1- Which statement best describes the relationship between the Oracle Base and the Oracle

Home? (Choose

the best answer.)

A. The Oracle Base exists inside the Oracle Home.

B. The Oracle Base can contain Oracle Homes for different products.

C. One Oracle Base is required for each product, but versions of the product can exist in their own

Oracle Homes within their Oracle Base.

D. The Oracle Base is created when you run the orainstRoot.sh script, and contains a pointer to the

Oracle Home.

2- Which of these operations can be accomplished with the DBCA? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Create a database

B. Remove a database

C. Upgrade a database

D. Add database options

E. Remove database options

3- To create a database, in what mode must the instance be? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Not started

B. Started in NOMOUNT mode

C. Started in MOUNT mode

D. Started in OPEN mode

4- What instance parameter cannot be changed after database creation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. All instance parameters can be changed after database creation.

B. All instance parameters can be changed after database creation, if it is done while the instance is
in

MOUNT mode.

C. CONTROL_FILES.

D. DB_BLOCK_SIZE.

5- What statements regarding instance memory and session memory are correct? (Choose all
correct

answers.)

A. SGA memory is private memory segments; PGA memory is shared memory segments.
B. Sessions can write to the PGA, not the SGA.

C. The SGA is written to by all sessions; a PGA is written by one session.

D. The PGA is allocated at instance startup.

E. The SGA is allocated at instance startup.

6- How do sessions communicate with the database? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Server processes use Oracle Net to connect to the instance.

B. Background processes use Oracle Net to connect to the database.

C. User processes read from the database and write to the instance.

D. Server processes execute SQLreceived from user processes

7- What memory structures are a required (obligatoires) part of the SGA? (Choose all correct
answers.)

A. The database buffer cache

B. The Java pool

C. The large pool

D. The log buffer

E. The Program Global Area

F. The shared pool

G. The Streams pool

8- When a session changes data, where does the change get written? (Choose the best answer.)

A. To the data block in the cache, and the redo log buffer.

B. To the data block on disk, and the current online redo log file.

C. The session writes to the database buffer cache, and the log writer writes to the current online
redo

log file.

D. Nothing is written until the change is committed

9- Which of these background processes is optional? (Choose the best answer.)

A. ARCn, the archive process

B. CKPT, the checkpoint process

C. DBWn, the database writer

D. LGWR, the log writer

E. MMON, the manageability monitor

10 - What happens when a user issues a COMMIT? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The CKPT process signals a checkpoint.

B. The DBWn process writes the transaction’s changed buffers to the datafiles.

C. The LGWR flushes the log buffer to the online redo log.

D. The ARCn process writes the change vectors to the archive redo log

11- An Oracle instance can have only one of some processes, but several of others. Which of these
processes can occur several times? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. The archive process

B. The checkpoint process

C. The database writer process

D. The log writer process

E. The session server process

12- One segment can be spread across many datafiles. How? (Choose the best answer.)

A. By allocating extents with blocks in multiple datafiles

B. By spreading the segment across multiple tablespaces

C. By assigning multiple datafiles to a tablespace

D. By using an Oracle block size that is larger than the operating system block size

13- Which statement is correct regarding the online redo log? (Choose the best answer.)

A. There must be at least one log file group, with at least one member.

B. There must be at least one log file group, with at least two members.

C. There must be at least two log file groups, with at least one member each.

D. There must be at least two log file groups, with at least two members each.

14- Where is the current redo byte address, also known as the incremental checkpoint position,
recorded?

(Choose the best answer.)

A. In the controlfile

B. In the current online log file group

C. In the header of each datafile

D. In the System Global Area

15- The LOG_BUFFER parameter is a static parameter. How can you change it? (Choose the best
answer.)
A. You cannot change it because it is static.

B. You can change it only for individual sessions; it will return to the previous value for all subsequent

sessions.

C. You can change it within the instance, but it will return to the static value at the next startup.

D. You can change it in the parameter file, but the new value will only come into effect at the next

startup.

16- Which files must be synchronized for a database to open? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Datafiles, online redo log files, and the controlfile.

B. Parameter file and password file.

C. All the multiplexed controlfile copies.

D. None. SMON will synchronize all files by instance recovery after opening the database.

17- During the transition from NOMOUNT to MOUNT mode, which files are required? (Choose the
best

answer.)

A. Parameter file

B. Controlfiles

C. Online redo logs

D. Datafiles

E. All of the above

18- You shut down your instance with SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE. What will happen on the next
startup?

(Choose the best answer.)

A. SMON will perform automatic instance recovery.

B. You must perform manual instance recovery.

C. PMON will roll back uncommitted transactions.

D. The database will open without recovery.

19- You issue the command SHUTDOWN, and it seems to hang. What could be the reason? (Choose
the best

answer.)

A. You are not connected as SYSDBA or SYSOPER.

B. There are other sessions logged on.

C. You have not connected with operating system or password file authentication.

D. There are active transactions in the database; when they complete, the SHUTDOWN will proceed.

20- What action should you take after terminating the instance with SHUTDOWN ABORT? (Choose
the best

answer.)

A. Back up the database immediately.

B. Open the database and perform database recovery.

C. Open the database and perform instance recovery.

D. None, but some transactions may be lost.

E. None. Recovery will be automatic.

21- Which of these actions will not be recorded in the alert log? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. ALTER DATABASE commands

B. ALTER SESSION commands

C. ALTER SYSTEM commands

D. Archiving an online redo log file

E. Creating a tablespace

F. Creating a user

22- Which parameter controls the location of background process trace files? (Choose the best
answer.)

A. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST.

B. BACKGROUND_TRACE_DEST.

C. DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.

D. DIAGNOSTIC_DEST.

E. No parameter. The location is platform specific and cannot be changed.

23- Which of these views can be queried successfully in NOMOUNT mode? (Choose all correct
answers.)

A. DBA_DATA_FILES

B. DBA_TABLESPACES

C. V$DATABASE

D. V$DATAFILE

E. V$INSTANCE
F. V$SESSION

24- Which view will list all tables in the database? (Choose the best answer.)

A. ALL_TABLES

B. DBA_TABLES

C. USER_TABLES, when connected as SYS

D. V$FIXED_TABLE

25- Which protocols can Oracle Net 12c use? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. SPX/IPX

D. SDP

E. TCP with secure sockets

F. Named Pipes

G. LU6.2

H. NetBIOS/NetBEUI

26- Where is the division between the client and the server in the Oracle environment? (Choose
the best answer.)

A. Between the instance and the database.

B. Between the user and the user process.

C. Between the server process and the instance.

D. Between the user process and the server process.

E. The client-server split varies, depending on the stage of the execution cycle.

27- Which of the following statements about listeners is correct? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A listener can connect you to one instance only.

B. A listener can connect you to one service only.

C. Multiple listeners can share one network interface card.

D. An instance will only accept connections from the listener specified on the local_listener
parameter.

28- You have decided to use local naming. Which file(s) must you create on the client machine?
(Choose the best answer.)

A. tnsnames.ora and sqlnet.ora.

B. listener.ora only.

C. tnsnames.ora only.

D. listener.ora and sqlnet.ora.

E. None. You can rely on defaults if you are using TCP and your listener is running on port 1521.

29 - If you stop your listener, what will happen to sessions that connected through it? (Choose the
best answer.)

A. They will continue if you have configured failover.

B. They will not be affected in any way.

C. They will hang until you restart the listener.

D. You cannot stop a listener if it is in use.

E. The sessions will error out.

30- Consider this line from a listener.ora file:

What will happen if you issue this connect string:

(Choose the best answer.)

A. You will be connected to the instance L1.

B. You will only be connected to an instance if dynamic instance registration is working.

C. You can’t tell—it depends on how the client side is configured.

D. If you are logged on to the server machine, IPC will connect you to the local instance.

E. The connection will fail if the listener is not started.

31- Which of these tools can configure a listener.ora file? (Choose two answers.)

A. The Database Configuration Assistant

B. Database Express

C. The lsnrctl utility

D. The Net Configuration Assistant

E. The Net Manager

32- Consider this tnsnames.ora net service name:

What will happen if shared server is configured and this net service name is used? (Choose the best
answer)

A. The connect attempt will fail.

B. The connect will succeed with a shared server connection.

C. The connect will succeed with a dedicated server connection.

D. The connect will succeed only for SYSDBA or SYSOPER logons.

33- Examine the exhibit:.

The exhibit shows the Oracle storage model, with four entities having letters for names. Match four
of the following entities to the letters A, B, C, D:

DATAFILE

EXTENT

ORACLE BLOCK

ROW

SEGMENT

TABLE

34- What statements are correct about extents? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. An extent is a grouping of several Oracle blocks.

B. An extent is a grouping of several operating system blocks.

C. An extent can be distributed across one or more datafiles.

D. An extent can contain blocks from one or more segments.

E. An extent can be assigned to only one segment.

35 -Which of these are types of segments? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Sequence

B. Stored procedure

C. Table

D. Table partition

E. View

36- If a tablespace is created with the syntax

which of these characteristics will it have? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. The datafile will autoextend, but only to double its initial size.

B. The datafile will autoextend with MAXSIZE UNLIMITED.

C. The extent management will be local.

D. Segment space management will be with bitmaps.

E. The file will be created in the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST directory.

37- How can a tablespace be made larger? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Convert it from a SMALLFILE tablespace to a BIGFILE tablespace.

B. If it is a SMALLFILE tablespace, add files.

C. If it is a BIGFILE tablespace, add more files.

D. Resize the existing file(s).

38- Which of these commands can be executed against a table in a read-only tablespace? (Choose
the best answer.)

A. DELETE

B. DROP

C. INSERT

D. TRUNCATE

E. UPDATE

39- What operation cannot be applied to a tablespace after creation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Convert from dictionary extent management to local extent management.

B. Convert from manual segment space management to automatic segment space management.
C. Change the name of the tablespace.

D. Reduce the size of the datafile(s) assigned to the tablespace.

E. All the above operations can be applied

40- Which statements are correct about extents? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. An extent is a consecutive grouping of Oracle blocks.

B. An extent is a random grouping of Oracle blocks.

C. An extent can be distributed across one or more datafiles.

D. An extent can contain blocks from one or more segments.

E. An extent can be assigned to only one segment.

41- You receive an alert warning you that a tablespace is nearly full. What action could you take to
prevent

this becoming a problem, without any impact for your users? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Purge all recycle bin objects in the tablespace.

B. Shrink the tables in the tablespace.

C. Shrink the indexes in the tablespace.

D. Move one or more tables to a different tablespace.

E. Move one or more indexes to a different tablespace.

42- Which process is responsible for sending the alert when a tablespace usage critical threshold is
reached?(Choose the best answer.)

A. Database Control

B. The DBMS_SERVER_ALERT package

C. MMON, the Manageability Monitor process

D. The server process of the session that detected the problem

E. DBWn, the Database Writer, when it detects the problem

43- When will the Segment Advisor run? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Every night, as an autotask

B. On demand

C. Automatically when a tablespace crosses a threshold for space usage

D. Automatically when a session is suspended by the resumable space allocation mechanism

44- Which of the following commands will shrink space in a table or index segment and relocate
the HWM?
A. alter table employees shrink space compact hwm;

B. alter table employees shrink space hwm;

C. alter table employees shrink space compact;

D. alter table employees shrink space;

E. alter index employees shrink space cascade;

45- What is required before shrinking a table? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Triggers must be disabled

B. Indexes must be dropped.

C. Row movement must be enabled.

D. Automatic segment space management must be enabled.

E. LOB columns must be dropped.

46- How can you enable the suspension and resumption of statements that hit space errors?
(Choose all the correct answers.)

A. Issue an ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE command.

B. Issue an ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESUMABLE command.

C. Set the instance parameter RESUMABLE_STATEMENTS.

D. Set the instance parameter RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT.

E. Use the DBMS_RESUMABLE.ENABLE procedure.

47- If a statement is suspended because of a space error, what will happen when the problem is
fixed? (Choose the best answer.)

A. After the resumable timeout has expired, the statement will continue executing from the point it
had reached.

B. After the resumable timeout has expired, the statement will start executing from the beginning
again.

C. The statement will start executing from the beginning immediately after the problem is fixed.

D. The statement will continue executing from the point it had reached immediately after the
problem is fixed.

48- How can you permit users to connect without requiring them to authenticate themselves?
(Choose the best answer.)

A. Grant CREATE SESSION to PUBLIC.

B. Create a user such as this, without a password:

C. Create a profile that disables password authentication and assign it to the users.

D. You cannot do this because all users must be authenticated.

49- You create a user with this statement:

What more must be done before he can create a table in the EXAMPLE tablespace? (Choose all
correct answers.)

A. Nothing more is necessary.

B. Give him a quota on EXAMPLE.

C. Grant him the CREATE TABLE privilege.

D. Grant him the CREATE SESSION privilege.

E. Grant him the MANAGE TABLESPACE privilege.

50- If a user owns tables in a tablespace, what will be the effect of attempting to reduce their
quota on the tablespace to zero? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The tables will survive, but INSERTS will fail.

B. The tables will survive but cannot get bigger.

C. The attempt will fail unless the tables are dropped first.

D. The tables will be dropped automatically if the CASCADE keyword is used.

51-If you create a user without specifying a temporary tablespace, what temporary tablespace will
be assigned? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You must specify a temporary tablespace.

B. SYSTEM.

C. TEMP.

D. The database default temporary tablespace.

E. The user will not have a temporary tablespace.

52- You issue these commands:

Which grants should be revoked to prevent JON from seeing the contents of HR.REGIONS? (Choose
the best answer.)

A. a, b, c, and d
B. a, c, and d

C. a and b

D. c and d

E. a, b, and c

53- Which of these statements about system privileges are correct? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Only the SYS and SYSTEM users can grant system privileges.

B. If a system privilege is revoked from a user, it will also be revoked from all users to whom he

granted it.

C. If a system privilege is revoked from a user, it will not be revoked from all users to whom he

granted it.

D. CREATE TABLE is a system privilege.

E. CREATE ANY TABLE is a system privilege

54- Study this script (line numbers have been added):

Which line will cause an error? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Line 1, because only users, not roles, have passwords.

B. Line 2, because only users, not roles, can create and own tables.

C. Line 3, because SELECT TABLE is not a privilege.

D. Line 4, because a role cannot have a system privilege in addition to table privileges.

55- Which of these statements is incorrect regarding roles? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You can grant object privileges and system privileges as well as roles to a role.

B. A role cannot have the same name as a table.

C. A role cannot have the same name as a user.

D. Roles can be enabled or disabled within a session.

56- If a password profile is dropped, what will be the effect on users to whom it is assigned?
(Choose the best answer.)

A. You cannot drop the profile until it is unassigned from the users.

B. The profile will be removed if you use the CASCADE keyword.

C. The users will revert to the default profile.

D. Users to whom it is assigned will continue to use it, but it can no longer be assigned to anyone else

57- Which of these can be controlled by a password profile? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Two or more users choosing the same password

B. Preventing the reuse of a password by the same user

C. Forcing a user to change password

D. Enabling or disabling password file authentication

58- When a DMLstatement executes, what happens? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Both the data and the undo blocks on disk are updated, and the changes are written out to the
redo stream.

B. The old version of the data is written to an undo segment, and the new version is written to the
data segments and the redo log buffer.

C. Both data and undo blocks are updated in the database buffer cache, and the updates also go to
thelog buffer.

D. The redo log buffer is updated with information needed to redo the transaction, and the undo
blocks are updated with information needed to reverse the transaction

59- If you suspect that undo generation is a performance issue, what can you do to reduce the
amount of undo data generated? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Convert from use of rollback segments to automatic undo management.

B. Set the UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter to NONE.

C. Reduce the size of the undo segments.

D. There is nothing you can do because all DMLstatements must generate undo.

60- First, user JOHN initiates a query. Second, user ROOPESH updates a row that will be included
in the

query. Third, JOHN’s query completes. Fourth, ROOPESH commits his change. Fifth, JOHN runs his

query again. Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. The principle of consistency means that both of JOHN’s queries will return the same result set.

B. When ROOPESH commits, the undo data is flushed to disk.

C. When ROOPESH commits, the undo becomes inactive.

D. JOHN’s first query will use undo data.

E. JOHN’s second query will use undo data.

F. The two queries will be inconsistent with each other.

61- If an undo segment fills up, what will happen? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Another undo segment will be created automatically.

B. The undo segment will increase in size.

C. The undo tablespace will extend, if its datafiles are set to autoextend.

D. Transactions will continue in a different undo segment.

62- Your users are reporting “ORA-1555: Snapshot too old” errors. What might be the cause of
this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You are not generating snapshots frequently enough.

B. The undo data is too old.

C. There is not enough undo data.

D. Your undo tablespace is retaining data for too long

63- Even though you are using automatic undo segments, users are still getting “snapshot too old”
errors. What could you do? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. Increase the UNDO_RETENTION parameter.

B. Set the RETENTION_GUARANTEE parameter

C. Tune the queries to make them run faster.

D. Increase the size of the undo tablespace.

E. Enable RETENTION GUARANTEE.

F. Increase the size of your undo segments.

64- Which of the following Oracle features utilize the undo tablespace? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Flashback Query

B. Flashback Drop

C. Flashback Table

D. Flashback Database

E. Transaction Processing

F. Recycle Bin

65- Over the course of a day, a department performed multiple DML statements (inserts,

updates, deletes) on multiple rows of data in multiple tables. The manager would like

a report showing the time, table name, and DML type for all changes that were made.
Which Flashback technology would be the best choice to produce the list?

A. Flashback Drop

B. Flashback Query

C. Flashback Transaction Query

D. Flashback Version Query

E. Flashback Table

66- Which of the following statements best describes Flashback Version Query?

A. Flashback Version Query is used to make changes to multiple versions of data that

existed between two points in time.

B. Flashback Version Query is used to view all version changes on rows that existed

between the time the query was executed and a point in time in the past.

C. Flashback Version Query is used to view version changes and the SQL to undo

those changes on rows that existed between two points in time.

D. Flashback Version Query is used to view all version changes on rows that existed

between two points in time.

67- Which of the following can be used in conjunction with a Flashback Version Query to

filter the results? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A range of SCN values

B. A list of SCN values

C. Starting and ending timestamps

D. Minimum and maximum sequence values

E. A list of sequence values

68- Which of these are valid Flashback Database recovery point parameters? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. SCN

B. Timestamp

C. Transaction ID

D. Session ID

69- In the Oracle 12c multitenant architecture, which of the following accurately describes
the relationship between PDBs and CDBs?

A. A PDB can exist across multiple CDBs.

B. Many CDBs can exist across multiple PDBs.

C. Many CDBs can exist in a single PDB.

D. Many PDBs can exist in a single CDB.

E. All of the above.

70- Which of these formats represents the correct command to create a PDB using SQL*Plus?

A. CREATE PDB DATABASE pdb3 ADMIN USER pdb3_admin IDENTIFIED BY system03;

B. CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb3 ADMIN USER pdb3_admin IDENTIFIED BY

system03;

C. CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb3 SYSTEM USER pdb3_admin IDENTIFIED BY

system03;

D. None of the above

71- Which of the following statements is true concerning the Oracle multitenant

architecture?

A. It is available beginning with Oracle 11g and expanded in Oracle 12c.

B. It supports multiple PDBs within one CDB that spans multiple platforms.

C. It allows the DBA to shut down a CDB but keep tenant PDBs active.

D. It allows the DBA to host multiple releases of the Oracle Database within one CDB.

E. None of the above.

72- Which of the following are components of the multitenant container database? (Choose

all that apply.)

A. CDB$SEED

B. PDB$SEED

C. PDB$ROOT

D. Zero or more PDBs

E. CDB$ROOT

73- Which of the following are advantages of the multitenant architecture? (Choose all

that apply.)

A. Reduced hardware requirements

B. Efficient management of data and code

C. Simpler management of the database

D. Platform independence

74- Which of the following describes a non-CDB? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A PDB

B. All Oracle databases created in Oracle 12c Release 1

C. All Oracle databases created prior to Oracle 12c Release 1

D. A container database that contains only one PDB

E. An Oracle 12c database that was not created with the multitenant option

75- Which of the following are viable methods to provision a PDB? (Choose all that apply.)

A. By using the seed database in the CDB

B. By cloning an existing PDB

C. By plugging in an unplugged PDB

D. By moving a non-CDB into a PDB

E. By moving a CDB into a PDB

76- Which of these SQL*Plus commands creates a PDB?

A. create pluggable database lne1201;

B. create pluggable database lne1201 from pdb1;

C. create pluggable database lne1201 from PDB$SEED;

D. All of the above

77- To drop a pluggable database, what steps are required? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The PDB must have been opened at least once.

B. You must specify an INTO clause and a valid XML target file.

C. The PDB must be closed.

D. The PDB must be in read-only mode.

E. None of the above.