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MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A Time : 200 Min.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
1. (3) 19. (3)

2. (1) 20. (1)

3. (2) 21. (3)

4. (2) 22. (4)

5. (2) 23. (2)

6. (2) 24. (2)

7. (1) 25. (2)

8. (3) 26. (4)

9. (2) 27. (4)

10. (1) 28. (3)

11. (3) 29. (1)

12. (4) 30. (3)

13. (3) 31. (3)

14. (4) 32. (3)

15. (1) 33. (1)

16. (2) 34. (1)

17. (1) 35. (1)

18. (2)

SECTION-B
36. (3) 44. (1)

37. (3) 45. (4)

38. (2) 46. (2)

39. (3) 47. (1)

40. (1) 48. (1)

41. (2) 49. (2)

42. (3) 50. (3)

43. (4)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. (3) 69. (2)

52. (1) 70. (4)

53. (3) 71. (3)

54. (3) 72. (3)

55. (2) 73. (2)

56. (1) 74. (2)

57. (3) 75. (1)

58. (1) 76. (1)

59. (1) 77. (2)

60. (4) 78. (2)

61. (2) 79. (1)

62. (4) 80. (2)

63. (4) 81. (2)

64. (1) 82. (3)

65. (4) 83. (1)

66. (1) 84. (4)

67. (2) 85. (2)

68. (1)

SECTION-B

86. (1) 94. (1)

87. (1) 95. (1)

88. (1) 96. (2)

89. (4) 97. (3)

90. (2) 98. (1)

91. (3) 99. (3)

92. (2) 100. (2)

93. (2)

BOTANY

SECTION-A
101. (2) 119. (2)

102. (2) 120. (3)

103. (3) 121. (3)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

104. (4) 122. (4)

105. (4) 123. (1)

106. (4) 124. (1)

107. (2) 125. (3)

108. (4) 126. (4)

109. (2) 127. (3)

110. (3) 128. (1)

111. (4) 129. (3)

112. (3) 130. (2)

113. (2) 131. (2)

114. (3) 132. (2)

115. (2) 133. (3)

116. (3) 134. (2)

117. (3) 135. (2)

118. (2)

SECTION-B

136. (1) 144. (4)

137. (4) 145. (4)

138. (1) 146. (4)

139. (2) 147. (2)

140. (4) 148. (4)

141. (4) 149. (1)

142. (4) 150. (1)

143. (2)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
151. (1) 169. (2)

152. (2) 170. (2)

153. (3) 171. (2)

154. (1) 172. (4)

155. (1) 173. (4)

156. (4) 174. (1)

157. (2) 175. (3)

158. (2) 176. (4)

159. (2) 177. (2)

160. (2) 178. (3)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

161. (2) 179. (2)

162. (3) 180. (1)

163. (4) 181. (1)

164. (3) 182. (2)

165. (2) 183. (1)

166. (2) 184. (1)

167. (1) 185. (4)

168. (1)

SECTION-B
186. (1) 194. (2)

187. (2) 195. (4)

188. (4) 196. (4)

189. (2) 197. (3)

190. (4) 198. (3)

191. (4) 199. (1)

192. (3) 200. (2)

193. (3)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
(1) Answer : (3)
Solution:
F = qE
= 2 × 10–3 × 500
=1N
(2) Answer : (1)
Solution:
1
=
1

3
+
1

9
+
1

18
=
1

2
⇒ Cs = 2 μF
Cs

Cs
Cp = 3 + 9 + 18 = 30 μF ⇒ Cp
=
2

30
=
1

15

(3) Answer : (2)

Solution:
→ 9 −6
1 Q 9 × 10 × 5 × 10
E = =
2
4πε0 r 4

= 11.25 × 103 N/C

= 11 KN/C

(4) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Like charges repel, and unlike charges attract.

(5) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Same force will act on both the charges.
(6) Answer : (2)
Solution:
qn et −1
ϕE = = ε
ε0 0

(7) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Electric field is uniform i.e.,
E = E = E .
x y z

(8) Answer : (3)

Solution:
C1 C2
Ceq = = 2.4 μ F
C1 + C2

Charge flown = 2.4 × 500 × 10–6 C =1200 μC.

(9) Answer : (2)
Solution:
→ →
ϕ = ∫ E .dA

For a closed surface, in uniform electric field the flux is zero. This is because numbers of field lines entering is equal to
number of field lines exiting the closed surface.

(10) Answer : (1)

Solution:
kq1 q2
F =
r2

1
F ∝
r2

(11) Answer : (3)

Solution:
IF a body is positively charged then it has deficiency of electrons.
(12) Answer : (4)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

mg = qE
⇒ 1.6 × 10–27 × 10
= 1.6 × 10–19 × E
⇒ E = 10–7 V/m

(13) Answer : (3)

Solution:
λ
E =
2π ε0 r

9
4 2×9× 10 λ
36 × 10 =
4

λ = 8 × 10–5 C/m

(14) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Electric field due to uniformly charged ring at its centre is zero

(15) Answer : (1)

Solution:
When the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery, then both the plates will get equal and
opposite charge.

(16) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Ui = –PEcos 0°
Uf = –PEcos 180°
W = Uf – Ui = 2PE

(17) Answer : (1)

Solution:
The number of field lines originating or terminating is proportional to the magnitude of the charge.
(18) Answer : (2)
Solution:
q = ne
2 = n × 1.6 × 10–19
1 20
n = × 10
8

n = 0.125 × 1020
= 1.25 × 1019

(19) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Net force on a dipole in uniform field is zero.
(20) Answer : (1)
Solution:
→
3
E = 8 × 10 î

θ = 60°
ϕ = E A cos 60°

= 8 × 103 × (10 × 10–2)2 × 1

= 4 × 103 × 102 × 10–4

= 40 N m2/C
(21) Answer : (3)
Solution:
q 1 1 1 1
E = [ − + − +………..]
4π ε0 1 4 16 64

q 1 q
E = [ ] =
4π ε0 1 5π ε0
1−(− )
4

(22) Answer : (4)

Solution:
1 2 1 −6
U = C V = × 8 × 10 × 16
2 eq 2

= 64 × 10–6 J = 64 μJ
(23) Answer : (2)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

ε0 A
C = and Q = CV
d

1
C ∝
d

When the battery is disconnected.

Q = constant
1
⇒ C ∝
V

Also, ⇒ C ∝
1

d
∴ V ∝ d

When the separation is made 4d

ε0 A C
′
C = =
4d 4

⇒ C V
′ ′
= CV = constant
′ CV CV
∴ V = = = 4V
′ C
C
4

(24) Answer : (2)

Solution:
2
2qQK K6q 3QqK
U = − + −
r 2r r

U=0
2
2qQK 3Kq 3QqK
− + − = 0
r r r

–5qQ + 3q2 = 0
Q 3
=
q 5

(25) Answer : (2)

Solution:
The force per unit charge is known as electric field.
(26) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Surface charge density is inversely proportional to radius of curvature of surface.

(27) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Charge on C1 when s1 is closed, q = C1E
2
q
V= 1

2 c1
= 1

2
C1 E
2

(28) Answer : (3)

Solution:
The S.I unit of electric dipole moment is coulomb meter.

(29) Answer : (1)

Solution:
2CVC = CV
v
VC =
2

(30) Answer : (3)

Solution:

(31) Answer : (3)

Solution:
C does not depend on potential difference applied.
(32) Answer : (3)
Solution:
C3
If C1
= , then bridge is balanced.
C2 C4

Step 1 : Remove 4 μF capacitor

Step 2 : CAB = 1 μF + 1 μF = 2 μF

(33) Answer : (1)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Solution:
⃗ ⃗
ϕE = E ⋅ A

(34) Answer : (1)

Solution:
In steady state no current will flow through capacitor.

5
i = = 1 A
4+1

VAB = 1 × 4 = 4 V = V
cap

Qcap = C V = 8 × 4 = 32 μC

(35) Answer : (1)

Solution:
q
E =
Aε0

q
E =
Aε0 k

E0
E =
k

SECTION-B

(36) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Unit = = J c
Nm

Cm
−1 −1
m of electric field.

(37) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Battery remains connected, so potential difference remains same as emf of battery.
(38) Answer : (2)
Solution:
q
σ =
2
6a

−6
3×10
=
−4
6×25×10

−2
10
=
50

= 2 × 10–4 Cm–2
(39) Answer : (3)
Solution:

kq ka 2kq
v = + =
a a a

(40) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Maximum charge on
−3 −3
1 μF = 1 × 6 × 10 = 6 × 10 C

Maximum charge on
−3 −3
3 μF = 3 × 4 × 10 = 12 × 10 C

Maximum charge on series combination

= 6 × 10 C −3

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Maximum voltage on series combination

−3
6×10
= 8 kV
3
–6
× 10
4

(41) Answer : (2)

Solution:
q
V = for r < R
4π ε0 R

(42) Answer : (3)

Solution:
For positive charge electric field lines move away from the charge and for negative charge it will be directed towards
the charge
(43) Answer : (4)
Solution:
V 0

∫ dV = − ∫ Edx
0 5

2
0
10x
V = −[ ] = 125 volt
2
5

(44) Answer : (1)

Solution:
q
1 in 12×10
−6
5
ϕ = ( ) = = 2.26 × 10
6 ε0 −12
6×8.85×10

(45) Answer : (4)

Solution:
1 2
C1 V1 –3
U1 2
C1 2×10 1
= = = =
U2 1 2 C2 –3 2
C2 V2 4×10
2

(46) Answer : (2)

Solution:
ϕ = E.πR
2
As the net flux through hemisphere would be zero.
∴ Incoming flux = outgoing flux

(47) Answer : (1)

Solution:
As potential drop across 2 μF will increase on insertion of dielectric, so charge on 2 μF capacitor will increase.

(48) Answer : (1)

Solution:
When positive charge moves from low potential to high potential region, work is done against electric field and potential
energy increases.
(49) Answer : (2)
Solution:
KQ1 KQ2
V = =
r1 r2

r1 a Q1
⇒ = =
r2 b Q2

2 2
σ1 Q1 r
Surface charge densities σ2
=
Q2
2

2
=
a

b
(
b

a
) =
b

a
r
1

(50) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Hint: Parallel and series combination of capacitor.
Sol.: C' = (
C×C

C+C
)+C =
3C

3C

(C'×C) ×C
2 3C
C = = =
net (C'+C) 3C
+C
5
2

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
(51) Answer : (3)
Solution:
• Solution with positive deviation will have less B.P.
• Isotonic solution has same osmotic pressure
• Kf depends on nature of solvent only.

(52) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
27 g Al deposit by = 3 F
5.4 g Al will deposit by = 0.6 F
(53) Answer : (3)
Solution:
ΔTf ∝ i
Greater the value of i, smaller is the freezing point of aqueous solution.
i = 1 for aqueous solution of urea so, freezing point is maximum
(54) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Reverse osmosis is used for desalination of sea water.

(55) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Ethylene glycol is added to car radiators to prevent freezing of water as depression of freezing point is observed.

(56) Answer : (1)

Solution:
On increasing temperature solubility of gas decreases and Henry's constant increases.
(57) Answer : (3)
Solution:
If E is positive i.e. reaction is spontaneous and hence standard gibbs energy will be negative.
∘
cell

(58) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Benzene and toluene forms ideal solution for which ΔmixH = 0 ΔmixV = 0 ΔmixS > 0 ΔmixG < 0

(59) Answer : (1)

Solution:
o o o
Λm (Mg (OH) ) = λ 2+
+ 2λ −
2 Mg OH

= 106 + 2 × (199.1)
= 504.2 S cm2 mol–1

(60) Answer : (4)

Solution:
Osmotic pressure is best suited colligative property to find out the molecular mass of polymers.

(61) Answer : (2)

Solution:
PTotal = Po X A
+
o
P XB
A B

o o
= P (1 − X B
)+ P XB
A B

o o o
= P − P XB + P XB
A A B

= Po + (
o
P −
o
P ) XB
A B A

Graph between Ptotal and XB will be straight line.

∴ Slope = Po − Po
B A

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(62) Answer : (4)

Solution:
The azeotrope has 68% nitric acid and 32% water by mass.
(63) Answer : (4)
Solution:
2Ag+(aq) + Mg(s) → 2Ag(s) + Mg2+(aq)
2 +
[ Mg ]
° ∘ 0 . 0591
E cell
= (E + − E 2 +
) − log
Ag / Ag Mg / Mg 2 + 2
[ Ag ]

− 4

= (0.80 + 2.36) – 0.0591

2
log
2 × 10

− 4
= 3.17 V
4 × 10

(64) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Overall cell reaction on discharging is:
Pb(s)+PbO2(s)+2H2SO4 → 2PbSO4(s)+2H2O
H2O is formed at overall reaction.

(65) Answer : (4)

Solution:
H+ has highest limiting molar conductivity among the following
(66) Answer : (1)
Solution:
0
p − ps n
= Xsolute =
0
p n+N

100−75 n
=
100 90
n+( )
18

∴ n =
5

∴ Mass of solute = 5

3
× 45 = 75 g

(67) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Molar conductivity for strong electrolyte is given by Debye-Huckel equation
o
λ
m
= λ – A √C
m

o
∴ λ = λ + A √C
m
m

(68) Answer : (1)

Solution:
In mercury cell cathode used is paste of HgO and carbon.
(69) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is a 38% solution of H2SO4.

(70) Answer : (4)

Solution:
2 –1
Λm = 20 S cm mol

∘ ∘ ∘
Λ = Λ – +Λ
CH3 COO +
m CH3 COOH m H

= 50 + 350 = 400 S cm2 mol–1

Λm 20 1
α = ∘
= =
Λm 400 20

2
2
Cα 2 –3 1
Ka = = Cα = 7 × 10 ×( )
1–α 20

–3 1 –2
= 7 × 10 × × 10
4

= 1.75 × 10–5

(71) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Greater is the standard reduction potential, lesser is the reducing power.
E° 2+ = −0 .76 V E° 3+ = −1 .66 V
Zn / Zn Al / Al

E° 2+ = −2 .36 V E° + = −2 .71 V
Mg / Mg Na / Na

Order of reducing power

Na > Mg > Al > Zn

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(72) Answer : (3)

Solution:
In water,
− +
CH3 COOH ⇌ CH3 COO +H , i > 1

In benzene,
2 CH3 COOH ⇌ ( CH3 COOH) , i < 1
2

(73) Answer : (2)

Solution:
H2–O2 fuel cell:
2H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) ⟶ 2H2 O(ℓ)

(74) Answer : (2)

Solution:
N = M × n-factor
π = iCRT = N
× RT
n− factor

∴ π ∝ i

n -factor

i
Electrolyte n−factor

BaCI2 3
= 1.5
2

AI2(SO4)3 5
= 0.83
6

NaCI 2

1
= 2

AICI3 4
= 1.33
3

(75) Answer : (1)

Solution:
E°Cell = E° 2+ − E°
2+
Cu /Cu
Zn /Zn

= 0.34 – (–0.76) = 1.1 V

ΔG° = –2 × 96500 × 1.1 J = –212.3 kJ
(76) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both strong and weak electrolytes because the
number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution.

(77) Answer : (2)

Solution:
−−
Λ vs √C graph is not linear for weak electrolytes hence value of
m
o
Λm cannot be calculated by extrapolation.

(78) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Cathode : MnO2 + NH4+ + e–→ MnO(OH) + NH3

(79) Answer : (1)

Solution:
o o o
E = E –E
cell cathode anode

0 0 0
E = E –E = (0. 34 + 2. 36) V = 2. 70 V
cell 2+ 2+
Cu / Cu Mg / Mg

(80) Answer : (2)

Solution:
(n1 + n2 )×1000
π = RT
V

3.6 1.2
( + )×1000 RT
180 60

=
250

= 3.94 atm

(81) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Molality does not depend on temperature.
(82) Answer : (3)
Solution:
m 1 1
x = = =
m+55.55 1+55.55 56.55

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(83) Answer : (1)

Solution:
Lower the boiling point, higher will be the vapour pressure of liquid.
(84) Answer : (4)
Solution:
The graph shows the conductance of weak electrolyte i.e. CH3COOH.

(85) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Composition of azeotropic mixture remains same in liquid as well as in vapour phase. Nitric acid and water form
maximum boiling azeotrope as it shows negative deviation.

SECTION-B
(86) Answer : (1)
Solution:
O2 has more solubility than N2 due to more intermolecular force of attraction.

(87) Answer : (1)

Solution:
The value of molal depression constant, kf is constant for a particular solvent, thus, it will be unchanged when molality
of the dilute solution is tripled.
(88) Answer : (1)
Solution:
ECell = E
∘
Cell
−
0.0591

2
log
10
[
0.1

0.01
]

= 0− 0.0591
log 10
2

= –0.0295 V
(89) Answer : (4)
Solution:
ΔTb = i × Kb × m … (i)
and ΔTf = i × Kf × m … (ii)
ΔTb Kb ΔTb × Kf
∴ = ∴ ΔTf =
ΔTf Kf Kb

(90) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Zinc is used for galvanising iron.

(91) Answer : (3)

Solution:
∘ 1 ∘ ∘ 1 ∘
Λm ( CH3 COOH) = Λm ( CH3 COO) Ca + Λm (HCl) − Λm ( CaCl2 )
2 2 2

z x
= +y−
2 2

(92) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Anode: Cl (aq) → − 1

2
Cl2 (g) + e
−

Cathode: H2 O(l) + e
−
→
1

2
H2 (g) + OH
−
(aq)

(93) Answer : (2)

Solution:
k × 1000
Λm =
M

−2
0.248 × 10 × 1000
=
0.04

−2
248 × 10
=
−2
4 × 10

= 62 S cm2 mol–1.
(94) Answer : (1)
Solution:
M1 V1 = M2 V2

100 × 2 = M2 (100 + 400)

or M2 =
200

500
= 0.4

Molarity = 0.4 M
(95) Answer : (1)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

∆ Tf = i(Kf × m)
0.37 2 × Kf × 0.01
=
(ΔTf )
u r ea 1 × Kf × 0.02

∴ (∆Tf)urea = 0.37°C

(96) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Unit of Ebullioscopic constant is K kg mol–1
(97) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Chloroform and CCl4 will form solution with positive deviation from Rault’s law.

(98) Answer : (1)

Solution:
• Reduced form of element with high SRP is more stable.
• Since F2 has highest SRP, F– will be weakest reducing agent.

(99) Answer : (3)

Solution:
In fuel cell, the reaction taking place is
1
H2 + O2 → H2 O
2

(100)Answer : (2)
Solution:
i = 1 – 0.5 + 2 × 0.5 = 1.5
ΔTb = imK b

= 1.5 × 0.4 × 0.52 = 0.31

Tb = 100.31°C

BOTANY

SECTION-A

(101)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at two celled stage.
(102)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Generative cell of pollen grain is smaller than vegetative cell.
Generative cell is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
(103)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Pollen mother cell undergoes meiosis to form microspores which then undergoes mitosis to produce vegetative and
generative cell. The generative cell further undergoes mitosis to form two male gametes. Hence, to form three celled
mature pollen grain, one meiosis and two mitosis is required.

(104)Answer : (4)
Solution:
In angiosperms, two types of fusion i.e., syngamy and triple fusion occurs in an embryo sac and is termed as double
fertilisation.
(105)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Synergids are helper cells and they are not directly involved in double fertilisation.

(106)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Xenogamy is genetically a cross-pollination.
(107)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The correct sequence of different parts of an ovule from outside to inside is integument, nucellus, embryo sac.
(108)Answer : (4)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Chasmogamous flowers are open and Cleistogamous are closed flowers. Oxalis and Commelina produce both types of
flowers.
(109)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Wind and water pollinated flowers do not produce nectar.
(110) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Outbreeding devices promote cross pollination.
(111) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Germ pore is present in pollen grains.
(112) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Epiblast is undeveloped second cotyledon in embryo of grasses.

(113) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Flowers of water hyacinth and water lily emerge above the level of water and therefore pollinated by insects or wind. In
Vallisneria, pollination occurs by water and Salvia is insect pollinated plant.

(114) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism to prevent inbreeding depression. In this case, the pollen from the same
flower or other flowers of the same plant do not fertilise the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube
growth in the pistil.
(115) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Nucellus is diploid and rest all are haploid.

(116) Answer : (3)

Solution:
Multicarpelly apocarpous gynoecium is seen in Michelia. Papaver, chilli and Datura have syncarpous gynoecium.

(117) Answer : (3)

Solution:
The given figure is of monocot seed
A- Pericarp, B- Endosperm, C- Coleoptile, D- Scutellum

(118) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Most common type of abiotic pollination is by wind.

(119) Answer : (2)

Solution:
Seeds developed by apomixis are usually diploid and genetically identical to the mother plant.
Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. In this process, seeds are formed from
diploid nucellus, integuments or a diploid egg.
(120)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination involving pollinating agent. Genetically it is similar to autogamy since
pollen grains come from the same plant.
(121)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Megasporogenesis occurs in megaspore mother cell of ovule.
Megaspore mother cell undergoes reductional division to produce haploid megaspores during megasporogenesis.

(122)Answer : (4)
Solution:
In angiosperm, microsporogenesis is referred to as fromation of microspsore by meiotic division.
(123)Answer : (1)
Solution:
An ovary of wheat has a single ovule.
(124)Answer : (1)
Solution:
(i) Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats.
(ii) Seeds help species to colonise in other areas.

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(iii) They have sufficient food reserves to nourish young seedlings until they are capable of photosynthesis on their
own.
(125)Answer : (3)
Solution:
To produce 100 seeds, number of meiotic divisions required = 100 +
100

4
= 125.

(126)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Tapetum is innermost layer of anther wall. Its cells are polyploid and nourish the developing pollen grains.
(127)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The developing embryo is initially globular but later it becomes heart-shaped.
(128)Answer : (1)
Solution:
A chemical dialogue occurs between pollen and pistil for acceptance or rejection of pollen during pollen-pistil
interaction.
(129)Answer : (3)
Solution:

(130)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Hilum represents the point of attachment of funicle to the body of ovule.

(131)Answer : (2)
Solution:
‘Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at the tip
where a small opening called the micropyle is organised. Opposite the micropylar end, is the chalaza, representing the
basal part of the ovule. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus. Cells of the nucellus
have abundant reserve food materials.
(132)Answer : (2)
Solution:
A single cotyledon in typical monocot embryo is called scutellum.

(133)Answer : (3)
Solution:
If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a
pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation.

(134)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Filiform apparatus is finger-like projection in synergids, present towards the micropylar end.
Filiform apparatus guides the entry of pollen tube into synergids.

(135)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Egg apparatus of embryo sac contains 3 cells; 1-egg cell and 2- synergids.

SECTION-B
(136)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Hard outer layer of pollen grain is exine which is made up of sporopollenin.
(137)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat, loose viability within 30 minutes of their release.

(138)Answer : (1)

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Solution:
Beet and black pepper have perispermic seeds.

(139)Answer : (2)
Solution:
A typical female gametophyte or embryo sac is 8-nucleate and 7-celled structure.
(140)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Insect pollinated flowers are colourful and fragrant.
Fragrance of flower is to attract insects for pollination. Nectar, pollen and safe place to lay eggs are floral rewards.

(141)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Cells of tapetum generally have more than one nucleus but they are not haploid.
(142)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Stigma is unwettable in hydrophilous flowers.
(143)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Proximal end of filament of stamen is attached to thalamus or petal whereas distal end attaches to anther.
(144)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Pollen banks store pollen grains in liquid nitrogen for years at –196°C. This is known as cryopreservation.

(145)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Chasmogamy is production of open flowers do not promote self-pollination.

(146)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Parthenocarpic fruits develop without the process of fertilization.
Dehydration and dormancy, help in storage of seeds.

(147)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Cells of endothecium layer have alpha cellulosic fibrous bands arising from the inner tangential wall which help in
dehiscence of anther due to hygroscopic nature.

(148)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Calyx and corolla are non-essential whorls of a flower.

(149)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Aleurone layer is the part of endosperm.
(150)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Endosperm in castor is triploid. Castor seeds are endospermous.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
(151)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The male reproductive system is located in the pelvis region. It includes a pair of testes, accessory ducts, glands and
external genitalia.
(152)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The correct sequence for transport of sperm is
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra →
Urethral meatus.
(153)Answer : (3)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

Hymen can also be broken due to sudden fall or jolt or active participation in sports like horseback riding, etc. So,
presence or absence of hymen is not a sign of virginity.
• Oogenesis begins in foetal life in human females.
(154)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Hint: Tubules involved in spermatogenesis
Sol.: Seminiferous tubules are not included in category of male sex accessory ducts as they are involved in gamete
formation.

(155)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Human foetus develops once implanted in uterus.
(156)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Prostate gland is an unpaired structure.
(157)Answer : (2)
Solution:
PRL – formation of milk, progesterone – formation of alveoli in mammary glands
(158)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
(159)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The middle piece possesses numerous mitochondria, which produce energy for the movement of tail that facilitate
sperm motility essential for fertilisation.
(160)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Relaxin is secreted from ovary at the end of gestation period.
(161)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Luteal phase lasts for 14 days. The release of the ovum is called ovulation and occurs nearly 14 days before the onset
of the next menstrual cycle.
(162)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Menstrual cycle is characteristic phenomenon of female primates. For example, monkeys, apes and human beings.

(163)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sequential phases of menstrual cycle in ovary are follicular, ovulatory and luteal phases while in uterus, menstrual
phase, proliferative phase and secretory phase are seen.
(164)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Scrotal sac encloses the testes.
(165)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The level of gonadotropins like FSH and LH attain their peak at the end of follicular phase, just prior to ovulation.

(166)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Progesterone maintains the endometrium lining of uterus.

(167)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Level of estrogen is maximum at follicular phase. FSH and LH are maximum during ovulation.
(168)Answer : (1)
Solution:
1 primary spermatocyte forms 4 sperms while 1 primary oocyte forms only 1 ovum.
(169)Answer : (2)
Solution:
By the end of 6th month, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eyelashes are formed.

(170)Answer : (2)
Solution:

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

On entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and plasma membrane, completion of
meiosis II is induced. In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates.
(171)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone etc.
(172)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Primary oocyte – Arrested at prophase-I
Zona pellucida – Glycoproteinaceous acellular layer
Corona radiata – Granulosa cells
Secondary oocyte – Arrested at metaphase-II

(173)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
Anterior pituitary is known as adenohypophysis and posterior pituitary is known as neurohypophysis.
(174)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs.
(175)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Placenta is formed by both foetal and maternal tissue.
(176)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Primary spermatocyte is diploid (2n) while all other given cells are haploid (n).
(177)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Perivitelline space is a potential gap in between ovum and zona pellucida.

(178)Answer : (3)
Hint:
60% sperms present per ejaculate should have normal size and shape
Solution:
60% of total sperms present in one ejaculate should have normal size and shape, and 40% of them must show
vigorous motility.
60% of 250 million sperms = 250 × 60

100

= 150 million sperms

40% of 150 million sperms = 150 × 40

100

= 60 million sperms
(179)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Nutrient storing structure in many animals
Solution:

(180)Answer : (1)
Solution:
All copulations will not lead to fertilization and pregnancy in humans. Fertilization can only occur if male and female
gametes are transported simultaneously to ampulla region of fallopian tube.

(181)Answer : (1)
Solution:
FSH is responsible for growth and development of ovarian follicles.

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(182)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Mammary ampulla is connected to lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out
(183)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair. Clitoris is a small erectile structure.
(184)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Vas deferens ascends to the abdomen and loops over urinary bladder. It receives duct from seminal vesicle and opens
into urethra as ejaculatory duct.
(185)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Secretions of seminal vesicles contain fructose which provide energy to the sperms.

SECTION-B

(186)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Theca layer is formed outside the granulosa cells in secondary follicle.
(187)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Cervical canal along with vagina forms the birth canal.

(188)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells (spermatogonia) and Sertoli
cells.

(189)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus and simultaneously divides to form 2, 4, 8, 16
daughter cells called blastomeres.
(190)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Placenta supplies nourishment to the embryo, along with hormones and antibodies.

(191)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, hymen and mons pubis are parts of external genitalia in female.
(192)Answer : (3)
Solution:
There is unequal division of primary oocyte. Unequal division results into the formation of large size of secondary
oocyte and a tiny polar body.

(193)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Blastocyst implants in the endometrial layer of uterus.
(194)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In secretory phase, corpus luteum is formed which secretes high concentration of progesterone and low concentration
of estrogen. Progesterone is responsible for formation of thick mucus in cervix so that it protects pathogens from
entering the uterus.

(195)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sperms are part of semen.

(196)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Uterus is single in human females.
(197)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In tertiary follicle, primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division at puberty.
(198)Answer : (3)
Solution:
hCG acts exactly like LH and maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy.

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Term Exam for NEET-2025_CF+OYM(P1)-TE01A

(199)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The urethra originates from urinary bladder and extends through penis and opens outside via urethral meatus.
(200)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The wall of the uterus has three layers of tissue namely, the external thin membranous perimetrium, middle thick layer
of smooth muscles called myometrium and inner glandular layer called endometrium.

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