FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023

(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)

PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
PHYSICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains THREE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).

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 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.

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1. A slide with a frictionless curved surface, which becomes horizontal at its lower end,, is fixed on
the terrace of a building of height 3h from the ground, as shown in the figure. A spherical ball of
mass m is released on the slide from rest at a height h from the top of the terrace. The ball leaves
the slide with a velocity u0  u0 xˆ and falls on the ground at a distance d from the building making
an angle  with the horizontal. It bounces off with a velocity v and reaches a maximum height h1.
The acceleration due to gravity is g and the coefficient of restitution of the ground is 1 3 . Which
of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

h z
u0
x

3h g 

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v
 h1

d
(A) u0  2ghxˆ (B) v  2gh  xˆ  zˆ  (C)  = 60° (D) d h1  2 3
Ans. (A,C,D)

h
z
x

3h g
Sol. v1
h1


v1  2gh ˆi  2g3h kˆ
1 ˆ
v  2gh ˆi  2g3h  k
3
 2gh ˆi  2gh kˆ
2g3h
tan    3  = 60°
2gh
2
v1y 2gh
h1   h
2g 2g
2  3h
d  v x t  2gh 
g
6h
 2gh  2 3h
g
d
= 2 3
h1
2
2. A plane polarized blue light ray is incident on a prism such that there is no reflection from the
surface of the prism. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray is  = 60° (see Figure-1). The angle
of minimum deviation for red light from the same prism is min = 30° (see Figure-2). The refractive
index of the prism material for blue light is 3 . Which of the following statement(s) is(are)
correct?

min = 30°
 = 60° Plane polarised
Plane polarised red light
blue light

Figure-1 Figure-2
(A) The blue light is polarized in the plane of incidence.

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(B) The angle of the prism is 45°.
(C) The refractive index of the material of the prism for red light is 2 .
(D) The angle of refraction for blue light in air at the exit plane of the prism is 60°.
Ans. (A,C,D)
A

i =B
e
r1 r2
Blue
Sol.
tan B  B  3
i = B = 60°
1sin 60  3 sin r1
r1 = 30°
r1 + r2 = A
 = (i + e) – A
60° = 60° + e – A
e=A
3 sin r2  1sin e
3 sin(A  30)  sin A
Solving
A = 60°
 e = 60°
For red light
 A   min 
sin  
 2  2

A
sin
2

3
3. In a circuit shown in the figure, the capacitor C is initially uncharged and the key K is open. In this

condition, a current of 1 A flows through the 1  resistor. The key is closed at time t = t0. Which of

the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

[Given: e–1 = 0.36]
15V R

5V 1

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I1 3
( )

K
C = 2F
3

(A) The value of the resistance R is 3.

(B) For t < t0, the value of current I1 is 2A.

(C) At t = t0 + 7.2 s, the current in the capacitor is 0.6 A.

(D) For t  , the charge on the capacitor is 12 C.

Ans. (A,B,C,D)
15V R I

5V 1 1A
Sol. O V

3
I1

By writing voltage drop across 1

0+5+1×1=V

V=6

 Similarly across R

0 + 15 – I × R = 6
4
IR = 9

 across 3

6 – 3 I1 = 0

I1 = 2A

Hence option (B) is correct

 I=1+2 (by KCL)

I=3

IR = 9

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R = 3

Option (A) is correct

eq = 6V req=0.6


3
C = 2µF

15 5 0
 
3
  3 1 3  10   6V
1 1 1 5
 
3 1 3

qmax = 2 × 6 = 12µC

6  t
i e
3.6

5 7.2 5 1
 e  e  0.6A
3 7.2 3

5
 SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

4. A bar of mas M = 1.00 kg and length L = 0.20 m is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. One
end of the bar is pivoted at a point about which it is free to rotate. A small mass m = 0.10 kg is
moving on the same horizontal surface with 5.00 m s−1 speed on a path perpendicular to the bar. It

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hits the bar at a distance L/2 from the pivoted end and returns back on the same path with speed v.
After this elastic collision, the bar rotates with an angular velocity . Which of the following
statement is correct?
(A)  = 6.98 rad s−1 and v = 4.30 m s−1
(B)  = 3.75 rad s−1 and v = 4.30 m s−1
(C)  = 3.75 rad s−1 and v = 10.0 m s−1
(D)  = 6.80 rad s−1 and v = 4.10 m s−1
Ans. (A)
M,L 

v
u
Sol. m

Applying angular momentum conservation about hinge

L L ML2
mv  0  mv   ….(i)
2 2 3
Also from eq. of restitution
L
 V
2 L
e 1  u    V ….(ii)
u 2
Solving (i) & (ii)
  6.98 rad/sec & v = 4.30 m/s
Hence option (A)

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5. A container has a base of 50 cm × 5 cm and height 50 cm, as shown in the figure. It has two parallel
electrically conducting walls each of area 50 cm × 50 cm. The remaining walls of the container are
thin and non-conducting. The container is being filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 3 at a
uniform rate of 250 cm3 s−1. What is the value of the capacitance of the container after 10 seconds?
[Given: Permittivity of free space 0 = 9 × 10−12 C2 N−1m−2, the effects of the non-conducting walls
on the capacitance are negligible]

50 cm

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50 cm

5 cm
(A) 27 pF (B) 63 pF (C) 81 pF (D) 135 pF
Ans. (B)
Sol. In t = 10 sec volume of liquid is
V = 2500 cc
2500
h  10cm
50  5
A d 0 k
Cd 
d
50 10 2 10 10 2 0  3
  30
5 10 2
Aa 0 50 10 2  40 10 2 0
Ca    40
d 5 10 2
C = Ca + Cd = 70
= 7 × 9 × 10–12 = 63 Pf
6. One mole of an ideal gas expands adiabatically from an initial state (TA, V0) to final state (Tf, 5𝑉0).
Another mole of the same gas expands isothermally from a different initial state (TB, V0) to the
same final state (Tf, 5V0). The ratio of the specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume of
this ideal gas is . What is the ratio TA /TB?
(A) 5−1 (B) 51− (C) 5 (D) 51+
Ans. (A)

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 P (TA, 5V0)

Sol. (TB, 5V0) (Tf, 5V0)

TA V01  Tf (5V0 )1

TA T
 51  A
Tf TB
7. Two satellites P and Q are moving in different circular orbits around the Earth (radius R). The
heights of P and Q from the Earth surface are hP and hQ, respectively, where hp = R/3. The

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accelerations of P and Q due to Earth’s gravity are gP and gQ, respectively. If gP /gQ = 36/25, what is
the value of hQ?
(A) 3R /5 (B) R/6 (C) 6R /5 (D) 5R /6
Ans. (A)

P
hP
Q
R E
Sol. hQ

GM
2
gP rP2  rQ 
  
gQ GM  rP 
rQ2
2
36  rQ 
 
25  rP 

rQ 6

rP 5

6
rQ  rP
5
6 R
R  hQ   R  
5 3
24 9 3
hQ  RR  R  R
15 15 5
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 SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

8. A Hydrogen-like atom has atomic number Z. Photons emitted in the electronic transitions from
level n = 4 to level n = 3 in these atoms are used to perform photoelectric effect experiment on a
target metal. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons generated is 1.95 eV. If the
photoelectric threshold wavelength for the target metal is 310 nm, the value of Z is _______.

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[Given: hc = 1240 eV-nm and Rhc = 13.6 eV, where R is the Rydberg constant, h is the Planck’s
constant and c is the speed of light in vacuum]
Ans. (3)
Sol. n = 4 n=3
2
–1.51Z eV –0.85 Z2 eV
E = E4 – E3 = 0.66 Z2 eV
Kmax = E – W
0.66 Z2 1.95 + 4 = 5.95
hc 1240
W  0.66Z 2  1.95  
 310
Z=3
9. An optical arrangement consists of two concave mirrors M1 and M2, and a convex lens L with a
common principal axis, as shown in the figure. The focal length of L is 10 cm. The radii of
curvature of M1 and M2 are 20 cm and 24 cm, respectively. The distance between L and M2 is
20 cm. A point object S is placed at the mid-point between L and M2 on the axis. When the distance
between L and M1 is n/7 cm, one of the images coincides with S. The value of n is _______.

M1 L M2

20 cm

Ans. (80 or 150 or 220)

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 M1 L M2

S
Sol. 10 cm (d-10)cm 10cm

20 cm

Two cases are possible if Ist refraction on lens :

Since object is at focus  light will become parallel.
Ist reflection at M1 :-
Light is parallel  Image will be at focus.
IInd refraction from L :-

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u = – (d – 10)
f = 10 cm
1 1 1
 
v  f
1 1 1
 
v d  10 10
1 1 1
  … (i)
v 10  d  10 
This v will be object for M2, and image should be at 10 cm
1 1 1
 
 v1 f
1 1 1
  
 20  v  10 12
1 1 1
 
12 10 20  v
2 1
 
120 20  v
20 – v = –60
v = 80 cm
From equation (i)
1 1 1
 
80 10 d  10
1 1 1
 
d  10 10 80
1 80  10 70
 
d  10 800 800
80 80 150
d  10   d  10  
7 7 7
n  150

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Case-2: If 1st reflection on mirror m2

M1 L M2

d 10cm

20 cm

For m2
1 1 1
 
V1 10 12

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V1 = 60 cm
Then refraction on lens L
u2 =–80 cm
1 1 1
 
V2 60 10
80
V2 
7
Then reflection on m2
Either V2 is at centre (normal incidence)
80
d  20
7
220
d
7
n 220
 ,
7 7
n  220
V2 is at pole of m2
80
d 0
7
80
d
7
n 80

7 7
n  80

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10. In an experiment for determination of the focal length of a thin convex lens, the distance of the
object from the lens is 10 ± 0.1 cm and the distance of its real image from the lens is 20 ± 0.2 cm.
The error in the determination of focal length of the lens is n %. The value of n is _______.
Ans. (1)
Sol. u = 10 ± 0.1 cm, v = 20 ± 0.2 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1
   2 dv  2 du   2 df
v u f v u f
1 1 1 1 3 20
    f  cm
20 10 f f 20 3
1 1 9
  0.2    0.1  df

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 20  10 
2 2
400

1  400 400 
df    0.2   0.1
9  400 100 
1 0.6
df   0.2  0.4   df 
9 9
df 0.6 3 1
  
f 9 20 100
% error = 1 %
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol.   ;   
V U f 20 10 f
1 dU df 1 2 1 20
 2
dv  2   2  ;f
V u f 20 f 3
0.1 0.2 f%
 
100 400 f
0.4  0.2 f

400  20 
f 
 3 
0.6  20 f

400  3 f
1 f

100 f
% change in f is 1%

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11. A closed container contains a homogeneous mixture of two moles of an ideal monatomic gas
( = 5/3) and one mole of an ideal diatomic gas ( = 7/5). Here,  is the ratio of the specific heats at
constant pressure and constant volume of an ideal gas. The gas mixture does a work of 66 Joule
when heated at constant pressure. The change in its internal energy is ________ Joule.
Ans. (121)
Sol. At constant pressure
W = nRT = 66
U = n(CV)mixT
n C n C
 CV mix  1 V1 2 V2
n1  n 2
3 5
2  R  1 R
 CV mix  2 2
3
11
 CV mix  R

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6
11
U   nRT 
6
11
U   66  121J
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12. A person of height 1.6 m is walking away from a lamp post of height 4 m along a straight path on
the flat ground. The lamp post and the person are always perpendicular to the ground. If the speed
of the person is 60 cm s−1, the speed of the tip of the person’s shadow on the ground with respect to
the person is _______ cm s−1.
Ans. (40)

4m

Sol. 1.6m
60cm/s

x
y
4 1.6

y yx
4y – 4x = 1.6y
2.4 y = 4x
X = 0.6y
dx dy
 0.6 
dt dt
dy
60  0.6 
dt
dy
  100cm / s
dt
Speed of tip of person’s
Shadow w.r.t person = 100 – 60 = 40 cm/s
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13. Two point-like objects of masses 20 gm and 30 gm are fixed at the two ends of a rigid massless rod
of length 10 cm. This system is suspended vertically from a rigid ceiling using a thin wire attached
to its center of mass, as shown in the figure. The resulting torsional pendulum undergoes small
oscillations. The torsional constant of the wire is 1.2 × 10−8 N m rad−1. The angular frequency of the
oscillations in n × 10−3 rad s−1. The value of n is _____.

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30gm 20gm

Ans. (10)

Sol.
4cm 6cm

30gm CM 20gm

2 I
T  2
 C

C

I
Where I = moment of inertia
I = (30) (4)2 + (20) (6)2
= 1200 gm-cm2
= 1.2 × 10–4 kg-m2

1.2  10 8

1.2  10 4

   104
 = (10–2)
n × 10–3 = 10–2  n = 10

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 SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
14. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted particles.
Match each entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II

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(P) 238
92 U 234
91 Pa (1) one  particle and one  + particle
(Q) 214
82 Pb 210
82 Pb (2) three  – particles and one  particle
(R) 210
81 Tl 206
82 Pb (3) two  – particles and one  particle
(S) 228
91 Pa 224
88 Ra (4) one  particle and one  – particle
(5) one  particle and two  + particles
(A) P  4, Q  3, R  2, S  1
(B) P  4, Q  1, R  2, S  5
(C) P  5, Q  3, R  1, S  4
(D) P  5, Q  1, R  3, S  2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Z1 ZA1 Z2 YA2  N1 2He4  N2 1e0  N3 1 e0
Conservation of charge
Z1 = Z2 + 2 N1 + N2 – N3 … (i)
Conservation of nucleons.
A1 = A2 + 4N1
A1  A2
N1  … (ii)
4
From (i) and (ii)
 A  A2 
N 2  N3  Z1  Z 2   1 
 2 
(P) 92 U 238 91 Pa 234
238  234
N1   1  1
4
4
N2  N3   92  91     1  1
2

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 (Q) 82 Pb 214 82 Pb 210
214  210
N1   1  1
4
4
N 2  N3  82  82      2  2
2
(R) 81 T 210
 82 Pb206
210  206
N1   1  1
4
4
N 2  N 3   81  83    3  3 
2
(S) 91 Pa 228 88 Ra 224

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228  224
N1   1
4
4
N 2  N 3   91  88  
 1 
2
15. Match the temperature of a black body given in List-I with an appropriate statement in List-II, and
choose the correct option.
hc
[Given: Wien’s constant as 2.9 × 10−3 m-K and = 1.24 × 10−6 V-m]
e
List-I List-II
(P) 2000 K (1) The radiation at peak wavelength can lead to emission
of photoelectrons from a metal of work function 4 eV
(Q) 3000 K (2) The radiation at peak wavelength is visible to human
eye.
(R) 5000 K (3) The radiation at peak emission wavelength will result
in the widest central maximum of a single slit
diffraction.
(S) 10000 K (4) The power emitted per unit area is 1/16 of that emitted
by a blackbody at temperature 6000 K.
(5) The radiation at peak emission wavelength can be
used to image human bones.
(A) P  3, Q  5, R  2, S  3
(B) P  3, Q  2, R  4, S  1
(C) P  3, Q  4, R  2, S  1
(D) P  1, Q  2, R  5, S  3
Ans. (C)

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 D
Sol.  For option (P) temperature is minimum hence m will be maximum     will also be
d
maximum
 For option (Q) T = 3000
b 2.9  10 3
m  
T 30000
2.9
m   10 6
3
= 0.96 × 10–6
= 966.6 nm
P3000 = 6A (3000)4
P6000 = 6A (6000)4

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4
P3000  1  1
  
P6000  2  16
1
P3000  P6000
16
Q–4
 For (R) T = 5000 K
2.9 103
m   0.58 106
5 10 3

= 580 nm
Visible to human eyes
R–2
 For (S) T = 10,000  maximum
Hence (3) is wrong as it has minimum (m)
16. A series LCR circuit is connected to a 45 sin ( t) Volt source. The resonant angular frequency of
the circuit is 105 rad s−1 and current amplitude at resonance is I0.. When the angular frequency of
the source is  = 8 × 104 rad s−1, the current amplitude in the circuit is 0.05 I0. If L = 50 mH, match
each entry in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) I0 in mA (1) 44.4
(Q) The quality factor of the circuit (2) 18
−1
(R) The bandwidth of the circuit in rad s (3) 400
(S) The peak power dissipated at resonance in Watt (4) 2250
(5) 500

(A) P  2, Q  3, R  5, S  1 (B) P  3, Q  1, R  4, S  2
(C) P  4, Q  5, R  3, S  1 (D) P  4, Q  2, R  1, S  5
Ans. (B)
17
Sol. V = 45 sin t, L = 50 mH

1 1 1
0  105 rad / s  C  2
LC L0 5  10 1010
2

= 2 × 10–9 F

45
I0 
R

 = 8 × 104 rad/s = 0.8 0

I0
I  0.05I0   Z  20R
20

®
X L  8  10 4  5  10 2   4k

1 1 25
XC  9
  10 5   k
8  10  2  10
4
16 4

Z2  R 2   XC  X L 
2

2
9 
400R  R   k 
2 2

4 

9
k
9 900
R 4  k  
399 80 8

V0 45  8 8
I0    A  0.4A  400mA
R 900 20

1 L 8 5  10 2 8
Q  9
 25  106
R C 900 2  10 900

8
Q  5000  44.4
900

0  10 5
Q    0  = 2250.0
 Q 44.4

452 452 452

Pmax  I 02 R   R    8  18.4W
R2 R 900

18
17. A thin conducting rod MN of mass 20 gm, length 25 cm and resistance 10  is held on frictionless,
long, perfectly conducting vertical rails as shown in the figure. There is a uniform magnetic field
B0 = 4 T directed perpendicular to the plane of the rod-rail arrangement. The rod is released from
rest at time t = 0 and it moves down along the rails. Assume air drag is negligible. Match each
quantity in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II, and choose the correct option.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2 and e–1 = 0.4]

M N
25cm g

®
List-I List-II
(P) At t = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the induced emf in Volt (1) 0.07
(Q) At 𝑡 = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the magnetic force in Newton (2) 0.14
(R) At 𝑡 = 0.2 s, the power dissipated as heat in Watt (3) 1.20
(S) The magnitude of terminal velocity of the rod in m s−1 (4) 0.12
(5) 2.00
(A) P  5, Q  2, R  3, S  1 (B) P  3, Q  1, R  4, S  5
(C) P  4, Q  3, R  1, S  2 (D) P  3, Q  4, R  2, S  5
Ans. (D)
Sol. From force equation
mdv
mg  Bi 
dt
BBi mdv
mg   
R dt
mgR mR dv
2 2
v  2 2
B B dt
t v
B2 2 dv
mR  dt    mgR 
t 0 0
 B2 2
 v
 

19
 mgR 20 103 10 10
Now  2
B2 2 1
16 
16
1
2 2 16 
B 16 1
And  3
 5
mR 20  10  10 0.2
 5t    n  2  v   0
v

2  v
5t  n  
 v 
 v = 2 (1 – e–5t)
At t = 0.2 sec v = 2 (1 – e–5 × 0.2)
v = 2 (1 – 0.4)

®
v = 1.2 m/s
(P) Now at t = 0.2 sec
The magnitude of the induced emf = E = Bv
1
 4  1.2   1.2Volt
4
(Q) At t = 0.2 sec, the magnitude of magnetic force = BIsin
B v
 B   sin 90
R
1 1
4  4   1.3 
 4 4 = 0.12 Newton
10
(R) At t = 0.2 sec, the power dissipated as heat
v2 1.2 1.2
P  i2 R  
R 10
P = 0.144 watt
(S) Magnitude of terminal velocity
At terminal velocity, the net force become zero
 mg = Bi
B vt
mg  B  
R
mgR 20 10 3 10 10
 vT  2 2 
B 1
16 
16
vT = 2 m/s
Hence, Answer is (D)

20
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1

FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023

(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains THREE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

®
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.

1. The correct statement(s) related to processes involved in the extraction of metals is(are)
(A) Roasting of Malachite produces Cuprite.
(B) Calcination of Calamine produces Zincite.
(C) Copper pyrites is heated with silica in a reverberatory furnace to remove iron.
(D) Impure silver is treated with aqueous KCN in the presence of oxygen followed by reduction
with zinc metal.
Ans. (B,C,D)

1
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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1

Sol. ⇒ Under roasting condition, the malachite will be converted into

CuCO3 .Cu(OH) 2 → 2CuO + CO 2 + H 2O

⇒ ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO 2 ↑
(Calamine) (Zincite)

⇒ Copper pyrites is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica. In the furnace, iron
oxide 'slag of' as iron silicate and copper is produced in the form of copper matte.
FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3
(Slag)

®
2. In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products.
⊕
CH3CH 2 CH(CH3 )CH 2 CN 
(i) PhMgBr, then H3O
(ii) PhMgBr, then H O
→P
2

O
|| (i) anhyd. AlCl3
Ph – H + CH3CCl Q
(ii) PhMgBr, then H2O

O
|| 1
(i) (PhCH ) Cd
2 22
CH3CH2CCl R
(ii) PhMgBr, then H O
2

( i ) PhMgBr, then H 2O

PhCH 2 CHO 

(ii) CrO3 , dil.H 2SO 4
(iii) HCN
→S
(iv) H 2SO4 , ∆

The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R, and S is(are)

(A) Both P and Q have asymmetric carbon(s).
(B) Both Q and R have asymmetric carbon(s).
(C) Both P and R have asymmetric carbon(s).
(D) P has asymmetric carbon(s), S does not have any asymmetric carbon.
Ans. (C,D)

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Sol. Formation of P
PhMgBr Ph
CH 3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CN
H3 O + C
CH 3 O

PhMgBr
then H3 O +

Ph
*
Ph
Asymmetric OH
carbon
(P)
Formation of Q

®
O O
anhy. AlCl3
+ CH 3 – C – Cl Ph – C – CH3
PhMgBr
then H3 O +

OH

Ph – C – CH3

Ph
(Q)
No asymmetric carbon

Formation of R

C – Cl + 1 (Ph – CH2 )2 Cd Ph
2
O O
PhMgBr
then H3 O +

Ph

* Ph
asymmetric OH
carbon
(R)

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Formation of S
PhMgBr
Ph – CH 2 – C – H Ph – CH 2 – CH – Ph
H3 O +
OH
O
CrO3 with dil. H2 SO4

Ph – CH 2 – C – Ph

O
HCN

OH
H2 SO4
Ph – CH = C – Ph Ph – CH 2 – C – Ph
∆

®
COOH CN
(S) No asymmetric carbon

3. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the correct option(s) for the major products Q,

R and S.

Styrene (i) B2 H6
(ii) NaOH, H O , H O
→ P 
(i) CrO3 , H 2SO4
(ii) Cl , Re d Phosphorus
→Q
2 2 2 2
(iii) H 2O

P 
(i)SOCl2
(ii) NaCN
→ R 
conc.H 2SO4
→S
(iii) H3O+ , ∆

O O
Cl COOH Cl COOH COOH
NH2 NH2

(A) (B)
O
SO3H
Q R S Q R S

O O
O O
Cl COOH Cl
NH2 NH2

(C) (D)
O
SO3H
Q R S Q R S

Ans. (B)

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Sol.
OH

CH = CH2 CH 2 – CH2

(1) B2 H6
(2) NaOH, H2 O2, H2O
(Styrene) (P)
CrO3 , H2 SO4
CH 2 – CH2 – Cl (O)

SOCl2
CH 2 – C – OH

O
NaCN

®
CH 2 – CH2 – CN (HVZ) Cl2 +
Red P

H3O /∆
CH – COOH

CH 2 – CH2 – C – OH Cl
(Q)
(R) O

Conc. H2 SO 4

O
(S)

5
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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

4. In the scheme given below, X and Y, respectively, are

Metal halide 
aq. NaOH
→ White precipitate (P) + Filtrate (Q)

®
aq.H 2SO 4
PbO2 ( excess )
P  heat
→X (a coloured species in solution)
MnO( OH )2 ,
Conc.H 2SO4
Q 
warm
→Y (gives blue-coloration with KI-starch paper)

(A) CrO42– and Br2 (B) MnO42– and Cl2

(C) MnO4– and Cl2 (D) MnSO4 and HOCl
Ans. (C)
Sol. MnCl2 + NaOH → Mn(OH)2 ↓ + NaCl
(P) (Q)
(white ppt.) (Filterate)

PbO + H + (H SO )
Mn(OH) 2 
2 2 4
→ MnO 4− + Pb 2+
heat
Purple
– MnO(OH)2/conc. H2SO4/D
Cl Cl2
–
2I
–
(Starch + I2) + 2Cl
blue coloration
5. Plotting 1/Λm against cΛm for aqueous solutions of a monobasic weak acid (HX) resulted in a
straight line with y-axis intercept of P and slope of S. The ratio P ⁄ S is
[Λm = molar conductivity
Λ °m = limiting molar conductivity
c = molar concentration
Ka = dissociation constant of HX]
(A) Ka Λ °m (B) Ka Λ °m / 2 (C) 2 Ka Λ °m (D) 1 / (Ka Λ °m )
Ans. (A)

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Λm
Sol. For weak acid, α =
Λ0

Cα 2
Ka = ⇒ Ka (1 – α) = Cα2
1− α
2
 Λ  Λ 
⇒ Ka 1 − m  = C  m 
 Λ0   Λ0 

Λ m K a CΛ 2m
⇒ Ka − =
Λ0 (Λ 0 )2

Divide by ' Λ m '

®
Ka CΛ m K a
⇒= +
Λ m (Λ 0 )2 Λ 0

1 CΛ m 1
⇒
= +
Λ m K a (Λ 0 ) 2
Λ0

1
Plot vs C Λ m has
Λm

1
Slope = =S
K a (Λ 0 )2

1
y-intercept = =P
Λ0

1
P Λ0
Then, = = Ka Λ0
S 1
K a (Λ 0 )2

6. On decreasing the 𝑝H from 7 to 2, the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt (MX) of a weak acid

(HX) increased from 10−4 mol L−1 to 10−3 mol L−1. The 𝑝Ka of HX is:

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 2

Ans. (B)

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Sol. At pH = 7 ⇒ pure water

solubility = S1 = K sp
At pH = 2
KSP

⇒ MX(s) + aq   + –
 M (aq) + X (aq)
s s–x
1/K a
– +


X (aq) + H (aq) 
 HX(aq)
s–x 10–2 x  s
Approximation : s – x  0 [X is limiting reagent]
–

⇒s  x
⇒ s(s – x) = Ksp …… (1)
s 1
−2
= …… (2)
(s − x) (10 ) K a

®
s2 K sp
Multiply (1) × (2) ⇒ −2
=
10 Ka
K sp
⇒s=
10 K a
s 10−3
Now given : = −4
s1 10
K sp
10 K a 1
⇒ =
10 ⇒ =
10
K sp 10 K a
10−2
⇒ Ka =
⇒ Ka = 10–4
⇒ pKa = 4

7. In the given reaction scheme, P is a phenyl alkyl ether, Q is an aromatic compound; R and S are the
major products.
(i) NaOH
(ii) CO (i) ( CH CO ) O
P 
HI
→ Q 
2
+ → R 
3
+ →S
2
(iii) H3O (ii) H3O

The correct statement about S is

(A) It primarily inhibits noradrenaline degrading enzymes.
(B) It inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin.
(C) It is a narcotic drug.
(D) It is ortho-acetylbenzoic acid.
Ans. (B)
Sol. P is phenyl alkyl ether
Q is aromatic compound
R and S are the major product

8
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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
i.e.
O–R O–H

H–I
+R–I

Phenyl alkyl ether (Q)

(1) NaOH

O— Na + OH
COOH
(2) CO2
H2 O + (3) H3 O +

®
H3 O + (CH3 CO)2 O

O – C – CH3
COOH

(Aspirin)
Pain killer
Acetyl salicylic acid
(Non-narcotic analgesic)
Correct ans is (B)
Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of chemicals known as prostaglandin's.

SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY If the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

8. The stoichiometric reaction of 516 g of dimethyldichlorosilane with water results in a tetrameric

cyclic product X in 75% yield. The weight (in g) of X obtained is___.
[Use, molar mass (g mol−1): H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Si = 28, Cl = 35.5]
Ans. (222)

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
75%
Sol. 4(CH3 ) 2 SiCl2 + 4H 2O  → (CH3 )8 Si 4O 4 + 8HCl
(X)
w = 516 g
516
n =
(moles) 129
=4

®
% yield = 75
75
The weight of X (in gram) = 296 × = 222 g
100
9. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.5 and a molar volume of 0.4 dm3 mol−1 at a temperature of
800 K and pressure x atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same temperature and pressure, the
molar volume will be y dm3 mol−1. The value of 𝐱/𝐲 is ___.
[Use: Gas constant, R = 8 × 10−2 L atm K−1 mol−1]
Ans. (100)
Sol. For gas : Z = 0.5, Vm = 0.4 L/mol
T = 800 K, P = X atm.
PVm
⇒ Z=
RT
X(0.4)
⇒ = 0.5
0.08 × 800
⇒ X = 80
For ideal gas, PVm = RT
RT 0.08 × 800
⇒ V
=m = = 0.8 L mol–1 = y
P 80
x 80
Then, = = 100.
y 0.8

10
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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1

10. The plot of log kf versus 1 for a reversible reaction A (g)  P (g) is shown.
T

log kf 0.002
1 –1
(K )
T
Pre-exponential factors for the forward and backward reactions are 1015 s−1 and 1011 s−1,
respectively. If the value of log K for the reaction at 500 K is 6, the value of | log kb | at 250 K is
______.

®
[K = equilibrium constant of the reaction
kf = rate constant of forward reaction
kb = rate constant of backward reaction]
Ans. (5)
Sol. For reaction A(g)  P(g)
−E f
log kf = + log Af [Arrhenius equation for forward reaction]
2.303RT
1
From plot when, = 0.002, log kf = 9
T
−E f
⇒ 9= (0.002) + log (Af)
2.303R
Given : Af = 1015 s–1
−E f
⇒ 9= (0.002) + 15
2.303R
Ef 6
⇒ = = 3000
2.303R 0.002
k A
Now, K = f = f e− (Ef −E b )/RT
k b Ab
1 (E f − E b )  1015 
log K =
− + log  11 
2.303 RT  10 
At 500 K
−(E f − E b )
⇒ 6= +4
500R (2.303)
⇒ (1000 R) (2.303) = Eb – Ef
⇒ (1000 R) (2.303) = Eb – 3000 (2.303 R)
⇒ Eb = 4000 R (2.303) ……… (1)
Now k b = A b e− E b /RT

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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
−E b
⇒ log kb = + log Ab
2.303RT
At 250 K
4000
⇒ log kb = – + log (1011) [From equation (1)]
250
= –16 + 11 = –5
|log kb| = 5

11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes two reversible processes (A → B and B → C) as
shown in the given figure :

A
600 V1, T1
Temperature (K)

®
V2, T2 V3, T2
60
B C

10
Volume (m3)
A → B is an adiabatic process. If the total heat absorbed in the entire process (A → B and B → C)
is RT2 ln 10, the value of 2 log V3 is _________.
5
[Use, molar heat capacity of the gas at constant pressure, Cp,m = R]
2
Ans. (7)
Sol. For A → B 600 V1γ−1 = 60V2γ−1 (γ = 5/3)
(Reversible adiabatic)
⇒ 600 (V1)2/3 = 60 (V2)2/3
2/3
V 
⇒ 10 =  2 
 V1 
2/3
V 
⇒ 10 =  2 
 10 
⇒ V2 = 10(10)3/2 = 105/2
Now, qnet = RT2 ln 10 = 60 R ln 10 = qAB + qBC
∵ qAB = 0
V
⇒ qBC = 60 R ln 10 = 60 R ln 3 [∵ B → C is reversible isothermal]
V2
 V3 
⇒ 60 R ln 10 = 60 R ln  5/2 
 10 
5
⇒ log 10 = log V3 –
2
7
⇒ log V3 = ⇒ 2 log V3 = 7
2
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 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
12. In a one-litre flask, 6 moles of A undergoes the reaction A (g)  P (g). The progress of product
formation at two temperatures (in Kelvin), T1 and T2, is shown in the figure:

[P] (mol L–1)

4 T1

2 T2

Time (h)

If T1 = 2T2 and (∆G 2Θ − ∆G1Θ ) = RT2 ln x, then the value of x is ______.

®
[ ∆G1Θ and ∆G Θ2 are standard Gibb’s free energy change for the reaction at temperatures T1 and T2,

respectively.]
Ans. (8)

Sol. At T1 K :  P(g)

A(g) 

t=0 6
t=∞ 6–x x = 4 (from plot)
4
⇒ At T1 K : K P1 = =2
2

At T2 K :  P(g)
A(g) 

t=0 6
t=∞ 6–y y = 2 (from plot)
2 1
⇒ At T2 K : K P2 = =
4 2
1
Now, ∆G o2 = –RT2 ln K P2 = – RT2 ln
2
⇒ ∆G o2 = RT2 ln 2

∆G1o = – RT1 ln K P1 = – RT1 ln 2 = – 2RT2 ln 2

Given : ∆G o2 – ∆G1o = RT2 ln 2 + 2RT2 ln 2 = 3RT2 ln 2 = RT2 ln x

⇒ x = 23 = 8

13
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
13. The total number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms in the major product P (a non-heterocyclic
compound) of the following reaction is _______.
NC CN (i) LiAlH4 (excess), then H2O
P
NC CN (ii) Acetophenone (excess)

Ans. (28)

Sol.
N≡C C≡N H2 N – CH2 CH 2 – N H2
LAH (excess) then CH
H2 O
N≡C C≡N CH

®
H2 N – H2 C CH 2 – N H2

Ph Ph CH 3–C–Ph
C= N – H2 C CH 2 – N = C
CH O
H3 C CH 3 (excess)
Ph CH Ph (Aceto phenone)
C= N – H2 C CH 2 – N = C
H3 C
(P) CH 3

Total number of sp2 hybridised C-atom in P = 28

14
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

14. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of their products
given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II

®
(P) P2O3 + 3H2O → (1) P(O)(OCH3)Cl2
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → (2) H3PO3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → (3) PH3
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → (4) POCl3
(5) H3PO4
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5 (B) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2
(C) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3 (D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5
Ans. (D)
Sol. (P) P2O3 + 3H2O → 2H3PO3
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → CH3COCl + POCl3 + HCl
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → 4Ag + 4HNO3 + H3PO4
15. Match the electronic configurations in List-I with appropriate metal complex ions in List-II and
choose the correct option.
[Atomic Number: Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Co = 27]
List-I List-II
(P) t 62g e 0g (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(Q) t 32g e 2g (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+

(R) e 2 t 32 (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(S) 4
t 2g e 2g (4) [FeCl4]–

(5) [CoCl4]2–
(A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3 (B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 5
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 1 (D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
Ans. (D)
15
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
II
Sol. 1. [Fe(H 2O)6 ]+2
WFL

II
2. [Mn(H 2O)6 ]+2
WFL

®
III
3. [Co(NH3 )6 ]+3
SFL

III
4. [Fe Cl4 ]Θ
WFL

II
5. [Co Cl4 ]–2
WFL

16
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
16. Match the reactions in List-I with the features of their products in List-II and choose the correct
option.
List-I List-II
(P) (-)-1-Bromo-2-ethylpentane aq. NaOH (1) Inversion of configuration
(single enantiomer) SN2 reaction

(Q) (-)-2-Bromopentane aq. NaOH (2) Retention of configuration

(single enantiomer) N2 reaction
S

(R) (-)-3-Bromo-3-methylhexane aq. NaOH (3) Mixture of enantiomers

(single enantiomer) SN1 reaction
(S) (4) Mixture of structural isomers
aq. NaOH
Me H Me Br

®
SN1 reaction
(Single enantiomer)
(5) Mixture of diastereomers
(A) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 3 (B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 5
(C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4 (D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 5
Ans. (B)
Sol. P → 2, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 5

(P) Br Aq. NaoH OH

* *
SN2
Retention of configuration
Br
(Q) Aq. NaoH
S N2
OH
Inversion of configuration
Br OH
(R) * Aq. NaoH +
S N1
OH
Mixture of enantiomers
Aq. NaoH
S N1
Me H Me Br Me H Me OH
+

Me H OH Me
(S) Diastereomeric mixture

17
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
17. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named reactions
mentioned in List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) Etard reaction (1) Zn −Hg, HCl
Acetophenone →
(Q) Gattermann reaction (2) (i) KMnO4 ,KOH, ∆
Toluene  →
(ii) SOCl2
(R) Gattermann-Koch reaction (3) CH3Cl
Benzene  →
anhyd. AlCl3
(S) Rosenmund reduction (4) NaNO2 /HCl
Aniline  →
273−278 K
(5) Phenol  Zn, ∆ →
(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3
(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2

®
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 2
Ans. (D)
Sol. P → 3, Q → 4, R → 5, S → 2
O
(i) Zn–Hg/HCl
Ph – C – CH3 Ph – CH2 – CH3
Acetophenone
O

CH 3 C – Cl CHO

(ii)
(i) KMnO4 , KOH / ∆ H2 Pd – BaSO4
(ii) SOCl2 Rosenmond reaction
Toluene Toluene (S)
CH 3 CHO
(iii)
CH 3 – Cl CrO2 Cl2
Etard reaction
Anhy. AlCl3 AcOAc / ∆
(P)
NH2 N2 Cl Cl
(iv)
NaNO2 / HCl Cu / HCl
Gattermann reaction
273–278 K
(Q)
OH CHO
(v)
Zn / ∆ CO / HCl
Gattermann Koch reaction
AlCl3
(R)

18
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
 FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains THREE (03) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

®
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.

1
1. Let S = (0, 1)  (1, 2)  (3, 4) and T = {0, 1, 2, 3}. Then which of the following statements is(are) true ?
(A) There are infinitely many functions from S to T
(B) There are infinitely many strictly increasing functions from S to T
(C) The number of continuous functions from S to T is at most 120
(D) Every continuous function from S to T is differentiable
Ans. (ACD)
Sol. S = (0, 1)  (1, 2)  (3, 4)
T = {0, 1, 2, 3}
Number of functions :
Each element of S have 4 choice
Let n be the number of element in set S.
Number of function = 4n

®
Here n 
 Option (A) is correct.
Option (B) is incorrect (obvious)

(C)

1 2 3

For continuous function

Each interval will have 4 choices.
 Number of continuous functions
= 4×4×4 = 64
 Option (C) is correct.
(D) Every continuous function is piecewise constant functions
 Differentiable.
Option (D) is correct.
x 2 y2
2. Let T1 and T2 be two distinct common tangents to the ellipse E :   1 and the parabola
6 3
P : y2 = 12x. Suppose that the tangent T1 touches P and E at the point A1 and A2, respectively and
the tangent T2 touches P and E at the points A4 and A3, respectively. Then which of the following
statements is(are) true?
(A) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 35 square units
(B) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 36 square units
(C) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–3, 0)
(D) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–6, 0)
Ans. (AC)

2
 A1
A2

Sol. M N
L O

A3

A4
3
y  mx 
m
C = a m + b2
2 2 2

9
 m2 = 1

®
 6m 2  3
m2
T1 & T2
y = x + 3, y = –x – 3
Cuts x-axis at (–3, 0)
A1(3, 6) A4(3, –6)
A2(–2, 1) A3(–2, –1)
A1A4 = 12, A2A3 = 2, MN = 5
1
Area = 12  2   5  [Link]
2
Ans. (A, C)
x3 5 17
3. Let f : [0, 1]  [0, 1] be the function defined by f(x) =  x 2  x  . Consider the square
3 9 36
region S = [0, 1]×[0,1]. Let G = {(x, y)S : y > f(x)} be called the green region and R ={(x, y)S :
y < f(x)} be called the red region. Let Lh = {(x, h)S : x[0, 1]} be the horizontal line drawn at a
height h [0, 1]. Then which of the following statements is(are) ture?
1 2
(A) There exists an h   ,  such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the
4 3
area of the green region below the line Lh
1 2
(B) There exists an h   ,  such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area
4 3
of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
(C) There exists an h   ,  such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the
4 3
area of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
(D) There exists an h   ,  such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area
4 3
of the green region below the line Lh
Ans. (BCD)

3
 x3 5x 17
Sol. f(x)   x2  
3 9 36
5
f '(x)  x  2x 
2

9
1
f '(x) = 0 at x = in [0, 1]
3
AR = Area of Red region
AG = Area of Green region
1 1
A R   f(x)dx 
0 2
Total area = 1
1
 AG =
2
1 1
0 f(x)dx  2

®
AG = AR
17
f(0) 
36
13
f(1)   0.36
36
 1  181
f   0.558
 3  324
1

0 1

3 1 2
(A) Correct when h = but h   , 
4 4 3
 (A) is incorrect
1
(B) Correct when h 
4
 (B) is correct
181 1 1
(C) When h  , AR  , AG 
324 2 2
13 1 1
h  , AR  , AG 
36 2 2
 13 181 
 AR = AG for some h   , 
 36 324 
 (C) is correct
(D) Option (D) is remaining coloured part of option (C), hence option (D) is also correct.

4
 SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
 1 1
4. Let f : (0, 1)  be the functions defined as f(x) = n if x   ,  where nN. Let
 n 1 n 
1 t
x
g : (0, 1)  be a function such that  dt  g(x)  2 x for all x(0, 1). Then limf (x)g(x)

®
t x 0
x2

(A) does NOT exist (B) is equal to 1

(C) is equal to 2 (D) is equal to 3
Ans. (C)
x
1 t
Sol.  t
dt. n  f(x)g(x)  2 x n
x2
x
1 t
 t
dt  sin 1 x  x 1  x  sin 1 x  x 1  x 2
x2

 sin 1 x  x 1  x  sin 1 x  x 1  x 2 2 x
 lim   f(x)g(x)  
x 0  
 x x 
 2  lim f(x)g(x)  2
x 0

 lim f(x)g(x)  2
x 0

5. Let Q be the cube with the set of vertices (x1 , x 2 , x3 )  3

: x1, x 2 , x 3{0,1} . Let F be the set of all
twelve lines containing the diagonals of the six faces of the cube Q. Let S be the set of all four lines
containing the main diagonals of the cube Q; for instance, the line passing through the vertices
(0, 0, 0) and (1, 1, 1) is in S. For lines 1 and  2, let d(1,2) denote the shortest distance between

them. Then the maximum value of d(1,2), as 1 varies over F and 2 varies over S, is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 8 3 12
Ans. (A)

5
 B(0,1,0)
E(1,1,0)
G(1,1,1)
F(0,1,1)
Sol.

A(1,0,0)
O(0,0,0)
C(0,0,1) D(1,0,1)

DR'S of OG = 1, 1, 1
DR'S of AF = –1, 1, 1
DR'S of CE = 1, 1, –1

®
DR'S of BD = 1, –1, 1
x y z
Equation of OG   
1 1 1

x 1 y z
Equation of AB   
1 1 0

Normal to both the line’s

ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 1 1  ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ
1 1 0

OA  ˆi
ˆi.(iˆ  ˆj  2k)
ˆ
1
S.D. = 
ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ 6

Ans. (A)

 x 2 y2 
6. Let X  (x, y)   :   1 and y 2  5x  . Three distinct points P, Q and R are randomly
 8 20 

chosen from X. Then the probability that P, Q and R form a triangle whose area is a positive
integer, is
71 73 79 83
(A) (B) (C) (D)
220 220 220 220

Ans. (B)
6
 x y2
Sol.   1 & y2 < 5x
8 20
Solving corresponding equations
x y2
  1 & y2 = 5x
8 20
x  2 
 
y   10 
X = {(1,1), (1,0), (1,–1), (1,2), (1,–2), (2, 3), (2,2), (2,1), (2,0), (2,–1), (2,–2), (2,–3)}

®
O

Let S be the sample space & E be the event n(S) = 12C3

For E
Selecting 3 points in which 2 points are either or x = 1 & x = 2 but distance b/w then is even
Triangles with base 2 :
= 3×7 + 5×5 = 46
Triangles with base 4 :
= 1×7 + 3×5 = 22
Triangles with base 6 :
= 1×5 = 5
46  22  5 73
P(E)  12

C3 220
Ans. (B)
7. Let P be a point on the parabola y2 = 4ax, where a > 0. The normal to the parabola at P meets the
x-axis at a point Q. The area of the triangle PFQ, where F is the focus of the parabola, is 120. If the
slope m of the normal and a are both positive integers, then the pair (a,m) is
(A) (2, 3) (B) (1, 3) (C) (2, 4) (D) (3, 4)
Ans. (A)

7
Sol. Let point P (at2, 2at)
normal at P is y = –tx + 2at + at3
y = 0, x = 2a + at2
Q(2a + at2, 0)

m = –t
F(a,0)
Q(2a+at2,0)

P(t)

®
1
Area of PFQ = a  at 2   2at   120
2
 m = –t

 a2 [1 + m2] m = 120
(a, m) = (2, 3) will satisfy

8
 SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY If the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
 
8. Let tan 1  x     ,  , for x  . Then the number of real solutions of the equation
 2 2
 3         3 
1  cos  2x   2 tan 1  tan x  in the set   ,      ,    ,  is equal to
 2 2  2 2 2 2 
Ans. (3)

®
Sol. 2 cos x  [Link] 1  tan x 
cos x  tan 1 tan x
y

y = |cosx|

x
–3/2 – –/2 0 /2  3/2
y = tan–1(tanx)

No. of solutions = 3
9. Let n  2 be a natural number and f : [0,1]  be the function defined by
 1
n(1 – 2nx) if 0  x 
2n

2n  1 3
 2nx  1 if x
f x   2n 4n
4n 1  nx  3 1
if x
 4n n
 n 1
  nx  1 if  x  1
 n 1 n
If n is such that the area of the region bounded by the curves x = 0 , x = 1 , y = 0 and y = f (x) is 4 ,
then the maximum value of the function f is
Ans. (8)

9
Sol. y

I II III
x
0 (1,0)

Area = Area of (I + II + III) = 4

1 1 1 1 1 1
   n    n  1    n
2 n 

®
2 2n 2 2n
1 1 n 1
   4
4 4 2
n 8
 maximum value of f(x) = 8
r

10. Let 75...57 denote the (r + 2) digit number where the first and the last digits are 7 and the remaining
99
98
75...57  m
r digits are 5. Consider the sum S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + …+ 75...57 . If S  , where m
n
and n are natural numbers less than 3000, then the value of m + n is
Ans. (1219)
Sol. S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + … + 75.....57
98

10S = 770 + 7570 + … + 75 … 570 + 755 ….. 570

______________________________________________
9S = –77 + 13  13  .....  13 + 7 5.....5 70
98 times 98

= –77 + 13 × 98 + 7 5.....57 + 13
99

7 5.....5 7  1210
S 99

9
m = 1210
n=9
m + n = 1219

10
 1967  1686i sin  
11. Let A   :    . If A contains exactly one positive integer n, then the value of
 7  3i cos  
n is
Ans. (281)
1967  1686i sin 
Sol. A 
7  3i cos 
281(7  6i sin ) 7  3i cos 
 
7  3i cos  7  3i cos 
281(49  18sin  cos   i(21cos   42 sin ))

49  9 cos2 
for positive integer
Im(A) = 0

®
21cos + 42sin = 0
1 4 4
tan   ; sin 2  , cos2  
2 5 5
281(49  9sin 2)
Re(A) 
49  9 cos2 
 4 
281  49  9  
  5  = 281 (+ve integer)
4
49  9 
5
12. Let P be the plane 3x  2y  3z  16 and let

 7
S  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ :  2  2   2  1 and the distance of (, ,  ) from the plane Pis
2
. 
Let u, v and w be three distinct vectors in S such that u  v  v  w  w  u . Let V be the
80
volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors u, v and w . Then the value of V is
3
Ans. (45)
Sol.
O
1 1
1
P

P
Q

Given u  v  v  w  w  u
 UVW is an equilateral 

11
 7
Now distances of U, V, W from P 
2
7
 PQ 
2
Also, Distance of plane P from origin
 OQ = 4
1
 OP = OQ – PQ  OP 
2

3
Hence, PU  OU2  OP2  PU  R
2

®
Also, for UVW, P is circumcenter
 for UVW : US = Rcos30°
 UV = 2Rcos30°
3
 UV 
2
W

P
R

30°
U V
S

2
33 9 3
 Ar(UVW)    
4 2 16

 Volume of tetrahedron with coterminous edges u, v,w

1 1 9 3 1 3 3
 (Ar.UVW)  OP    
3 3 16 2 32
parallelopiped with coterminous edges

3 3 9 3
u, v, w  6   V
32 16
80
 V  45
3

12
 4
 5 70 
13. Let a and b be two nonzero real numbers. If the coefficient of x in the expansion of  ax 2  
 27bx 
7
–5  1 
is equal to the coefficient of x is equal to the coefficient of  ax  2  , then the value of 2b is
 bx 
Ans. (3)
r
 70 
Sol. Tr 1  C r  a.x 
4r
4 2
. 
 27bx 
70 r
 4 C r .a 4r . r
.x83r
(27b)
here 8 – 3r = 5
8 – 5 = 3r  r = 1

®
70
 coeff. = 4.a 3 .
27b
r
7 r  1 
Tr 1  C r (ax)
7
 2
 bx 
r
7 r  1  73r
 C r .a
7
  .x
 b 
7 – 3r = –5  12 = 3r  r = 4
4
 1  35a 3
coeff. : 7
C 4 .a 3 .    4
 b  b
35a 3 280a 3
now 
b4 27b
35  27 3
b3   b   2b = 3
280 2

13
 SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
14. Let ,  and  be real numbers. consider the following system of linear equations

®
x + 2y + z = 7
x + z = 11
2x – 3y + z = 
Match each entry in List - I to the correct entries in List-II
List-I List-II


(P) If   (7– 3) and  = 28, then the system has (1) a unique solution
2

(Q) If   (7– 3) and   28, then the system has (2) no solution
2

(R) If   (7 –3) where  = 1 and   28, (3) infinitely many solutions
2
then the system has

(S) If   (7 – 3) where  = 1 and  = 28, (4) x = 11, y = –2 and z = 0 as a solution
2
then the system has
(5) x = –15, y = 4 and z = 0 as a solution
The correct option is :
(A) (P)  (3) (Q)  (2) (R)  (1) (S)  (4)
(B) (P)  (3) (Q)  (2) (R)  (5) (S)  (4)
(C) (P)  (2) (Q)  (1) (R)  (4) (S)  (5)
(D) (P)  (2) (Q)  (1) (R)  (1) (S)  (3)
Ans. (A)

14
Sol. Given x + 2y + z = 7 …. (1)
x + z = 11 …. (2)
2x – 3y + z =  …. (3)
1 2 1
Now,  = 1 0  = 7 – 2 – 3
2 3 
1
 if  =  7  3
2
 0
7 2 1
Now, x = 11 0 
 3 
= 21 – 22 + 2 – 33

®
 if  = 28
 x = 0
1 7 1
y = 1 11 
2  
y = 4 + 14 –  +  – 22
 if  = 28
 y = 0
1 2 7
Now,  z  1 0 11  56  2
2 3 
If  = 28
 z  0
1
 if  = 28 and  =  7  3
2
 system has infinite solution
and if   28
 system has no solution
 P  (3) ; Q  (2)
1
Now if    7  3
2
  0
and for  = 1 clearly
y = –2 is always be the solution
 if  28
System has a unique solution
if  = 28
 x = 11, y = –2 and z = 0 will be one of the solution
R1;S4
 option 'A' is correct
15
15. Consider the given data with frequency distribution
xi 3 8 11 10 5 4
fi 5 2 3 2 4 4

Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.

List-I List-II
(P) The mean of the above data is (1) 2.5
(Q) The median of the above data is (2) 5
(R) The mean deviation about the mean of the above data is (3) 6
(S) The mean deviation about the median of the above data is (4) 2.7
(5) 2.4
The correct option is :
(A) (P)  (3) (Q)  (2) (R)  (4) (S)  (5)

®
(B) (P)  (3) (Q)  (2) (R)  (1) (S)  (5)
(C) (P)  (2) (Q)  (3) (R)  (4) (S)  (1)
(D) (P)  (3) (Q)  (3) (R)  (5) (S)  (5)
Ans. (A)
Sol. xi 3 4 5 8 10 11
fi 5 4 4 2 2 3
(P) Mean
(Q) Median
(R) Mean deviation about mean
(S) Mean deviation about median
xi fi xifi C.F. |xi – Mean| fi|xi – Mean| |xi – Median| fi|xi – Median|
3 5 15 5 3 15 2 10
4 4 16 9 2 8 1 4
5 4 20 13 1 4 0 0
8 2 16 15 2 4 3 6
10 2 20 17 4 8 5 10
11 3 33 20 5 15 6 18
Sfi = 20 Sxifi = 120 Sfi|xi – Mean| = 54 Sfi|xi – Median| = 48

Sx i fi 120
(P) Mean   6
Sfi 20
th
 20 
(Q) Median    observation = 10th observation = 5
 2 
Sfi x i  Mean 54
(R) Mean deviation about mean =   2.70
Sfi 20
Sfi x i  Median 48
(S) mean deviation about median =   2.40
Sfi 20

16
16. Let 1 and 2 be the lines r1    ˆi  ˆj  kˆ  and r2   ˆj  kˆ     ˆi  kˆ  , respectively. Let X be the set of

all the planes H that contain the line 1. For a plane H, let d(H) denote the smallest possible distance

between the points of 2 and H. Let H0 be plane in X for which d(H0) is the maximum value of d(H)

as H varies over all planes in X.

Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The value of d(H0) is (1) 3
1
(Q) The distance of the point (0,1,2) from H0 is (2)
3

®
(R) The distance of origin from H0 is (3) 0
(S) The distance of origin from the point of intersection (4) 2
of planes y = z, x = 1 and H0 is
1
(5)
2
The correct option is :
(A) (P)  (2) (Q)  (4) (R)  (5) (S)  (1)
(B) (P)  (5) (Q)  (4) (R)  (3) (S)  (1)
(C) (P)  (2) (Q)  (1) (R)  (3) (S)  (2)
(D) (P)  (5) (Q)  (1) (R)  (4) (S)  (2)
Ans. (B)
Ans. ( )
Sol. L1 : r1    ˆi  ˆj  kˆ 

L2 : r2  ˆj  kˆ    ˆi  kˆ 
Let system of planes are
ax + by + cz = 0 …. (1)
 It contain L1

a+b+c=0 …. (2)
For largest possible distance between plane (1) and L2 the line L2 must be parallel to plane (1)
a+c=0 …. (3)
 b0

 Plane H0 : x  z  0
17
 Now d(H0) =  distance from point (0, 1, –1) on L2 to plane.
0 1 1
 d  H0   
2 2

P5
2
for 'Q' distance =  2
2

Q4
 (0, 0, 0) lies on plane
R3
for 'S' x = z ; y = z ; x = 1

®
 point of intersection p(1, 1, 1).

 OP  1  1  1  3
S2
 option [B] is correct

17. Let z be complex number satisfying | z |3 2z 2  4z  8  0 , where z denotes the complex conjugate
of z. Let the imaginary part of z be nonzero.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) | z |2 is equal to (1) 12

(Q) | z – z |2 is equal to (2) 4

(R) | z |2  | z  z |2 is equal to (3) 8

(S) | z  1|2 is equal to (4) 10

(5) 7
The correct option is :
(A) (P)  (1) (Q)  (3) (R)  (5) (S)  (4)
(B) (P)  (2) (Q)  (1) (R)  (3) (S)  (5)
(C) (P)  (2) (Q)  (4) (R)  (5) (S)  (1)
(D) (P)  (2) (Q)  (3) (R)  (5) (S)  (4)
Ans. (B)

18
 3
Sol. z  2z 2  4z  8  0 …. (1)
Take conjugate both sides
3
 z  2z 2  4z  8  0 …. (2)
By (1) – (2)
 2  z2  z 2   4  z  z   0
 zz 2 …. (3)
 zz 2 …. (4)
Let z = x + iy
 x 1  z = 1 + iy
Put in (1)
 (1 + y2)3/2 + 2(1 – y2 + 2iy) + 4(1 – iy) – 8 = 0

®
 (1 + y2)3/2 = 2(1 + y2)
 1  y2  2  z

Also y   3

 z  1 i 3
 z  z  2i 3
 zz  2 3
2
 z  z  12
Now z + 1 = 2 + i 3
|z + 1|2 = 4 + 3 = 7
P2;Q1;R3;S5
 Option [B] is correct.

19