distance from clouds
180 days D30 should be maintained when flying more
2- 90 days
3-
than 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000
45 days feet MSL?
4- 30 days
1- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above;
190. 1 statute mile horizontal.
During which operations must the auto- 2- 1,000 feet below; 500 feet above;
matic deploying escape slides be armed 2,000 feet horizontal.
E32 on a passenger carrying landplane which 3- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet above;
is certificated with this system? 2,000 feet horizontal.
4- 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet
1- Anytime an emergency condition
above; 1 statute mile horizontal.
exists.
2- During takeoff and landing only.
3- During taxi, takeoff, and 194. What altitudes or flight levels would be
landing.
4-
appropriate for an eastbound IFR flight
During taxi and takeoff only. D44 in uncontrolled airspace?

1- FL 215, FL 195, 15,500, and

191. A pilot has had certain experience with 17,500.
the make and basic model of flight 2- FL 210, FL 190, 15,000, and
B20 control guidance system used in CAT II 17,000.
operations. What recent experience is 3- FL 200, FL 220, 16,000, and
required for a pilot to serve as pilot 12,000.
in command during a CAT II instrument 4- 15,500, 11,500, 9,500, and
approach? 7,500.

1- Six ILS approaches within the

preceding 6 months. 195. What is the number of approved first
2- Three ILS approaches within aid kits required for treatment of
the preceding 6 months. E31 inflight injuries or mindr accidents
3- Six ILS approaches within the for an air carrier airplane with a
preceding 12 months.
seating capacity for 287 passengers?
4- Twelve ILS approaches within
the preceding 6 months. 1- 3
2- 4
3- 6
4- 8

40
Page 26

196., To maintain route qualification, the 200. What additional certification, If any,
pilot in command of a flag air carrier is issued to crewmembers on an air
F39 airplane must have made at least 180 carrier of U.S. registry engaged in.
international air commerce to facilitate
1- two round trips between terminals entry and clearance into ICAO contracting
within the preceding 12 months. states?
2- one takeoff and landing at each
regular, provisional, and refuel- 1- Appropriate certification pro-
ing airport within the preceding cedures must be followed in
6 months. each country.
3- one trip between terminals within 2- A "Crewmember Certificate"
the preceding 3 months. issued by the Federal Aviation
4- one trip between terminals within Administration.
the preceding 12 months. 3- An ICAO International. Crew-
member Certificate issued by
ICAO.
197. While in controlled airspace in VFR 4- None, if flights are made into
conditions, what in-flight visibility ICAO member nations.
030 is required when flying more than
1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000
feet MSL? 201. What altitudes or flight levels would be
appropriate for an eastbound IFR flight
1- 5 statute miles D44 in uncontrolled airspace below the PCA?
2- 3 statute miles
3- 2 statute miles 1- 15,000, 11,000, 9,000 and 7,000.
4- 1 statute mile 2- 15,500, 11,500, 9,500 and 7,500.
3- FL 215, FL 195, 15,500 and
17,500.
198. At 1345Z, a flag air carrier flight 4- FL 210, FL 190, 15,000 and
lands at an intermediate airport. If 17,000.
Ill the flight experiences a delay, what
is the latest time it may depart for
the destination airport without a 202. Each certificate holder operating a
redispatch release? passenger-carrying airplane shall
H26 ensure that all passengers are orally
1- 1945Z briefed by the appropriate crewmember
2- 1545Z before each takeoff on
3- 1445Z
4- 1415Z 1- smoking, use of seat belts, and
location of emergency exits.
2- use of seat belts, oxygen, and
199. If weather conditions at the departure life preservers.
-airport are below the landing minimums 3- use of oxygen, location of
I20 in the operations specifications for emergency exits, and life pre-
that airport, what [Link] maximum servers.
distance specified for an alternate 4- location of emergency exits,
airport for airplanes having four oxygen masks, and liferafts.
engines?

1- One hour at normal cruise 203. At 1805Z, a flag air carrier flight
speed in still air with one lands at an intermediate airport. If
engine inoperative. I11 the flight experiences a delay for
2- Two hours at normal cruise maintenance, what is the latest time
speed in still air with all it may depart for the destination
engines operating. airport without a redispatch release?
3- Two hours at normal cruise
speed in still air with one 1- 0005Z
engine inoperative. 2- 2005Z
4- One hour at normal cruise 3- 1905Z
speed in still air with all 4- 1850Z
engines operating.

4
 Page 27
204. For what minimum period of time shall a
209. What is the minimum fuel required by a
flag air carrier keep copies of the load
174 manifest? flag air carrier turbojet powered air-
143 plane, on a flight within the 48 contig-
1- 6 months uous states and the District of Columbia,
2- 3 months after reaching the most distant alter-
3- 45 days nate airport?
4- 30 days
1- Forty-five minutes at normal
oruising fuel consumption.
205. To utilize an approved visual simu- 2- Ten percent of the time required
lator to reestablish recency of from the departure airport to
F34 experience for takeoffs and landings, the alternate airport.
what minimum number of flight hours 3- Two hours at normal cruising
must have been previously logged in fuel consumption.
the same type airplane in which a 4- Enough fuel to return to the
pilot will serve? destination airport.

1- 200 hours
2- 175 hours 210. The document which contains the approved
3- 100 hours procedures for continuing a proposed
4- 50 hours 125 flight when an item of required airplane
equipment becomes inoperative is the

206. How many approved first aid kits 1- amended flight release.
for treatment of injuries likely 2- Operations Specifications.
E31 to occur in flight must be evenly 3- Minimum Equipment List.
distributed throughout a domestic 4- original dispatch release.
air carrier aircraft which has a
seating capacity of 267?
211. If an item of required airplane equip-
1- 5 ment becomes inoperative, which docu-
2- 4 125 ment contains the approved procedures
3- 3 for dispatching or continuing a proposed
4- 2 flight?

1- Operations Specifications.
207. During CAT II operations, what 2- Minimum Equipment List.
additional ground equipment is 3- Amended flight/dispatch release.
012 required when the RVR for the 4- Original dispatch release.
TDZ is reported as less than
1,600 feet?
212. A commercial pilot has a type rating in
1- Touchdown Zone Lighting a B-727 and DC-3. A flight test is
833 completed in a 8-747 for the Airline
(TDZL).
2- Runway Centerline Lighting. Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot
3- An operative runway visual privileges may be exercised regarding
range system in the rollout these airplanes?
zone.
4- 1- ATP - 8 -747, 8 -727, and DC-3.
Runway remaining lights
(amber) for the final 2,000
2- Commercial - DC-3; ATP - DC-10
feet must be operating. and B-747.
3- Commercial - B-727 and DC-3;
ATP - B-747.
208. FAR Part 1 defines Vs as the stalling 4- Commercial - DC-9; ATP - B-747
speed or minimum steady flight speed and DC-3.
A20
1- with the critical engine
213. For flights scheduled above what flight
inoperative.
2- in the landing configuration. level shall a crewmember instruct
3- E37 passengers on the use of supplemental
obtained in a specified con-
figuration. oxygen?
4- at which the airplane is
controllable. 1- FL 350
2- FL 330
3- FL 290
4- FL 250

12
sage 28

!14. Which certificated air carrier operators 218. What is the maximum flight time a flag
must attach to, or include on, the air carrier may schedule you to fly as
(71 flight release form the name of each G20 pilot of a two-pilot crew without a
flight crewmember, flight attendant, and rest period?
designated pilot in command?
1- 6 hours
1- Supplemental only. 2- 8 hours
2- Flag and Commercial. 3- 10 hours
3- Supplemental and Commercial. 4- 12 hours
4- Domestic.

219. A flag air carrier flight which requires

215. Which certificated air carrier must list three pilots is scheduled to operate on
names of passengers on a load manifest? B12 August 5. Each of the pilots has a
171 First-Class Medical Certificate dated
1- Domestic and flag air carriers. January 28 of the same year. For this
2- Flag air carriers only. scheduled flight
3- Commercial air carriers only.
4- Supplemental and commercial air 1- all three pilots must have new
carriers. medical certificates prior to
departure.
2- only the pilot serving as pilot
216. For IFR operations within the 48 in command must have a new
contiguous states and the District of medical certificate prior to
123 Columbia, supplemental air carriers departure.
and commercial operators are required 3- only the pilots serving as pilot
to list an alternate airport for each in command and second in command
destination airport must have new medical certifi-
cates prior to departure.
1- regardless of the reported and 4- these medical certificates are
forecast weather conditions. adequate for each of the pilot
2- only when the forecast ceiling positions.
and visibility are less than
5,000 and 5, from 2 hours before
to 2 hours after the ETA. 220. When is a supplemental air carrier
3- only when the forecast ceiling required to list an alternate airport
is less than 1,000 feet above 123 for each destination airport for opera-
the MEA, MOCA, or initial tions within the contiguous states and
approach altitude, or forecast the District of Columbia?
visibility is less than 3 miles
from 2 hours before to 2 hours 1- Only when the forecast ceiling
after the ETA. is less than 3,000 feet and
4- only when the forecast ceiling visibility less than 3 miles for
and visibility are less than ETA plus or minus 2 hours.
3,000 and 3, from 2 hours before 2- An alternate airport is required
to 2 hours after the ETA. regardless of existing or fore-
cast weather conditions.
3- Only when the ceiling is forecast
217. A domestic air carrier schedules a two- to be less than 5,000 feet and
pilot crew for two flights within 24 visibility less than 5 miles for
G10 consecutive hours. The first flight the ETA plus or minus 1 hour.
takes 6 hours and the second flight is 4- Only when weather conditions
scheduled for 4 hours. Prior to the are forecast to be below basic
second flight, the flight crewmembers VFR minimums.
must be given a rest period of at least

1- 12 hours. 221. During what preceding time period must a

2- 10 hours. crewmember have completed an established
3- 8 hours. F31 training program in order to perform
4- 4 hours. duties associated with the handling and
carriage of dangerous articles and
magnetized materials?

1- 6 months
2- 24 months
3- 12 calendar months
/fj4- 18 calendar months
 Page 29
222. Your flight logbook for the months of 226. While in uncontrolled airspace in VFR
July and August shows these entries: conditions, what distance from clouds
G10 D30 should:be maintained when flying at
July 28 - 2.0 hrs. - air carrier flight 8,500 feet MSL but more than 1,200
July 29 - 3.0 hrs. - air carrier flight feet AGL?
July 30 - 3.0 hrs. - air carrier flight
Aug. 1 - 8.0 hrs. - charter flight 1- 1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet
Aug. 2 - 4.0 hrs. - flight instruction above; 1 mile horizontal.
Aug. 4 - 4.0 hrs. - pleasure flight 2- 500 feet below; 500 feet above;
Aug. 5 - 6.0 hrs. - air carrier flight 1,000 feet horizontal.
3- 1,000 feet below; 500 feet
How many additional hours, if any, can above; 2,000 feet horizontal.
you fly for this domestic air carrier 4- 500 feet below; 1,000 feet
on August 6 without exceeding the maxi- above; 2,000 feet horizontal.
mum flight time authorized in any 7
consecutive days?
227. Which is a correct definition of an
1- None airplane speed symbol?
2- 5 additional hours A20
3- 9 additional hours 1- V - design maximum maneuvering
MA
4- 12 additional hours speed.
2- V - design speed for maximum
C _________
cruise.
223. At which altitudes or flight levels 3- V - maximum speed for extend-
is an approved DME receiver required FE
ing wing flaps.
E42 on a domestic air carrier, three 4- V - maximum landing gear
engine turbojet operating along LO
operating speed.
victor or jet airways?

'- At all operating altitudes 228. What is the maximum distance a departure
or flight levels. [Link] may be located from
2- Only for operations above 120 the departure airport for a three-engine
FL 180. turbine powered airplane?
3- Only for operations between
FL 240 and FL 450. 1- Two hours at normal cruise speed
4- For operations in positive in still air with one engine
controlled airspace only. inoperative.
2- One hour at normal cruise speed
in still air with one engine
224. What are the certificate and rating inoperative.
requirements for a pilot second in 3- Two hours at slow cruise speed
F33 command of a three pilot crew on a in still air with one engine
four-engine turbojet domestic air inoperative.
carrier airplane? 4- One hour at slow cruise speed in
still air with one engine
1- Commercial Pilot Certificate inoperative.
with instrument rating.
2- Airline Transport Pilot
Certificate with airplane 229. Under what condition may a pilot of a
type rating. domestic air carrier complete an
3- Flight Engineer Certificate 146 instrument approach procedure to the
and Commercial Pilot Certifi- DH, if the reported weather conditions
cate with airplane type rating. are less than the prescribed minimums
4- Commercial Pilot Certificate for that airport?
with instrument and airplane
type ratings. 1- If the pilot specifically
requests and is cleared for a
radar monitored ILS approach.
225. A flag air carrier flight requires 2- If the weather report indicating
three pilots. What are the,certifi- below_minimum conditions is
F33 cate and rating requirements for the received after the pilot has
third pilot? been cleared for a PAR or ILS
approach.
1- Airline transport pilot with 3- When the weather report indi-
airplane type rating. cating below minimum conditions
2- Commercial pilot with instru- is received after the pilot has
ment rating only. passed the OM on an ILS approach.
3- Commercial pilot with category, 4- When the airport is served by
class, and instrument ratings. an operative ILS or PAR and one
4- Commercial pilot with airplane is used by the pilot.
type and instrument rating.
Page 30

230. A domestic air carrier schedules a 234. Which inflight conditions are required
two-pilot crew for two flights within by a supplemental air carrier to conduct
G20 24 consecutive hours. The first 150 a day, over-the-top, flight below the
flight took 5 hours and the second specified IFR minimum en route altitude?
flight is scheduled for 4 hours. Prior
to the second flight, the flight crew- 1- The flight must remain clear of
members must be given a rest period of clouds by at least 500 feet
at least vertically and 1,000 feet hori-
zontally and have at least 3
1- 5 hours. miles flight visibility.
2- 8 hours. 2- The flight must be conducted at
3- 10 hours. least 1,000 feet above an over-
4- 12 hours. cast or broken cloud layer and
have at least 5 miles flight
visibility.
231. During a CAT II approach to a DH of 3- The height of any higher over-
150 feet, for which marker beacons cast or broken layer must be at
D12 may a compass locator or precision least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.
radar be substituted? 4- The flight must be conducted at
least 2,000 feet above and 1,000
1- No substitutions are authorized feet below any overcast or
for CAT II approaches. broken cloud layer and have at
2- OM and MM. least 5 miles flight visibility.
3- OM only.
4- OM, MM, and EP.
235. When is a commercial operator required
to list an alternate airport for each
232. A flight requiring two pilots is 123 destination airport for operations
scheduled for August 1. Both the within the contiguous states and the
B12 pilot in command and the second in District of Columbia?
command have- afirst-Clats Medical
Certificate dated February 28. 1- Only when weather conditions are
Prior to the scheduled flight, the forecast to be below basic VFR
pilot in command minimums.
2- Only when the forecast ceiling
1- and second in command hold is less than 5,000 feet and
certificates adequate for visibility less than 5 miles for
the flight. the ETA plus or minus 2 hours.
2- must obtain a new First-Class 3- An alternate airport is required
Medical Certificate; the regardless of forecast or
second in command must have a reported weather conditions.
new medical certificate, but 4- Only when the forecast ceiling
a second class certificate is is less than 3,000 feet and
adequate. visibility less than 3 miles for
3- must obtain a new First-Class the ETA plus or minus 2 hours.
Medical Certificate; the
second in command's certifi-
cate is adequate. 236. Which factor is used when computing fuel
4- and second in command must requirements for all domestic air
obtain new First-Class Medical 144 carrier operations?
Certificates.
1- Enough fuel for flight to
destination airport, plus 30
233. For flights with cabin pressure altitudes minutes reserve computed at
above 15,000 feet, the passenger oxygen normal cruise fuel flow.
E36 supply required is enough for 2- Additional fuel for unantici-
pated traffic delays and two
1- each passenger for 30 minutes. missed approaches.
2- 10% of the passengers for the 3- Enough fuel to land at destina-
entire flight at those alti- tion airport, plus 45 minutes
tudes. of reserve fuel computed at
3- each passenger during the entire normal cruise fuel flow at
flight at those altitudes. 10,000 feet.
4- 30% of the passengers for 30 4- In addition to planned trip fuel,
minutes. enough fuel for one instrument
approach and possible missed
approach at destination.
 Page 31
237. What are the certificate and rating 241. Which information must be contained in,
requirements for a pilot second in
F33 command of a two-pilot crew on a or attached to, the dispatch release for
170 a domestic air carrier flight?
three-engine turbojet domestic air
carrier airplane?
1- Weight and balance data.
2- Total fuel supply on board
1- Airline Transport Pilot Certif- the airplane.
icate with airplane type rating. 3-
2- Type of operation (e.g., IFR,
Commercial pilot with category,
VFR).
class, and instrument ratings.
4- Passenger manifest and cargo
3- Flight Engineer Certificate and
weight.
Commercial Pilot Certificate
with airplane type rating.
4- Commercial Pilot Certificate 242. What is the minimum operative equipment
with instrument and airplane
type ratings.
a passenger-carrying turbojet airplane
E42 operating under FAR Part 121 must have
installed when operating under IFR in
238. When a departure alternate is required the conterminous United States?
fora Boeing 727 domestic air carrier 1-
120 flight, it must be located at a Two DMEs, two LF navigation
distance not greater than receivers, and airborne weather
radar.
2- One DME, two independent VOR
1- 2 hours from the departure
airport at normal cruising receivers, and airborne weather
radar.
speed in still air with one 3- One DME, one VOR receiver, and
engine inoperative.
2- 1 hour from the departure Doppler radar may be substituted
for weather radar.
airport at normal cruising 4- One DME and two independent
speed in still air with one
navigation receivers.
engine inoperative.
3- 2 hours from the departure
airport at normal cruising 243. What emergency equipment is required
speed in still air.
4- for an extended over-water operation
1 hour from the departure E38 for a supplemental air carrier flight?
airport at normal cruising
speed in still air.
1- An appropriately equipped
survival kit attached to each
239. The minimum certificate and rating required liferaft.
2- A self-buoyant, water resistant,
requirements for the second in
F33 command of the two-pilot crew on a portable radio for each required
liferaft.
two-engine domestic air carrier 3-
turbojet airplane are Enough liferafts to accommodate
the full seating capacity of
1- the airplane.
Airline Transport Pilot Certifi- 4- A life preserver or other flota-
cate with aircraft type rating.
2- tion device for the full seating
Flight Engineer Certificate and
capacity of the airplane.
Commercial Pilot Certificate
with aircraft type rating.
3- Commercial Pilot Certificate 244. What is the maximum number of hours that
with instrument and aircraft
a pilot, not qualified to act as pilot in
type ratings. G10
4- command, may fly as a crewmember in a
Commercial Pilot Certificate
domestic air carrier service?
with instrument rating.
1- 120 hours in any 30 consecutive
240. Which takeoff computation must not be days and 1,200 hours in any 12
longer than the runway length for a consecutive months.
E15 2- 120 hours in any calendar month
domestic air carrier transport cate-
gory airplane? and 1,000 hours in any calendar
year.
3- 100 hours in any 30 consecutive
1- Accelerate-stop distance
2- Takeoff path days and 1,200 hours in any 12
3- Takeoff run consecutive months.
4- 100 hours in any calendar month
4- Takeoff distance
and 1,000 hours in any calendar
year.
Page 32

245. The second in command of a two-pilot 249. Which emergency equipment is required
domestic air carrier flight may log as for a flag air carrier flight between
B13 instrument flight time E38 JFK International and London, England?

1- 100% of the time the pilot is 1- Enough liferafts to accommodate

controlling the airplane solely the full seating capacity of the
by reference to flight instru- airplane.
ments. 2- A life preserver or other flota-
2- 50% of the time the airplane is tion device for the full seating
in actual IFR conditions. capacity of the airplane.
3- 50% of the time the flight is 3- An appropriately equipped
on an IFR flight plan. survival kit attached to each
4- 100% of the time the airplane required liferaft.
is in actual IFR conditions or 4- A self-buoyant, water resistant
the pilot is wearing a view- portable radio for each required
limiting device. liferaft.

246. A refueling airport within the conti- 250. What is the minimum RVR value in the
nental United States has no prescribed touchdown zone before a rollout zone
134 takeoff minimums. What minimum weather D12 RVR system is required during CAT II
conditions must exist at takeoff if operations?
thii airport is not listed in the air
carrier's specifications? 1- RVR 10
2- RVR 12
1- 1000-2 3- RVR 14
2- 1000-3 4- RVR 16
3- 900-2
4- 800-2
251. The reported weather conditions are less
than the prescribed minimums for an
247. If your flight is advised that pilot 146 airport. As a pilot for a domestic uir
reports indicate icing conditions which carrier, under which condition may you
126 might adversely affect the safety of continue an instrument approach pro-
flight, the operations cedure to the MDA or DH?

1- may be continued only if all 1- When the airport is served by

anti-icing and deicing equip- operative ILS and PAR and either
ment is operating normally. is used for the approach.
2- shall not be continued except 2- If the weather report indicating
by joint approval of the dis- below landing minimums is
patcher and ATC. received after you have passed
3- shall not be continued or a the OM on an ILS approach.
landing made in such icing 3- If you specific11" requested
conditions. and were cleared for a radar
4- may be continued, but a landing monitored MS approach.
shall not be made in such icing 4- If the weather report indicating
conditions. below landing MiiiiMUM conditions
is received after you have
received ATC clecrance for the
248. Each domestic air carrier is required approach.
to carry aboard each airplane to the
174 destination airport a copy of the
252. According to FAR Part 121, the cockpit
1- weight and balance release and voice recorder must operate continuously
flight plan. E44 from the start of
2- load manifest and dispatch
release. 1- the before starting engine check-
3- dispatch release, load manifest, list to the final checklist upon
and flight plan. termination of flight.
4- dispatch release, and weight 2- the takeoff roll to completion of
and balance release. the landing roll.
3- taxiing from the loading ramp to
block-in after flight.
4- the before starting engine check-
list to completion of the landing
roll.

7
 Page 33
253. Which information must be contained in, 257. While in controlled airspace in VFR
or attached to, the dispatch release
conditions, what in-flight visibility
170 for a domestic air carrier flight? D30 is required when flying more than
7,200 feet AGL, and at or above
1- Departure airport, intermediate 10,000 feet MSL?
stops, destination and alter-
nate airports. 1- 5 statute miles
2- Name of each flight crewmember. 2- 3 statute miles
3- Total fuel supply on board the 3- 2 statute miles
airplane. 4- 1 statute mile
4- Passenger manifest, cargo load,
and weight and balance data.
258. Excluding airspace at and below 2,500
254.
feet AGL, above which altitude in con-
A domestic air carrier flight lands at D16 trolled airspace of the 48 contiguous
2315Z at an intermediate airport speci-
110
states and the District of Columbia is
fled in the dispatch release. What is
an appropriately equipped transponder
the latest time it may depart the inter- required?
mediate airport without a redispatch
release? 1- 12,500 feet AGL
2- 12,500 feet MSL
1- 0515Z 3- 14,500 feet AGL
2- 0015Z 4- 14,500 feet MSL
3- 0000Z
4- 2345Z
259. What information must be contained in
the load manifest for a flag air
255. What is the passenger oxygen supply I72 carrier?
requirement for flights with a cabin
E36 pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 1- CG position at takeoff.
feet? Enough oxygen for 2- Maximum allowable weight for
the flight.
1- each passenger for 30 minutes. 3- Passenger manifest.
2- 10% of the seating capacity 4- Distribution of cargo.
at those altitudes.
3- 50% of the actual passenger
load for 30 minutes. 260.
4-
Your flight logbook for the months of
all passengers for the entire March and April show these entries:
flight duration above 15,000 G10
feet cabin altitude. Mar. 28 - 2.0 hrs. - air carrier flight
Mar. 29 - 3.0 hrs. - air carrier flight
Mar. 30 - 3.0 hrs. - air carrier flight
256. Which amount of data may be erased for Aoril 1 - 8.0 hrs. - charter flight
the purpose of testing a flight recorder Koril 2
E40
- 4.0 hrs. - flight instruction
system which has the erasure feature? April 4 - 4.0 hrs. - pleasure flight
April 5 - 6.0 hrs. - air carrier flight
1- Any amount of data may be
erased. How miry additional hours, if any, can
2- Not more than 30 minutes of you-fly for this domestic air carrier
prerecorded data. on April 6 without exceeding the maxi-
3- Not more than a total of 1 mln flight time authorized in any
hour of the oldest recorded 7-consecutive days?
data accumulated at the time
of testing. 1- 12 hours
Not more than a total of 2 2- 9 hours
hours of the oldest recorded 3- 5 hours
data accumulated prior to 4- None
testing the system.

261. Which certificated air carrier operators

must attach to, or include on, the
171 flight release form the name of each
flight crewmember?

1- Domestic and Flag.

2- Supplemental and Domestic.
3- Flag and Commercial.
4- Supplemental and Commercial.

8
 34

262. For CAT II approaches to a DH below 267. For how long may a domestic air carrier
[Link], what airplane equipment is flight remain on the ground at an inter-
D50 required in addition to the basic equip- 110 mediate airport before a redispatch
ment required for CAT II operations? release is required?

1- A marker beacon receiver pro- 1- 45 minutes

viding aural and visual indi- 2- 1 hour
cations of the inner marker. 3- 2 hours
2- A radio altimeter which dis- 4- 6 hours
plays the actual height of the
flight deck above the terrain.
3- A third gyroscopic pitch-and- 268. In addition to the basic'airplane equip-
bank indicating system. ment required for CAT II operations,
4- Dual glide slope and localizer D50 what additional equipment is necessary
receiving antennas. for CAT II decision heights to 100 feet?

1- A third gyroscopic pitch-and-

263. What is the maximum time a domestic bank indicator system.
flight may remain on the ground after 2- The marker beacon receiver
110 landing at an intermediate airport system must provide both aural
specified in the dispatch release and visual indications of the
before a redispatch release is inner marker.
required for the destination airport? 3- Dual localizer and glide slope
receiving antennae.
1- 6 hours 4- The radio altimeter must display
2- 3 hours the actual height of the flight
3- 1 hour deck above the terrain.
4- 30 minutes

269. What altitudes or flight levels would be

264. At 1815Z, a domestic air carrier flight appropriate for a westbound IFR flight
lands at an intermediate airport speci- D44 in uncontrolled airspace?
110 fied in the dispatch release. If the
flight is delayed, what is the latest 1- 12,500, 16,500, FL 185, and
time it may depart the intermediate FL 205
airport without a redispatch release? 2- 12,000, 16,000, FL 180, and
FL 200
1- 2015Z 3- 9,000, 13,000, and 17,000
2- 1945Z 4- 8,000, 12,000, FL 195, and
3- 1915Z FL 215
4- 1845Z

270. What altitudes or flight levels would

265. For an extended overwater operation, be appropriate for a westbound IFR
which equipment is required? D44 flight in uncontrolled airspace below
E38 the PCA?
1- A survival kit for each
occupant. 1- 8,000, 12,000, 14,000, and 16,000
2- One portable emergency radio 2- 9,000, 11,000, FL 190, and FL 210
signaling device. 3- 12,000, 14,000, FL 180 , and
3- One pyrotechnic signaling FL 200
device for each lifevest. 4- 12,500, 14,500, FL 185 , and
4- Enough liferafts to accommo- FL 205
date the occupants of the
airplane.
271. An air carrier that elects to use an
Inertial Navigation System (INS) must
266. The number of approved first-aid 191 meet which equipment requirement prior
kits required for treatment of to takeoff on a proposed flight?
E31 injuries likely to occur in flight
is predicated on seating capacity. 1- One INS with a-dual VORTAC/ILS
How many are required on an air system may be used as a backup.
carrier airplane with 155-passengra. 2- Dual ILSs with an operative Flight
seats? Director System may be used as a
backup for one inoperative INS.
1- 6 3- One INS may be inoperative, but
2- 3 an operational Doppler Radar unit
3- 2 may be substituted in its stead.
4- 1 4- Both INSs must be operational.
 Page 35
272. Which is a correct symbol for the stall- 277, An airline transport pilot with an
ing speed or the minimum steady flight
A20 appropriate airplane type rating, who
speed'in a specified configuration? F36 meets all other training requirements,
completed an approved simulator course
of training in January of this year.
The most recent proficiency flight check
was passed in July of last year. For an
air carrier flight during March of this
year, where three pilots are required,
273. the pilot may
What facilities may be substituted
for the middle marker when making a 1-
D42 CAT I ILS approach? serve as third pilot only.
2- not serve in any pilot position.
3- serve in any of the three pilot
1- DME
positions.
2- Compass locator or 4- serve as either second in
precision radar
3-
command or third pilot only.
Surveillance radar
4- VOR and DME combination fix
278. An airplane has a seating capacity for
274. 149 passengers. What is the minimum
While in controlled airspace in VFR Fil number of flight attendants required
conditions, what in-flight visibility with 97 passengers aboard?
D30 is required when flying more than
1,200 feet AGL, and below 10,000 feet 1- Five
MSL?
2- Four
3- Three
1- 1 statute mile 4- Two
2- 2 statute miles
3- 3 statute miles
4- 5 statute miles 279. Which is one of the requirements that
must be met by a required pilot flight
F34 crewmember in reestablishing recency
275. For IFR operations within the 48 con- of experience?
tiguous states-and-the District of-
I23 Columbia, supplemental air carriers 1- At least one landing must be
are required to list an alternate air-
made to a full stop with a
port for each destination airport
simulated failure of the most
1- critical engine.
only when the forecast ceiling 2- At least one landing must be
and visibility are less than
made from an ILS approach to
3,000 and 3, from 2 hours before
the lowest ILS minimums
to 2 hours after the ETA.
2- authorized for the certificate
only when the forecast ceiling is holder.
less than 1,000 feet above the 3- At least two landings must be
MEA, MOCA,.or initial approach made to a complete stop.
altitude, or forecast visibility At least two takeoffs must be
is less than 3 miles, from 2 hours made with a simulated failure
before to 2 hours after the ETA. of the most critical powerplant.
3- only when the forecast ceiling
and visibility are less than
.5,000 and 5, from 2 hours before 280. The flight time limitations established
to 2 hours after the ETA. for flight crewmembers for operations
4- regardless of the reported and G10 under FAR Part 121, include
forecast weather conditions.
1- flight time in scheduled air
276. What is the minimum number of flight transportation operations only.
2- all commercial flying in any
attendants required for an airplane
Fli aircrew position.
having .a seating capacity of 176 3- only commercial flying in an
passengers with only 113 passengers
aboard? aircrew position in which FAR
Part 121 operations are con-
ducted.
1- Five 4- all flight time in any aircrew
2- Four
position.
3- Three
4- Two
Page'36

281. Which is the correct symbol for the 286. When must a cockpit voice recorder be
stalling'speed or the minimum steady operated?
A20 flight speed in a specified config- E44
uration? 1- From the start of the before
starting engine checklist to
1- V min completion of checklist prior
2- V to engine shutdown.
S1
3- Vs 2- From the start of the before
4- VSO starting engine checklist to
completion of final checklist
upon termination of flight.
282. Which use of seat belts is approved 3- When starting to taxi for take-
in the passenger compartment of a off to engine shutdown after
E33 domestic air carrier airplane during termination of flight.
takeoff and landing? 4- From start of taxiing for take-
off to completion of landing.
1- Persons who have reached their
second birthday, may occupy a
divan when individual safety 287. What additional certification, if any,
belts are provided. is issued to crewmembers of a commercial
2- Each person, regardless of age, 180 operator of U.S. registry to facilitate
must occupy a single seat with entry and clearance into ICAO contracting
an approved safety belt. states?
3- Two persons, one of which is
under two years of age, may 1- A "Crewmember Certificate"
occupy one seat and [Link] issued by the Federal Aviation
approved safety belt. Administration.
4- Two persons, regardless of age, 2- None, if flights are made into
may occupy a berth and share ICAO member nations.
one approved safety belt. 3- An ICAO International Crewmember
Certificate issued by ICAO.
4- Appropriate certification pro-
283. FAR Part 1 defines VSO as the stalling cedures must be followed in each
speed or the minimum steady flight speed country.
A20-
1- in the landing configuration.
2- in the takeoff configuration. 288. What are the certificate and rating
3- with the critical engine requirements for the pilot second in
operative. F33 command on a three-pilot crew of a
4- at which the airplane is con- domestic air carrier?
trollable.
1- Airline transport pilot;
airplane type rating.
284. When using a flight recorder which has 2- Commercial pilot; airplane
the erasure feature, which amount of type and instrument rating.
E40 data may be erased for the purpose of 3- Commercial pilot; airplane
testing the flight recorder system? type rating.
4- Commercial pilot; category,
1- Any amount of prerecorded data class, and instrument rating.
may be erased.
2- Not more than a total of 30
minutes of the oldest data 289. What procedure should you follow if it
accumulated prior to conducting were necessary to shut down one engine
system testing. H24 on a four-engine domestic air carrier
3- Not more than 30 minutes of airplane while en route?
prerecorded data.
4- A total of 1 hour of the oldest 1- Land at the takeoff alternate
recorded data accumulated at listed in the flight dispatch.
the time of testing. 2- Proceed to the airport speci-
fied by the company dispatcher.
3- Land at any airport you consider
285. Which is the correct symbol for design as safe as the nearest suitable
cruising speed? airport in point of time.
A20 4- Land at the nearest suitable
1- V airport in point of time only.
2- V
3-
4-
$0
MA
51
 Page 37

(Diagram Not To Scale)

ii11111111
RWY 3
I 950 RWY2L
Feet
Actual Runway Length

9,325 Feet

Figure 7

290. What action shall be taken if a flight 293. What maximum computed landing distance
encounters icing conditions that might may be used by a turbine-engine powered
126 adversely affect the safety of flight? E18 airplane to land on RWY 21 (wet) at the
The flight
destination airport? (Fig. 7)
1- may be continued to the alter- 1- 6,124 feet
nate airport, but a landing 2- 6,783 feet
shall not be made in such icing 3- 5,986 feet
conditions. 4- 6,983 feet
2- shall not be continued, nor
shall a landing be made, in
such icing conditions. 294. What maximum computed landing distance
3- shall not be continued unless may be used by a turbine-engine powered
approval is received from the El8 airplane to land on RWY 21 (dry) at the
company dispatcher and flight destination airport? (Fig. 7)
operations.
4- may be continued to the 1- 6,072 feet
original destination airport, 2- 5,898 feet
provided that all anti-icing 3- 5,205 feet
and deicing equipment is 4- 5,325 feet
operational and is used.

295. What maximum computed landing distance

291. What maximum computed landing distance may be used by a turbine-engine powered
may be used by a turbo-propeller powered El8
E18
airplane to land on RWY 3 (wet) at the
airplane to land on Runway 3 (dry) at destination airport? (Fig. 7)
the alternate airport? (Fig. 7)
1- 6,124 feet
1- 6,212 feet 2- 5,986 feet
2- 6,072 feet 3- 6,782 feet
3- 5,325 feet 4- 6,982 feet
4- 5,205 feet

296. What maximum computed landing distance

292. What maximum computed landing distance may be used by a turbine-engine powered
may be used by a turbo-propeller E18
E18 airplane to land on RWY 3 (dry) at the
powered airplane to land on RWY 21 (dry) destination airport? (Fig. 7)
at the alternate airport? (Fig. 7)
1- 5,325 feet
1- 6,212 feet 2- 5,205 feet
2- 6,072 feet 3- 5,898 feet
3- 5,325 feet 4- 6,072 feet
4- 5,205 feet

52
Page 33

297. If a turbojet air carrier flight is to 301. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC,
be operated in VFR over-the-top condi- what is the maximum indicated air-
E42 tions, which radio navigation equipment D20 speed at which a Boeing 727 can
is required to be a dual installation? operate within an Airport Traffic
Area?
1- VOR and ILS
2- VOR, DME, and ILS 1- 275 knots
3- VOR 2- 250 knots
4- VOR and DME 3- 230 knots
4- 200 knots

298. What restrictions must be observed

regarding the carrying of cargo for- 302. Your flight logbook for the month of
E19 [Link] the foremost seated passengers? May shows these entries:
G10
1- All cargo must be separated from May 6 - air carrier flight - 4.0
all seated passengers by a May 7 - air carrier flight - 7.0
partition capable of withstand- May 9 - charter flight - 6.0
ing certain load stresses. May 10
- commercial flight
2- Cargo may be carried in a instruction - 4.0
passenger seat if properly May 11 - pleasure flight - 4.0
secured by a safety belt. May 12 - charter flight - 5.0
3- All cargo must be carried in a
suitable bin and secured to the How many additional hours, if any, can
floor structure of the airplane. you fly for this domestic air carrier
4- The cargo may be carried in an on May 14 without exceeding the maximum
open bin if it is of a non-toxic authorized in any 7 consecutive days?
or non-flammable nature.
1- Fifteen additional hours
2- Four additional hours
299. What requirement must be met regarding 3- Two additional hours
cargo that is carried aft of the fore- 4- None
E19 most seated passengers in an air
carrier airplane?
303. What minimum weather conditions must
1- The bin in which the cargo is exist for a domestic air carrier flight
carried must not be installed 134 to takeoff from a refueling airport
in a position that restricts (within the United States) which is
access to, or use of, any emer- not listed in the air carrier's opera-
gency exit. Eons specifications? (Takeoff minimums
2- The cargo may be carried in a -are not prescribed for that airport.)
passenger seat if properly
secured by a safety belt. 1- 800-2, 1,000-1 1/2, or 1,500-1
3- The container or bin in which 2- 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1
the cargo is carried must be 3- 600-3, 1,000-2, or 1,200-1
made of material which is at 4- 600-2, 1,000-1 1/2, or 1,000-2
least flash resistant.
4- The cargo may be carried in
an open bin if the bin is of 304. For which operations within the contig-
a non-toxic or non-flammable uous United States and the District of
nature. 123 Columbia must an alternate airport be
listed regardless of existing or fore-
cast weather conditions?
300. What procedure should you follow if it
were necessary to shut down one engine 1- Supplemental and flag
H24 on a two-engine domestic air carrier 2- Commercial and supplemental
airplane while en route? 3- Domestic
4- Domestic and flag
1- Land at any airport you consider
as safe as the nearest suitable
airport in point of time.
2- Proceed to the airport specified
by the company dispatcher.
3- Land at the takeoff alternate
listed in the flight dispatch.
4- Land at the nearest suitable
airport in point of time at 53
which a safe landing can be made.
 Page 39
305. What action should be taken by the 309. A three-engine turbojet transport air-
pilot in command of a transport cate-
plane operated IFR along victor or jet
E43 gory airplane if the airborne weather E42 airways by a domestic air carrier must
radar becomes inoperative en route on be equipped with an approved DME receiver
an IFR flight for which weather reports
indicate possible thunderstorms? 1- only during operations at or
above FL 240.
1- Request ATC for radar vectors 2- only during operations at or
to the nearest airport suitable above FL 180.
for large aircraft landings. 3- regardless of operating altitude.
In such-an event, proceed in 4- during operations in positive
accordance with the approved
control airspace only.
instructions in the operations
manual.
3- Return to the departure air- 310. What procedure is required regarding
port if closer than the destina- the handling of a dangerous or deadly
tion airport. H32 unloaded weapon that is declared in
4- Fly to and land at the nearest the personal baggage of a passenger?
approved air carrier airport.
1- The baggage must be locked and
306.
the key retained by a person
An airline transport pilot with an
other than the owner of the
appropriate airplane type rating, who weapon.
F36 meets all other training requirements, 2- The baggage must remain locked
completed an approved simulator course
and carried in an area other
of training in October of this year.
than the flight crew compartment
The most recent proficiency flight
that is inaccessible to other
check was passed in March of last year.
passengers.
For an air carrier flight during March 3- The baggage may be carried in
of this year, where three pilots are
the flight crew compartment if
required, the pilot may
a flight crewmember retains the
key.
1- serve as third pilot only. 4- The baggage must be placed
2- serve as either second in
beneath the passenger's seat
command or third pilot only. and the key retained by the
3- serve in any of the three passenger.
pilot positions.
4- not serve in any pilot
position. 311. Prior to checking personal baggage, a
passenger notifies the certificate
H32 holder that an unloaded weapon is inside.
307. In lieu of reported ground visibility, What procedure is required regarding the
what minimum in-flight visibility is handling of this baggage?
D31 required under the provisions of
Special VFR, for takeoff from an air- 1- The baggage must remain locked
port located within a control zone? and carried in an area other
than the flight crew compartment
1- 1 statute mile
that is inaccessible to
2- 2 statute miles
passengers.
3- 3 statute miles 2- The baggage must remain locked
4- 5 statute miles
and custody of the key to the
baggage must remain with a
308.
designated person other than the
When the ground visibility is not owner of the weapon.
reported for an airport within a 3- When baggage size permits, it
D31 control zone, what is the minimum must be placed beneath the
in-flight visibility required for passenger's seat or within the
takeoff under the provisions of
passenger compartment, and the
Special VFR?
passenger must retain the key.
4- The baggage may be carried in
1- 5 statute miles the flight crew compartment,
2- 3 statute miles provided it is locked and a
3- 2 statute miles
flight crewmember retains the
4- 1 statute mile key.

54
 Page 40

(Diagram Not To Scale)

1,350
Feet
I 1,100 Rwy 19
Feet
Actual Runway Length

9,700 Feet

Figure 8

312. What maximum computed landing distance 316. What maximum computed landing distance
may be used by a turbo-propeller powered may be used by a turbo-propeller powered
E18 airplane to land on Runway 19 (dry) at E18 airplane to land on Runway 1 (dry) at
the destination airport? (Fig. 8) the destination airport? (Fig. 8)
1- 5,820 feet 1- 6,790 feet
2- 5,845 feet 2- 6,020 feet
3- 6,020 feet 3- 5,845 feet
4- 6,790 feet 4- 5,820 feet

313. Wh ?t maximum computed landing distance 317. What maximum computed landing distance
may be used by a turbine-engine powered may be used by a turbo-propeller powered
E18 airplane to land on Runway 1 (dry) at E18 airplane to land on Runway 1 (dry) at
the destination airport? (Fig. 8) the alternate airport? (Fig. 8)
1- 6,630 feet 1- 5,820 feet
2- 6,480 feet 2- 5,845 feet
3- 5,160 feet 3- 6,020 feet
4- 5,010 feet 4- 6,790 feet

314. What maximum computed landing distance 318. What maximum computed landing distance
may be used by a turbine-engine powered may be used by a turbo-propeller powered
E18 airplane to land on Runway 19 (dry) at E18 airplane to land on Runway 19 (dry) at
the destination airport? (Fig. 8) the alternate airport? (Fig. 8)
1- 5,010 feet 1- 6,790 feet
2- 5,160 feet 2- 6,020 feet
3- 5,820 feet 3- 5,845 feet
4- 6,020 feet 4- 5,820 feet

315. What maximum computed landing distance

may be used by a turbine-engine powered
E18 airplane to land on Runway 1 (wet) at
the destination airport? (Fig. 8)

1- 7,452 feet
2- 6,693 feet
3-* 5,934 feet
4- 5,761 feet
 Pige 41
319. When a flight engineer is a revired 323. What is the minimum recent instrument
crewmember on a flight, it is neces- approach experience required, prior to
F10 sary for B20 the date of the practical test, to
renew CAT II nilot authorization?
1- both pilots to hold Flight
Engineer Certificates 1-
2-
Within the previous 12 months,
at least one pilot to hold a nine ItS approaches flown
Flight Engineer Certificate. manually to CAT I DHs.
3- the flight engineer to be prop- 2- Within the previous 6 months,
erly certificated and qualified, six ILS approaches, three of
but there is no requirement for
which may be flown to CAT I DHs
any other crewmember to be quali- by use of an approach coupler.
fied or certificated to perform 3- Within tae previous 12 calendar
flight engineer duties. months, six ILS approaches
4- at least one pilot to be quali- flown by use , an approach
fied to perform flight engineer coupler to CAT II DHs.
duties, but a certificate is 4- Within the previous 6 months,
not required.
three ILS approaches flown by
use of an apprornh coupler to
CAT II DHs.
320. An air carrier airplane which has a
seating capacity of 187 has 151
Fli passengers on board. What is the 324. Which document contains the approved
minimum number of flight attendants procedures for dispatch, or continuing
required? 125 flight, when a required item of air-
craft equipment becomes inoperative?
1- Five
2- Four 1- Operations specifications
3- Three 2- Amended dispatch/flight
4- Two release
3- Original dispatch release
4- Minimum Equipment List'
321. What action shall be taken if a flight
encounters icing conditions that might
126 adversely affect the safety of flight? 325. Which is a correct airplane speed symbol
The flight and definition?
A20
1- may be continued to the
original destination air- 1- VLE - maximum speed for extend-
ing landing gear.
port, provided that all 2- V stalling or minimum steady
anti-icing and deicing S1
flight speed obtained in a
equipment is operational
specified configuration.
and is used. 3- V
2- shall not be continued unless F - maximum speed for flap
extension.
approval is received from the 4- V
company dispatcher and flight MA - design maximum maneuvering
speed.
operations.
3- shall not be continued, nor
shall a landing be made, in 326. An airline transport pilot may log as
such icing conditions. pilot in command time
IllaY_be_continued-to-the B13
alternate airport, but a 1- all the flight time during which
landing shall not be made the pilot is required to be on
In such icing conditions. the flight deck as a crewmember.
2- all the flight time the pilot
acts as pilot in command or
322. When entering an Airport Traffic Area second in command in FAR Part
or a landing, what altitude above 121 operations.
D24 the surface shall each pilot maintain 3- all the flight time during which
when operating a large airplane? the pilot acts as pilot in
command.
1- 2,000 feet 4- only the flight time during
2- 1,500 feet
which the pilot is the sole
3- 1,000 feet
manipulator of the controls.
4- 800 feet
Page 42

327. A certificate holder is notified that 331. In all controlled airspace of the 48
a person, specifically authorized to contiguous states and the District of
H32 carry a deadly weapon, is to be aboard D16 Columbia, in what altitude structure
an aircraft. Except in an emergency, is an operative, appropriately
how long before loading that flight equipped ATC transponder required?
should the air carrier be notified?
1- Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding
1- 5 hours the airspace at and below 1,500
2- 2 hours feet AGL.
3- 1 hour 2- Above 2,500 feet AGL, excluding
4- 30 minutes the airspace at and below 1,200
feet AGL.
3- Above FL 180, excluding the air-
328. A passenger briefing by a crewmember space at and below 2,500 feet
shall be given instructing passengers AGL.
E37 on the necessity and use of oxygen in 4- Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding
the event of cabin depressurization the airspace at and below 2,500
prior to flights conducted above feet AGL.

1- FL 250.
2- FL 240. 332. How is the reserve fuel supply computed
3- FL 200. for a three-engine turbojet powered
4- FL 180. 140 domestic air carrier airplane?

1- 45 minutes at holding fuel con-

329. The reserve fuel supply required for sumption; 1,500 feet above the
a domestic air carrier flight in a destination or alternate airport.
140 turbojet powered airplane is 2- 30 minutes at normal fuel con-
sumption.
1- 30 minutes at holding fuel 3- 45 minutes at normal fuel con-
consumption; 1,500 feet sumption.
above the destination or 4- 30 minutes at holding fuel con-
alternate airport. sumption; 1,000 feet above the
2- 45 minutes at normal fuel destination or alternate airport.
consumption.
3- 30 minutes at normal fuel
consumption. 333. What minimum weather conditions must
4- 45 minutes at holding fuel exist for a domestic air carrier flight
consumption; 1,500 feet 134 to takeoff from a refueling airport
above the destination or (within the United States) which is not
alternate airport. listed in the air carrier's operations
specifications? (No prescribed takeoff
minimums are listed for that airport.)
330. What is the required reserve fuel
supply for a domestic air carrier 1- 900-2, 800-3, or 600-2 1/2.
Y40 flight in a turbojet powered airplane? 2- 1,000-1, 900-1 1/2, or 800-2.
3- 1,000-1, 900-2, or 800-3.
1- 45 minutes at normal fuel 4- 900-1, 800-2, or 600-2 1/2.
consumption.
2- 30 minutes at-normal fuel
consumption computed at 334. Vs is the stalling speed or minimum
2,000 feet above the destina- steady flight speed
tion or alternate airport. A20
3- 45 minutes at holding air- 1- at which the airplane is
speed fuel consumption. controllable.
4- 30 minutes at normal fuel 2- obtained in a specified con-
consumption. figuration.
3- with the critical engine
inoperative.
4- in the landing configuration.
 Page 43
(Diagram Not To Scale)

gill 1
RWY s 1,250
Poet__
1,200
Feet
RWY 24
111

Actual Runway Length

10,350 Feet

Figure 9

335. If your flight is advised that pilot 338. What maximum computed landing distance
reports indicate icing conditions may be used by a turbine-engine powered
126 which might adversely affect the E18 airplane to land on RWY 24 (wet) at
safety of flight, the operation the destination airport? (Fig. 9)

1- shall not be continued 1- 5,451 feet

except by joint approval 2- 6,279 feet
of the dispatcher and ATC. 3- 6,313 feet
2- shall not be continued or 4- 7,141 feet
a landing made in such
icing conditions.
3- may be continued only if 339. What maximum computed landing distance
all anti-icing and deicing may be used by a turbine-engine powered
equipment is operating E18 airplane to land on RWY 6 (wet) at the
normally. destination airport? (Fig. 9)
4- may be continued, but a
landing shall not be made 1- 7,141 feet
in such icing conditions. 2- 6,313 feet
3- 6,279 feet
4- 5,451 feet
336. What maximum computed landing
distance may be used by a turbo-
E18 propeller powered airplane to 340. What maximum computed landing distance
land on RWY 24 (dry) at the may be used by a turbine-engine powered
destination airport? (Fig. 9) E18 airplane to land on RWY 24 (dry) at
the alternate airport? (Fig. 9)
1- 7,141 feet
2- 6,405 feet 1- 6,370 feet
3- 6,370 feet 2- 6,210 feet
4- 6,230 feet 3- 5,490 feet
4- 5,460 feet

337. What maximum computed landing

distance may be used by a turbo- 341. What maximum computed landing distance
E18 propeller powered airplane to may be used by a turbine-engine powered
land on RWY 6 (dry) at the E18 airplane to land on RWY 6 (dry) at the
destination airport? (Fig. 9) destination airport? (Fig. 9)

1- 7,141 feet 1- 6,370 feet

2- 6,405 feet 2- 6,210 feet
3- 6,370 feet 3- 5,490 feet
4- 6,230 feet 4- 5,460 feet

58
Page 44

342. Advection fog has drifted over a 347. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form
coastal airport during the day. when
L40 What may tend to dissipate or lift K11
this fog into low stratus clouds? 1- the temperature and dewpoint
are equal.
1- Nighttime cooling. 2- water vapor condenses.
2- Sea breeze effect of approxi- 3- the dewpoint is higher than
mately 15 knots or stronger. the temperature.
3- Heating from adjacent indus- 4- relative humidity exceeds 100%.
trial areas.
4- Dryness of the land surface.
348. While maintaining FL 310, you observe
the OAT is 15° colder than standard.
343. What conditions are necessary for the J31 What is the relationship between true
formation of thunderstorms? altitude and pressure altitude?
L30
1- Lifting force, high humidity, 1- True altitude would be lower
and unstable conditions. than 31,000 feet.
2- High humidity, high tempera- 2- Pressure altitude is lower than
ture, and cumulus clouds. true altitude.
3- Low pressure, high humidity, 3- It would be impossible to deter-
and cumulus clouds. mine the relationship.
4- Lifting force, high tempera- 4- They are both the same, 31,000
ture, and unstable conditions. feet.

344. What are the characteristics of 349. Frontal waves normally form on
unstable air?
K21 K41 1- stationary or occluded fronts.
1- Turbulence and poor visibility. 2- rapidly moving cold fronts
2- Turbulence and good visibility. or warm fronts.
3- Nimbostratus clouds and poor 3- slow moving warm fronts or
visibility. occluded fronts.
4- Nimbostratus clouds and good 4- slow moving cold fronts or
visibility. stationary fronts.

345. The station originating the following 350. Frontal activity can produce fogs which
weather report has a field elevation are a result of
L45 of 1,800 feet MSL. If the sky cover L40
is one continuous layer, what is its 1- nocturnal cooling.
thickness? 2- evaporation of surface moisture.
3- saturation due to evaporation
W8X1FK 174/74/73/0000/004/ OVC 35 of precipitation.
4- adiabatic cooling.
1- 2,700 feet
2- 2,500 feet
3- 1,700 feet 351. Which of the following features do you
4- .800 feet _normally.associate_with.the "cumulus
L31 stage" of thunderstorm formation?

346. Which situation is most conducive to 1- Heavy rain at surface

the formation of advection fog? 2- Continuous updraft
L40 3- Frequent lightning
1- A light breeze blowing colder 4- Roll cloud
air out to sea.
2- A warm, moist air mass on the
windward side of the mountains. 352. On a cold, clear night ice can form on
3- An air mass moving inland from a surface directly from water vapor.
the coast in wintertime. X11 This process is known as
4- Warm, moist air settling over
a cool surface under no-wind 1- sublimation.
conditions. 2- evaporation.
3- supercooling.
4- supersaturation.

59
 . Page 45
353. Clouds are divided into four families 359. Which weather phenomenon is always
according to their
associated with the passage of a
K30 K41 frontal system?
1- outward shape.
2- height range. 1- Clouds, either ahead or behind
3- composition. the front.
4- origin. 2- Inherent instability of the air
being replaced.
3- An abrupt and sizable tempera-
354. What is the process by which ice can ture change.
form on a surface directly from water 4- A change in wind direction.
Kll vapor on a cold, clear night?

1- Sublimation 360. Moisture and vertical movement have what

2- Evaporation effect on the stability of an air mass?
3- Supersaturation K21
4- Condensation 1- Sinking of an air mass and addi-
tion of water vapor to the lower
layers tend to decrease its
355. Which atmospheric process tends to stability.
increase the stability of an air mass? 2- Lifting of an air mass and
K21
removal of water vapor from the
1- .
Sublimation from ice or snow to lower layers tend to decrease
the lower layers of an air mass. its stability.
2- Orographic lifting of an air mass. 3- Sinking of an air mass and
3- Subsidence of a relatively thick removal of water vapor from the
layer of air.
lower layers tend to increase
4- Advection of a cold air mass its stability.
over a warmer surface. 4- Lifting of an air mass and addi-
tion of water vapor to the lower
layers tend to increase its
356. A situation most conducive to the stability.
formation of advection fog is
L40
1- an air mass moving inland from 361. Hazardous wind shear is commonly
the coastline during the winter. encountered near the ground
2- a warm, moist air mass settling J47
over a cool surface in no-wind 1- during periods when the wind
conditions.
velocity is stronger than 35
3- a warm, moist air mass on the knots and near mountain valleys.
windward side of a mountain. 2- during periods of strong tem-
4- a light breeze moving colder perature inversion and near
air over a water surface. thunderstorms.
3- near mountain valleys and on the
windward side of a hill or
357. You are maintaining a constant pres- mountain.
sure altitude and the outside air tem- 4- near thunderstorms and during
J31 perature is warmer than standard for periods when the wind velocity
that altitude. What is the density is stronger than 35 knots.
altitude-with -respect to pressure
altitude?
362. What is the recommended action a pilot
1- Lower should take with respect to temperature
2- Higher M13 indications to cross a jet stream care
3- Impossible to determine to minimize the effects of CAT?
4- Same
1- If temperature rises--climb; if
temperature decreases--descend.
358. Steady precipitation, in contrast to 2- Climb to a higher altitude when
showery, preceding a front is an indi- the temperature rises or
K41 cation of decreases.
3- If temperature rises--descend;
1- cumuliform clouds with if temperature decreases--climb.
moderate turbulence. 4- Descend to a lower altitude when
2- stratiform clouds with the temperature rises or
moderate turbulence. decreases.
3- cumuliforM clouds with
little or no turbulence.
4- stratiform clouds with
60
 Page 46

363. When the sky condition or ceiling 368. What determines the amount of water
is omitted on an ATIS broadcast, vapor a parcel of air can hold?
R42 both conditions must be above K10
1- Temperature of the air.
1- 5,000 feet AGL. 2- Stability of the air mass.
2- 3,000 feet AGL. 3- Temperature/dewpoint spread.
3- 2,000 feet AGL. 4- Relative humidity.
4- 1,500 feet AGL.

369. To what does the term "dewpoint" refer?

364. What determines the type of struc-
tural icing that can form on the K10 1- The spread between aCtual tem-
L20 surface of an aircraft? perature and temperature during
evaporation.
1- Rate at which water freezes The temperature at which the
upon contact with aircraft. evaporation and condensation
2- Temperature of the air and points are equal.
the aircraft surface. 3- The temperature to which air
3- Size of the water droplets must be cooled to become
and outside air temperature. saturated.
4- Percent of relative humidity 4- The temperature at which fog
and outside air temperature. will form.

365. The conditions necessary for thunder- 370. A temperature inversion is a condition
storm formation are which exists only in
L30 K21
1- lifting force, unstable condi- 1- stable air.
tions, and cumulus clouds. 2- winter.
2- low pressure, high humidity, 3- summer.
-.and cumulus clouds. 4- unstable air.
3- high humidity, unstable condi-
tions, and lifting force.
4-, high humidity and temperature, 371. WhiCh weather phenomenon signals the
and cumulus clouds. beginning of the mature stage of a
L31 thunderstorm?

366. An airport has a field elevation of 1- The appearance of an anvil top.

1,800 feet at the station originating 2- The start of rain at the surface.
L45 the following weather report. 3- A sharp drop in temperature.
4- Strong and gusty surface winds.
W8X1FK 174/74/73/0000/004 OVC 40

What is the thickness of the sky cover 372. Thunderstorms which generally produce
if it is one continuous layer? severe conditions, such as destructive
L33 winds and heavy hail, are
1- 2,200 feet
2- 3,000 feet 1- cold front thunderstorms.
3- 3,200 feet 2- warm front thunderstorms.
4 4,000 feet 3- squall line thunderstorms.
4- air mass thunderstorms.

367. Which feature is associated with

the tropopause? 373. What are the processes by which moisture
M10 is added to unsaturated air?
1- Absolute upper limit of tll
cloud formation. 1- Heating and sublimation.
2- Abrupt change in tempera- 2- Evaporation and sublimation.
ture lapse rate. 3- Heating and condensation.
3- Constant height above the 4- Supersaturation and evaporation.
earth.
4- Absence of wind and turbu-
lent conditions. 374. The localities in which radiation fog
would most likely occur are
L40
1- level inland areas.
2- mountain slopes.
3- coastal areas.
4- mountain valleys.
 Page 47
375. With respect to temperature indications, 380. How is the stability of an air mass
what is the recommended pilot action affected by vertical movement and
M13 that will minimize the effect of CAT K21 moisture?
when crossing the core of a jet stream?
1- Lifting of an air mass and
1- When temperature increases or adding moisture to lower layers
decreases, climb. tend to increase stability.
2- When temperature increases, 2- Lifting of an air mass and
climb; when temperature removal of moisture from lower
decreases, descend. layers tend to decrease air mass
3- When temperature increases, stability.
descend; when temperature 3- Sinking of an air mass and
decreases, climb. removal of water vapor from
4- When temperature increases or lower layers tends to increase
decreases, descend. its stability.
4- Sinking of an air mass and addi-
tion of water vapor to lower
376. En route to FL 250, the altimeter is layers tend to decrease air mass
set correctly. On descent, a pilot stability.
J31 fails to reset it to a local altimeter
setting of 30.57. If the field eleva-
tion is 650 feet, and the altimeter is 381. Which weather phenomenon is always
functioning properly, what will it associated with the passage of a frontal
indicate after landing? K41 system?

1- Sea level 1- Clouds, either ahead or behind

2- 585 feet the frontal system.
3- 715 feet 2- Inherent instability of the air
4- 1,300 feet being replaced.
3- An abrupt and sizable tempera-
ture change.
377. Which thunderstorms generally produce 4- A change in wind direction.
the most severe conditions, such as
L33 heavy hail and destructive winds?
382. What determines the structure or type of
1- Air mass thunderstorms. clouds which will form as a result of
2- Warm front thunderstorms. K21 air being forced to ascend?
3- Squall line thunderstorms.
4- Cold front thunderstorms. 1- The relative humidity of the
air after lifting occurs.
2- The stability of the air before
378. The amount of water vapor a parcel of lifting occurs.
air can hold is determined by 3- The amount of condensation
K10
nuclei present after lifting
1- relative humidity. occurs.
2- the temperature of the air. 4- The method by which the air is
3- the dewpoint/temperature lifted.
spread.
4- the stability of the air mass.
383. In general terms, what is the migration
pattern, level, and strength of the jet
379. Why does the wind have a tendency to J45 stream during the winter months in the
follow the isobars above the friction middle and high latitudes?
J30 level?
1- Shift toward the south, core
1- The Coriolis force tends to rises to a higher altitude,
counterbalance the horizontal and speed increases.
pressure gradient. 2- Shift toward the north, core
2- The Coriolis force acts rises to a higher altitude,
perpendicular to a line con- and speed decreases.
necting the highs and lows. 3- Shift toward the south, core
The friction of the air with descends to a lower altitude,
the earth deflects the air and speed increases.
perpendicular to the pressure 4- Shift toward the north, core
gradient. descends to a lower altitude,
4- Isobars are lines connecting and speed decreases.
points of equal wind direc-
tion aloft.
6 .2
Page 48

384. What effect may tend to lift advec- 390. What is an important characteristic of
tion fog into low stratus clouds? wind shear?
L40 J47
1- Surface winds of approxi- 1- It usually exists only in the
mately 15 knots or stronger. vicinity of thunderstorms but
2- Dryness of the underlying may be found near a strong
land mass. temperature inversion.
3- Nighttime cooling. 2- It can be present at any level
4- Heating from adjacent and can exist in both a hori-
industrial areas. zontal and vertical direction.
3- It occurs primarily at the lower
levels and is usually associated
385. If the outside air temperature at a with mountain waves.
given altitude is warmer than stand- 4- It exists in a horizontal direc-
J31 ard, the density altitude is tion only, and is normally found
near a jet stream.
1- lower than true altitude.
2- higher than pressure altitude.
3- higher than true altitude but 391. What causes variations in altimeter
lower than pressure altitude. settings between weather reporting
4- lower than pressure altitude, J31 points?
but approximately equal to the
true altitude. 1- Unequal heating of the earth's
surface.
2- Variation of terrain elevation
386. The term "dewpoint" refers to the creating barriers to the move-
ment of an air mass.
X10 1- spread between actual tem- 3- Coriolis force reacting with
perature and temperature friction.
during evaporation. 4- Friction of the air with the
2- temperature at which the earth's surface.
evaporation and condensation
points are equal.
3- temperature to which air must 392. Where will the area of strongest turbu-
be cooled to become saturated. lence be encountered when departing a
4- temperature at which fog will J45 jet stream?
form.
1- Above the core on the polar side.
2- Above the core on the equatorial
387. From which measurement of the atmos- side.
phere can stability be determined? 3- Below the core on the polar side.
J22 4- Below the core on the equatorial
1- Surface temperature side.
2- Actual lapse rate
3- Atmospheric pressure
4- Wind 393. An important characteristic of wind
shear is that it
J47
388. Every physical process of weather is 1- exists only in the vicinity of
accompanied,by, or is the result of, thunderstorms and can be Found
J21
where a temperature inversion
1- a heat exchange. exists.
2- moisture. 2- occurs primarily at lower levels
3- the movement of air. and is usually associated with
4- a pressure differential. mountain waves.
3- exists only in a horizontal
direction and is found near a
389. Assume a field elevation of 1,800 jet stream.
feet at the station originating the 4- can be present at any level and
L45 following weather report. If the can exist in a horizontal and
sky cover is one continuous layer, vertical plane.
what is its thickness?

W8X1FK 174/14/13/0000/004/ 0VC 50

.1- 4,000 feet

2- 3,200 feet
3- 3,000 feet
4- 2,200 feet
63
 Page 49

394. Fogs produced by frontal activity are 401. In which direction should a pilot correct
generally a result of saturation due to the aircraft heading to maintain a
L40 K41 desired course when flying through a
1- evaporation of surface moisture. . frontal system on a flight from St. Louis
2- nocturnal cooling. to New York?
3- evaporation of precipitation.
4- adiabatic cooling. 1- To the left when flying from a
cold to a warm front.
2- To the right when flying from a
395. Which feature is normally associated with warm to a cold front; to the
the "cumulus stage" of a thunderstorm? left when flying from a cold to
L31 a warm front.
1- Roll cloud. 3- To the left when flying from a
2- Continuous updraft. warm to a cold front.
3- Frequent lightning. 4- To the right regardless of the
4- Beginning of rain at the surface. type of frontal system.

396. Stability of the atmosphere can be 402. The station originating the following
determined by the measurement of the weather report has a field elevation of
J22 L45 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is
1- actual temperature lapse rate. one continuous layer, what is its thick-
2- atmospheric pressure at ness?
various levels.
3- wind velocity and atmospheric W5X1/2 HK 173/72/73/0000/002/0VC 75
pressures.
4- surface temperature. 1- 2,500 feet
2- 3,000 feet
3- 4,000 feet
397. Moisture is added to a parcel of air by 4- 7,000 feet
two processes. These are
Kll
1- sublimation and heating. 403. Which conditions are most conducive to
2- supersaturation and evaporation. the formation of radiation fog?
3- heating and condensation. L40
4- evaporation and sublimation. 1- A warm, moist air mass on the
windward side of mountains.
2- Warm, moist air over flatland
398. Variations in altimeter settings between areas on clear nights with
weather reporting stations are caused by calm winds.
J31 3- Moist, tropical air moving over
1- restrictions to air mass move- cold offshore water.
ment caused by natural terrain 4- The movement of cold air over
barriers. much warmer water.
2- friction of the air with the
earth's surface.
3- unequal heating of the surface 404. What is the implied minimum surface
of the earth. visibility when the sky condition and
4- Coriolis force reacting with R42 visibility are omitted from an ATIS
friction. broadcast?

1- 2 miles
399. In what localities is radiation fog most 2- 3 miles
likely to occur? 3- 5 miles
L40 4- 6 miles
1- Mountain slopes.
2- Level inland areas.
3- Coastland areas. 405. Freezing rain encountered during climb
4- Mountain valleys. is normally evidence *hat
Kl l

1- there exists a layer of warmer

400. The mature stage of a thunderstorm is air above.
normally signaled by 2- you can climb to a higher
L31 altitude without encountering
1- strong, gusty surface winds. more than light icing.
2- a sharp drop in temperature. 3- a cold front has passed.
3- the appearance of the anvi7 top. 4- there are thunderstorms in the
4 the start of rain at the surface. area.

64
 Page 50

406. A station is forecasting wind and 411. A Terminal Forecast (FT) is issued at
temperature aloft at FL 390 to be specific times in the U.S. for a
N34 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54°C. N30 geographical area within
How would this data be encoded in
the FD?
1- a 5-mile radius of the center of
a runway complex.
1- 309954 2- a 10-mile radius of the reporting
2- 809954
station.
3- 300054 3- a 15-mile radius of a control
4- 8099-54
tower.
4- 25 miles of the center of an
407. airport.
Refer to the following excerpt from
an hourly SA report:
N31
412. What term is used to classify a sudden
SA271900
increase in windspeed of at least 15
LAX...172/86/72/3010/994.... N15 knots to a sustained speed of 20 knots
or more for at least 1 minute's dura-
Using the necessary information, at tion?
what altitude AGL should you expect
the bases of convective-type cumuli- 1- COL wind
form clouds? 2- Gust
3- Squall
1- 5,000 feet 4- Katabatic wind
2- 3,500 feet
3- 2,500 feet
4- 1,500 feet 413. The single source reference providing
the pilot with information regarding
N31 turbulence, icing conditions, and
408. A station is forecasting wind and
frontal movement is the
temperature aloft at FL 390 to be
N34 290° at 195 knots; temperature -49°C. 1- Terminal Forecast (FT).
How would this data be encoded in 2- 750 MB Prognostic Chart.
the FD?
3- Weather Depiction Chart.
4- Area Forecast (FA).
1- 7995-49
2- 790049
3- 799549 414. The temperature of the air at the
4- 299554
surface is 98°F. and the dewpoint is
K21 88°F. At approximately what altitude

409.
above the surface should you expect
What is the significance of the the base of cumuliform clouds?
"RB32" entered in the Remarks of
N17 this SA?
1- 6,000 feet
2- 5,000 feet
SA22 191106
3- 2,500 feet
FSM 25 SCT M44 OVC 7RW-093/71/68/ 4- 1,500 feet
0000/983/R832

1- Runway braking factor is 32. 415. The station originating the following
2- Rain began at 1032Z at FSM. weather report has a field elevation of
3- The runway barrier (arresting L45 2,100 feet MSL. If the sky condition
gear) for Runway 32 is is one continuous layer, what is its
inoperative. thickness?
4- The maximum weight limitation
(runway bearing) is 32,000 W3X 1/4FH 172/71/72/0000/003/OVC 28
pounds.
1- 300 feet
2- 700 feet
410. The maximum valid time period for a 3- 2,400 feet
Convective Outlook (AC) is 4- 2,500 feet
N37
1- 8 hours.
2- 12 hours.
3- 18 hours.
4- 24 hours.

65
 WIMP 111.1311111111A
MI II :Int04
WA °k1s7
NNW Mina IA
togisamansivist.) >unarm 4W:
CINIMINIMIZA

.411
1 Ilattf Ali 14111144-

0
vikarotA
3 NI Slit
ir visi
:.
P'.4,1014
A

iir
tiro
4eNtlit
'I N
N
wog
MOM ORDXKI Ha SAS MI
r

1111124Q
it HEM OM OP
VIIDN1411

Figure 10

416, The Severe Weather Outlook Chart (Fig. 10), in addi-

418. The Severe Weather Outlook Chart (Fig. 10) is a preliminary
tion to the weather areas depicted, may include
070 24-hour outlook presented in two panels. In addition to
070 the information portrayed, the chart may also depict
1- areas of severe icing,
2- hurricanes and tropical storms.
1- hurricane watch areas.
3-
a squall line symbol and expected time of
2- areas of severe icing.
development,
3- severe low-level wind shear areas.
4- a low level wind shear line.
4- a squall line symbol and expected
time of development.

417. The Severe Weather Outlook Chart (Fig. 10), which

is used primarily for advance planning' provides

419. In addition to the weather
070 what information? information depicted, the
Severe Weather Outlook Chart (Fig. 10) may also portray
070
1- Preliminary 24-hour severe weather out-
1- low-level wind shear lines.
look for general and severe thunder-
2- squall line symbols,
storm activity, tornadoes, watch areas,
3- areas of severe icing.
may include a squall line symbol.
4- areas of severe convective turbulence.
2- It depicts areas of moderate to severe

thunderstorm activity only.

3- It depicts areas of expected hurricane

or tornado activity only.

4-
Preliminary 12-hour outlook for severe

thunderstorm activity and probable

convective turbulence.
Page 52

420. What wind conditions would you antici- 424. What information is provided by a CON-
pate when squalls are reported at your VECTIVE OUTLOOK?
N15. destination? N37
1- Prospects of general and severe
1- Peak gusts of at least 35 knots thunderstorm activity during
combined with a change in wind the next 24 hours.
direction of 30° or more. 2- Forecast of low level cloudiness
2- Sudden increases in windspeed of and fog conditions during the
at least 25 knots to a sustained next 18- to 24-hour period.
speed of 30 knots or more. 3- Outlines areas of unstable air
3- Rapid variations in windspeed of masses at the upper levels of
15 knots or more between peaks wind shear expected to exist
and lulls. during the next 6 hours.
4- Variations of at least 90° in 4- Areas of wind shear expected at
wind direction when windspeeds the lower levels during the next
are above 20 knots. 18- to 24-hour period.

421. What is the significance of the "RB35" 425, What is the valid time period for an
entered in the Remarks of the SA191400 Area Forecast (FA)?
N17 for MLC? N31
1 -. hours, plus an 8-hour outlook.
SA21 191400 2- 18 hours, plus a 12-how outlook.
MLC SP S SCT E18 OVC 7R-123/64/62/ 3- 8 hours, plus a 12-hour outlook.
3307/992/R835 4- 8 hours, plus an 8,:aour outlook.

1- Runway arresting gear is

inoperative on RWY 35. 426. Refer to the following excerpt from an
2- Rair [Link] 1335Z at MLC. hourly SA report:
3- Cloud tops of rain showers at N31
3,500 feet AGL determined by SA190900
radiosonde balloon soundings. TUC...183/93/45/2115/993....
4- Runway braking factor is 35%
of dry runway surface due to Using the necessary information, at what
light rain. altitude AGL should you expect the bases
of convective-type cumuliform clouds?
422. The National Weather Service prepares 1- 12,000 feet
Area Forecasts (FA) every 2- 10,000 feet
N31 3- 8,500 feet
1- 6 hours. 4- 4,000 feet
2- 8 hours.
3- 12 hours.
4- 18 hours. 427. The information in a CONVECTIVE OUTLOOK
provides
N37
423. What significant cloud coverage is 1- a forecast of clear air turbu-
reported by a pilot in this SA? lence (CAT) and other existing
N20
areas of wind shear conditions
SA22 181407 for the next 12- to 18-hour
MOB M9 OVC 2LF 131/44/43/3212/991/ period.
DA/CV 15NW MOB 1355/SK OVC 2- a general forecast of areas of
025/075 OVC 135 unstable air masses at the 300,
millibar level during the next
1- The top of lower overcast is 18 hours.
2,500 feet; base and top of 3- prospects of both general and
second overcast layer is 7,500 severe thunderstorm activity
and 13,500 feet respectively. during the next 24 hours.
2- The base of second overcast 4- a forecast of low level convec-
layer is 2,500 feet; top of tive activity, wind shear, and
second overcast layer is 7,500 restrictions to visibility for
feet; base of third layer is the next 12 hours.
13,500 feet.
3- Three separate overcast layers
exist with tops at 2,500,

4-
7,500, and 13,500 feet.
Three separate overcast layers
68
exist with bases at 2,500,
7,500, and 13,500 feet.
 Page 53

VALID 1412002 FOR USE 0900-1500Z . TEMPS NEG ASV 24000

FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 lam 24000 30000 34000 39000
MLT 2807 2715-07 2728-10.2842-13 782650
NT Vg N;45.1 2;;;11 2R71?
2221:r6 241:3; 3131
2260-15 2k09-2, 940 49
2-1 :0 Mili ga Reg hitlE 2J3:23 35821 3 9g1: 244

Figure 11

428. A certain station is forecasting wind 432. What is the single source reference that
and temperature aloft to be 280° at contains information regarding frontal
N34 205 knots; temperature -51°C. at N31 movement, turbulence, and icing condi-
39,000 pressure altitude. How would tions for a specific area?
this data be encoded in the FD?
1- 500 MB Prognostic Chart
1- 280051 2- Weather Depiction Chart
2- 2899-51 3- Area Forecast (FA)
3- 789951 4- Terminal Forecast (FT)
4- 7800-51

433. What approximate wind direction, speed,

429. For what maximum time period is a and temperature (relative to ISA) should
CONVECTIVE OUTLOOK (AC) valid? N34 a pilot expect when planning for a flight
N37 over EMI at FL 320? (Fig. 11)
1- 24 hours
2- 18 hours 1- 270° magnetic; 115 knots;
3- 12 hours ISA -3°C.
4- 6 hours 2- 260° true; 105 knots; ISA +5°C.
3- 270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
4- 260° magnetic; 105 knots;
430. Omission of a wind entry in a Terminal ISA -5°C.
Forecast specifically implies that the
N30 wind is expected to be less than
434. What approximate wind direction, speed,
1- 10 knots. and temperature (relative to ISA) should
2- 8 knots. N34 a pilot expect when planning for a flight
3- 6 knots. over ALB at FL 320? (Fig. 11)
4- 5 knots.
1- 260° magnetic @ 103 knots;
ISA -5°C.
431. If squalls are reported at your 2- 270° magnetic @ 108 knots;
destination, what wind conditions ISA -3°C.
N15 should you anticipate? 3- 260° true @ 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
4- 270° true @ 109 knots; ISA +3°C.
1- Sudden increases in windspeed
of at least 15 knots to a
sustained speed of 20 knots or 435. What approximate wind direction, speed,
more. and temperature (relative to ISA) should
2- Peak gusts of at least 35 knots N34 a pilot expect when planning for d flight
for a sustained period of 1 over PSB at FL 320? (Fig. 11)
minute or longer.
3- Rapid variation in wind direc- 1- 270° true @ 113 kftts; ISA +5°C.
tion of at least 20° and changes 2- 270° magnetic @ 113 Knots;
in speed of at least 10 knots ISA +3°C.
between peaks and lulls. 3- 270° true @ 105 knots; ISA -5°C.
4- At least 60° variation in wind 4- 260° true @ 113 knots; ISA -3°C.
direction with speeds above 25
knots.

69
 Page 54

436. Area Forecasts (FA) are prepared by 441. How often are Terminal Forecasts issued,
the National Weather Service every an what is the valid time period of
,N31 N30 each?
1- 3 hours.
2- 6 hours. ialid
3- 12 hours. Issued Time Period
4- 11 hours.
1- Two times daily 12 hours
2- Every 6 nours 12 hours
437. 3- Three times daily 24 hours
How often are Area Forecasts (IA)
prepared by the National Weather 4- Three times daily 8 hours
N31 Service?

1- 18 hours 442. What wind conditions would you antici-

2- 12 hours pate when squalls are reported at your
3- 8 hours N15 destination?
4- 6 hours
1- Peak gusts of at least 35 knots
combined with a change in wind
438. Which weather forecast provides direction of 30° or more.
prospects of both general and 2- Sudden increases in windspeed of
N37 severe thunderstorm activity at least lE knots to a sustained
during the following 24 hours? speed of 20 knots or more.
3- Variations of at least 60° in
1- Special flight forecast. wind direction when windspeeds
2- Convective Outlook (AC). are above 10 knots.
3- Stability chart. 4- Rapid variations in windspeed of
4- Severe weather watch bulletin. ..
10 knots or more between peaks
and lulls.

439. What cloud coverage was reported by

443. The reporting station originating the SP,
a pilot as indicated by this SA?
N20 below, has a field elevation of 1,000
SA 191908 L45 feet MSL. If the reported sky condition
MSY M8 OVC 2RW--132/45/44/3010/ is one continuous layer, what is its
990/U4/0N 17NW MSY 1845/SK ovc thickness?
020/045 OVC 090
W7X1/2FK172/34/33/0000/003/0VC 50
1- The top of the lower overcast
is 2,000; base and top of 1- 4,30U feet
second layer are 4,500 and 2- 5,000 feet
9,000 feet respectively. 3- 4,000 feet
2- Three separate overcast layers 4- 3,300 feet
exist with bases at 2,000,
4,500, and 9,000 feet respec-
tively. 444. What 4s the significance of the "F2'' in
3- The base of a second overcast the Remarks portion of this SA?
N12
cloud layer is 2,000 feet, top
at 4,500 feet; base of third SA21 191105
layer is 9,000 feet. ORF SP -X E80 BKN 250 OVC 1GF
4- Three separate overcast layers 169/67/672105/003 R05VV11/2F2
exist with tops at 2,000,
4,500, and 9,000 feet. 1- Fog is obscuring two-tenths of
the sky.
2- The partial obscuration is
440. What is the significance of the "LE30" caused by fog and the visi-
entry in the Remarks of this SA? bility value is variable to
N17 1 1/2 to 2 statute miles.
SA21 191105 3- Surface based obscuration is
HAR M3 OVC 2R -F 128/62/62/0000/005/ caused by fog and is 200 feet
LE30-4* HAR %k 7/15 thick.
4- The restriction to visibility
1- Drizzle is expected to end 30 is caused by fog and the pre
minutes past the hour. vailing visibility is 2 statute
2- Leading edge of warm front is miles.
30 miles east of station.
3- Drizzle ended at 1030Z.
4- Lightning has been observed
approximately 30 miles to the
east.
 Page 55

Figure 12

445. The symbol VAR on the TROP WIND 447. The symbol 11 on the TROP WIND SHEAR
SHEAR PROG represents the (Arrow A, PROG (Arrow D, Fig. 12) represents the
P22 Fig. 12) P22
1- temperature lapse rate of 40
1- height of the tropopause in per 1,000 feet.
millibars (300 mbar). 2- wind shear in knots per thousand
2- wind direction at the tropn- feet.
pause (3000). 3- temperature drop at the tropo-
3- flight leve' of the tropopause. pause.
4- height of maximum wind shear 4- maximum wind shear at FL 340.
(30,000 feet).

448. The symbol on the TROP WIND

446. The symbol Eig on the TROP WIND SHEAR PROG (Arrow C, Fig. 12) represents
SHEAR PROG represents the (Arrow B, P22 the
P22 Fig. 12)
1- 300 millibar-level temperature.
1- temperature at the tropopause 2- tropopause temperature.
level. 3- 150 millibar-level temperature.
2- 300 millibar -level temperature. 4- temperature at 30,000 feet.
3- 150 millibar-level temperature.
4- .temperature at 34,000 feet'.

71
 Page 56

449. What weather conditions are depicted 451. What weather conditions are depicted on
on the Radar Summary Chart within the the Radar Summary Chart within the area
026' area indicated by Arrow E? (Fig. 13) 026 indicated by Arrow C? (Fig. 13)

1- A severe weather watch is 1- Scattered rain showers decreasing

in effect for this area; in intensity; tops 35,000 feet
average tops of echoes are reported by aircraft; movement of
51,000 feet; tornado activity individual cells is easterly at
possible. 30 knots.
2- Line of echoes with average 2- Tops 35,000 feet reported by air-
tops 51,000 feet; a strong craft; area movement easterly at
cell detected by two or more 30 knots; individual cell move-
radars.
ment northeasterly at 25 knots.
3- Area of echoes with average 3- Scattered thunderstorms; rain
tops of 46,000 feet in south- showers decreasing in in-ansity
central Texas and 44,000 feet (no change); average tops h,UU0
in north-central Texas, and feet.
individual echo with top at 4- Average cloud tops are 35,000
51,000 feet. feet; thunderstorms, light rain
4- Line of echoes with average showers; area movement north-
tops of 51,000 feet; tornado easterly at 25 knots; individual
activity detected in central cell movement is easterly at 30
Texas by two or more radars. knots.

450. What weather conditions are depicted 452. What weather conditions are depicted
on the Radar Summary Chart within the within the area indicated by Arrow 8 on
'026 area indicated by Arrow D? (Fig. 13) 026 the Radar Summary Chart in Fig. 13?
1- Over nine-tenths coverage; 1- Widely scattered thunderstorms
thunderstorms with heavy rain with area movement southeast at
showers decreasing in inten- 15 knots; bases of echoes average
sity; cell movement is to the 21,000 feet.
northeast at 15 knots and area 2- Very light rain showers decreas-
movement is to the southeast ing in intensity; average tops
at 20 knots. 21,000 feet; one isolated cell
2- Six-tenths to eight-tenths detected by two radars.
coverage; thunderstorms and 3- Widely scattered echoes, average
rain showers increasing in tops of echoes 21,000 feet; indi-
intensity; line movement is vidual cell movement southeast
to the northeast at 15 knots at 15 knots.
and individual cell movement 4- An individual cell was detected
is to the southeast at 20 knots. by two weather radars; average
3- Over nine-tenths closed coverage tops of echoes are 21,000 feet;
with one isolated thunderstorm light rain showers dissipating.
increasing in intensity and
moving northeastward at 15
knots; area of cloud movement 453. What weather conditions are depicted on
is to the southeast at 20 knots. the Radar Summary Chart within the area
4- Over six-tenths coverage; 026 indicated by Arrow A? (Fig. 13)
thundershowers with moderate
rain showers decreasing in 1- Top of an individual cell is
intensity; line movement north- 33,000 feet; broken cloud condi-
eastward at 15 knots and indi- tion; average tops of clouds are
vidual cell movement southeast- 47,000 feet; line movement is
ward at 10 knots. southeast at 25 knots.
2- Six-tenths to nine-tenths cover-
age; average tops of echoes are
47,000 feet; line movement is
northeast at 20 knots.
3- Five-tenths to eight-tenths
coverage; maximum top of one
individual echo is 47,000 feet;
individual cell movement is
southeast at 25 knots.
4- Six-tenths to nine-tenths cover-
age; maximum tops of echoes are
47,000 feet; area movement is
southeast at 25 knots.
72
RADAR SUMMARY CHART

Figure 13
 Page 58

454. What significant weather condition is 459. What is the windspeed at the station plot
depicted in area A indicated on the HI indicated by Arrow C? (Fig. 14)
030 LVL SIG PROG, Fig. 15, page 60? P12
1- 70 knots
1- Broken cloud coverage with 2- 80 knots
bases at 35,000 feet with 3- 90 knots
moderate to severe turbulence. 4- 110 knots
2- -Light to moderate CAT with
base of turbulence at 35,000
feet. 460. The clear area (Arrow B) which lies
3- Scattered cloud coverage with within the hat:hed area, signifies that
bases reported at 35,000 feet. P12 (Fig. 14)
4- Moderate to severe turbulence
from below 24,000 feet to 1- windspeeds within the clear area
35,000 feet. range from 110 to 150 knots.
2- the clear area has lower average
windspeeds than does the surround-
455. What is the windspeed at the station ing hatched area.
plot indicated by Arrow A? (Fig. 14) 3- windspeeds within the clear area
P12
average more than 150 knots.
1- 40 knots 4- the windspeeds within the clear
2- 65 knots area range from 90 to 115 knots.
3- 30 knots
4- 55 knots
461. What weather conditions are depicted on
the Radar Summary Chart within the area
456. The station plot shown by Arrow C, 026 indicated by Arrow G? (Fig. 13, page 57)
Fig. 14, indicates a windspeed of
P12
1- Top of highest echo detected is
1- 40 knots.
55,000 feet; thunderstorms, rain
2- 60 knots.
showers, and hail detected; line
3- 80 knots. movement easterly at 20 knots.
4- 130 knots. 2- Broken :loud coverage with intense
echo return, maximum tops at
55,000 feet; line movement
457. The station plot shown by Arrow A, easterly at 20 knots.
Fig. 14, indicates a windspeed of 3- Broken echo coverage; maximum
P12
tops at 55,000 feet; intense
1- 30 knots.
thunderstorms and rain showers;
2- 40 knots.
individual cell movement is
3- 55 knots.
southeasterly at 15 knots.
4- 65 knots. 4- Broken echo coverage; average
tops at 55,000 feet; intense
thunderstorms and rain showers;
458. What is the significance of the line movement is southeasterly
clear area (Arrow B) which lies at 15 knots.
P12 within the hatched area? (Fig. 14)

1- Windspeeds within the clear 462. What weather conditions are depicter; on
area range from 110 to 150 the Radar Summary Chart within the area
knots. 026 indicated by Arrow F? (Fig. 13, page 57)
2- The windspeeds within the
clear area range from 85 to 1- Le:- than five-tenths coverage;
100 knots.
thunderstorms with rain showers
3- The clear area has lower increasing in intensity.
average windspeeds than does 2- Five-tenths or '[Link] cloud
the surrounding hatched area. cc,%.:erage; thunde.-storms; :cavY
4- Windspeeds within the clear rain showers; intensity trend is
area average more than 150 for very heavy precipitation.
knots. 3- Less than four-tenths coverage;
thunderstorms; heavy rain showers;
thunJerstorms increasing in
intensify.
4- Five- tenths or less echo cover-
age; very strong echo intensity;
thunderstorms; heavy rain Aowers;
estimated very heavy oreckita-
tion intensity,
N
3001 ANALYSIS At II Iloilo
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Tit I 41111111111S
VT 000111

iigure 14
VT 1800Z (DATE)
HI LYL SIG la PROG
400 . 70 MB

Figure 15

7
 Page 61

463. What type of clouds and coverage 467. What significant weather is expected
should a pilot expect within an within area H on the HI LVL SIG PROG,
030 area enclosed by large-scalloped 030 Fig. 15?
lines on a HI LVL SIG PROG chart?
1 Less than one-tenth coverage,
1- Dense, continuous cirriform cirriform clouds, bases at
clouds of broken or over- 43,000 feet.
cast coverage. 2- Multi-layered cirriform clouds,
2- Continuous clouds of any average bases, 43,000 feet.
type which constitute an 3- Scattered cumuliform buildups,
overcast condition. average tops above 43,000 feet.
3- Any intensity (light to 4- Less than one-eighth coverage,
dense)'cirriform clouds of cumulonimbus, bases below 24,000,
overcast coverage only. tops above 43,000 feet.
4- Cumulonimbus or cumuliform
clouds of scattered to
broken coverage. 468. What significant weather condition is
expected to exist after 1800Z within
030 area D on the HI LVL SIG PROG, Fig. 15?
464. What significant weather condition
is expected within area G on the 1- Two-tenths coverage, cirriform
-030 HI LVL SIG PROG, Fig. 15? clouds, with tops at 34,000 feet.
2- Two layers of cumulonimbus, bases
1- Three-tenths coverage, at 34,000 feet, tops at 45,000
layered cirriform clouds, feet.
base at 41,000 feet. 3- Two-eighths cumulonimbus, tops at
2- Three-eighths cloud cover- 34,000 feet.
age, cumulonimbus, tops 4- Two layers of cirriform (broken)
41,000 feet, bases below clouds, bases at 34,000 feet MSL.
24,000 feet.
3- Three layers of cirrostratus,
tops 41,000 feet, bases 469. What significant weather conditions are
unknown. expected to exist within area C as
4- Three cumulonimbus cells with 030 depicted on the HI LVL SIG PROG, Fig. 15?
average tops above 41,000 feet.
1.;. Six-tenths coverage (broken),
layered cumuliform clouds, bases
465. What significant weather condition is at 27,000 feet, tops at 35,000
expected to exist in area F, as depicted feet.
030 on the HI LVL SIG PROG? (Fig. 15) 2- Six-eighths coverage (broken),
layered cirriform clouds, bases
1- Five layers (scattered coverage) at 27,000 feet, and tops at
tops of highest layer at 36,000 3,000 feet.
feet. 3- Multi-layered cirriform clouds,
2- Five layers (broken coverage), six-tenths coverage from 27,000
base of lowest layer at 36,000 feet to 35,000 feet.
feet. 4- Six layers of cirriform clouds
3- Five-eighths coverage, layered from 27,000 feet to 35,000 feet.
cirriform clouds, bases below
24,000 feet, tops 36,000 feet.
4- Five-tenths coverage (scattered) 470. What significant weather condition is
stratocumulus clouds, base at expected to exist within area B, as
36,000 feet, tops above 45,000 030 depicted on the HI LVL SIG PROG?
feet. (Fig. 15)

1- Moderate to severe turbulence

466. What significant weather conditions from 39,000 feet to above 45,000
are expected after 1800Z, in area E feet.
030 of the HI LVL SIG PROG, Fig. 15? 2- Light to moderate CAT from
24,000 feet to 39,000 feet.
1- Few cirrus stratus cloud layers, 3- Moderate to severe turbulence
overall tops average 33,000 feet. from 24,000 feet to 39,000 feet.
2- Multi-layered cirriform clouds, 4- Light to moderate turbulence
overall bases average 33,000 feet. from 39,000 feet to 40,000 feet
3- Few (less than 1/10 coverage) inclusive.
towering cumulus, tops above
33,000 feet.
4- Few (less than 1/8 coverage)
cumulonimbus, tops at 33,000 feet;
bases are below 24,000 feet.
1
 Poop 62

Figure 16

471. What is the approximate wind direc- 473. What is the approximate wind direction
ton and velocity at CYFB? (Arrow F, and velocity at KACK? (Arrow D, Fig. 16)
P13 Fg.
i 16) P13
1- 340°/50 knots
1- 120°/30 knots 2- 180°/30 knots
2- 170°/10 knots 3- 360730 knots
3- 300°/10 knots 4- 160°/60 knots
4- 020e(54 knots

474. What is the approximate wind direction

472. What is the approximate wind direc- and velocity at CYEG? (Arrow C, Fig. 16)
tion and velocity at KIAH? (Arrow E, P13
P13 Fig. 16) 1- 050°/50 knots
2- 230°/80 knots
1- 130°/40 knots 3- 090°/110 knots
2- 310°/30 knots 4- 270°/100 knots
3- 170°/30 knots
4- 350°/40 knots
475. What is the approximate wind direction
and velocity at CYYQ? (Arrow B, Fig. 16)
P13
1- 270°/50 knots
2- 310 ° / 84 knots
3- 150°/50 knots
4- 090°/75 knots

78
 Page 63
476. What weather conditions are depicted 478. What weather phenomenon is implied within
within the area indicated by Arrow B an area enclosed by small scalloped lines
026 on the Radar Summary Chart? (Fig. 17, 030 on a HI LVL SIG PROG chart?
page 64)
1- Cumuliform or standing lenticular
1- Widely scattered echo coverage, clouds, moderate to severe tur-
heavy rain showers decreasing in bulence, and icing.
intensity; average tops of echoes 2- Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and
21,000 feet MSL; individual echo moderate or greater turbulence.
movement to the southeast at 15 3- Cirriform clouds, light to
knots.
moderate turbulence, and icing.
2- Isolated cell detected by two or 4- Cirrocumulus clouds, moderate
more radars; rain showers turbulence; no icing unless
decreasing in intensity; top of specifically indicated.
highest echo is 21,000 feet MSL;
area movement to the southeast
at 15 knots. 479. Large scalloped lines shown on a HI LVL
3- Widely scattered cloud coverage, SIG PROG chart enclose areas of
rain showers decreasing in number, 030
average tops of clouds are 21,000 1- existing stratus clouds.
feet MSL; line movement is south- 2- forecast dense, continuous
east at 15 knots. cirriform clouds.
4- Strong single cell detected by 3- existing cirriform clouds of
one radar; heavy rain showers scattered to broken coverage.
decreasing in intensity, average 4- forecast cumulus clouds.
tops of echoes 21,000 feet MSL;
area movement to the southeast
at 15 knots. 480. Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate
turbulence expected within an area on a
030 HI LVL SIG PROG chart are shown by
477. What weather conditions are depicted
within the area indicated by Arrow A 1- a large scalloped line.
026 on the Radar Summary Chart? (Fig. 17, 2- the term CB.
page 64) 3- a small scalloped line.
4- a dashed line.
1- Broken echo coverage, single
cell detected by two or more
radars; thunderstorm decreasing
in intensity, line movement to
the southeast at 20 knots.
2- Broken cloud coverage, single
cell detected by one radar;
thunderstorm decreasing in
intensity, line movement to
the southeast at 20 knots.
3- Strong cell detected by two or
more radars, 5/10 to 8/10 cloud
coverage; thunderstorm, heavy
rain shower decreasing in
intensity, individual cell move-
ment to the southeast at 20
knots.
4- Strong cell detected by one
radar, 6/10 to 9/10 echo
coverage; thunderstorm, heavy
rain shower decreasing in
intensity, area movement to the
southeast at 20 knots.
 RADAR SUMMARY CHART

gn

Figure 17
 Page 65
481. What weather conditions are depicted 483. What weather conditions are depicted
.

within the area indicated by Arrow D within the area indicated by Arrow E
026 on the Radar Summary Chart? (Fig. 17) 026 OP the Radar Summary Chart? (Fig. 17)
1- Strong cell detected by two or 1- Scattered echo coverage, moderate
more radars; average tops of rain showers, area movement to
echoes are 35,000 feet AGL; the east at 25 knots, and bases
individual echo movement to the and tops of echoes are 6,000 and
southeast at 20 knots. 27,000 feet respectively.
2- Strong cell detected by one 2- Widely scattered echoes, moderate
radar; scattered echo coverage;
rain showers, individual cell
bases at 3,500 feet MSL reported
movement to the east at 25 knots,
by aircraft; individual cell bases and tops of clouds are
movement to the southeast at 20 6,000 and 27,000 feet respectively.
knots. 3- Scattered echo coverage, light
3- Scattered echo coverage, strong
rain showers, individual cell and
cell detected by two or more
area movement to the east at 25
radars; echo tops at 35,000
knots, bases and tops of clouds
feet MSL reported by aircraft; are 6,000 and 27,000 feet
individual cell movement to the respectively.
southeast at 20 knots. 4-
4-
Widely scattered clouds with
Single cell detected by one moderate rain showers; area
radar, scattered cloud coverage,
movement to the east at 30 knots,
average tops of echoes are 35,000 bases and tops of clouds are
feet MSL; line or area movement 6,000 to 27,000 feet MSL
to the southeast at 20 knots. respectively.

482. What weather conditions are depicted 484 What weather conditions are depicted
within the area indicated by Arrow C
026 within the area indicated by Arrow B?
on the Radar Summary Chart? (Fig. 17) 030 (Fig. 18, page 66)
1- Widely scattered echo coverage, 1- Scattered cirriform clouds
thunderstorm, light rain shower between 25,000 and 30,000
(no change); top of an indi- feet with light to moderate
vidual echo is 33,000 feet MSL; turbulence.
area movement to the east at 30 2- Moderate to severe turbulence
knots, and individual cell move-
from 25,000 to 30,000 feet.
ment to the northeast at 20 3- Light to moderate turbulence
knots.
2-
at 25,000 and 30,[Link]
Scattered echo coverage, thunder- respectively.
storm and rain showers of light Moderate to severe turbulence
intensity (no change); top of at 25,000 and 30,000 feet
individual cell is 33,000 feet respectively.
MSL; area movement to the north-
east at 30 knots, and indi-
vidual cell movement to the 485. What weather conditions are depicted
northeast at 20 knots.
within the area indicated by Arrow A?
3- Scattered cloud coverage; thunder- 030 (Fig. 18, page 66)
storm, light rain shower (no
change), tops of height echo are 1 Few (less than one-tenth
33,000 feet MSL; area movement
coverage) cumulonimbus, tops
to the northeast at 20 knots, and below 33,000 feet.
individual cell movement to the 2- Few (less than one-eighth
east at 30 knots.
4-
coverage) cumulonimbus, bases
Widely scattered cloud coverage, at 33,000 feet.
light rain shower (no change), 3- Few cirriform clouds with
average tops of echoes are 33,000 bases 4i 33,000 feet.
feet MSL; line movement to the 4- Few J1 clouds, tops
east at 15 knots, and individual above 4.000 feet.
cell movement is northeast at 20
knots.
Page 66

486. What weather conditions are depicted 490. What weather phenomenon is implied wituin
within the area indicated by Arrow G? an area enclosed by small scalloped lines
030 (Fig. 18) 030 on a HI LVL SIG PROG chart?

1- Three-eighths coverage; multiple 1- Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and

layers of stratiform clouds moderate or greater turbulence.
from 25,000 to 35,000 feet. 2- Cirriform clouds, light to
2- Three-tenths coverage; three moderate turbulence, and icing.
layers cirriform clouds from 3- Cirrocumulus clouds; moderate
25,000 to 35,000 feet. turbulence; no icing unless
3- Three layers cumuliform clouds specifically indicated.
between 25,000 and 35,000 feet. 4- Cumulifoim or standing lenticular
4- Three-eighths coverage; layered clouds, moderate to severe tur-
cirriform clouds; hases and bulence, and icing.
tops at 25,000 :7'0 feet
respectively.
491. What weather conditions are depicted
within the area indicated by Arrow D?
487. What weather conditions are depicted 030 (Fig. 18)
within the area indicated by Arrow F?
030 (Fig. 18) 1- Scattered (less than one-tenth
coverage) cumuliform; bases at
1- Three layers cirriform clouds 24,000 feet and tops at 40,000
top of highest layer is 34,000 feet.
feet. 2- Few (less than one-tenth
2- Three-eighths coverage; layered coverage) cumulonimbus; tops
cirriform clouds; bases below at 40,000 feet.
24,000 feet and tops 34,000 3- Few (less than one-eighth
feet. coverage) cumulonimbus; tops
3- Three layers cumulonimbus at 40,000 feet and bases below
clouds; base of lowest layer 24,000 feet.
34,000 feet; top of highest 4- Broken (more than six-eighths
layer undetermined. coverage) cirriform; bases at
4- Three-tenths coverage; layered 40,000 feet.
cirriform clouds; bases at
34,000 feet.
492. What weather conditions are depicted
within the area indicated by Arrow C?
488. What type of clouds and coverage 030 (Fig. 18)
should a pilot expect within an area
030 enclosed by large-scalloped lines on 1- Six separate layers of cirri-
a HI LVL SIG PROC chart? form clouds with bases at
26,000 feet and tops at 30,000
1- Any intensity (light to dense) feet.
cirriform clouds of overcast 2- Six-tenths coverage (broken)
coverage only. cumuliform clouds (layered)
2- Continuous clouds of any type with bases and tops at 26,000
which constitute an overcast and 30,000 feet respectively.
condition. 3- Six layers of cumuliform
3- Dense, continuous cirriform clouds between 26,000 and
clouds of broken or overcast 30,000 feet with light to
coverage. moderate turbulence.
4- Cumulonimbus or cumuliform 4- Six-eighths coverage (broken)
clouds of scattered to broken layered cirriform clouds;
coverage. bases and tops at 26,000 and
30,000 feet respectively.

489. What weather conditions are depicted

within the area indicated by Arrow E?
030 (Fig. 18)

1- Moderate to severe turbulence from

below 24,000 feet to 29,000 feet.
2- Severe to extreme turbulence from
20,000 feet to 39,000 feet.
3- Moderate to severe turbulence 83
starting at 29,000Teet.
4- Light to moderate turbulence from
29,000 feet to undetermined height.
VT 1800Z (DATE)
RI LVL SIG JI PROG
400 - 70 MB

Figure 18 85
Page 68

493. What type of clouds should a pilot ,498. What is the maximum allowable weight that
expect within an area enclosed by may be carried on a pallet which has
030 large scalloped lines on a HI LVL W15 dimensions of 81 x 83 inches?
SIG FROG chart?
Floor load limit - - 176 lbs./sq. ft.
1- Nimbostratus Pallet weight- - - - 77 lbs.
2- Cirrus Tiedown devices- - - 29 lbs.
3- Cumulonimbus
4- Cirriform 1- 8,325 pounds
2- 8,219 pounds
3- 8,142 pounds
494. What type of clouds should a pilot 4- 8,113 pounds
expect in the area enclosed by a
030 small scalloped line on the HI LVL
SIG FROG chart? 499. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has
1- Cirrostratus W15 dimensions of 84 x 84 inches?
2- Cumulonimbus
3- Nimbostratus Floor load limit - - 186 lbs./sq. ft.
4- Cirriform Pallet weight- - - - 93 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 39 lbs.

495. What is the maximum allowable weight 1- 8,982 pounds

that may be carried on a pallet which 2- 9,021 pounds
W15 has dimensions of 76 x 76 inches? 3- 9,114 pounds
4- 9,246 pounds
Floor load limit - - 184 lbs./sq. ft.
Pallet weight- - - - 85 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 36 lbs. 500. What is the maximum allowable weigt.t
that may be carried on a pallet which
1- 7,499 pounds W15 has dimensions of 84 x 76 inches?
2- 7,378 pounds
3-. 7,293 pounds Floor load limit - - 184 lbs./sq. f4*.
4- 7,257 pounds Pallet weight- - - - 77 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 31 lbs.

496. What is the maximum allowable weight 1- 8,043 pounds

that may be carried on a pallet which 2- 8,074 pounds
W15 has dimensions of 83 x 95 inches? 3- 8,151 pounds
4- 8,259 pounds
Floor load limit - - 169 lbs./sq. ft.
Pallet weight- - - - 88 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 37 lbs. 501. What is the maximum allowable weight
that may be carried on a pallet which
1- 9,119 pounds W15 has dimensions of 72 x 72 inches?
2- 9,156 pounds
3- '9,244 pounds Floor load limit - - 179 lbs./[Link].
4- 9,369 pounds Pallet weight- - - - 91 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 36 lbs.

497. What is the maximum allowable weight 1- 6,571 pounds

that may be carried on a pallet which 2- 6,444 pounds
W15 has dimensions of 76 x 74 inches? 3- 6,353 pounds
4- 6,317 pounds
Floor load limit - - 180 lbs./sq. ft.
Pallet weight- - - - 82 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 31 lbs.

1- 6,907 pounds
2- 6,947 pounds
3- 7,029 pounds
4- 7,142 pounds

86
 Page 69
502. How far will the CG shift, if 1,000 506. Wat should be the new CG location if
pounds of cargo are moved from the aft 1,000 pounds of cargo are moved from
W14 compartment to the forward compartment? W14 the aft compartment to the forward
compartment?
Airplane gross weight--155,000 pounds
CG prior to shift--1,000 in. aft of datum Airplane gross weight--155,000 pounds
Arm of fwd compartment- -670 in. aft of
CG prior to shift--1,000 in. aft of
datum datum
Arm of aft compartment--1,166 in. aft of
Arm of forward compartment--670 in. aft
datum of datum
Arm of aft compartment--1,166 in. aft
1- 3.2 inches of datum
2- 2.5 Inches
3- 2.0 inches 1- 998.5 inches
4- 1.5 inches 2- 998.0 inches
3- 997.5 inches
4- 996.8 inches
503. An airplane with a gross weight of
185,500 pounds has its CG located at
W14 980 inches aft of datum. The arm of 507. What is the maximum allowable weight
the forward hold is 440 inches; the
that may be carried on a pallet which
aft cargo ho7J is 1,150 inches. If W15 has dimensions of 80 x 80 inches?
600 pounds of cargo are shifted from
the aft hold to the forward hold, how Floor load limit - - 185 lbs./sq. ft.
far will the new CG shift forward? Pallet weight- - - - 81 lbs.
Tiedown devices- - - 30 lbs.
1- 1.27 inches
2- 2.29 inches 1- 8,103 pounds
3- 3.00 inches 2- 8,133 pounds
4- 3.56 inches 3- 8,214 pounds
4- 8,325 pounds
504. An airplane's gross weight is 170,500
pounds and the CG is at 980 inches aft 508. What is the maximum allowable weight
W14 of datum. The arm of the forward cargo
that may be carried on a pallet which
hold is 430 inches, and the arm of the W15 has dimensions of 70 x 70 inches?
aft cargo hold is 1,130 inches. If 800
pounds of cargo are shifted from the Floor load limit - - 173 lbs./sq. ft.
forward hold to the aft hold, how far Pallet weight- - - - 79 lbs.
will the CG shift aft? Tiedown devices- - - 35 lbs.
1- 4.01 inches 1- 5,768 pounds
2- 3.28 inches 2- 5,807 pounds
3- 2.38 inches 3- 5,886 pounds
4- 1.87 inches 4- 6,000 pounds

505. What should be the new CG location if 509. What is the maximum allowable weight
800 pounds of cargo are moved from the that may be carried on a pallet which
W14 forward cargo hold to the aft cargo W15 has dimensions of 72 x 84 inches?
hold?
Floor load limit - - 177 lbs./sq. ft.
Airplane gross weight--150,000 lbs. Paltet weight- - - - 87 lbs.
CG prior to shift--998.0 in. aft of Tiedown devices- - - 29 lbs.
datum
Arm of forward hold--667.0 in. aft of 1- 7,550 pounds
datum 2- 7,434 pounds
Arm of aft hold--1,160 in. aft of datum 3- 7,347 pounds
4- 7,318 pounds
1- 1000.6 inches
2- 996.0 inches
3- 994.8 inches
4- 994.0 inches
Page 70

510. How far will the CG shift if 800 pounds

of cargo are moved from the forward
W14 cargo hoiri to the aft cargo hold?
1- 4.0 inches
lrplane gross weight--150,000 lbs. 2- 3.2 inches
orior to shift--998.0 in. aft of 3- 2.6 inches
4- 1.8 inches
Arr ' forward hold--667.0 in. aft of
An
Arm Yft hold--1,160 in. aft of datum
Mut 4.0

',-,r1NGER LOADING TABLE CARGO LOADING TABLE

i....:.bar Moment
1 4' Weight Moment 1000
t . !it', Lin, 1000
,' Forward Hold Aft Hold
§ .:' e:Tts,_ 4...ogr.
4.,.-rizr: Ornraom-582.0 Weight Ann Arm
7.
Lbs. 68011 1166.0
i+
..3r4;
495
tO 1,7-tr, 989 6,000 8,966
15 IMO 1,434 5,000 3,400 5,830
20 3,44,1) 1,979 4,000 2,720 4,664
25 4,250 2,473 3,000 2,040 3,498
29 &MO 2,36) 2,000 1,360 2,332
1,000 680 1,168
AFT [Link]-r Caremorn-1028.0
WO 812 1,049
10 1,700 1,748 800 544 933
20 3,400 3,495 700 478 816
30 5,100 5,243 600 408 700
40 8,800 8,990 500 340 583
SG 8,500 8,738 400 272 486
80 10,200 10,488 300 204 350
70 11,900 12,233 200 136 233
80 13,600 13,960
100 68 117
90 15,300 15,728
100 17,000 17,478 OTE: THESE COMPUTATIONS ARE TO
110 18,70') 19,223 BE USED FOR TESTING PUR.
120 20,400 20,971 - POSES ONLY.
131 22,610 23.243
[Link]..MINES

NIIMMEI!
1 TEL LOADING TABLE
TANKS 1 & 3 (EACH) TANK 2 (3 CELL)
Weigh: Arm .unlent A: m Moment Weight Arm Moment
Lbs. 1000 Lbs. 1000 Lbs. 1000
=11MIL

8,500 992.) 8,433 8,500 917.5 7,799 22,500 914.5 20,578

9,000 921.0 8,937 9,000 917.2 8,255 23,000 914.5 21,034
9)500 83.3 9,442 9,500 917.0 8,711 23,500 914.4 21,488
10,000 Te..7 9,947 10,000 918.8 9,168 24,000 914.3 21,943
10,500 119').6 251 10,5f9 918.8 9,824 24,500 914.3 22,400
11,000 996.1 10,957 11,000 P16.5 10,082 25,000 914.2 22,855
11,500 996.8 11,433 11,500 10,537 25,500 914.2 23,312
12,000 997.5 11,97' 12,000 918.1 10,993 26,030 914.1 23,787
CAPACITY '1' (See note at lower left) 28,500 914.1 24,244
'Note: 18,500 915.1 16,29 27,000 914.0 24,678
Computatic c for Tank 2 19,000 915.0 17,385 27,500 913.9 25,132
weights for A .200 Ibl. 19,500 914.9 17,841 28,000 913.9 25,589
18,000 lbs. ht,.e h pur-
posely omitted. 20,000 914.9 18,298 28,500 913.8 28.043
20,500 014.8 18,753 29,000 913.7 28,497
21,000 914.7 19,209 29,500 913.7 26,954
21,500 914.8 19,664 30,000 913.8 27,408
22,000 914.8 20,121 FULL CAPACITY

Figure 19
88
 r AIRPLANE DATUM CONSTANTS
Plge 7.11

IMAC
E. of MAC 180.9 inches
.asic Operating Index 860.5 inches
92,837.0
1,000
OPERATING LIMITATIONS
!Maximum Takeoff Slope
`Maximum Takeoff/Landing Crosswind Component 2%
Maximum Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component 32 knots
12 knots

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Basic Operating Weight
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight 105,500 pounds
Maximum Taxi Weight 138,500 pounds
Maximum Takeoff Weight (Brake Release) 185,700 pounds
Maximum Inflight Weight (Flaps 30) 184,700 pounds
155,500 pounds
(Flaps 40)
Maximum Landing Weight (Flaps 30)- - 144,000 pounds
155,000 pounds,
(Flaps 40)
143,000 pounds!
J
Figure 20

WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

LOAD CONDITIONS A-1

.,
A-2 A-3 7A-4 A-5
Passengers: .;,,,:
'''
',',;-.7v .,,,Eix'; '''

Forwurd compartment 27 24 19 26 28
Aft compartment 79 93 74 81 101
Can.,: ounds . , ,
'
', ,
.
iNINOWNSAMa Iiilinning
,...x.,....::.:::.:::::::.:.::::5,..:.
:..:,,,:..::.::::;:::.:::.1*,:::,::::4;::::::,,:::::::,.::::::::,,,,,

Forward hold 2 500 2 000 2 200 2,300 2,150

Aft hold 2 000 I 809 1 900 1 400 800
Fuel: (pounds)
PiawfANNANIWVIONIMINI108111111111tm
Tanks 1 & 3 (ea. tank) FULL FULL FULL 12,000 FULL
Tank 2 12 000 FULL 24 000 23 500 FULL
Figure 21

51',. What should be the CG in inches aft 513. Determine the CG in percent of MAC for
of datum for Load Conditions A-4?
W13 Load Conditions A-3. (Fig. 19, 20, and
(Fig. 19, 20, and 21) W13 21)

1- :105.6 inches 1- 25.6% MAC

2- 904.5 inches 2- 21.4% MAC
3- 900.7 V4ct,:s 3- 19.8% MAC
4- 891.4 ihhes 4- 13.4% MAC

512, Determine the CG in Iches aft of 514. Determine the CG in inches aft of LEMAC
datum fo;' toad Conditions A-1.
W13 for Load Conditions A-2. (Fig. 19, 20,
(Fig. 19, 10, and 21) W13 and 21)
1- 1106.0 inches 1- 241.2 inches
2- 971.0 niches 2- 165.3 inches
3- 904.0 inches 3- 55.4 inches'
4- 899.0 inches 4- 47.1 inches
Page 72

WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

I LOAD CONDITIONS B-1 B -2 -4 J_5 _1

Passengers: ;; ';'<'''' s.:C''''';;'''',, ,,g &,3;1:4Wli?..
Forward compartment 17 28 18 16 18

Aft compartment 61 122 83 59 69

px ,walsft
Cargo: (pounds) *°' '''' il'AZ4g4,A4W40kgr AAAXw,
Forward hold 4,050 2,050 2,000 2,150 2,000
Aft hold 2,200 2,100 1 900 1,700 12800
p.43.X.'/4>YV
'''' ''*,,;"'''''"
Fnel: (pounds) ,: Al Mtit 4WAttr" ?.X Fr g" *1,4
Tanks 1 & 3 (ea. tank) 10,000 10,500 10,500 11,500 11,500
Tank 2 25 500 28 500 27 50' 2. 510 sot

Figure 22

515. What should be the CG in inches aft 518. Determine the CG in inches aft of
of LEMAC for Load Conditions A-5? LEMAC for Load Conditions B-3.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20 and 21, W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
page 71) Fig. 22)

1- 49.0 inches 1- 46.1 inches

2- 46.9 inches 2- 49.0 inches
3- 45.2 inches 3- 50.1 inches
4- 43.1 inches 4- 906.6 inches

516. Determine the CG in inches aft of 519. What should be the CG in inches aft
datum for Load Conditions B-1. of datum for Load Conditions B-4?
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 22) Fig. 22)

1- 905.6 inches 1- 1105.6 inches

2- 903.1 inches 2- 1000.3 inches
3- 901.4 inches 3- 989.2 inches
4- 897.6 inches 4- 905.3 inches

517. What is the CG in percent of MAC for 520. Determine the CG in percent of MAC
Load Conditions B-2? (Fig. 19, for Load Conditions B-5. (Fig. 19,
W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 22) W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 22)

1- 28.2% MAC 1- 30.1% MAC

2- 26.4% MAC 2- 28.9% MAC
3- 24.6% MAC 3- 27.2% MAC
4- 23.1% MAC 4- 25.1% MAC
 Page 73

WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

LOAD CONDITIONS
Passengers:
11111111111M11111111,111111E11111M1111
Forward compartment
Aft compartment
FILL 22 26 111111Millrila
118 119 134
,.
EMIP!!!!!91111111111 :.,,Eggesitmwmrleers'75cp:r.%
. ...
k(s; :7'CZ "04 "
Forward hold
3 400
Aft hold 3,000 3 300 1 800
Fuel: (pounds) ri49*-N:
n4AA:;WWW.V.
Tanks 1 &.3 ea. tank) FULL 9 500 10 000 10 500
Tank 2 18 500

Figure 23

521. Determine the CG in percent of MAC 524. Determine the CG in inches aft,of
for Load Conditions C-1. (Fig. 19,
W13 datum for Load Conditions C-4.
page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 23) W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
1- Fig. 23)
47.8% MAC
2- 38.4% MAC
1- 901.2 inches
3- 31.2% MAC
2- 907.4 inches
4- 26.4% MAC
3- 1061.2 inches
4- 1102.0 inches
522. Determine the CG in inches aft of
LEMAC for Load Conditions C-2. 525.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Determine the CG in percent of MAC
Fig. 23) for Load Conditions C-5. (Fig. 19,
W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 23)
1- 48.2 inches
1- 29.1% MAC
2- 52.9 inches
2- 27.3% MAC
3- 907.8 inches
3- 24.2% MAC
4- 908.7 inches
4- 22.4% MAC

523. Determine the CG in inches aft of

LEMAC for Load Conditions C-3.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 23)

1- 908.1 inches
2- 49.2 inches
3- 47.6 inches
4- 44.4 inches
Page 74

WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

LOAD CONDITIONS --1 D -1 I D-2 I D -3 I D 4 D

Passengers: Vis:NV,t4 4:I`- ,k(k Tk.'n, ), ';,:;I:.:44 .' ''':::;'''ff" '''':

Forward compartment , 23 11 28 21 16
Aft compartment ,,,,,1G5 93_ ... 113 ..,...._.99 __ill__
Cargo:
.,-:ggmx0
Aamo '..,..::0::::V4a0PAAN
vUoasft040;ge:4ftW,
- WM qaWag
0::Z1:':04`[Link]. '. .2.'''' ..1.0:"'"M"
.ounds V.140,1Nmkg.,4'.

Forward hold 2.350 4.150 3,350 3,100 2,250

Aft hold 3 000 2 700 3 100 2 800 2 200
0,N[Link], T.4fifmr
Fuel: (pounds) jAMMONA IN, 4** ....4.' 11 210,11,114( illietli
Tanks 1 & 3 (ea. tank) FULL 10.500 FULL 11,000 11,500
Tank 2 24 500 FULL 25 000 25 500 26 500

Figure 24

526. Determine the CG in inches aft of 529. Determine the CG in inches aft of
LEMAC for Load Conditions D-1. LEMAC for Load Conditions D-4.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 24) Fig. 24)

1- 47.9 inches 1- 908.0 inches

2- 50.0 inches 2- 51.3 inches
3- 905.1 inches 3- 47.5 inches
4- 910.5 inches 4- 43.4 inches

527. Determine the CG in inches aft of 530. Determine the CG in inches aft of
datum for Load Conditions D-2. datum for Load Conditions D-5.
W13 (Fig. 19; page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 24) Fig. 24)

1- 47.9 inches 1- 903.4 inches

2- 896.4 inches 2- 911.9 inches
3- 900.1 inches 3- 1051.2 inches
4- 908.4 inches 4- 1096.6 inches

528. Determine the CG in percent of

MAC for Load Conditions D-3.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20,
page 71; Fig. 24)

1- 22.2% MAC
2- 26.6% MAC
3- 31.4% MAC
4- 37.5% MAC
 Page 75
WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

LOAD CONDITIONS E-1 E -2 [ E -3 E -4 E -5

Passengers:
+,
Forward compartment 22 21 27 FULL FULL
Aft compartment 63 132 119 106 FULL
Cargo: (pounds)
Forward hold 2,300
3,900 4,100
Aft hold 2000 3j0Q 2,200 3,400 3 000
Fuel: (pounds)
Tanks 1 & 3 (ea. tank) 11,000 10,500 10,000 9.500 11,500
Tank 2 23,500 22,500 27,500 24.500 22.500

Figure 25

531. Determine the CG in percent of MAC 534. Determine the CG in percent of MAC
for Load Conditions E-1. (Fig. 19,
W13 for Load Conditions E-4. (Fig. 19,
page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 25) W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 25)
1- 22.9% MAC
2- 1- 26.2% MAC
23.6% MAC
3- 2- 24.3% MAC
25.1% MAC
4- 3- 22.8% MAC
26.3% MAC
4- 21.0% MAC

532. Determine the CG in percent of MAC 535. Determine the CG in percent of MAC
for Load Conditions E-2. (Fig. 19,
W13 for Load Conditions E - -5. (Fig. 19,
page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 25) W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 25)
1- 31.0% MAC
2- 30.1% MAC
1-, 31.2% MAC
3-
2- 29.1% MAC
28.0% MAC
3- 26.7% MAC
4- 26.1% MAC
4- 24.3% MAC

533. Determine CG in percent of MAC

for Load Conditions E-3. (Fig. 19,
W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 25)

1- 29.5% MAC
2- 27.5% MAC
3- 25.5% MAC
4- 23.5% MAC
Page 76

WEIGHT AND BALANCE LOAD DATA

MON
AeAUMW
.Akis

[Link];.:',?;;:"Es%M.,
VIgtagrgagiallaienPUMMaWaiWt'

Figure 26

536. Determine the CG in percent of MAC 539. Determine the CG in percent of MAC
for Load Conditions F-1. (Fig. 19, for Load Conditions F-4. (Fig. 19,
W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 26) W13 page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; Fig. 26)

1- 41.5% MAC 1- 26.0% MAC

2- 36.9% MAC 2- 24.1% MAC
3- 24.0% MAC 3- 22.2% MAC
4- 20.4% MAC 4- 21.4% MAC

537. Determine the CG in inches aft of 540. Determine the CG in inches aft of
LEMAC for Load Conditions F-2. LEMAC for Load Conditions F-5.
W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71; W13 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 26) Fig. 26)

1- 39.9 inches 1- 51.4 inches

2- 37.6 inches 2- 49.6 inches
3- 35.1 inches 3- 48.1 inches
4- 900.4 inches 4- 46.9 inches

538. Determine the CG in inches aft of

datum for Load Conditions F-3.
1413 (Fig. 19, page 70; Fig. 20, page 71;
Fig. 26)

1- 920.3 inches
2- 916.1 inches
3- 912.6 inches
4- 902.3 inches

9
 Page 77
TAKEOFF EPR, SPEEDS
AND
STAR TRIM SETTING

MAX TAKEOFF EPR ENG 1 c 3 AMBLE= ON

.4..

ALT OAT :F MIEll -10

0 - 60 KNOTS ENG 2 NO AIM=

-1000
i 3 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 1111111111111114111111111111;1111111grilig
2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04

S.L.

1000
1 , 3

1 g 3
2

2
2.06
2.10
2.11
2.15
2.06
2.10
2.11
2.1
2.06
2.10
2.11
2.15
2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.0,1611imalimi
2.10
2.11
2.15
2.10
2.11
2.15
2.10 2.1. 2.10 2.10
2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11
2.15 2.15 2.1:02.12
2.10 2.10 2.08 2.03
2.11 2.11 2.10 2.0
2.12 2.11
))
FE
1.91
1.92
2 2 2 16 2.16 2.16 2.16 2.16 2.16 2.16 2 15 2.13 2.13 2.121117116[Eligila
2000
1 I. 3 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14 2.14 2.11 2.08 2.03

® immin
2 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.16 2.15 2.12 2.10 2.051Filifiillia
1 g 3 2.26 2.26 2.26 2.25 2.23
3000 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14 2.14 2.11
2 2.28 2.28 2.28 2.27 2.24 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.1.
2.29 2.27 2.25 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14
2.1 2.12[46111WIElliii
2.14 2.11 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
2.31 2.29 2.27 2.24 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.16 2.15 2.12 2.10 2.05 2.00 1.96 1.92
EPR BLEED CORRECTIONS ENC 1 t 3 ENG
AIR CONDITIONING OFF+.04 PRES5URE
ENGINE ANTI-ICE OR ALT -.1000 F1' OAT
-.03
9 TO 11
F (ABOVE CERTIFIED ALTITUDE) -65 TO
OIDUCI ILT4G I (P( ST OS MTN TA
C -54 4
2
?3
6 87
31
STAG! 11.110 ON NV oms LLLLL com soft 'F
t(0111 OAT WARMER
7 TO 9
"C
-65
-54
TO
9
-11
10
TO
75 76104
-12 24
5 TO "I' -65 -10 -8 42 43 97
V V V RI V2 7
'C
°I'
-54
-65
-23
32
-22
33
TO
5 6
TO
36
98
37
111
44
ANTI-SKID OPERATIVE
3 TO 5
"C TO To 90 91
TO
113 114 120
-54 0 1 32 33 45 46 TO
k 1 TO 3
'F -65
TO
83 84
TO
106 107 120
49
'C -54 28 29 41 TO
42 49
STAB TRIM -1 TO 1
'F
'C
-65
-54
TO
99
37
100
38
120
70
49
SETTING GROSS
WEIGHT
CC") FLAPS FLAPS 112. VR V2 V %1 V V . V
5 1 15 /20 1000 LB 1 R 2 1
1.7

2
.1/ i .0
1 25 11 R
210 165 175 166 175
URITS6IRPLANE,MOSE UP
10 6 3/4 7 1/2 200 160 171 162 171
8 1/4
12 6 1/2 7 1/4 190 155 167 157 167 15e 167
8
14 6 1/4 7 180 150 163 152 163 154
7 3/4 163
16 6 6 3/4 170 144 159 147 159 149
7 1/2 5 159 150 158
18 5 2/4 6 1/2 160 140 154 141 153 143 153
7 145 153
20 5 1/2 6 150 135 149 136 149 138
6 1/2 149 140 148
22 5 5 3/4 140 129 145 130 145 132
6 1/4 144 134 144
244 3/4 5 1/4 5 3/4
130 124 140 125 139 126 138 128 138
26 4 1/2 4 3/4 120 119 135 120 134 120
5 1/4 134 121 133
28 4 4 1/2 210 156 166 157 166
3/4
30 3 3/4 200 151 162 153 162
4 4 1/4
32 3 1/2 3 3/4 190 146 158 148 158 149
4 158
34 3 1/4 3 1/4 180 141 154 141 154 145
3 1/2 354
36 2 3/4 170 136 150 138 150 140
3 3 15 150 141 149
38 2 1/2 2 1/2 160 132 146 133 145 135
2 1/2 145 137 145
40 2 1/2 150 127 141 128 141
2 1/2 2 1/2 130 141 132 140
42 ,2 1/2 2 1/2 140 122 137 123 137 124
2 1/2 136 126 136
130 117 133 118 132 118 131 120 131
120 112 128 113 127 113 127 115 126'
210 151 161 152 161
20', 146 157 148 157
190 141 153 143
FLAP RETRACTION 180 136 150 138
153
150
144
140
153
149
MAN GROSS
EDS 20
170
160
132
128
146
142
133
129
146
141
135
131
145
141
136
133
145
141
FLAP POSITION 150 123 137 124 137 126 136
WEIGHT 128 136
140 118 133 119 133 120
LB 0 132 122 132
130 113 129 114 128
00 114 127 116 127
200 120 109 124 109 123 109 123 111 122
210 146 157 147 157
1%4501 200 141 153 143 153
M) 170 200 210 1.P0 137 149 138 149 139 149
176000
180 132 145 134 145 136
176001 145
25
170 127 141 129 141 131
Tt4 180 141 132 140
140 123 137 124 137 126
191000 137 128 136
150 119 133 120 133 122 133
ABOVE 124 132
191000
180 140 114 129 115 129 116 128 118 128
130 109 125 110 124 110 124 112 123
FOR MANEZVERS IMMEDIATELY AFTER 120 105 120 106 120 106 119 108 118
TAKEOFF EXCEEDING 15° BANK MAINTAIN
AT LEAST V2 10 AT TAKEOFF FLAPS

Figure 27
Page 78

541. What should be the minimum maneuvering 547. What should be the takeoff safety speed
speed immediately after takeoff for a for Operating Conditions G-2? (Fig. 27,
Y13 15° banked turn for Operating Conditions Y13 page 77; Fig. 28)
G-1? (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
1- 134 knots
1- 154 knots 2- 136 knots
2- 152 knots 3- 146 knots
3- 158 knots 4- 148 knots
4- 162 knots

548. What should be the takeoff EPR for

542. What should be the takeoff safety Operating Conditions G-2? (Fig. 27,
speed for Operating Conditions G-1? Yll page 77; Fig. 28)
Y13 (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2,
1- 148 knots
2- 150 knots 1- 2.16 2.17
3- 152 knots 2- 2.22 2.16
4- 154 knots 3- 2.16 2.09
4- 2.20 2.09

543. .What should be the STAB TRIM setting

for Operating Conditions G-1 if the 549. that should be the minimum maneuvering
Y12 CG is located 41.6 inches aft of LEMAC? speed Immediately after takeoff for a
(Fig. 27, page 77.; Fig. 28) Y13 20° banked turn for Operating Conditions
G-3? (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
1- 5 1/4 units ANU
2- 5 1/2 units ANU 1- 145 knots
3- 5 3/4 units ANU 2- 147 knots
4- 6 units ANU 3- 149 knots
4- 151 knots

544. What should be the takeoff EPR for

Operating Conditions G-1? (Fig. 27, 550. What sho;1d be the STAB TRIM setting for
Yll page 77; Fig. 28) Operating Conditions G. if the CG is
Y12 located 3.P.9 inches aft of LEMAC?
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)

1- 2.11 2.12 1- 6 1/4 units ANU

2- 2.11 2.07 2- 6 units ANU
3- 2.15 2.15 3- 5 3/4 units ANU
4- 2.15 2.17 4- 5 units ANU

545. What should be the minimum maneuver- 551. What should to the takeoff safety speed
ing speed immediately after takeoff for Operrting :onditions G-3? (Fig. 27,
Y13 for a turn exceeding 15° of bank for Y13 page 77; 1 18)
Operating Conditions G-2? (Fig. 27,
page 77; Fig. 28) 1- 14i knots
2- 139 knots
1- 144 knots 3- 137 knots
2- 146 knots 4- 135 knots
3- 156 knots
4- 158 knots
552. What should be the takeoff EPR for
Operating Conditions G-3? (Fig. 27,
546. What should be the STAB TRIM setting Yll page 77; Fig. 28)
for Operating Conditions G-2 if the
Y12 CG is located 899.9 inches aft of Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
datum? (Fig. 27, page.77; Fig. 28)
1- 2.12 2.07
1- 6 1/2 units ANU 2- 2.12 2.10
2- 6 1/4 units ANU 3- 2.08 2.05
3- 6 units ANU 4- 2.08 2.10
4- 5 3/4 units ANU
 Page 79
TAKEOFF EPR, SPEEDS, and STAB TRIM

OPERATING CONDITIONS G -1 G-2 G -3 G-4 G-5

Field elevation .m.............
500 1,500 2,500 1,000 4,200
Altimeter setting
29.92 29.92 29.92 29.92 29.92
Outside air temp.
+68°F; +5°F. +86°F. +63°F. +10°F.
Air cond: Engs. 1 & 3 ON OFF ON ON OFF
Anti-ice: Eng. 2 OFF ON OFF OFF ON
Gross weight (1,000 lbs.) 175 1-' 165 175 180
6th stage bleed: 'Zug. 2 ON ON OFF ON ON
Flap position 15 20 25 15 20
LEMAC
880.5 in. aft of datum
MAC
180.9 in.

Figure 28
553. What should be the minimum maneuver- 557. What should be the minimum maneuver-
ing speed immediately after takeoff
Y13 ing speed immediately after takeoff
for a turn exceeding 15° of bank for Y13 for a 15° banked turn for Operating
Operating Conditions G-4? (Fig. 27, Conditions G-5? (Fig. 27, page 77;
page 77; Fig. 28) Fig. 28)
1- 154 knots 1- 150 knots
2- 152 knots 2- 154 knots
3- 164 knots 3- 156 knots
4- 162 knots 4- 160 knots

554. What should be the STAB TRIM setting 558. What should be the STAB TRIM setting
for Operating Conditions G-4 if the
Y12 for Operating Conditions G-5 if the CG
CG is located 905.7 inches .aft of Y12 is located 43.5 inches aft of LEMAC?
datum? (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
(Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
1- 5 1/4 units ANU 1- 5 1/2 units ANU
2- 5 units ANU 2- 4 1/2 units ANU
3- 4 3/4 units ANU 3- 5 1/4 units ANU
4- 4 1/2 units ANU 4- 4 3/4 units ANU

555. What should be the takeoff safety 559. What should be the takeoff safety
speed for Operating Conditions G-4? speed for Operating Conditions G-5?
Y13 (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28) Y13 (Fig. 27, page 77; Fig. 28)
1- 150 knots 1- 136 knots
2- 152 knots 2- 150 knots
3- 154 knots 3- 141 knots
4- 155 knots 4- 154 knots

556. What should be the takeoff EPR for 560. What should be the takeoff EPR for
Operating Conditions G-4? (Fig. 27,
Yll Operating Conditions G-5? (Fig. 27,
page 77; Fig. 28) Yll page 77; Fig. 28)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 Enq. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 2.12 2.13 1- 2.14 2.13
2- 2.12 2.08 2- 2.18 2.16
3- 2.04 2.06 3- 2.26 2.30
4- 2.04 2.01 4- 2.30 2.25
 Page 80
TAKEOFF EPR, SPEEDS
AND
STAB TRIM SETTING

ENG 1 C 3 AIME= ON
TAKEOFF EPR 0 - 60 KNOTS ENG 2 NO AIRBLEED
PRESS
ALT OAT 'F -67 TO -9 -4 5 14 23 32 41 50 5968 77 86 95 104 113 120
FT 'C -55 TO -23 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 1520 25 30 35 40 45 49
1 c 3 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
-1000
2 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.06 2.05 2.00 1.9k 1,92
1 i 3 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
S.L.
2 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.11 2.10'2.05 2.00 1.96 1.92
1 C 3 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.13 2.12 2.12 2.11 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
1000
2 2,16 2.16 2.16 2,16 2.16 2.16 2.16 2,15 2.13 2,13 2.12 2.10 2,05 2.00 1.96 1.92
w 1 s 3 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14 2.14 2.11 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
2000
2 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.22 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.16 2.15 2.12 2.10 2.05 2.00 1.96 1.92
1 C 3 2.26 2.26 2.26 2.25 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14 2.14 2.11 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
3000
2 2.28 2.28 2.28 2.27 2.24 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.16 2.15 2.12 2.18,2.05 2.00 1.96 1.92
3856 fi 1 C 3 2.31 2.29 2.27 2.25 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.14 2.14 2.14 2.11 2.08 2.03 1.99 1.94 1.91
ABOVE- -2-- -2.32 2.31 2.29 2.27 2.24 2.21 2.18 2.16 2.16 2.15 2,122.10 2.05 2.00 1.96 1.92
EPR BLEED CORRECTIONS ENC 1 C 3 ENG 2
PRESSURE f
AIR CONDITIONING OFF+.04 ALT - 1000 FT 1
OAT
ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON -.03 F 6b 24 26 87
9 TO 11 (ABOVE CERTIFIED ALTITUDE) TO -... 3 TO
'C - 31
REDUCE ENO 2 EPR SY .06 WITH RN
STAGE SLEED ON 112 INSTALLS DI FOR WPC 7 TO 9
' -65
TO
9 10
TO
75 76
TO
104
110°21 OAT WARMER 'C -54 -13 -12 24 25 40
'F -65 -10 -9 42 43 97 98 1114
5 TO 7 C TO TO TO TO
VR, F
-54
-65
-23
32
-22
33
5
90 91
6
113
36 37
114
44
120
ANTI-SKID OPERATIVE
3 TO 5 C -54
TO
0 1
TO
32 33
TO
45 46
TO
49
'F -65 83 84 106 107 120
1 TO TO TO TO
3
C -54 28 29 41 42 49
F -65 99 100 120
STAB TRIM -1 TO
-
1
'C -54
TO
37 38
TO
49
SETTING GROSS
WEIGHT
CG% FLAPS FLAPS V =V V V .V V V .V V V .V V
1000 LB I R 2 1 R 2 1 R 2 1 R 2
515 /20 25 210 165 175 166 175
UNITS AIRPLANE LOSE UP 200 160 171 162 171
10 6 3/4 7 1/2 8 1/4 190 155 167 157 167 158 167
12 6 1/2 7 1/4 8 180 150 163 152 163 154 163
14 6 1/4 7 7 3/4 170 144 159 147 159 149 159 150 158
16 6 6 3/4 7 1/2 5
160 140 154 141 153 143 153 145 153
18 5 3/4 6 1/2 7
150 135 149 136 149 138 149 140 148
20 5 1/2 6 6 1/2 140 129 145 130 145 132 144 134 144
22 5 5 3/4 6 1/4 130 124 140 125 139 126 138 128 138
24 4 3/4 5 1/4 5 3/4 120 119 135 120 134 120 134 121 133
26 4 1/2 4 3/4 5 1/4 210 156 166 157 166
28 4 4 1/2 4 3/4 200 151 162 153 162
30 3 3/4 4 4 1/4 190 146 158 148 158 149 158
32 3 1/2 3 3/4 4 180 141 154 143 154 145 154
34 3 1/4 3 1/4 3 1/2 170 136 150 130 150 140 150 141 149
36 2 3/4 3 3 15
160 132 A46 133 145 135 145 137 145
38 2 1/2 2 1/2 2 1/2 150 127 141 128 141 130 141 132 140
40 2 1/2 2 1/2 2 1/2 140 122 137 123 137 124 136 126 136
42 2 1/2 2 1/2 2 1/2 130 117 133 118 132 118 131 120 131
120 112 128 113 127 113 127 115 126
210 151 161 152 161
200 146 157 148 157
190 141 153 143 153 144 153
FLAP RETRACTION 180
170
136
132
150
146
138
133
150
146
140
135
149
145 136 145
MAN GROSS
EDS 20
160
150
128
123
142
137
129
124
141
137
131
126
141
136
133
128
141
136
FLAP POSITION
WEIGHT 140 118 133 119 133 120 132 122 132
LB 1141131EI 0 130 113 129 114 128 114 127 116 127
120 109 124 109 123 109 123 111 122
150 160 190 200
2 0 146 157 147 157
154501 200 141 153 143 153
160 170 200 210 1.!0 137 149 138 149 139 149
176000 180 132 145 134 145 136 145
17600 170 127 141 129 141 131 141 132 140
25
T) 170 180 210 220 160 123 137 124 137 126 137 128 136
191000 150 )19 133 120 133 122 133 124 132
ABOVE 140 . 114 129 115 129 116 128 118 128
180 190
191000 136 109 125 110 124 110 124 112 123
FOR MANEUVERS IMMEOIATELY AFTER 120 105 120 106 120 106 119 108 118
TAKEOFF EXCEEOING 15 BANK MAINTAIN
AT LEAST V +10 AT TAKEOFF FLAPS
2

Figure 29
 Page 81
561. What should be the STAB TRIM setting 567. What should be the average takeoff EPR
for Operating Conditions H-1 if the for Operating Conditions H-2?
Y12 (Fig. 29;
CG is located 41.6 inches aft of LEMAC? Yll Fig. 30, page 82)
(Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 5 units ANU
2- 5 1/4 units ANU 1- 2.12 2.05
3- 5 1/2 units ANU 2- 2.08 2.10
4- 5 3/4 units ANU 3- 2.12 2.10
4- 2.08 2.05
562. What should be the takeoff safety speed
for Operating Conditions H-1? (Fig. 29; 568. What should be the minimum maneuvering
Y13 Fig. 30, page 82)
speed immediately after takeoff for a
Y13 20° banked turn for Operating Condi-
1- 154 knots tions i-3? (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
2- 156 knots
3- 158 knots 1- 161 knots
4- 143 knots
2- 159 knots
3- 157 knots
4- 151 knots
563. What should be the takeoff EPR for
Operating Conditions H-1? (Fig. 29;
Yll Fig. 30, page 82) 569. What should be the STAB TRIM setting
for Operating Conditions H-3 if the
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 Y12 CG is located 41.6 inches aft of
LEMAC? (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
1- 2.14 2.06
2- 2.14 2.11 1- 5 3/4 units ANU
3- 2.10 2.11 2- 6 units ANU
4- 2.06 2.16 3- 6 1/4 units ANU
4- 6 1/2 units ANU
564. What should be the minimum maneuver-
ing speed immediately after takeoff 570.
Y13 What should be the takeoff safety
for a 15° banked turn for Operating
speed for Operating Conditions H-3?
Conditions H-2? (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, Y13 (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
page 82)
1- 147 knots
1- 158 knots 2- 149 knots
2- 156 knots 3- 151 knots
3- 148 knots 4- 153 knots
4- 146 knots

571. What should be the average takeoff EPR

565. What should be the takeoff softy
for Operating Conditions H-3? (Fig. 29;
speed for Operating Conditions H-2? Yll Fig. 30, page 82)
Y13 (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 150 knots
2- 148 knots 1- 2.11 2.14
3- 146 knots 2- 2.18 2.21
4- 135 knots 3- 2.14 2.11
4- 2.18 2.16
566. What should be the STAB TRIM setting
for Operating Conditions H-2 if the 572. What should be the minimum maneuvering
Y12 CG is located 913.0 inches of. of speed immediately after takeoff for a
datum? (Fig. 29; Fit;. 30, page 82) Y13 15° banked turn for Operating Condi-
tions H-1? (Fig. 29; Fig. 30, page 82)
1- 4 units ANU
2- 4 1/4 units ANU 1- 144 knots
3- 4 1/2 units ANU 2- 146 knots
4- 4 3/4 units ANU 3- 148 knots
4- 158 knots

99
Page 82

TAKEOFF EPR, SPEEDS, and STAB TRIM

OPERATING CONDITIONS H-1 H-2 H-3 H-4 H-5

Field elevation S.L. 4,100 3,000 2,500 1,500
Altimeter setting 29.92 29.92 29.92 29.92 29.92
Outside air temp. +73°F. +85°F. +55°F. +23°F. +14°F.
Air cond: Enge. 1 & 3 OFF ON ON OFF OFF
Anti-ice: Eng. 2 OFF OFF OFF ON ON
Gross weight (1,000 lbs.) 185 175 195 175 165
6th stage bleed: %ng. 2 ON ON ON ON OFF
Flap position 15 20 25 20 15
.-)
LEMAC 880.5 in. aft of datum
MAC 180.9 in.

Figure 30

573. What should be the STAB TRIM setting 577. What should be the minimum maneuvering
for Operating Conditions H-4 if the CG speed immediately after takeoff for a
Y12 is located 901.0 inches aft [Link]? Y13 20° banked turn for Operating Conditions
(Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30) H-5? (Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30)

1- 5 1/4 units ANU 1- 144 knots

2- 5 1/2 units ANU 2- 146 knots
3- 5 3/4 units ANU 3- 156 knots
4- 6 units ANU 4- 158 knots

574. What should be the takeoff safety 578. What should be the STAB TRIM setting
speed for Operating Conditions H-4? for Operating Conditions H-5 if the
Y13 (Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30) Y12 CG is located 41.5 inches aft of
LEMAC? (Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30)
1- 134 knots
2- 136 knots 1- 5 1/4 units ANU
3- 146 knots 2- 5 1/2 units ANU
4- 148 knots 3- 5 3/4 units ANU
4- 6 units ANU

575. What should be the average takeoff

EPR for Operating Conditions H-4? 579. What should be the takeoff safety
Yll (Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30) speed for Operating Conditions H-5?
Y13 (Fig. 29, page CO; Fig. 30)
Enc. 1 & 3 LI,1
1- 134 knots
1- 2.26 2.20 2- 136 knots
2- 2.22 2.23 3- 146 knots
3- 2.18 2.20 4- 148 knots
4- 2.22 2.23

580. What should be the average takeoff

576. What should be the minimum maneuver- EPR for Operating Conditions H-5?
ing speed immediately after takeoff Yll (Fig. 29, page 80; Fig. 30)
Y13 for a 20° banked turn for Operating
Conditions H-5? (Fig. 29, page 80; Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
Fig. 30)
1- 2.18 2.19
1- 166 knots 2- 2.22 2.16
2- 164 knots 3- 2.18 2.14
3- 158 knots 4- 2.14 2.19
4- 156 knots
 Page 83

Figure 31

581. The ATIS reported wind is 180° at 584. Which wind would exceed a crosswind
25 knots. What is the crosswind limitation of 25 knots for a RWY 1
Y10 component for a RWY 13 landing? Y10 takeoff? (Fig. 27)
(Fig. 27)
1- 30 knots; 070°
1- 19 knots 2- 25 knots; 110°
2- 21 knots 3- 26 knots; 080°
3- 22 knots 4- 37 knots; 050°
4- 25 knots

585. If the tower-reported surface wind

582. If the tower-reported wind is 010° is 020° at 18 knots, what is the
at 18 knots, what is the crosswind Y10 crosswind component for a RWY 13
Y10 component for a RWY 8 departure? landing? (Fig. 27)
(Fig. 27)
1- 13 knots
1- 25 knots 2- 17 knots
2- 23 knots 3- 21 knots
3- 19 knots 4- 24 knots
4- 17 knots

586. The ATIS-reported wind is 250° at

583. What is the crosswind component for 22 knots. What is the crosswind
a RWY 13 takeoff if the surface wind Y10 component for a RWY 17 departure?
Y10 is 190° at 15 knots? (Fig. 27) (Fig. 27)

1- 13 knots 1- 26 knots
2- 15 knots 2- 24 knots
3- 18 knots 3- 22 knots
4- 20 knots 4- 19 knots
Page 84

TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE (Runway Limit)

OPERATING CONDITIONS I-1 1-2 1-3 1-4 1-5

Pressure altitude S.L. 1,000 1,500 3,000 4,000
Outside air temp. +85°F. +68°F. +15 °F. +13°F. +9°F.
Runway length 8,000 8,500 9,000 9,500 10,000
Runway elope -1% +1% 0% -2% 0%
Headwind comp. (kts.) -- -- CALM 20 10
Tailwind comp. (kts.) 10 10 -- -- --
Flap potation 15 20 25 15 15
Air cond. bleed air ON ON OFF OFF OFF
.
AUTOPACK TRIP inop. YES NO YES NO YES
ENG FAIL WARN LT inop. NO YES NO YES YES
8th stage bleed air OFF ON OFF ON OFF
Engine anti-ice OFF OFF ON ON OFF

Figure 32

587. Determine the field length limit gross 590. Determine the field length limit gross
weight for Operating Conditions I-1. weight for Operating Conditions 1-4.
.Y14 (Fig. 32 and Fig. 33) Y14 (Fig. 32 and Fig. 33)

1- 163,100 pounds 1- 204,500 pounds

2- 165,000 pounds 2- 207,600 pounds
3- 170,200 pounds 3- 212,600 pounds
4- 176,000 pounds 4- 215,000 pounds

588. Determine the field length limit 591. Determine the field length limit gross
gross weight for Operating Condi- weight for Operating Conditions I-5.
Y14 tions 1-2. (Fig. 32 and Fig. 33) Y14 (Fig. 32 and Fig. 33)

1- 163,600 pounds 1- 205,300 pounds

2- 165,200 pounds 2- 200,300 pounds
3- 170,200 pounds 3- 195,500 pounds
4- 173,500 pounds 4- 193,000 pounds

589. Determine the field length limit

gross weight for Operating Condi-
Y14 tions 1-3. (Fig. 32 and Fig. 33)

1- 200,500 pounds
2- 204,300 pounds
3- 208,200 pounds
4- 210,500 pounds
 Page 85
TAKEOFF
PERFORMANCE

AVERAGE TAKEOFF EPR A/C BLEED ON

PRESS ALT F) -67 TO .9 -4 14 32 50 88 104 122 BASED ON 1 ANTI-SKID OPERATIVE (ANTI -SKID 'Nor SEE TEXT)
FT 6 CI.55 TO -23 -20 -10 0 10 20 30 40 50 2 A/C BLEED ON
-1000 2.05 2.05 2.05 2.05 2.05 2.05 2.05 1.99 1.90 3 AUTOPACK TRIP OPERATIVE
S.L. 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.10\2.10 2.10 2.09 1.99 1.90 4 ENGINE FAILURE WARNING LIGHT OPERATIVE
NOTE: DETERMINE AVERAGE TAKEOFF EPR FROM TABLE.
1000 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15\2.14 2.12 2.09 1.99 1.90 WITH 6th STAGE BLELO ON AT 10°C (50°F) AND
2000 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.20 2.15 2.14 2.09 1.99 1.90 WARMER, REOUCE CLIMB LIMIT WEIGHT BY 4400 LB
3000 2.27 (2000 KG) 8t FIELO LIMIT WT BY 1800 LB (800 KG).
2.27 2.26 2.20 2.15 2.14 2.09 1.99 1.90 FOR ENGINE All ON REOUCE AVERAGE EPR BY .01.
3856 &ABOVE 2.31 2.30 2.26 2.20 2.15 2.14 2.09 1.99 1.90 STRUCTURAL WEIGHT LIMITS MUST BE OBSERVED

is RUNWAY LIMIT
A/C BLEED OFF AUTOPACK TRIP INOP -800 LB
INCREASE AVERAGEtr-,: ENG FAIL WARN LT INOP -2400 LB
EPR BY .02

r.

210

200

190 m

§
180 -
I-
2
170 I
I-
Q
2
160
250
20,-
15(7 LL

a. 150
HEAD
40 5 5
ON U-

EX 0 140
10 0 2 4 6 8 -20 0 20 40 °C
TAIL PRESSURE ALTITUDE
1000 FT oe
0
20 60 100 r
40 80 120
OAT

6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 * Note: Use full wind value as

RUNWAY. LENGTH AVAILABLE 1000 FT stated in each problem.

Figure 33
Page 86

TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE (Runway Limit)

OPERATING CONDITIONS
Pressure altitude
...... J-1 J-2 J-3 J-4
.........
J-5
S.L. 1.000 1.000 2,500 3,000
Outside air temp. +40°F. +32°F. +24°F. +50°F. +95°F.
Runway length 9,500 7,000 8,500 9,000 8,000
Runway slope 0% 0% +2% -2% 0%
Headwind comp. (kts.) -- -- 30 10 20
Tailwind comp. (kts.) 5 10 -- -- --
Flap position 25 20 15 5 20
Air cond. bleed air OFF ON ON OFF ON
t
AUTOPACK TRIP inop. NO YES NO YES NO
ENG FAIL WARN LT inop. YES NO YES NO YES
6th stage bleed air OFF OFF ON OFF ON
Engine anti-ice ON OFF OFF OFF OFF

Figure 34

592. Determine the field length limit 595. Determine the field length limit gross
gross weight for Operating Condi- weight for Operating Conditions J-4.
Y14 tions J-1. (Fig. 33, page 85; Y14 (Fig. 33, page 85; Fig. 34)
Fig. 34)
1- 184,200 pounds
1- 197,500 pounds 2- 180,000 pounds
2- 202,600 pounds 3- 177,000 pounds
3- 207,000 pounds 4- 175,500 pounds
4- 209,200 pounds

596. Determine the field length limit gross

593. Determine the field length limit weight for Operating Conditions J-5.
gross weight for Operating Condi- Y14 (Fig. 33, page 85; Fig. 34)
Y14 tions J-2. (Fig. 33, page 85;
Fig. 34) 1- 159,500 pounds
2- 164,200 pounds
1- 171,500 pounds 3- 168,500 pounds
2- 167,800 pounds 4- 170,800 pounds
3- 163,200 pounds
4- 158,500 pounds

594. Determine the field length limit

gross weight for Operating Condi-
Y14 tions J-3. (Fig. 33, page 85;
Fig. 34)

1- 195,500 pounds
2- 191,000 pounds
3- 186,500 pounds
4- 184,000 pounds

104
 Page 87
TAKEOFF
PERFORMANCE BASED ON 1 ANTISKID OPERATIVE (ANTISKID INOP SEE TEXT)
2 A/C BLEED ON
3 AUTOPACK TRIP OPERATIVE
AVERAGE TAKecor Leh A/C BLEED ON 4 ENGINE FAILURE WARNING LIGHT OPERATIVE
NOTE. OETERMINE AVERAGE TAKEOFF EPR FROM TABLE.
PRESS ALT t. FI 67 TO 9 .4 14 50 68 86 104 122 WITH 8th STAGE BLEED ON AT 10°C 150eFl ANO
FT C1.55 TO 23 20 10 0 10 20 30 40 WARMER, REDUCE CLIMB LIMIT WEIGHT BY 4400 LB
1000 205 2.05 2 05 2.05 2.05 2.05 2.05 1.99 42000 KG) S FIELO LIMIT WT BY 1800 LB 1800 KGI.
1.90
FOR ENGINE A/I ON REDUCE AVERAGE EPR BY .01.
S.L. 2.10 2.10 2.10 2.102.16 2.10 2.09 1.99 1.90 STRUCTURAL WEIGHT LIMITS MUST BE OBSERVED
1000 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.152.14 2.12 2.09 1.99 1.9c)
2030 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.20 2.15 2.14 2.09 1.99 1.90 LIMI RUNWAY LIMIT
3000 2.27 2.27 2.26 220 2.15 2.14 2.09 1 99 1.90 AUTOPACK TRIP INOP -2700 -800 L8
3656 &ABOVE 2.31 2.30 2.26 2.20 2.15 2.14 2.09 1 90 1.90 ENG FAIL WARN LT INOP . 0 '2400 LB
..... ................. I. . 4
: ....
.:4
.
41 ....
I I 14
210
... 4
4-0. .
. ...
. 4 ...
:::1
I ....
4:7711117
.... ....
I 4

.-a.-

... ...
."° 200
co
..... ......
I
O

: . : ...
....
...
-190
;
I 41,;,k

:woo :.:. . . . ... .

: : !''
:

... .
.. 4

.0.00. ...O.

.... 4

die 00

4.4.

4
.
..1 7.7:" 160
0 4 62 8 10 515 20 25
PRESSURE ALTITUDE FLAP POSITION
1000 FT
Figure 35

1
Page 88

TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE (Climb Limit)

r
',I INS ,- .
,-3 ,-4 ,-5
Pressure altitude Bonn 1.000 3.000 2-500 1.000
Outside air temp. +95°F. +59°F. +85°F. +32°F. +23°F.
AUTOPACK TRIP inop. YES NO YES NO YES
ENG FAIL WARN LT inop. NO YES NO NO YES
[Link] bleed air ON ON ON ON OFF
Engine anti-ice OFF ON OFF OFF ON
Flap position 15 20 25 20 15

Figure 36

597. Determine the climb limit gross 600. Determine the climb limit gross
weight using the necessary infor- weight using the necessary informa-
Y14 mation in Operating Conditions K-1. Y14 tion in Operating Conditions K-4.
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 36) (Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 36)

1- 164,900 pounds 1- 202,500 pounds

2- 169,800 pounds 2- 201,700 pounds
3- 173,900 pounds 3- 198,500 pounds
4- 175,800 pounds 4- 194,000 pounds

598. Determine the climb limit gross 601. Determine the climb limit gross
weight using the necessary infor- weight using the necessary informa-
Y14 mation in Operating Conditions K- 2. Y14 tion in Operating Conditions K-5.
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 36) (Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 36)

1- 197,100 pounds 1- 198,800 pounds

2- 195,300 pounds 2- 204,800 pounds
3- 192,700 pounds 3- 208,800 pounds
4- 187,600 pounds 4- 210,000 pounds

599. Determine the climb limit gross

weight using the necessary infor-
Y14 mation in Operating Conditions K-3.
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 36)

1- 157,900 pounds
2- 161,800 pounds
3- 163,700 pounds
4- 161,500 pounds
 Page 89

TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE (Climb Limit)

OPERATING CONDITIONS L-1 L-2 1-3 L-4 L-5

Pressure altitude 2.700 S.L. 4.300 3.900 4.100
Outside air temp. +49°F. 467°F. +14°F. +87°F. +23°F.
AUTOPACK TRIP inop. NO YES NO NO YES
ENG FAIL WARN LT inop. YES NO YES YES YES
6th stage bleed air ON ON OFF ON ON
Engine anti-ice ON OFF ON OFF ON
Flap position 15 20 5 20 25

Figure 37

602. Determine the climb limit gross 605. Determine the climb limit gross
weight using the necessary infor- weight using the necessary infor-
Y14 mation in Operating Conditions L-1 Y14 mation in Operating Conditions L-4
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 37) (Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 37)

1- 204,800 pounds 1- 159,500 pounds

2- 201,500 pounds 2- 164,600 pounds
3- 199,000 pounds 3- 170,000 pounds
4- 195,000 pounds 4- 173,500 pounds

603. Determine the climb limit gross 606. Determine the climb limit gross
weight,using the necessary infor- weight using the necessary infor-
Y14 mation in Operating Conditions L-2. Y14 mation in Operating Conditions L-5
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 37) (Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 37)

1- 199,500 pounds 1- 175,500 pounds

2- 197,800 pounds 2- 170,300 pounds
3- 193,000 pounds 3- 165,000 pounds
4- 188,900 pounds 4- 163,000 pounds

604. Determine the climb limit gross

weight using the necessary infor-
Y14 mation in 0erating Conditions L-3.
(Fig. 35, page 87; Fig. 37)

1- 208,500 pounds
2- 203,500 pounds
3- 198,800 pounds
4- 195,500 pounds
Page 90

MAX CLIMB EPR

OPERATING COUITIONS M-1 M-2 M-3 M -4 M -5

Flight Level 250 300 200
1 300 350
Indicated Mach .78 .80 .84 .80 .74
Air cond. air bleed:
Engs. 1 & 3 OFF OFF ON ON OFF
' Eng. 2 OFF ON OFF ON ON
Engine anti-ice:
Engs. 1 & 3 ON OFF OFF ON ON
Eng. 2 ON OFF OFF ON ON
Engine/Wing anti- ice:
(Two eng. bleed) OFF ON OFF OFF OFF
Engs. I & 3
(One eng. bleed) OFF OFF ON OFF OFF
(Two eng. bleed) ON OFF OFF OFF
Eng. 2
(One eng. bleed) OFF OFF ON OFF I OFF

Figure 3B

607. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR 610. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR
for Operating Conditions M-1? for Operating Conditions M-4?
Y25 (Fig. 38 and Fig. 39) Y25 (Fig. 38 and Fig. 39)

Engines 1& 3 Engine 2 Engines 1& 3 Engine 2

1- 2.09 2.04. 1- 2.03 2.09

2- 2.09 2.24 2- 2.09 2.03
3- 2.16 2.16 3- 2.15 2.17
4- 2.10 2.16 4- 2.17 2.23

60B. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR 611. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR
for Operating Conditions M-2? for Operating Conditions M-5?
Y25 (Fig. 38 and Fig. 39) Y25 (Fig. 3B and Fig. 39)

Euines 1& 3 Engine 2 Engines 1& 3 Engine 2

1- 2.09 2.31 1- 2.23 2.08

2- 2.25 2.15 2- 2.21 2.20
3- 2.08 2.03 3- 2.03 2.29
4- 2.17 2.15 4- 2.23 2.09

609. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR

for Operating Conditions M-3?
Y25 (Fig. 38 and Fig. 39)

Engines 1 & 3 Engine 2

1- 1.88 1.77
2- 2.01 2.12
3- 1.94 2.00
4- 1.77 1.88

1
 Page 91
. MAX CLIMB EPR
ENG 1 & 3 A/C BLEED
MAX CLIMB EPR ENG 2 NO BLEED
PRESS TAT °C
ALT
FT ENG -40 -35 -30 -25 -20 -15 -10 -5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
1 & 3 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.03 1.97 1.93 1.88 1.84 1.79 1.75 1.72 1.68 1.64
S.L.
2 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1,67
1 & 3 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.13 2.08 2.03 1.97 1.93 1.88 1.84 1.79 1.75 1.72 1.68 1.64
1000
2 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
2000
1 i 3 2.19 2.19 2.19 2.19 2.19 2.19 2.18 2.13 2.08 2.03 1.97 1.93 1.88 1.84 1.79 1.75 1.72 1.68 1.64
2 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.21 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
1 & 3 2.24 2.24 2.24 2.24 2.23 2.21 2.17 2.13 2.08 2.02 1.97 1.92 1.88 1.83 1.79 1.75 1.71 1.67 1.63
3000
2 2.26 2.26 2.26 2.26 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
3900 TO 1 6 3 2.29 2.28 2.27 2.25 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.13 2.08 2.02 1.97 1.92 1.87 1.83 1.79 1.75 1.71 1.67 1.63
5000 2 2.32 2.31 2.29 2.28 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
1 i 3 2.28 2.27 2.26 2.24 2.22 2.20 2.16 2.12 2.07 2.01 1.96 1.91 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.66 1.62
10000
2 2.32 2.31 2.29 2.28 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
1 & 3 2.27 2.26 2.24 2.23 2.21 2.18 2.15 2.10 2.05 2.00 1.94 1.90 1.85 1.81 1.76 1.72 1.69 1.65 1.61
20000
2 2.32 2.31 2.29 2.28 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
1 6 3 2.25 2.24 2.23 2.21 2.19 2.17 2.13 2.09 2.04 1.98 1.93 1.88 1.83 1.79 1.75 1.71 1.67 1.63 1.59
30000
2 2.32 2.31 2.29 2.28 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2.11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
40000 i 1 i 3 2.23 2.22 2.20 2.19 2.17 2.14 2.11 2.06 2.01 1.96 1.90 1.86 1.81 1.77 1.72 1.68 1.65 1.61 1.57
ABOVE 2 2,32 2.31 2.29 2.28 2,26 2.23 2.20 2.16 2,11 2.05 2.00 1.95 1.90 1.86 1.82 1.78 1.74 1.70 1.67
EPR BLEED CORRECTIONS ENG 1 & 3 ENG 2
, S.L. OFF + .04 ON - .04
10000 FT OFF + .05 ON - .05
AIR CONDITIONING
20000 FT OFF + .07 ON - .07
30000 FT OFF + .08 ON - .08
AIR BLEED
V 40000 FT OFF + .11 ON - .10
TOTAL ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON - .08 - .12
ENG AND WINGITWO ENG BLEEDS - .17
TEMPERATURE ANTI-ICE ONE ENG BLEED - .17
- .12
_ AT ICA
NI.11171111111i
INDICATED MACH NUMBER
.-------
ALTITUDE 0 1 .401 .501 .601 .701 .741 .781 .801 .821 .841 .861 .881 .90 r .92 i

1000 FT
TOTAL TEMPERATURE AT ISA DEGREES C
I
36 TO 45 -56 -41 -35 -33 -30 -29 -27 -26 -24 -23 -21 -20
35 -54 -39 -33 -30 -28 -26 -25 -23 -22 -20 -19 -17
34 -52 -41 -36 -31 -28 -25 -24 -23 -21 -20 -18 -17 -15
33 -50 -39 -34 -29 -26 -23 -22 -20 -19 -17 -16 -14 -13
32 -48 -37 -32 -26 -24 -21 -20 -18 -17 -15 -14 -12 -10
31 -46 -35 -30 -24 -22 -19 -17 -16 -14 -13 -11 -10 -8
30 -44 -33 -28 -22 -19 -17 -15 -14 -12 -11 -9 -7 -6
29 -42 -31 -26 -20 -17 -14 -13 -11 -10 -8 -7 -5 -3
28 -40 -29 -24 -18 -15 -12 -11 -9 -8 -6 -4 -3 -1

27 -38 -27 -22 -15 -13 -10 -8 -7 -5 -4 -2 0 1

26 -37 -25 -19 -13 -11 -8 -6 -5 -3 -2 0 2 4
25 -35 -23 -17 -11 -8 -5 -4 -2 -] 1 2 4 6

24 -33 -25 -21 -15 -9 -6 -3 -2 0 1 3 5 6 8

23 -31 -23 -18 -13 -7 -4 -1 0 2 4 5 7 9 11
22 -29 -21 -16 -11 -5 -2 1' 3 4 6 8 9 11 13

21 -27 -19 -14 -9 -2 0 3 5 7 8 11 12 13

20 -25 -17 -12 -7 0 3 6 7 9 10 12 14
19 -23 -15 -10 -5 2 5 8 9 11 13 14
,

Figure 39
 Page 92

MAX CLIMB EPR

OPERATING COUITIONS N-1 N-2 N-3 N-4 N -5

Flight Level
200 400 190 400 300
Indicated Mach .84 .70 .74 .78 .74
Air cond. air bleed:
'

Engs. 1 & 3
OFF OFF ON OFF ON
Eng. 2
ON ON ON ON OFF
Engine anti-ice:
Engs. 1 & 3 ON OFF ON OFF OFF
Eng. 2
ON OFF OFF OFF ON
Engine/Wing anti-ice:
(Two eng. bleed) OFF ON
Engs. 1 & 3 OFF OFF ON
(One eng. bleed) OFF OFF OFF ON OFF
(Two eng. bleed) OFF ON
Eng. 2 OFF OFF OFF
(One eng. bleed) OFF OFF OFF ON OFF

Figure 40

612. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR 615. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR
for Operating Conditions M-5?
Y25 for Operating Conditions M-2?
(Fig. 39, page 91; Fig. 40) Y25 (Fig. 39, page 91; Fig. 40)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 2.09 2.05 1- 2.31 2.07
2- 1.93 1.81 2- 2.31 2.19
3- 2.01 2.07 3- 2.20 2.29
4- 1.94 2.00 4- 2.14 2.07

613. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR 616. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR
for Operating Conditions M-4?
Y25 for Operating Conditions M-1?
(Fig. 39, page 91; Fig. 40) Y25 (Fig. 39, page 91; Fig. 40)
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 2.33 2.21 1- 2.02 2.14
2- 2.11 2.41 2- 2.19 2.14
3- 2.16 2.09 3- 2.26 2.14
4- 2.22 2.31 4- 2.19 2.26

614. What should be the MAX CLIMB EPR

for Operating Conditions M-3?
Y25 (Fig. 39, page 91; Fig. 40)

Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2

1- 2.13 2.11
2- 1.97 2.04
3- 1.92 1.98
4- 2.05 2.11

119
 Page 93

620. What should be the IAS and total fuel

required to hold at 20,000 feet pressure
Y30 altitude for 15 minutes at a gross weight
Ern of 135,000 pounds? (Fig. 41)
ITS
1A8 PER ENG .. L8/HR
FF t BOLDING! I-727
1- 216 knots; 1,890 pounds
PRESSURE GROSS WEIGPT - 1000 LB
ALTITUDE 2- 216 knots; 7,560 pounds
rr 200 1 190 180 170 180 150 140 130 120 3- 214 knots; 2,520 pounds
1.85 1.81 1.77 1.73 1.69 1.64 1.60 1.55 1.51
25000 268 281 253 248 238 230 222 213 205 4- 212 knots; 2,520 pounds
3600 3400 3210 3030 2880 2880 2510 2340 2180
1.69 1.88 1.82 1.59 1.55 1.51 1.48 1.44 1.40
20000 285 258 251 244 236 228 220 212 204
3630 3450 3280 3110 2940 2770 2600 2440 2270 621. After level-off at FL 290, cruise EPR
1.56 1.53 1.50 1.47 1.44 1.41 1.38 1.35 1.32
15000 263 258 249 242 235 227 219 211 203 is set at 1.84. If the airplane gross
3870 3500 3340 3170 3000 2850 2880 2520 2350 Y26 weight is 164,000 pounds, what indi-
1.45 1.43 1.40 1.38 1.35 1.33 1.30 1.28 1.25
10000 282 255 248 241 234 228 218 210 202 cated cruise Mach should be obtained?
3800 3840 3480 3310 3140 2970 2810 2840 2480 (Fig. 42, page 94)
1.36 1.34 1.32 1.30 1.28 1.28 1.24 1.22 1.20
5000 280 254 247 240 233 225 218 210 201
3890 3720 3550 3380 3220 3080 2890 2730 2580 1- .83 Mach
2- .81 Mach
3- .79 Mach
Figure 41
4- .75 Mach

617. What should be the EPR, airspeed,

622. What EPR setting is required at FL 310
and total fuel required to hold
to cruise at .82 Mach if the airplane
Y30 for 20 minutes at 20,000 feet
Y26 gross weight is 173,000 pounds?
pressure altitude at a gross weight
(Fig. 42, page 94)
of 165,000 pounds? (Fig. 41)
1- 1.97
1- 1.55 EPR; 240 knots;
2- 1.93
2,940 pounds
3- 1.91
2- 1.57 EPR; 240 knots;
4- 1.89
3,025 pounds
3- 1.57 EPR; 240 knots;
9,075 pounds
623. The airplane's gross weight has decreased
4- 1.59 EPR; 244 knots;
from 178,000 to 168,000 pounds. To
3,110 pounds
Y26 maintain .80 cruise Mach at FL 300, what
decrease in the EPR setting should be
made? (Fig. 42, page 94)
618. What should be the total amount
of fuel required to hold for 20
1- .07
Y30 minutes at 8,000 feet pressure
2- .05
altitude at a gross weight of
3- .03
155,000 pounds? (Fig. 41)
4- .01

1- 3,653 pounds
2- 3,122 pounds
624. After level-off at FL 340, cruise EPR
3- 2,980 pounds
is set at 1.98. If the airplane gross
4- 2,795 pounds
Y26 weight is 160,000 pounds, what indicated
cruise Mach should be obtained?
(Fig. 42, page 94)
619. What should be the approximate
EPR, airspeed, and total fuel
1- .83 Mach
Y30 required to hold at 8,000 feet
2- .82 Mach
pressure altitude for 20 minutes
3- .80 Mach
at a gross weight of 140,000
4- .76 Mach
pounds? (Fig. 41)

625. At level-off, the airplane gross weight

1- 1.30 EPR; 216 knots;
is 182,000 pounds. What EPR is required
8,574 pounds
Y26 to cruise at .82 Mach at FL 260?
2- 1.28 EPR; 216 knots;
(Fig. 42, page 94)
8,574 pounds
3- 1.28 EPR; 218 knots;
1- 1.90
2,858 pounds
2- 1.88
4- 1.26 EPR; 218 knots;
3- 1.85
2,858 pounds
4- 1.82
Page 94
CRUISE EPR
REQUIRED

200

160

140

120

Figure 42

112
 Page 95

INITIAL
FUEL
ENDING FUEL WEIGHT - 1000 LB
WEIGHT
1000 LB 410 14 181 22 261 30 34 38 42 46 50 54 58 162 66 70
70 28 2/1 25 23 22 20 18 17 15 13 12 10 8 5 3 0
66 26 25 23 21 20 18 16 15 13 11 10 8 5 3 0
62 23 '23 20 18 17 15 13 12 10 8 7 5 3 0
58 21 20 18 16 15 13 11 10 8 6 5 3 0
54 18 16 15 13 12 10 B 7 5 3 2 0
50 16 15 13 12 10 8 7 5 3 2 0
46 15 13 12 10 8 7 5 3 2 0
42 13 12 10 8 7 5 3 2 0
38 12 10 8 7 5 3 2 0
34 10 8 7 5 3 2 0 FUEL DUMP TIME
30 8 7 5 3 2 0
26 7 5 3 2 0 I
22 5 3 2 0 FUEL JETTISON
18 3 2 0 TIME-MINUTES

0
14
10
2
0
0
II II _ 1 1

Figure 43

626. What should be the EPR and total fuel 629. How long should it take to dump enough
required to hold for 25 minutes at fuel to reach a gross weight of 156,500
Y30 20,000 feet pressure altitude at a Y31 pounds? (Fig. 43)
gross weight of 155,000 pounds?
(Fig. 41, page 93) Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 166,500 lbs.
1- 1.51 EPR; 3,569 pounds Zero fuel weight- - - - 136,500 lbs.
2- 1.53 EPR; 3,569 pounds
3- 1.53 EPR; 2,855 pounds 1- 4 minutes
4- 1.55 EPR; 2,855 pounds 2- 5 minutes
3- 7 minutes
4- 8 minutes
627 How long should it take to dump
enough fuel to reach a maximum
Y31 gross weight of 155,000 pounds? 630. How long should it take to dump enough
(Fig. 43) fuel to reach a maximum landing weight
Y31 of 142,500 pounds? (Fig. 43)
Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 163,800 lbs. Zero fuel weight- - - - 132,500 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 133,800 lbs. Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 176,500 lbs.
1- 9 minutes
2- 7 minutes 1- 15 minutes
3- 6 minutes 2- 14 minutes
4- 4 minutes 3- 12 minutes
4- 11 minutes

628. How long should it take to dump

enough fuel to have 16,000 pounds 631 How long should it take to dump enough
Y31 of fuel remaining? (Fig. 43) fuel to have 18,000 pounds of fuel
Y31 remaining? (Fig. 43)
Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 165,000 lbs. Zero fuel weight- - - - 137,000 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 135,000 lbs. Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 167,000 lbs.
1- 8 minutes
2- 7 minutes 1- 5 minutes
3- 6 minutes 2- 6 minutes
4- 5 minutes 3- 7 minutes
4- 8 minutes
 Page 96

632. How long should it take to dump a 636. How long should it take to dump a
sufficient amount of fuel to reach sufficient amount of fuel to reach
Y31 a maximum weight of 154,500 pounds? Y31 a maximum weight of 155,000 pounds
(Fig. 43, page 95)
when the airplane zero fuel weight
is 133,800 pounds? (Fig. 43, page 95)
Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 164,500 lbs.
Airplane gross weight
Zero fuel weight- - - - 134,500 lbs.
at start of dump- - - 163,800 lbs.
1- 4 minutes 1- 9 minutes
2- 6 minutes 2- 7 minutes
3- 7 minutes 3- 6 minutes
4- 8 minutes 4- 4 minutes

633. How long should it take to dump a 637 How long should it take to dump enough
sufficient amount of fuel to have fuel so that 10,000 pounds of fuel will
Y31 16,000 pounds of fuel remaining? Y31 remain? (Fig. 43, page 95)
(Fig. 43, page 95)
Airplane gross weight
Airplane gross weight at start of dump- - - 179,500 lbs.
at start of dump- - - 165,000 lbs. Zero fuel weight- - - 135,500 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 135,000 lbs.
1- 12 minutes
1- 5 minutes 2- 13 minutes
2- 6 minutes 3- 14 minutes
3- 7 minutes 4- 15 minutes
4- 8 minutes

638. How long should it take to dump enough

634. How long should it take to dump a fuel to reach a gross weight of 154,500
sufficient amount of fuel so that Y31 pounds? (Fig. 43, page 95)
Y31 10,000 pounds of fuel will remain?
(Fig. 43, page 95)
Airplane gross weight
at start of dump- - - 164,500 lbs.
Airplane gross weight Zero fuel weight- - - - 134,500 lbs.
at start of dump- - - 179,500 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 135,500 lbs. 1- 8 minutes
2- 7 minutes
1- 11 minutes 3- 5 minutes
2- 12 minutes 4- 4 minutes
3- 14 minutes
4- 16 minutes
639. How long should it take to dump enough
fuel to reach a maximum landing weight
635. How long should it take to dump a Y31 of 143,500 pounds? (Fig. 43, page 95)
sufficient amount of fuel to reach
Y31 a maximum weight of 142,500 pounds? Airplane gross weight
(Fig. 43, page 95) at start of dump- - - 175,500 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 131,500 lbs.
Zero fuel weight- - - - 132,500 lbs.
Airplane gross weight 1- 15 minutes
at start of dump- - - 176,500 lbs. 2- 13 minutes
3- 12 minutes
1- 16 minutes 4- 11 minutes
2- 14 minutes
3- 12 minutes
4- 11 minutes
 Page 97

640. What should be the VREF and maneuvering 644. What should be the maneuvering speed
speed for FLAPS 30? (Fig. 44, page 98) for 154,000 pounds? (Fig. 44, page 98)
Y33 Y33
Airplane gross weight- - - 157,500 lbs. FLAPS 40
Surface wind (RWY 24)- - - 240°/10 knots Surface wind (RWY 35) - 350° 15G 25 knots

1- 135 knots 1- 139 knots

2- 137 knots 2- 143 knots
3- 139 knots 3- 145 knots
4- 143 knots 4- 150 knots

641. What should be the EPR setting for all 645. What should be the EPR setting for all
engines? (Fig. 44, page 98) engines? (Fig. 44, page 98)
Y33 Y33
Pressure altitude 2,500 feet Pressure altitude 1,000 feet
Outside air temperature- - 62°F. OAT 87°F.
A/C Bleeds: A/C Bleeds: Eng. 1 & 3- - ON
Eng. 1 & 3 ON Eng. 2- - - - ON
Eng. 2 OFF
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2_
Enlh 1 & 3 Eng. 2
1- 2.04 2.06
1- 2.12 2.15 2- 2.06 2.08
2- 2.15 2.12 3- 2.04 2.04
3- 2.08 2.19 4- 2.06 2.04
4- 2.16 2.11

646. What should be the EPR settings for all

642. that should be the EPR setting for all engines? (Fig. 44, page 98)
engines? (Fig. 44, page 98) Y33
Y33 Outside air temperature- - +87°F.
Pressure altitude - - - - 3,000 feet Pressure altitude 4,300 feet
OAT 0°F. A/C Bleeds: Eng. 1 & 3- - NORMAL
Engine and wing anti-ice: Eng. 2- - - - ON
One engine bleed- -
all engines ON Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
A/C Bleeds:
Eng. 1 & 3 OFF 1- 2.02 2.04
Eng. 2 ON 2- 2.06 2.04
3- 2.04 2.06
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 4- 2.06 2.08

1- 2.20 2.17
2- 2.27 2.20 647. What should be the EPR settings for all
3- 2.14 2.24 engines? (Fig. 44, page 98)
4- 2.18 2.20 Y33
Pressure altitude 4,600 feet
Outside air temperature- - +5°F.
643. What should be the EPR setting for all Engine and wing anti-ice:
engines? (Fig. 44, page 98) Eng. 1, 2, & 3:
Y33 One engine bleed - - - - ON
Outside air temperature - -10°F. A/C Bleeds: Normal bleed conditions
Pressure altitude - - - - 2,000 feet
Engine and wing anti-ice: Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2
Two engine bleeds- -
all engines ON 1- 2.25 2.25
A/C Bleeds: 2- 2.23 2.21
Eng. 1 & 3 OFF 3- 2.17 2.26
Eng. 2 ON 4- 2.26 2.26

Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2

1- 2.13 2.13
2- 2.17 2.09
3- 2.22 2.16
4- 2.09 2.17
Page 98
GO AROUND EPR
JT8D-15 AND LANDING SPEEDS

NORMAL BLEED CONDITIONS

GO AROUND EPR
OAT -82 -10 18 -27
10 38 47 55 69 73 83 91 100 110 119
PRESSURE
C -63 -23 -18 -13
-8 -3 3 8 13 18 23 28 33 38 43 48
ALTITUDE FT TAT C -60 -20 -15 -10
-5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
10 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 2.02 1.99 1.94 1.89
-1000
2 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.04 2.01 1.97 1.91
163 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.07 2.04 1.99 1.94 1.89
SEA LEVEL
2 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.09 .:.06 2.01 1.97 1.91
163 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.09 2.09 2.09 2.08 2.04 1.99 1.94 1.89
1000 z 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.15 2.12 2.12 2.12 2.10 2.06 2.01 1.97 1.91
----P-' ti
2

z 10 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.17 2.13 2.12 2.12 2.10 2.08 2.04 1.99 1.94 1.89
2000 w
2 2.20 2.20 2.20 2.20 2.20 2.20 2.19 2.16 2.15 2.15 2.13 2.10 2.06 2.01 1.97 1.91

3000
10 2.24 2,24 2.24 2.24 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.13 2.12 2.12 2.10 2.08 2.04 1.99 1.94 1.89
2 2.27 2.27 2.27 2.27 2.25 2.22 2.19 2.16 2.15 2.15 2.13 2.10 2.06 2.01 1.97 1.91

3900 AND 10 2,30 2.30 2.28 2.26 2.23 2.20 2.17 2.13 2.12 2.12 2.10 2.08 2.04 1.99 1.94 1.89
ABOVE 2 2.32 2.32 2.30 2.28 2.25 2.22 2.19 2.16 2.15 2.15 2.13 2.10 2.06 2.01 1.97 1.91

EPR BLEED CORRECTIONS ENG 163 ENG 2

OFF ON
A/C BLEEDS
+.04 -.04
ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON
TWO ENGINE
-.09 -.03
ENGINE AND WING BLEEDS
ANTI-ICE ONE ENGINE
-.10 -.03
BLEED

FLAP EXTENSION/ LANDING

MANEUVERING SPEEDS SPEEDS
BELOW 154,501 SPEED
GROSS WT
V
154,500 TO 176,000 1000 LB REF-
APPROACH NORMAL 180 147
FLAPS
MANEUVERING SPEED 175 145
0 200 210 170 142
2 190 200 165 139
5 160 170 160 136
15 150 160 155 133
25 140 150 150 130
30 V V +4 145 127
REF
40
140 125
VRE F VRE F 135 122
ADD WIND FACTOR OF: 130 119
1/2 HEADWIND COMPONENT 125 116
+ GUST (MAX: 20 KTS) 120 113
115 110
110 108

Figure 44
 Page 99

648. What is the cruise pressure altitude 652. What should be the EPR setting for all
most appropriate for an IFR westbound engines? (Fig. 44)
Y41 flight above FL 180 if the trip distance Y33
is 235 NM and the OAT is ISA +10°C? Pressure altitude 3,500 feet
(Fig. 45, page 100) OAT 71°F.
A/C Bleeds:
1- FL 220 Eng. 1 & 3 OFF
2- FL 240 Eng. 2 ON
3- FL 260
4- FL 280 Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2

1- 2.15 2.11
649. What should be the EPR setting for 2- 2.07 2.18
all engines? (Fig. 44) 3- 2.11 2.14
Y33 4- 2.15 2.10
Pressure altitude- - - - 4,100 feet
OAT 5°F.
Engine and wing anti-ice: 653. What should be the EPR setting for all
One engine bleed- - engines with engine anti-ice ON?
all engines ON Y33 (Fig. 44)
A/C Bleeds:
Eng. 1 & 3 ON Pressure altitude 2,000 feet
Eng. 2 OFF OAT 71°F.

Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2

1- 2.13 2.24 1- 2.08 2.12

2- 2.19 2.28 2- 2.14 2.11
3- 2.19 2.19 3- 2.11 2.11
4- 2.28 2.28 4- 2.11 2.14

650. What should be the landing speed and 654. What is the cruise pressure altitude
maneuvering speed? (Fig. 44) most appropriate for an IFR eastbound
Y33 Y41 flight above FL 180 if the trip distance
Airspeed gross weight- - - 142,500 lbs. is 310 N4 and the OAT is ISA +5°C?
Wind factor 24G 30 knots (Fig. 45, page 100)
Flaps 30
1- FL 330
Landing Maneuvering 2- FL 310
Speed Speed 3- FL 300
4- FL 290
1- 130 138
2- 126 142
3- 130 150 655. What is the cruise pressure altitude
4- 126 144 most appropriate for an IFR eastbound
Y41 flight above FL 180 if the trip distance
is 255 NM and the OAT is ISA -10°C?
651. What should be the EPR setting for all (Fig. 45, page 100)
engines? (Fig. 44)
Y33 1- FL 290 or FL 310
Outside air temperature - - 62°F. 2- FL 270 or FL 310
Pressure altitude 2,500 feet 3- FL 290 or FL 330
A/C Bleeds: 4- FL 310 or FL 340
Eng. 1 & 3 ON
Eng. 2 OFF
656. What is the cruise pressure altitude
Eng. 1 & 3 Eng. 2 most appropriate for an IFR westbound
Y41 flight above FL 180 if the trip distance
1- 2.12 2.15 is 275 NM and the OAT is ISA?
2- 2.14 2.14 (Fig. 45, page 100)
3- 2.11 2.12
4- 2.14 2.11 1- FL 280
2- FL 300
3- FL 310
4- FL 320

1
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 Page 101

SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING

OPERATING CONDITIONS 0-1 0-2 0-3 0-4 0-5

Trip distance (NM) 1,000 700 1,300 500 1,500
Average wind factor +100 kts. +25 kts. -75 kts. -25 kts. +60 kts.
Cruise press. alt. FL 250 FL 290 FL 310 FL 190 FL 350
Outside air temp. -25°C. -48°C. -37°C. -13°C. -50°C.
Landing weight 125,000 131,000 105,000 135,000 140,000

Figure 46

663. Determine the approximate amount of 666. Determine the approximate amount of
time and fuel required under Condi- time and fuel required under Condi-.
Y40 tions 0-1. (Fig. 46; Fig. 47, Y40 tions 0-4. (Fig. 46; Fig. 47,
page 102) page 102)

1- 2 hours 00 minutes; 1- 1 hour 25 minutes;

19,800 pounds. 16,500 pounds.
2- 1 hour 50 minutes; 2- 1 hour 20 minutes;
18,000 pounds. 16,300 pounds.
3- 2 hours 10 minutes; 3- 1 hour 10 minutes;
21,000 pounds. 15,800 pounds.
4- 2 hours 20 minutes; 4- 1 hour 00 minutes;
23,500 pounds. 14,000 pounds.

664. Determine the approximate amount of 667. Determine the approximate amount of
time and fuel required under Condi- time and fuel required under Condi-
Y40 tions 0-2. (Fig. 46; Fig. 47, Y40 tions 0-5. (Fig. 46; Fig. 47,
page 102) page 102)

1- 1 hour 55 minutes; 1- 3 hours 10 minutes;

16,900 pounds. 27,800 pounds.
2- 1 hour 50 minutes; 2- 3 hours 00 minutes;
16,000 pounds. 26,000 pounds.
3- 1 hour 40 minutes; 3- 2 hours 50 minutes;
14,800 pounds. 24,500 pounds.
4- 1 hour 30 minutes; 4- 2 hours 45 minutes;
14,000 pounds. 23,500 pounds.

665. Determine the approximate amount of

time and fuel required under Condi-
Y40 tions 0-3. (Fig. 46; Fig. 47,
page 102)

1- 3 hours 30 minutes;
30,000 pounds.
2- 3 hours 25 minutes;
27,500 pounds.
3- 3 hours 20 minutes;
26,000 pounds.
4- 3 hours 10 minutes;
25,500 pounds.

119
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Figure 47
 Page 103

SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING

I P-1 P-2 P-3 P -4 p-5

OPERATING CONDITIONS
Trip distance (NI1) 800 1.100 900 1,200 1,400

Average wind factor -25 kts. +75 kts. -60 kts. -50 kts. +50 kts.

Cruise press. alt. FL 210 FL 230 FL 290 FL 340 FL 330

Outside air temp. -32°C. -41°C. -33°C. -43°C. -56 °C.

Landing weight 140,000 140,000 135,000 125,000 130,000

Figure 48

668. What is the approximate time and fuel 671. What is the approximate time and fuel
required under Conditions 0-5? required under Conditions 0-2?
Y40 (Fig. 47 and Fig. 48) Y40 (Fig. 47 and Fig. 48)

1- 2 hours 10 minutes; 1- 3 hours 15 minutes;

27,000 pounds. 28,500 pounds.
2- 2 hours 00 minutes; 2- 3 hours 05 minutes;
24,600 pounds. 26,000 pounds.
3- 1 hour 50 minutes; 3- 2 hours 55 minutes;
23,500 pounds. 24,500 pounds.
4- 1 hour 45 minutes; 4- 2 hours 45 minutes;
22,000 pounds. 22,500 pounds.

669. What is the approximate time and fuel 672. What is the approximate time and fuel
required under Conditions 0-4? required under Conditiorls 0-1?
Y40 (Fig. 47 and Fig. 48) Y40 (Fig. 47 and Fig. 48)

1- 2 hours 25 minutes; 1- 3 hours 05 minutes;

27,800 pounds. 27,500 pounds.
2- 2 hours 20 minutes; 2- 3 hours 00 minutes;
26,000 pounds. 26,500 pounds.
3- 2 hours'15 minutes; 3- 2 hours 50 minutes;
25,800 pounds. 24,000 pounds.
4- 2 hours 05 minutes; 4- 2 hours 52 minutes;
24,000 pounds. 22,500 pounds.

670. What is the approximate time and fuel

required under Conditions 0-3?
Y40 (Fig. 47 and Fig. 48)

1- 2 hours 15 minutes;
22,500 pounds.
2- 2 hours 10 minutes;
18,800 pounds.
3- 2 hours 05 minutes;
18,000 pounds.
4- 2 hours 00 minutes;
17,600 pounds.
 Page 104

CHECK POINTS
FLIGHT_ TIME ANALYSIS
ROUTE WIND FACTOR SPEED -KNOTS
MACH TIME FUEL CONSUMPTIONS
DIST
ALTITUDE I NO. _ (POUNDS)
FROM 1 TO 'camo N' M '
A

..LLIAC VEIL TEMPERATURE TAS LEG TOTAL

?PEE LEG TOTAL.

EL PASO J2-5 0
LEVEL A
INTL. OFF -- 85 -- :15 --
CLIMB - -- --
*5,500

LEVEL SSO -----.

1-.J -50
--- -35 knots
OFF VORTAC FL 310
.

,
ISA -3°C.
.

SSO CZG J4-50 -35 knots

VORTAC VORTAC FL 310 ISA -3°C.

CZG TNP J4-104 -35 knots

VORTAC VORTAC FL 310 ISA -3°C.
.
TNP
TNP CIVET CIVET 1
VORTAC INT.
.,
FL 310
..
LOS - - -- -
CIVET ANGELES
INT. INTL.
-- -- :11 1,200
DESCENT & APPROACH _
-
OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY
*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL 1..1;;;::;.gf:SS:aits
NOTE: Use 10,500 PPH total fuel flow from
level-off to the CIVET INT.
Use 9,400 PPH total fuel flow for RESERVE
MISSED
reserve requirement. -- 1.000 APPROACH
C "

Figure 49

Questions 673, 674, 675, and 676 refer to a flight from El

Angeles International Airport. Paso International Airport to Los
Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 49; (2) Enroute
High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 50, page 106; and (3)
STAR, Fig. 51, page 107.

673. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 675. What is the specific range in nautical
X11 1- 1 hour 43 minutes air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X14 level-off to the CZG VORTAC using .78
2- 1 hour 40 minutes
3-
Mach?
1 hour 37 minutes
4- 1 hour 34 minutes
1- 44.5 NAM/1,000
2- 43.3 NAM/1,000
674. 3- 41.2 NAM/1,000
What is the total fuel required
4- 39.9 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 25,200 pounds 676. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,000 pounds
3- be maintained to arrive over the CZG
26,800 pounds X13
4- VORTAC 28 minutes after level-off?
27,000 pounds
1- .84 Mach
2- .82 Mach
3- .80 Mach
4- .79 Mach
 Page 105

Questions 677, 678, 679, and 680 refer to a flight from El Paso International Airport to Los
Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 49; (2) Enroute
High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 50, page 106; and (3) STAR, Fig. 51, page 107.

677. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 679. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 38 minutes X14 level-off to the TNP VORTAC using .80
2- 1 hour 35 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 32 minutes
4- 1 hour 29 minutes 1- 45.4 NAM/1,000
2- 44.3 NAM/1,000
3- 43.1 NAM/1,000
678. What is the total fuel required 4- 40.9 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 27,500 pounds 680. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,800 pounds be maintained to arrive over the TNP
3- 25,700 pounds X13 VORTAC 58 minutes after level-off?
4- 25,000 pounds
1- .85 Mach
2- .84 Mach
3- .83 Mach
4- .81 Mach

Questions 681, 682, 683, and 684 refer to a flight from El Paso International Airport to Los
Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 49; (2) Enroute
High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 50, page 106; and (3) STAR, Fig. 51, page 107.

681. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 683. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 33 minutes X14 the SSO VORTAC to the TNP VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 30 minutes .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 27 minutes
4- 1 hour 25 minutes 1- 46.8 NAM/1,000
2- 45.4 NAM/1,000
3- 43.9 NAM/1,000
682. What is the total fuel required 4- 42.0 NAM/1,000
at .82 Mach?
X12
1- 26,500 pounds 684. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,400 pounds be maintained to arrive over the TNP
3- 23,300 pounds X13 VORTAC 48 minutes after passing the
4- 22,400 pounds SSO VORTAC?

1- .84 Mach
2- .83 Mach
3- .82 Mach
4- .81 Mach
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 Page 107
LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL
CIVET ONE ARRIVAL(CivEtavEn) LOS ANGELES. CAUFORNIA

NOTE: Rwy 24L/R ILS ond Jumbo

DME fix shown for information
only.
PEACH SPRINGS
NOTE: B-747 aircraft restricted to Rwy 24. H-2, L-5
Rwy 251 closed to DC-10 ond 1.-1011 over
325,000 pounds. DC-10 and 1-1011 not
authorized Rwy 25R.
HECTOR
NOTE: Expect altitude crossing of 10,000 and H.2, L.3
speed restriction of 250 kts. at Arnold/

DIKES

JUMBO
32 DME I.05S
"P\a4// II?
va,13\ Ad% ey EMMEY
TRANSITION
Chan 22 CIVET ' V7-1.b CV
\b'
7,0001511. (51x 6000
t -.-248 2- x-110441)2L/ -"--4173--2.562---cv
-4,248 (11) \(14) (54) W PARKER
01.51/ (173) 0/ V
55n, ots
068 RWY 25 L
ARNOLD * \i/Ab
% --k: TWENTYNINE PALMS
1.5

.,.., oBASSrmfrr,, 3.4 4 DME LAX ./ NAt, 114.2 TNP 89

`^^ 32. DME I-LAX
20.5 DME I-LAX tV1 0,,
.,_,u ,
1 THERMAL ( ro-ctsv
ONTARIO 116.2 TFtM 109 e., ,k
112.2 ONT 59 -x

cp

\I-74f RIAL
47 115.9 IPL 106
H-2, L3

NOTE: Chart not to scale

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL(civEtavEn) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

ARRIVAL ROUTE DESCRIPTION

DESERT TRANSTION (TNP.CIYET1): From over TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC

via TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence ....
HECTOR TRANSITION (HEC.CIVET1): From over HECTOR VORTAC via
HECTOR R-211 and ONTARIO R.030 to CIVET INT. Thence ....
IMPERIAL TRANSITION (IPL.CIVET1) From over IMPERIAL VORTAC via IMPERIAL
R-336 ond THERMAL R-107 ond R-287 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET
INT. Thence ..
PARKER TRANSITION (PKE.CIVET1): From over PARKER VORTAC vio PARKER
R-256 and TWENTYNINE PALMS R-075 to TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC. Via
TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence ... .
PEACH SPRINGS TRANSITION (PGS.CIVET1):From over PEACH SPRINGS
VORTAC via PEACH SPRINGS R-229 ond ONTARIO R-046 ond LOS ANGELES
R-068 to CIVET INT. Thence ... .
.... From CIVET INT. via LOS ANGELES ILS Rwy 25L Locolizer cost course/LAX
R.068 vio ARNOLD DME Fix to BASSETT INT. Expect ILS approach from Bassett
Int, expect altitude crossing of 10,000' and speed restriction of 250 kts. at
Arnold/Jumbo.

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES. CALIFORNIA

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

Figure 51
 Page 108

CHECK POINTS
FLIGHT TIME ANALYSIS
ROUTE WIND at TOR SPEED-KNOTS TIME FUEL CONSUMPTION

P ION TO
Al
ALTITUDE
MACH
NO.
GIND
DIST
N.M.
. IOUNDS)
IL
TEMPERATURE TAS LEG TOTAL LEG TOTAL
eSPEED
1
LOS RADAR
ANGELES SLI
VWTOR
INTL. VORTAC CLIMB ____

TRM [Link] ----

SLI VORTAC -- -- -- :12 ---
VORTAC _ _ _ _ *6,600
(LEVELOFF: CLIMB ,
. A

TRM [Link] +27 knots

BLH
VORTAC VORTAC FL 330 ISA_ 1°C. . w .

J50 +27 knots

BLH SSO
VORTAC VORTAC _FL 330 ISA 1°C.
J50 +27 knots
SSO ELP
VORTAC VORTAC FL 330 ISA 1°C.
1 ---
.
...-
__ __
ELP EL PASO -- -- --- :12 1,200
VORTAC INTL. DESCENT & APPROACH _ _ _

OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL );::::43;;;;S:ggi;1,:'
NOTE: Use 9,050 PPH total fuel flow from TRM INIOUTE
VORTAC (leveloff) to the ELP VORTAC.
I ESE I V E
Use 8,850 PPH total fuel flow for
reserve requirements. -- 1,200 74,1,5:5V:cH

Figure 52

Questions 685, 686, 687, and 688 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International
El Paso International Airport. Refer to the: Airport to
(1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 52; (2) SID,
Fig. 53, page 110; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig.
54, page 111.

685. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 687. What is the specific range in nautical
X11 1- air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel
1 hour 31 minutes X14
2- from level-off to the SSO VORTAC using
1 hour 29 minutes .78 Mach?
3- 1 hour 27 minutes
4- 1 hour 25 minutes 1- 52.9 NAM/1,000
2- 51.5 NAM/1,000
3- 49.9 NAM/1,000
686. What is the total fuel required 4- 48.7 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 26,500 pounds 688. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,400 pounds
be maintained to arrive over the SSO
3- 24,300 pounds X13 VORTAC 44 minutes after level-off?
4- 23,100 pounds
1- .81 Mach
2- .80 Mach
3- .79 Mach
4- .76 Mach
 Page 109

Questions 689, 690, 691, and 692 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International Airport tc
El Paso International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 52; (2) SID,
Fig. 53, page 110; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 54, page 111.

689. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 691. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 4 hours 25 minutes X14 level-off to the ELP VORTAC using .80
2- 3 hours 27 minutes Mach?
3- 2 hours 30 minutes
4- 1 hour 32 minutes 1- 54.2 NAM/1,000
2- 51.3 NAM/1,000
3- 49.9 NAM/1,000
690. What is the total fuel required 4- 48.3 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 27,500 pounds 692. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,300 pounds be maintained to arrive over the ELP
3- 25,100 pounds X13 VORTAC 1 hour and 7 minutes after
4- 24,200 pounds level-off?

1- .79 Mach
2- .78 Mach
3- .77 Mach
4- .76 Mach

Questions 693, 694, 695, and 696 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International Airport to
El Paso International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 52; (2) SID,
Fig. 53, page 110; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 54, page 111.

693. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 695. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 26 minutes X14 the BLH VORTAC to the ELP VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 24 minutes .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 22 minutes
4- 1 hour 20 minutes 1- 55.3 NAM/1,000
2- 53.5 NAM/1,000
3- 52.5 NAM/1,000
694. What is the total fuel required at 4- 50.1 NAM/1,000
.82 Mach?
X12
1- 24,900 pounds 696. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,800 pounds be maintained to arrive over the ELP
3- 26,000 pounds X13 VORTAC 53 minutes after passing the
4- 25,200 pounds BLH VORTAC?

1- .86 Mach
2- .85 Mach
3- .84 Mach
4- .83 Mach
 LOS AGELES ITL
SEAL BEACH FIVE DEPARTURE ([Link]) LOS ANGELES INTL
LOS ANGELESN, CALIFORNIA
SEAL BEACH FIVE DEPARTURE ([Link])
LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA
LOS ANGELES GND +CON
111.65(N1121,75(S)327.0
DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION
LOS ANGELES CLNC DEt
121.4 (Continued)
LOS ANGELES TOWER
S 118.9 379.1
Take-off Runway 7/6: Climb via heading 070° for vector to SEAL BEACH
14 120,11 239.3
VORTAC. Then via (transition) or (assigned route). Departure Control
LOS ANGELES DEP CON
121.3 363.2 frequency will be 124.3. Aircraft filing FL 240 or above expect further
ADS
NOTE, MAINTAIN BELOW dearance to filed flight level ten minutes after departure.
2500' 70 SHORELINE
135,65 WESTBOUND
OR SAN DIEGO FREEWAY
EASTBOUND TO AVOID 'FR
CORRIDOR THROUGH LOS ANGELES 1CA,
LOST COMMUNICATIONS: If not in contact with Departure Control after

reaching 2000', continue climb turn right direct SEAL BEACH VORTAC,

BLYTHE TRANSITION (SL1531.f1): Via SEAL BEACH R.080 and THERMAL

LOS ANGELES
4, 113.6 LAX R261 to THERMAL VORTAC. Then via THERMAL R.076 and BLYTHE R258
;) Chan 83 to BLYTHE VORTAC,
0 0

PARKER TRANSITION ([Link]): Via SEAL BEACH 8.080 and THERMAL

PARKER
117.9 PKE R261 to THERMAL VORTAC. Then via THERMAL R.054 and PARKER R234
To
than 126
To 2000 to PARKER VORTAC.
L.3,
3000

1,9 1111
.125)
10
09\ 01
o 051: 11
AFex did R261
h TloH cela SEAL BEACH (95) 131 R./58
LTA 0761
115.7 Su 55
THERMAL (70) Dikiio..1
Don 104
29 BLYTHE
116,2 TM
Chan 109 117,4 RH
Chon 121
NOTE THIS IS A RADAR VECTOR DEPARTURE
TO SEAL BEACH,
U3, 2
ROUTE DEPICTED IS A LOST COMMUNICATION
PROCEDURE
ONLY.

NOTE: Use the OCEAN SID noise obohmom

DEPARTURE during the period 2100 -0700
local time in bee of On' 510.

DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION UV 126

Take-off Runway 25/24: Climb via heading 2500

for vector to SEAL BEACH VORTAC. Then via
(transition) or (assigned route),Departure Control
frequency will ke 124.3. Aircraft filing FL 240
or above expectiurther clearance to filed flight level ten
minutes after departure. LOST COMMUNICATIONS:
If not in contact with Departure Control one minute
after crossing the shoreline or the LOS ANGELES
VORTAC R190 or R.305, turn left heading 210°
to 3000', continue climb via direct SEAL BEACH
VORTAC.

(Continued on next page)

09
SEAL BEACH FIVE DEPARTURE (Sit 511) Los
41,45,coo'N'A SEAL BEACH FIVE DEPARTURE (5115.511) WS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA
LOS ANGELES INTL
LOS ANGELES INTL
 Pres1011 Muni

PI TO SJN NORMALLY

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.711777A;;;;177 0
B
/11.5 1091.11
ABOVE 21

OTT ABHNicRF RNTITRIMIFEsS

11 13

410D0
300.000:1
4 1.110
GI MIMS

it R 510 7G 0

J1I %ITO PK NO
UNAVAugu, INAL V
MAR pay
1 4o l%
FullonvOTORs5410

11011.,N,
KO
.
Ilirldullifol
Ah Conif
COMIICIni:Mum1441

Awl,',11.051iddr
/00 10 ,

' HOLL031111

HMN 150.1

R2304
0 r1 2a0
SIAllist, mon
MON1111

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132
131
 Page 112

CHICK POINTS
FLIGHT TIME ANALYSIS PUIt CONSUMPTION
ROUTE WIND ACTON 711,1 ED-KNOTS T I MI
MACH DIST (POUNDS)
AtT)Tuom NO.
/ROM TO FIT 'Flirt TEMPERATURE TAS GINO N.M. tEG IOTA( lIG TOTAL
SPIED

[Link]
McCARRAN BLD 15 :03
INTL. VORTAC CLIMB

[Link]
BLD LEVEL 95 :14 *5,800
. VORTAC OFF CLIMB

MEAD3 PRC +35 knots

LEVEL PRC
OFF VORTAC Ft. '/10 ISA +6°C

J11 +35 knots

PRC PHX
VORTAC VORTAC FL 330 ISA +6°C.

J181 +35 knots

PHX TOP OF
VORTAC DESCENT FL 310 ISA +6°C.
Av.
TOP OF EL PASO 278 107 1,530
DESCENT INTL._ DESCENT & APPROACH knots

OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE.
NOTE:
TIME FUEL mom;
I NROU 1 E
Use 9,770 PPH total fuel flow from
level-off to top-of-descent.
RESERVE
Use 8,050 PPH total fuel flow for $

MISSED
reserve requirement.
.., --- 1,200 APPROACH
....
TOT A 1

Figure 55

Questions 697, 698, 699, and 700 refer to a flight from McCarran International Airport, Las
Vegas, Nevada, to El Paso International Airport. Refer to the:
(1) Flight Time Analysis,
Fig. 55; (2) SID, Fig. 56, page 114; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 56,
page 114;
and Fig. 57, page 115.

697. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 699. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel
X11 1- 1 hour 24 minutes X14 from level-off to the PHX VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 21 minutes .78 Mach?
3- 1 hour 18 minutes
4- 1 hour 15 minutes 1- 50.7 NAM/1,000
2- 47.1 NAM/1,000
3- 46.6 NAM/1,000
698. What is the total fuel required 4- 43.5 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 22,500 pounds 700. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 21,700 pounds be maintained to arrive over the PHX
3- 20,800 pounds X13 VORTAC 16 minutes after level-off?
4- 19,800 pounds
1- .77 Mach
2- .76 Mach
3- .75 Mach
1? 4- .74 Mach
 Page 113

Questions 701, 702, 703, and 704 refer to a flight from McCarran International Airport, Las
Vegas, Nevada, to El Paso International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis,
Fig. 55; (2) SID, Fig-56, page 114; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 56, page 114;
and Fig. 57, page 115.

701. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 703. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 21 minutes X14 level-off to top-of-descent using .80
2- 1 hour 18 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 15 minutes
4- 1 hour 13 minutes 1- 44.5 NAM/1,000
2- 48.1 NAM/1,000
3- 49.9 NAM/1,000
702. What is the total fuel required 4- 51.8 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 21,800 pounds 704. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 20,700 pounds be maintained to arrive at top-of-descent
3- 19,500 pounds X13 point 39 minutes after level-off?
4- 18,600 pounds
1- .79 Mach
2- .77 Mach
3- .75 Mach
4- .73 Mach

Questions 705, 706, 707, and 708 refer to a flight from McCarran International Airport, Las
Vegas, Nevada, to El Paso International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis,
Fig. 52; (2) SID, Fig. 56, page 114; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 56, page 114;
and Fig. 57, page 115.

705. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 707. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel
X11 1- 1 hour 24 minutes X14 between the PRC VORTAC and top-of-descent
2- 1 hour 22 minutes point using .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 20 minutes
4- 1 hour 17 minutes 1- 53.2 NAM/1,000
2- 51.4 NAM/1,000
3- 49.5 NAM/1,000
706. What is the total fuel required 4- 47.6 NAM/1,000
at .82 Mach?
X12
1- 23,400 pounds 708. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 22,500 pounds be maintained to arrive over the PHX
3- 21,600 pounds X13 VORTAC 16 minutes after level-off?
4- 20,500 pounds
1- .74 Mach
2- .75 Mach
3- .76 Mach
4- .77 Mach
MEAD THREE DEPARTURE MC CARRAN INTL
(MEAD331D) LAS VEGAS, NEVA:1A MEAD THREE DEPARTURE (MEAD3.1.1)) McCARRAN INTL
LAS VEGAS, NEVADA
LAS VEGAS CA CON
121,9
(Continued)
LAS VEGAS CNC DEL
118,0 HART TRANSITION ([Link]):
Via BOULDER CITY R182 and GOFFS
LAS VEGAS TOWS NOTE: This is a radar
Wet &pasture to !aide City, boo R001 to GOFFS VORTAC.
119.9 251.8 depicted is LOST COMMUNICAI1ONS
Minimum enroute altitude 8000' MU.
1AS VEGAS DEP CON
pada any. PRESCOTT TRANSITION
([Link]): Via BOULDER CITY R 108 and
NO1114121,1 353.6
PRESCOTT R290 to PRESCOTT VORTAC.
WEST, SOUTH 125.9 353,6
EAST NORTHEAST 119.4 353.6 WHEATON TRANSITION
([Link]! Via BOULDER CITY 11213 and
LOS, ANGELES Malt
HECTOR R.032 to HECTOR VORTAC.
134.65
Apn: dist h
307.9 WILSON TRANSITION
l /oN area to (tAEADUGS): Via BOULDER CITY R094 and
A115
ltD NM PEACH SPRINGS R274 to PEACH SPRINGS VORTAC.
125,6
IMP

ROMPER CITY
116J ILO
MEAD THREE DEPARTURE ([Link]) LAS VEGAS, NEVADA

ow 114 &CAPAAN

W ar
Pei,. WILSON

/7
TRANSITION
ppoz
WHEATON
TRANSITION
coy ri
1481 R,j7 PEACH SPE1405
4 111.0 P05
Chan 5
HART

TRANSITIC'N
4 f.
(/0 ,,'TT

GORES
114.4 OS
8;
Chun 91

HECTOR
U3-5

112/ NEC Grand Comm

Howl Polk
Chan 74
rtJ

C?

PRESCOTT

114.1 PRC
DEN
Chan SS um:, maim
1.4,H.2 112.1 NEC ALBUQU
14

DEPARTURE ROUTEEiscoffErrr 2111 Ptexoft Mun

Takeoff Runways 1,1! 19 and 25: Climb via runway

heading for vector to BOULDER CITY VORTAC. Then 117,111I

13 nl sti TO UN N011141
via (transition) or (assigned route), 014110014.1 11 MAN
NUM OX.111
LOST COMMUNICATIONS: If not in contact with

Departure Control one minute after takeoff:

Takeoff Runways 1, 19 and 25: Turn right proceed

12245
direct BOULDER CITY VORTAC.
FMBENIk

Takeoff Runway 7: Climb straight ahead to 3400' 111

MSL, continue climb turn right proceed direct to

BOULDER CITY VORTAC.

0,14
(Continued on next page)
sI
NN 0101
Per ML,1
CliTIVF$S
MEAD THREE DEPARTURE (MEADULD) LAS VEGAS, NEVADA

MC CARL* INTL
V3!:.4 2
136
 MEI. 11039

NIA CRY
Asnotor
1111 TIC $1
Clad.

DENVER 61110P
"111/q1^.34M,.."JvooNtrtiv,
AvvvIANytarar 11.1 CUP 11
ALBUQUERQUE

122412Z Pullro
olo. °A' lAloodo)
MASCO
114.1 PRC "I II

.4
lattO
Fr, co ohm 116 00115
WOOLOW

11 INW 13

TO SAI NOWLIN
111.1 PL PIO ANO

11034174
144 I
114 0,

At
BI
LIS

111/111 OA CONSIOVENCH
.5107C
1,11100,11.111tAANDP.111
MONFRI
tICLUOI AIIIPACI wirm
6122.06 112,1 1CS 11 OTHER TIMES
.itor AND R.1109
BY ROTAM
MOM IAA CNTRAS 11-5101A4
ABOVE ION
1111 PHI 111
MONFRI

1 OTHER Togs
IAI CNIIVFSS

111 C1111111

Tett° Am to
IJMAPAILAILII
NON' /III
lo Ar
Co nquoto Myr,

1 If

0111 NUN R MOB

la LIM
11.5107F
R.1304
SAN SIMON FL lie TO FL I50
to II to. 1
SSO 111 VOIJASA
imosI0700t I
IIIPP 411 Ormng Mur
Ce4111 NINO
111.4 (0 Dal 11 (.)

COC1NE

110301 111.1 CIE IN

111,1T03 111

EL PASO

0 AtBIJ 111.1 EV

138
 Page 116

F1,1(41[717 TIME ANALYSIS

CHECK P01 NTS ROUTE WIND FACTOR SPEED-KNOTS TIME FUEL CONSUMPTION
w
Al T& TUDE
MACH
NO ..... DIST ROUNDS)
FROM TO TEMPERATURE TAS OINK N.M.
FIT/LEVEL pPEED LEG TOTAL LEO TOTAL
PHOENIX SKY
41M6 . TNP
HARBOR LEVEL 82 :15 *5,500
INTL. OFF
CLIMB
[Link] -30 knots
LEVEL CUNNINGBA2 -..1

.OFF INT. FL 310 ISA -3°C.

[Link] -30 knots

CUNNINGHAM TNP
INT. VORTAC FL 310 ISA -3°C.

CIVET 1 -30 knots

TNP CIVET
VORTAC INT. o
ISA -3°C.

LOS RADAR/ILS
CIVET ANGELES :12 1,500
TNT. INTL, DESCENT & APPROACH

^1111111 ntri FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FHla:222224WPIsi
qY4W7/:A4
NOTE: Use mileage for RWY 8 DEPARTURE to EmeoulE
determine level-off point. 1 .
I ESE I ti E
Use 10,500 PPH total fuel flow from
level-off to the CIVET Intersection. -- 1,500 :Wig DA c N
1
Use 9,300 PPH total fuel flow for TOTAL
reserve requirement.

Figure 58

Questions 709, 710, 711, and 712 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport
to Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 58;
(2) SID, Fig. 59, page 118; and (3) STAR, Fig. 60, page 119.

709. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 711. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 59 minutes X14 level-off to the TNP VORTAC using .78
2- 57 minutes Mach?
3- 55 minutes
4- 53 minutes 1- 45.0 NAM/1,000
2- 43.2 NAM/1,000
3- 42.0 NAM/1,000
710. What is the total fuel requirement 4- 40.2 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 21,700 pounds 712. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 20,800 pounds be maintained to arrive at the CIVET
3- 19,100 pounds X13 Intersection 29 minutes after level-off?
4- 18,000 pounds
1- .85 Mach
2- .83 Mach
3- .82 Mach
4- .81 Mach
 Page 117
Questions 713, 714, 715, and 716 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport
to Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the:
(1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 58;
(2) SID, Fig. 59, page 118; and (3) STAR, Fig. 60, page 119.

713. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 715. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 02 minutes X14 level-off to the CIVET Intersection
2- 59 minutes using .80 Mach?
3- 57 minutes
4- 55 minutes 1- 41.5 NAM/1,000
2- 43.4 NAM/1,000
3- 44.4 NAM/1000
714. What is the total fuel required 4- 46.4 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 22,500 pounds 716. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 21,700 pounds be maintained to arrive over the TNP
3- 20,600 pounds X13 VORTAC 21 minutes after level-off?
4- 19,500 pounds
1- .75 Mach
2- .74 Mach
3- .73 Mach
4- .72 Mach

Questions 717, 718, 719, and 720 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky Harbor International
Airport to Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis,
Fig. 58; (2) SID, Fig. 59, page 118; and (3) STAR, Fig. 60, page 119.

717. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 719. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 58 minutes X14 CUNNINGHAM Intersection to the CIVET
2- 56 minutes Intersection using .82 Mach?
3- 54 minutes
4- 52 minutes 1- 47.3 NAM/1,000
2- 45.3 NAM/1,000
3- 44.4 NAM/1,000
718. What is the total fuel required at 4- 42.5 NAM/1,000
.82 Mach?
X12
1- 21,800 pounds 720. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 20,500 pounds be maintained to arrive over the CIVET
3- 19,600 pounds X13 Intersection 26 minutes after passing
4- 18,800 pounds CUNNINGHAM Intersection?

1- .81 Mach
2- .80 Mach
3- .79 Mach
4- .77 Mach
Page 118
.
MEND( SKY HARBOR INTL
CUNNINGHAM. SIX HI DEPARTURE(41M6.41M) PHOENIX, ARIZONA
MOM CLNC DEL
118.1 385.4,3331
PHOENIX DEP CON
124.1 20.6

TWNTWINEPAIAM
114.2 VIP
Chms 89
t.3
MAN,
MOCA
CUNNINGHAM
(167a 101 DME CZG
fh_ BUCKEYE
414,6Alay 110.68XX
BLYTHE tiP"'Ism Clan 43
117.4 WI igia;
1,2_00 18 -con
Own 121 ti .2
L.3.142

O YUMA
116.8 YUM
Oen 113

ELEV 1128

DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION

Take-off Runways 8L/R: Climb direct to RSZ NDB. After
station passage turn right, intercept PHX R-200 then via
R-200 and BXK R-088 to BUCKEYE VORTAC. Cross
PHX R200/5 DME at or below 5000'. Thence....
Take-off Runways 26L/Re Maintain runway heading until
leaving 2500' then intercept PHX R-258 and proceed
via PHX R-258 and BXK R-077 to BUCKEYE VORTAC.

(Continued on next page)

CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE (41M6.4IM) PHOENIX, ARIZONA

PHOENIX SKY HARBOR win

CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE (41M6.41M)

DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION
(continued)
.... Via BXK R-258 and CZG R-285 to CUNNINGHAM INT/DME, then via (tran-
sition) or (assigned route). Expect further to filed altitude at BXK
VORTAC. Departure control frequency 124.1.
BLYTHE TRANSITION*([Link]: Via BLH R-070 to BLH VORTAC.
TWENTYNINE PALMS TRANSITION ([Link]): Via TNP R-088 to TNP
VORTAC.

CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE (41M6.4Fttge4ix SKY MINIX ARIZONA

HARBOR INTL

Figure 59
 Page 119
LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL
CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

NOTE, Rwy 24L/R ILS and Jumbo

DME fix shown for information

NOTE,
only.
15-747 aircraft restricted to Rwy 24. Art? PEACH SPRINGS
11.2, 1-5
Rwy 25L dosedlo DC-10 and L-1011 over
325,000 pounds. DC-10 and L-1011 not 1.43\
authorized Rwy 25R.
NOTE, HECTOR N4/
Expod altitude crossing of 10,000 and
speed redriction ef 250 kts. at Arnold/
t1-2,13 dl/ AGREE

LOS ANGELES od5(13.," DIKES

113.6 LAX 83
JUMBO
32 OK, hOSS
4P/
ehp
0 ,:%,
EMMEY
DESERT
Chan 22 CIVET b TRANSITION

1,0016,
\ION 14000i
(51 6000
X .04485" 4-'1-254
-4248
(11.5), OM)sibev
X
(11) Ni, ) (48) C "256.1.
(54) PARKER
zits
ARNOLD
.7)
09, PALMS
2.2 ,BASSETTmA, 34.4 DME LAX
TWE1N1Y14.2NITNNEP
20.5 DME irrAx 32 DME I-LAX
434,
LOCAUZER
111.1 1-1A5 48
ONTARIO
THERMAL
116.2 TRM 109
r N4_52
clejo
?/
sir 112.2 ONT 59 I X2t

IMPERIAL
115.9 IPL 106
13

NOTE: Chart not to scale

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

ARRIVAL ROUTE DESCRIPTION

DESERT TRANSTION (TNP.CIVET1): From over TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC

via TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence .
HECTOR TRANSITION (HEC.CIVET1): From over HECTOR VORTAC via
HECTOR R-211 and ONTARIO R-030 to CIVET INT. Thence . . . .
IMPERIAL TRANSITION (IPLCIVET1): From over IMPERIAL VORTAC via IMPERIAL
R-336 and THERMAL R-107 and R-287 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET
INT. Thence . .
PARKER TRANSITION (PKE.CIVET1): From over PARKER VORTAC via PARKER
R-256 and TWENTYNINE PALMS R-075 to TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC. Via
TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence .
PEACH SPRINGS TRANSITION (PGS.CIVET1): From over PEACH SPRINGS
VORTAC via PEACH SPRINGS R-229 and ONTARIO R-046 and LOS ANGELES
R-068 to CIVET INT. Thence .
.... From CIVET INT. via LOS ANGELES ILS Rwy 25L Localizer east course/LAX
R-068 via ARNOLD DME Fix to BASSETT INT. Expect ILS approach from Bassett
Int, expect altitude crossing of 10,000' and speed restriction of 250 kts. at
Arnold/Jumbo.

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

Figure 60

14
Page 120

FLIGHT TIME ANALYSIS FUEL CONSUMPTION

CHECK P01 NTS ROUTE WIND FACTOR SPEED -KNOTS TIME
MACH DIST (POUNDS)
ALTITUDE NO.
FROM TO
112 /LEVEL
TEMPERATURE TAS "HD
SPEED
14'44* LEG TOTAL LEG TOTAL
.
LOS OCEN2.
SLI
ANGELES SLI ' --
INTL. VORTAC CLIMB __--_
OCEN2.
PKE
___
SLI LEVEL -- -- 32 -- :22 --- *6,600
VORTAC OFF CLIMB ___
OCEN2.
PKE +27 knots
LEVEL PKE
OFF VORTAC FL 330 ISA +9°C.
.
.

J78 +27 knots

PKE PRC
VORTAC VORTAC FL 330 ISA +9°C.

J6-78
PRC ABQ -±2a-kagtra--
VORTAC VORTAC FL 330 ISA +9°C.
ABQ __ _ - --
ABQ INTL. -- -- --- :12 1,200
VORTAC AIRPORT DESCENT & APPROACH
OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY
*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. TAXI FUEL ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL 3?.geneRAN
NOTE: Use 9,850 PPH total fuel flow from EHEOUTE
leveloff to the ABQ VORTAC.
II ESE I V E
Use 8,850 PPH total fuel flow for
reserve requirements. -- 1,200 :FlrsO DA c It

TOTAL

Figure 61

Questions 721, 722, 723, and 724 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International Airport to
Albuquerque International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 61; (2) SID,
Fig. 62, page 122; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 63, page 123.

721. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 723. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 40 minutes X14 level-off to the PKE VORTAC using .78
''-2- 1 hour 36 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 33 minutes
4- 1 hour 30 minutes 1- 49.7 NAM/1,000
2- 48.8 NAM/1,000
3- 47.8 NAM/1,000
722. What is the total fuel required 4- 46.9 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 26,500 pounds 724. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,400 pounds be maintained to arrive over the PRC
3- 24,200 pounds X13 VORTAC 30 minutes after level-off?
4- 22,600 pounds
1- .84 Mach
2- .83 Mach
3- .81 Mach
4- .80 Mach
 Page 121

Questions 725, 726, 727, and 728 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International Airport
to
Albuquerque International Airport. Refer to the:. (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 61; (2) SID,
Fig. 62, page 122; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 63, page 123.

725. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 727. What-is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 42 minutes X14 level-off to the-fRC VORTAC using .80
2- 1 hour 40 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 38 minutes
4- 1 hour 35 minutes 1- 50.6 NAM/1,000
2- 49.7 NAM/1,000
3- 48.6 NAM/1,000
726. What is the total fuel required 4- 47.8 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 28,500 pounds 728. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 27,800 pounds be maintained to arrive over the ABQ
3- 26,200 pounds X13 VORTAC 1 hour and 05 minutes after
4- 23,500 pounds level-off?

1- .83 Mach
2- .82 Mach
3- .81 Mach
4- .79 Mach

Questions 729, 730, 731, and 732 refer to a flight from Los Angeles International Airport to
Albuquerque International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 61; (2) SID,
Fig. 62, page 122; and (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 63, page 123.

729. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 731, What Is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 40 minutes X14 the PRC VORTAC to the ABQ VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 37 minutes .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 35 minutes
4- 1 hour 32 minutes 1- 52.0 NAM/1.000
2- Ll.:1 NAM/1,000
3- 49.3 NAM/1,0V
730. What is the total fuel required 4- 48.4 WM/1,K0
at .82 Mach?
X12
1- 26,900 pounds 732. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,000 pounds
be maintained to arrive over the ABQ
3- 24,900 pounds X13 VORTAC 44 minutes after passing the PKE
4- 23,800 pounds VORTAC?

1- .86 Mach
2- .85 Mach
3- .84 Mach
4- .83 Mach
 LOS ANGELES INTL LOS ANGELES INTL
OCEAN TWO DEPARTURE (OCEN2,511) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORIYA OCEAN TWO DEPARTURE ([Link])
LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

LOS ANGELES GND CON

121.65(N)121.75 (5) 327.0 NOISE ABATEMENT SID TO BE USED IN LIEU ID
DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION
LOS ANGELES CLNC Da OF DAGGETT, HECTOR AND SEAL BEACH SIDS
121,4 (Continued)
DURING THE PERIOD 21004700 LOCAL TIME. N
LOS ANGELES TOWER
N
S 118,9 379.1
N 120.0 239.3 BLYTHE TRANSITION (OCEN2.111H): Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC R480 and
LOS ANGELES DEP CON THERMAL R261 to THERMAL VORTAC. Then via THERMAL VORTAC
123.2 383,4
LAS VEGAS
2076 and BLYTHE VORTAC 158 to BLYTHE VORTAC,
ATIS
116.9 LAS
13145 DAGGETT TRANSITION (OCENNAG): Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC R431
Chan 116
1.5 ,142 BOULDER CITY
and DAGGETT VORrAC R211 to DAGGETT VORTAC. Cross SEAL
HARVARD
BEACH VORTAC R431/25 DME fix at or below FL 230.
TRANSITION 41w 7111,0%1 1111 14°

\d , H.2
HARVARD TRANSITION (OCENILAS): Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC R-031

NOTE! MAINTAIN BELOW 2500, TO SHORELINE WESTBOUND

n1.1'
9_At; and DAGGETT VORTAC R.211 to DAGGETT VORTAC. Then via DAGGETT
OR SAN DIEGO FREEWAY EASTBOUND TO AVOID VF11
3RRID01 THROUGH LOS ANGELES TCA.
1t 1 VORTAC R431 and LAS VEGAS VORTAC R211 to LAS VEGAS VORTAC,

op JEAN
Cross SEAL BEACH VORTAC R431/25 DME fix at or below FL 230.
TRANSITION
HESPERIA TRANSITION IOCEN1HEC): Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC 1131
and HECTOR VORTAC R222 to HECTOR VORTAC. Cross SEAL BEACH
DAGGETT
113.2 DAG
Chan 79

M1`
/ VORTAC R-031/25 DME fix at or below FL 230.
JEAN TRANSITION (OCENULD): Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC R431 and
DAGGETT VORTAC R211 to DAGGETT VORTAC. Then via DAGGETT
HECTOR
yV 1 HEC VORTAC R431 and BOULDER CITY VORTAC R230 to BOULDER CITY.
br
b, frol Chan 74
Cross SEAL BEACH VORTAC R-031/25 DME fix at or below FL 230.
q14,1. W, H2
PARKER TRANSITION ([Link]: Via SEAL BEACH VORTAC RB0 and
-n Crou at or PARKER
below FL 230 THERMAL VORTAC R261 to THERMAL VORTAC. Then via THERMAL R.054
117,9 PKE
HESPERIA
/ LOS ANGELES Chan 126 and PARKER VORTAC R234 to PARKER VORTAC.
TRANSITION
1.3 ,112
cp 113.6 LAX (?\C1\
TD
Chan 83
0 st,
$.
25 DME
19)
10,424080° A" 4
BEACH (95) -- 076930 9458' V
i'SEAL
OM 115,7 THEW 1701
1V64.460
BLYTHE
116.2 WAR
Ape dill h Ch°n 1°4 117.4 MI
Chan 109
Tall area Chan

L3,H2
NOTE THIS IS A RADAR VECTOR DEPARTURE TO'SEAL REACH.

ROUTE DEPICTED IS A LOST COMMUNICATION PROCEDURE ONLY.

ELEV 126
DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION

Take-off Runways 251, 25R and 241: Climb via heading

2500 for off-shore vector to SEAL BEACH VORTAC. at

Then via (transition) or (assigned route). Departure

Control freq. will be 125.2. Aircroft filing FL 240 or

at

obove expect further clearance to filed flight level ten

minutes after deporture. LOST COMMUNICATIONS: If

not in contact with departure control one minute after

crossing the shoreline or the LOS ANGELES VORTAC

190 or 305 radials continue heading 250 °to 3000',

then turn left heading 165°. Continue climb to intercept

and proceed via SEAL BEACH VORTAC R235 to

SEAL BEACH VORTAC. (Continued on next page)

OCEAN TWO DEPARTURE (OCEN211) LOS ANGELES,-CALIFORNIA OCEAN TWO

DEPARTURE (OCEN2.51.1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA 1,A
LOS ANGELES INTL
LOS ANGELES INTL
1
 Edward' NEWS
AM
115,2 EEO Mohave Ca
99 122,4122. 5R Pulha

10
rt? 50 MEtiO°
Pie con Muni
WIN

112,6
, .

,4 174 Pill TO SIN NORMALLY

V' UNAIMI FL !HAND
BALMY 1130341004

MUM 110
122.7

KYRIE
117.4 BO 2,6122,05
121

4c1.' PHOENIX
4;1° 115.6 PHI 103
It4 84'.

t V) Luke AFB
Nom; 5k
Harbor WI
R,,;2,5,2,1i
1. 1,1,
[Link] CYTA

kl4:171,1111
rb.1.) ; 3 '6;141 UP

Mem AN

Senator
Clarke

DENVER GALLUP
raw.. ommnrtaniv 5ama Fp Como
Al BUQUERQUE 15,1 GNP M

Us VEGAS IN ME

111,3 INS 120

16 '34

)6 19 96

ZUNI
II MEA12030;
SOCOIN
Pr81CM Mum
113.4111N II
WINSLOW 122 55 122.3 HU OHM 115

1116 1NW 13 AllUIRENQUE

174 3A NORMALLY 113,2 ARO 70

ONAVAI
ILI AL 410 AND
BROW 11100471M

144 R.
A1
BT
BAR

TRUTH OR CONSEQUENCES 5107C 11.11100, 11.0111A AND 0.111

MONFRI
2,6122.05 mum AI01PACA *PIN
112,7 TCS 74 OTHER TIMES
PHOENIX 1071, AND 1.11010
BY NONA
ZAB CNIR,ISS R.5109 Al
1151 PHI 103 ABOVE X4000
MONFRI
R.. 131 OTHERTIMES
to 410001 /AB CNM/F55
Lull' API
I640 02004 ,"
0 I 1.1 IOr
1110171AP05

Wiami API -4, tv1.1..11,111.111nr

11 YduiDiol

- :4
kr Cry

117
118
Page 124

_______ FLIGHT 7171[111E ANALYSIS PUlt CONSUMPTION

C NI CK POI NT$ POUT! WIND PAC TOP PEED-KNOTS TIME
........., All TUDE
MACN
NO.
DIST IPOUNDSI
PROM 10 TEMPERATURE TAS 02ND h. M.
IOTA1
PIT LEVEL PEI LEO OTAI, LEO

PHOENIX SKY [Link] -----

HARBOR LEVEL -- -- 109 -- :18 --- *5,900
INTL. OFF - - -- -

- 35 knots
LEVEL TNP
OFF VORTAC FL 350 ISA +5°C.
OF li,

DOWNEY 2 -35 knots

TNP DOWNEY
VORTAC INT. FL 350 ISA +5°C.
4

RADAR -----
DOWNEY WESTLAKE
-- -- -- -- -_ ___
DTC- DESCENT
LOS RADAR -----
WESTLAKE ANGELES -- -- :15 2,500
INT. INTL. DESCENT & APPROACH

11111 C II n IT I FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL 741/7/444 '1iiiiiiiiili
47.
[Link]::/7::iggp : /
NOTE: Use mileage for RWY 26 DEPARTURE to 214201.11E
determine level-off point.
mestiv e
Use 9,800 lbs./hr. total fuel flow
from level-off to DOWNEY Intersection. ---- 1,000
hmsto
AP PIOACI1
Use 8,700 lbs./hr. total fuel flow TOT A I
for reserve requirement.

Figure 64

Questions 733, 734, 735, and 736 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport
to Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 64; (2) SID,
Fig. 65, page 126; and (3) STAR, Fig. 66, page 127.

733. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 735. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 07 minutes X14 level-off to DOWNEY Intersection using
2- 1 hour 05 minutes .78 Mach?
3- 1 hour 02 minutes
4- 58 minutes 1- 46.2 NAM/1,000
2- 44,7 NAM/1,000
3- 42.6 NAM/1,000
734. What is the total fuel required 4- 41.2 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 23,700 pounds 736. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 22,800 pounds be maintained to arrive over the DOWNEY
3- 21,600 pounds X13 Intersection 26 minutes after level-off?
4- 20,700 pounds
1- .87 Mach
2- .83 Mach
3- .82 Mach
r.) 4- .81 Mach
 Page 125
Questions 737, 738, 739, and 740 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky
to Los Angeles International Airport. Harbor International Airport
Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 64; (2) SID,
Fig. 65, page 126; and (3) STAR, Fig. 66, page 127.

737. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 739. What is the specific range in nautical
X11 1-
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
1 hour 04 minutes X14
2- level-off to the TNP VORTAC using .80
1 hour 01 minute
Mach?
3- 57 minutes
4- 55 minutes
1- 42.8 NAM/1,000
2- 43.9 NAM/1,000
3- 46.4 NAM/1,000
738. What is the total fuel required
4- 47.5 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 21,600 pounds 740. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 20,600 pounds
3-
be maintained to arrive over the TNP
19,200 pounds X13
4- VORTAC 14 minutes after level-off?
18,000 pounds
1- .78 Mach
2- .76 Mach
3- .72 Mach
4- .70 Mach

Questions 741, 742, 743, and 744 refer to a flight from Phoenix Sky
to Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: Harbor International Airport
(1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 64; (2) SID,
Fig. 65, page 126; and (3) STAR, Fig. 66, page 127.

741. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 743. What is the specific range in nautical
X11 1-
air miles per 1,000 pounds cf fuel from
1 hour 05 minutes X14
2- the TNP VORTAC to DOWNEY Intersection
1 hour 03 minutes
using .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour
4- 56 minutes
1- 48.6 NAM/1,000
2- 47.6 NAM/1,000
3- 45.1 NAM/1,000
742. What is the total fuel required 4- 44.0 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 22,400 pounds 744.
2- What approximate indicated Mach should
21,200 pounds
be maintained to arrive over the DOWNEY
3- 20,500 pounds X13 Intersection 17 minutes after passing
4- 19,100 pounds the TNP VORTAC?

-1- .78 Mach

2- .77 Mach
3- .73 Mach
4- .71 Mach
Page 126

PHOENIX SKY HARBOR R4TL

CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE 41M6.4IM) PHOENIX, ARIZONA
PHOENIX CLNC DEL
118.1 [Link]
PHOENIX DEP CON
124.1 269A

TWENTYNINE PALMS
114.2 INP
Chan 89
L3
1.000
MOCA
...11.1171200 CUNNINGHAM
( 101 WE CO
15.2; BUCKEYE
No,4444,b 110.6 BXK
BLYTHE 42'4...W
11:km17.4

121
/*SP'
8,O00 / 112
Chan 43
18 ion fl 5000
5000
258
(40)
R/0 SALADO
RSZ
R258

Izs
V YUMA (64)
116.8 YUM Apra dist fr
Chan 115 T/off area PHX 3 DME'
PHOENIX
5000 115.6 MX
Om 103

CASA GRANDE
114.8 CZ°
Chan 95

DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION

Take-off Runways 8L/R: Climb direct to RSZ NDB. After
station passage turn right, intercept PHX R-200 then via
R-200 and BXK R-088 to BUCKEYE VORTAC. Cross
PHX R-200/5 DME at or below 5000'. Thence....
Take-off Runways 26L/R: Maintain runway heading until
leaving 2500' then intercept PHX R-258 and proceed
via PHX R-258 and BXK R-077 to BUCKEYE VORTAC.
Thence....
(Continued on next page)
PHOENIX, ARIZONA
CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE (41M6.4IM)
PHOENIX SKY HARBOR INTL

DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION

(continued)
.... Via BXK R-258 and CZG R-285 to CUNNINGHAM INT/DME, then via (tran-
sition) or (assigned route). Expect further to filed altitude at BXK
VORTAC. Departure control frequency 124.1.
BLYTHE TRANSITION -([Link]): Via BLH R-070 to BLH VORTAC.
TWENTYNINE PALMS TRANSITION ([Link]): Via TNP R-088 to TNP
VORTAC.
PHOENIX, ARIZONA
CUNNINGHAM SIX HI DEPARTURE (41M6.41M)
PHOENIX SKY HARBOR INTL

Figure 65
 Page 127
DOWNEY TWO ARRIVAL(DOWNE.DCWNE2) LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL
LOS ANGELES. CAUFORNIA

PEACH SPRINGS
H.2, L5

FILLMORE
112.5 rIM 72

HECTOR 1;0
HZ 3 .L6. AIMEE
AGREE

DIKES

DME Chan 45
SANTA MONICA 1
4 EMmEY.
--

f
DESERT
110.8 SMO Nartt3/.
\ TRANSITION
WESTLAKE
a-4..259 DOWNEY
CIVET
14000
/ ./(8)
6000
-1"..26501-LAX DME 13.2 254° $ PARKER
248° (11) '1.114 (48) re075 (54) w
pbg (37) ss,ospo /1_
12 ?aye. TWENTYNINE PALMS
Ks
114.2 TNP as.
LOS ANGELES
113.6 LAX 83 ONTARIO ; it
/;""°°0e
112.2 ONT 59 %*t\,
[.SEAL BEACH
LOCALIZER
109.9 1LAX 36 115.7 SLI 104
THERMAL
116.2 TRM 109 ik

NOTE. 1747 aircraft restricted to Rwy 6.

Rwy 7R doted to DC10 and 11011
over 325,000 pounds. DC10 end
11011 not authorized Rwy 71..

2. 3
(Narrative on Wowing page)
NOTE, Chart not to scale

ARRIVAL ROUTE DESCRIPTION

DESERT TRANSITION (TNP.DOWNE2): From over TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC
via TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to DOWNEY INT.
Thence . . . .
HECTOR TRANSITION ([Link] 22: From over HECTOR VORTAC via HECTOR
R-211 and ONTARIO R030 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to DOWNEY INT.
Thence . . . .

IMPERIAL TRANSITION ([Link] 2): From over IMPERIAL VORTAC via

IMPERIAL R-336 and THERMAL R-107 and R-287 and LOS ANGELES R-068
to DOWNEY INT. Thence . . . .
PARKER TRANSITION ([Link] 2j: From over PARKER VORTAC via PARKER
R-256 and TWENTYNINE PALMS R-075 and R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068
to DOWNEY INT. Thence . . . .
PEACH SPRINGS 'TRANSITION ([Link] 2): From over PEACH SPRINGS
VORTAC via PEACH SPRINS R-229 and ONTARIO R-046 and LOS ANGELES
R-068 to DOWNEY INT. Thence . . . .

.... from DOWklEY INT via SMO R-085 to SMO VOR, then viu SMO R-259 to
WESTLAKE INT, expect vector to final approach course.

DOWNEY TWO ARRIVAL ([Link] 2) LCC ANGELES. CALIFORNIA

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

Figure 66

152
Page 128

FLIGHT TIME ANALYSIS TIME IFUEL CONSUMPTION

CHECK POINTS ROUTE WIND FACTOR SPEED-KNOTS
DMT (FOUNDS)
MACH
AL TLTUDe E No. GIMP N.M.
FROM TO FiFfilvi TEMPERATURE TAS
SPEED
LEG TOTAL LEG TOTAL

----
......a..§-..-..
EL PASO LEVEL -- -- 84 -- :15 -- *5,500
INTL. OFF CLIMB
.

J310 -25 knots

LEVEL INW
.OFF VORTAC FL 310 ,ISA -3°C.

J72-86 -25 knots

INW PGS
VORTAC VORTAC ISA -3°C. .

J72-86 -25 knnrq

PGS BLD
VORTAC VORTAC FL 310 ISA -3°C.
--_- ----
BLD cCARRAN -- :12 1,500
VORTAC INTL. DESCENT & APPROACH

OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL 3.[Link];.egeg
NOTE: Use 10,500 PPH total fuel flow from EmeouEE
level-off to the INW VORTAC.
RESERVE
Use 9,400 PPH total fuel flow for
NissED
reserve requirement. --- 1,200 A p re 0 Ac H
TOTAL

Figure 67

Questions 745, 746, 747, and 748 refer to a flight from El Paso International Airport to McCarran
International Airport, Las Vegas, Nevada. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 67; and
(2) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 68, page 130.

745. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 747. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 24 minutes X14 level-off to the INW VORTAC using .78
2- 1 hour 26 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 28 minutes
4- 1 hour 30 minutes 1- 39.8 NAM/1,000
2- 42.3 NAM/1,000
3- 43.2 NAM/1,000
746. What is the total fuel required 4- 45.5 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 24,400 pounds 748. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,500 pounds be maintained to arrive over the INW
3- 27,300 pounds X13 VORTAC 32 minutes after level-off?
4- 23,000 pounds
1- .74 Mach
2- .75 Mach
3- .76 Mach
4- .78 Mach

153
 Page 129

Questions 749, 750, 751, and 752 refer to a flight from El Paso International Airport to McCarran
International Airport, Las Vegas, Nevada. Refer to the:. (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 67; and
(2) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 68, page 130.

749. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 751. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 25 minutes X14 level-off to the PGS VORTAC using .80
2- 1 hour 28 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 30 minutes
4- 1 hour 32 minutes 1- 41.6 NAM/1,000
2- 42.4 NAM/1,000
3- 44.3 NAM/1,000
750. What is the total fuel required 4- 45.7 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 25,200 pounds 752. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,800 pounds be maintained to arrive over the PGS
3- 28,500 pounds X13 VORTAC 51 minutes after level-off?
4- 29,800 pounds
1- .72 Mach
2- .74 Mach
3- .76 Mach
4- .78 Mach

Questions 753, 754, 755, and 756 refer to a flight from El Paso International Airport to McCarran
International Airport, Las Vegas, Nevada. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 67; and
(2) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 68, page 130.

753. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 755. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 23 minutes X14 the INW VORTAC to the BLD VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 25 minutes .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 27 minutes
4- 1 hour 29 minutes 1- 43.0 NAM/1,000
2- 44.1 NAM/1,000
3- 45.4 NAM/1,000
754. What is the total fuel required 4- 46.7 NAM/1,000
at .82 Mach?
X12
1- 25,100 pounds 756. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 26,900 pounds be maintained to arrive over the BLD
3- 28,700 pounds X13 VORTAC 27 minutes after passing the
4- 29,900 pounds INW VORTAC?

1- .81 Mach
2- .82 Mach
3- .83 Mach
4- .84 Mach
 UQUERQUE

(Alameda)

13
as
MEA22000
122.55 122.3,
'Oanunu
113.2 ABC 71,

254 078
VA

TRUTH OR CONSEQUENCES -5107C

MON-FRI
112.7 TCS OTHER TIMES
BY NOTAM
ZAB CNTR,I55

1R-510:
MIS Oo FLT40'
ZAB CM

well It
Alt Cm
Alomats
White 5
Rev..

ROLL
KMN

R5103
COIT11/
pm
II Damn
1'.. (tures
Manthon APB
Ctowlatd
0 9 .,...1010 Deming mem (-)
Intl
.,,
.4,,\...),> IR2 1030
"SEE 112.4
123.65 122.7
TUCSON
me r r;',' ft:'11 .';'55

7.1 TUS III

Litatte
Nagai., in Sim oV tto m, 8,1,. Cm,. I In', 22.55 122.4
EL PASO
0 Al VII lVt.:1
115.2 ELP 99

ORMALL V
vaCIN FIRS

FUZZY Hello APB

PEACH SPRINGS
112.0 PGS 57,
116 110

TUBA CITY
113.5 TBC $2

HECTOR
122.7
I12.711EC71
NEEDLES
115.2 EED 99

,,e, Sedona 101 89 /

6 V 16 la 96.

TWENTYNINE PALMS 010 91 MEA22000

v0 I
11.4.7 (1.) MP 89 (L) take How., C. Preston Muni ( WINI
/8 4,2.6 I
PARKER
117.9 PKE 126 .0. .17.% vt, TO 4.1.4 1401.1MALL
S UNAVM10.11.1 N. 190 ANO
\ !FLOW 3200-010012

Figure 68

i 53
 Page 131

FLIGHT TIME_ ANALYSIS FUEL CONSuM MON

CHICK POINTS ROUTE WIND FACTOR SPUD-KNOTS TIM!
ALTOUD!
MACH
NO.
DIST
.. (POUNDS) ...mm
WIND N.M.
FROm TO Ftifievat TEMPERATURE TAS
Ispeeo LEG TOTAL LEG TOTAL

BLUE - -__
8UW1.8UW
ALBUQUERQUE WATER -- ,

I NTL. INT. ____

. -CUM
BLUE
[Link]
WATER LEVEL -- -- -- 170 -- :26 -- *7,500
INT. OFF CLIMB ----
., ....

[Link] -35 knots

LEVEL INW
S OFF VORTAC FL 350 ISA +8°C.
--- )

J8-6 -35 knots

INW HEC
VORTAC VORTAC FL 350 ISA +8 °C.
HEC
LOS CIVET 1 __
HEC ANGELES -- -- -- :13 1,500
VORTAC INTL. DESCENT & APPROACH

OTHER DATA: FLIGHT SUMMARY

*INCLUDES 1,000 LBS. FUEL FOR TAXI ALLOWANCE. TIME FUEL 7/17:14*111114071:71/11fill:
fggia:Aiiidglig:MM
NOTE: Use 9.350 PPH total fuel flow from
level-off to the HEC VORTAC.
. ENmoule
RESERVE
Use 8,350 PPH total fuel flow for MISSED
reserve requirement. -- 1,500 AppitoAcH
TOTAL

Figure 69

Questions 757, 758, 759, and 760 refer to a flight from Albuquerque International Airport to
Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 69; (2) SID,
Fig. 70, page 133; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 71, page 134; and (4) STAR,
Fig. 72, page 135.

757. What is the ETE at .78 Mach? 759. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 34 minutes X14 level-off to the HEC VORTAC using .78
2- 1 hour 31 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 28 minutes
4- 1 hour 24 minutes 1- 43.9 NAM/1,000
2- 45.7 NAM/1,000
3- 47.3 NAM/1,000
758. What is the total fuel required 4- 48.9 NAM/1,000
at .78 Mach?
X12
1- 26,300 pounds 760. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 25,500 pounds be maintained to arrive over the HEC
3- 24,400 pounds X13 VORTAC 45 minutes after level-off?
4- 23,800 pounds
1- .81 Mach
2- .79 Mach
3- .77 Mach
4- .76 Mach

15G
 Page 132

Questions 761, 762, 763, and 764 refer to a flight from Albuquerque International Airport
to
Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 69, page 131;
(2) SID, Fig. 70, page 133; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig.
71, page 134; and
(4) STAR, Fig. 72, page 135.

761. What is the ETE at .80 Mach? 763. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 28 minutes X14 level-off to the INW VORTAC using .80
2- 1 hour 26 minutes Mach?
3- 1 hour 23 minutes
4- 1 hour 19 minutes 1- 46.3 NAM/1,000
2- 47.5 NAM/1,000
3- 48.7 NAM/1,000
762. What is the total fuel required 4- 50.1 NAM/1,000
at .80 Mach?
X12
1- 25,600 pounds 764. What approximate Mach should be
2- 24,500 pounds maintained to arrive over the HEC
3- 23,600 pounds X13 VORTAC 38 minutes after passing
4- 22,500 pounds the INW VORTAC?

1- .83 Mach
2- .82 Mach
3- .81 Mach
4- .80 Mach

Questions 765, 766, 767, and 768 refer to a flight from Albuquerque International Airport to
Los Angeles International Airport. Refer to the: (1) Flight Time Analysis, Fig. 69, page 131;
(2) SID, Fig. 70, page 133; (3) Enroute High Altitude Chart excerpts, Fig. 71,
page 134; and
(4) STAR, Fig. 72, page 135.

765. What is the ETE at .82 Mach? 767. What is the specific range in nautical
air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from
X11 1- 1 hour 27 minutes X14 the INW VORTAC to the HEC VORTAC using
2- 1 hour 26 minutes .82 Mach?
3- 1 hour 22 minutes
4- 1 hour 17 minutes 1- 46.3 NAM/1,000
2- 47.9 NAM/1,000
3- 49.0 NAM/1,000
766. What is the total fuel required 4- 51.4 NAM/1,000
at .82 Machl
X12
1- 25,200 pounds 768. What approximate indicated Mach should
2- 24,300 pounds be maintained to arrive over the HEC
3- 23,500 pounds X13 VORTAC 43 minutes after level-off?
4- 21,800 pounds
1- ..81_Mach_
2- .79 Mach
3- .78 Mach
4- .76 Mach
 Page 133

BLUEWATER ONE DEPARTURE (8UW1.8UW) MCILAERCSU NEW MEXICO

ALIUOUERGUE GND CON
121.9 318.6
AUIUGUM1OUE CNC DELIVERY
119.2 3115.6
ALIUGA/13100E TOWER
118.3 257.8
ALIIUGUEROUe DPP CON
074%254* 120.3 3167
255%073 123.9 354.1
AMMO:ROUE MITER
1212 307.2
ATIS
111.0

GALLUP
115.1 GUP
Cross as
?Ir.14-51 assi gned
WINSLOW Cress at or
112.6 INW 47 ads) ab ove 1,100
eel?
'era
V .0m-a6 BLUEWATER 2.7
Cross as
assigned
a NM 614)
cr''
ZUNI
26 EWE CUP 21 (9)
s DME 40, 4=1
113.4. ZUN
Gran el ALSUOUERCIUE(1°kveff
113.2 ASQ Apro dist It
aria

NOTES Radar Vectored

LfiLEV 5352
DEPARTURE ROUTE DESCRIPTION
Proceed via radar vectors, or as directed by departure
control to intercept the ABQ R-272, then via the ABQ
R272 to BLUEWATER DME FIX. Cross a point 15 NM Z1

West of ABQ VORTAC as assigned. Cross a point

24 NM West of ABQ VORTAC at of above 12,400'
MSL. Cross BLUEWATER DME FIX as assigned.
GNAW TRAN311100 ([Link]; Via OUP R-090
to GUP VORTAC.
WINSLOW TRANSITION (BUWIINW): Via INW
R-067 to INW VORTAC.

BLUEWATER ONE DEPARTURE ([Link]) ALWCIVEICIUL NEW MEXICO

ALBUQUERQUE INTL

Figure 70

58
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 Page 135
LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL
CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES. CALIFORNIA

NOTE: Rwy 24VRIL5 and Jumbo

DME fix shown for information
only
NOTE: 8 -747 aircraft restricted to Rwy 24.
ott7$2 [Link]-R5INGS

Rwy 25L clewed to DC-10 and L-1011 over

325,000 pounds. DC-10 and L-1011 not
authorized Rwy 25R.
HECTOR Ot/
NOTE: Expect altitude crossing of 10,000 and 11.2, L.3 ABREE
speed remiction of 250 kts. at Arnold/
V
V DIKES
45/
LOS ANGELES FE PS

113.6 LAX 83
JUMBO N.° NN
q, Os\ ,z0 DESERT
32 DME 1.055
ciwn 22 CIVET / \ V1/0, MME EY TRANSITION

1400021 6000
....42.48°Var Z4--.14 2482-1-*--254
(5)
(11.5)/ (175) 0/ /
(11) 4(14)0 (48) (54) w PARKER
.066 RWY 25L 0 01:1 "S,,,...19.; 2, L5
BAssETT ARNOLD ....e, ,e, TWENTYNINE PALMS
22.9 DME LAX 32 DME I-LAX 114.2 TNP 89
20.5 DME I-LAX 4i5
\s-,s
ONTARIO
112.2 ONT 59
I
I THERMAL
116.2 TRM 109 i
rip.. 07

V, x
AR
iAlifsi
0;

IMPERIAL i
CN115.91PL 106
11-2, 1.3

NOTE: Chort not to stole

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

ARRIVAL ROUTE DESCRIPTION

DESERT TRANSTION (TNP.C1)/ET1), From over TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC

via TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence . . . .
HECTOR TRANSITION (HEC.CIVET1): From over HECTOR VORTAC via
HECTOR R-211 and ONTARIO R-030 to CIVET INT. Thence . . . .
IMPERIAL TRANSITION (IPL.CIVET1 t From over IMPERIAL VORTAC via IMPERIAL
R-336 and THERMAL R-107 and R-287 c,,,d LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET
INT. Thence . . . .
PARKER TRANSITION (PKE.CIVET1): From over PARKER VORTAC via PARKER
R-256 add TWENTYNINE PALMS R-075 to TWENTYNINE PALMS VORTAC. Via
TWENTYNINE PALMS R-254 and LOS ANGELES R-068 to CIVET INT.
Thence . . . .
PEACH SPRINGS TRANSITION (PGS.CIVET1): From over PEACH SPRINGS
VORTAC via PEACH SPRINGS R-229 and ONTARIO R-046 and LOS ANGELES
R-068 to CIVET INT. Thence . . . .
.... From CIVET INT. via LOS ANGELES ILS Rwy 25L Localizer east course/LAX
R-068 via ARNOLD DME Fix to BASSETT INT. Expect ILS approach from Bassett
Int, expect altitude crossing of 10,000' and speed restriction of 250 kts. at
Arnold/Jumbo. - -

CIVET ONE ARRIVAL (CIVET.CIVET1) LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

Figure 72
Page 136

UNITED TA .e.-Ye I' I- 3.02C

FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION
ENROJTE HIGH ALTITUDE - U.S. ov
Tar us. at and obey. 18,000' MS1.

122.33

DI 122.6
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Figure 73
1

ENROUTE HIGH ALTITUDE -

A
FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION

at and above
abo 18,000' M.V.
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sou Dow.
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122 6
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Figure 74
 Page 137
769. When holding above 14,000 feet MSL 774. What is the maximum range in nautical
in a civil turbojet airplane, to what miles between VORTAC navigational aids
T27 recommended maximum airspeed should R13 for a direct flight at FL 410?
you adhere to ensure proper airspace
protection? 1- 100
2- 130
1- --200 knots 3- 200
2- 210 knots 4- 260
3- 220 knots
4- 230 knots
775. If both the ram air input and drain hole
of Ifiipitot system are blocked off,
770. If you should enter severe turbulence, Z15 what reaction to the airspeed indication
you should make the necessary power should you be aware?
Z17 adjustments and attempt to maintain
1- The airspeed indication would
1- both a constant airspeed remain constant during a descent.
and altitude. 2- The airspeed indication would
2- a level flight attitude. drop to and remain at zero until
3- a constant altitude. the blockage was removed.
4- a constant airspeed. 3- Airspeed indications would not
vary even if large power changes
are made in level flight.
771. What should an airspeed indicator 4- The airspeed indication would
show if both the ram air Input and show a decrease in a climb.
Z15 drain hoii7Were completely blocked
by ice, if an en route descent was
made in a fixed thrust and pitch 776. At what DME on J-16 should a pilot change
attitude condition?
navigational aid reference on a flight
Q20 from the PDT VORTAC to the UBG VORTAC?
1- The airspeed indication would (Fig. 74)
drop,to zero and remain at
that value until the blockage 1- 60 NM
was removed. 2- 94 NM
2- The airspeed indication would 3- 102 NM
decrease. 4- 154 NM
3- No change would be indicated
from the airspeed shown prior
to the system being blocked. 777. What is the total distance on J-16
4- The airspeed indication would between the PDT VORTAC and the UBG
increase. Q20 VORTAC? (Fig. 74)

1- 154 NM
772. Turbulence that is encountered above 2- 162 NM
15,000 feet ASL not associated with 3- 166 NM
V34 cumuliform cloudiness, including 4- 174 NM
thunderstorms, should be reported as

1- severe turbulence. 778. On a flight between the BHM and MSY

2- light turbulence. VORTACs, which navigation facility(ies)
3- clear air turbulence. Q20 should be used to identify the inter-
4- moderate turbulence. section of J-69 and J-2? (Fig. 73)

1- MOB R-190 and MSY R-240

773. The distance from the approach end of 2- MOB VORTAC
the runway to the touchdown zone mark- 3- CEW R-263 and MSY R-060
R24 ing is 4- MOB [Link] MSY R-060

779. Which navigation facility(ies) should

be used to determine the intersection
Q20 of J-2 and J-37 between the MSY and MGM
VORTACs? (Fig. 73)

1- MSY R-060 and MGM R-227

1- 250 feet
2- 2- MOB R-047 and MSY R-060
500 feet
3- MOB VORTAC and CEW R-263
3- 1,000 feet
4- 4- MOB VORTAC
1,500 feet
.163
 Page 138

780. When landing at night on a CAT II 785. What VHF frequencies are normally
runway, the high intensity runway
R25 available for the Los Angeles FSS
edge lights will be white until Q11
the last. as indicated by the heavy line
communications box? (Fig. 75, Arrow 2)
1- 2,000 feet. 1- 122.0, 122.2, 121.5, and 122.1R.
2- 1,500 feet.
2- 122.2, 121.5, 122.7, and 122.1R.
3- 1,200 feet.
3- 122.0, 122.7, 121.5, and 122.1R.
4- 1,000 feet.
4- 122.2 and 121,5 only.

781. How should a pilot report turbulence 786. In addition to 122.7 and 122.1R, what
encountered that, at least 2/3 of the
V34 additional VHF frequencies are normally
time, causes changes in altitude Q11 available for the Los Angeles FSS?
and/or attitude, usually cause varia-
(Fig. 75, Arrow 2)
tions in airspeed, but the aircraft
remains in control at all times? 1- 121.15 and 122.2.
2- 122.0, 121.15, and 122.2.
1- Intermittent moderate turbulence. 3- 122.2 and 121.5.
2- Occasional moderate chop. 4- No other frequencies are
3- Intermittent moderate chop.
4- available.
Occasional moderate turbulence.

787. During periods of daylight saving time,

782. If your flight encounters inflight
what are the operating hours of the
weather conditions which have not Q11 EFAS?
D45 been forecast, what action are you
expected to take?
1- 1300-0500Z
2- 1300-0500L
1- Make a complete report to the 3- 1400-0600Z
weather office on arrival at 4- 1500-0700Z
destination.
2- Report existing weather condi-
tions to MC. 788.
3-
At what minimum altitude should you
Advise the nearest FSS on the
cross the POM VORTAC when flying north-
emergency frequency. Q24 east on V8N? (Fig. 75, Arrow 1)
4- Request the latest or revised
weather conditions via company 1-
radio.
11,500 feet MSL
2- 10,700 feet MSL
3- 10,300 feet MSL
783.
4- 10,800 feet MSL
What effect will a change in wind direc-
tion have upon maintaining a 30 glide
Z17 slope at a constant true airspeed? 789. What frequency should be used to contact
1- the Los Angeles Enroute Flight Advisory
when groundspeed increases, rate Q11 Service? (Fig. 75, Arrow 2)
of descent must increase.
2- Rate of descent must be constant 1- I21.1R
to remain on the glide slope. 2- 122.0
3- When groundspeed increases, rate 3- 122.7
of descent must decrease. 4- 120.0.
4- When groundspeed decreases, rata
of descent must increase.
790. At what minimum altitude should you
784. cross the POM VORTAC when flying
The recommended maximum indicated air- Q24 northwest on V197? (Fig. 75, Arrow 1)
speed to use when holding at 10,000 feet
T27 MSL in a civil turbojet airplane is
1- 4,500 feet MSL
-2- 8,300 feet MSL
1- 175 knots.
3- 10,000 ,feet MSL
2- 200 knots.
4- 10,300 feet MSL
3- 210 knots.
4- 230 knots.
us In
IIMINCAL IILII
LOS ANGELES 1"4 NM (0. Ckad L4)
nurromermfmmoomLK mos z PALE T1

1110 CAm

DME CM 11 122.35
VAN MRS MIRIAM( LIED
Vin TIPIIIINAL CONTROL AMA I
LOS ANGELES
vim 211113N 111
VIII 43111
MINN
122.1R

CILITSMORTN POMONA
84
0135111011.. IOM E4 110.4
ON 41
ONTAM

EL MONTI CONTROL ZONE

tinny' 1100.100011

MUM' CONTROL :OHS

Main 18004 Qs t

1:11,
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LOS ANGELES 0111

LOSS

LO
ROMEO DIAMOND
OS :rr- 278
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122.1 122
LOS ANGELES

LAX
LA
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rllf 1- 13

500° 1st
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IL TORO CONTROL SONS

grygml 1400. 07001
II..
SANTA ANA CONTROL
MUM MOMI SFS 18004100114s A110 g 141
4 00 -15 T1 -m 11111
,
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1850 100011 MT
I / 101t.50 r1,0 NOT IN trItCT SUN AND HOLIDAYS

RAIN TI1 125.6

TORRANCE CONTROL
.0.0/ t!, 1223R
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 EL PASO INTERNATIONAL
NDB RWY 22 A1.134 (FAA)
EL PASO. t(%4S b`f
gt RWY 4 A4134(FAA)
EL PASO INTERNATIONAL

EL PASO APP CON

EL PASO, TEXAS pi
Et PASO As, CON
118,7 307,0 tC1
111.7 30?,0
EL PASO TOWN
IS FASO TOWER
13.3 257.8 BACK COURSE
118.3 257.1
OND CON
121,9 341.6 1.7800
GAD CON
121.9 318.6
8
CLNC DEL
CLNC DEL
125,0
125,0
ASR 7192
ARS 120,0 MA
1 ADS 120.0
n'.'6500 to m91
6810.
Priia ld
259.:59) WATERHOLE
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Tank lot UNITED STATES 081
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ti 259°(11.4)
MEXICO
ob° 414
El PASO

242 EL
Radar Mating la "
8200 10 Milt RADAR FIX
ia ELP localism 7000 LATIN INTO
.6186 4052; RADAR

5994 1.161 ... 1

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5990
CIUDAD JUAREZ
000 116.1 CIS [Link].
CAUTION: 51.011 rising Train
4.5 mils Wet of Airport

CAUTION: Sittplvisirc 'tnain

4.5 Milts 01 Airport RADAR REQUIRED

ELEY 3956 blY 17 kig 6609'

LOA LAIN INT
Ray 4 16811011' 10 RADAR MY 3956 101 1114i'mml
PASSED APPROACH 5 RADAR RWY 4 Idg 1012'
7000
wroinsm
Climbing lift turn to 6500
Imo to ELP YORTAC and
yak ?18' 3,7 NM MISSED APAOACH
from LON
bolt
IC\ Climbing right turn
400 direct ELP
6500
ieee
TOZE X YORTAC and 1...1d,

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5510 %.\
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A 0/ 5 to ---,Imo= 3975°
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CATEGORY

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41715004
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44201 44601
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4460.111 451'
=LK 44201 44601 4460.11/: 4520.2 ORa1141%
464 (5004) 504 (60011 5044034141 564 (6012)
3965 4103

464(5001) 504 (6004) 5041600.19i 56416001

Who Ciudad homy control tom rot in effect, ti of CIS YOR for PAP not 038° 5 NM
authorind, from Latin

INRI Rory 17.35

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MIRL Roy 1735
REIL by 26
REIL kyr 26
HAL Rwys 4.22 end 8.26
HIRE lloys 4.22 and 610
FAF to MAP 3.7NM
FAF to MAPS NM
Knots 60 90 110 ISO 180
Min:SE1-3:42 2:28 141 1129 1:14

NDB RWY 22 31'411'N.10613V El PAS(011'.' LOC

EL PASO. INTERN/1=AL
BC RWY 4 31'4N -106'274 EL PASO, TEAS

EL PASO 11,;;FP"ATIONAL

Figure 76
Figure 77
 Page 141

791. When planning a direct flight at 796. What is the highest elevation on RWY 4
FL 350, the distance between VORTAC between 11,012 feet and 11,512 feet?
S26 aids used should not be more than Q40 (Fig. 77)

1- 260 nautical miles apart. 1- 3,965 feet MSL

2- 200 nautical miles apart. 2- 3,956 feet MSL
3- 130 nautical miles apart. 3- 3,946 feet MSL
4- 100 nautical miles apart. 4- 3,919 feet MSL

792. On Enroute Low Altitude or Area Charts, 797. What is the highest elevation in the
which altitude ensures acceptable first 500 feet of the usable runway
Q24 signal coverage for accurate naviga- Q40 for landing on RWY 4? (Fig. 77)
tion only within 25 statute miles of a
VOR/VORTAC? 1- 3,919 feet MSL
2- 3,946 feet MSL
1- MRA 3- 3,956 feet MSL
2- MOCA 4- 3,965 feet MSL
3- MCA
4- MIA
798. Which condition meets the criteria for
executing a missed approach procedure
793. If you do not file for a specific Q40 for a straight-in approach to RWY 4
Standard Instrument Departure (SID) at El Paso International Airport?
T14 on your flight plan, ATC (Fig. 77)

1- will ask if you will accept a Airplane approach category - - C

SID before assigning one as VREF approach speed 135 knots
part of your clearance. Wind factor on final approach- Calm
2- will not assign a SID as part
of your clearance. 1- At the expiration of 2 minutes
3- will not assign a SID unless at 4,460 feet MSL.
you request it when you call 2- At the expiration of 2 minutes
f r your clearance. 15 seconds at 4,320 feet MSL.
4- m,y assign a SID if they deem 3- At the expiration of 2 minutes
it appropriate. 15 seconds or 4,320 feet MSL,
whichever occurs first.
4- At the expiration of 2 minutes
794. To what tolerances, with regard to 15 seconds or 4,320 feet MSL,
proposed courseline and estimated whichever occurs last..
V20 time of penetration, should you
adhere when penetrating a coastal
ADIZ? 799. Which condition meets the criteria for
executing a missed approach procedure
1- Plus or minus 20 miles; plus Q40 for a straight-in NDB approach to RWY
or minus 3 minutes. 22 at El Paso International Airport?
2- Plus or minus 10 miles; plus (Fig. 76)
or minus 10 minutes.
3- Plus or minus 20 miles; plus Airplane approach category - - D
or minus 5 minutes. VREF approach speed 145 knots
4- Plus or minus 10 miles; plus Average headwind factor- - - - 10 knots
or minus 5 minutes.
1- When 1 minute 20 seconds have
elapsed regardless of altitude.
795. What aural and visual indications should 2- When 1 minute 40 seconds have
be received when over the back course elapsed or 4,360 feet MSL,
R14 marker on a published back course ILS? whichever occurs last.
3- When 1 minute 40 seconds have
1- Two dots at the rate of 72 to elapsed at an altitude of
95 two-dot combinations per 4,360 feet MSL.
minute--white light. 4- When 1 minute 40 seconds have
2- Continuous dots at the rate of elapsed or 4,360 feet MSL,
two dots per second--white light. whichever occurs first.
3- Two dots at the rate of.72 to
95 two-dot combinations per
minute--amber light.
4- Continuous dots at the rate of
six dots per second--blue light.

1S&
 ALBUQUERQUE INTWATIONAL
NDB RC 35 4.12 (FAA)
MUM NEW MEXICO NDIC TUCSON INTEkNABONAL
AI430 (FAA)
0311411CAIE Alf CON
TUCSON, onto (04/
1244 3013 TUCSON AR CON
41.1111101.11 DINER 124.0 3611 ID
1113 2571 ?MN TOWS
OKI CON 111.3 257.1
1211 3414 by II 11.291
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CDC Ce 119.0
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.9782 121.9 346
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then 118

6401 MIT
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70601

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VALENCIA

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NM 61,49441 cod io *41100 pchroM awadh116S001W at 1.6 1414

foNo c4oN. *del iirodoo doom* ool pkad 4440 of AID 2171
WICK IS 411 I353' 2,6 NM

V A-- for NDI

Mt F*1111.291
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bon 60 90 120 ISO 110 fAF ks $I 10 94
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1 ) NDB RWY 35 WON. 10113614 AINDUEIOUE, MW MaK0

EMI= 100 440 110
NDB 'C
ALBUQUERQUE INTERNATIONAL "wwlo
32'071444v TUCSON, patom 1 d
TUCSON INIONATIONAL V
Figure 78
Figure 79
 Page 143

800. What is the purpose of the FOC NOTAMs? 803. Your FAR Part 121 flight time consists
of only 80 hours as pilot in command
S20 1- To provide the latest informa- 148 of a Boeing 727 type airplane. What
tion on the status of naviga- would be the MDA and minimum visibility
tion facilities to all FSS requirements for a circling approach in
facilities for scheduled broad- this type airplane? (Fig. 78. The air-
casts. plane is approach category D. This is
2- To issue notices for all air- an alternate airport.)
ports and navigation facilities
in the shortest possible time. 1- MDA 5,920 feet MSL; visibility
3- To provide all information 2 miles.
considered essential to flight 2- MDA 5,620 feet MSL; visibility
safety in one publication. 1 mile.
4- To advise of regulatory changes 3- MDA 5,680 feet MSL; visibility
in instrument approach proce- 1 1/2 miles.
dures prior tee their normal 4- MDA 6,220 feet MSL; visibility
publication cycle. 3 miles.

801 Which condition meets the criteria for 804. Your flight time in FAR Part 121 opera-
executing a missed approach procedure tions consists of only 97 hours as
Q40 for the NDB-C approach to Tucson 148 pilot in command of a Boeing 727 type
International? (Fig. 79) airplane. How would this flight expe-
rience affect the MDA and minimum
VREF approach speed 145 knots visibility requirements for a circling
Average headwind factor - - -10 knots approach in this type airplane?
Airplane approach category- -C (Fig. 78. This is an approach category
C airplane. This is a destination
1- 3,820 feet MSL ur whn 4 airport.)
minutes have elapsed, which-
e zlc-iirs first. 1 The landing minimums would
2- QZ0 ''')L and "then 4 remain as published.
seconds have 2- MDA 5,940 feet MSL; visi-
elaDseu, bility 1 1/2 miles.
3- :,020. fer, MSL or when 4 3- MDA 5,840 feet MSL; visi-
Ahutes Y. seconds have bility 2 miles.
elapstA, [Link] occurs 4- MDA 5,940 feet MSL; visi-
last. bility 2 miles.
4- 3,920 MSL and when 4
crinAcs r .e elapsed.
805. Which conditions meet the criteria for
executing a missed approach procedure
802. Your FA; al flight time as Q40 for a straight-in ND8 approach to
pilot i Amand consists of only RWY 35 at Albuquerque International
148 90 hours ion a Boeing 727 type air- Airport? (Fig. 78)
plane. Hew does this flight expe-
rience affect the MDA and minimum VREF apr t;*A 140 knots
visibility '.-equirements for a Average. !Ic7Wwind factor- - - - 5 knots
straight-in instrument approach to Airplane approach category - - D
RWY 35 in this type airplane?
(Fig. 78. The airplane is appr. 1- At 5,800 feet MSL and when 1
categc-y C. This is a destinat' minute and 10 seconds have
airport.) elapsed.
2- When 1 minute and 10 seconds
1- The minimums would remain have elapsed and altitude not
the same. below MDA.
2- MDA 5,780 feet MSL; visi- 3- At 5,680 feet MSL or when 1
bility 1 1/2 miles. minute and 10 seconds have
3- MDA 5,580 feet MSL- visi- elapsed, whichever occurs first.
bility 2 miles. 4- When 1 minute and 10 seconds
4- MDA 5,680 feet MSL; visi- have elapsed or when 5,680
bility 1 1/2 miles. feet MSL is reached, whichever
occurs last.
 LOS ANGELES INTL, ATIONAL
1LS RWi 23L Al.237 (FAA) AcCAMIAN iN AATIONAL
105 ANCEIE$
LOS ANGELES, CAILIORNIA
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1LS RWY 25 36'03W-115110W LA, [Link], NI\ DA
LOS ANGELES INTERNATIONAL

U" AcCARRAN letNATIONAL

Figure 80
Figure 81
806. Your FAR Part 121 flight time consists 810. Your FAR Part 121 flight time consists
of only 87 hours in a Boeing 727 type of only 95 hours as pilot in command of
148 airplane as pilot in command. If Los 148 a Boeing 727 type airplane. If Los
Angeles International is the alternate Angeles International is the destination
airport, what effect, if any, would airport, what would be the MDA and
your flight experience have on the MDA minimum visibility requirements to
and minimum visibility requirements for execute the side-step maneuver to a
a side-step maneuver to a landing? landing? (Fig. 80. The airplane is
(Fig. 80. The airplane is approach approach category D.)
category C.)
1- MDA 1,020 feet MSL; visibility
1- MDA 1,020 feet MSL; visibility 3 miles.
2 1/2 miles. 2- MDA 820 feet MSL; visibility
2- MDA 720 feet MSL; visibility 2 1/2 miles.
2 miles. 3- MDA 720 feet MSL; visibility
3- MDA 820 feet MSL; visibility RVR 75.
2 1/2 miles. 4- MDA 560 feet MSL; visibility
4- The minimums would remain as RVR 65.
published.

811. What are the landing minimums for a

807. What is the significance of this side-step maneuver for an approach
symbol ( x ) shown at LIMA OM/INT? Q40 category C airplane using DME? (Fig. 80)
Q40 (Fig. 80)
1- 300/24
1- It is the point at which the 2- 460/24
electronic glide slope should 3- 620/24
be intercepted for the complete 4- 720-1 1/2
ILS approach.
2- It represents the beginning of
the final approach angle for 812. What are the landing minimums for a
vertical path computers. side-step maneuver for an approach
3- It is the final approach fix Q40 category C airplane if the DME is
for a localizer-only instrument inoperative? (Fig. 80)
approach.
4- It is that point at which the 1- 720-1 1/2
aircraft should be at 1,892 2- 620/24
feet MSL on the ILS glide path. 3- 460/24
4- 300/24

808. As pilot in command of a Boeing 727

type airplane, you have logged only 813. What are the landing minimums for a
148 90 hours in FAR Part 121 operations. side-step maneuver in an approach
What would be the MDA and minimum Q40 category D airplane using DME? (Fig. 80)
visibility requirements for a side-step
maneuver to a landing? (Fig. 80. Los 1- 300/24
Angeles International is the destination 2- 460/40
airport; the airplane is approach cate- 3- 620/50
gory C.) 4- 720-2

1- MDA 720 feet MSL; visibility

1 3/4 miles. 814. What are the landing minimums for a
2- MDA 820 feet MSL; visibility side-step maneuver in an approach
2 miles. Q40 category D airplane if the glide slope
3- MDA 560 feet MSL; visibility and DME are inoperative? (Fig. 80)
RVR 50.
4- MDA 820 feet MSL; visibility 1- 720-2
2 1/2 miles. 2- 620/50
3- 460/40
4- 300/24
809. What is the height of the electronic
glide slope above the threshold for
Q40 RWY 25L? (Fig. 80)

1- 71 feet AGL
2- 83 feet AGL
3- 100 feet AGL
4- 102 feet AGL
1'74
 Page 146

815. What is the highest elevation in the

819. Your flight time consists of only 92
touchdown zone when landing on RWY 11L?
Q40 (Fig. 80) hours in FAR Part 121 operations as
148 pilot in command of a Boeing 727 type
1-
airplane. What would be the straight-in
2,593 feet MSL
2- and circling approach MDAs and minimum
2,581 feet MSL
3- 2,630 feet MSL visibility requirements if McCarran
4- 2,623 feet MSL International is the destination airport?
(Fig. 81, page 144. The airplane is
approach category D.)
816. Which condition indicates that you
are at the MAP for the localizer-only MDA Visibility
Q40 approach to RWY in an approach 1- S-LOC-25 2,420 ft. 1 mile
category C airplane? (Fig. 82)
CIRCLING 2,880 ft. 2 1/2 miles
VREF approach airspeed- - - 140 knots
2- S-LOC-25 2,420 ft. 1 1/2 miles
Average headwind component- 5 knots
CIRCLING 2,880 ft. 2 1/2 miles
1- 3,180 feet MSL or when 2 min- 3- S-LOC-25 2,320 ft. 1 mile
utes 04 seconds have elapsed,
CIRCLING 2,780 ft. 2 1/2 miles
whichever occurs last.
2- When 2 minutes 32 seconds have 4- S-LOC-25 2,320 ft. 1 1/2 miles
elapsed regardless of altitude. CIRCLING
3- 2,780 ft. 2 miles
3,180 feet MSL or when 2 minutes
04 seconds have elapsed, which-
ever occurs first. 820.
4- Your flight time in FAR Part 121 opera-
3,300 feet MSL and when 2 minutes
tions consists of only 93 hours as
04 seconds have elapsed. 148 pilot in command of a Boeing 727 type
airplane. What would be the DH, MDA
817. (LOC only), and minimum visibility
Your flight time under FAR Part 121 as
requirements based on your flight
pilot in command consists of only 95
148 experience? (Fig. 81, page 144.
hours in a Boeing 727 type airplane.
What affect would this flight experience McCarran International is the destina-
tion airport. The airplane is approach
have upon the approach minimums for a
category C.)
straight-in instrument approach to
RWY 25 in this type airplane? (Fig. 81,
1- DH 2,265 feet MSL; visibility
page 144) 4
1/2 mile; MDA 2,320 feet MSL;
McCarran International - - Destination visibility 1/2 mile.
2- DH 2,365 feet MSL; visibility
airport
Approach category 1/2 mile; MDA 2,920 feet MSL;
HIRL RWY 25 visibility 1 1/2 miles.
Out of 3- DH 2,265 feet MSL; visibility
service
1 mile; MDA 2,420 feet MSL;
1- visibility 1/2 mile.
MDA--2,320; visibility--1 mile. 4-
2- DH 2,365 feet MSL; visibility
MDA--2,420; visibility -1/2 mile. 1 mile; MDA 2,420 feet MSL;
3- DH--2,365; visibility--1 mile.
4- visibility 1 mile.
DH--2,365; visibility--1 1/2
miles.
821. Your flight time consists of only 96
818. hours in FAR Part 121 operations as
Which condition meets the criteria for 148 pilot in command of a Boeing 727 type
executing a missed approach procedure airplane.
Q40 when making the localizer-only approach What would be the straight-in
MDA and minimum visibility requirements
to RWY 25? (Fig. 81, page 144) if McCarran International is the alter-
nate airport? (Fig. 81, page 144. The
Airplane approach category- - D
airplane is approach category D.)
VREF approach speed 135 knots
Wind factor Calm 1- MDA 2,620 feet MSL; visibility
1- 2 miles.
2,520 feet MSL and when 2 minutes 2- MDA 2,320 feet MSL; visibility
17 seconds have elapsed.
2- 1 mile.
When 2 minutes 33 seconds have 3- MDA 2,365 feet MSL; visibility
elapsed, regardless of altitude. 1 mile.
3- 2,320 feet MSL or 2 minutes 17 4- MDA 2,320 feet MSL; visibility
seconds, whichever occurs first. 1/2 mile.
4- 2,320 feet MSL or 2 minutes 17
seconds, whichever occurs last.
.1 7;3
 TUCSON INTONATIONAL
ALBUQUERQUE INTERNATIONAL
RS RWY 111 AL430 (FAA)
TOON, AIWA VOR RWY 8 (TAC) AL.12 (FAA)
AillUOUENUE, NEW MEXICO

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MCA', ARIZONA VOR RWY 8 (TAC)

35'03%106'36'W MILIOUQUE NEW MEXICO 71
ILS RWY 111 32'07'N - 110'36'W
ALBUQUERQUE INTPNATIONAL
TUCSON NI' AATIONAL
ti)

Figure 82 Figure 83

176 177 :41

822.. Your FAR Part 121 flight time con- 825. Your flight time in FAR Part 121 opera-
sists of only 90 hours as pilot in
tions consists of only 89 hours as pilot
148 command of a Boeing 727 type air - 148 in command of a Boeing'727 type airplane.
plane. If Albuquerque International
If Tucson International is the destina-
is the alternate airport, what would
tion, what would be the MDA and minimum
be the MDA and minimum visibility
visibility requirements for a straight-in
requirements for a straight-in approach? (Fig. 82, page 147. TUC
approach? (Fig. 83, page 147. The
VORTAC and MALSR are NOTAMed OTS. The
airplane is approach category D; DME
airplane is approach category D.)
is operable.)
1- MDA 3,180 feet MSL; visi-
1- MDA 6,220 feet MSL; visi- bility 1 1/2 miles.
bility 2 miles. 2- MDA 3,180 feet MSL;
2- MDA 5,920 feet MSL; visi- bility 2 miles.
bility 2 miles. 3- MDA 3,280 feet MSL; visi-
3- MDA 6,020 feet MSL; visi- bility 1 1/4 miles.
bility 2 1/2 miles. 4-
4-
MDA 3,280 feet MSL; visi-
MOA 5,920 feet MSL; visi-
bility 1 3/4 miles.
bility 3 miles.

826. Your flight time in FAR Part 121 opera-

823. Your flight time in FAR Part 121
tions consists of only 93 hours as pilot
operations consists of only 85 148 in command of a Boeing 727 type airplane.
148 hours as pilot in command of a
If Tucson International is an alternate
Boeing 727 type airplane. If
airport, would [Link] experience
Albuquerque International is the affect the MDA and minimum visibility
destination airport, what would
requirements for a straight-in approach?
be the MDA and minimum visibility
(Fig. 82, page 147. The airplane is
requirements for a straight-in
approach category C. The RYAN NDB
approach? (Fig. 83, page 147.
MAW end NOTAMed OTS.)
The airplane is approach category
C; DME information is unreliable.) 1- The MDA would be 2,860 feet
1-
and visibility 3/4 mile.
MDA 5,760 feet MSL; visi- 2- The MDA would be 2,881 feet
bility 1 1/2 miles.
2- MSL and visibility 1 mile.
MDA 6,280 feet MSL; visi- 3- No; the MDA and visibility
bility 2 miles.
would be as published.
3- MDA 6,280 feet MSL; visi- 4- The MDA would be 3,160 feet
bility 1 1/2 miles.
4- and visibility 1 1/2 miles.
MDA 6,180 feet MSL; visi-
bility 2 miles.
827. Your flight experie,..-1 in FAR Part 121
824.
operations consists only 98 hours as
Which indications would require you 148 pilot in command of Boeing 727 type
to initiate a missed approach pro- airplane. If Tucson International is a
Q40 cedure while on the VOR RWY 8 (TAC)
destination airport, how would this
approach to Albuquerque International
flight experience affect the MDA and
Airport? (Fig. 83, page 147)
minimum visibility requirements for a
straight-in approach? (Fig. 82, page 147.
VREF approach speed 135 knots The airplane is approach category D. RYAN
Airplane approach category- - C NDB and the MALSR are NOTAMed OTS.)
(Use DME minima.)
1- MDA 3,180 feet MSL; visi-
1- When 4 minutes 03 seconds have bility 2 1/4 miles.
elapsed or 5,660 feet MSL is 2- MDA 3,280 feet MSL; visi-
reached, whichever occurs last. bility 1 3/4 miles.
2- When 4 minutes have elapsed at 3- MDA 2,960 feet MSL; visi-
an altitude of 6,180 feet MSL. bility 1 1/2 miles.
3- When 4 minutes 03 seconds have 4- MDA 2,960 feet MSL; visi-
elapsed and altitude not below bility 1 1/4 miles.
5,660 feet MSL.
4- When 4 minutes 03 seconds have
elapsed or 5,660 feet MSL is 828. By what distance from the beginning of
reached, whichever occurs first. the runway surface is the threshold dis-
Q40 placed on RWY 11L? (Fig. 82, page 147)

1- 1,100 feet
2- 1,000 feet
3- 900 feet
4- 800 feet
T+.4

Page 149
829. Your flight time in FAR Part 121 oper- 834. When designated in conjunction with an
ations consists of only 88 hours as airport which has a published instru-
148 pilot in command of a Boeing 727 type R32 ment approach procedure, what airspace
airplane. If Albuquerque International is defined as a Transition Area?
is a destination airport, what effect,
if any, would your flight experience 1- Areas that are designated as
have on the MDA and mini.= visibility Group I or Group II TCAs for
requirements for a straight-in approach? which all aircraft are subject
(Fig. 83, page 147. The airplane is
to the operating rules of FAR
approach category D. The DME is NOTAMed Part 91.
OTS.) 2- The airspace extending upward
from the surface to 3,000 feet
1- MDA 6,180 feet MSL; visi- within a 5-statute mile radius
bility 2 1/4 miles. from the center of an airport.
2- MDA 6,180 feet MSL; visi- 3- That airspace extending upward
bility 1 3/4 miles. from the surface and termi-
3- MDA 6,280 feet MSL; visi- nating at the base of the over-
bility 2 3/4 miles. lying Continental Control Area
4- MDA 6,280 feet MSL; visi- (CCA).
bility 2 1/4 miles. 4- That airspace extending upward
from 700 feet or more AGL and
terminating at the base of the
830. A particular VORTAC station is under- overlying controlled airspace.
going routine maintenance. This is
R12 evidenced by
835. What service should you normally expect
1- broadcasting a maintenance from an Enroute Flight Advisory Service
alert notice on the voice V30 station?
channel.
2- removal of the voice feature 1- Severe weather information,
of the TACAN. changes to flight plans, and
3- transmitting a series of receive routine position
dashes after each identifi- reports.
cation signal. 2- Radar vectors for traffic
4- removal of the identifica- avoidance, routine weather
tion feature. advisories, and altimeter
settings.
3- Routine weather information
831. What type of hydroplaning results and thunderstorm activity
when steam, generated by friction, along your route.
Z16 supports an airplane tire off the 4- Preferential routing and pro-
runway surface? vide radar vectoring to cir-
cumnavigate severe weather.
1- Viscous hydroplaning.
2- Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
3- Thermal hydroplaning. 836. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
4- Dynamic hydroplaning.
R42 1- Upon receipt of any official
weather, regardless of content
832. When landing on a category II runway, change and reported values.
what distance from the roll-out end 2- Whenever the ceiling varies
R23 of the runway will the runway edge more than 100 feet and/or
lights be amber? visibility more than 1 mile,
or wind conditions dictate a
1- 2,000 feet change of primary runway(s)
2- 1,500 feet in use.
3- 1,000 feet 3- Hourly, regardless of weather
4- 500 feet conditions.
4- Every 30 minutes if weather
conditions are below basic
833. At what distance from the landing VFR; otherwise, hourly.
runway threshold does the fixed
R24 distance marker begin?

1- 1,500 feet
2- 1,200 feet
3- 1,000 feet
4- 500 feet
 (CAT II)
L& BC RW1 6R A1.237 (FAA)
LOS ANGELES
INTERNATIONAL
LOS ANGELES INTENTIONAL
LOS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA ILS RWY 24R A1231(FAA)
-13
OS ANGELES, CALIFORNIA

/
LOS ANGELES ATV CON
tO5 MOM MP CON OTJOTralllitrr to
1245 381.6
LOS ANGELES TOWER

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W. The vertical extent of the Positive 841. How should you establish contact with
Control Area throughout the conter- an Enroute Flight Advisory Service
R32 minous United States is from V30 Station?

1- FL 240 to FL 600. 1- Call "FLIGHT WATCH" on 122.0.

2- 18,000 feet to FL 600. 2- Call "FLIGHT ADVISORY" on 122.1.
3- 18,000 feet to FL 450. 3- Call "METRO" on 127.0.
4- 14,500 feet to FL 450. 4- Call "ARTCC" on 122.5.

838. Ifyou takeoff behind a heavy jet 842. With an operative radio altimeter, to
that has just landed, you should what DH are you authorized to descend
V35 plan to lift-off Q40 for a CAT II ILS to RWY 24R if the
Inner Marker is NOTAMed OTS? (Fig. 85)
1- past the point where it
touched down. 1- 120 feet MSL
2- prior to the point where 2- 150 feet MSL
it touched down and on the 3- 240 feet MSL
upwind edge of the runway. 4- 270 feet MSL.
3- prior to the point where,
it touched down.
4- at the point where it 843. At what altitude AGL does the elec-
touched down. tronic glide slope cross the threshold
Q40 of RWY 24R? (Fig. 85)

839. What weather service is provided by 1- 55 feet

an FSS having broadcast capability 2- 120 feet
V32 on VORs and NDBs? 3- 126 feet
4- 150 feet
1- AIRMETs and SIGMETs at 15
minutes past each hour, and
every 15 minutes as long as 844. What are the landing minimums for a
they are in effect. side-step maneuver in an approach
2- AIRMETs and SIGMETs during Q40 category C airplane if the MALSR is
their valid time period when inoperative for RWY 6R? (Fig. 84)
they pertain to the area
within 450 NM of the FSS. 1- 400/50
3- Weather reports 15 minutes 2- 400/40
past each hour, from report- 3 -. 720-2
ing points within approxi- 4- 720/50
mately 150 miles of the
broadcasting station.
4- Weather reports, 15 and 45 845. What is the highest elevation in the
minutes past each hour, from touchdown zone for RWY 6L? (Fig. 84)
reporting points within Q40
approximately 150 miles of 1- 126 feet MSL
the broadcasting station. 2- 117 feet MSL
3- 111 feet MSL
4- 100 feet MSL
840. When are you required to utilize
the CAT II holding lines on a taxi-
Q40 way leading to RWY 24R? (Fig. 85) 846. What are the landing minimums for a
side-step maneuver in an approach
1- At all times, since RWY 24R Q40 category D airplane if the MALSR is
is approved for CAT II inoperative for RWY 6R? (Fig. 84)
operations.
2- Any time you are operating 1- 720-2
an airplane equipped for 2- 720/50
CAT II operations. 3- 400/40
3- When weather conditions are 4- 400/50
below CAT I instrument
approach minimums.
4- Any time CAT II operations 847. What is the highest elevation in the
are in progress. touchdown zone for RWY 6R? (Fig. 84)
Q40
1- 133 feet MSL
2- 126 feet MSL
3- 117 feet MSL
4- 111 feet MSL
Page 152

Figure 86 Figure 87

848. What term is used to identify the 851. What is the operational status of a
altitude which is in effect between VOR/VORTAC if you receive only the
Q24 radio fixes on a VOR/LF airway that R12 coded identifier approximately every
a..;sures acceptable navigational 30 seconds?
signal coverage rqlly within 22
nautical miles or a VOR/VORTAC 1- Both the DME and VOR are
station? operating normally.
2- The DME is operating normally;
1- Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA). the VOR is inoperative.
2- Minimum Reception Altitude 3- Maintenance is being performed
(MRA). and neither the VOR nor DME is
3- Minimum Obstruction Clearance operating normally.
Altitude (MOCA). 4- The DME is inoperative; the
4- Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA). VOR is operating normally.

849. When using a flight director system, 852. Within what minimum time does ATC expect
what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot to start a speed reduction from
Z15 a pilot observe during turns in a T27 the holding fix?
holding pattern?
1- 5 minutes
1- 3° per second or 25° bank, 2- 3 minutes
whichever is less. 3- 2 minutes
2- 3° per second or 30° bank, 4- 1 minute
whichever is less.
3- 1 1/2° per second or 25°
bank, whichever is greater. 853. When should timing begin for the second
4- 1 1/2° per second or 30° leg outbound in the holding pattern
bank, whichever is less. T27 over CANNON FALLS Intersection shown in
Fig. 86? (24F NOTAMed OTS)

850. At what point should the timing begin 1- When wings are level after
for the second leg outbound in the completing turn to appropriate
T27 holding pattern over LOGEN Intersec- outbound heading.
tion? (Fig. 87) 2- Abeam the holding fix, or wings
level, whichever occurs first.
1- Abeam the holding fix, or 3- Abeam the holding fix, or wings
wings level, whichever level, whichever occurs last.
occurs last. 4- Abeam the holding fix.
2- When wings are level after
completing turn to the
appropriate outbound heading.
3- Abeam the holding fix, or
wings level, whichever
occurs first.
4- Abeam the holding fix.

I83
 Page 153

080

260

260 100 350

v- 190
V

A D E

Figure 88

854. Of what initial cockpit indications 857. As you arrive ovar tie DDB, you observe
should a-71176be aware when a constant
Z17 the indications as shown in C. Which
headwind component shears to a calm T27 holding pattern entry procedure should
wind?
you plan to use after station passage?
(Fig. 88)
1- Aircraft pitches up;altitude
and indicated airspeed increase. 1- Direct only
2- Aircraft pitches down; altitude 2- Teardrop or parallel
and indicated airspeed decrease. 3- Parallel only
3- Aircraft pii:ches up; indicated 4- Parallel 3r direct
airspeed decreases; altitde
increases.
4- Aircraft pitches down; altitude 858. As yor arrive over the DDB, you observe
decreases; indicated airspeed the indications as shown in B. Which
increases. T27 h--ding pattern entry procedure should
yo. plan to use after station passage?
(Fic. 88)
855. As you arrive over the MB, you observe
the indications as shown in E. Which 1- Direct only
727 holding pattern entry procedure should 2- 7-,:drop or direct only
you plan to use after station passage? 3- Parallel only
(Fifj. 8R) 4- Teardrop only
1- Direct nr teardrop
2- Teardrop only 859. As you arrive over the DDB, you observe
3- Parallel only
the indications as shown in A. Which
4- Direct ohly -I,/ holding pattern entry procedure snould
y.0 plan tc :Ise after station passage?
(Fig. 88)
856. As you arrive over the NDJ, you observe
the indications as shown in D. Which 1- Teardrop only
T27 holding pattern entry procedure_ should 2- Direct only
you plan to use after station passage? 3- Teardrop or parallel
(Fig. 88) 4- Direct or parallel
1- Parallel only
2- Teardrop only
3- Direct only
4- Direct or parallel

ADO

181
 MEOIM ON CO NiDFORDJACKSON. CO
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-4 DREW
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b HANDY DME Fix.

KLAMATH FALLS TRANSITIONIBRUTEL LMTIITum right to V122 to KLAMATH

FAILS VORTAC Cross LAKECREEK Dh,E Fix at or above 6600',

1431E DM! rowlrod. MILO TRANSITIONfBRUTE1,4M5 Continue via 045° magnetic bearing from LMM to

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to MILO INT.

TALEM fRANSiTiON (BRUTE', TALEMpum right via V122 to LAKECREEK DME Fix, cross

LAKECREEK at or above 6600'; thence turn right via MEDFORD 15 DME Arc

to intercept V23 to Tau DME Fix,

COPPEF. TRANSITION (BRUTE1.4Q1t Turn right via V122 to LAKECREEK DME

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MEDFORD
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(tooth takeoff ill right), then dimb on 11 .1(45°

magnetic bearir. 'ram the LMM b cross BRUTE

DME at or 1600'. Thence via (transition).

DREW? 1: ISITION ;BILUTE1.4DUI Continue via 045°

magnetic oaring from LMM to intercept MEDFORD 15

DME Arc, Therm turn left via 15 DME Arc to DREW DME Fix

Gr'.[Link] TRANSILON (BR.:IE1.4GT): Turn right via V122

to lAKECREEV ');.,1E Fix, cross LAKECREEK at or above

6600'; in or right via MEDFORD 15 DME Arc to

intercept V' 3E to GRENADA INT,

(Continued on next page)

BRUTE ONE DEPARTURE (BRUTELBRUTE) 464131)' 0E°3N BRUTE ONE DEPARTURE ([Link]) AGFOID, corAN
MBOODJACKSON CO
185 MEDFORDJACKSON CO

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 Page 155

"860. At what distance from the landing 863. What term is used to describe hydro-
runway threshold does the touch- planing which occurs when an airplane's
R24 down zones marker begin? Z16 tire is effectively held off a smooth
runway surface by steam generated by
1- 1,000 feet friction?
2- 500
3- 300 feet 1- Frictional hydroplaning.
4- 200 feet 2- Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
3- Dynamic hydroplaning.
4- Viscous hydroplaning.

864. What does this symbol ( ) indicate

when it appears on an instrument
ACME Q40 approach procedure chart?

ACE :7- *356 1- Takeoff minimums are non-standard

and a certain IFR departure pro-
cedure may have been established
861 . What operational status is indi- for obstruction avoidance after
cated for the low frequency NDB takeoff.
Q11 shown above? 2- Takeoff minimums are standard for
aircraft with three or more
1- The facility is unreliable; engines.
check NDTAMs for specific 3- Takeoff minimums are non-standard
information. only for air carrier operations;
2- Continuous voice capability consult a separate listing.
is available on a 24-hour 4- A SID has been published for that
basis. airport.
3- The radio beacon does not
operate continuously; no
voice capability. 865. What is the total distance from the
4- Voice capability is avail- VIOLET LMM to HANDY DME fix via the
able but only during speci- T14 BRUTELHANDY transition? (Fig. 89)
fied hours of operation.
1- 35 NM
2- 32 NM
"CLEARED AS FILED. MAINTAIN SEVEN THOUSAND. 3- 29 NM
EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FIVE ZERO FIVE 4- 25 NM
MINUTES AFTER DEPARTJRE. MAINTAIN RUNWAY
HEADING FOR RADA' "ECTCR TO JOIN J37.
SQUAWK 0105...." (ATL '...eather is 100 866. that is the total distance from the
obscured and one-half mra in fog.) VIOLET LAM to TALEM DME fix via the
T14 BRUTELTALEM transition? (Fig. 89)
862. You depart R!Y 27R at William B.
Hartsfield International after 1- 39 NM
V12 receiving the above clear. ice and 2- 35 N4
3- 33 N4
experience complete two-way communi-
cations failure. The course of 4- 28 NM
action ATC expects you to take is to

1- 867. What is the total distance from the

turn immediately to inter-
cept J37. At 5 minutes after VIOLET LMM to GRENADA Intersection
departure, climb to your 114 via the BRUTE1.4GT transition?
flight planned altitude. (Fig. 89)
2- maintain runway heading until
1- 61 NM
reaching 7,000 feet MSL, then
turn to intercept J37 and 2- 57 NM
climb to FL 250. 3- 53 NM
3- maintain runway heading for 5 4- 51 N4
minutes, then turn to inter-
cept J37 and climb to FL 250.
4- turn immediately to intercept
J37, and climb to FL 250 5
minutes after departure.

187
Page 156

270

090

350 180 110 260 220

H I

Figure 90

868. What maximum indicated Mach or KIAS 871. You observe the indications as shown
does ATC expect you to maintain to in H as you arrive over the NDB. Which
T27 ensure proper airspace protection T27 holding pattern entry procedure should
when holding in turbulent air condi- you plan to use after station passage?
tions? (Fig. 90)

1- Mach .80 or 300 KIAS, 1- Direct only

whichever is higher. 2- Teardrop only
2- Mach .80 or 280 KIAS, 3- Teardrop or parallel
whichever is lower. 4- Parallel only
3- Mach .78 or 270 KIAS,
whichever is lower.
4- Mach .75 or 280 KIAS, 872. You observe the indications as shown
whichever is higher. in G as you arrive over the NDB. Which
T27 holding pattern entry procedure should
you plan to use after station passage?
869. You observe the indications as (Fig. 90)
shown in J as you arrive over
T27 the NDB. Which holding pattern 1- Teardrop only
entry procedure should you plan 2- Parallel only
to use after station passage? 3- Direct only
(Fig. 90) 4- Direct or parallel

1- Parallel or teardrop
2- Parallel only 873. You observe the indications as shown
3- Direct only in F as you arrive over the NDB. Which
4- Teardrop only T27 holding pattern entry procedure should
you plan to use after station passage?
(Fig. 90)
870. You observe the indications as
shown in I as you arrive over 1- Parallel only
T27 the NDB. Which holding pattern 2- Teardrop or direct
entry procedure should you plan 3- Direct only
to use after station passage? 4- Teardrop only
(Fig. 90)

1- Teardrop only
2- Direct only
3- Parallel only
4- Parallel or teardrop

A
198
 Page 157

874. Turbulence which, when less than 1/3 878. What does this symbol ( IT ) indicate
of the time, causes slight, rapid, when it appears on an instrument
V34 and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness with- Q40 approach procedure chart?
out appreciable changes in altitude
or attitude should be reported as 1- Takeoff minimums are standard,
1/2 statute mile, for a 3-engine
1- occasional light chop. aircraft.
2- intermittent light chop. 2- Takeoff minimums are non-standard
3- moderate turbulence. and that a certain IFR departure
4- moderate chop. procedure may have been estab-
lished for obstruction avoidance
after takeoff.
875. Assume that thrust is managed to 3- Takeoff minimums are non-standard
maintain IAS, and glide slope is only for air carrier type air-
Z17 being flown. What characteristics
planes; consult a separate
should be observed when a tailwind listing.
shears to a constant headwind? 4- A SID has been published for
that particular airport.
1- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced,
then increased; 879 In determining the aircraft approach
VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; category for an instrument approach
IAS: Decreases, then Q36 procedure, airplane speeds are based
increases to approach speed. upon 1.3 times the stalling speed of
the aircraft in the
2- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, 1- landing configuration at the
then reduced; estimated gross landing weight.
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; 2- approach configuration at the
IAS: Increases, then estimated landing weight.
decreases to approach speed. 3- landing configuration at the
maximum certificated gross
3- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; landing weight.
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, 4- approach configuration at VREF
then reduced; at the certificated landing
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; weight.
IAS: Decreases, then
increases to approach speed.
880. What is the maximum distance (H) class
4- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; facilities (when used to define a
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, S26 proposed route off airways) should be
then increased; apart for operations between 14,000
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; feet MSL and 17,999 feet MSL in the
IAS: Increases, then conterminous United States?
decreases to approach speed.
1- 260 NM
2- 200 NM
876. At what distance from the landing 3- 180 NM
runway threshold does the touchdown 4- 130 NM
R24 zone marker begin?

1- 500 feet 881. Turbulence which, when 2/3 of the time,

2- 800 feet momentarily causes slight, erratic
3- 1,000 feet V34 changes in altitude and/or attitude
4- 1,200 feet (pitch, roll, yaw) should be reported as

1- occasional light chop.

877. The minimum en route altitude for a 2- intermittent light chop.
segment of a jet airway, unless 3- moderate chop.
R32 otherwise specified on the Enroute 4- intermittent light turbulence.
High Altitude Chart, is

1- 24,000 feet MSL.

2- 18,000 feet MSL.
3- 14,500 feet MSL.
4- 14,000 feet MSL.

189
Page 158

Figure 91

Figure 92

Figure 93

Figure 94

Figure 95

290
It. to do-
 Page 159
882. Which altitude depicted on an instru- 886. At what distance from the landing runway
ment approach chart is for emergency threshold does the fixed distance marker
Q24 use only and does not necessarily R24 begin?
ensure acceptable navigational signal
coverage within a 25-mile radius of 1- 2,000 feet
the navigation facility? 2- 1,000 feet
3- 500 feet
1- Minimum en route altitude 4- 250 feet
2- Minimum sector altitude
3- Minimum vectoring altitude
4- Minimum descent altitude 887. You experience a right crosswind
component while arcing left on the
883. What is the lowest RA DH and visi- Z14 15 DME arc. Where should the bear-
bility/RVR requirement for a Cate- ing pointer be referenced relative
Q40 gory III A instrument approach to the wingtip position to maintain
procedure? the 15 DME range?

1- DH - None; RVR - 700 feet 1- Ahead of the right wingtip

2- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet reference.
3- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 1,200 feet 2- Behind the left wingtip
4- DH - 100 feet; RVR - 1,200 reference.
feet 3- On the left wingtip reference.
4- Ahead of the left wingtip
reference.
884. Which information is necessary to
determine the category of an air-
Q36 plane for instrument approaches? 888. Which altimeter correctly depicts
FL 290? (Fig. 91)
1- The stall speed in landing Z15
configuration (at maximum 1- A
certificated landing weight) 2- B
and the maximum takeoff weight. 3- C
2- The stall speed in landing 4- D
configuration (at maximum
certificated gross landing
weight) and the maximum certif- 889. Which altimeter correctly depicts
icated landing weight. FL 370? (Fig. 92)
3- The minimum steady flight speed Z15
at which the airplane is con- 1- A
trollable and the actual land- 2- B
ing weight. 3- C
4- The minimum steady flight speed 4- D
at which the airplane is con-
trollable and the actual takeoff
weigh. 890. Which altimeter correctly depicts
FL 330? (Fig. 93)
885. You enter holding at 1800Z and receive Z15
an EAC time of 1814Z. At 1802Z, you 1- A
V12 experience complete two-way communica- 2- B
tions failure. 3- C
(The holding fix is not
the same as the approach fix.) Which 4- D
procedure should you follow to execute
the approach to a landing?
891. Which altimeter correctly depicts
1- Depart -.he holding fix at the FL 210? (Fig. 94)
EAC time, and complete tne Z15
approach. 1- A
2- Depart the holding fix to arrive 2- B.

at the approach fix as close as 3- C

possible to the EAC time and 4- D
complete the approach.
3- Depart the holding fix on the
892. Which illustration correctly depicts
flight planned ETA (as amended
with ATC); proceed to the FL 260? (Fig. 95)
approach fix for the procedure Z15
in use. 1- A
4- Proceed to the approach fix, 2- B
hold until EAC time, and,?cmk- 3- C
plete,the approach. *IN 4- D

191
Page 160

893. What operational consideration nor- 897. The lowest defined category II decision
mally applies to a SID clearance? height in terms of HAT is
T14 Q40
1- ATC will not issue a SID 1- 50 feet.
clearance to any aircraft 2- 100 feet.
departingAFR on an IFR 3- 150 feet.
flight plan. 4- 175 feet.
2- A SID clearance will not be
issued to an air carrier
IFR flight unless the pilot 898. On a direct flight off established air-
in command specifically ways, what is the maximum distance
requests it. S26 between (H) class navigation aids that
3- The pilot in command of an may be used to ensure adequate signal
air carrier airplane may reception for a flight at FL 450?
either accept or decline a
SID clearance. 1- 260 NM
4- An air carrier pilot must 2- 200 NM e.
accept a SID clearance 3- 150 NM
issued by ATC. 4- 130 NM

894. How does the wake turbulence vortex 899. At 1630Z, you enter a holding pattern and
circulate around each wingtip? receive an EAC time of 16507.. At 1635Z,
V35 V12 complete two-way communications failure
1- Inward, upward, and around occurs. If the holding fix is not the
each tip. same as the approach fix, what is the
2- Clockwise as viewed from recommended procedure ATC expects you to
behind. follow to execute the instrument
3- Inward, upward, and counter- approach to a landing?
clockwise.
4- Outward, upward, and around 1- P:oceed to the approach fix,
each tip. hold until the EAC time, and
complete the approach.
2- Depart the holdlry fix on the
895. An abbreviated departure clearance, flight planned ETA (as amended
"cleared as filed," will always con- with ATC), proceed to the
Tll tain the approach fix, and complete the
approach.
1- name of the first compulsory 3- Depart the holding fix to arrive
reporting point. at the approach fix as close as
2- assigned cruising altitude. possible to the EAC time and
3- name of destination airport complete the approach.
to which cleared. 4- Depart the holdi:j at the
.

4- name of each location where EAC time, 4nd comnlet the

the route changes airways. approach.

896. Which airspace is defined as a Tran- 900. For an IFR flight to be cleared for
sition Area when designated in con- a visual approach, what approach and
R32 junction with an airport which has a U19 landing minimum must prevail?
published instrument approach pro-
cedure? 1- 1,000-foot ceiling and 1-mile
visibility.
1- Where specified, that airspace 2- Basic VFR conditions (VMC).
extending upward from 700 feet 3- The same minimums as the IFR
or more AGL and terminating at approach to that runway.
the base of the overlying 4- Ceiling which permits at
controlled airspace. least a 1,000-foot obstacle
2- That airspace which extends from clearance.
the surface and terminates at
the base of the overlying CCA.
3- The airspace extending from the 901. How often is NOTAM (D) data given
surface to 3,000 feet within a all-circuit dissemination?
5-statute mile radius of the R10
airport. 1- Every 12 hours (NOSUM)
4- Areas designated as Group I or 2- Every 6 hours
Group II TCAs for which all 3- Every 2 hours
aircraft are subject to the 4- Hourly
operating rules in FAR Part 01.
192
 Page 161

902. A certain airplane has a nosewheel 905. Which NOTAM is considered regulatory in
tire pressure of 55 PSI and the main nature and provides information such as
Z16 wheel's tire pressures are 135 PSI. R10 changes to a decision height or minimum
What is the relationship, if any, descent altitude for a particular
between tire pressure and dynamic published instrument approach procedure?
hydroplaning?
1- NOTAM (L)
1- Hydroplaning would occur 2- NOTAM (R)
only on the nose wheel 3- FDC NOTAM
tire with these tire 4- NOTAM (D)
pressures.
2- The main wheel tires would
hydroplane before the nose 906. Of the three methods used to disseminate
wheel tire. aeronautical information concerning the
3- The nose wheel tire would R10 National Airspace System, which is con-
hydroplane before the main sidered to be the primary method?
wheel tires.
4- Speed only, and not tire 1- Flight Service Stations and
pressure, determines when ARTCCs.
dynamic hydroplaning would 2- The Aeronautical Charts.
occur. 3- The Airman's Information Manual.
4- The NOTAM system.
903. To what airspace is a RNAV high
route confined? 907. Assume that thrust is managed to main-
T23 tain IAS, and glide slope is being
1- 18,000 feet MSL to FL 450. Z17 flown. What characteristics should be
2- FL 240 to FL 450. observed when a constant headwind shears
3- FL 240 to FL 600. to a constant tailwind?
4- FL 310 to FL 600.
1- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased,
904. Assume that thrust is managed to then reduced;
maintain IAS, and glide slope is VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
Z17 being flown. What characteristics IAS: Decreases, then
should be observed when a constant increases to approach speed.
tailwind shears to a constant
headwind? 2- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced,
1- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; then increased;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases;
then increased; LAS: Decreases, then
VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
increases to approach speed.
IAS: Increases, then
decreases to approach speed. 3- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced,
2- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; then increased;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
then increased; IAS: Decreases.
VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
IAS: Decreases, then 4- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases;
increases to approach speed. REQUIRED THRUST: Increased,
then reduced;
3- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, LAS: Increases, then
then increased; decreases to approach speed.
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases;
IAS: Increases, then
decreases to approach speed. 908. At what distance from the landing run-
way threshold does the touchdown zone
4- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; R24 marker begin?
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased,
then reduced; 1- 500 feet
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; 2- 800 feet
IAS: Decreases, then 3- 1,000 feet
increases to approach speed. 4- 1,200 feet

193
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909. Which NOTAM disseminates data of a 914. What is an Airport Advisory Area?
"time-critical" nature that affects
R.J0 flight safety and is given all- R34 1- That airspace within 5 statute
circuit coverage? miles of an airport which does
not have a control tower but
1- AIRAD where an FSS is located.
2- NOTAM (D) 2- That airspace identified by an
3- FDC NOTAM area on the surface within
4- NOTAM (L) which flight of an aircraft is
subject to special restrictions.
3- The airspace which extends
910. You experience a right crosswind upward from the surface and
component while arcing right on terminates at the base of the
Z14 the 15 DME arc. Where should the Continental Control Area (CCA).
bearing pointer be referenced rela- 4- That airspace within 5 statute
tive to the wingtip position to miles of an airport, extending
maintain the 15 DME range? up to but not including 3,000
feet, within which a control
1- On the right wingtip reference. tower is in operation.
2- Behind the right wingtip
reference.
3- Ahead of the right wingtip 915. For a given airplane gross weight at a
reference. constant Mach .82 cruise, what is the
4- Behind the left wingtip Z17 relationship between fuel flow, tem-
reference. perature, and altitude? Fuel flow is
higher when

911. What is the speed and weight combina- 1- both temperature and altitude
tion used to determine aircraft are decreased.
Q36 approach categories? 2- temperature is decreased and
altitude is increased.
1- 1.3 times the stalling speed 3- both temperature and altitude
in approach configuration at are increased.
maximum certificated gross 4- temperature is increased and
weight.
altitude is decreased.
2- 1.3 times the stalling speed
in landing configuration at
maximum certificated gross "CLEARED AS FILED. MAINTAIN SEVEN THOUSAND,
landing weight. EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FIVE ZERO FIVE MINUTES
3- Stalling speed in landing con- AFTER DEPARTURE. MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING
figuration at maximum certifi- FOR RADAR VECTOR TO JOIN J37. SQUAWK 0105...."
cated gross weight. (AU weather is 100 obscured and one-half mile
4- Stalling speed in approach in fog.)
configuration at maximum
certificated landing weight. 916. You depart RWY 27R at William B.
Hartsfield International after receiving
V12 the above clearance and experience com-
912. What is the lowest RA DH, if any, for plete two-way communications failure.
a Category III A instrument approach The course of action ATC expects you to
Q40 procedure? take is to

1- No DH is provided. 1- turn immediately to intercept

2- 50 feet. J37. At 5 minutes after depar-
3- 100 feet. ture, climb to your flight
4- 150 feet. planned altitude.
2- maintain runway heading for 5
minutes, then turn to intercept
913. If severe turbulence should be encoun- J37 and climb to FL 250.
tered, a pilot should make the neces- 3- turn immediately to intercept
Z19 sary power adjustments and attempt to J37, and climb to FL 250 5
maintain minutes after departure.
4- maintain runway heading until
1- a constant airspeed. reaching 7,000 feet MSL, then
2- a level flight attitude. turn to intercept J37 and climb
3- both a constant airspeed to FL 250.
and altitude.
4- a constant altitude.

294
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917. ATC issues you a clearance for a 922. Which NOTAM data are appended to the
"Contact Approach" while operating hourly Aviation Weather Report (SA)
U20 within the Los Angeles TCA. This R10 for a particular station?
clearance
1- FDC NOTAM
1- is authorization to descend 2- AIRAD
below the floor of the TCA 3- NOTAM (L)
if you are in radar contact 4- NOTAM (D)
with approach control.
2- authorizes you to descend
below the floor of the TCA 923. Which NOTAM is considered regulatory
provided you are over a in nature?
specific VFR checkpoint. R10
3- authorizes you to descend 1- NOTAM (D)
below the floor of the TCA 2- NOTAM (R)
if you are VFR. 3- FOC NOTAM
4- does not authorize you to 4- NOTAM (L)
descend below the floor of
the TCA.
924. Of what initial cockpit indications
should a pilot be aware when a constant
918. Information concerning changes that Z17 tailwind component shears to a calm
affect the en route structure and wind?
R10 published instrument approach pro-
cedures is disseminated as a 1- Altitude increases; pitch and
indicated airspeed decrease.
1- NOTAM (L). 2- Altitude, pitch, and indicated
2- FDC NOTAM. airspeed decrease.
3- NOTAM (R). 3- Altitude, pitch, and indicated
4- NOTAM (0). airspeed increase.
4- Altitude decreases; pitch and
indicated airspeed increase.
919. The vertical extent of the Positive
Control Area throughout the conter-
R32 minous United States is from 925. When using an airplane with VORTAC
three-dimensional area navigation
1- 14,500 feet to FL 450. Z13 equipment,
2- 18,000 feet to FL 450.
3- 18,000 feet to FL 600. 1- continuous vertical guidance
4- FL 240 to FL 600. to end of runway with select-
able glide slope capability
is available.
920. What is the normally expected service 2- the airplane must be equipped
range of an (H) class navigational with a transponder in order to
R13 aid for a proposed flight at FL 350? file an IFR flight plan using
area navigation.
1- 130 NM 3- all VORs along the major air-
2- 120 NM ways may be used to set up
3- 110 NM waypoints.
4- 100 NM 4- it is the responsibility of
the pilot to select the way-
points on an established RNAV
921. Of what initial cockpit indications route.
should a:Trial:1e aware when a
Z17 constant headwind component shears
to a calm wind? 926. The distance from the approach end of
the runway to the touchdown zone mark-
1- IAS decreases, aircraft pitches R24 ing is
up, and altitude decreases.
2- IAS decreases, aircraft pitches
down, and altitude decreases.
3- IAS increases, aircraft pitches
up, and altitude increases.
4- IAS increases, aircraft pitches
down, and altitude increases.
1- 2,000 feet.
2- 1,500 feet.
3- 1,000 feet.
4- 500 feet.

195
Page 164

927. Vortex circulation around the wing- 931. What is the lowest RA DH and visibility/
till; is RVR requirement for a Category III A
V35 Q40 instrument approach procedure?
1- counterclockwise as viewed
from behind. 1- DH - None; RVR - 700 feet
2- clockwise as viewed from behind. 2- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet
3- inward, upward, and around each 3- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 1,200 feet
tip. 4- DH - 100 feet; RVR - 1,200 feet
4- outward, upward, and around
each tip.
932. To determine which instrument approach
category minimums are applicable to a
928. Which NOTAM data are disseminated by Q36 turbojet airplane, you must know the
operating control towers, telautoyraph,
R10 and telephone? 1- VA at maximum certificated
landing weight.
1- NOTAM (D) 2- number of engines and stall
2- FDC NOTAM speed at the anticipated
3- AIRAD landing weight.
4- NOTAM 3- Vso at maximum certificated
gross landing weight.
4- VSO at maximum certificated
929. At 1430Z, you enter a holding pattern takeoff weight.
and receive an EAC time of 1450Z. At
V12 14351, complete two-way communications
failure occurs. If the holding fix is 933. As compared to a wind down the landing
not the same as the approach fix, what runway, what effect would a light
is the recommended procedure ATC V35 crosswind of approximately 7 knots have
expects you to follow to execute the on wingtip vortex behavior?
instrument approach to a landing?
1- Both vortices would move down-
1- Proceed to the approach fix, wind at a greater rate than if
hold until the EAC time, and the surface wind was directly
complete the approach. down the landing runway.
2- Depart the holding fix to arrive 2- The upwind vortex would tend to
at the approach fix as close as remain in the touchdown zone
possible to the EAC time and longer than the downwind vortex.
complete the approach. 3- A light crosswind would rapidly
3- Depart the holding fix at the dissipate the strength of both
EAC time, and complete the vortices.
approach. 4- The downwind vortex would tend
4- Depart the holding fix on the to remain in the touchdown zone
flight planned ETA (as amended longer than the upwind vortex.
with ATC), proceed to the
approach fix and complete the
approach. 934. What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

R10 1- To provide all information

930. What is an airport traffic area? considered essential to flight
safety in one publication.
R34 1- The airspace identified by an 2- To advise of changes, regula-
area on the surface within which tory in nature, to instrument
flight of an aircraft is subject approach procedures prior to
to restrictions. their normal publication cycle.
2- That airspace which extends 3- To provide the latest informa-
upward from the surface and tion on the status of naviga-
terminates at the base of the tion facilities to all FSS
Continental Control Area. facilities for scheduled
3- That airspace extending upward broadcasts.
to, but not including 3,000 4- To issue notices for all air-
feet, within a 5-statute mile ports and navigation facilities
radius from the center of an in the shortest possible time.
airport which has an operating
control tower.
4- That airspace within 5 statute
miles of an airport which does
not have a control tower but
where an FSS is located.

196
 Page 165

935. What altitude, when depic, 939. What aural and visual indications should
Enroute Low Altitude Char: be received when over the back course
Q24 acceptable navigational s R14 marker on a published back course ILS?
coverage for accurate naviga
within 2 nautical miles of a NJ 1- Continuous dots at the rate of
VORTAC? six dots per secondblue light.
2- Two dots at the rate of 72 to
1- MRA 95 two-dot combinations per
2- MCA minute--amber light.
3- MOCA 3- Continuous dots at the rate of
4- MEA 2 dots per second--white light.
4- Two dots at the rate of 72 to
95 two-dot combinations per
936. What does this symbol ( v ) in:' minute--white light.
cate when it appears on an instru-
Q40 ment approach procedure chart?
940. What is the lowest RA DH, if any, and
1- Takeoff minimums are non- the visibility/RVR requirement for a
standard and a certain IFR Q40 Category III B instrument approach
departure may have been procedure?
established for obstruction
avoidance after takeoff. 1- DH - None; RVR - 150 feet
2- Takeoff minimums are non- 2- DH - 50 feet; RVR - None
standard only for air carrier 3- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 150 feet
operation; consult a - 4- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet
separate listing.
3- Takeoff minimums are standard
for aircraft with three or 941. When are data contained in a NOTAM
more engines. disseminated?
4- A SID has been published for R10
that airport. 1- Hourly in the NOTAM Summary
(NOSUM).
2- Hourly, appended to the local
937. What is the lowest defined CAT II DH Aviation Weather Report (SA).
in terms of HAT? 3- As requested by pilots or on
Q40
an "as needed" basis when
1- 50 feet departing, en route, or landing.
2- 100 feet 4- Twice each day in the NOTAM
3- 150 feet Summary (NOSUM).
4- 200 feet

942. At what distance from the landing run-

"CLEARED AS FILED, MAINTAIN EIGHT THOUSAND, way threshold does the touchdown zonq
EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO FIVE R24 marker begin?
MINUTES AFTER DEPARTURE. MAINTAIN RUNWAY
HEADING FOR RADAR VECTOR TO JOIN J26...." 1- 500 feet
2- 1,000 feet
938. You depart RWY 32R at Chicago-O'Hare 3- 1,200 feet
International Airport after receiving 4- 1,500 feet
V12 the above clearance and immediately
experience complete two-way communi-
cations failure. 943. What visual and aural indications should
The course of action
ATC expects you to take is to be received when over the back course
R14 marker on a published back course ILS?
1- turn immediately to intercept
J26. Five minutes after 1- Amber light--two dots at the
departure, climb to your flight rate of 72 to 95 two-dot
planned altitude. combinations per minute.
2- 2- Blue light--continuous dots
maintain runway heading for 5
minutes, then turn to inter- at the rate of six dots per
cept J26, and climb to FL 240. second.
3- 3- Amber light--continuous dots
turn immediately to intercept
J26, climb to FL 240 5 minutes at the rate of six dots per
after departure. second.
4- maintain runway heading until 4- White light--two dots at the
reaching 8,000, then turn to rate of 72 to 95 two-dot
intercept J26, and climb to combinations per minute.
FL 240.

197
Page 166

944. When passing through an abrupt wind 948. What is the operational status of a
shear which involves a shift from a VOR/VORTAC if you receive only the
Z17 tailwind to a headwind, what power R12 coded identifier approximately every
management would normally be required 30 seconds?
to maintain a constant indicated air-
speed and ILS glide slope? 1- Maintenance is being performed
and that neither the VOR nor
1- Higher than normal power DME is operating normally.
initially, followed by a 2- Both the VOR and DME signals
decrease as the shear is are operating normally.
encountered, then an increase. 3- The VOR is inoperative; the
2- Lower than normal power DME is operating normally.
initially, followed by an 4- The DME is inoperative; the
increase as the shear is VOR is operating normally.
encountered, then a decrease.
3- Higher than normal power
initially, followed by a 949. Unless determined otherwise through
furtherincrease as the wind flight inspection procedures, what is
shear is encountered, then a R13 the normal expected service range of
decrease. an (L) class navigation aid as it
4- Lower than normal power appears on an Enroute Low Altitude Chart?
initially, followed by a
further decrease as the 1- 40 NM
shear wind is encountered, 2- 30 NM
then an increase. 3- 20 NM
4- 10 NM

945. To what airspace is a RNAV low route

confined? 950. What visual and aural indications should
T23 be received when over the back course
1- From 1,200 feet AGL up to, but R14 marker on a published back course ILS?
not including, 10,000 feet MSL.
2- From 1,200 feet AGL up to, but 1- Blue light--continuous dots
not including, 18,000 feet MSL. at the rate of six dots per
3- From 10,000 feet MSL up to, but second.
not including, 18,000 feet MSL. 2- Amber light--two dots at the
4- From 10,000 feet MSL up to, but rate of 72 to 95 two-dot
not including, FL 240. combinations per minute.
3- White light--two dots at the
rate of 72 to 95 two-dot
946. At approximately what speed should you combinations per minute.
expect dynamic hydroplaning to occur 4- Amber light--continuous dots
Z16 if a tire has an air pressure of 135 PSI? at the rate of six dots per
second.
1- 112 to 115 knots
2- 105 to 110 knots
3- 98 to 102 knots 951. Which quality is representative of the
4- 86 to 90 knots wake turbulence produced by a large
V35 transport aircraft?

947. What is critical Mach number? It is the 1- Induced roll within vortices
will not exceed the rolling
Z18 1- speed at which the aircraft capabilities of modern, short
starts to "buffet" or "tuck." span, high performance aircraft.
2- speed where the airflow over 2- Vortices can be avoided by
the wing is completely super- remaining at least 300 feet
sonic. below and behind the flight
3- highest speed possible without path of the generating aircraft.
supersonic airflow over any 3- The vortex characteristics of
part of the wing. any given aircraft may be
4- same for all high altitude altered by extending the wing
aircraft. flaps or changing the speed.
4- Wake turbulence behind a
propeller. driven aircraft is
negligible since jet engine
thrust is a necessary factor
in the formation of vortices.

ov,!, 198
 Page 167

952. Which condition would initially cause 957. Which altitude, when shown on an Enroute
the LAS and pitch to increase and the Low Altitude or Area Chart, ensures
Z17 aircraft to gain altitude? Q24 acceptable navigational signal reception
by which an accurate determination of
1- Sudden decrease in a headwind position can be made at a spedified
component. intersection?
2- Tailwind which suddenly increases
in velocity. 1- MOCA
3- Sudden increase in a headwind 2- MRA
component. 3- MCA
4- Tailwind which shears to a calm 4- MEA
wind.

958. What is the relationship between fuel

953. In terms of HAT, what is the lowest flow, temperature, and altitude for
defined CAT II DH? Z17 a given airplane gross weight at a
Q40 constant indicated cruise Mach?
1- 200 feet
2- 150 feet 1- Fuel flow is higher when both
3- 100 feet temperature and altitude are
4- 50 feet increased.
2- Fuel flow is lower when tem-
perature is decreased and
954. What is ore important difference altitude is increased.
between the simplified directional 3- Fuel flow is higher when
R16 facility (SDF) and the ILS localizes? temperature is decreased
The SOF and altitude is increased.
4- Fuel flow is lower when
1- coded identification consists both temperature and alti-
of a two-letter identifier. tude are decreased.
2- has a wider course resulting
in less precision.
3- utilizes a lower frequency band. 959. Which altitude, when depicted on an
4- range information is provided Enroute Low Altitude or Area Chart,
by DM E. Q24 ensures acceptable signal coverage
for accurate navigation only within
25 statute miles of a VOR/VORTAC?
955. When cleared to execute a published
side-step maneuver for a specific 1- MRA
U21 approach and subsequent landing, at 2- MEA
what point is the pilot expected to 3- MOCA
commence this maneuver? 4- MCA

1- A+ the published ASR minimums.

2- At the published minimum alti- 960. What is the lowest RA DH, if any, and
tude for a circling approach. the visibility/RVR requirement for a
3- As soon as possible after the Q40 Category III B instrument approach
runway or runway environment procedure?
is in sight.
4- At the DH for the straight-in 1- DH - None; RVR - 700 feet
approach. 2- DH - None; RVR - 150 feet
3- DH - 100 feet; RVR - 1,000 feet
4- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet
956. The distance from the approach end of
the runway to the touchdown zone mark-
R24 ing is 961. What approach and landing minimums
must prevail for an IFR flight cleared
U19 for a visual approach?

1- 1,000-foot ceiling and 1-mile

visibility.
2- The same minimums as the IFR
approach to that runway.
3- Basic VFR conditions (VMC).
1- 500 feet. 4- Ceiling which permits at least
2- 800 feet. a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance.
3- 1,000 feet.
4- 1,500 feet.

"S '1*

199
 Page 168

962. Assume that thrust is managed to main- 965. NOTAM data which are disseminated
tain LAS, and glide slope is being
locally by telautograph or telephone
Z17 flown. What characteristics should be R10 are categorized as a
observed when constant headwind shears
to a constant tailwind? 1- NOTAM advisory (AIRAD).
2- NOTAM (L).
1- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; 3- NOTAM (D).
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, 4- FDC NOTAM.
then reduced;
VERTICAL SPEED: Increases;
LAS: Decreases, then 966. What is the lowest RA DH and visibility/
increases to approach speed. RVR requirement for a Category III A
Q40 instrument approach procedure?
2- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases;
REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, 1- DH - None; RVR - 700 feet
then reduced; 2- DH - 100 feet; RVR - 1,200 feet
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; 3- DH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet
IAS: Increases, then 4- DH - None; RVR - 150 feet
decreases to approach speed.

3- PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; 967. While arcing left on the 15 DME arc, you
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, experience a left crosswind component.
then increased; Z14 Where should the bearing pointer be
VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; referenced relative to the wingtip
LAS: Decreases and remains position to maintain the 15 DME range?
at that value.
1-- On the left-wingtip-reference.
- PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; 2- Ahead of the right wingtip
REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, reference.
then increased; 3- Behind the left wingtip
VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; reference.
LAS: Decreases, then 4- Ahead of the left wingtip
increases to approach speed. reference.

963. What ATC clearance information will 968. What determines the instrument approach
always be contained in an abbreviated category (A, B, C, D, or E) for an air
T11 departure clearance, "CLEARED AS Q36 carrier airplane?
FILED...."?
1- The maximum gross weight and
1- The name of the first point 1.3 VSO in the landing con-
where the route changes figuration.
airways. 2- The gross landing weight and
2- The name of the destination
VSO in the landing configura-
airport to which the flight tion.
is cleared. 3- The maximum certificated gross
3- The name of the first com-
landing weight in the landing
pulsory reporting point if configuration and 1.3 VSO
not in radar environment. 4- The maximum certificated land-
4- The cruising altitude as ing weight at 1.3 VA.
assigned by ATC.

969. Critical Mach number is the

964. Which category of NOTAM data are
issued in accordance with Federal Z18 1- speed where the airflow over
R10 Aviation Regulations and are con- the wing is completely super-
sidered regulatory? sonic.
2- highest speed possible without
1- NOTAM (L)
supersonic flow over any part
2- FDC NOTAM of the aircraft.
3- NOTAM (L) and NOTAM (D) 3- same for all high altitude
4- NOTAM (D)
aircraft.
4- speed at which the aircraft
starts to "buffet" or "tuck."
 Page 169

970. As compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at 973. On an Enroute Low Altitude Chart, which
what speed can a pilot expect viscous altitude ensures acceptable navigational
Z16 hydroplaning to occur when landing on a Q24 signal reception by which an accurate
wet runway which has a smooth surface? determination of position can be made at
a specified intersection?
1- At approximately 2.0 times the
speed dynamic hydroplaning can 1- MRA
be expected to occur. 2- MCA
2- At lower speed dynamic hydro- 3- MEA
planing occurs. 4- MOCA
3- At approximately 1.5 times the
speed dynamic hydroplaning can
be expected to occur. 974. If a tire has an air pressure of 145 PSI,
4- At the same speed dynamic hydro- at approximately what speed should you
planing occurs. Z16 expect dynamic hydroplaning to occur?

1- 114 to 118 knots

971. When is it appropriate to request a 2- 108 to 112 knots
"contact approach"? 3- 102 to 106 knots
U20 4- 96 to 100 knots
1- Only in lieu of conducting a
published instrument approach
procedure to an airport. 975. An abbreviated departure clearance,
2- Only by a pilot on an IFR "cleared as filed," will always con-
clearance to an airport not T11 tain the
having a prescribed instrument
approach procedure. - 1- name of the first compulsory
3- When "in the clear," following reporting point.
an instrument approach to one 2- assigned cruising altitude.
airport, a contact approach 3- name of destination airport
clearance should be used to to which cleared.
proceed to another nearby 4- name of each location where
airport. the route changes airways.
4- Only when the ground visibility
is at least one statute mile
and the airfield environment 976. As compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at
is in sight. what speed can a pilot expect viscous
Z16 hydroplaning to occur when landing on a
wet runway which h:s a smooth surface?
"CLEARED AS FILED, MAINTAIN EIGHT THOUSAND,
EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL TWO FOUR ZERO FIVE 1- At approximately 1.5 times the
MINUTES AFTER DEPARTURE. MAINTAIN RUNWAY speed dynamic hydroplaning can
HEADING FOR RADAR VECTOR TO JOIN J26...." be expected to occur.
2- At lower speed dynamic hydro-
planing occurs.
972. You depart RWY 32R at Chicago-O'Hare 3- At approximately 2.0 times the
International Airport after receiving speed dynamic hydroplaning can
V12 the above clearance and immediately be expected to occur.
experience complete two-way communica- 4- At the same speed dynamic hydro-
tions failure. The course of action planing occurs.
ATC expects you to take is to

1- maintain runway heading until 977. While arcing right on the 15 DME arc,
reaching 8,000, then turn to you experience a left crosswind
intercept J26, and climb to Z14 component. Where should the bearing
FL 240. pointer be referenced relative to the
2- turn immediately to intercept wingtip position to maintain the 15
J26. Five minutes after DME range?
departure, climb to your flight
planned altitude. 1- Behind the right wingtip
3- maintain runway heading for 5 reference.
minutes, then turn to inter- 2- On the right wingtip reference.
cept J26, and climb to FL 240. 3- Behind the left wingtip
4- turn immediately to intercept reference.
J26, climb to FL 240 5 minutes 4- Ahead of the right wingtip
after departure. reference.

201
 Page 170

978. What is the lowest RA DH and visi-

bility/RVR requirement for a Category
Q40 III A instrument approach procedure?

1- OH - 50 feet; RVR - 700 feet

2- DH - None; RVR - 700 feet
3- DH - None; RVR - 150 feet
4- DH - 100 feet; JUR - 1,200
feet

979. An abbreviated departure clearance

"...CLEARED AS FILED...." will always
Tll contain the

1- cruising altitude as requested

on the flight plan.
2- name of the destination airport
to which cleared.
3- name and number of the SID to
be flown when filed in the
flight plan.
4- name of the first compulsory
reporting point if not in radar
environment.

980. That segment of an instrument approach

procedure between the intermediate fix,
Q24 or point, and the final approach fix is
called the

1- step-down fix.
2- maneuvering segment.
3- initial approach.
4- intermediate approach.

202
 LEGEND
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Plod *roach
MO fa Ma
270 krirel Missed RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION
1113,02th
ISAIMO Wood
Poo Ming
UN% rN min be gociRed AN they del& hem
110,1 Weal Mika* No Voice tranonittod on FACUTIS/1118 AMPS
tio *maid Del line our bedew
ffl 210 4870 2200
Final Approach FIN (RAP)

llor noopnciion approaches)

ro
Mordahey Meinunt Maim Recoeseried
0 Holtz* A** kw 0 VOA 1ACAN 7 vont FM
Altitude Altitude Altitude Altitude
'NDI (On) , Gide Slops Weep,
Altitudes ganders or an rowed to Jew AN
VOR
(NJ) *foY ors*.
NOI iNaniretional flak Moron) VOMAC Pb.
20 011% I 6 DME I Nano Glide Sege karrept olMude k the name al the team
TACAN I RR Viva) A* Polk
VIAYPOINT I Ilse
alibi ore *A for 'polite ley week erupt a
TACAN 1ACANDlitt *NAV AO% LOMICorroou Motor) Amite wed
Fie Fm Fix
AERODROME SKETCH

<Z>., 00 Mahe lean

TEVANAL WIRINGS' =7.1 11111 0 ®° 0 ®0 Hike* A0 *q Awe
2001 Akre ANA .7:777ree. Loci= Cour* Ilixd Swim. Other Thom Noraloodifrotiviots Negoivo S*Ilgeil 4 14.4* C4011 Norio
Hard Sutton
1SS' #/#* Win Fowl a I A
(MI) Mileage

Pease Speld Um Mom

O keine Trounder gEM Nom the Fop type Niel it being Mend at
Cloud hoe* Linde Meal SON.
Rao wen balieer intallele it get hop
and Toenail Corntiertion 10(1 123 Item [Link].
3101 NoP1 SA NM to GS Inkpl ND newel Fail* oN the end of M may)
01% u Total Rummy Gimlet

(14,2 so LOM)
whin way gradient NNW; 0.3 %)
SIX Comm [Link] Dapbc.d Ihreeholi
NNW DATA
Rodiol Gee
AentIng Gem
11111--o- kis A Indicate other Rion *Word Altemati
WAY01 (NAV) rel./Nein! !bidirectional I lel Iasi( Minimum apply for U.S, Any and Clog, refer to
111911-0- Lai Radial Wirt* Data tabulation.

e Ccolvol Tow
/Anew Seder MINA PRAYS ANA Indicate PR minket on tie AutiteNd
1400 Who Wool tower and MOIR Won on
othil 25 HOS gosoloON 044 31'311.1IN 14'51.5'W for alienate urn Oa to oweillofed ladiky
*Mated, heron symbol oIR to end and
112,7 CAP la1.-502 or Lima of woeher reporting mirk
590 further Identified as Telt,
(Arrows on choonce Ode Meetly Won)
X?
Wage, tione * Rotating Anew Isom
V Indicate Nte the gelded 1ahooff Aledreara
Camino*, Of deportee present CO for Chil
Fro:NoV, fdehtifier, Perial/Deara I U.S. No Optical Lending System (CtS) "CLS" DOD von rat to SINN Diroctime
Interiationol loundary
heaths it Noon because of its height of
Voditf so WoYlsoisl
NIpM mirenen Novo In more Pam Wing
Wince fork Drake. oggroinoieti 7 Set and proinit, to edge of
MA Clem rot to eel* plated out.
mews mot mato one obtIngrion for some Ipes
of
Char% meted to nth trunk wit kw.
leperliog PON dl New (Cargoliory)
night Inienuo when different then day by on
IVOR &ego* had A Name ([Link]
eerie and nob,
*roach light emkoll on Mown on a *prate
Fir or kosneetion
logy

[Link].

203
204
 LEGEND
LEGEND
INSTRUMENT WOAD, PROCEDURES (CHARTS)
AP404MITING tgAlirSTATES
Each woo" ION grow indkaNd on Akpori *MN OM boor atm hantlikatan ham (A, 1, ac.)
GENERAL INFORMAVION & ABBREVIATIONS Woad
m hgarei
r.
*Irdicolos Wahl tow opiates romonlinuoudy, lA
AR Atoms in nautical miles incept Viability Dot° whkh is in Pah* A Ila e? patrasd with weed 13Mkg MNer Ian* lake*
monad him (F) Innald wi h *a op. (I)
miles and Runway Visual long which is in hundreds of fist), reacih rilith
Runway dimensions M fut.
wJ
Elmotrom in hat Moon Sao level.
AR rodiottjhearimp on Magnetic, TOUCHDOWN ZONE WONG 5 SIMPLIFIED SHORT
OR U.S. CONHGumslm
ODA) APPROACH LIGHT SYSTEM
ADF hem Aiwa, liwicator
ietomatit Dirmtesn Finder Maul, Intsnsity Approoth
ALS calm (NTI
"PP199{11* 50o light System /with RAI
APP CON
i,rotoods Cashel MAP . . . . . , . . M i s se d Amin:loch Point
Pdrntol
MDA
ewes
ASR/PAR Minimum Descent Abinxie
Published Roder Minimums at
ATARI .

ATO
this Aerodrome,

Autcmalk Tannthol Infetrintil

NA
Medium kooky Runway DO
Not Authorised
WOOD .va hr
NOP .....
NiH
.Noedimmonot Roam kmon
MINIX of Mil 47shoom T
SC loth Count No Produce Tun Rewind by

Ch'ing (Nadal. Turn shall not bo NOTE in SKETCH to. IDEL k7 15"
CAT . , . Catevey
CHAN . , Channel RA . ....
emceed without ATC cltorowel
Radio Altimeter Height
STANDARD
RD
?Efi) $41610 LINOlt 3000 RH
OK tIN Ad
ammo beton
Roder Requited Roder vectoring roomy
(HO loismiTII 0 TWO PACE ROW
DH
Betides Haight
for this approach STANDARD LENGTH 3000 FEET 000 OM
DME Radar Vetoing May br owed through
Distance Mowing Equipment Maw WO* Approoth
DR .
Deal Reskoniel
any podia of the Nov Aid
*tooth, mat firol.
* how
BEV.
Mew armlet
RAL 011010100LALSOILM00
FAT .. ......final Approach Fie
Runway Aligerwro Indicator
ligho is
FM ....... . ,Fon Markin 1./
Rode Noon
... O wet Pohl of lloraptko ItEll Runway End Identifet lights
OS . ....... Gkle Slope RaS ......... Rummy Camino light System
11
NM Haight Above Airodrome RNAv Aso Noripplion
HAl . Height Alas lording
MAT
RIR
Runway Remaining lights -r
*Id Atom Touchdown
Return In Sow
Hilt High Intensity Runway lights
1/2l.
am SUMO man 2400 Pin
. . , .... WW1 Appresch Fu
Runway Touchdown Zooe . First 3003' of Runway.
RYR
Runway VW& Rao
ICAO .
International Civil Aviation 5
0 AIR FORCE mom
Strcightin
Ocanisofmn SAIS
shod Approach tight System
IHisi kook) Iw .
(5) 5A15/It
WT, INIXN ...... PRITAfindi Shod P419,996
intottwhorl STANDARD LENGTH 3002 FEET
light System /with OAR STA/10.10 LENGTH 1400 FEET
WA ....... . , Lecalisar Type Directioral 044 SDF
Simplified Directional facility
ld9 Loading IA
STANDARD maw**, Appsth
Transition Ahitude
ALSF.1 iwnrof is
r .:\tem
low Weeny beery Wm M.
TAC TACAN
INN .
Trod in ligla Soon TOS Themledd Owing Nile
:LI7. Afar 164010441(14)
10C NI
Localise (MISR)
(Height in lee Aborepound
LI,
........ lad [Link] at losst2NSI lowl) 1E0 M.
(Colter I Nell of hod to snit in TOT ......... Touchdown tone
101
.0 I
Mrrisg onto to lelemembeefibol MI
TOTE w.
WEIL ..... Widow Imo Deralen
TD2I . ......... Touchdown Tone lights STANDARD LENGTH 1000 FEET
MA15 Madam Intimity Approach
Tlr 1000071006
Transition level
light System
(VASI) VISUAL APPROACH
%spent (INAV) 1
1114 .44
SLOPE INDICATOR
.01

LANDING MINIMA FORMAT

I Idern
In NO mend. and elaaion is 1179, and runway touchdown son* titration STANDARD LEMON 3002 FEET in
it 1152. was
Pik4 IPTIPPATA
OPARALLEL POW
STANDARD LENGTH 3002 FIT
Much Approach Category AND CROSSI&I
SHOO APPROACH LOT SYSTEM
(RIR 100's of for) IMP
DH
/A HAT
.1111111

we
QVIII411 *0180501 10R1,01COM V/MI
1140440111111110W 01/013 Mktg
Straighhin IlS
to Rummy 27
CATEGORTIM11111.461 C D
All mininwn

R5.27 1110011111/ apentohan we

&SIX MO* KR KOMI
200 (20n) VIM A lltIONOID MOM MOW 10
Civil Piktv.
54C.27 1440/24
, 1440/50 Pitts ACt01001 HOW K01001 UN
258 nit' to app.
Stliidth
130044
218 130041
print. regukitivis.
AIM
as maw
with Gilds 1540.1 1640.1 1640.116
0.0000 10100 MI OM YAM= MN
kook a 17404 PM UM ND
we used to
361 (1(12.1) 161 500.1) 161 (ROA) 561(600.4
I + memo PLOW
T 0X1 WWI
1
01 OWE SOI
UPI ro,
Amoy 27
ALLlgH1AREO- 10OLOtY
HAA In Soak MON NO% VAN C0111DU1.10244 VIAL VOX IOU
1/[Link])
PANDAS LENGTH 1500 RP ARBOR IWRMAMEM10A111002
STANDARD SON 1100 RP
$15151.

206
 LEGEND

LEGEND
STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL ROUTE (STAR) CHARTS
STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE (SID) CHARTS
RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION AERODROMES RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION ROUTES

0 VOR c= 0 VOR
4500 MEA
© Helicopter '3500 MOCA
TACAN
RUNWAYS
TACAN 1270°........ Arrival Route
(65) Mileage

117 VORTAC
Hardsurface
V VORTAC

t RADIO BEACON/COMPASS LOCATOR Ell Metal Surface WAYPOINT ( RNAV) Transition Route

Closed r!v RANGE (Simultaneous Broadcast)

RANGE (Non-Simultaneous Voice)

Under Conerudica NDB (Nonirectional Radio Beacon) MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude)
RANGE (Simultaneous Voice)

Other Than Hard Surface .0 LOM (Compose Locator) 1 Mileage Breakdown

<=> 00 MARKER BEACONS
,

[Link]/Hardslcmds/Tax'nms ' Marker Beacons

LOCALIZER COURSE I Altitude change at other than Radio Aids

Localize, Course
ROUTES (65) Mileage between India Aids, Reporting
ALTITUDES
Points and Route Btu&
Departure /Guts SDF Course
5500 2300

Transition Routs Mandatory Minimum DME or TACAN 11 Ell Airway/Route Identification

NAME
Altitude Altitude Channel
000.0 NAM 00

SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE

0 Holding Pattern
Underline indicates no voice transmitted
4800 2200
R Restricted
on this frequency
Maximum Recommended
PProhibited
W-Waming Altitude Altitude SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
Radial line
AAlert R275 and value RRestricted

Prohibited
MISCELLANEOUS SYMBOLS
Reporting Point
ti [Link] VIVarning
A .Alerl
A Compulsory

AERODROMES
DME Fix 1.5) DME Mileage (when
\ A Intersections I Arresting Gear
not obvious)
0 Civil Q Joint CivilMilitary 0 Military
Compulsory Reporting Paint IJet Barrier
IVOR Changeover Point ® Heliport

DME Fix Displaced Threshold

Radial line
Control Tower
'.R.275 and value
vVv
Wv Distance Not To Scale 0 13% DOWN 1' Take OH Gradient
Entry facility/fix identified by name and symbol only.

All radials/bearings ore magnetic

IVOR Changeover Point
All mileages are nautical
Outer Marker PM-continuous dashes
Middle Marker (MM)aliernale dots and dashes. All altitudes in feet-MSL
11 7.6irtquency undglined indicates no voice capability,
V25 Airway 168241011w MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude
All radials/borings are magnetic,
All mileages are nautical. MOCA- Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
Runway dimensions in feet,
Elevation in feetMSL

207
 Instrument Approach Procedures (Charts)

INOPERATIVE COMPONENTS OR VISUAL AIDS TABLE

AIRCRAFT APPROACH CATEGORIES
cD
Civil Pilots see FAR 91,117(c)
Minimums are specified for the various aircraft speed/weight
combinations, Speeds are Landing minimums published an instrument approach procedure charts
based' upon a value 1.3 times the are based upon s,
stalling speed of the aircraft in the landing configuration
full operation of all components
and visual aids associated with the particular instrument
at maximum certificated
gross landing weight. Thus they
are COMPUTED values, See approach chart being used. Higher minimums are required with inoperative
FAR 97.3 (b). An aircraft components
can fit into only one category, that being the highest
category in or visual aids as indicated below. If
more than one component is inoperative, each mini
which it meets either specification.
For example,
a 30,000 pound aircraft landing weight mum is raised to the highest minimum
required by any single component that is inopero
combined with ccomputed approach
speed of 130 knots would tive. ILS glide slope inoperative
place the aircraft in Cate. minimums are published on instrument approach charts
gory C. If it is necessary, however, to
maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of
as localizer minimums. This table
may be amended by notes on the approach chart. Such
the speed range for each
category, the minimum for the next higher approach category
notes apply only to the particular approach
categary(ies) as stated. See legend page for
should be used. for example,
a 8.727.100 which falls description of components indicated below.
in Category C, but is circling to
land at a speed in excess of 140 knots, should
use the approach category "D"
minimum
when circling to fond. See following category
limits. (1)11S, MIS, and PAR

Approach Category Inoperative I Approach Increase Increase

Speed/Weight
Component or Aid Category DH Visibility
A ; Speed less than 91 knots; MM* ABC
weight less than 30,001 pounds, 50 feet
5,
MM* D 50 feet
; Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots;
weight 30,001 pounds or ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR,
more but less than 60,001 pounds. ABCD None
& SSALR
C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots;
weight 60,001 pounds or *Not applicable to PAR
more but less than 150,001 pounds.
(2) ILS with visibility minimum
of 1,800 or 2,000 RVR.
: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots;
weight 150,001 pounds
or more. MM ABC 50 feet To 2400 RVR
MM D
E: Speed 166 knots or more; any weight. 50 feet To 4000 RVR
ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR,
ABCD None To 4000 RVR
& SSW
RVR/ Meteorological
Visibility Comparable Values
TD11, RCIS ABCD None
The following table shall be used for To 2400 RVR
converting RVR to meteorological RVR ABCD None To 1i mile
visibility when [Link] inoperative.

Visibility (3) VOR, VOR/DME, VORTAC, VOR (TAC),

VOR/DME (TAC), LOC, LOC/DME,
RVR (feet)
(statute miles) LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME, RNAV, and ASR
1600
1/4
Inoperative Approach Increase
2400 Increase
, 1/2 Visual Aid Category MDA Visibility
3200
5/8 ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR, ABCD None Y2 mile
4000
3/4 & SSALR
4500
7/8 SSALS, MALS & ABC None '4 mile
5000 1 ODALS

6000
1 1/4
(4) NDB

209 ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR, C None 14 mile

& SSALR ABD None 'A mile
MA15, SSALS, ODALS ABC None 14 mile

210
 Page 175
. UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT
FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION
ENROUTE HIGH ALTITUDE - U.S.
For use at and above 18,000' MSL
L E.G E N D
AIR TRAFFIC +SERVICES AND AIRSPACE INFORMATION
ROUTE DATA ROUNDARIES
X Mileage Breakdown
VHF /UHF Data Is depicted in BLUE; Air Route Traffic Control
LF/MF Data Is depicted in BROWN Center (ARTCC)
Denotes DME lie,
Jet Route --to (Distance same as route Air Defense Identification
mileage) Zone CADIZ)
Oceanic Route
Denotes DME fix Flight Information
Substitute Route ELit. (Encircled mileage shown Region (FIR)
Apreietwe end Structure when not Otherwise obvious) --uUpper Information
supporting data Region (UR)
owPPortn in brown
MM (Maximum .......... Adloining ADIZ
(Vle or bypaasIng temporarily Authorized Altitude)
shutdown navigational aids). MAA. 40000 Shown along Routes
O Combined
See NOTAMS ar oolgoorlot Publt when other than
cations for specific information. 45.000 FIR and U IR
Control Area (CTA)
AAAAA Unusable Routs MEA (Minimum
Segment Enrouta Altitude) Upper Control Area (UTA)
M EA- 24000 Shown along Routes International Boundary
4444 eeee Military IFR Route when Other than (Not shown when coinci.
.4 4. 4. Flight Planning 18.000' dent with ARTC or FIR)
Rout.
Official Time Zone
Jet Route
111 Identification MEA and/or MAA AIRSPACE INFORMATION
Open area (white) Indicates
I Change at other than
mol, Preferred Single Radio Aids to Navigation controlled airspace.
Shaded area (brown) indicates
Direction Jet Route.
uncontrolled airspace
H1500 Canadian High Level MRA (Minimum Reception Continental Control Area
Airway Identification Altitude) That airspace within Pie Conterminous
/ Unded Stales excluding certain special
415 ROUTE ?dc,T,ccilirount use airspace
REPORTING POINTS Continental Positive Control Area
An I Atlantic Route That airspace within the continental
Identification control area from 18.000 ft MSL to
A Compulsory
Reporting Point
FL 600 within the conterminous
United States excluding the
-(115.9 NAM) Santa Barbara Island. Farallon
Island and the portion
Facility Locator used with e, A NonComPulsory south of La) 25'04'00"N
Air Traffic Service Sample
Radial Line In the forma. Reporting Point
bon of Reporting point
CTA FIR
-<275 ANN ) A Offset Arrows Indicate MIAMI OCEANIC
Facility Forming a Report.
Facility Locator used with
A Ing Point. Toward LF/MF KZMA
Bearing Line in the forma. Away From VHF/UHF Radio Aid
Ron of a Reporting Point Additional Control
Area Limit
Radial Outbound
092 -- from a VHF/UHF
Navigational Aid MISCELLANEOUS

--279 Bearing Inbound

to a LF/MF
Navigational Aid
77-1A----..
Registration marks
Refer to Index on
Title Panel
Total Mileage between 1975 Isogonic Line and
Compulsory Reporting , Value shown each 4'
Points and/or Radio. ALL MILEAGES ARE NAUTICAL
Aids EXCEPT AS NOTED
ALL RADIALS AND BEARINGS ARE
Mileage between other MAGNETIC
23 Reporting Points. Radio ALL TIME IS GREENWICH MEAN
Aids, and/or Mileage (STANDARD) TIME (GMT)
45
Breakdown DAYS ARE LOCAL

I
(DURING PERIODS OF DAYLIGHT
42 VOR Changeover Point SAVING TIME (DTI. EFFECTIVE
Giving mileage to HOURS WILL BE ONE HOUR
Radio Aids EARLIER THAN SHOWN
(Not shown when less
than 5 NM from the mid
26 point on either direction ALL ALTITUDES ARE MSL UNLESS
OTHERWISE STATED.
EXAMPLE OF GROUPING

Effective Times of Single Jet Route Centerline byipassi

Direction Routes a facility which A not pact Holding
Pattern
Pat
1200 -
04002
01 that specific route

118 ME -26000
rCD 270
0%'
146 0
PEA isestablished with app/
Mg
OAP

146
60

in navigation signal coverage

Water Vignette

41-"Atts-

211
 UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT
fy
FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION co
rD

ENROUTE HIGH ALTITUDE - U.S.

Fa us at and above 18,0001A51.

LEGEND,
AERODROMES
SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
Aerodromes shown have a
minimum of 5000' hard surfaced runway and have an approved
Instrument Approach Procedure
published. The DOD FLIP Terminal High Altitude contains SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
only those shown in DARK BLUE. ' MIL INCLUDE:

146 0 Au Idintikabott hearth 0 Wu* Condthont dutird

41-123
0 CNA Parentheses mound aerodrome num R-1234
ayes Idiot is randtd by the
ithas CT (CANADA Mowed
which the au is n coda%
When %Minutia no *thy
0 Jokt CIndicates
ivil:Military
military landing rights
RA mimic
*Omnie symbol may be displaced
tor TO 300009p _ by a number (PROVINCE). Is Oman.
0$001800 (I) Effects Aidthie whop ail. Mt Wad anti nton Mt
0 Witte MONIRI 0
log 11 not unithild or lloce is I FIght an be mintiined,
tan 18,007, TM wad IFR: Used only dun IFR
I FR W
"la" Ian Oho* a Tight trail A Conditions.
am warns ® mean:loot including" that 1,11 VoicaCtholContrcAtrigAgtoci
RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION Obit or Odd irmit la moult dump dour
0 Outdo Tim" When contd. trot No NG wins migattd.
1.4110 AIDS TO NAVIGATION or. LF/MF Radio Ald ma no time is slam

VHF/UHF Aids an depicted in BLUE

il:,i
,.14,,
Rid"""s"
lobibmn or MON
NNE loweration
P
Nat Strailt tp Surat
Nights: Sundt to Surtio
t loam complete intthrution M
'25? ANM and Remy Prohibited Ana MOW on front pond,
LF/MF Aids an depicted In BROWN Radloboton
I Restricted Ana
Han Ginn
001E02
in GMT, tg

Oritet less than W -Warning Aran

'.1..,. UHF Noadlrodonal Meath MOWN au does
COMPASS ROSE
Oriented to
i 1116We:on conttnuout or °allotted D Donor Arta (Canada) not Ott on Sal on Sun.
A Alert Area (Canton I Me.15Junt Indkalts sno
Magnetic North Enrouta Flight Advisory Smits ,
in use °Midvale' doing:bin
fs @ Comply Station Frequency 12E0, Voice Call 14, MFA -Military Flying
tnt By NOT AM: Arta actIvethd by
"Los Angles Flight WOO." Area (Canada)
WAR
w
MIN U.S. Wsather
0 Station with
L 123,651222 Noll Lai
*unix RON voic, NAME
1

Communication 115.9 (LAIN (L) A,. F .... K ... P. -.,

i B... G ... 0 ....
U IIIM
V ....
I MMIMM
2 ..---
6 Mo441
7 ---

,
1. MII
Underline Motu No 'MO on he
ry (canacooN rots
C-.-. H MD. M .. R Imo W oMM 3 ...... e wr r. st
LlroAcriAltrtttind«lhea, D..,. I .. N .. 5 ....
riV S ... 4 ....- 9 .. --.
V" TACAN VORTAC
Abnormal Status Unchrthint for
Affected Oita, tg. TO BE CIASN,
Navy Init bun Miceli FS$ and
16:11) lid 11r111 name.
E.
J ...- 0 - -. T- V MOMM 5 99999 0
.
SHUT DOWN, MAY BE CMSN, ttc.
A LF/MF Range with simulta
both and WIWI 241,0 ad 121.4
y nous Voice Signal CoalltilltY 7
(Solid tip in"N" Quadrant) i The FSS altitudt VHF &crate hod) u
gain dam Oa Oa, 16,000' a to
CRUISING ALTITUDES
Right Ural 290
4, LF/1AF Rd* without shot. In Coma a May An bos Intaws strkot
with standard group Iraq 120.7, 1222.
flight toil 290 and Ake
menus Voice Signal Capability
122.1R
Dett smut Dow*
innerfilmtrr"-- (1.) *AM !radon Usthio rthp at MN IR is.%
DME VOR with 15.000 -40 NW "L" radio ado 2000' 4000'
vicAN Ithsted off Jet routes an Intermit
LF/MF Range Cowin
NAME
in 0761 Ideals 4000'
foothend aids Ink*. amodibi, blue.
login of bolo( at
"A" Cowitent Nil NAN DOE RadioWI to Wpm OW. Ode* 18,000' Mt Ft 310
IrAenolt

ban an It Carry
lapin tit
R 290
VFR or
YFR of
VFA ON TOP
FR ON TOP VA1 or
EVEN
2000' 1000' WI ON
Inisnoh Mlanall 1000'
, kin kin **is
ft 183 4dA a 320
kin

yfit thaw 3thdddlt

isr R 300

oe -orb whim mop

Nom,wed*AsesawrpelyalR
ham mew
NO WI WM INMN PCIIIIIVI 031/1101 ANA

213
 Page 177
UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT
FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION
ENROUTE LOW ALTITUDE
For us* up to but not including 18,000' /41SL
- U. S.
LEG E ND AERODROMES
Aerodromes/Seadromes shown In BLUE have an approved Low Altitude Instrument
me deunr:toppupbrIol
Irtrtruor InParg Approach Tr heart:11%ln )1cIrMapRplonvlirgriltSp!rirlirTITA1)1?uuttifh!
ed In DOD FLIPS. Aerodromes/Seadromes shown In BROWN do not have Published
Instrument Approach Procedure. Night Landing capability
LAND SEA
..1"" Published ILS and/or
Locality Procedure
Asterisk indicates lighting
on request or operating Part
reliable
00 CNN Published SDF
Procedure available
of night only Roder
Sery ices
Joint civiwilitely 0. Aerodrome Availability
Star indicates
00 MIINary 0 I. Parentheseseround aerodrome
name Indicate military landing Nome on:j
prior request

00 Holbert rights not available.

2. Aerodrome elevation given In feet
seq1349 I. 0
-v-leASIUPPA
MATED MOUTHS above or below mean sea level. /ATM 1011.3
Niue So Metro Service (PMSV)
3. Length of longest runway given Automatic Terminal MEM,
Continuous Operation to nearest 100 feet with 70 feet Information Service Wroth
as the dividing point (Add 00). and Frequency
Star indicates
no Less Than Continuous 4. Aerodrome symbol may be off- operation less
set for enroute navigation skis. than continuous * (Nan"
weather Radar (VAR/ Of pact time 3311.
PvtPrivate use. not available to No Runway Ind
were! public.
4 PMSV and WXR Combined
Lighting
Cassabillbr
Soh Surface

RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION AND COMMUNICATION BOXES

RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION AIR /GROUND COMMUNICATION
DATA BOXES BOXES
VHF/UHF Alds Sr. depicted In BLUE HEAVY UNE BOXES Indicate
LF/MF Alds are depicted in DROWN Service Station (FSS). Frequenncitt
Abnormal Status Underprint for 255.4. 122.2. and einem 243.0 and
COMPASS ROSE Affected Data. e.g.. TO BE CMSN. 121.5 are normally available at aN
Oriented to SHUT DOWN. MAY BE CMSN. etc. FSS's and are not shown above
Magnetic North boxes. All other fleas available M
FSS's are shown. Frequencies trans-
Size of Com- mit and receive except those follow -
pass Rose has ad by R or T:
no significance. R - receive only T - transmit only
Smaller sizes
are used In 123.6 122.6
congested areas. DMZ SHUT DOWN 122.1R
NAME Ing1 in corner
VOR TACAN VORTAC
NAM 000.0M1 of box Indicates
DME Chan ca. Enroute Flight
Advisory Service
MN =:- 000 Frequency 122.0.
[Link] Yoke ll
VDR with TACAN compatible DME [Link] AnCagslos
LF/MF Non-directional Flight Watch."
Radlobeacon or Marine in Frequency protection
Radlobeecon with magnetic / Usable range M12.000'-25 NM
north Indicator Frequencies positioned above thin
Dee less line NAVAID boxes are remotest to the
UHF Non4irectional than Conti NAVAID site.
Radlobeecon or OnRequest Other [Link] the controlling
INAME FSS named are evallable, however.
NAM:4. POD altitude and terrain may determine
Compass Locator Beacon their reception.
und.o,n.
.nclicates Name and
O Consolan Station No Voice Identifier for
FATETTEVILLE FEY
Transmitted FSS not asso-

O Marker Beacon

Fan (FM)
Co
Bone (BM)
on this
frequency

TACAN channels are without

122.1R
ciated with
NAVAJO

voice but are not underlined Controlling FSS

ILS Localker Course with ATC U.S. Weather LVASHINGTOJArljar"

Function. Feathered side Norfolk Station with
Indicates Blue Sector Thin tine box. without frequencies
MIAMI? Radio ° Communication and Controlling FSS name indicates
no F55 frequencies available.
IDENT Commercial
000 O Broadcast Station ry Station (FSS)
Flight Service
SDF Localize Course 2enot* Communications Outlet (RCO)
with ATC Function Limited Remote Communications
Outlet (LRCO)
In Canada a heavy line box indicates
Aaradio. All available frequencies
are shown.

214
 AIR 11AFIX SERVICES AND AIRSPACE INFORMATION iU
L0
NRWAY AND ROUTE DATA tD
Radial Outbound UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT
VHF /UHF Data Is depicted
031 Noma UHF/VHF REPORTING POINTS
Radio AM 4.1
In BLUE; LE/Mr depicted in A A Compulsory Reporting Point FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATION
BROWN
Baring inbound A A NonCompulsori Reporting
110 to a LF/MF Radio Aid CD
.111. VOR Airway and
Idontlficethr
Ifil Total Mileage between
Point

Offset Arrows Indicate

ENROUTE LOW ALTITUDE - U. S.
0
Compulsory Reporting A A Facility Forming a Reporting
Airway and Points and/or Radio Point Toward LF/MF, Away
For use up to but not including 18,0001
Identifeetion Aids from VHF/UHF

Mileage betwon other

(1171E1 Uncontrolled 23 NOUNDARIES
Reporting Polite. Radio
Airway Aids, end /or Wow
23 ® Moller Setting Change
Breihdown
Bahama Route
42 Altimeter Setting Chino
and Mintification VOR Chinpover Point 44 44 when not otherwise defined
Giving mileage
Bahama Route Radio Aids Au Routs Traffic Control
and Idintitmanon (Not shOwn at midpoint ' Center tARTCC)
locational SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
Atlantic Routs 26
NAME ARTCCRorolmiSitss
Moretti lion SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
Name eft Discrete VHF
(ev;,fitY,%0 /OW //,,)
Nuns )I I Mileage breakdown 134,3 269.5, and UHF Frets.
WILL INCLUDE:

and Identification
Denotes DUE fie Flight Information tP56 Ara Identelutem: In Cosa are OWstscCaiditiomdurkngwhldiRe
TO 5000 woe
(Distance same as route Region (FIR)
Ment 4 loaded by Its Utters CY is in curafet When mewls
eee a r s e MO* IFR Route W123 (CANADA) follood by number (PRO.
an
mileage) As Defense Identification author is ihoo.
A123 VINCE).
CFR Used only during VFR mike.
. Flight Manning Denotes DME Lis
REESE I q.) Ehediw OW Pilings are shows up
IFR:Usod only during MR condense
Route
a+ (Encircled mileage shown rr,rr Combined FIR and ADIZ R1234
TO 10.00G0
to but not induSry 14000, Whom the .1)
emus orconmoun shillilude into
Vox Ctel, Controlling Agemy la
when not otherwise obvious Ice OW shucturtno altitude Ate
swots Ono tnrough aria No
Siabitituto Route Lino delimits A/G uniou indicalad.
Control Area (CIA) 0600.18002 shavm. Tie word "tr (an altitude)
Structure (See altitude 140arelnA
MAA(Maiimum Contiol Zone MONFRI® mars "to and includes" (that ON
"G+CP<)--°- NOTAMS for MAA.15500 within SPOCi$1
Al l felitive are Authorized Altitude IFR() lute),
, Cando Poutive Us' Airapeo Ma Inclatu compete information In tetv.
loportmg dal facility outages)
FS
OpeoWt Time Wien *Wow no
Control Zone lotion on front pull
Moo m brown 3500 MEA (Minimum to Oom.
3500 Control Zones within which Due Sunrise to Sunset
Enroute Altitude
.T TT TT heed- wing special VFR flirt Su* to Salem
WVUnusable a Med 3000 MOCA (Minimum Obstruction 1110 is prohibited P Peohibited Nora Hon Given in GAIT, e',, 0600
u0A1,141itary
segment 1)10L
*3000 Clearance Altitude) R Rutrictad Ana °orations Azu
IndEloundary
W 'Unmet Mu lAonFri: Irillutes area dos not
in BROWN

to
(Omitted when coScletnt exist on St or Sun.
Preferred Single Danger Area (Wadi)
with ARTCC or FIR) 1 ktv15Juns: indlutuiru in use
Direction Amoy Canada only,Direction of A, Alert Nu
any biro* dates Oran,
Flight indicator, (Shown
Area of Enlargement
...EVEN when ocception to Cruising
By NOTAM:Aroa activated by ROAM.
DIME NNp Alt Diegrim, in we (Contains only dote for an Ical
through flights)Seo Area

Facility Locator used with CMOs for complete data CRUISING ALTITUDES U.S.
MEA MM end/or MOCA
Redid Lino in the formation
'1 Chanp M other tan Official Time Zone
of o Ropaitine Point,
Rad* Aids to Norio*
att4
AIRSPACE INFORMATION
-<AME coo) MRA (Minimum Retoption OW
Altitude) Open area (white) indicates cce
facility Locator used with trolled airspace,
Deanne Line in the formshon MCA (Minimum Crossing Shaded woo (brown) indicates
controlled Melo VIA or
of a Reporting Point Altitude)
to fAXI,
THE BASE OF THE CONTINENTAL ON TOP VFRa
CONTROL AREA IS 14,N0 FT kni.,
EXCLUDING THE AIRSPACE LESS TOP
EXAMPLE OF GROUPING
THAN UN FT ABOVE THE TER. Thome
RAIN AND CERTAIN SPECIAL USE
AIRSPACE AREAS.
[Link]
MEAisetteblehodwgA
MISCELLANEOUS
Nor
rototem
11111)
1941051tolons line of
vow ammo mown NAV AM
111..04411 cohabit iron
ss NAME ALL MILEAGES ARE NAUTICAL ft AO tok4e1 Mom m 0404
EXCEPT AS NOTED gams are megeetlu
N NIA Or
Palle ALL RADIALS AND BEARINGS ARE
MAGNETIC

ALL ALTITUDES ARE MSL UNLESS

3500
OTHERWISE STATED,
ALL TIME IS GREENWICH MEAN
(BTANDARDI TIME (GMT)

DAYS ARE LOCAL

tto
nqj
I DURING PERIODS OF DAYLIGHT SAYING
TIME (DT) EFFECTIVE HOURS WILL BE
'4,3 Water Vignette ONE HOUR EARLIER THAN SHOWN, ALL
0o STATES OBSERVE DT EXCEPT ARIZONA

1,/
AND THAT PORTION Of INDIANA IN THE

00
EASTERN TIME ZONE,
216

2 5
 kA*aua\[Link].\ki1axtyiIA\ttttl''tlm

III ittk4\,04ittw\1,N\A

1l\k1sa%
st \,

'
Is\lts

. ai.\,1.\
%
\tx
s
a%
S\xlsmSa*
a
Anl. valt
utIIsxt, t
it
W Savnvwi
yivW
l
t tS
 Page 180

PIREP
Mq111) 11P1174 iuN OF PHENOMENA [Link] RADIAL DISTANCE TIME (2) FLT LVL

Telift------13
A
SKY COVER BASE AMOUNT TOP

ITA-116°- /W VIP."'
TuirERATURE-CELSIUS WIND-DIRECT

TURBULENCE-INTENSITY

LEGEND:
4
-11011-n SPACE SYMBOL
Ara,

TURBULENCE REPORTING CRITERIA TABLE

4.=ONLY FOR CAT
. ** =ONLY IF DIFFERENT FROM FL
OP AI OP ///

k INTENSITY

Teem
11,81,8 .11111
ICS ACCUMULATION

Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumula-

NIMI

tion slightly greater than rate of sublimation.

tIon
Intensity Aircraft Reaction is not hazardous even though deicing/
Reaction Inside Aircraft anti-Icing equipment Is not utilized, unless
Turbulence that momentarily causes Occupants may feel a alight encountered for an extended period of time
slight, erratic changes in altitude (over 1 hour).
and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw). strain against seat belts or
Report as Light Turbulence: shoulder straps..Unsecured Ugh, The rate of accumulation may create a
LIGHT problem If flight Is prolonged in this en-
or objects may be displaced vironment (over 1 hour). Occasional use
of deicing/anti-Icing equipment removes/
Turbulence that causes slight, rapid slightly. Food service may prevents accumulation. It does net present
and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness be conducted and little or a problem If the deicing /anti -icing equipment
without appreciable changes In altl- Is used.
tude or attitude. Report as Light no difficulty is encountered
Chop. in walking. The rate of accumulation Is such that even
short encounters become potentially haz-
Turbulence that Is similar to Light Occupants feel definite ardous and use of deicing/anti-Icing equip-
Turbulence but of greater Intensity. ment or diversion la necessary.
Changes In altitude and/or attitude strains against seat belts or
occur but the aircraft remains in shoulder straps. Unsecured
objects are dislodged. Food fauns The rate of accumulation la such that de-
. positive control at all times. It service and walking are dlr-
usually causes variations In Ind!- ()cult. icing/anti-Icing equipment falls to reduce o
rated airspeed. Report as Moderate I control the hazard. Immediate diversion I.
Turbulence: I necessary.
I
MODERATE or k Pilot Report: Aircraft Identification, Location, TI
(011T), Intensity of Type. AltItude/FL, Aircraft Type
Turbulence that Is similar to Light IAB.
Chop but of greater Intensity. It
causes rapid bumps or Jolts with-
out appreciable changes in aircraft k FORECAST WINDS AND TEMPERATURES ALOFT
altitude or attitude. Report as
Moderate Chop. (FD)
I Plotted Interpretation
6
Turbulence that causes large, ab- Occupants are forced vlo- 12° C, wind 060° at 5 Iambi
rupt changes In altitude and/or
attitude. It usualy causes large lently against seat belts or 03
SEVERE variations In Indicated airspeed, shoulder straps. Unsecured
objects are
3° C, wind 160° at 25 knots
Aircraft may be momentarily out Food service tossed about. I
of controL Report as Revere Taw- are [Link] walking I
bulence. I
I 8
-0 9
Turbulence in which the aircraft Is 9° C. wind 260° at 50 knots
violently tossed about and Is prac- 8 16'..--41°
EXTREME Orally impossible to controL It 8
may cause structural damage. Re-
port as Extreme Turbulence. 47° C, wind
Bigtt
Turittlieuiss (normally above 15,000 feet ASL) not associated with comalifores
ler.1
Medium ladediag Maedersterma should be reported as CAT (clear air turbulence)
1
i -ST
knots
F
3600 at 115

y tai appropriate intensity, or night or moderate chop. Preceded

-u e)C, wind calm (light

99 variable)
KEY TO AVIATION WEATHER REPORTS
LOCATION VISIBILITY
.
IDENTIFIER WEATHER AND [Link] TEMPERATURE
AND TYPE SKY AND CEILING OBSTRUCTION PRESSURE WIND ALTIMETER RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE CODED
OF REPORT' TO VISION A POINT SETTING PIREPS

MKC 15 KT M25 OVC 111K 132 /S8/56 /1807 /993/ RO4LVR20V40 /UA OVC 55
SKY AND CEILING VISIBILITY RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR)
Sky cover contractions are in ascending Reported In statute miles and fractions. RVR is reported from some stations, Extreme values during 10
order. Figures preceding contractions are (V=Variable) minutes prior to observation are given in hundreds of feet,
heights in hundreds of feet above station, Runway identification precedes RVR report.
Sky cover contractions are:
WEATHER AND OBSTRUCTION TO VISION SYMBOLS
A Had
CLR Clear: Less than 0.1 sky cover, IG Ice ci Walt $ Soon
Bo Binning dust W ice log SG Snow grains
SCI Scattered: 0.1 to 0.5 sky cover, aN Blowing sand IP ice pellth
CODED PIREPS
SP Snow pallets
MN Broken: 0.6 to 0.9 sky cover, es Blowing snOw IPW ICI pellet %flotsam SW Snow showers Pilot reports of clouds not visible from ground are coded with
OVC Overcast: More than 0.9 sky cover.
D Dust x Smoe t thunderstorms ASL height data preceding and/or following sky cover contrac
F Fog L Dilnit T . ShHO thutulv;torni Lion to indicate cloud bases and/or tops, respectively. UA
- Thin (When prefixed to the above GF Ground log R Rain 21. (mann, driailt precedes all PIREPS.
symbols.) 14 HaIll RW Rain shOwelS IR 1 riving ram
-X Partial obscuration: 0.1 to less than Precipitation intensities are indicated thus: -Light;
1.0 sky hidden by precipitation or (no sign) Moderate; . Heavy DECODED REPORT
obstruction to vision (bases at surface). WIND Kansas City: Record observation, 1500 feet scattered clouds,
X [Link]: 10 sky hidden by pre. Direction in tens of degrees from true north, speed measured ceiling 2500 feet overcast, visibility 1 mile, light
cipitation or obstruction to vision in knots. 0000 indicates calm. G indicates gusty. rain, smoke, sealevel preSsure 1013.2 millibars, temperature
(bales at surface), Peak speed of gusts follows G or Q when gusts or 58'F. dewpoint 56'F. wind 180', 7 knots, altimeter setting
Letter preceding height of layer identifies squall are reported. The contraction WSHFT followed 29.93 inches. Runway 04 left, visual range 2000 feet variable
ceiling layer and indicates how ceiling by GMT time group in remarks indicates windshlq to 4000 feet, Pilot reports top of overcast 5500 feet,
height was obtained. Thus: and its time of occurrence. (Knots X 1.15=statute
mi/hr.)
E Estimated V Immediately 'TYPE OF REPORT
EXAMPLES: 3627360 Degrees, 27 knots;
height following The omission of typeof report data identifies a scheduled
3627040=360 Degrees. 27
M Measured numerical knots, peak speed in gusts record observation for the hour specified in the sequence
W Indefinite value, 40 knots. heading. An [Link], special observation is identified
indicates a by the letters "SP" following station identification and a 24.
variable ALTIMETER SETTING
hour clock time group, e.g.. "PIT SP 0715 -X MI OVC." A special
ceiling. The first figure of the actual altimeter setting is report indicates a significant change in one or more elements.
always omitted from the report.
OnOrmw.0
KEY TO AVIATION WEATHER FORECASTS . , .

TERMINAL FORECASTS contain information for specific airports on expected SIGNET or AIRMET messages warn airmen in flight of potentially
ceiling, cloud heights. cloud amounts, visibility, weather and obstructions to hazardous weather such as squall lines, thunderstorms, fog, Icing,
vision and surface wind. They are issued 3 times/day and are valid for 24 and turbulence. SIGMET concerns severe and extreme conditions
hours. The last six hours of each forecast are covered by a categorical statement of importance to all aircraft. AIRMET concerns less severe con.
indicating whether VFR, MVFR, IFR or LIFR conditions are expected. Terminal ditions which may be hazardous to some aircraft or to relatively
forecasts will be written in the following form: inexperienced pilots. Both are broadcast by FAA on NAVAID
CEILING: Identified by the letter "C" voice channels.
CLOUD HEIGHTS: In hundreds of feet aboYe the station WINDS AND TEMPERATURES ALOFT (FD) FORECASTS are [Link]
(ground) forecasts of wind dirction (nearest 10' true N) and speed (knots)
for selected flight levels. Temperatures *loft ('C) are Included for
CLOUD LAYERS: Stated in ascending order of height all but the [Link] level.
VISIBILITY: In statute miles but omitted if over 6 miles
WEATHER AND OBSTRUCTION TO VISION: Standard EXAMPLES OF WINDS AND TEMPERATURES ALOFT (FD) FORECASTS:
FD WBC 121745
weather and obstruction to vision symbols are used
BASED ON 121200Z DATA
SURFACE WIND: In tens of degrees and knots; omitted when VALID 1300002 FOR USE 1800.03002. TEMPS NEG ABV 24000
less than 10
FT
EXAMPLE OF TERMINAL FORECAST 3000 6000 9000 12000 18000 24000 30000 34000 39000
805
DCA 221010: DCA Forecast 22nd day of ceiling 8 hundred feet sky obscured, visi 3127 3425.07 3420.11 3421.16 3516.27 351248 311640 292451 283451
month-valid time 10Z-102. bility '4 mile in moderate snow showers. JFK
10 SCT C18 UN 5SW- 3415025 OCNL CB X 12Z C50 BKN 3312022: At 12Z becoming 3026 3327.08 3324.12 3322.16 3120.27 2923.38 284248 285150 285749
wSW: Scattered clouds at 10011 feet. ceiling ceiling 5009 feet broken, surface wind
1800 feet broken, visibility miles, light 330 degrees 12 knots Gusts to 22'. At 6000 feet ASL over JFK wind from 330' at 27 knots and
snow showers, surface wind 340 degrees 041 MVFR CIG: Last 6 hours of FT after temperature minus 8°C
15 knots Gusts to 25 knots, occasional 94Z marginal VFR due to ceiling, TWEB (CONTINUOUS TRANSCRIBED WEATHER BROADCAST)- -
Individual route forecasts covering a 25 nautical mile zone either
side of the route. By requesting a specific route number, detailed
AREA FORECASTS are [Link] aviation forecasts plus a [Link] categorical en route weather for a 12 or [Link] period (depending on forecast
outlook prepared 2 times/day giving general descriptions of cloud cover, weather issuance) plus a synopsis can be obtained.
and frontal conditions for an area the sire of several states. Heights of cloud
tops, and icing are referenced ABOVE SEA LEVEL (ASL); ceiling heights. ABOVE PILOTS . . . report in-flight weather to nearest IFSS. The latest
GROUND LEVEL (AGL): bases of cloud layers are ASL unless indicated. Each turbo weather reports are available by phone at the nearest
SIGNET or AIRMET affecting an FA area will also serve to amend the Area pilot weather briefing office by callintat H+10.
Forecast.
 Page 182
WEATHER CHART SYMBOLS

THE WEATHER DEPICTION CHART

TOTAL SKY COVER WEATHER AND OBSTRUCTIONS TO VISION
O Clear Overcast, with breaks iS - Hail xv Freezing Rain
(15 Scattered f%- Thunderstorm h1 J - Freezing Drizzle

Broken, or thin broken

Overcast 4011 - Rain
- Snow
t*V Rain Shower
Snow Shower
O Obscured - Drizzle A Ice Pellets
00 - Haze Blowing Dust
OTHER == - Fog Blowing Send
it Clouds Topping Ridges ry - Smoke Blowing Snow
Figures below the circle are cloud heights in hundreds of feet -- either the
ceiling; or, if there is no ceiling, the height of the lowest scattered.
Figures and symbols to left of circle are visibility and weather or obstruc-
tions to vision.

LOW LEVEL PROG CHART

CEILING LESS THAN 1000 FT
CONTINUOUS OR INTERMITTENT PRECIPITATION

r
AND/OR VISIBILITY LESS SHOWERS
THAN 3 MILES
LESS THAN .5 AREA LESS THAN .5. AREA
=CEILING 1000-3000 FT INCLUSIVE
COVERAGE
AND/OR VISIBILITY 3-5 MILES COVERAGE.

%/PR
AREAS NOT OUTLINED INDICATE
CEILING ABOVE 1000 FEET AND
C.--) .5 OR MORE AREA
COVERAGE
: . .5 04 6404f ARIA
COVERAGE
VISIBILITY MORE THAN 5 NILES.
--'.MODERATE OR GREATER INTERMITTENT RAIN
TURBULENCE V RAIN SHOWERS

A-- MODERATE TURBULENCE

CONTINUOUS RAIN

INTERMITTENT SNOW SNOW SHOWERS

* * CONTINUOUS SNOW THUNDERSTORMS

SEVERE TURBULENCE Ri
FREEZING LEVEL SURFACE 4%., FREEZING PRECIP 140- TOP IN 100f1
FREEZING LEVEL ABOVE PAH
414 DRIZZLE 60 SASE IN 100f1

RADAR CHART LEGEND

SYMAraq COMMON TO AIL PLOTTFO RADAR WEATHER REPORTS SYMBOLS USED WITH WEATHER SURVEILLANCE RADAR
WEATHER SYMBOLS HEIGHTS OF ECHO BASES AND TOPS
A
R
RW
Hail
Rain
Rain Showers
IP
L
Ice Pellets
Drizzle
Heights in hundreds of feet MSL are entered
above and/or below a line to denote echo
8 A line of echoes
2L Freezing Drizzle tops and bases respectively. Examples are:
S Snow 2R Freezing Rain
SW Snow Showers T Thunderstorm .3 An area of echoes
15.2 Average tops are 45,000 feet.

ECHO INTENSITY 200

80
Tops 20,000 feet; bases 8,000 feet. o Isolated cell
- Weak X Intense
(No symbol) Moderate XX Extreme 350 Top of individual cell, 35,000 feet.
+ Strong U Unknown
4, I* Strong cell detected by two or
Very Strong
Solidus (/) evil, Maximum tops, 62,000 feet. more radars
Separates intensity from
intensity trend Strong cell detected by one radar
A250 Tops 25,000 feet, reported by air-
craft. Absence of a figure below 9 Over 9/10 coverage
TREND the line indicates that echo base
was not reported. Radar detects
+
-
Increasing
Decreasing
NC
NEW
No Change
New
tops more readily than bases, since ® 6/10 thru 9/10 coverage
precipitation usually reaches the
ground. Also, curvature of the
Examples of earth prohibits the detection of
Precipitation Types, Intensity, and Trend bases of distant precipitation. CD 1/10 thru 5/10 coverage
TRW+/- Thunderstorm, heavy rainshower, Information frail ATC radar shows
decreasing in intensity. tops only when reported by aircraft.
R-/NC Light rain, no chance In intensity. ® Less than 1/10 coverage
TRW-/NEW Thunderstorm, light rain shower,
newly developed. "Boxes" enclosed by dash lines indi-
S Snow (No intensity or charac- cafe severe weatnar watch in effect.
teristic is shown for frozen Refer to latest "WW" for specifics.
precipitation.) SYMBOLS USED WITH ARTCC ECHO REPORTS

SYMBOLS INDICATING NO ECHOES

MOVEMENT OF ECHOES
(Examples)
NE No echo (equipment operating but no
6 (Solid line) Echo boundary from
ARTCC scopes.
echoes observed).
rc
Northeast at 15 knots. (Individual NA Observation not available.
-'''.... Echo)
OM Equipment out for maintenance. t Line of echoes--possible squall
U. 4., East at 25 knots. (Line or area line.
movvaent)

220
 Page 183

PHYSIOLOGICAL TRAINING
The following articles concerning Hypoxia and Hyperventilation are excerpted
from the Physiological Training Manual of the Civil Aeromeciical Institute (CAMI).
If further information is desired, write the Chief, Physiological Operations and
Training Section, AAC-143, Civil Aeromedical Institute, FAA Aeronautical Center,
P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.
Hypoxia
"Hypoxia is probably our most important physiological problem. It can be the
most dangerous physical flying problem due to its insidious onset. Hypoxia, therefore,
is one of the basic and most vital problems to the aviator. He must completely under-
stand its causes, effects, prevention, and treatment.
Hypoxia can be defined as a lack of sufficient oxygen available to the body cells.
The degree of hypoxia depends upon the reduction of the partial pressure of oxygen
in the air sacs. This reduction of oxygen pressure becomes apparent in the Physiologi-
cal Deficient Zone which extends from about 12,000 feet to 50,000 feet. Interference
with the supply of oxygen to the cells of the body affects normal processes. The
amount of oxygen in the cells may become inadequate due to various conditions.
The most important single characteristic of hypoxia at altitude is that if the air-
crew member is engrossed in his duties, he may not notice the effect that hypoxia is
having on his body. Each person will experience his individual symptoms of hypoxia;
therefore, in order to detect hypoxia, you must know your reactions. Some of the
common symptoms to look for are:
1. An increased breathing rate.
2. Light-headed or dizzy sensations.
3. Tingling or warm sensations.
4. Sweating.
5. Lose of vision or reduced vision; sleepiness.
6. Cyanosis (blue coloring of skin, fingernails, and lips).
7. Behavior changes.
Time of Useful Consciousness (T.U.C.) is the time from the onset of hypoxia
until deterioration of the individual's effective performance. At altitudes below
30,000 feet this time may differ considerably from the time of total consciousness (the
time it takes to "pass out"). Above 35,000 feet the times become closer and even-
tually coincide for all practical purposes. Various factors will determine T.U.C.,
some of which are:
1. Ahtude. T.U.C. decreases with increasing altitude.
2. Rate of Ascent. In general, the faster the rate, the shorter the T.U.C.
3. Physical Activity. Exercise decreases T.U.C. considerably.
4. Day-to-Day Factors. Physical fitness or ability to tolerate hypoxia will change
from day to day; therefore, changing your T.U.C.
The following T.U.C.'s given for various altitudes represent average times without
supplemental oxygen:
15-18,000 feet 30 minutes or more
22,000 feet 5 to 10 minutes
25,000 feet 3 to 5 minutes
28,000 feet 21/2 to 3 minutes
30,000 feet 1 to 2 minutes
35,000 feet 30 to 60 seconds

221
Page 184

An immediate realization ofyour hypoxia symptoms and the obtaining of a

proper amount of supplemental oxygen by emergency oxygen equipment procedures
are necessary to combat hypoxia.
If oxygen is administered within a matter of 3 to 5 minutes to a person who is
unconscious from hypoxia, recovery is usually rapid and complete. However, a
hypoxic reaction may be followed by a state of shock during which there is a weak
pulse, sweating, low blood pressure, and pooling of blood in dilated capillaries. This
condition will require the usual treatment for shock."
Hyperventilation
"The respiratory center of the brain reacts to the amount of carbon dioxide found
in the blood stream. When you are in a physically relaxed state, the amount of
carbon dioxide in pier blood stimulates the respiratory center and your breathing
rate is stabilised at about 12. tb 16 breaths a minute. When physical activity occurs,
the body cells use more oxfgen and more carbon dioxide is produced. Excessive
carbon dioxide enters the blood and consequently the respiratory center responds to
this excess. Breathing increases in depth and rate to remove the excess carbon
dioxide. When the excess is removed, the respiratory center changes the breathing
back to normal.
The same process is involved when a maximum effort is made to hold the breath.
While the breath is being held, the body cells continue to manufacture carbon dioxide
which enters the blood. The amount in the blood finally becomes so great that in
spite of conscious efforts. the respiratory center [Link] and breathing is resumed.
Hyperventilation, or overbreething, is a disturbance of respiration that may occur
in individuals as a result of physical exertion, emotional tension, or anxiety. It is a
condition in which the respiratory rate and depth are abnormally increased. This
results in an excessive loss of carbon dioxide from the luugs, lowering the normal
carbon dioxide tension of 40 nun. Hg. The most common symptoms are dizziness,
hot and cold sensations, tingling of the hands, legs, and feet, tetany, nausea, sleepiness,
and, finally, tmconsciousness. After becoming unconscious, the breathing rate will
be exceedingly low until enough carbon dioxide is produced to stimulate the respira-
tory center. Hyperventilation is a normal response to hypoxia. However, the exces-
sive breathing does little good. Hyperventilation combined with hypoxia is very
serious.
Should symptoms occur which you cannot definitely identify as either hypoxia
or hyperventilation, the following steps should be taken:
Check your oxygen equipment immediately and put the regulator on 100%
oxygen.
After three or four deep breaths of oxygen, the symptoms should. improve mark-
edly, if the condition experienced was hypoxia. (Recovery from hypoxia is extremely
rapid.)
If the symptoms persist, you should consciously slow your breathing rate to an
abnormally slow rate for 30 to 45 seconds, and then resume your breathing at a
normal rate."

DEFINITIONS
Speed of soundthe speed at which sound waves travel through a medium,
which is solely a function of temperature.
Mach numberthe ratio of the true airspeed to the speed of sound.
True Airspeed (TAS)
Mach No. (M) speed
Sound
Speed of Sound=Mach 1.00

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 Page 185
Subsonicleas than the speed of sound.
Transonicairflow on aircraft components may be partly subsonic and partly
supersonic. Mach numbers from 0.75 to 1.20.
Supersonicdefinite supersonic airflow on all parts of the aircraft. Mach
numbers from 1.20 to 5.00.
Critical Mach numberthe highest flight speed possible without supersonic
flow over any part of the aircraft.
Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is the mean chord of the wing which is
established by the manufacturer for engineering design and weight and balance
purposes.
Specific range is the nautical miles of flying distance per pound of fuel. The
specific range can be defined by the following relationships:
nautical air miles nautical air miles/hr.
specific or
lbs. of fuel lbs. of fuel/hr.
TAS, knots
thus, specific range=
fuel flow, lbs./hr.
Because of high fuel flow in jet aircraft, specific rapge is usually expressed as
nautical air miles per 1,000 lbs. of fuel. (NAM/1,000 lbs.)
Cloarwayexpressed in terms of a clearway plane, extending from the end of
the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25 percent, above which no object
nor any terrain protrudes.
Stopwayan area beyond the runway, not las in width than the runway, for
use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A stopway can be used
for increasing the acceleratestop distance.
Takeoff Distance (turbine engine powered airplanes)The greater of:
1. The horizontal distance from the point of brake release to a point where the
airplane attains a height of 35 feet above the takeoff surface, assuming an engine
failure at the V1 speed, or
2. 1.15 times the horizontal distance from the point of brake release to the point
where the airplane attains a height of 35 feet above the takeoff surface with all en-
gines operating.
The takeoff distance available, used in entering the chart, is the sum of the run.
way length plus the actual or maximum allowable clearway length. The length of the
clearway used must not be greater than one-half the length of the runway.
Takeoff Run(turbine engine powered airplanes)The greater of:
1. The horizontal distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant
between the lift-off point and the point where the airplane attains a height of 35 feet
above the takeoff surface, assuming an engine failure at V1 speed, or
2. 1.15 times the horizontal distance from the point of brake release to a point
equidistant between the lift-off point and the point where the airplane attains a height.
of 35 feet above the takeoff surface with all engines operating.
The takeoff run, used in entering the chart, must not exceed the length of the
runway.
Accelerate-Stop Distance The horizontal distance to accelerate from a stand-
ing start to the V1 spe0 and thereafter, assuming an engine failure at this speed, to
bring the airplane to a full stop. The accelerate-stop distance, used in entering the
chart, mud not exceed the length of the runway, plus the length of the stopway.
Balanced Field Length The condition where the takeoff distance is equal to
the accelerate-stop distance. This distance must not exceed the length of the runway.
Unbalanced Field LengthThe condition where the takeoff distance and
accelerate-stop distance are not equal.

223
Page 186
U. S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION - FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
QUESTION SELECTION SHEET

ATP (AC)-2A

NOTE: (1) IT IS PERMISSIBLE TO MARK ON THIS SHEET

(2) LEGEND MATERIAL IS IN QUESTION BOOK APPENDIX, pages
171 through 182.

On Answer Answer On Answer Answer On Answer Answer On Answer Answer

Sheet For Question Sheet For Question Sheet For Question Sheet For Question
Item No. Number Item No. Number Item No. Number Item No. Number
1 . . . 003 21 . . . 250 41 . . . 541 61 . . . 881
2 . . . .009 22 . . . 272 42 . . . 542 62 . . 810
3 . . . 016 23 . . . 294 43 . . . 543 63 . . . 8 3 0

4 . . . 021 24 . . . 311 44 . . . 544 64 . . 840

5 . . . 029 25 , . . 324 45 . . . 584 65 . . 848
6 . . . 036 26 . . . 349 46 . . . 595 66 . . . 853
7 ,. . 045 27 . . . 354 47 . . . 606 67 . . . 862
8 . . . 050 28 . . . 364 48 . . . 615 68 . . . 875
9 . . . 063 29 . . . 383 49 . . . 618 69 . . . 879
10 . . . 078 30 . . . 393 50 . . . 625 70 . . . 883
11 . . . 089 31 . . . 412 51 . . . 636 71 . . . 892
12 . . . 101 32 . . . 424 52 . . . 653 72 . . . 894
13 . . 116 . 33 . . . 437 53 . . . 661 73 . . . 901
14 . . 137 . 34 . . . 448 54 . . . 685 74 . . . 903
15 . . 150 . 35 . . . 453 55 . . . 686 75 .-. . 913
16 . . 167 . 36 . . . 460 56 . . . 687 76 . . . 919
17 . . 176 . 37 . . . 469 57 . . . 688 77 . . . 936
18 . . . 192 38 . . . 495 58 . . . 769 78 . . . 946
19 . . . 219 39 . . . 506 59 . . . 783 79 . 967
20 . . . 236 40 . . . 513 60 . . . 793 80 . . . 975

THIS IS A SAMPLE TEST. THIS IS NOT A DUPLICATE OF AN OFFICIAL

TEST YOU MIGHT RECEIVE AT THE TESTING CENTER.
 Page 187
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
U436657 AIRMAN WRITTEN TEST APPLICATION
tromDATE OF TEST TITLE OF TEST TEST NO.

71717 PLEASE PRINT ONE LETTER IN EACH SPACE LEAVE A BLANK SPACE AFTER EACH NAME DATE OF BIRTH
NAME (LAST. FIRST. MIDDLE) MONTH DAY YEAR

I I
MAILING ADDRESS
I I I I I I I I I lall'
I I i
NO. AND STREET. APT. If. P.O. BOX. OR RURAL
I T I I I I
ROUTE
I I i I I I I I
DESCRIPTION
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 1 I I I i i I 1
HEIGHT WEIGHT HAIR EYES
CITY. TOWN OR POST OFFICE. AND STATE ZIP CODE
I I I I I I I 1 I I I I I I I I I I ( I I I
BIRTHPLACE (City and CITIZENSHIP SOCIAL SECURITY NO. IF A SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER
HAS NEVER BEEN ISSUED
State, or foreign country) i CHECK THIS BLOCK --IP. MI
1 I 1 1 I
Is this a retest' II No II Yes, date of last test I Haw you taken or are you taking an FAA approved course for this test? No Yes III "yes" spar detads below)
Graduation date !NAME OF SCHOOL 'CITY AND STATE
CERTIFICATION: I CERTIFY that all of the statements made in this application are true.
complete, and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief and are made in good faith Signature
DO NOT WRITE IN THIS BLOCK - FOR USE OF FAA OFFICE ONLY .- Applicant's identity
established by
CARD A CARD B FIELD OFFICE
SECTIONS mice (IP DATI
CAI* LAIN TEST NUMBER TAKE EXPIRATION CERTIFICATED MY SIC!, N in DESIGNATION
NO I 2 3_4 56 moron eaz_pran SCHOOL NUMBER

III
t 2 3 SIGNATURE LH FAA Representative
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 I I I 1 1

INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING THE ANSWER SHEET. Completely darken only one circle for each quest on. 'DO NOT USE IX) OR Ill .
I I 1 1 i 1 11.1
Use black lead pencil furnished by examine . To make corrections, open answer sheet so erasure marks will not show on page 2. Then erase
incorrec response on page 4. On page 2 (copy) mark the incorrect response with a slash (/). Questions are arranged in VERTICAL sequence
as indicated by the arrows.
1000012300001 450000 6700001 8900001111000011330000
111
a 20000 240000* 460000* 680000* 900000*1120000*1340000
O 30000 250000 470000 690000 910000 1130000 1350000
O 40000 260000 480000 700000 920000 1140000 1360000
a 50000 270000 490000 710000 930000 1150000 1370000
S
O 60000 280000 500000 720000 940000 1160000 1380000
S 70000 290000 510000 730000 950000 1170000 1390000
80000 300000 520000 740000 960000 1180000 1400000
S 90000 310000 530000 750000 970000 1190000 1410000
O
100000 320000 540000 760000 980000 1200000 1420000
110000 330000 550000 770000 990000 1210000 1430000
120000 340000 560000 780000 1000000 1220000 1440000
130000 350000 570000 790000 1010000 1230000 1450000
O
140000 360000 580000 800000 1020000 1240000 1460000
O
O 150000 370000 590000 810000 1030000 1250000 1470000 NW

160000 380000 600000 820000 1040000 1260000 1480000

170000 300000 610000 830000 1050000 1270000 1490000
180000 400000 620000 840000 1060000 1280000 1500000
190000 410000 630000 850000 1070000 )290000
200000 420000 640000 860000 1080000 1300000
210000 430000 650000 870000 1090000 1310000
220000 440000 660000 880000 1100000 1320000 tulln

* U. 8. GOVERNMENT PRINTING OFFICE 1979 625- 709/1394

225
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 Page 191
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FOR ADDITIONAL SPACE ATTACH ANOTHER SHEET. TOTAL AMOUNT ENCLOSED..

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GOVERNMENT PRINTING MICE

MIX DOCUMENTS DEPARTMENT POSTAGE AND FEES
IFASIDNGTOK D.C. 20402 U.S. GOVERNMENT PRENTING OF4011
OFFICIAL BUSINESS 375
SPECIAL FOURTH-CLASS RATE
IF UNDELIVERABLE. DOCK
RETURN TO SENDER

Name

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City and State ZIP Code ............