Roll No.

Test Date: 09- 0 8-2020

for Olympiads & Class IX-2021

Time : 3 Hrs. TEST No. 1 MM: 160

(IX Studying Students)

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
 Test No. 1

Topics Covered in Various Subjects :

Physics : Motion
Chemistry : Matter in Our Surroundings
Biology : The Fundamental Unit of Life
Mathematics : Number Systems, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Linear Equations in Two Variables,
Introduction to Euclid's Geometry
Mental Ability : Number Series, Letter Series, Non-Verbal Series, Analogy (Verbal and Non-Verbal)
Mathematical Operations
Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

TEST - 1 (Code A)
SECTION-I (Maximum Marks : 100)
• This section contains 100 questions containing 20 questions of each of the five subjects that is Physics,
Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and MAT.

• Each question of Section-I is of 1 mark. Therefore +1 for correct answer and –0.25 for wrong answer.

Choose the correct answer :

1. The angle between instantaneous displacement 5. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track
and acceleration during the retarded motion is of radius 150 m taking 62.8 s on each lap. The
(1) 0° (2) 45° average speed and average velocity on each
(3) 90° (4) 180° complete lap is ( = 3.14)
2. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
displacement? (1) Zero, zero
(1) It can be represented geometrically (2) 4.7 m/s, 4.7 m/s
(2) It has both magnitude and direction (3) 4.7 m/s, 15 m/s
(3) It can be positive or negative (4) 15 m/s, zero
(4) Its magnitude is equal to the length of path
covered by the particle 6. A particle starts from rest and moves along a
straight line with constant acceleration. Which of
3. A car accelerates from rest to reach maximum
velocity 20 m/s at 5 m/s2 and then retards to rest the following graphs represent correct variation of
at 2 m/s2. What is the time for which the car is in velocity with time?
motion?
(1) 12 s (2) 10 s
(3) 14 s (4) 15 s
4. A train is targeted from Delhi to Mumbai at an (1) (2)
average speed of 80 km/h but due to repairs of
track loses 2 hrs in the first part of the journey. If
then accelerates at a rate of 20 km/h2 till the speed
reaches 100 km/h. Its speed now maintained till
the end of the journey. If the train now reaches
station in time. Find the distance from when it
started accelerating. (3) (4)
(1) 840 km (2) 960 km
(3) 1020 km (4) 980 km
(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-I_Test-1 (Code A)

7. Figure shows the position of a particle moving 12. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 are moving in
along on x-axis with respect to time. How many circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. They make
times particle came to at rest?
complete circle in the same time t. Then the ratio
of angular speed of the first to the second particle
is
(1) m1r1 : m2r2

(2) r1 : r2

(3) r2 : r1

(1) 2 (2) 3 (4) 1 : 1

(3) 4 (4) 5 13. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

8. Rate of change in displacement called (1) Mass (2) Distance

(1) Speed (2) Velocity (3) Speed (4) Velocity

(3) Distance (4) Acceleration 14. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with
constant speed V. The magnitude of change in
9. The distance travelled by a car is directly
velocity moving from P to Q is
proportional to the duration of time. Then the car
(1) Is moving with some speed and then
accelerates with uniform acceleration
(2) Is starting from rest and accelerates with
uniform acceleration
(3) Will move with uniform motion
(4) Will move with variable acceleration (1) Zero
10. The slope of velocity-time graph gives (2) 2V
(1) Speed (2) Distance (3) V
(3) Displacement (4) Acceleration (4) 2V
11. If a wheel of diameter 2 m makes 60 15. Two cars A and B are moving with same constant
revolutions/second, then the linear speed of a speed 5 m/s in opposite direction. The relative
point on its circumference will be velocity of car A w.r.t car B is
(1) 60  m/s (1) Zero
(2) 90  m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 120  m/s (3) 12 m/s
(4) 150  m/s (4) 5 m/s
(Space for Rough Work)

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Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

16. The velocity of a particle moving in straight line is 19. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial
given by the graph shown here. Then its velocity u and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of
acceleration time graph is best represented by the distances travelled in nth and (n + 1)th seconds
is 100 m, then its velocity after n seconds, in m/s is
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 40 m/s (4) 50 m/s
20. Which of the following equation is correct?
t s
(1) a = (2) = ut + at
v −u t

(1) (2) v 2 − u2 v 2 − u2
(3) s = (4) a =
a 2s
21. All of the following are examples of matter, except
(1) Air and cold-drink
(3) (4) (2) Almonds and chair
(3) Hair and armchair

17. In figure shown the acceleration versus time graph (4) Vacuum and flash of light
of a car. If it starts from rest, the distance travelled 22. The aquatic animals can breathe under water due
by car in time 0 to 4 s is to the
(1) Presence of flora and fauna
(2) High temperature under water
(3) High pressure in oceans
(4) Presence of dissolved oxygen in water
23. During melting, once the melting point of a solid is
reached
(1) The temperature of the system increases
(1) 4 m (2) 10 m drastically
(3) 12 m (4) 14 m
(2) The temperature of the system decreases
18. A particle is moving at a speed of 5 m/s along east.
drastically
After 10 s its velocity becomes 5 m/s along west.
What is the average acceleration during this (3) The temperature of the system does not
interval? change
(1) –1 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2 (4) The pressure of the system increases
2 2 drastically
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 2 m/s

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-I_Test-1 (Code A)

24. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ determine the state of a substance. ‘X’ 30. Latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy
and ‘Y’ are required to change
(1) 1 kg of solid into liquid at its melting point
(1) Energy and volume
(2) 1 kg of liquid into gas at atmospheric pressure
(2) Pressure and temperature at its boiling point
(3) Weight and volume (3) 1 kg of solid into liquid at its boiling point
(4) Mass and energy (4) 1 kg of gas into solid at its boiling point
25. Ammonium chloride 31. Read the given statements carefully
Statement-I : Dry ice is a sublimable substance.
(1) Is a liquid substance
Statement-II : Dry ice is stored under high
(2) Gets converted into liquid on heating pressure.
(3) Is a non-sublimable substance Now, choose the correct option.
(4) Is a sublimable substance (1) Only statement-I is correct
(2) Only statement-II is correct
26. Choose the incorrect match
(3) Both the statements are correct
(1) CNG - Compressed Natural Gas (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Humidity - Amount of water vapour present in air 32. Consider the following
(3) BEC - Bose Einstein Condensation (a) Very low melting point
(b) Very low energy of particles
(4) Fluidity - Gases and liquids
(c) Very small inter-particle spaces
27. In gaseous state the particles
(d) Negligible compressibility
(1) Have small inter-particle spaces (e) Very low density
(2) Move about randomly at high speed Which of the above characteristics is not true for
(3) Have the tendency to maintain their shape solid state?
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Have strong inter-molecular forces of
(3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a) and (e)
attraction
33. During liquefaction
28. The physical state of water at 311 K is
Inter particle Kinetic Inter
(1) Solid (2) Gas forces of energy particle
(3) Liquid (4) Both solid and liquid attraction spaces
29. Due to ‘X’ we see water droplets on the outer (1) Decreases Decreases Increases
surface of a glass containing ice-cold water.
(2) Increases Decreases Decreases
Process ‘X’ is
(3) Decreases Increases Increases
(1) Freezing (2) Condensation
(4) Increases Increases Decreases
(3) Fusion (4) Evaporation
(Space for Rough Work)

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Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

34. The correct arrangement of different states of 38. Read the given statements carefully.
matter in the increasing order of their energy is (a) The Sun and the stars glow because of the
(1) BEC < Solid < Gas < Liquid < Plasma presence of plasma in them.
(2) Plasma < Gas < Liquid < Solid < BEC (b) Plasma is formed by cooling a gas of
extremely low density.
(3) Solid < Liquid < Gas < BEC < Plasma
(c) The plasma always glows with a blue colour
(4) BEC < Solid < Liquid < Gas < Plasma irrespective of the nature of the gas.
35. Rate of evaporation decreases with The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) Increase in surface area, temperature and (1) (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
wind speed (3) (b) and (c) (4) Only (c)
(2) Decrease in temperature, wind speed and 39. The processes which lead to the increase in inter-
humidity particle forces of attraction are
(3) Decrease in wind speed, surface area and (1) Freezing and deposition
temperature (2) Fusion and solidification
(4) Increase in humidity, temperature and wind (3) Melting and freezing
speed (4) Evaporation and condensation
36. ‘X’ is phenomenon of change of a liquid into 40. Consider the following interconversion of the
vapours at any temperature below its boiling point states of matter
whereas ‘Y’ is phenomenon of change of a liquid
into vapours at the boiling point of the liquid.
Identify which of the following statements is not S2
true about ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
B C
(1) ‘X’ is a spontaneous process
(2) ‘Y’ is a bulk phenomenon
(3) ‘X’ takes place at surface of liquid only
S1 S3
(4) ‘Y’ is a spontaneous process A
37. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II If state S1 has the highest kinetic energy, S2 has
indefinite shape but definite volume and state S 3
a. Density (i) kg
has the strongest inter-particle forces of attraction
b. Weight (ii) Pa
then processes B, C and A respectively are
c. Pressure (iii) kg m–3 (1) Fusion, deposition and sublimation
d. Mass (iv) N (2) Sublimation, vaporisation and fusion
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) Condensation, solidification and deposition
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) Vaporisation, fusion and sublimation
(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-I_Test-1 (Code A)

41. Which of the following are multicellular organisms? 47. Match the following columns and select the correct
(i) Amoeba (ii) Aspergillus option.
(iii) Penicillium (iv) Paramecium Column-I Column-II
(v) Chlamydomonas a. Germ cells (i) Polygonal
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) only b. Chromatophores (ii) Elongated
(3) (iii) and (v) only (4) (ii), (iii) and (v) c. Nerve cells (iii) Cuboidal
42. The study of form, structure and composition of d. Liver cells (iv) Branched
cells is called (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Physiology (2) Ecology (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Anatomy (4) Cytology 48. Which of the following are the examples of
43. Endoplasmic reticulum in a cell was discovered by prokaryotes?
(1) Robert Hooke (1) Algae (2) Bacteria

(2) Edward Jenner (3) Fungi (4) Plants

(3) Porter 49. The folds of the inner membrane of mitochondria

are called
(4) Camillo Golgi
(1) Matrix (2) Cisternae
44. If an animal cell lacking nucleus then it would also
lack in (3) Cristae (4) Stroma

(1) Ribosome 50. The longest animal cell is

(2) Golgi apparatus (1) Ostrich egg (2) Bacterial cell

(3) Protoplasm (3) Mycoplasma (4) Nerve cell

(4) Chromosome 51. Plasma membrane is made up of

(1) Phospholipids and fats
45. How many of the following cell organelles are
membraneless? (2) Proteins and carbohydrates
(3) Phospholipids and proteins
Plastids, Golgi apparatus, Ribosomes,
Mitochondria, Centrosomes, Vacuoles (4) Cellulose and proteins
52. Phase contrast microscope
(1) Three
(a) Was discovered by Singer and Nicolson.
(2) Two
(b) Is used to study living or unstained cells.
(3) Four
Select the correct option.
(4) Five
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
46. All of the following are the parts of endoplasmic
reticulum, except (2) Only (a) is true
(1) Vesicles (2) Flagella (3) Only (b) is true
(3) Cisternae (4) Tubules (4) Both (a) and (b) are false

(Space for Rough Work)

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Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

53. Ribosomes are the sites of

57.
(1) Lipid synthesis
(2) Protein synthesis
(3) Energy production
(4) Absorption
54. Statement-I : The body of living organisms is
made up of microscopic units called cells.
Statement-II : The size of different cells can be
visible through naked eyes.
Consider the given statements and select the Select the correct function of the cell organelle
correct option. depicted above.
(1) Both the statements are correct (i) It is involved in the synthesis of proteins.
(ii) It is responsible for the formation of lysosomes.
(2) Only statement-I is correct
(iii) It helps in the storage and modification of
(3) Only statement-II is correct products.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (iv) It functions as a cytoplasmic framework.
55. Which of the following occur when an animal cell (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
is placed in hypotonic solution? (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
(a) Water will come outside from cell. 58. Karyokinesis is the division of
(b) Animal cell swells up. (1) Protoplasm (2) Proplastid
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus
(c) Swollen animal cell bursts under pressure.
59. The jelly-like substances present between the ‘X’
(d) Animal cell shrinks and become crenated.
and ‘Y’ is called cytoplasm. Here ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are,
(1) (a) and (d) respectively
(2) (b) and (d) (1) Plasma membrane and cell wall
(3) (b) and (c) (2) Cell wall and nucleus
(3) Nucleus and plasma membrane
(4) (a) and (c)
(4) Cell wall and protoplasm
56. Which of the following statements is true regarding
60. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
eukaryotic cell?
(1) Genes are the functional segments of DNA
(1) Size is generally small(1-10µm)
(2) Sap vacuole is not surrounded by any
(2) Membrane bound cell organelles are absent membrane
(3) Nucleus is well defined (3) Cell is the structural and functional unit of life
(4) Single circular chromosome is present (4) The unicellular organisms consist of single cell

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-I_Test-1 (Code A)

61. One of the factors of p(x) = x3 – 23x2 + 142x – 120 68. The number of dimensions, a point has
is (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (x + 1) (2) (x + 10) (3) 0 (4) 3
(3) (x – 8) (4) (x – 12) 69. The negative solutions of the equation px + qy + c
62. If x < 1 and y < –1, then (x – 1, y – 4) lies in which = 0 always lie in the
quadrant?
(1) Ist quadrant (2) IIIrd quadrant
nd st
(1) II (2) I
(3) IInd quadrant (4) IVth quadrant
rd
(3) III (4) IVth
2
70. The sum of 0.8 and 0.14 is
 7n +3 + 14  7n + 4 
63. The value of   equals 98 14
 7n +3 (1) (2)
  99 9
(1) 9702 (2) 1004
34 2
(3) 9801 (4) 7824 (3) (4)
33 9
1 1
64. If p = and q = , then the value of 71. The point at which two coordinate axes meet is
2− 3 3 +2 called
7p + 11pq – 7q equals
2 2
(1) Abscissa (2) Ordinate
(1) 11 2 + 3 (2) 13 − 28 3
(3) Origin (4) Quadrant
(3) 11+ 56 3 (4) 14 − 56 2
2 +1 x2 − 1
65. Which of the following is smallest? 72. If x = , then the value of is
2 −1 x
3
(1) 4 (2) 2
(1) 3 (2) 1
3
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 2 (4) 4
1 1
66. If a +b +
2 2
+ = 4, then the value of 73. Which of the following points lie on x-axis ?
a2 b2
(1) (4, 2) (2) (0, 4)
a +b
2 2
is (3) (6, 0) (4) (0, 1)
(1) 3 (2) 2 74. The graph of linear equation 3x + 2y = 16 cuts
(3) 4 (4) 2 y-axis at

67. The things which are double of the same thing are (1) (2, 8) (2) (2, –4)
(1) Unequal (3) (8, 0) (4) (0, 8)
(2) Equal 75. A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is
(3) Halves of the same thing (1) Only a rectangle (2) Only a square
(4) Double of the same thing (3) Only a triangle (4) Any polygon

(Space for Rough Work)

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Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

3− 2 3+ 2 Directions (Q.83 & Q.84) : If A @ B = A × (A + B)2 and

76. If a = , b= , then the value of
3+ 2 3− 2 C $ D = 3 × (C2 – D2) , then
(a + b)2 is 83. The value of (1 @ 2) @ 3
(1) 98 (2) 99 (1) 1276 (2) 1288
(3) 110 (4) 100
(3) 1296 (4) 1240
77. If x6 – 1 is divided by 2x + 1, then the absolute
84. The value of (2 @ 3) $ 49
value of the remainder is
32 33 (1) 297 (2) 279
(1) (2)
33 32 (3) 277 (4) 299
63 61 Directions (Q.85 & Q.86) : Choose a figure from
(3) (4)
64 64 answer figures which will continue the same series as
78. Euclid divided his famous treatise “The Elements” established by the three problem figures.
into how many chapters? 85. Problem Figure
(1) 10 (2) 12
! @% ! $ %
(3) 13 (4) 14
% $ # ?
79. The point of intersection of lines 3x + 6y = 9 and
7x – 15y = 2 is
$ # # @ @ !
 −49 14   −19  Answer Figures
(1)  ,  (2)  3,
 29 39   29 
$ #
 −13 14   49 19  @
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  (1)
 29 29   29 29 
! %
80. The area of the triangle formed by the points
(7, 9), (3, –7) and (–3, 3) is (in square units) # $
(1) 72 (2) 58 (2) @
(3) 64 (4) 68 %
!
Directions (Q.81 & Q.82) : In each of the following
questions choose a correct option in place of ?. # $
81. 2 : 16 :: 3 : 81 :: 5 : 625 :: 8 : ? (3) @
(1) 4096 (2) 4906 % !
(3) 4099 (4) 4406
82. 52 : 100 :: 25 : 100000 :: 72 : 196 :: 82 : ?
# $
(1) 324 (2) 256 (4) !
% @
(3) 289 (4) 361

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-I_Test-1 (Code A)

86. Problem Figure 92. 111, 181, 1271, 1641,?

(1) 11521 (2) 12511
(3) 11251 (4) 15211
?
93. ABCD, BDFH, CFIL, DHLP, ?
(1) EJOY (2) EKOT
Answer Figures
(3) EJPT (4) EJOT
94. A, A, E, D, ?, I, O, P, U
(1) (2) (1) K (2) D
(3) I (4) H
Directions (Q.95 & Q.96) : In the following questions
choose an answer figure which has same relation with
(3) (4)
figure (c) as figure (a) and (b) have in problem figures.
95. Problem Figure
87. The wrong term in the series
12, 13, 14, 24, 25, 28, 36, 39, 42
(1) 25 (2) 28
@ & ?

(3) 36 (4) 24
(a) (b) (c) (d)
88. Watt is to Power as Joule is to
Answer Figures
(1) Length (2) Volume
(3) Work (4) Force
89. If A + B + C = D and B + 2C = A + D, then
(1) C = A (2) C = 2A
(1) &
(3) C = 4A (4) C = 3A
&
90. Lucknow is related to Uttar Pradesh in the same
(2)
way as Bengaluru is related to ______
(1) Telangana (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka
Directions (Q.91 to Q.94) : In each of the following (3)
questions choose a correct option to complete the given
series.
91. 1155, 2214, 3273, 4332,?
(1) 5391 (2) 5319 (4)
(3) 5131 (4) 5339

(Space for Rough Work)

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Section-I_Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

96. Problem Figure Directions (Q.98 to Q.100) : In each of the following

questions choose a correct option to complete the given
pattern.
?
98. a _ m n b a m _ n b _ m m n _ a m m _ b
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) m m m b n

Answer Figures (2) m m a b m

(3) m n a b n
(4) m m a b n
(1) (2)
99. x a _ c d e _ g h _ h g f e _ c b _ x
(1) b f a d a
(2) b f x f a
(3) (4)
(3) b f x d a
(4) b f x d b
97. Find the missing numbers in the following series?
100. x y _ k m _ x y z _ m n _ y z k _ n
11, 16, 13, 25, 17, 36, 19, ?, ?
(1) z n k x n (2) z n k x m
(1) 49, 27 (2) 49, 29
(3) 49, 26 (4) 49, 23 (3) z n k n m (4) z m k x m

❑ ❑ ❑

(Space for Rough Work)

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-II_Test-1 (Code B)

TEST - 1 (Code B)
SECTION-II (Maximum Marks : 60)
• This section contains 30 questions of Biology only.

• Each question of Section-II is of 2 marks. Therefore +2 for correct answer and –0.50 for wrong answer.

It is compulsory to use separate OMR for Section-II or Section-III. Also compulsory to fill the Test Booklet Code.

Choose the correct answer :

1. All of the following are present in an animal cell, Consider the given statements and select the
except correct option.
(1) Cell membrane (2) Ribosome (1) Both the statements are correct
(3) Cell wall (4) Nucleus (2) Only statement-I is incorrect
2. The “suicidal bags” of the cell are (3) Only statement-II is incorrect
(1) Vacuoles (2) Chloroplasts (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Centrosomes (4) Lysosomes
7.
3. Nucleolus is rich in
(1) RNA only (2) DNA only
(3) Protein and RNA (4) DNA and Protein
4. All of the following structures are surrounded by a
single membrane, except
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Vacuoles
Which of the following features of above structure
5. The most common type of vacuoles present in
are correct?
plant cell is
(a) It contains small round bodies called
(1) Food vacuoles (2) Contractile vacuoles
oxysomes.
(3) Sap vacuoles (4) Gas vacuoles
(b) It was discovered by Benda.
6. Statement-I : Diffusion is faster in the gaseous
(c) It is absent in prokaryotes.
phase than in liquid and solid phase.
(d) It is found in all mammalian RBCs.
Statement-II : The size of an organism is
dependent on the size of cell and not on the (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
number of cells. (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

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Section-II_Test-1 (Code B) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

8. The animal having lowest number of 13. The cell wall of fungi is made up of
chromosomes is (1) Chitin (2) Cellulose
(1) Gorilla (3) Murein (4) Peptidoglycan
(2) Cat P
14.
(3) Ascaris
Q
(4) Chimpanzee
9. A cementing layer called middle lamella is present R
(1) Between the cell membrane of two adjacent
cells
(2) At the nucleus of the cell
(3) Near the endoplasmic reticulum Match the labelled parts P, Q and R in the given
(4) Between the cell wall of two adjacent cells figure with their below given characteristics and
10. 80S ribosome consists of select the correct option.

(1) 50S large subunit and 30S small subunit (i) It gets organised or condensed into
chromosomes, when the cell is about to
(2) 60S large subunit and 30S small subunit
divide.
(3) 50S large subunit and 40S small subunit (ii) It is the site for ribosome synthesis.
(4) 60S large subunit and 40S small subunit (iii) It allows the movement of material between
11. • It contains enzymes for -oxidation of fatty the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm.
acids and glyoxylate pathway. P Q R
• It is especially found in germinating fatty
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
seeds.
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
Identify the cell organelle based on the given
information and select the correct option. (3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Peroxisome (2) Centriole (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Centrosome (4) Glyoxysome
15. Select the incorrect function of cell wall.
12. Amongst the following, who discovered free living (1) It provides mechanical strength to the cell
cells in the pond water?
(2) It is impermeable to water
(1) Robert Hooke
(3) It protects the cell against pathogens
(2) Leeuwenhoek
(4) It permits the cell of plants, fungi and bacteria
(3) Huxley to survive in very dilute external media without
(4) Rudolf Virchow bursting

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-II_Test-1 (Code B)

16. Animal cell Plant cell c. Acrocentric (iii) Centromere is at

chromosomes middle position
(i) Animal cells are Plant cells are
generally small in larger than animal d. Submetacentric (iv) Centromere is at
size. cells. chromosomes terminal end
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(ii) A rigid cell wall is Cell wall is absent.
present. (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(iii) Plastids are Plastids are absent. (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
present. (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(iv) Vacuoles in animal Most mature plant 18. Which of the following elements is required for
cells are many, cells have a binding the two subunits of ribosome?
small and permanent and
(1) Calcium
temporary. large central sap
vacuole. (2) Iodine

(v) Animal cells have Plant cells have (3) Magnesium

a single highly many simpler units (4) Copper
complex and of Golgi apparatus,
19. Microtubular arrangement in cilia and flagella is
prominent Golgi called dictyosomes.
apparatus. (i) whereas in centriole, microtubular

How many of the above given differences is/are arrangement is (ii) . Here (i) and (ii) are,
correct? respectively
(1) One (i) (ii)
(2) Two
(1) 9 + 11 9+0
(3) Four
(2) 9+2 9+0
(4) Three
17. Match the following columns and select the correct (3) 9+0 9+2
option. (4) 9+2 9 + 11
Column-I Column-II
20. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are called semi-
a. Metacentric (i) Centromere is autonomous organelles because
chromosomes slightly away from
(1) They are double membrane structures
the middle
(2) They are energy production centre
b. Telocentric (ii) Centromere is
chromosomes nearer at the end of (3) They have 70s type ribosome and naked DNA
the chromosome (4) They contain powerful oxidative enzymes

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Section-II_Test-1 (Code B) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

21. Diffusion of O2 into the cell 23. Assertion : Lysosomes are known as demolition
squads.

Cytoplasm Reason : Lysosomes help in keeping the cell

clean by digesting foreign materials as well as
worn-out cell organelles.
Cell membrane
(1) Both the assertion and reason are true
statements and reason is the correct
In the above depicted cell, the concentration of explanation of assertion
oxygen is (a) than the solution whereas the (2) Both the assertion and reason are true
statements but reason is not the correct
concentration of CO2 is (b) than the solution.
explanation of assertion
Here (a) and (b) are, respectively (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(1) More and less (2) Less and less (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(3) More and more (4) Less and more statements
Solid food 24. H2O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
catalase
→ H2O + O2
22.
Pseudopodia The above process occurs due to
(1) Centrioles (2) Vacuoles
(3) Peroxisomes (4) Glyoxysomes
25. Select the incorrect match.
Plants No. of chromosomes
(1) Oryza sativa - 24
Intracellular vacuole
(2) Pisum sativum - 14
(3) Ophioglossum - 1262
(4) Triticum aestivum - 47
26. A - It is due to chromoplast gets converted into
chloroplast.
B - At the time of fruit ripening the young fruit of
The above depicted process is
tomato and green chilli turn red.
(1) Pinocytosis in Amoeba
C - It is due to etioplast gets converted into
(2) Exocytosis in Paramecium chloroplast.
(3) Phagocytosis in Amoeba D - It is due to chloroplast gets converted into
(4) Exocytosis in Amoeba chromoplast.

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-II_Test-1 (Code B)

Which of the above given statements is the correct Select the correct statement regarding the above
reason of another statement? given process.
(1) C is the correct reason of B (1) It helps in growth and repair of tissues
(2) B is the correct reason of A (2) It occurs in specific cells of reproductive
(3) A is the correct reason of B organs
(4) D is the correct reason of B (3) It gives rise to diploid cells
27.
(4) The daughter cells produced have same
number of chromosomes as mother cell
29. If a living plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution,
then its protoplasm will 'X' and the
phenomenon is called 'Y' . Here ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are,
In the above flowchart, identify A and B and select
the correct option. respectively
A B (1) Burst and endosmosis

(1) Facilitated Ion pump (2) Swell and plasmolysis

transport (3) Shrink and endosmosis
(2) Ion pump Facilitated transport (4) Shrink and plasmolysis
(3) Osmosis Facilitated transport 30. • They are specialized to synthesise and store
and Ion pump organic substances.
(4) Ion pump Osmosis • They were introduced by E. Haeckel
Identify the cell organelle on the basis of given
28. information and select the correct option.
(1) Vacuole
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Plastids

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Section-III_Test-1 (Code C) All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX)

TEST - 1 (Code C)
SECTION-III (Maximum Marks : 60)
• This section contains 15 questions of Mathematics only.

• Each question of Section-III is of 4 marks. Therefore +4 for correct answer and –1 for wrong answer.

Choose the correct answer :

1. If px – 1 = qr, qy – 1 = rp, rz – 1 = pq, then the value of 6. If p = a(b – c), q = b(c – a), r = c(a – b) then
1 1 1 3 3 3
+ + equals  p q r 
x y z  a  +  b  +  c  is equal to
     
(1) 2 (2) 1
pqr pqr
(3) 3 (4) 0 (1) (2)
3abc abc
2. If (x – 1) and ( x – 2) are the factors of x4 – px2 + q,
abc 3pqr
then the value of p + q is (3) (4)
pqr abc
(1) 0 (2) 4 7. If (2x – 4)3 + (4x – 2)3 = (4x + 2x – 6)3, then how
(3) 1 (4) 3 many value(s) of x are possible ?
1 1 (1) 3 (2) 0
3. If x + = 5 , then the sum of digits of x 9 + 9 is
x x (3) 2 (4) 1
4 3 2
(1) 18 (2) 24 8. If f(x) = x + ax + bx + cx + d is a polynomial such
(3) 20 (4) 30 that f(1) = 5, f(2) = 10, f(3) = 15, f(4) = 20, then the
value of f(5) + f(–5) is
4. The value of ( 2010
2 7 −3 3 )( 4020
55 + 12 21 ) (1) 2027 (2) 3102
(3) 3048 (4) 4012
is
9. If a, b and c are integers such that
(1) 0
(2) 10 ( 3
4 + 3 2 −2 )( 3
)
4a + 3 2b + c = 20, then a + b – c
(3) 1 equals
(4) 4 (1) 8
5. The edges of a plane surface are (2) 10
(1) Points (2) Lines (3) 20
(3) Angles (4) Planes (4) 5

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All India Aakash Test Series-2021 (Class IX) Section-III_Test-1 (Code C)

10. The graph of the linear equation y = x passes

through the point
13. The value of ( x − y )2 + ( y − x )2 is

(1) (0, 0) (2) (1, –1) (1) Always zero

(3) (–1, 1) (4) (0, 1) (2) Never zero (if x  y)
11. If we multiply or divide both sides of a linear (3) Positive if and only if x > y
equation with a non-zero number, then the solution (4) Always positive
of the linear equation 14. The number of solutions of equation 4x + 9y = 119
(1) Changes is (x, y  non negative integers)
(2) Remains the same (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) Changes in case of division only (3) 2 (4) 3
(4) Changes in case of multiplication only (a + b )
15. If = 2 , then a : b equals
12. Three vertices of a rectangle are (3, 2), (–4 2) and ab
(–4, 7). If we draw these points on graph, then (1) 1 : 2
coordinates of the fourth vertex of rectangle is (2) 1 : 1
(1) (2, 7) (2) (4, 2) (3) 2 : 3
(3) (3, 7) (4) (4, 6) (4) 2 : 1

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