CLASS QUESTION

11
PAPER SET

C
SOF NATIONAL SCIENCE
OLYMPIAD 2023-24

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

Total Questions: 50 | Time: 1 hr.

Guidelines for the Candidate
1. You will get additional ten minutes to fill up information about yourself on the OMR Sheet, before the start of the exam.
2. Write your Name, School Code, Class, Section, Roll No. and Mobile Number clearly on the OMR Sheet and do not forget to sign it. We
will share your marks / result and other information related to SOF exams on your mobile number.
3. The Question Paper comprises three sections :
Section - 1 : Physics & Chemistry (25 Questions)
Section - 2 : Achievers Section (5 Questions)
Section - 3 : Mathematics (20 Questions) or Biology (20 Questions)
4. Section-1 and 2 are compulsory for all. In Section-3 opt for Mathematics OR Biology and mark the same on the OMR Sheet.
Each question in Achievers Section carries 3 marks, whereas all other questions carry one mark each.
5. All questions are compulsory. There is no negative marking. Use of calculator is not permitted.
6. There is only ONE correct answer. Choose only ONE option for an answer.
7. To mark your choice of answers by darkening the circles on the OMR Sheet, use HB Pencil or Blue / Black ball point pen only. E.g.
Q.16: In the water cycle, condensation is the process of
A. Water vapour cooling down and turning into a liquid B. Ice warming up and turning into a liquid
C. Liquid cooling down and turning into ice D. Liquid warming up and turning into water vapour
As the correct answer is option A, you must darken the circle corresponding to option A on the OMR Sheet.
8. Rough work should be done in the blank space provided in the booklet.
9. Return the OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the exam.
10. Please fill in your personal details in the space provided before attempting the paper.
11. For classes 8, 9 & 10, “Innovation Challenge” is being conducted by Techfest IIT Bombay in association with SOF. For details,
please visit : www.sofworld.org/sof-techfest-iit-bombay-innovation-challenge2023

Name:.............................................................................................................................................................................

SOF Olympiad Roll No.:................................................................ Contact No.:............................................................

 SECTION-1
PHYSICS

1. An aircraft flying at an altitude of 1200 m, takes the A. (i) – p, (ii) – r, (iii) – s, (iv) – q
photograph of the stadium by a camera with a lens B. (i) – q, (ii) – s, (iii) – r, (iv) – p
of focal length 0.5 m. The size of the film in the C. (i) – s, (ii) – p, (iii) – q, (iv) – r
camera is 6 cm × 6 cm. What area of the stadium D. (i) – s, (ii) – q, (iii) – p, (iv) – s
can be photographed by this camera at any time?
4. A smooth ring can slide on a fixed horizontal rod.
A. 240 m × 240 m An inextensible string tied to the ring passes over a
B. 300 m × 300 m fixed pulley and carries a block moving with velocity
C. 144 m × 144 m 8 m/s at an instant as shown in the given figure. The
D. 480 m × 480 m speed of ring at this instant is
2. In the given circuit, four resistances are connected to
a battery of emf 20 V and 1.5 W internal resistance. 37°
3W W 2W

(20 V, 1.5 W)
Y Z

2W 3W 8 m/s
X A. 10 m/s
Which one of the following statements is correct? B. 20 m/s
A. The points V W and VX are at same potential. C. 8 m/s
D. 16 m/s
B. The current through the battery is 4 A.
C. V W is 2.5 V higher than VX . 5. Read the given statements and select the correct
D. VX is 2.5 V higher than V W . option.
Statement 1 : If a particle is moving with constant
3. A beam consisting of four different types of ions named velocity, then average velocity for any time interval is
E, F, G and H enters a region as shown in the given equal to the instantaneous velocity.
figure. Assume magnetic field exists in the region, Statement 2 : If average velocity of a particle moving
which is perpendicular to the velocity of beam. All on a straight line is zero for a time interval, then
ions in the beam travels with the same speed. Masses instantaneous velocity at some instant within this interval
and charges of the ions are given in the table. may be zero.
1 A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
2
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
4 B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
3
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
a/2 a/2 C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Ion Mass Charge
E 3m e 6. Which of the following statements are correct?
F 4m e– (i) The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum
G 3m e– when angle of incidence is half to that of the angle
H m e of emergence.
(ii) The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum
Match column I with column II and select the correct
when refracted ray inside the prism becomes
option from the given codes. parallel to its base.
Column I (Ion) Column II (Path) (iii) A ray of light is incident at 60° angle on one face
(i) E p. 1 of an equilateral prism of µ = 3 becomes parallel
(ii) F q. 2 to the base of prism inside it.
(iv) For a ray of light falling at an angle of 50° on an
(iii) G r. 3
equilateral prism, the angle of minimum deviation
(iv) H s. 4 will be equal to 40°.

2 | NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1

 A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only Lπ
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only A.
6
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Lπ
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) B.
3
7. The amount of work done (in joule) by a force Lπ
 C.
F = (2xyz iˆ + x2z ĵ + x2y k̂) N on a particle moving 2
from the origin to point R (2 m, 1 m, 2 m) along the Lπ
D.
path as shown in the figure is 4
y
Q (2, 1, 0) 10. A sonometer wire fixed at one end has a solid mass
M hanging from its other end to produce tension in
O P
x
it. It is found that 70 cm length of the wire produces
(2, 0, 0) a certain fundamental frequency when plucked. When
z the same mass M is hanging in water completely
R (2, 1, 2)
submerged in it, it is found that the length of the
A. 8J wire has to be changed by 5 cm in order that it will
B. 16 J produce the same fundamental frequency. The density
C. 24 J of material of mass M is
D. 28 J A. 7.26 × 102 kg/m3
B. 7.26 × 102 g/cm3
8. The distance between the centres of two stars is 10 d
as shown in the given figure. The masses of these C. 7.26 g/cm3
stars are m and 16 m and their radii are d and 2 d D. 7.26 × 103 kg/cm3
respectively. A particle of mass m 0 is projected straight
11. The coefficient of expansion of a liquid, when heated
from the surface of the larger star towards the smaller
in a copper vessel is Z and when heated in a silver
star. What should be its minimum initial speed (v min)
vessel it is S. If X is the linear coefficient of expansion
to reach the surface of the smaller star?
of copper, then the linear coefficient of expansion of
silver is
S 2d
d Z − S + 3X
A.
m
3
10 d
16 m Z + S − 3X
B.
3
3 Gm
A. vmin = Z + S + 3X
2 d C.
3
3 5 Gm S + 3X − Z
B. vmin = D.
2 d 3

C. vmin =
5 3 Gm 12. In the given figure, XY is a man of height 4 m and M
3 d is a mirror of length 1 m and mass 0.1 kg. Initially top
of the mirror M and X are at the same level. Then, the
3 2 Gm
D. vmin = mirror starts falling freely always remaining vertical.
5 d If the level of the eyes of the man is 4 cm below his
head X, the time after the man sees the reflection of
9. A thin uniform rod of length L is initially at rest with
his feet is
respect to frame of reference of observation. The rod
is tapped at one end perpendicular to its length. How M
4 cm X
far does the centre of mass translates while the rod
1m 4m
completes one revolution about it?
Y
A. 0.318 s
B. 0.447 s
C. 0.667 s
D. 0.898 s

NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1 | 3

13. A metallic sphere of radius 2 × 10–3 m and density (iii) The distance covered by sphere before entering
2 × 104 kg/m3 enters a container of water, after a free container of water is approximately 1400 m.
fall through a distance of h in the Earth's gravitational (iv) The distance covered by sphere before entering
field. If its velocity remains unchanged after entering container of water is 238 m.
water, then select the correct statements. A. (i) and (iv) only
(Take viscosity of water = 1.0 × 10–3 N s/m2) B. (ii) and (iii) only
(i) The velocity of the sphere is 167 m s–1. C. (ii) and (iv) only
(ii) The velocity of the sphere is 69 m s–1. D. (i) and (iii) only

CHEMISTRY

14. A source of monochromatic radiation of wavelength II. 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)
300 nm provides 1000 J of energy in 20 seconds.
When this radiation falls on the surface of sodium, III.
hυ
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
x × 1019 electrons are ejected per second. (Assume
IV. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
that wavelength 300 nm is sufficient for ejection
of electron from the surface of sodium metal.) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
The value of x is _______. A. Combination Neutralisation Displacement Redox
reaction reaction reaction reaction
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s) B. Displacement Redox Decom- Combina-
A. 8.95 reaction reaction position tion
B. 7.55 reaction reaction
C. 6.85 C. Double dis- Combination Neutralisation Decom-
D. 4.55 placement reaction reaction position
reaction reaction
15. Which of the following statements are incorrect? D. Displacement Neutralisation Decom- Combi-
reaction reaction position nation
I. Magnesium reacts with steam to form magnesium
reaction reaction
oxide and hydrogen gas.
II. Iron can displace aluminium from its salt solution. 18. Match column I with column II and select the correct
III. Sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating option from the given codes.
strongly in the presence of excess air and this Column I Column II
process is called calcination.
(p) 50 g of CaCO3 (i) 3 moles
IV. Thermite reaction is highly exothermic and is used
(q) 1.8 × 1024 Ne atoms (ii) 0.7 NA molecules
to join railway tracks or cracked machine parts.
(r) One mole of O2 (iii) 2.5 NA atoms
A. I and IV only
molecule
B. I and II only
(s) 32 g of NO2 (iv) 16 NA electrons
C. II, III and IV only
D. II and III only A. (p) - (i); (q) - (ii); (r) - (iv); (s) - (iii)
B. (p) - (ii); (q) - (iii); (r) - (i); (s) - (iv)
16. In which of the following reaction(s), the value of C. (p) - (iii); (q) - (i); (r) - (iv); (s) - (ii)
Kp will not be equal to Kc? D. (p) - (i); (q) - (iii); (r) - (iv); (s) - (ii)

I. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) 19. Three hydrocarbons X, Y and Z are given below :
II. PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) X : n-Pentane
Y : Pent-2-yne
III. H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) Z : Pent-2-ene
IV. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) Select the correct statements about these three
hydrocarbons.
A. I and III only
B. I only I. X and Y both differ by a CH2 unit.
C. III and IV only II. X and Z have the same boiling point.
D. II and IV only III. X, Y and Z have different general formulae.
IV. Y and Z have different molecular masses.
17. Select the correct set of classification for each of the A. I and II only
following reactions from the given options. B. II and III only
I. Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s) C. I and IV only
D. III and IV only

4 | NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1

20. In which of the following pairs, the second member 23. Read the following passage carefully and fill in the
is more stable than first? blanks by selecting the correct option.
Metals such as (i) and (ii) do not react either
A. with cold or hot water. Metals like (iii) and
(iv) are extracted from their ores via electrolysis
+ + of their molten or fused chlorides or oxides.
B. (v) metal is found in free state.
Cl
Cl (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
CH3
• •
A. Al Mg Cu Pb Ag
C. CH CH3 ; CH3 C CH2 B. Al Fe K Na Ag
H3C CH2
CH3 C. Fe Pb Zn K Cu
+ D. K Na Fe Cu Au
CH2
+ 24. Balance the given chemical reaction (in acidic
D. ; medium) and select the correct statement(s) among
the following.
OCH3 CH2OCH3 xCu3P + yCr2O72– → Cu2+ + H3PO4 + Cr3+
I. Cu in Cu3P is oxidised to Cu2+ and P in Cu3P is
21. The pH values of different solutions are listed below :
also oxidised to PO3–4
.
Solution pH II. Cu in Cu3P is oxidised to Cu2+ whereas P in Cu3P
P 11.6 – 12.8 is reduced to H3PO4.
Q 2.5 – 4.5 III. 11 electrons are involved in the conversion of Cu3P
R 5.6 – 6.3
to Cu2+ and H3PO4.
S 9.2 – 10.5
IV. The value of x is 6 in the balanced chemical
Select the correct increasing order of H+ ion concentration equation.
for the given solutions. A. I and IV only
A. S < P < Q < R B. I, III and IV only
B. Q < P < R < S C. II only
C. P < S < R < Q D. II and III only
D. Q < R < S < P
25. Match column I with column II and select the correct
22. Among the following, which one(s) is/are correctly option from the given codes.
arranged? Column I Column II
I. Mg2+ > Na+ > Al3+ < F – – Ionic size (p) SnCl4 (i) sp2
(q) ICl4
–
II. F > N > O > C – First ionisation enthalpy (ii) sp3d
III. I > Br > Cl > F – Electron gain enthalpy (r) CH3 +
(iii) sp3
IV. N > C > B > Si – Non-metallic character (s) SF4 (iv) sp3d2
A. I and III only A. (p) - (iv); (q) - (ii); (r) - (iii); (s) - (i)
B. III only B. (p) - (iii); (q) - (iv); (r) - (i); (s) - (ii)
C. II and IV only C. (p) - (ii); (q) - (i); (r) - (iii); (s) - (iv)
D. I, II, III and IV D. (p) - (iii); (q) - (iv); (r) - (ii); (s) - (i)

SECTION-2
ACHIEVERS SECTION

26. A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal w(t) w(t)

plane about a vertical axis passing through its centre.
A. w0 B. w0
A turtle is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now
the platform is given an angular velocity w0. When t t
the turtle moves along the chord of the platform w(t) w(t)
with constant velocity (with respect to platform), the
C. w0 D.
angular velocity of the platform w(t) will vary with w0
time t as t t

NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1 | 5

27. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option from the given codes.

Pressure (× 105 Nm–2)

Column I Column II
(i) An insulated container p. The temperature
has two chambers of the gas
separated by a valve. decreases
Chamber I contains an
ideal gas and the chamber
II has vacuum. The valve
is opened.
Calculate the work done in each stage.
I II
Ideal gas Vacuum WAB WBC WCD WDA
A. –7200 J 0 2400 J 0
(ii) An ideal monoatomic q. The temperature B. +7200 J 0 – 2400 J 0
gas expands to twice its of the gas C. 0 –7200 J 0 2400 J
original volume such that increases D. 0 +7200 J 0 –2400 J
1
its pressure P ∝ 2 , where Direction (Q. No. 29 and 30) : Read the given passage
V
V is the volume of gas. carefully and answer the following questions.
(iii) An ideal monoatomic gas r. The gas loses 0.37 g of an alcohol (P) when treated with CH3MgI liberates
expands to twice of its heat 112 mL of CH4 at STP. Alcohol (P) on dehydration gives
original volume such that alkene (Q) which on ozonolysis gives acetone as one of
its pressure, P ∝ 1 , the product along with (R). (P) when treated with benzene
V 4/3 in acidic media gives (S) which does not give benzoic acid
where V is the volume on oxidation. (P) on oxidation gives an acid (T) having
of gas. same number of C-atoms.
(iv) An ideal monoatomic s. The gas gains
gas expands such that its heat 29. Structure of (P) is
pressure P and V follows A. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
the behaviour as shown
CH3
in the graph.
P B. CH3 – CH – CH2OH
C. CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
OH
V CH3
V1 2 V1

t. The temperature D. CH3 – C – CH3

of the gas OH
remains constant
30. Structure of (S) is
A. (i) – t, (ii) – p, r, (iii) – p, s, (iv) – q, s (CH2)3–CH3 CH(CH3)2
B. (i) – r, q, (ii) – q, r, (iii) – q, r, (iv) – p, t, s A. B.
C. (i) – p, r, (ii) – q, t, (iii) – q, s, (iv) – p, r
D. (i) – p, q, (ii) – q, s, (iii) – r, s, t, (iv) – s CH3
C(CH3)3 CH–C2H5
28. Different stages of a thermodynamic process are shown C. D.
in the given P-V diagram.

SECTION-3
MATHEMATICS

z1 + z2 + 1 3 3 2 3
31. If z1 = 2 – i and z2 = 1 + i, then the value of A. B.
z1 − z2 + i
C. 3 2 D. 2 2
is

6 | NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1

32. The locus of a point which moves in such a way that C. 9, 1
its distance from (0, 0) is three times its distance from D. 9, –1
the X-axis, is given by
39. Read the given statements carefully and select the
A. x2 – 8y2 = 0
correct option.
B. x2 + 8y2 = 0
C. 4x2 – y2 = 0 Statement-I : If A, B, C are three events such that
D. x2 – 4y2 = 0 1 1 2
P ( A) = , P ( B ) = and P(C ) = , then events A, B,
4 6 3
33. In a DABC, D and E are the points on the sides AB C are mutually exclusive.
and AC respectively such that BD = CE. If ∠B = ∠C,
Statement-II : If P (A ∪ B ∪ C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C)
then which of the following is correct?
then A, B, C are mutually exclusive events.
A. DE || BC
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
AD DE
B. = B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
AB BC C. Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
C. DADE ∼ DABC D. Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
D. All of these
x−7
40. If > 2, then x ∈
34. The domain of definition of the function x+3
 3x − x 2  A. (– 3, ∞)
f(x) = log10   is B. (– ∞, –13)
 2 
C. (– 13, –3)
A. (1, 2) D. (– 13, 3)
B. (0, 1) ∪ [2, ∞)
C. [1, 2] 41. Match the following and select the correct option.
D. (0, 3) Column-I Column-II
35. A sports team of 11 students is to be constituted, cot 2 θ
(p) 1 + = (i) 2 tan q
choosing at least 5 from class XI and at least 5 from 1 + cosec θ
Class XII. If there are 20 students in each of these cos θ cos θ  2 2 2
classes, then in how many ways can the team be (q) + = (ii)  sin θ − cos θ 
cosec θ + 1 cosec θ − 1  cos θ sin θ 
constituted?
A. 20 × 20
C5 (r) tan2 q + cot2 q – 2 = (iii) (cosec q – cot q)2
B. 20
C5 × 20C6 1 − cos θ
(s) = (iv) sec q cot q
C. 2 × 20P5 × 20P6 1 + cos θ
D. 2 × 20C5 × 20C6 (p) (q) (r) (s)
A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
36. Solve the following pair of equations for x and y. B. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
a 2 b2 a 2b b 2 a C. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
− =0 ; + = a + b ; x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0 D. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
x y x y
A. x = a2, y = b2 a + bx, x < 1

x = 1 and if lim f ( x) = f (1),
B. x = a, y = b
42. Let f ( x) = 4,
C. x = a2, y = b b − ax, x > 1
x →1
D. x = a, y = b2 
then what are the possible values of a and b?
37. For the function f, given by f(x) = 2x3 – 9x2 + 12x + 9, A. a = 0, b = 4
then f ′(1) = B. a = – 4, b = 0
A. 1 C. a = 1, b = –2
B. –1 D. a = 0, b = 5
C. 0
43. The equation of the ellipse whose centre is at the
D. None of these
origin, x-axis is its major axis and which passes
38. If 8 and 2 are the roots of x2 + ax + b = 0, 3 and –3 through the points (– 6, 1) and (4, – 4) is
are the roots of x2 + ax – b = 0, then the roots of A. 3x2 + 4y2 = 32
x2 + ax + b = 0 are B. 3x2 + 4y2 = 112
A. –9, 1 C. 4x2 + 3y2 = 28
B. –9, –1 D. 4x2 + 3y2 = 112

NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1 | 7

44. A tomb is constructed whose lower part is cylindrical A. 1 : 2 : 3
and upper part is hemispherical. The radius of both B. 1 : 2 : 4
the parts is 5.6 metre and the height of the cylindrical C. 1 : 3 : 4
part is 6.3 metre. Find the inner curved surface area D. 2 : 3 : 4
 22 
of the tomb.  Use π =  48. If the line segment joining the points (3, – 4) and (1, 2)
 7 
A. 416.88 m2 5 
B. 412.70 m2 is trisected at points P(a, –2) and Q  , b , then
3 
C. 418.88 m2 8 2
D. 512.68 m2 A. a= ,b =
3 3
45. Find the mean deviation about the median for the 7
B. a= ,b=0
following data. 3
6 12 15 21 22 7
xi 3 9 13 C. a= ,b=1
fi 3 4 5 2 4 5 4 3 3
8 1
A. 4.97 D. a = ,b =
B. 5.9 3 3
C. 2.99 49. Let ξ be the set of all digits in our number system,
D. 3.97 A = {x : x is an odd number}, B = {x : x is an even
number} and C = {x : x ≤ 5}, then A ∩ (B ∪ C) =
46. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from
two points situated at distance 36 m and 64 m from A. {0, 1, 2}
its base and in the same straight line with it are B. {1, 3, 5}
complementary. What is the height of the tower? C. {1, 3}
D. {5, 7}
A. 50 m
B. 48 m π π tan 2 (π / 3) cosec (π / 6)
C. 25 m 50. If x sin cos 2 = , then x =
4 3 sec( π / 4)cot 2 (π / 6)
D. 24 m
A. 2
47. If a, b, c are unequal numbers such that a, b, c are B. 4
in A.P. and b – a, c – b, a are in G.P., then a : b : c C. 8
is D. 16

OR
BIOLOGY

31. Read the given statements and select the correct A. (ii) only
option. B. (i) and (ii) only
Statement 1 : Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly C. (i) and (iii) only
bound to enzyme protein is called holoenzyme. D. (iii) only
Statement 2 : A complete catalytic active enzyme with
its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme. 33. Refer to the given flow chart.
A. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
It is a plant which is differentiated No
B. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true. P
into true roots, stem and leaves.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false. Yes
No
It is a seed bearing sporophytic plant. Q
32. A chemical X is used in the study of mitosis. It causes
all mitotic cells to be arrested at metaphase. Yes
Which of the following statements correctly depict(s) No
The seed is enclosed in a fruit. R
the working of chemical X ? Yes
(i) It inhibits chromatin condensation in the nucleus.
(ii) It prevents replication of the centrioles. S
(iii) It inhibits migration of sister chromatids to opposite
Select the correct statement regarding P, Q, R and S.
poles.

8 | NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1

 A. P could be Adiantum that bears sporangia. 37. In an experiment, the stroma region of chloroplast is
B. Q could be Characium in which the reserve food destroyed using localised radiations. What could be
material is glycogen and oil globules. the most appropriate outcome of this?
C. R could be Nereocystis from which alginic acid is A. NADPH will not be formed.
obtained. B. Carbon dioxide will not be reduced to carbohydrate.
D. S could be wheat having scattered closed vascular C. Oxygen will not be evolved.
bundles in the stem. D. Photolysis of water will not take place.
34. The given flow chart represents the hierarchy of various 38. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
taxonomic categories. Identify the missing categories (a,
b and c) and select the incorrect statements regarding A. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction
these. are called clones.
c
B. Microscopic, motile, asexual reproductive
structures are called zoospores.
Phylum/Division C. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise
from the internodes present in the modified stem.
Class D. Water hyacinth, growing in standing water, drains
oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes.
b
39. Read the given characteristic differences between two
flowers P and Q.
Family
S.No. Flower P Flower Q
Genus (i) The flower is large. The flower is small.
(ii) The flower produces The flower does not
a nectar. produce nectar.
(i) ‘b’ is the taxonomic category which contains a (iii) Odour is present. Odour is absent.
number of related families.
(iv) Pollen grains are few- Pollen grains are pro-
(ii) Examples of category ‘b’ are Monocotyledonae,
er in number. duced in large quanti-
Dicotyledonae, Mammalia, etc.
ties.
(iii) ‘c’represents the basic unit of taxonomic hierarchy.
(iv) Category a is able to interbreed freely and produce Based on the given information, select the correct
fertile offspring. mode of pollination in flowers P and Q.
A. (ii) and (iii) only P Q
B. (ii) and (iv) only A. Insect Wind
C. (i) and (iv) only B. Water Insect
D. (iii) and (iv) only C. Wind Water
D. Wind Insect
35. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is 40. A yellow flowered, green-stemmed plant having
not correct? genotype YYrr was crossed with a white flowered,
A. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to red-stemmed plant having genotype yyRR. The F1
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate. plants were allowed to self-fertilise. If a total of 500
B. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with plants were produced, then how many estimated plants
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have would have white flowers and green stem?
much lower temperature optimum.
A. 94
C. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown
in CO2-enriched atmosphere for higher yield. B. 32
D. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% C. 280
of full sunlight. D. Zero

36. The respiratory quotient for tripalmitin (C51H 98O 6) 41. Which among the following is an effect of ozone
and malic acid (C4H6O5) is respectively depletion?
A. 0.7 and 1.3 A. Damage to immune system
B. 1.3 and 1.14 B. Skin cancer and skin ageing
C. 0.7 and 4.0 C. Decline in photosynthesis
D. 1 and 1.14. D. All of these

NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1 | 9

42. Refer to the given table regarding differences between C. II and IV only
bacteria and cyanobacteria. Identify the incorrect pair. D. III and IV only
Bacteria Cyanobacteria 46. Identify different stages of cardiac cycle (X-Z) in the
I. The cell wall is four The cell wall is one- given pie chart and select the incorrect statement
layered. two layered. regarding them.
II. Plasmodesmata and Plasmodesmata
pores do not occur in and pores are often X
cell wall. present. 0.1 sec
III. They are both They are generally
autotrophic and autotrophic. Z
heterotrophic. 0.4 sec
Y
IV. Photosynthesis is Photosynthesis is 0.3 sec
oxygenic. anoxygenic.
V. Flagella may be Flagella are absent.
present.
A. During X, bicuspid and tricuspid valves open and
A. I and V only blood is forced into the ventricles.
B. II and III only B. During Y, ventricles begin to contract due to wave
C. I and IV only of contraction stimulated by SA node.
D. III and V only C. During Z, pressure in the ventricles is less than
that in atria and veins.
43. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct
D. Y produces first heart sound and Z produces second
statement regarding X-Z.
heart sound.

47. In the following options, the hormones, their site of

Coelomate X Segmentation secretion and related functions are given. Select the
Y present incorrect match.
Z
Hormone Site of Function
A. X could be Hirudinaria that shows presence of a secretion
complete digestive system. A. Atrial Atrial wall Dilation of blood
B. Y could be Ophiothrix that shows the presence of Natriuretic vessels
water vascular system. factor (ANF)
C. Z could be Taenia solium that shows absence of B. Erythro- Juxtaglomerular Promotes RBC
mouth and anus. poietin cells of kidney formation
D. All of these C. CCK Endocrine Secretion of
cells of gastro- bile juice
44. Which among the following is not a function of intestinal tract
peroxisome? D. Secretin b-cells of islet Glycogenolysis
A. It takes part in intracellular and extracellular of Langerhans
digestion. 48. Read the given statements and select the option that
B. It breaks down xenobiotics that cannot be correctly fills any two of the given blanks.
metabolised by normal enzymes.
(i) Nasal passages are lined by _______ .
C. It breaks down both long chain and branched chain
(ii) On entering lungs, right bronchus divides into
fatty acids.
a bronchi and left bronchus divides into
D. In root nodules, it converts fixed nitrogen into b bronchi.
ureides for transport. (iii) Lungs are enclosed in a double-layered membrane
45. During micturition, stimulation of parasympathetic called ______ .
(iv) Average breathing rate of an adult is ______
nerve causes
times/minute.
I. Contraction of detrusor muscle. A. (i)-Squamous (ii)-(a)-Two, (b)-Three
II. Constriction of internal sphincter. epithelium
III. Relaxation of internal sphincter leading to emptying B. (iii)-Tonoplast (iv)-72
of bladder. C. (ii)-(a)-Three (iii)-Pleura
IV. Relaxation of detrusor muscle. (b)-Two
A. I and II only D. (i)-Columnar (iv)-50–55
B. I and III only epithelium

10 | NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1

49. Refer to the given flow chart. Select the correct option regarding W-Z.
Organism reproduces No W X Y Z
by asexual method.
W A. Frog Euglena Salpa Spirogyra
B. Salmon Spirogyra Paramecium Plasmodium
Yes
C. Scypha Plasmodium Rhizopus Spirogyra
Body of organism divides into two Yes D. Rhizopus Monocystis Hydra Leishmania
X
equal sized daughter cells.
50. If a homozygous tall plant is crossed with homozygous
No
dwarf plant, then in F1 generation percentage of dwarf
New individual is produced from an Yes plant would be
out growth of parent individual Y
A. 50%
No B. 25%
C. 0%
Z
D. 75%.

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NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1 | 11

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| NSO | Class-11 | Set-C | Level 1
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