Arjuna NEET 4.

0 (2024)

PRACTICE TEST - 03

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 21/01/2024 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Newton Laws of Motion and Friction (Full Chapter), Work, Energy and Power (Full Chapter), Motion of
System of Particle and COM (Full Chapter), Rotational Motion (Full Chapter)
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter), P-Block (Full Chapter)
Biology : (Botany) : Biological Classifications (Full Chapter), Plant Kingdom (Full Chapter), Morphology of
Flowering Plants (Full Chapter)
(Zoology) : Breathing and exchange of gases (Full Chapter), Body fluids and circulation (Full Chapter),
Excretory product and their elimination (Full Chapter)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
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 [Practice Test-03 | Arjuna NEET 4.0 (2024)| 21/01/2024]

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS

SECTION-A 7. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a

1. A body, under the action of a force rotating wheel is given by the equation
→ ^ ^ ^ (t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes
F = 6 i − 8 j + 10 k , acquires an acceleration of
zero at:
1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be: (1) t = 1s (2) t = 0.5 s
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg (3) t = 0.25 s (4) t = 2 s
(3) 10 2 kg (4) 2 10 kg
8. Assertion (A): If both the speed of a body and
radius of its circular path are doubled, then
2. What is the value of linear velocity, if: centripetal force also gets doubled.
→ ^ ^ ^ → ^ ^ ^ → Reason (R): Centripetal force is directly
r = 3 i − 4 j + k and  = 5 i − 6 j + 6 k , where r is proportional to both speed of a body and radius of
→ circular path.
radius vector and  is angular velocity vector.
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) 4 i − 13 j + 6 k (2) 18 i + 13 j − 2 k true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ of Assertion (A).
(3) 6 i + 2 j − 3k (4) 6 i − 2 j + 8 k (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
→ ^ ^ ^ explanation of Assertion (A).
3. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 i − 6 k at (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by:
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(1) −8 i − 4 j − 7 k (2) −4 i − j − 8 k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
9. At a place where the acceleration due to gravity is
(3) −7 i − 8 j − 4 k (4) −7 i − 4 j − 8 k 10 m sec–2 a force of 5 kg-wt acts on a body of
mass 10 kg initially at rest. The velocity of the
4. A particle is projected making an angle of 45° body after 4 second is:
with horizontal having kinetic energy K. The (1) 5 m sec–1 (2) 10 m sec–1
kinetic energy at highest point will be: (3) 20 m sec–1 (4) 50 m sec–1
K K
(1) (2) 10. A body of weight 2kg is suspended as shown in
2 2
the figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string
(3) 2K (4) K
(in kg wt) is:
5. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio of
4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum.
The ratio of their masses is:
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

6. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end

P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string
tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 3/2
cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is:
(3) 2 3 (4) 2

11. The mass of a lift is 500 kg. When it ascends with

an acceleration of 2 m/s2, the tension in the cable
will be [g= 10 m/s2].
2g 2g (1) 6000 N
(1) (2)
L 2L (2) 5000 N
3g g (3) 4000 N
(3) (4) (4) 50 N
2L L
12. Two masses m1 and m2 are attached to a string 16. A block of mass 0.1 kg. is pressed against a wall
which passes over a frictionless smooth pulley. with a horizontal force of 5 N as shown in the
When m1 =10 kg, m2 = 6 kg the acceleration of figure. If the coefficient of friction between the
masses is(g = 10 m/s2) . wall and the block is 0.5 then the frictional force
acting on the block will be (g = 9.8 m/s2).

(1) 20 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2 (1) 9.8 N

(3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2 (2) 2.5 N
(3) 0.98 N
13. A Diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per (4) 0.49 N
second at a velocity of 400 m/sec. The
accelerating force on the rocket is: 17. Assertion (A): According to law of conservation
(1) 20 dynes (2) 20 N of mechanical energy change in potential energy
(3) 22 dynes (4) 1000 N is equal and opposite to the change in kinetic
energy.
14. Two bodies of 5 kg and 4 kg are tied to a string as Reason (R): Mechanical energy is not a
shown in the figure. If the table and pulley both conserved quantity.
are smooth, acceleration of 5 kg body will be
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
equal to.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) g
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
g
(2) (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
4
4g
(3) 18. Assertion (A): Force is required to move a body
9
5g uniformly along a circle.
(4)
9
Reason (R): When the motion is uniform,
acceleration is zero.
15. In the system shown, pulley is massless and string
is light and inextensible. Acceleration with which (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
4 kg mass starts moving up is: true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
[Take g = 10 m/s2] of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

19. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving

with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively
(1) 1 m/s2 along same direction. Then the velocity of their
(2) 2 m/s2 centre of mass will be
(3) 5 m/s2 (1) 8.1 m/s (2) 7.3 m/s
(4) 4 m/s2 (3) 6.4 m/s (4) 5.3 m/s
20. Three masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are lying at the 25. A weight lifter lifts 300 kg from the ground to a
corners of an equilateral triangle of side . The height of 2 meter in 3 second. The average power
generated by him is
(X) coordinate of center of mass is-
(1) 5880 watt
Y
4 kg
(2) 4410 watt
(3) 2205 watt
  (4) 1960 watt

X 26. Two particles of mass 2 kg and 1 kg are placed at

2 kg  3 kg
points (1, –2) and (–4, 3). Where should a third
7 5
(1) (2) particle of mass 5 kg be placed so that centre of mass
12 9
of three particle system lies at origin?
7 2 5
(3) (4) 1 2  2 1
9 9 (1)  ,  (2)  , 
5 5  5 5
21. A 4 kg mass and a 1 kg mass are moving with 3 4  −2 −1 
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes 5 5  5 5
of their linear momenta is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
27. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with speed of
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
36 km/h has a head on collision with a stationary ball
22. A box ‘A’ is lying on the horizontal floor of the of mass 3 kg. If after collision, both the balls move
compartment of a train running along horizontal rails together, then the loss in K.E. due to collision is:
from left to right. At time ‘t’, it retards. Then the (1) 100 J (2) 140 J
reaction R by the floor on the box is given best by: (3) 40 J (4) 60 J

28. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of

(1) masses 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of mass 3 kg
is 16 ms–1. The kinetic energy of mass 6 kg (in joule)
(2) is:
(1) 96 (2) 384
(3) 192 (4) 768

29. The figure given below shows the force F versus

(3) displacement x graph. The net work done by the
force when an object is displaced from x = 0 to
x = 16 m is

(4)

23. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a long trolley. The

(1) 84 J (2) 24 J
coefficient of friction between the block and trolley is (3) 48 J (4) 100 J
0.2. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 m/s2 for
20 s. then what is the friction force? 30. Diameter of each spherical shell is R and mass M,
(1) 20 N (2) 100 N they are joined by a light and massless rod. Calculate
(3) 5 N (4) 10 N the moment of inertia of the system about XX' axis.

24. Two particles whose masses are 10 kg and 30 kg and

their position vectors are i + j + k and –i − j − k
respectively would have the centre of mass at.

(1) −
(i + j + k ) (2)
(i + j + k ) 11 2
2 2 (1) MR 2 (2) 7MR

(i + j + k ) (i + j + k )
3
8 13
(3) (4) (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
4 4 5 3
31. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L 37. If the K.E. of a body is increased by 300%, its
about an axis passing through its centre of mass and momentum will increase by.
perpendicular to its length is: (1) 100% (2) 150%
L L2 (3) 300% (4) 175%
(1) (2)
12 12
L L 38. A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force F
(3) (4) for a time t. Its Kinetic energy after an interval t is:
3 2
F 2t 2 F 2t 2
(1) (2)
32. The moment of inertia of two spheres of equal m 2m
masses about their diameters are equal. If one of F 2t 2 Ft
(3) (4)
them is solid and other is hollow, the ratio of their 3m 2m
radii is:
(1) 3: 5 (2) 3 : 5 39. Assertion (A): The work done during a round trip is
(3) 5: 3 (4) 5 : 3 always zero.
Reason (R): No force is required to move a body in
33. A particle is moving along a straight line parallel
its round trip.
to x-axis with constant velocity. Find angular
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
momentum about the origin in vector form.
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.
(1) + mv 2bkˆ (2) −mvbkˆ
40. A particle of mass m moving with horizontal
(3) −2mvbkˆ (4) −mvbjˆ
speed 6 m/sec as shown in figure. If m << M then for
34. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r one dimensional elastic collision, the speed of lighter
with a constant speed v. The force on the body is particle after collision will be.

mv 2
and is directed towards the centre. What is the
r
work done by this force in moving the body over half
the circumference of the circle?
(1) 2 m/sec in original direction
mv 2
(1) (2) Zero (2) 2 m/sec opposite to the original direction
r 2 (3) 4 m/sec opposite to the original direction
mv 2 r 2 (4) 4 m/sec in original direction
(3) (4)
r2 mv 2
35. A body of mass m kg is lifted by a man to a height of 41. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of
one metre in 30 sec. Another man lifts the same mass mass as shown. Then:-
to the same height in 60 sec. The work done by them
are in the ratio.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
SECTION-B (1) The two pieces will have the same mass
36. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and (2) The bottom piece will have larger mass
k2(k1>k2). When they are stretched by the same force.
(3) The handle piece will have larger mass
(1) No work is done in case of both the springs.
(2) Equal work is done in case of both the springs. (4) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of
(3) More work is done in case of second spring. bottom piece
(4) More work is done in case of first spring.
42. A block follows the path as shown in the figure from 46. A force F = (3x2 + 2x – 7) N acts on a 2 kg body
height h. If radius of circular path is r, then relation
as a result of which the body gets displaced from
that holds good to complete full circle is:
x=0 to x = 5 m. The work done by the force will
be:
(1) 35 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 115 J
(4) 270 J

47. A constant force F is acting on a body of mass m

with constant velocity v as shown in the figure.
The power P exerted is:
(1) h < 5r/2
(2) h> 5r/2
(3) h = 5r/2
(4) h 5r/2

43. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are

connected by a massless string which is just taut.
Now two forces 3 N and 14 N are applied on F cos 
(1) Fv cos (2)
blocks. The tension in the string is: mg
Fmg cos  mg sin 
(3) (4)
v F

48. A body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity of

(1) 24.3 N (2) 20 N (3iˆ + 4 ˆj) m/s . The kinetic energy possessed by it
(3) 6 N (4) Zero will be
(1) 125 J
44. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one (2) 25 J
dimensional motion with constant acceleration. (3) 10.8 J
The power delivered to it at time t is (4) 12.5 J
proportional to?
49. The power required by engine of car of mass
(1) t1/2 (2) t3/2 1000 kg to accelerate it from rest to a speed of
72 km/h in 20 s is
(3) t1/3 (4) t
(1) 10 kW
(2) 1 kW
45. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 (3) 100 kW
connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The (4) 1000 kW
mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a
rough horizontal table (The coefficient of friction 50. The potential energy of a particle varies with
= µ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible distance x as shown in the graph. The force acting
mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is: on the particle is zero at.
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

g (1 − g) 2 g (1) C
(1) (2) (2) B
9 3
g (1 − 2) g (1 − 2) (3) B and C
(3) (4) (4) A and D
3 2
 [Practice Test-03 | Arjuna NEET 4.0 (2024) | 21/01/2024]

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 59. Assertion (A) : Boron forms only covalent

51. Ionic compounds in general, possess: compounds.
(1) high melting points and non-directional Reason (R) : Due to small size of boron, the sum
bonds. of its first three ionisation enthalpies is very high.
(2) high melting points and low boiling points. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(3) directional bonds and low boiling points.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) high solubilities in polar and non-polar
Assertion (A).
solvents.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
52. Which of the following bonds will have highest ionic but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
character? of Assertion (A).
(1) H – I (2) H – F (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
(3) H – Cl (4) H – Br false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
53. Which molecule is planar? true.
(1) NH3 (2) CH4
(3) C2H4 (4) SiCl4
60. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule:
54. The shape of ClO− ion according to Valence Shell (1) contains replaceable H+ ion.
3
electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory will be: (2) gives up a proton.
(1) triangular planar. (3) accepts OH– from water.
(2) pyramidal. (4) combines with proton from water molecule.
(3) tetrahedral.
(4) square planar. 61. The correct order of bond angles is:
(1) Bond angles do not depend on hybridization.
55. H–O–H bond angle in H2O is 104.5º and not 109º 28 (2) sp < sp2 < sp3
because of: (3) sp2 < sp < sp3
(1) high electronegativity of oxygen.
(4) sp3 < sp2 < sp
(2) bond pair-bond pair repulsion.
(3) lone pair-lone pair and lone pair-bond pair
repulsion. 62. Which of the following species has a linear shape?
(4) lone pair-bond pair repulsion. (1) O3
(2) NO−2
56. Number of bonds in SO2 are: (3) SO2
(1) one  and two 
(4) NO+2
(2) two  and one 
(3) two , two  and one lone pair of electrons
63. For diborane, the incorrect statement is:
(4) None of these
(1) All 6 B–H bond are in the same plane.
57. As the s-character of hybridized orbital increases, the (2) 4 B–H bonds are in the same plane and two
bond angle: B–H bonds are above and below the plane.
(1) increases (2) decreases (3) It is a 12 e– species.
(3) becomes zero (4) does not change (4) The number of three-centre two-electron
bonds in diborane are 2.
58. The correct order of bond angles is:
(1) NO−2  NO2+  NO2 64. The hybridization of I in IF3 is:
(1) sp3d
(2) NO+2  NO2−  NO2
(2) sp3
(3) NO2  NO2+  NO2− (3) sp3d2
(4) NO+2  NO2  NO2− (4) sp3d3
65. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct 69. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent character is
option. favoured by:
List-I List-II (1) large cation and small anion.
(Species) (Characteristic) (2) small cation and large anion.
(A) BF3 (I) Octahedral (3) large cation and large anion.
(B) SF4 (II) Square pyramidal (4) small cation and small anion.
(C) SF− (III) sp3d hybridization
5
70. Which of the following contains both
(D) SF6 (IV) Planar molecule
electrovalent and covalent bonds?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) MgCl2
(1) (IV) (II) (III) (I) (2) H2O
(2) (IV) (III) (II) (I) (3) NH4Cl
(3) (III) (II) (I) (IV) (4) None of these
(4) (III) (IV) (II) (I)
71. The octet rule is not obeyed in:
66. Assertion (A) : Dipole moment of NH3 is more than (1) CO2
the dipole moment of NF3. (2) BCl3
Reason (R) : The electronegative F atoms in NF3 (3) PCl5
attract electrons and these dipole moments partly (4) Both (2) and (3)
cancel the dipole moment from the lone pair.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true 72. Which is not true about CH4 molecule?
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (1) Tetrahedral hybridization
Assertion (A). (2) 109.5º bond angle
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (3) Four sigma bonds
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation (4) One lone pair of electrons on carbon
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is 73. Which member of group 13 does not generally
exhibit +3 oxidation state in its compounds?
false.
(1) Boron
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
(2) Aluminium
true.
(3) Gallium
(4) Thallium
67. An ionic bond A+ B– is most likely to be formed
when:
74. Diborane reacts with water to form:
(1) the ionization energy of A is high and the
(1) HBO2
electron affinity of B is low. (2) B2O3
(2) The ionization energy of A is low and the (3) H3BO3 + H2
electron affinity of B is high. (4) H2
(3) The ionization energy of A and the electron
affinity of B is high. 75. Statement I: In water, orthoboric acid behaves as
(4) The ionization energy of A and the electron a weak monobasic acid.
affinity of B is low. Statement II: In water, orthoboric acid acts as a
proton donor.
68. Which condition favours the bond formation? (1) Statement I and Statement II both are
(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential correct.
energy (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential incorrect.
energy (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum correct.
attraction (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) None of these incorrect.
76. Which of the following is used in a 82. OF2 has:
semiconductor? (1) linear shape and sp hybridization
(1) C (2) Si (2) tetrahedral geometry and sp3 hybridization
(3) Pb (4) Sn (3) bent shape and sp3 hybridization
(4) both (2) and (3)
77. Carbon forms a large number of compounds
because it has: 83. In diamond, each carbon atom is sp3 hybridized
(1) fixed valency. and linked to four other carbon atoms in ______
(2) non-metallic nature. fashion.
(3) high ionization potential. (1) square (2) linear
(4) property of catenation. (3) tetrahedral (4) none of these

78. Which of the following statements is correct with 84. Which of the following bonds/forces is weakest?
respect to the property of elements with increase (1) Covalent bond (2) lonic bond
in atomic number in the carbon family (group (3) Metallic bond (4) London forces
14)?
(1) Their metallic character decreases 85. Assertion (A) : Order of bond energy of C-C bonds is
(2) The stability of +2 oxidation state increases given by, C – C < C = C < C  C.
(3) Their ionization energies increase Reason (R) : Bond energy increases with increase
(4) Their atomic size decreases in bond order.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
79. Assertion (A) : Molecular species like SF6, PF5, I3− and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
and XeF2 violate the octet rule. Assertion (A).
Reason (R) : Compounds with an expanded octet (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
are called hypervalent compounds. but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are of Assertion (A).
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
of Assertion (A). false.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
true but Reason (R) is not a correct true.
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is SECTION-B
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is 86. The correct sequence of increasing covalent
true. character is represented by:
(1) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
80. Which is the right structure of XeF4? (2) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
.. (3) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
F F F
(1) Xe (2) F (4) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
F
Xe
F F .. 87. Statement I: Pb4+ compounds are stronger
F ..
F oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
.. Statement II: The higher oxidation states for the
..

F
(3) F F (4) Xe group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
Xe
F
members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’.
F F
.. F (1) Statement I and Statement II both are
correct.
81. The species which is not tetrahedral in shape is: (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) BF4− incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) NH4+
correct.
(3) XeO4 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) ICl4–
incorrect.
88. Which of the following is not isostructural with O

SiCl4? 95. What is the formal charge on N in Cl − N ?

(1) SCl4 O

(2) SO42– (1) +1

(3) PO43– (2) –1
(4) NH4+ (3) 0
(4) +2
89. Among the following molecules, the one which
has permanent dipole moment is:
96. The hybridization of P in phosphate ion (PO43–) is
(1) SiF4
(2) BF3 the same as:
(3) NF3 (1) I in ICl−
4
(4) PF5 (2) S in SO3
(3) N in NO−
3
90. Which one of the following cannot exist on the
(4) S in SO2−
3
basis of molecular orbital theory?
(1) H+2
97. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3)
(2) He+2 consists of:
(3) C2 (1) 1 sigma and 2 bonds.
(4) He2
(2) 2 sigma and 1 bonds.

91. Among the following species, which has the (3) 1 sigma and 1 bonds.
minimum bond length? (4) 2 sigma and 2 bonds.
(1) B2
(2) C2 98. What is the dominant intermolecular force that
(3) F2
must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to
(4) O−
2
a gas?
(1) Hydrogen bonding
92. Which one of the following does not have
intermolecular hydrogen bonding? (2) Dipole-dipole interactions
(1) H2O (3) Covalent bonds
(2) o-Nitrophenol (4) London dispersion forces
(3) HF
(4) CH3COOH 99. Oxygen molecule is:
(1) diamagnetic.
93. Hydrogen bonding is not present in:
(2) paramagnetic.
(1) NH3
(2) H2O (3) ferrormagnetic.
(3) H2S (4) ferrimagnetic.
(4) HF
100. In XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6, the number of lone pairs on
94. The compound showing maximum covalent Xe respectively, are:
character is:
(1) 2, 3, 1
(1) NaF
(2) 1, 2, 3
(2) NaCl
(3) NaBr (3) 4, 1, 2
(4) NaI (4) 3, 2, 1
 [Practice Test-03 | Arjuna NEET 4.0 (2024) | 21/01/2024]

SECTION-(III) BOTANY

SECTION-A 107. Silica deposition occur in wall of;

101. Which of the following fungi only reproduce by (1) euglenoids. (2) diatoms.
asexual spores conidia? (3) dinoflagellates. (4) slime mould.
(1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum
108. Consider the following statements.
(3) Trichoderma (4) All of these (A) All Protozoans are heterotrophs.
(B) Protozoans are believed to be primitive
102. Consider the following statements and mark the relatives of animals.
correct option. (C) False feet is the characteristic of Flagellated
A. Cyanobacteria have chl b similar to green protozoan.
plants. Mark the correct option.
(1) Both (A) & (C) (2) Both (A) & (B)
B. Chemosynthetic bacteria oxidises various
(3) Only (C) (4) Only (A)
inorganic substance into simpler one.
C. True sexual reproduction present in monera. 109. Protista having pigment similar to higher plants
(1) Both A and B are correct are;
(2) Both B and C are correct (1) protozoa. (2) diatom.
(3) Only B correct (3) dinoflagellates. (4) euglenoids.
(4) Only A correct
110. Mark the correctly matched option.
(1) Photosynthetic – Diatom and slime mould
103. Dikaryophase fungi which lack sex organs are; (2) Marine – Diatom and euglenoids
(1) phycomycetes. (3) Flagellates – Diatom and dinoflagellates
(2) ascomycetes. (4) Saprophytic – Slime mould and fungi
(3) basidiomycetes.
(4) deuteromycetes. 111. In penicillium, sexual reproduction results in the
formation of;
(1) zygospore. (2) oospore.
104. Mark the incorrectly matched. (3) basidiospore. (4) Ascospore.
(1) Mucor – Aseptate hyphae
(2) Claviceps – Septate hyphae 112. Ascomycetes are mostly;
(3) Ustilago – Conidia (1) acellular. (2) unicellular.
(4) Agaricus – Sex organ absent (3) multicellular. (4) all of these.

113. Precursor of seed habits first develop into;

105. Read the following statements carefully & select
(1) Selaginella and Salvinia.
true (T) & false (F) statements accordingly.
(2) bryophytes.
P. Morels and truffles are edible.
(3) algae.
Q. In ascomycetes, ascospore are produced
(4) gymnosperm.
exogenously.
R. Neurospora is used extensively in
114. Protein cover pellicle is present in;
biochemical and genetic work.
(1) diatoms. (2) Nostoc.
S. Bacteriophages are single stranded DNA
(3) euglenoids. (4) dinoflagellates.
viruses.
P Q R S
115. Consider the following features.
(1) T F T T Well defined nucleus, oxygen producing,
(2) F T T F chloroplast, flagellated, marine.
(3) T F F T Given features are present in;
(4) T F T F (1) Nostoc. (2) methanogens.
(3) dinoflagellates. (4) euglenoids.
106. Which statement is/are not true about
116. r-phycoerythrin is pigment not present in;
Mycoplasma? (1) Polysiphonia.
(1) They are smallest living organism with well- (2) Fucus.
defined nucleus. (3) Porphyra.
(2) They can be parasitic to plants only. (4) Gelidium.
(3) They lack cell wall.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
117. Which of the following pair is incorrectly 124. Consider the following statements and select the
matched? incorrect option.
(1) Chlorophyceae – Major pigments are chl (1) The sporophyte in liverworts is more
a and b. elaborate than that in mosses.
(2) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall is made up of (2) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
cellulose and algin. (3) Soil binders and use as ornamental is feature
(3) Chlorophyceae – Stored food is of pteridophyte.
mannitol. (4) In Pinus, male and female cones are borne on
(4) Chlorophyceae – Cell wall is made up of same trees.
cellulose.
125. Identify the correct statement.
118. Select an incorrect statement about gemmae in (1) Homosporous condition present in
bryophytes? bryophytes.
(1) Gemmae are green, multicellular, sexual (2) Many peridophytes are seed bearing.
buds. (3) Heterosporous pteridophyte have dependent
(2) Gemmae develop in small receptacles called sporophyte.
gemma cups located on the thalli. (4) Rhizoids are unicellular and diploid in moss.
(3) Gemmae become detached from the parent
body and germinate to form new individuals. 126. Which of the following pteridophytes belong to
(4) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual class Pteropsida?
buds. (1) Equisetum and Psilotum
(2) Lycopodium and Adiantum
119. These algae are composed of simple branched (3) Selaginella and Pteris
filaments (e.g. Ectocarpus) to profusely branched (4) Pteris and Adiantum
forms kelp which may reach upto 100 meters
long. These algae are placed under class; 127. Which one of the following is a vascular plant
(1) rhodophyceae. (2) phaeophyceae. without seed?
(3) chlorophyceae. (4) chrysophyceae. (1) Ginkgo (2) Marchantia
(3) Cedrus (4) Equisetum
120. Plant with dependent sporophyte is;
(1) Funaria. (2) Pteris. 128. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(3) Pinus. (4) Cedrus. (1) Adiantum (2) Equisetum
(3) Dryopteris (4) Salvinia
121. Sporangia is not present in; 129. Mark the incorrectly matched.
(1) Polytrichum. (2) Cycas. (1) Pinus – Heterosporous
(3) Cedrus. (4) Neem. (2) Cycas – Pinnate compound leaf
(3) Selaginella – Homosporous
122. In gymnosperms; (4) Polysiphonia – Zoospore absent
(1) pollen grains germinate inside the ovary.
(2) the development of pollen grain takes place 130. Free central placentation is present in;
within the microsporangia. (1) Primrose. (2) mustard.
(3) the cones bearing megasporophylls are called (3) tomato. (4) pea.
male cones or male strobili.
(4) all are correct. 131. In racemose type of inflorescence;
(A) main axis terminates into flower.
(B) flower born in basipetal order.
123. Assertion (A): Artificial system of classification (C) main axis not terminates into flower.
as given by Linnaeus is not acceptable nowadays. (D) flower born in acropetal order.
Reason (R): Vegetative and sexual characters (1) Only (A) and (B)
were given equal weightage. (2) Only (C) and (D)
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) Only (A) and (C)
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) Only (B) and (C)
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 132. CJD in humans is caused by;
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct (1) a proteinaceous infectious particle.
explanation of Assertion (A). (2) a virus, containing ssRNA.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (3) an infectious RNA particle.
false. (4) a virus, containing dsRNA.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
133. Flower with radial symmetry is present in; 141. Epigynous flowers are found in;
(1) mustard and pea. (1) china rose. (2) rose.
(2) pea and bean. (3) guava. (4) plum.
(3) Cassia and china rose.
(4) mustard and Datura.
142. Ovary is half inferior in;
134. Opposite phyllotaxy is feature of; (1) cucumber. (2) peach.
(1) mustard. (2) sunflower. (3) china rose. (4) mustard.
(3) china rose. (4) guava.
143. Consider the following statements.
135. Which of the following figures depicts the correct A. Spores of slime mould have true cell wall.
position of floral parts on thalamus, as seen in
B. Plasmodium show differentiation in
cucumber, guava and ray-florets of sunflower?
favourable conditions.
(1) (2) C. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
D. Diatoms are chief producer of ocean.
Mark the correct option.
(1) Only A, B and D (2) Only A, C and D
(3) (4) (3) Only A and D (4) All are correct

144. The parasite of sleeping sickness is;

(1) Entamoeba. (2) Trypanosoma.
SECTION-B (3) Paramoecium. (4) Amoeba.
136. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one
another at the margin without overlapping, as in 145. Which of the following statement is wrong for
viroids?
Calotropis, the aestivation is said to be;
(1) They are smaller than viruses.
(1) vexillary. (2) valvate.
(2) They cause infections.
(3) imbricate. (4) twisted.
(3) Their RNA is of high molecular weight.
137. In which of the following type of placentation, the (4) Viroid causes potato spindle tuber disease.
placenta is present in the axial position and the
146. ………….. crystallised tobacco mosaic virus and
ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary?
showed that crystals largely consist of ………….
(1) Parietal (2) Basal
(1) Beijerinck; lipids
(3) Axile (4) Free central
(2) Stanley; proteins
(3) Ivanowsky; proteins
138. Identify the incorrect match.
(1) Syncarpous – Mustard and tomato (4) Stanley; nucleic acid
(2) Apocarpous – Carpels are fused
(3) Free carpel – Lotus and rose 147. Amoeboid protozoans found in;
(4) Mango – Drupe fruit (1) fresh water. (2) marine.
(3) moist soil. (4) all of these.
139. Which of the following statement/s are correct
for conifers? 148. Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium
I. Needle like leaves to reduce surface area.
II. Thick cuticle on leaves. produces___________ basidiospores.
III. Sunken stomata to reduce water loss. (1) diploid (2) endogenously
IV. The main plant body is gametophyte. (3) exogenously (4) multicellular
(1) II and III only (2) IV only
(3) I only (4) I, II and III 149. Endosperm is bulky and store food in;
(1) maize. (2) bean.
140. Some hyphae are continuous tubes filled with
(3) pea. (4) gram.
multinucleated cytoplasm these are called;
(1) coenocytic hyphae.
150. What do you eat in coconut?
(2) septate.
(1) Endosperm (2) Mesocarp
(3) septate branched.
(3) Pericarp (4) Fruit wall
(4) mycelium.
 [Practice Test-03 | Arjuna NEET 4.0 (2024) | 21/01/2024]

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 157. Which of the following statements is true about

151. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. pleural membranes?
They do not collapse even after forceful (1) Outer pleural membrane is in close contact
expiration, because of____________. with the lung surface.
(1) residual volume (2) Inner pleural membrane is in contact with the
(2) inspiratory reserve volume thoracic lining.
(3) tidal volume (3) Pleural fluid is present between both the
(4) expiratory reserve volume pleural layers.
(4) It increases the friction on the lung surface.
152. The excretory structure of Amphioxus is;
(1) flame cells. 158. Statement I: The coagulum is formed of a
(2) radula. network of threads called thrombins.
(3) malpighian tubules. Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of
(4) green glands. erythrocytes.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
153. What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
by RBCs? incorrect.
(1) 7% (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) 20-25% correct.
(3) 70% (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) 97% incorrect.

154. What is the Vital Capacity of our lungs? 159. Each Hb molecules can carry a maximum of
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume plus Tidal _______ molecules of oxygen.
Volume. (1) 2 (2) 4
(2) Total Lung Capacity minus Expiratory (3) 6 (4) 8
Reserve Volume.
(3) Inspiratory Reserve Volume plus Expiratory 160. Which of the following statements is false?
Reserve Volume. (1) The partial pressure of oxygen in
(4) Total Lung Capacity minus Residual deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg.
Volume. (2) The partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated
blood is 95 mm Hg.
155. Statement I: A hairpin-shaped henle's loop has a (3) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar
descending and ascending limb. air is 104 mm Hg.
Statement II: A large vessel runs parallel to the (4) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
henle's loop forming a 'U' shaped vasa recta. deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 161. The volume of air involved in breathing
incorrect. movements can be estimated by using a
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is _________ which helps in the clinical assessment
correct. of the pulmonary function.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (1) ECG
incorrect. (2) sphygmomanometer
(3) spirometer
156. Inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscle leads (4) barometer
to a symptom of acute chest pain. This disorder of
the circulatory systems is identified as;
(1) angina pectoris. 162. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
(2) cardiac arrest. the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
(3) heart failure. (1) Epinephrine (2) Thrombokinase
(4) coronary heart disease. (3) Thrombin (4) Thromboplastin
163. Assertion (A): Alveoli are the primary sites of 168. Choose the correct statements.
exchange of gases. I. Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
Reason (R): Alveoli are lined by the simple nitrogenous wastes and osmoregulation.
squamous epithelium. II. Blue glands perform the excretory functions
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true in earthworms.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of III. Ammonia is the least toxic form of
Assertion (A). nitrogenous waste and its elimination
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true requires the least amount of water.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation IV. The process of excreting ammonia is
of Assertion (A). ammonotelism.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (1) I & II only
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (2) II, III & IV only
(3) I, II, III & IV
164. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (4) I & IV only
(1) The medullary zone of the kidney is divided
into a few conical masses called medullary 169. Arrange the following in the order of increasing
pyramids projecting into calyces. volume.
(2) Inside the kidney the cortex extends in I. Tidal volume (TV)
between the medullary pyramids as the renal II. Residual volume (RV)
pelvis. III. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is IV. Vital capacity (VC)
called the renal corpuscle. (1) I < II < III < IV
(4) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (2) I < III < II < IV
and distal convoluted tubule of the nephron (3) I < IV < III < II
are situated in the cortical region of the (4) I < IV < II < III
kidney.
170. Statement I: In ECG, P-wave represents the
165. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected
electrical excitation of the atria.
to the machine with three electrodes attached;
Statement II: The end of T-wave marks the end
(1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle.
of the ventricular systole.
(2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) One of each wrist and to the left chest region.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
166. Among vertebrates, ___A___ use gills whereas
correct.
reptiles, birds and mammals respire through the
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
___B___. Amphibians like frogs can respire
incorrect.
through ___C___ also.
Select appropriate choice for the blanks A, B and
C to complete the given statement. 171. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the atmospheric
(1) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-gills air compared to those in the alveolar air?
(2) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-dry skin (1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher.
(3) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-moist skin (2) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser.
(4) A-mammals, B-gills, C-moist skin (3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher.
(4) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser.
167. During joint diastole;
(1) blood is pumped into the left ventricle by left 172. The partial pressure of CO2 is minimum in the;
atrium. (1) atmospheric air.
(2) atria and ventricle contract simultaneously. (2) alveoli.
(3) atria and ventricles are in a relaxed state. (3) deoxygenated blood.
(4) only ventricles contract. (4) oxygenated blood.
173. Following are the steps of dialysis. 178. A person with blood group O will have
A. blood is passed into a vein. __________antibody/antibodies in plasma.
B. blood is mixed with heparin. (1) anti-B only
C. blood is mixed with anti-heparin.
(2) anti-A only
D. blood is drained from convenient artery.
E. blood is passed through a coiled and porous (3) nil
cellophane tube bathing in dialysis fluid. (4) both anti-A and anti-B
F. removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood.
The correct sequence of steps is; 179. Read the following statement, state True (T)/False
(1) A → B → C → D → E → F. (F) and choose the correct option.
(2) D → B → E → F → C → A.
I. Solubility of gases as well as thickness of
(3) F → C → E → B → A → D.
(4) D → C → E → F → B → A. membranes involved in diffusion can affect
the rate of diffusion.
174. Arrange the given steps of respiration mechanism II. CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-
in the order, they occur in the human body. haemoglobin.
I. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation III. The role of oxygen in the regulation of
II. Diffusion of gases across the alveolar
respiratory rhythm is quite significant.
membrane
III. Transport of gases by blood (1) I (T) II (T) III (T)
IV. Utilisation of O2 by cells (2) I (F) II (T) III (T)
V. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and (3) I (F) II (F) III (T)
tissues (4) I (T) II (T) III (F)
Choose the correct option.
(1) I → II → III → IV → V
180. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(2) I → II → III → V → IV
option.
(3) I → III → II → V → IV
(4) I → III → II → IV → V List-I (Area of List-II (Receives
heart) blood from)
175. Megakaryocytes on fragmentation give rise to;
(A) Right atrium (I) Left atrium
(1) RBCs (2) WBCs
(3) Platelets (4) Macrophages (B) Right ventricle (II) Vena cava
(C) Left atrium (III) Right atrium
176. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
option. (D) Left ventricle (IV) Pulmonary veins
List-I List-II (1) (A)–(II), (B)–(III), (C)–(IV), (D)–(I)
(A) Ultrafiltration (I) Henle’s loop
(2) (A)–(I), (B)–(II), (C)–(III), (D)–(IV)
(B) Concentration of (II) Ureter
urine (3) (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(III)
(C) Transport of urine (III) Urinary (4) (A) – (III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
bladder
(D) Storage of urine (IV) Malpighian
181. An ___A___ in the pulmonary volume ___B___
corpuscles
(1) (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(III) the intra-pulmonary pressure to less than the
(2) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(II), (D)–(I) atmospheric pressure which forces the air from
(3) (A)–(II), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(III) ___C___ to move into the lungs, this process is
(4) (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(II) called ___D___.
Choose the correct options for the blanks A, B, C
177. Arrange the following modes of transport of
and D to complete the above statement.
carbon dioxide in the blood from the most
common to the least common. (1) A-increase, B-decrease, C-outside, D-
a. Bicarbonate ions expiration
b. Transported by RBCs (2) A-decrease, B-increase, C-outside, D-
c. Dissolved in plasma expiration
Choose the arrangement that lists them in the (3) A-decrease, B-increase, C-inside, D-
correct order from the largest to smallest
inspiration
percentage of carbon dioxide transported.
(4) A-increase, B-decrease, C-outside, D-
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, b
(3) b, c, a (4) b, a, c inspiration
182. Statement I: Catalytic activity is lost when the 187. Assertion (A): The passage starting with the
co-factor is removed from the enzyme. external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles
Statement II: The formation of enzyme-substrate constitute the respiratory part.
(ES) complex is essential for catalysis. Reason (R): The conducting part transports the
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. air to the alveoli, clears it from the foreign
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is material, humidifies and brings the air to body
incorrect. temperature.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
correct. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are Assertion (A).
incorrect. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
183. Binding of oxygen with Hb is primarily related to; of Assertion (A).
(1) partial pressure of O2. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(2) partial pressure of CO2. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) hydrogen ion concentration.
(4) temperature. 188. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are the most abundant cells of the
184. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called total WBCs.
“Universal recipients”. B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
This is due to: heparin.
(1) presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory
RBCs. response.
(2) absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in D. Basophils are agranulocytes.
plasma. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) absence of antigens, A and B, on the surface below:
of RBCs. (1) A and B only
(4) absence of antigens A and B in plasma. (2) C and D only
(3) A and C only
185. The parts of the nephron situated in the medullary (4) B and C only
region of the kidney are;
(1) loop of henle and collecting duct. 189. Which of the following is incorrect about PCT?
(2) collecting duct, PCT and malpighian (1) Lined with simple cuboidal brush bordered
corpuscle. epithelium.
(3) PCT, DCT and loop of henle. (2) All essential nutrients and 70 to 80 percent of
(4) PCT, DCT and malpighian corpuscle. the electrolyte and water are reabsorbed here.
(3) It helps in the pH maintenance of body fluids
186. Arrange the following formed elements in the by the selective secretion of H+ ions and by
decreasing order of their abundance in blood in the absorption of HCO3–.
humans. (4) It does not help in the maintenance of ionic
(A) Platelets balance of body fluid.
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Erythrocytes 190. How many of the following factors are favourable
(D) Eosinophils for the shifting of oxygen dissociation curve to the
(E) Monocytes left side?
Choose the most appropriate answer from the High pO2, low pCO2, less H+ ion concentration,
options given below: lower temperature.
(1) (C), (A), (B), (E), (D) (1) 3
(2) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D) (2) 4
(3) (D), (E), (B), (A), (C) (3) 1
(4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E) (4) 2
191. Approximate volume of air a healthy man can 196. Which of the given statements are correct?
expire or inspire per minute is; A. In humans, the cardiac output is about 5000
(1) 5000 to 6000 ml mL.
(2) 4000 to 6000 ml B. Cardiac output of an athlete will be much
(3) 6000 to 8000 ml higher than that of an ordinary man.
(4) 7000 to 9000 ml C. Deoxygenated blood is carried by pulmonary
vein.
192. In a standard ECG the QRS complex represents; D. First heart sound is produced due to opening
(1) atrial depolarisation. of AV valves.
(2) atrial repolarisation. Choose the correct option.
(3) ventricular depolarisation. (1) A, B and C only
(4) ventricular repolarisation. (2) B, C and D only
(3) A and B only
193. Assertion (A): Urine produced (1 to 1.5 L) per (4) A, B and D only
day is far less than the volume of filtrate occur per
day (180L). 197. Read the following statements and state True (T)
Reason (R): 99% of filtrate is reabsorbed by the and False (F) and choose the correct option.
renal tubules. I. Reabsorption of water occurs actively in the
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true initial segments of the nephron.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of II. Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis
Assertion (A). of many metabolic disorders as well as
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true malfunctioning of the kidney.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation (1) I-(F) and II-(T) (2) I-(T) and II-(T)
of Assertion (A). (3) I-(F) and II-(F) (4) I-(T) and II-(F)
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
false. 198. Statement I: Ventricular systole increases the
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is ventricular pressure causing the closure of
true. tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted
backflow of blood into the atria.
194. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the Statement II: As the ventricular pressure
working of the heart? increases further, the semilunar valves guarding
(1) Both heart rate and cardiac output are the pulmonary artery and the aorta are closed.
reduced. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
cardiac output. incorrect.
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output correct.
increases. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
195. Statement I: Kidneys are situated between the
level of the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae. 199. Which of the following factors is responsible for
Statement II: Kidneys are present close to the the formation of concentrated urine?
lateral inner wall of the abdominal cavity. (1) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. filtration.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
incorrect. (3) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards the
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
correct. (4) Secretion of erythropoietin by
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are juxtaglomerular complex.
incorrect.
200. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (1) (A)–(I), (B)–(II), (C)–(III), (D)–(IV)
option. (2) (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(II), (D)–(I)
List-I List-I
(A) Mollusca (I) Incomplete double (3) (A)–(III), (B)–(II), (C)–(IV), (D) –(I)
circulation (4) (A)–(I), (B)–(III), (C)–(II), (D)–(IV)
(B) Fishes (II) Double circulation
(C) Crocodiles (III) Open circulation
(D) Reptiles (IV) Single circulation

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