CS EXECUTIVE JUNE 2024

JIGL
QUESTION
BOOK
This book contains all the previous year’s
papers and are relevant for June 2024.

Adv Chirag Chotrani

 CHAPTER 1
SOURCES OF LAW

JUNE 2019
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
Critically examine Roscoe Pound's theory of interests,

DECEMBER 2019
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
Discuss the doctrine of `stare decisis’, under the sources of law.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
`Justice, Equity and Good conscience is the main secondary source of
Indian law. Explain it.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[1] (c) [5 marks]

Natural law says that certain rights are inherent by virtue of human nature
and can be understood universally through human reason. Explain.

Q.[4] (b) [4 marks]

What are the essential conditions of a valid custom? Discuss. Explain any four.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Define the concept of Kelson's 'Pure Theory of Law' under Analytical School.

Q.[5] (b) [8 marks]

"All customs cannot be accepted as sources of law, nor can all customs be
recognized and enforced by the courts." Discuss the essential tests for
customs to be recognized as valid sources of law.

Q.[6] (d) [4 marks]

Describe Austin's "Command Theory of Law" under analytical school

JUNE 2021
NO QUESTION
JUNE 2022
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
The sovereign power of making laws should be wielded, not to
guarantee the selfish desires of individuals, but consciously
to secure the common good. Critically examine this statement
of Bentham.

Q.[2] (c) [4 marks]

How ratio decidendi differs from Orbiter dicta ?

Q.[3](a) [4 marks]
Define and distinguish between declaratory and persuasive
precedents.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
The Charters of the several High Courts established by the British
Government has laid down the rule to decide a case where the law on a
matter is silent. Explain with the help of Supreme Court of India's view in
similar situation.

JUNE 2023
Q.[2] (a) [4 marks]
Distinguish between Ratio decidendi and Obiter dicta. What are the rules
governing binding force of judicial precedents? Discuss.

Q.[6A] (iv)[4 marks]

According to Kelsen, law is a "normative science". Explain.

DECEMBER 2023

Q.[2] (a) [4 marks]

The modern Indian law as administered in courts is derived from various
sources and these sources fall under two heads i.e. Primary Sources and
Secondary Sources. Judicial precedents are considered as primary source
of Indian laws. What do you mean by Judicial Precedents ?
Read the following statements. Determine and explain what kind of
precedent it is:
(i)"Vishaka guidelines" were stipulated by the Supreme Court of India, in
Vishaka and others v. State of Rajasthan case in 1997, regarding
prevention of sexual harassment at workplace. They acted as precedent
for many cases during 1997-2013 until Protection of Women from Sexual
Harassment Act, 2013 was enacted.
(ii) The decision of one High Court may not be binding on other High
Court. But the decisions can give a principle which may be helpful for the
other High Court. The other High Court may or may not follow the principle
of the decision.
 CHAPTER 2
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

JUNE 2019
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Explain the freedom of association under the Constitution
of India. What reasonable restrictions have been imposed
on this freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution of
India?

Q.[5] (b)[8 marks]

Article 14 of the Constitution of India says that state shall
not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of laws within the territory of India. Explain it.
Refer the relevant Judgements.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Rajasthan Legislature passed a law restricting the use of sound
amplifiers. The law was challenged on the ground that it deals
with a matter which falls in entry 81 of List-I under the
Constitution of India which reads:
"Post and telegraphs, telephones, wireless broadcasting and
other like forms of communication" and therefore, the State
Legislature was not competent to pass it. Examine the
proposition in the light of "Pith and Substance Rule" referring the
case law on this point.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Discuss the "Doctrine of Eclipse" under the Constitution of India.

Q.5] (b) [8marks]

Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India provides that all citizens shall
have the right to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation,
trade or Business. Explain.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]

Vijay, an accused, committed an offence of dacoity in 2015. At that time
dacoity was punishable with imprisonment of 10 years. In 2016 during his
trial, a law was passed which made dacoity punishable with life
imprisonment. Which penalty would be applicable on accused Vijay'?
Discuss the answer with reference to Article 20(1) of the Indian
Constitution.
Q.[4] (c) [5 marks]
"Any law which is inconsistent with the fundamental rights is void 'to the
extent of inconsistency' and it is not necessary to strike down the whole
Act as invalid, if only a part is invalid." Discuss.

Q.[5] (b) [8 marks]

"Under the Indian Constitution, Parliament is empowered to make law
even on the subjects enumerated in the State List". Discuss the power of
Parliament to make Laws on State List.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
Briefly describe the Fundamental Rights against exploitation under
Constitution of India.

Q.[6] (a) [4 marks]

"Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunity to all
citizens of India in matters related to public employment. However, there
are certain exceptions of the Article 16". Explain the reservation policy in
India.

JUNE 2022
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Examine how far the essentials of federal polity is incorporated in Indian
Constitution.

Q.[5] (b) [8 marks]

Discuss the fundamental duties as enumerated in Article 51A of the
Constitution of India. Can it be enforced through writs? Give reasons.

Q. [1] (c) [5 marks]

'A' a state in the Union of India made provisions for district-wise
distribution of seats in state medical colleges on the basis of population
of a district to the population of the state. Decide the validity of this
classification with the help of relevant case law.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]
Explain the test laid down by the Supreme Court of India for determining
whether an entity is an instrumentality or agency of the state.

Q.[3] (d) [4 marks]

State the justifiable grounds for Parliament and State Legislature to pass
law of preventive detention and briefly explain safeguards against such
preventive detention laws.
JUNE 2023

Q.[1] (b) [5 marks]

"Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall
be free." Critically examine this statement with reference to Indian
Constitution.

Q.[6A] (iii) [4 marks]

Discuss the principle of protection against compulsion of self-
incrimination embodies Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India with the
help of judicial decisions.

DECEMBER 2023

Q.[4] (c) [5 marks]

In the latest decision, Supreme Court of India in the case Satender Kumar
Anil vs. Central Bureau of Investigation and Ors (2022) took note of the
continuous seeking bail after filing final report on a wrong interpretation
of Section 170 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) and thus made
an endeavor to categorize the types of offenses to be used as guidelines
for the future. It issued directions for the investigating agencies and also
for the courts, however it cleared that these directions may be subject to
State amendments. Is right to bail is on touchstone of Article 21 of Indian
Constitution? State the direction issued under this case.
 CHAPTER 3
INTERPRETATION OF STATUTES

JUNE 2019
Q.[2A] (iv)[4 marks]
Explain the "Rule of Beneficial Construction".

Q. [4] (c)[4 marks]

Explain the rule of 'Ejusdem Generis' under the Interpretation of statute.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Describe the "Rule of Reasonable Construction" under the
Interpretation of Statutes.

Q . [ 2 ] ( a ) [ 4 m a r k s ]
Explain the role of 'Preamble' as internal aid in interpretation of
statute. Though the preamble cannot be used to defect the
enacting clause of a statute, it has been treated to be a key for
the interpretation of the statute. Examine.

Q.[2A] (i)[4 marks]

Briefly explain the "Purposive Rule of Interpretation' under the
General Clauses Act, 1897.

Q. [6] (d)[4 marks]

Where any central legislation or any regulation enacted after the
commencement of the General Clauses Act, 1897 repeals any Act,
what shall not be affected by such repeal?

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Explain the "Purposive Rule" of Interpretation, under the General Clauses Act,
1897.

Q.[4] (d) [4 marks]

Explain the rule of 'Expressio Unis Est Exclusio Alterius under Interpretation of
statutes.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q. [2A] (i) [4 marks]

Discuss the aim and objects of the General Clauses Act, 1897.

Q.[2] (d) [4 marks]

Discuss the importance of 'Illustrations' for interpretation of statutes.
Q. [4] (d) [4 marks]
If the intention of the legislature is not clear, there are number of
presumptions. Explain any four presumptions.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[1] (c) [5 marks]
Describe the role of 'interpretation or definition clause' in statutes.

Q.[2A] (iv) [5 marks]

Explain the provision as to offences punishable under two or more
enactments under Section 26 of the General Clauses Act,1897.

Q.[6] (c) [4 marks]

Discuss the Rule of Harmonious Construction for the interpretation of
statutes.

Q.[6A] (i) [4 marks]

What are 'External Aids' in the interpretation of statutes? Briefly
describe any two external aids in the interpretation of statutes.

JUNE 2022
Q.[2] (b) [4 marks]
Discuss the provision as to offences punishable under two or more
enactments as stated under Section 26 of the General Clauses Act, 1897.

Q.[6] (a) [4 marks]

The rule of Ejusdem generis must be applied with great caution.
Critically examine the merits and demerits of this rule.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Discuss the effect of repeal under Section 6 of General Clauses Act,
1897.

Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]

In the interpretation of a statute a Judge must not alter the material of
which it is woven, but he can and should iron out the creases.
Comment.

Q.[4] (b) [4 marks]

Explain the provisions applicable to making of rules or Dye-laws after
previous publication under Section 23 of General Clauses Act.

Q.[5] (b) [8 marks]

What is presumption? When is it needed and not needed for
interpretation?
JUNE 2023

Q.[2] (b) [4marks]

Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be
reconciled, they should be so interpreted that, if possible, the effect
may be given to both. Explain this statement.

Q.[2] (c) [4marks]

If the date of enactment is not specified under the legislation, when
does it come into force? Cite the relevant provision of the General
Clauses Act, 1897.

Q.[6A] (ii) [4marks]

Explain the object of interpretation. What is the function of the
court in interpretation?

DECEMBER 2023
Q[6A] (i) [5 marks]
What principle of statutory interpretation shall be applied by the Courts
when there is conflict between General provision and Special provision?

Q.[6A] (iii) [5 marks]

'A custom will be valid and will have binding force, only if it fulfills certain
essential conditions.' Elucidate.
 CHAPTER 4
ADMINISTRATIVE LAWS

JUNE 2019
Q.[6] (a)[4 marks]
Explain in brief doctrine of 'Nemo Judex in Causa Sua'.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[2A](ii) [4 marks]
Enumerate in short the exceptional circumstances of the application of
natural justice under Administrative Law.

Q. [3] (d) [4 marks]

Judicial review is the authority of Courts to declare void the acts of the
legislature and executive, if they are found in violation of provisions of
the Constitution. Comment.

Q.[6A](ii)[4 marks]
Under what circumstances the decision exercised by administrative
authorities are treated as abuse of discretion? Explain any four.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[4] (c) [4 marks]
What are the principal sources of Administrative Law in India? Explain in
brief.

Q . [ 6 A ] ( i v ) [ 4 m a r k s ]
Explain the rule of 'nemo index in causa sua' under Administrative Law.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q. [1] (a) [5 marks]

Discuss the main feature of Statutory Corporation under Administrative
Law.

Q.[6] (a) [4 marks]

Administrative law is the by-product of over increasing functions of the
Governments. Now, States have no longer policies limited to maintaining
internal order and external threats. Examine.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[2] (c) [4 marks]
Define the rule against bias under Administrative Law and also discuss
its kinds.
.
 JUNE 2022
Q.[6] (b) [4 marks]
Examine the necessity of administrative discretion.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2] (d) [4 marks]
The biggest check over administrative action is the power of judicial
review. Elaborate.

Q.[4] (d) [4 marks]

Do you consider that there is no antithesis between effective government
and controlling the exercise of administrative powers?

JUNE 2023
Q.[2A] (i) [4 marks]
"A judge is supposed to be indifferent to the parties to the
controversy. He cannot act as a judge of a case in which he himself
has some interest either pecuniary or otherwise as it affords the
strongest proof against neutrality." Elucidate.

DECEMBER 2023
Q[6A] (ii) [5 marks]
'No law can clothe administrative action with a complete finality even if the
law says so, for the courts always examine the ambit and even the mode of
its exercise to check its conformity with fundamental rights.' In the light of
the statement discuss the judicial review at the stage of exercise of
administrative discretion.
 CHAPTER 5
LAW OF TORTS

JUNE 2019
Q.[4] (b)[4 marks]
Discuss the vicarious or tortious liability of state for the act
of his servant. Refer relevant Judgements.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]
Discuss briefly "Malicious Prosecution" and its essential elements
under the law relating to Torts.

Q. [6A] (i) [4 marks]

Anil and Amit are two partners of a firm. Anil, while ordinarily
dealing with another firm, bribed that firm's clerk to divulge
secret relating to the other firm where that clerk was working. In
this case, who shall be liable- whether both the Partners i.e. Anil
and Amit or only Anil? Explain.

Q.[2A) (iv) [4 marks]

Discuss any four Extra Judicial Remedies under Law of Torts.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[2A] (iv) [4 marks]
Discuss any four Extra Judicial Remedies under Law of Torts.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q. [2] (b) [4 marks]
"To constitute a tort, there must be a wrongful act and legal damages".
Explain.

Q.[6] (b) [4 marks]

The managing clerk of a firm of solicitors, while acting in the ordinary
course of business committed fraud, against a lady client by
fraudulently inducing her to sign documents transferring her property to
him. He had done so without the knowledge of his Principal. Explain
whether the Principal will be liable?

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Explain the liability of master for the act of his servant under the law of
torts.

Q . [ 2 A ] ( i ) [ 4 m a r k s ]
Explain the Latin maxims damnum sine injuria' and 'injuria sine damnum'.
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Explain the liability of master for the act of his servant under the
l a w o f t o r t s . Q . [ 2 A ] ( i ) [ 4 m a r k s ] E x p l a i n t h e L a t i n m a x i m s d a m n u m
sine injuria' and 'injuria sine damnum'.

JUNE 2022
Q.[2] (a) [4 marks]
Explain the exceptions to the rule of strict liability under Law of
Torts.

Q[5] (a) [8 marks]

Critically examine the applicability of liability rule in the tort
applied in cases of enterprises engaged in a hazardous industry
in India.
DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2A] (i) [4 marks]
State the remedies available in tort other than an action for
unliquidated damages.

Q.[6] (c) [4 marks]

Explain with suitable examples that legal damage is neither
identical with actual damage nor is it necessarily pecuniary.

JUNE 2023
Q.[1] (c) [5 marks]
Discuss the position of vicarious liability of an employer for an
independent contractor. What are the conditions when an employer
is liable and when he is not liable.

DECEMBER 2023
Q[3] (c) [5 marks]
John who had his account in a private bank went to bank to deposit the
cash. While he was entering into the bank alongside cash box of the
bank was also being carried inside, the security guard in a haste ended
up firing John thereby killing him. Mrs. Maria, wife of Mr. John claims
that bank is vicariously accountable for the incidence, but the bank
argues that it had not given the permission to employee to fire. Is the
argument of bank correct? Decide.
 CHAPTER 6
LAW RELATING TO CIVIL PROCEDURE

JUNE 2019
Q.[3] (c)[4 marks]
The Civil Court has power to grant temporary injunction,
but for obtaining the same the plaintiff is required to
satisfy the Court. Explain in brief.

Q.[4] (d) [4 marks]

'Explain provisions of summary procedure' including leave
to defend under Civil Procedure Code.

Q.[6] (b) [4 marks]

Explain the difference if any, in between 'Res Judicata' and
'Res Sub-Judice'.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]
What do you understand by 'set off' and 'counter-claim' under the
Civil Procedure Code, 1908? What is the effect of set-off?

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[2A] (ii) [4 marks]
How 'Decree' is defined under Section 2(2) of the Civil Procedure Code,
1908 and mention essentials of a Decree.

Q.[5] (a) [8 marks]

Elaborate the provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 regarding suits
by or against minors and what will be the impact after minor attains
the age of majority?

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q. [2] (a) [4 marks]
Whether in case of consent and compromise decree in between parties,
principle of Res Judicata shall apply? Discuss.

Q.[6] (d)[4 marks]

What is Temporary injunction under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
Under what circumstances can it be granted? Discuss.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[2] (a) [4 marks]
Discuss the provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 which prevents
multiplicity of suits in respect of same cause of action.
Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]
It is well settled law that for grant of temporary injunction, three
factors have to be satisfied, which are prima facie case, balance of
convenience and irreparable loss. Discuss.

Q.[6A] (iv) [4 marks]

Discuss the provisions relating to place of suing under section 16 of
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

JUNE 2022
Q.[2A] (iii) [4 marks]
Discuss the remedies available to the defendant when an ex-
parte decree is passed against him.

Q.[6A] (iii)[4 marks]

Which are the cases relating to property that can be instituted
under Section 16 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908? State the
limitations, if any.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[1] (c)[5 marks]
Explain substituted mode of service of summons and its effect.

Q.[6] (d)[4 marks]

Explain the limitations under Civil Procedure Code that every suit
shall be instituted in a court within the local limit of whose
jurisdiction the defendant actually resides or carries on business.

JUNE 2023
Q.[2A](ii) [4 marks]
"Reference and Review are various remedies provided under the
Civil Procedure Code, 1908 to cater to different situations." Explain.

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[5] (c) [5 marks]
Referring to Civil Procedure Code, 1908, answer the following:
(i) Can a case triable by Special Judge as provided under Criminal
Law Amendment Act, 1952 be transferred to High Court? Discuss.
(ii) Discuss the jurisdiction of Courts depending upon their powers

Q.[6A] (iv) [5 marks]

'In civil suits sometimes Court allows the defendants claims to set-
off against the plaintiff demand any ascertained sum of money
legally recoverable by him from plaintiff. In light of the statement
discuss whether in India distinction between Legal and Equitable
set-off is recognized?
 CHAPTER 7
LAW RELATING TO CRIME AND ITS PROCEDURE

JUNE 2019
Q.[2] (a)[4 marks]
Distinguish between cognizable and non-cognizable offence under the
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[2] (b)[4 marks]
Enumerate any four categories of cases in which a police officer may
arrest a person without an order from magistrate and without a warrant
under section 41 of Cr.P.C., 1973.

Q.[3] (b) [4 marks]

Describe in brief the cases in which a Search Warrant can be issued under
Section 93 in the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Q.[5] (a) [8 marks]

Discuss the provisions relating to information to the police and their
power to investigate in cognizable and non-cognizable cases under the
Criminal Procedure Code 1973.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[1] (c) [4 marks]
Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 enumerates the different
categories of cases in which a police officer may arrest a person without
an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant. Explain any five
Categories of such cases.

Q. [6A] (iii) [4 marks]

Define 'Complaint' under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[2A] (iv) [4 marks]

Explain the requisites of a 'warrant of arrest'. What is the time limit within
which the police officer should bring the person arrested before the court.

Q.[6A] (ii)[4 marks]

Discuss the power to issue order is urgent cases of nuisance or
apprehended danger under section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code,
1973.
DECEMBER 2021
Q.[2] (b) [4 marks]
The Parliament passed many laws in the interest of public safety and social
welfare. It imposes absolute liability in Criminal Law. Elaborate.

Q.[2] (d) [4 marks]

Explain the procedure given in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 for
publication of proclamation regarding absconding persons.

Q.[6A] (iii) [4 marks]

Discuss the power under section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger.

JUNE 2022
2022 June [1] (d) [5 marks]
Discuss in brief the power of the court to try offences under Indian Penal
Code and any other law as laid down in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Q.[2A] (ii) [4 marks]

What are the duties of a police officer while making an arrest under
Section 41B and the right of an arrested person under Section 41D of
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

Q.[3] (c) [4 marks]

Explain the conditional order for removal of nuisance issued by
executive magistrate under Section 133 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Q.[6] (c)[4 marks]

Companies can no longer claim immunity from criminal liability on the
ground that they are incapable of possessing the necessary mens rea
for commission of offences. Critically examine.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2A] (ii) [4 marks]
What are the remedies under Criminal Procedure Code, where a warrant
remains unexecuted?

Q.[6] (b)[4 marks]

Discuss the grounds under which the Court at the time of passing sentence
on accused person, order him to execute a bond for keeping peace to such
period and when such a bond so executed shall become void ?

Q.[6A] (i) [4 marks]

The classical view of that 'no mens rea, no crime' has long been eroded.
Elaborate.
JUNE 2023
Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]
What are the objects of summary trials under Criminal Procedure
Code, 1973? State any four offences which may be summarily tried.

Q.[4] (d)[4 marks]

Discuss how an arrest should be made under Section 46 of the
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Q.[6] (a)[4 marks]

What are the public nuisances against which conditional order for
removal can be made under Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure
Code, 1973?

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[1] The Principal of a convent school, Agartala, Sister Mary Fernandez,
filed a case against two persons named, Ali Kehtan and John Augustine
alleging that they had made defamatory remarks in the complaint which
they had submitted to the Deputy Commissioner, Agartala. The accused
stated in the complaint "that the building of the aforesaid school is
quite unsafe and it may bring about any disaster upon the students of
this school at any time; that it as a money minting institution; that the
indiscipline among the students is to an unlimited extent and this has
created a great problem for the nearby residents. That it appears that
this school has become a meeting place for the both sexes and the
principal, Sister Mary Fernandez is turning a deaf ear towards the
character of the students; that if these are not checked in time, they
may become a great problem for the city".

In an enquiry before the Sub Divisional Magistrate (SDM), the allegations

of the accused were found to be false and their complaint was
dismissed. Consequently, Sister Mary Fernandez approaches police
station to file criminal defamation case against the accused persons.
Police registers a case of defamation, a bailable offence against Ali
Kehtan and John Augustine, who later files an application in Court
asking for anticipatory bail, Sister Mary Fernandez also files. civil suits
seeking compensation for defamation. In the reference of above facts
answer the following questions:
(a) What is criminal defamation in Indian law?[4 marks]
(b) Is the application for 'anticipatory bail' by accused Ali Kehtan and
John Augustine maintainable? Explain.[4 marks]
(c) Whether the complaint filed by the Ali Kehtan and John Augustine
against Sister Mary Fernandez leads to Libel defamation or Slander
defamation? Explain.[3 marks]
(d) What is the jurisdiction of the Court to try civil suit 'where wrong
done to the person'?[3 marks]
(e) What is 'publication of defamatory words'?[3 marks]
(f) What is the time period of limitation for compensation in
defamation?[3 marks]
Q.[3] (b) [5 marks]
The Government has notified an order under an appropriate Statue
in the month of September, 2022 that no one shall buy or sell a
particular explosive chemical except under license obtained by the
specified authority. Tarun applied in October 2022 and has
obtained a license to buy it and was keenly looking for person who
had license to sell it. Brju who has no license to sell, represents to
Tarun that he has license to sell and induces Tarun to enter into a
contract for the sale of a certain quantity of explosive chemical. On
January 12, 2023 Tarun pays Brju 50,000 as earnest money. After
few days Tarun learns through one of friend that Brju has no license
to sell. Tarun gives a call to Brju to find the truth, Brju convinces
Tarun that he shall obtain the license within reasonable time i.e.
before due date of delivery but he failed to obtain it. Can Tarun
recover advance payment paid to Brju? Answer with reasons and
legal provisions.
 CHAPTER 8
LAW RELATING TO EVIDENCE

JUNE 2019
Q.[1] (c) [5 marks]
The 'Privileged Communications' are based on Public Policy and
a witness cannot be compelled to answer the same during the
evidence in the Court or before any other authority. Explain in
brief.

Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]

'Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is
irrelevant. Explain briefly.

Q.[6A] (i)[4 marks]

Opinion of experts under section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[4] (b) [4 marks]
Explain the special provisions as to Evidence relating to Electronic
Record under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[6] (a) [4 marks]
Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the term
'Evidence'. Explain it.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]
When the opinion of any person is relevant except experts under
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

Q.[6A] (iii) [4 marks]

Extra-Judicial confession was made before a witness who was a
close relative of accused and the testamony of said witness was
reliable and truthful. Examine the relevancy of this confession.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[6A] (ii) [4 marks]
What is Professional Communications? In a case Ramesh, a client,
says to Ashwin, his Advocate, "I stole a bike and I whish you to
defend me" Ashwin refused to plead his case. Later on Ashwin gives
evidence against Ramesh about this communication. Is this
communication protected from disclosure under the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872? Explain.
Q.[3](b)[4 marks]
'A' is accused of the murder of 'B' by beating him. Discuss the rule
of relevancy of fact of the statement said or done by 'A' or, 'B' or
the bystanders at the beating, or so shortly before or after it.

JUNE 2022
Q.[6A](i)[4 marks]
How far confession differs from admission as defined in Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?

Q.[6A] (iv)[4 marks]

State the physical and psychological fact with suitable examples
as enumerated in Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2] (b) [4 marks]
Oral evidence must be direct in all cases. Explain this statement.

Q.[6A] (ii)[4 marks]

All facts logically relevant are not legally relevant .Narrate.

JUNE 2023
Q.[1] (a) [5 marks]
The students of Patra University appeared in an examination under
a special scheme, and their results were declared but the degree of
successful students was not issued as the University decided to
further examine the students on the additional subject. Can the
University do so? Discuss the relevant rule of evidence.

Q.[6] (c) [4marks]

"Every confession must be an admission but every admission may
not amount to a confession." Examine this statement.
 CHAPTER 9
LAW RELATING TO SPECIFIC RELIEF

JUNE 2019
Q.[6] [3 marks]
Distinguish between the following:
(b) Specific performance and Injunction.

Q.[6A] (v) [3 marks]

Against whom specific performance of a contract may be
enforced under the Specific Relief Act, 1963? Explain.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[6A] (Or) (iii) [3 marks]
What are the contracts which cannot be specifically enforced
under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[6] (e) [3 marks]
Describe the contracts which cannot be specifically enforced under
Specific Relief Act, 1963.

Q.[6A] (iv)[3 marks]

Enumerate the circumstances in which perpetual injunction can be
granted under Specific Relief Act, 1963.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[6A](iv)[3 marks]
When perpetual injunction may be granted under the Specific Relief
Act, 1963?

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[6A] (ii)
Against whom the specific performance of a contract cannot be
enforced under The Specific Relief Act, 1963. (3 marks)
 CHAPTER 10
LAW RELATING TO LIMITATION
 CHAPTER 11
LAW RELATING TO ARBITRATION AND
CONCILIATION

JUNE 2019
Q.[2] (b) [4 marks]
Distinguish between Arbitration and Conciliation under the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996.

[6] (d) [4 marks]

Explain the provisions for obtaining interim relief from Court, when there
exists arbitration agreement among parties.

Q.[6A] (iv) [4 marks]

Explain the basic features of Arbitral Award under the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[1] (c) [5 marks]
Describe "Arbitration Agreement" specified under Section 7 of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Q.[6] (b) [4 marks]

Under the circumstances and arbitral award may be set aside by the
Court under the provisions of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, Explain any
four.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[3] (c)[4 marks]
State the provisions of Section 25 in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
regarding default of a party. Answer: (4 marks

Q.[6A] (Or) (ii) [4 marks]

Elaborate the provisions of Section 32 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 regarding the termination of arbitral proceedings

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[3] (b)[4 marks]
Explain the interim measures of protection for which a party during the
arbitral proceedings may apply to the arbitral tribunal under section 17(1)
of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Q.[6A] (iv)[4 marks]

What are the ways in which arbitral proceeding is terminated under the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996? Explain.
DECEMBER 2021
Q.[3] (d) [4 marks]
"Alternative Dispute Resolution is not an alternative to the court
system but only meant to supplement the same aiming on less
lawyering". Comment.

JUNE 2022
Q.[6A] (ii) [4 marks]
State the form and contents of Arbitral award.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2A] (iii)[4 marks]
The enforcement of Foreign Award is subject to certain conditions.
Explain this statement.

[6A] (iv) [4 marks]

State the reason and purpose of Arbitration and Conciliation
(Amendment) Act, 2015 passed by the Parliament. (4 marks)

JUNE 2023
Q.[1] (d) [5 marks]
Throw light on the role of a Conciliator in a Conciliation Proceeding
under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In what manner a
Conciliation Proceeding may be terminated?

Q.[6] (d) [4 marks]

Briefly state the essential features of an Arbitral Award under the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[4A] (i) [5 marks]
Explain the grounds for setting aside of an Arbitral Award under the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Q.[5] (b) [5 marks]

What is the procedure for the commencement of conciliation
proceedings under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996? How
many conciliators can be there in these proceedings?
 CHAPTER 12
INDIAN STAMP LAW

JUNE 2019
Q.[2A] (ii) [4marks]
Distinguish between executed and execution under Indian Stamp Act,
1899.

Q.[6A] (ii) [4marks]

A promissory note is executed by Suresh and Udit and stamp is
afterwards affixed and cancelled by Suresh by again signing Explain
whether the provisions of section 17 relating to time of stamping
instruments have been complied with?

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[3] (c) [4 marks]
What is the extent of liability of instruments to stamp duty where several
instruments are executed in a single transaction? Explain with any one
illustration.

Q.[6] (c) [4 marks]

Name of the officers of the Company who can be held liable in case the
Company has issued share warrant without proper stamp duty. What
shall be the penalty as prescribed under Sec. 62(2) of the Stamp Act.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[2] (d) [4 marks]
Explain the terms 'Patta' and 'Kabuliyat', under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.
4 marks

Q.[6A](i) [4 marks]
Describe the concept of 'E-Stamping' under Indian Stamp Act, 1899.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[2] (c)[4 marks]
Explain the term "Receipt" under the Indian Stamp Act, 1889.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[4] (d)[4 marks]
Discuss the instruments which are Chargeable with duty under section 3 of
the Indian Stamp Act, 1889.
 JUNE 2022
Q.[4] (b)[4 marks]
It is the substance of the transaction as contained in the
instrument that determines the stamp duty, Elucidate.
DECEMBER 2022
Q.[2A] (iv)[4 marks ]
Explain the time limit set up under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 for
making an application for relief in respect of impressed spoiled
stamps.

Q.[4] (c) [4 marks]

Explain the difference between the powers of the Collector under
Section 39 and the powers of the Controlling Revenue Authority
under Section 45 of Indian Stamp Act, 1899.

JUNE 2023
Q.[3] (b)[4 marks]
What are the benefits of E-stamping? How do we verify e-stamping?

Q.[5] (b) [8 marks]

What instruments may be stamped with adhesive? Why and how
affixed stamps are cancelled as per the Indian Stamp Act, 1899?

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[4A] (ii)[5 marks]
Explain the concept and verification of e-stamping.

Q.6] (c) [5 marks]

A promissory note is executed by Raja and Suraj and a stamp is
afterwards affixed and cancelled by Raja by again signing it, the
stamping has taken place subsequent to the execution. In this
case, are the provisions of Indian Stamp Act, 1899 complied?
 CHAPTER 13
LAW RELATING TO REGISTRATION OF
DOCUMENTS

JUNE 2019
Q.[6A](iii)[4 marks]
Explain the documents of which registration is optional under the
Registration Act, 1908.

Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]

Yash signed a deed of gift in favour of Raja. If Yash does not agree to its
registration, will the gift deed be registered? Explain, whether delay in
registration of a gift deed will postpone its operation?

Q.[5] (d) [ 4marks]

Sachin made an unconditional gift of property to Amit but continued in
possession of gifted property. Sachin revoked the gift deed transferred it
to Naresh. Amit wants to recover possession from Naresh. Discuss it in the
light of provisions of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 whether Naresh can
withhold the gifted property?

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[4] (c)[4 marks]
State at least four instruments which are exempted from the provisions
of Section 17(1) of the Registration Act, 1908.

Q.[5] (c)[4 marks]

A and B are litigating in a count of law over property X and during the
pendency of the suit, A transfers the property X to C. The suit ends in B's
favour. Decide, who shall be entitled for property X under the provisions
of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882? [CSEP M-II]

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020

Q.[3] (d) [4 marks]

"Section 32 of the Registration Act, 1908 specifies the persons who
can present documents for registration". Narrate them.

Q.[6A] (ii)[3 marks]

Right conferred by Section 53-A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
is available to defend and to protect possession but does not
create any title? Comment. [CSEP M-II]
 CHAPTER 14
RIGHT TO INFORMATION

JUNE 2019
Q.[3] (b) [4 marks]
Explain the provisions for appeal under the Right to Information Act,
2005.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[4] (d) [4 marks]
Explain any four categories of 'information' which have been
exempted from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[3] (a) [4 marks]
State any four obligations of Public Authority prescribed.

Q.[6] (d) [4 marks]

Section 20 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 deals with the penalties
imposed on a Public Information Officer (PIO). Explain.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[3] (d)[4 marks]
In R. P. Ltd. Vs. Indian Express Newspapers, the Supreme Court read into
Article 21 the right to know. Discuss how right to know is related to Right
to Information under The Right of Information Act, 2005.
DECEMBER 2021
Q.[5] (a) [8marks]
Discuss the term of office and conditions of service of Chief Information
Commissioner and Information Commissioner under the Right to
Information Act, 2005.

JUNE 2022
Q.[4] (a)[4 marks]
State the acts for which Public Information Officer may be punished
under Section 20 of Right to Information Act, 2005.

Q.[4] (d) [4 marks]

State the types of information, other than those exempted
information in Section 8, a public authority is not under an obligation
to furnish to an applicant under Right to Information Act, 2005.
JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[3] (c)[4 marks]

Who can present documents for registration at the proper registration
office under the Registration Act, 1908? Explain.

Q.[5] (b)[4 marks]

A contract for the sale of land has been entered into between Vishal
and Akash. Akash, the transferee, has paid the price entering into
possession and is willing to carry out his contractual obligations. As
registration has not been effected Vishal, the transferor, seeks to evict
Akash from the land. Whether Vishal can do so? Give reasons in support
of your answer [CSEP M-II]

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]
What is the object of registration of documents under Registration Act,
1908?

Q.[5] (d)[4 marks]

A gifts one lakh to B, reserving right to take back ten thousand out of
that at his desire with B's assent. Decide the validity of this gift in the
light of relevant provisions of law.

JUNE 2022
Q.[4] (c)[4 marks]
When lease of immovable property is compulsorily registrable?

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[3] (a)[4 marks]
Write any four exceptions to the registration of non-testamentary
documents under Sub-section (2) of Section 17 of Registration Act.

JUNE 2023
Q.[6A] (i)[4 marks]
Discuss the provisions related to the place of registration of documents
affecting immovable property as per the Registration Act, 1908.
DECEMBER 2023
Q.[2] (b) [4 marks]
Ramjilal, the donor made two gifts to his nephew Gajendra, the
donee. The first gift was his one immovable property situated in
Delhi. The second gift were three movable properties. He did not get
the gift deed registered for both movable and immovable
properties and died. Decide whether Gajendra entitled to both the
gifts or not? Discuss.

Q.[2] (c)[4 marks]

A, the son of B sold the property of B presuming that he will get the
property of B after the death of B. Is it valid? Explain.

DECEMBER 2022
Q.[3] (b) [4 marks]
Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 has entrusted
certain obligations on the public authorities. Discuss any eight
obligations.

JUNE 2023
Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]
What are the appellate authorities and time limit to file appeal
against the decision under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
 CHAPTER 15
LAW RELATING TO INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

JUNE 2019
[3] (d) [4marks]
If any person dishonestly or fraudulently does any act under section
43 of Information Technology Act, 2000 without the permission of the
owner or any other person, who is incharge of a computer, computer
system network, he shall be punished. What is the punishment for this
offence? In brief, discuss the offences listed in The IT Act relating to
computer and computer system network.

DECEMBER 2019 ,
Q.[6] (a)[4 marks]
Describe the documents or transactions to which the Information
Technology Act. 2000 shall not apply.

JUNE 2020
NO QUESTION

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[2A] (i) [4 marks]
Discuss the provisions of Sections 14 and 15 of Information Technology
Act, 2000, on secure electronic records.

Q.6] (b) [4 marks]

Discuss the documents or transactions to which the Information
Technology Act, 2000 does not apply.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[4] (a) [4 marks]

Explain the procedure for obtaining 'Electronic Signature Certificate'
under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Q.[5] (a)[8 marks]

Elaborate the offences relating to computers and connected matters
therein.

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[4] (c)[4 marks]
What is the liability of network service provider for contravention of
Information Technology Act, 2000?

JUNE 2022
Q.[3] (d)[4 marks]
Discuss the liability of network service providers in Information
Technology Act, 2000.
DECEMBER 2022
Q.[3] (c)[4 marks]
Discuss the types and importance of document or transactions
mentioned in the first schedule of Information Technology Act, 2000.

Q.[6] (a) [4 marks]

Explain the three fundamental provisions to which the Information
Technology Act, 2000 is made applicable.

JUNE 2023
Q.[3] (d) [4 markds]
State the penalty provisions for failure to furnish information, return and
to maintain records under the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Q.[6] (b)[4 marks]

List any eight (8) acts done without permission of the owner under the
Information Technology Act, 2000 that makes a person liable to pay
damages by way of compensation.

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[4] (b) [5 marks]
Does Section 79 of Information Technology Act, 2000 as originally
enacted deal with effect of other laws or not? Answer in light of recent
decision by Supreme Court of India in the case of Google India Private
Ltd. vs. Vishaka Industries and Ors. (2019).

Q.[4A] (iii) [5 marks]

Information Technology Act, 2000 provides legal framework for
electronic governance by giving recognition to electronic records and
digital signature. Often digital signature is considered as synonym of
electronic signature under the Act. Is it correct to consider both as
same? Discuss.
 CHAPTER 16
CONTRACT LAW

JUNE 2019
Q.[5] (a) [4 marks]
Ram employed in Mumbai promised to pay 8,000 per month to
his wife Sunita. She was living in Delhi. On receiving information
that she has become unfaithful to him, Ram stopped the
payment of ₹ 8,000 to Sunita. Sunita approaches to file a case
against Ram. Advise her with reference to the Indian Contract
Act, 1872.

DECEMBER 2019
Q.[6] [3 marks]
Distinguish between the following:
(b) Void and illegal agreements

Q.[5] (a) [4 marks]

A advertises in the newspaper that he will pay ₹1,000 to any one
who brings to him his lost son. B without knowing of this reward
finds A's lost son and restore him to A. Can B claim for the reward
under the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

Q.[5] (e) [4 marks]

Avanti, took out motor car insurance from Healthy Trip Insurance
Company. A cheque was issued under a contract of insurance of
motorcar by the insured for the payment of premium of the
policy. However, the cheque was dishonoured for want of funds in
the account. Meanwhile the car met with an accident and badly
damaged, killing the insured owner. The claim for insured
amount was repudiated by the company.
Decide:
(i) Whether the contract of insurance has been performed?
Analyse the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in this
respect?
(ii) Whether the claim of the insured amount may be recovered
from Healthy Trip Insurance Company?

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[5] (d) [4 marks]
Amit's son absconded. He sent Suresh, his servant in search of the
boy. When Suresh had left, Amit, by hand bills, offered to pay 5,001
to anyone finding his son. Suresh found the son and after coming to
know about the offer, claimed the amount. Examine the validity of
claim raised by Suresh.
DECEMBER 2021
Q.[5] (a) [4 marks]
F, for natural love and affection, promises to give her daughter D
1,00,000. But after some time F refuses to fulfil his promise. Advice
D what she should do?

JUNE 2022
Q.[6] (b)[3 marks]
Raman borrows₹ 5,000 from Boman and promises to pay 10,000, if
he fails to pay on a stipulated date. Is on Raman's failure to repay
on stipulated date, Boman is entitled to recover 10,000 from
Raman? Examine the validity of claim of stipulated damages.

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[6] (d)[5 marks]
Arun, a husband enters into a registered agreement with his wife
Radha, to pay his earnings to her. Is it a valid contract? Will the
answer be different if the husband by a registered document, after
referring to quarrels and disagreement between himself and his
wife, promises to pay his wife a sum of money for her maintenance
and separate residence.
 CHAPTER 17
LAW RELATING TO SALE OF GOODS

JUNE 2019
Q.[6]
Distinguish between the following:
(e) Conditions and Warranties.

DECEMBER 2019
Q.[6]
Distinguish between the following: (e) Sale and Bailment.

Q.[5] (d) [4 marks]

A doctor purchased woolen undergarments from S, a retailer
shopkeeper whose business was to sell goods of the description.
But after wearing the undergarments, the doctor got developed
some skin disease. Can the doctor claim damages from S under
the Sale of Goods Act, 1930? Decide.

DECEMBER 2020
Q.[6] (a) [3 marks]
What do you understand by the term "Unpaid Seller"? Explain
unpaid seller's right to lien.

Q.[6] (b)[3 marks]

What do you understand by the term 'Caveat Emptor'? Enumerate
its exceptions.

JUNE 2021 WAS REVISED AS AUGUST 2021

Q.[6A] (i) [3marks]
A hot water bottle was bought by Shreya, who could not be
expected to have special skill knowledge with regard to hot water
bottles, from a chemist, who sold such articles stating that the
bottle will not stand boiling water but was intended to hold hot
water. While being used by Shreya, the bottle bursted and injured
her. Whether seller is responsible for damages? Give reasons in
support of your answer.

JUNE 2022
Q.[5] (c)[4 marks]
Ramesh buys a second-hand car from Suresh for 4 Lakh. The car is
a stolen property of Dinesh. After, two months of use Dinesh claims
the car and deprives Ramesh of the car. Can Ramesh claim
compensation from Suresh?
DECEMBER 2023
Q.[3] (a) [5 marks]
A sells two tons of oil to B, and sends one ton of oil by road and
remaining one ton of oil by ship. Mr. B receives delivery of the one
ton of oil sent by road on August 11, 2022, but before he receives the
delivery sent by ship, he becomes insolvent in September, 2022. A,
still being unpaid, stops the goods in transit. The official Receiver
in B's insolvency claims the goods.

(i) Decide whether Official Receiver will succeed. Explain. (ii) Also
discuss, can A resell the undelivered one ton of oil?
 CHAPTER 18
LAW RELATING TO NEGOTIABLE
INSTRUMENTS

JUNE 2019
Q.[6] [3 marks]
Distinguish between the following:
(c) Cheque and Bill of Exchange.

Q.[5] (c)[4 marks]

A draws and B accepts the bill payable to C or order. C endorses the
bill to D and D to E, who is 'holder in due course. Decide from whom E
can recover the amount under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?

DECEMBER 2019
Q.[6] [3 marks]
Distinguish between the following:
(c) Bearer and order instrument

Q.[5] (b) [4 marks]

X draws a cheque in favour of Y, a minor, Y endorses the same in favour
of Z. The cheque is dishonoured by bank on grounds of inadequate
funds. What legal remedy is available to Z under the provisions of the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
DECEMBER 2020
Q.[6A] (v)[3 marks]
What are essentials of promissory note?

DECEMBER 2021
Q.[6] [3 marks]
Distinguish between the following:
(c) Promissory Note and Bill of Exchange.

Q.[5] (b) [4 marks]

Whether a person who has obtained possession of an instrument by theft,
or under a forged endorsement is a holder under the Negotiable
Instrument Act, 1881? Discuss.

JUNE 2022
Q.[6A][3 marks]
Distinguish the following:
(iv)Ambiguous and Inchoate Instruments

DECEMBER 2023
Q.[2] (d) [3 marks]
Raiz draws a cheque of 50,000 on his own account payable to Faiz but has
only 49,000 in his account. Faiz presents the same to the bank but the
cheque bounces due to insufficient funds in Raiz's account. Whether the
above matter can be referred for amicable settlement through mediation.
Explain.