BASIC LABORATORY MCQ

The Laboratory Testing Cycle consists of :

A. Pre-analytic and post-analytic phase
B. Analytic and post-analytic phase
C. Pre-analytic and post-analytic phase
D. Pre-analytic, analytic and post-analytic phase
D. Pre-analytic, analytic and post-analytic phase
Analytical errors are of 2 types :
A. Random and systematic
B. Random and common
C. Systematic and common
A. Random and systematic
Causes of pre-analytical errors are :
A. Patient ID error
B. Specimen collection tube not filled properly
C. Result reported on the wrong patient
D. Incorrect interpretation
E. A and B
F. C and D
E. A and B *
Post-analytical errors include :
A. Test request error
B. Empty collection tube
C. Result reported on the wrong patient
D. Using the wrong value and/or the wrong units
E. A and B
F. C and D
F. C and D
Which are the most frequent errors in laboratory testing?:
A. Pre-analytical errors
B. Analytical errors
C. Post- analytical errors
A. Pre-analytical errors
Reasons for ordering a laboratory test:
A. Diagnosis
B. Monitoring
C. Screening
D. Research
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Serum and plasma differ by:
A. Content of carbohydrates
B. Content of lipids
C. Content of elecrolytes
D. Content of proteins
D. Content of proteins
. Vacuum collection tube with additive/anticoagulant EDTA is used for:
A. Coagulation studies
B. Hematology studies
C. Serology tests
B. Hematology studies
Vacuum collection tube with additive/anticoagulant Sodium Citrate is used for:
A. Coagulation studies
B. Hematology studies
C. Serology tests
A. Coagulation studies
Which of the following specimen types causes prolonged delay in pre-analytical specimen
processing? :
A. Whole blood
B. Citrate plasma
C. Serum with silica activator
D. EDTA plasma
C. Serum with silica activator
Vacuum collection tube with serum separated material (silicone/gel) is used for:
A. Clinical chemistry studies
B. Hematology studies
C. Coagulation studies
A. Clinical chemistry studies
Quality Control in Clinical laboratory is:
A. Internal quality control
B. External quality control
C. Internal and External quality control
C. Internal and External quality control
Factors affecting reference ranges are:
A. Age, sex
B. Physical activity, diet
C. Pregnancy
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The laboratory result is:
A. Precise and accurate
C. Imprecise and accurate
B. Precise and inaccurate
D. Only precise
A. Precise and accurate
When there is systematic error the laboratory result is:
A. Precise and inaccurate
B. Precise and accurate
C. Imprecise and inaccurate
A. Precise and inaccurate
When there is random error the laboratory result is:
A. Precise and inaccurate
B. Precise and accurate
C. Imprecise and inaccurate
C. Imprecise and inaccurate
What is the CV or Coefficient of Variation?:
A. SD/Mean x 100
B. Mean/SD
C. SD/Mean
A. SD/Mean x 100
Which is not true?:
A. During blood collection needle cannot be in vein more than 1 minute
B. Release the tourniquet as the last tube is filling
C. Release the tourniquet before ending draw
C. Release the tourniquet before ending draw
. Microsampling on a newborn infant is usually taken from:
A. Heel
B. Toe
C. Finger
D. Ear
A. Heel
Venipuncture is usually performed on the:
A. Median cubital
B. Cephalic
C. Jugular
D. Median antibrachial
A. Median cubital *
The buffy coat is composed of:
A. Fat and white cells B. White cells and red cells
C. White cells and plasma D. White cells and platelets
D. White cells and platelets *
EDTA inhibits blood from clotting by:
A. Binding chloride B. Binding calcium
C. Binding plasma D. Binding red blood cells
B. Binding calcium *
A blood sample that has moderate anisocytosis with moderate macrocytes is expected to
have?:
a) MCHC greater than 37%
b) MCV greater than 100 fl
c) MCH greater than 32 pg
d) Normal red cell indices
b) MCV greater than 100 fl*
One of the following leads to pernicious anemia:
a) Gastric resection
b) Diet rich in meat
c) Infection
d) Pregnancy
a) Gastric resection
. Which cells are present in a normal blood specimen?:
a) RBC, PLT, neutrophils, blasts and monocytes
b) RBC, PLT, WBC
c) RBC, PLT, megakaryocytes, promyelocytes, reactive lymphocytes
d) RBC, NRBC, blasts, monoytes and WBC
b) RBC, PLT, WBC
Which morphological classification best describes the hemolytic anemia:
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
b) Normocytic, hypochromic
c) Normocytic, normochromic
d) Macrocytic, normochromic
c) Normocytic, normochromic
. Which morphological classification best describes the Iron deficiency anemia:
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
b) Normocytic, hypochromic
c) Normocytic, normochromic
d) Macrocytic, normochromic
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
. Which morphological classification best describes the Thalassemia:
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
b) Normocytic, hypochromic
c) Normocytic, normochromic
d) Macrocytic, normochromic
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
Which morphological classification best describes the Pernicious anaemia?:
a) Microcytic, hypochromic
b) Normocytic, hypochromic
c) Normocytic, normochromic
d) Macrocytic
d) Macrocytic
Which of the following RBC indices reflects the amount of hemoglobin per individual red
cell?:
a) RDW
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) MCH
d) MCH
Which of the following RBC indices defines the size of the RBCs?:
a) RDW
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) MCH
b) MCV
Which of the following RBC indices represents the coefficient of variation of the red blood
cell volume?:
a) RDW
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) MCHC
a) RDW
Which constellation is true for the Iron deficiency anemia?:
a) Fe, Ferritin and TIBC are decreased
b) Fe and Ferritin are increased and TIBC is decreased
c) Fe, TIBC, Ferritin are increased
d) Fe and Ferritin are decreased and TIBC is increased
d) Fe and Ferritin are decreased and TIBC is increased
Patients with Iron deficiency anemia have:
a) Low levels of Hepsidin
b) Normal levels of Hepsidin
c) High levels of Hepsidin
d) None of these
a) Low levels of Hepsidin
Soluble Transferrin Receptor (sTfR) elevates in response to Iron deficiency and decreases
in response to iron repletion:
a) True
b) False
a) True
The normal hemoglobin concentration in adult men is between:
a) 120 - 140 g/l
b) 140 - 180 g/l
c) 100 - 150 g/l
d) 140 - 220 g/l
b) 140 - 180 g/l
The normal hemoglobin concentration in adult women is between:
a) 120 - 140 g/l
b) 140 - 180 g/l
c) 100 - 150 g/l
d) 120 - 160 g/l
d) 120 - 160 g/l
There is a risk of spontaneous bleeding when the platelets are:
a) Thr < 100x109/l
b) Thr > 450x109/l
c) Thr < 30x109/l
c) Thr < 30x109/l *
The clinical sign of thrombocytopenia is:
a) Bleeding
b) Headache
c) Dizziness
d) Fever
a) Bleeding
During the surgical interventions there is a risk of bleeding when the platelets are:
a) Thr < 50 x109/l
b) Thr < 140x109/l
c) Thr < 100x109/l
d) Thr < 400x109/l
a) Thr < 50 x109/l
The cell that functions as a plug at the site of bleeding is:
a) Eosinophil
b) Red cell
c) Neutrophil
d) Platelet
d) Platelet
Red blood cells which are larger than 8.1 microns are:
a) Normocytes
b) Macrocytes
c) Microcytes
d) Spherocytes
b) Macrocytes
Biconcave disc morphology of erythrocyte is NOT characteristic for?:
a) Normocyte
b) Microcyte
c) Hypochromic red cell
d) Spherocyte
d) Spherocyte*
The life-span of red blood cells in blood is:
a) 40-80 days
b) 10-20 days
c) 20-40 days
d) 100-120 days
d) 100-120 days
A clot in blood samples leads to:
a) Decreased cell count
b) Normal cell counts
c) Increased cell count
a) Decreased cell count
Increased reticulocyte counts are noted in:
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) None of these
b) Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia and folic acid deficiencies are:
a) Microcytic anemias
b) Megaloblastic anemias
c) Normochromic, normocytic anemias
d) Aplastic anemias
b) Megaloblastic anemias
Hemolytic anemias are caused by:
a) Blood loss
a) Deficiency of vitamin B12
b) Deficient diet
c) Excessive destruction of blood cells
c) Excessive destruction of blood cells
Anemia that is hypochromic, microcytic, but is not Iron deficiency anemia is:
a) Thalassemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Hemolytic anemia
a) Thalassemia
Hemoglobin values are commonly expressed in:
a) Mg/dl
b) G/l
c) %
d) None of these
b) G/l
Dark blue staining of reticulum in the reticulocyte, with New methylene blue stain, is due
to:
a) Ribosomal RNA
b) Nucleus
c) DNA
d) Organelles
a) Ribosomal RNA
The term thrombocytopenia indicates a/an:
a) Abnormally high number of thrombocytes
b) Abnormally low number of thrombocytes
c) Normal number of platelets
d) Normal number of erythrocytes
b) Abnormally low number of thrombocytes
In allergic conditions, we commonly find an increase of:
A. Red cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophis
D. Eosinophis
The five types of leukocytes found in normal peripheral blood are:
A. Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and lymphoblast
B. Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, myeloblasts, and eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocutes, eosinophils and basophils
D. Myeloblasts, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and lymphoblast
C. Lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocutes, eosinophils and basophils
An increased of total leukocytes over the normal is called:
A. Leukemia
B. Leukopenia
C. Leukocytosis
D. Pancytopenia
C. Leukocytosis
The cell that functions in the defensive mechanism of the body during infection is:
A. Neutrophil
B. Reticulocyte
C. Platelet
D.Eosinophil
A. Neutrophil
The smallest % of normal cells in a differential count is:
A. Metamyelocytes
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
B. Basophils
Compared with adults, a one-year-old child should show a relatively increased proportion
of the following in the peripheral blood
A. Eosinophils
B. Monocytes
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophil
E. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes
Which of the following becomes a tissue macrophage after a brief stay in the blood?
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Plasma cells
A. Monocyte
The first cell affected by an increase in % in a "shift to the left" is:
A. Band neutrophil
B. Metamyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Promyelocyte
A. Band neutrophil
Most lymphocytes in the circulating blood are:
A. A & B cells
B. A & O cells
C. A & T cells
D. T & B cells
D. T & B cells
Hypersegmented neutrophils are often noted in the following condition:
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Acute myelogenuos leukemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Pelger-Huët anomaly
A. Pernicious anemia
The biggest % of cells in normal differential count in adults is:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
In the case of Pelger Huët's anomaly, neutrophils are:
А. Нyposegmented
B. Hypersegmented
C. Normosegmented
D. All of the above
А. Нyposegmented
The characteristic cell presents in Infectious mononucleosis is:
A. Monocyte
B. Plasma cell
C. Reactive lymphocyte
D. Neutrophil
C. Reactive lymphocyte
Absolute lymphocytosis is observed in:
A. Brucellosis
B. Bacterial infections
C. Viral infections
D. Parasitic desieses
C. Viral infections
Absolute neutrophilia is observed in:
A. Appendicitis
B. Parasitic infestations
C. Viral infections
D. Infectious mononucleosis
A. Appendicitis
The cell that synthesizes immunoglobins is a:
A. Mast cell
B. Basophil
C. Plasma cell
D. Red blood cell
C. Plasma cell
The term agranulocytosis means:
A. Thr < 50x109/l
B. WBC < 3,0x109/l
C. Neu < 0,5x109/l
D. RBC < 2,0x1012/l
C. Neu < 0,5x109/l
Darker granules found in the neutrophil are called:
A. Dohle
B. Vacuolated
C. Toxic
D. Basket
C. Toxic
The angle used for preparing blood smears on normal patient blood is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 45 degrees
D. 45 degrees
The white cell that contains digestive enzymes most effective at destroying bacteria is the:
A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocyte
A. Neutrophil
A white cell with non-specific granules is a:
A. Eosinophil
B. Metamyelocyte
C. Band neutrophil
D. Lymphocyte
D. Lymphocyte