PARAMEDICS

MODEL
QUESTIONS
FOR QATAR
PROMETRIC EXAM

1. Which type of injury is NOT known for causing silent shock and even death?
A.) Chest
B.) Leg
C.) Abdomen
D.) Head
Correct Answer: B

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2. Which term refers to the process by which an agency grants recognition to an
individual who has met its qualifications?
A.) Certification
B.) Licensure
C.) Reciprocity
D.) Education
Correct Answer: A

3. What is key prior to responding to an emergency incident?

A.) Preparation
B.) Pre incident planning
C.) Debriefing
D.) Stress management
Correct Answer: A

4. When was the EMT Oath adopted?

A.)1948
B.) 1978
C.) 1958
D.) 1968
Correct Answer: B

5. What term is used to describe paramedics, physical therapists and respiratory

therapists?
A.) Allied health
B.) Ethical health
C.) Prorated health
D.) Secondary health
Correct Answer: A

6. What is the primary role of the paramedic?

A.) Patient care
B.) Incident command
C.) Documentation
D.) Traffic control
Correct Answer: A

7. Which is NOT considered a fundamental responsibility of the Emergency Medical

Technician?
A.) Conserve life
B.) Do no harm
C.) Prolong suffering
D.) Promote health
Correct Answer: C

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 8. Who must the paramedic relay the plan to at an emergency scene?
A.) Dispatch operator
B.) Hospital personnel
C.) Crew members
D.) Police officers
Correct Answer: C

9. Which is considered a characteristic of a non-professional paramedic?

A.) Strive for the minimum standard
B.) Continuously practice skills
C.) Place the patient first
D.) Eagerness for new information
Correct Answer: A

10. Which aspect of paramedic training is generally forgotten?

A.) Stress management
B.) Education
C.) Leadership
D.) Aerobic exercise
Correct Answer: C

11. Which is NOT considered a common trait of a successful leader?

A.) Established credibility
B.) Ability to communicate
C.) Self-confidence
D.) Ability to ask for advice
Correct Answer: D

12. What 1970's television show has shaped the ideas of today's taxpayers about how a
paramedic needs to behave?
A.) County General
B.) Emergency
D.) Code 10-50
Correct Answer: B

13. What describes the conduct that characterizes a practitioner in a particular field?
A.) Professionalism
B.) Moralism
C.) Unwritten code
D.) Ethics
Correct Answer: A

14. What is the name of an agency that prepares and administers standardized testing
materials for the First Responder?

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A.) The National Registry of EMTs
B.) The Local Registry of EMTs
C.) The State Registry of EMTs
D.) The International Registry of EMTs
Correct Answer: A

15. What type of dispatch is being practiced when life-saving first aid instructions are given
to the victim while paramedics are en route?

A.) Rushed
B.) Response
C.) Priority
D.) Pre-arrival
Correct Answer: C

16. What did Joseph P. Ornate, M.D, PhD. create as guidelines for adding a new medication
or process to the current EMS system?

A.) Rules of Evidence

B.) Rules of Persuasion
C.) Rules of Progress
D.) Rules of Change
Correct Answer: A

17. Which year was the National Highway Safety Act passed which made states develop
effective EMS systems or lose federal funding for highway construction?

A.)1971
B.)1966
C.) 1967
D.) 1972
Correct Answer: B

18. Which is considered a hospital component of the EMS system?

A.) Emergency Medical Technician

B.) Emergency physician
C.) Lay person trained in CPR
D.) Paramedic
Correct Answer: B

19. Which deals with the customer's perception of the quality of service being provided?

A.) Quality management

B.) Quality assistance
C.) Quality assurance
D.) Quality improvement
Correct Answer: D

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20. What is used as the basis when creating the system administration?

A.) Patient needs

B.) Education level
C.) Manpower available
D.) Funding allowance
Correct Answer: A

21. Whose role is it to stabilize the patient until others arrive?

A.) First Responder
B.) EMT
C.) Paramedic
D.) Medical Control
Correct Answer: A

22. What is the goal response time for ALS care?

A.) 12 minutes
B.) 8 minutes
C.) 16 minutes
D.) 4 minutes
Correct Answer: B

23. Which revision was made in 1985 to the standard KKK-A-1822 reduced the internal
siren noise of the ambulance?
A.) A
B.) D
C.) C
D.) B
Correct Answer: D

24. Which is NOT generally considered a basic characteristic of a receiving facility?

A.) Blood bank

B.) Emergency physician
C.) Specialized trauma
D.) Critical intensive care units
Correct Answer: C

25. Whenever possible which location should the patient be transported to from the scene?

A.) Farthest one

B.) Least specialized
C.) Closest one
D.) Most specialized

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 Correct Answer: C

26. What is the means used to direct appropriate medical care to the victim?

A.) Protocol
B.) Standing order
C.) Dispatch
D.) Triage
Correct Answer: C

27. Which type of funding involves the municipality establishing the design and standards
for the contract bid?

A.) Corporate sponsorship

B.) Tax subsidy
C.) Failsafe franchise
D.) Medicaid
Correct Answer: C

28. Which is NOT a factor in transport plans?

A.) Nature of injury

B.) Type of insurance
C.) Estimated transport time
D.) Condition of the patient
Correct Answer: B

29. Which level of responder is capable of administering advanced life support measures?

A.) EMT
B.) First
C.) Intermediary
D.) Paramedic
Correct Answer: D

30. How many lives each year in the United States does the American Heart Association
estimate could be saved if a community CPR program were implemented with fast
paramedic response?

A.) 100,000 - 200,000

B.) 200,000 - 300,000
C.) 400,000 - 500,000
D.) 300,000 - 400,000
Correct Answer: A

31. Which skill is specialized to the paramedic?

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 A.) IV fluid therapy
B.) Hemorrhage control
C.) Pharmacology
D.) Communications
Correct Answer: C

32. Which type of physician is not professionally related to patients on the scene, but who
attempts to assist paramedic field crews?

A.) Indirect medical

B.) Director
C.) Triage
D.) Intervener
Correct Answer: D

33. Which is NOT considered one of the four T's of emergency medical care?
A.) Transport
B.) Transfer
C.) Treatment
D.) Training
Correct Answer: D

34. What type of agreement ensures a continuum of care during peak-load periods?

A.) Integrated aid

B.) Mutual aid
C.) Assisted aid
D.) Farm aid
Correct Answer: B

35. What is used to establish facts and determine their significance?

A.) Research
B.) Protocol
C.) Certification
D.) Dispatch
Correct Answer: A

36. When was the Military Assistance to Safety and Traffic program established?
A.) 1950
B.) 1960
C.) 1980
D.) 1970
Correct Answer: D
36. How long should it take for first responders to reach the scene with an effective EMS
dispatching system is in place?

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 A.) 12 minutes
B.) 16 minutes
C.) 4 minutes
D.) 8 minutes
Correct Answer: C

37. Which level of EMT only certified in CPR and airway management?

A.) Intermediate
B.) Advanced
C.) Basic
D.) Paramedic
Correct Answer: C

38. What is at the heart of any regional EMS system?

A.) Mutual aid network
B.) Communications network
C.) Training network
D.) Federal funds network
Correct Answer: B

39. What type of communication allows the paramedic to speak with the receiving hospital?

A.) Direct
B.) Transport
C.) Medical
D.) Operational
Correct Answer: C

40. Which type of medical control involves audit of charts?

A.) Indirect
B.) Deviated
C.) Direct
D.) Circumvented
Correct Answer: A

41. Who handles the clinical and patient care aspects of the EMS system?

A.) Medical intervener

B.) Medical director
C.) Medical coordinator
D.) Medical controller
Correct Answer: B
42. Which type of quality care deals with the customer service aspect?

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 A.) Take-it-for-granted
B.) Detail
C.) Clinical
D.) Service
Correct Answer: C

43. Which type of ambulance has a passageway from the driver's compartment to the
patient's compartment?
A.) I
B.) IV
C.) III
D.) II
Correct Answer: C

44. Which is NOT a component that must be included in the EMS system to make the
system eligible for funding under the Emergency Medical Services Systems Act?

A.) Transportation
B.) Manpower
C.) Medical control
D.) Standardized record-keeping
Correct Answer: C

45. Which type of order lets the paramedic know to not attempt resuscitation in the event of
a cardiac arrest?
A.) Do not resuscitate
B.) Living will
C.) Right to die
D.) Medical power of attorney
Correct Answer: A

46. Which is NOT an item that a complaining party must prove in a malpractice lawsuit?

A.) The paramedic had sufficient training

B.) There was a duty to act
C.) There was a breach of duty by the paramedic
D.) The paramedic caused the damages
Correct Answer: A

47. What type of laws make up the majority that govern paramedics?
A.) Local
B.) State
C.) Federal
D.) County
Correct Answer: B

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48. Which type of law deals with civil wrongs committed by one person against another?

A.) Civil
B.) Litigation
C.) Criminal
D.) Tort
Correct Answer: D

49. Which type of consent to treatment is done with verbal communication from the
patient?

A.) Informed
B.) Expressed
C.) Implied
D.) Involuntary
Correct Answer: B

50. What is the best protection in a malpractice proceeding?

A.) Pre-planned living will

B.) Patient medical records
C.) Witness statements
D.) Well written run report
Correct Answer: D

51. Which is the act of injuring a person's reputation by way of false spoken words?

A.) Negligence
B.) Libel
C.) Slander
D.) Tort
Correct Answer: C

52. What is a deviation from an accepted standard of care?

A.) Ignorance
B.) Abandonment
C.) Negligence
D.) Intent to harm
Correct Answer: C

53. Which term refers to the fact that a paramedic is working under the license of another
physician?

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 A.) Delegations of authority
B.) Apprenticeship program
C.) Probationary period
D.) Pre-certification training
Correct Answer: A

54. What term is defined as the unlawful touching of another individual without his consent?

A.) False imprisonment

B.) Abandonment
C.) Battery
D.) Assault
Correct Answer: C

55. Who should ideally always report to the scene of a problem patient?
A.) Next of kin
B.) Firefighter
C.) District attorney
D.) Police officer
Correct Answer: D

56. Which is NOT a way to protect the privacy of the patient when transmitting information?

A.) Use telephone

B.) Never use patient's name
C.) Turn off external speaker
D.) Use 10-code system
Correct Answer: D

57. What is the typical range for a mobile two-way radio?

A.) 20-25 miles

B.) 30-45 miles
C.) 10-15 miles
D.) 40-55 miles
Correct Answer: C

58. What is a device that receives a transmission from a low-power portable radio on one
frequency and re-transmits it at a higher power on another frequency?

A.) Encoder
B.) Tweaker
C.) Repeater
D.) Voter
Correct Answer: C

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59. How long once the transmit button is pressed should you wait to begin speaking?

A.) 1 second
B.) 2 seconds
C.) 4 seconds
D.) 3 seconds
Correct Answer: A
60. Who is in charge of assigning emergency medical resources to a medical emergency?

A.) Emergency personnel dispatcher

B.) Emergency medical dispatcher
C.) Emergency paramedic dispatcher
D.) Emergency resource dispatcher
Correct Answer: B
61. What is the first thing the dispatcher needs to get from a caller?

A.) Condition of the patient

B.) Name and call-back number
C.) Other hazardous conditions
D.) Nature of the event
Correct Answer: B
62. How much telemetry is usually sufficient when transmitting en route?
A.) 25- to 30-seconds
B.) 35- to 40-seconds
C.) 45- to 50-seconds
D.) 15- to 20-seconds
Correct Answer: D
63. What should the paramedic do if given inappropriate orders?

A.) Follow them

B.) Report them
C.) Ignore them
D.) Question them
Correct Answer: D
64. What has opened up the paramedic to be able to send 12-lead ECG's to the hospital
while in the field?

A.) Repeater systems

B.) Cellular technology
C.) Encoders and decoders
D.) Remote consoles
Correct Answer: D

65. What is the process of transmitting physiological data over distance?

A.) Electro telemetry

B.) Biotelemetry

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 C.) Cardio telemetry
D.) Tritelemetry
Correct Answer: B

66. What term describes the practice of pooling all available frequencies together and using
them on a first come first serve basis?

A.) Trucking
B.) Pitching
C.) Routing
D.) Allocating
Correct Answer: A

67. What step occurs immediately after an accident is detected in a typical EMS response?

A.) Notification and response

B.) Transport and delivery
C.) Preparation for the next event
D.) Treatment and preparation for transport
Correct Answer: A

68. What is NOT an element of an emergency situation that needs to be relayed to the
medical control physician?

A.) Exact location of the incident

B.) Estimated time of arrival
C.) Description of the scene
D.) Physical exam findings
Correct Answer: A

69. Which method of transmission has both transmission and reception on the same
frequency?

A.) Triplex
B.) Simplex
C.) Duplex
D.) Multiplex
Correct Answer: B

70. What is the typical power output of the base station?

A.) 65-295 watts
B.) 25-255 watts
C.) 45-275 watts
D.) 85-305 watts
Correct Answer: C

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71. Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with pneumonia?

A.) "Bed shaking" chills

B.) Deep, productive cough
C.) Recent fever
D.) Loud, snoring breathing
Correct Answer: D
72. Which condition is NOT indicated when there is a dull sound upon chest percussion?

A.) Pulmonary edema

B.) Emphysema
C.) Pneumonia
D.) Hem thorax
Correct Answer: B

73. What color is the skin when carbon monoxide poisoning has gone on for a long period of
time?

A.) Bright cherry red

B.) Deep ocean blue
C.) Radiant sunshine yellow
D.) Dull pea soup green
Correct Answer: A

74. When examining a patient with toxic inhalation, which area is NOT of primary concern?

A.) Neck
B.) Mouth
C.) Throat
D.) Face
Correct Answer: A

75. What action should NOT be taken with a hyperventilating patient?

A.) Assist in respirations

B.) Give the patient reassurance
C.) Rebreathing using a paper bag
D.) Administer supplemental oxygen
Correct Answer: C
76. Which statement is true in regards to administering oxygen?

A.) Every patient with respiratory distress should receive oxygen

B.) If the patient presents with hypoxic symptoms, they should not receive oxygen
C.) No patient should receive oxygen until in the emergency department
D.) Only patients without COPD can receive oxygen supplementation
Correct Answer: A

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77. What condition is the result of destruction of the alveolar walls distal to the terminal
bronchioles?

A.) COPD
B.) Bronchitis
C.) Emphysema
D.) Asthma
Correct Answer: C

78. What is a decrease in the amount of oxygen and an increase in the amount of carbon
dioxide as a result of some interference with respiration called?

A.) Cyanosis
B.) Asphyxia
C.) Hypoxia
D.) Hemoptysis
Correct Answer: B
79. Which piece of the chest should be palpated first when performing the secondary
survey?

A.) Left
B.) Front
C.) Right
D.) Back
Correct Answer: B

80. Which is NOT a side effect of terbutaline?

A.) Palpitations
B.) Headache
C.) Anxiety
D.) Dizziness
Correct Answer: D

81. What age group has seen the largest increase in asthma related deaths?

A.) 20-35 years’ old

B.) 45 years and younger
C.) 45 years and older
D.) 2-18 years old
Correct Answer: C
82. Where should the thrusts be administered to a pregnant woman who is choking and
cannot speak?

A.) Side
B.) Abdomen
C.) Back
D.) Chest

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 Correct Answer: D
83. How many ventilations should be attempted in an unconscious, choking patient?

A.) 4
B.) 2
C.) 8
D.) 6

84. Which condition is the result of an increased production of mucous in the respiratory
tree?
Correct Answer: B
A.) COPD
B.) Emphysema
C.) Asthma
D.) Chronic bronchitis
Correct Answer: D
85. Which is NOT a history question you need to ask the patient who presents with a
respiratory problem?

A.) Does the patient have any allergies?

B.) Has the patient been coughing?
C.) When was the last time food was ingested?
D.) How long has the dyspnea been present?
Correct Answer: C
86. What are the rattling sounds in the larger airway called?

A.) Snoring
B.) Wheezing
C.) Stridor
D.) Rhonchi
Correct Answer: D
87. What gives the emphysema patient a pink color?

A.) Hypoxia
B.) Asphyxia
C.) Polycythemia
D.) Dyspnia
Correct Answer: C
88. Which is NOT something that is done in the prehospital setting for a suspected
pulmonary embolism?

A.) Administer medication to dissolve the clot

B.) Establish and maintain the patient's airway
C.) Establish an IV of lactated Ringer's saline
D.) Administer supplemental oxygen at the highest concentration
Correct Answer: A
89. Which condition is a resultant symptom of dyspnea?

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 A.) Difficulty speaking
B.) Patient discomfort
C.) Position of the patient
D.) Alert verbal responses
Correct Answer: A
90. What concentration of oxygen should be administered to the asthmatic patient in
distress?

A.) 100%
B.) 50%
C.) 70%
D.) 80%
Correct Answer: A
91. Which is the most common upper airway obstruction?

A.) Dentures
B.) Relaxed tongue
C.) Toys
D.) Food
Correct Answer: B

92. What is the subcutaneous dosage of epinephrine 1:1000?

A.) 0.3-0.5 mg
B.) 0.5-0.7 mg
C.) 0.9-1.1 mg
D.) 0.7-0.9 mg
Correct Answer: A

93. What does noisy breathing nearly always mean?

A.) Partial obstruction

B.) Illness of the patient
C.) No obstruction
D.) Complete obstruction
Correct Answer: A

94. Which word is associated with fluid in the smaller airways?

A.) Rhonchi
B.) Friction rub
C.) Stridor
D.) Rales
Correct Answer: D

95. What should be put into the IV line when a nervous system dysfunction is suspected?

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 A.) Lactated Ringer's solution
B.) 5 percent dextrose in water
C.) Normal saline with anticonvulsant medication
D.) Normal saline
Correct Answer: B

96. Which is NOT considered a toxic material when inhaled?

A.) Carbon dioxide

B.) Sulfur trioxide
C.) Nitrogen oxide
D.) Ammonia
Correct Answer: A

97. How is albuterol administered?

A.) Subcutaneous injection

B.) IM injection
C.) Inhaled
D.) IV
Correct Answer: C

98. What is the name for a prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to repeated
doses of epinephrine?

A.) Status epinephricus

B.) Status asthmaticus
C.) Status repeaticus
D.) Status prolongicus
Correct Answer: B

99. Which medication can be used to treat asthma and congestive heart failure?

A.) Terbutaline
B.) Methylprednisolone
C.) Aminophylline
D.) Isoetharine
Correct Answer: C

100. What flow rate should supplemental oxygen be started for a patient with chronic
bronchitis?

A.) 26 liters/min
B.) 10 liters/min
C.) 18 liters/min
D.) 2 liters/min
Correct Answer: D

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101. If a radial pulse can be felt, what minimum systolic blood pressure (mmHg) can the
patient be assumed to have?

A.) 60
B.) 50
C.) 70
D.) 80
Correct Answer: D
102. Which type of multiple-casualty incident overwhelms local and regional EMS and rescue
resources?

A.) Mid-impact
B.) Disaster
C.) High-impact
D.) Low-impact
Correct Answer: B
103. How should radio communications between the Incident Commander and the sector
officer of Transport sound?

A.) John to Bill

B.) Central to Drivers
C.) Command to Bill, over
D.) Command to Transport Sector
Correct Answer: D

104. Which sector is responsible for obtaining and distributing needed medical supplies at a
major incident?

A.) Transport
B.) Supply
C.) Staging
D.) Treatment
Correct Answer: B
105. Where should the command post be located in relation to the incident scene?

A.) Upwind and downhill

B.) Downwind and downhill
C.) Upwind and uphill
D.) Downwind and uphill
Correct Answer: C
106. Once assigned to a sector, who does the paramedic report to?

A.) Sector officer

B.) Receiving hospital
C.) Medical control
D.) Incident commander

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 Correct Answer: A

107. How should most communications between the sector officer and the paramedics take
place?

A.) Two-way radio

B.) Cellular phone
C.) Written order
D.) Face-to-face
Correct Answer: D
108. How long maximum should a triage assessment take when utilizing the START
method?

A.) 15 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 45 seconds
D.) 60 seconds
Correct Answer: D

109. Which is an important tool for any sector officer or the Incident Commander?

A.) Clipboard with pencils and paper

B.) Brightly colored vest
C.) Delegation ability
D.) Sector aides to make assignments
Correct Answer: A
110. How many people are assigned overall command responsibility in the Incident
Command System?

A.) 2
B.) 4
C.) 1
D.) 3
Correct Answer: C
111. What is the first thing the Incident Commander needs to do when arriving on the
scene?

A.) Request additional resources and provide assignments

B.) Assume an effective command mode and position
C.) Delegate authority and responsibility
D.) Rapidly evaluate the situation
Correct Answer: B

112. Where are additional resources placed until they are needed at the scene?

A.) Staging area

B.) Transportation area

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 C.) Treatment area
D.) Extrication area
Correct Answer: A
113. What type of management must be used by the sector officer?

A.) Aggressive
B.) Cooperative
C.) Assumptive
D.) Passive
Correct Answer: A

114. What is the respiration rate cut-off that classifies a patient as critical?

A.) 20
B.) 10
C.) 0
D.) 30
Correct Answer: D

115. Which zone does the extrication sector work within?

A.) Cool
B.) Safe
C.) Warm
D.) Hazard
Correct Answer: D
116. After how many units have been assigned to an incident is it a good idea to implement
the Incident Command System to keep practiced?

A.) 0
B.) 2
C.) 3
D.) 1
Correct Answer: C
117. How many sections should the treatment area be divided into?

A.) 5
B.) 4
C.) 3
D.) 2
Correct Answer: D
118. What does the Incident Commander do to get a general idea of the size and severity of
an incident?

A.) Walk-through

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 B.) Aerial-look
C.) Drive-by
D.) Size-up
Correct Answer: D
119. Which sector is normally established first at a multiple-casualty incident?

A.) Extrication
B.) Staging
C.) Transportation
D.) Treatment
Correct Answer: A
120. Which type of mental status classifies a patient as delayed?

A.) Alert but disoriented

B.) Responsive only to painful stimuli
C.) Alert and oriented to time
D.) Unresponsive
Correct Answer: C
121. Which type of multiple-casualty incident is localized and can be handled by local EMS?

A.) Low-impact
B.) High-impact
C.) Mid-impact
D.) Catastrophic
Correct Answer: A
122. What should NOT be done when transferring command?

A.) Alert dispatch of the transfer

B.) Assume that radio communications were monitored
C.) Brief the new commander on previous events
D.) Have face-to-face communication
Correct Answer: B
123. Which sector is responsible for sorting patients according to the severity of their
injuries?

A.) Triage
B.) Treatment
C.) Transportation
D.) Extrication
Correct Answer: A

124. What ratio of minor patients to treatment person is considered a good rule of thumb?

A.) 3:1
B.) 4:1
C.) 5:1
D.) 6:1

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 Correct Answer: A

125. Which sector is NOT considered a typical sector?

A.) Triage
B.) Extrication
C.) Supply
D.) Staging
Correct Answer: A

126. Which is NOT a question that can be asked to monitor your own perception of a
stressful event?

A.) Do others see the same event as stressful?

B.) Are you blaming yourself unjustly?
C.) Do you see what is really happening?
D.) Are your expectations realistic?
Correct Answer: A

127. How should the paramedic refer to a person that has died when dealing with the
family?

A.) Dead
B.) Passed away
C.) Moved on
D.) Expired
Correct Answer: A

128. What timeframe after a stressful event should you alternate physical exercise with
relaxation?

A.) 24-48 hours

B.) 48-72 hours
C.) 63-90 hours
D.) 36-48 hours
Correct Answer: A

129. Which is a cognitive symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder?

A.) Hyper alertness

B.) Decreased interest in life
C.) Reliving the event
D.) Feeling detached
Correct Answer: A

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130. How long does it take for a cumulative stress reaction to take place?

A.) Weeks
B.) Years
C.) Days
D.) Months
Correct Answer: B
131. What is the first stage of grief that is used most by the dying patient?

A.) Denial
B.) Bargaining
C.) Anger
D.) Depression
Correct Answer: A

132. Which type of job stress deals with being a "jack of all trades"?

A.) Multiple role responsibilities

B.) Lack of recognition for work done
C.) Over demand on time and energy
D.) Unfinished tasks
Correct Answer: A

133. Which emotional sign of distress does NOT require immediate corrective action?

A.) Panic reactions

B.) General loss of control
C.) Phobic reaction
D.) Survivor guilt
Correct Answer: D
134. Which stage of stress occurs when the individual begins to adapt to the stress?

A.) Stage III

B.) Stage II
C.) Stage IV
D.) Stage I
Correct Answer: B
135. Which is a sign of distress that requires immediate corrective action?

A.) Dizziness
B.) Dry mouth
C.) Chills
D.) Nausea
Correct Answer: A

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135. During which stage of stress reaction are the signs of the alarm reaction present, but
hard to reverse?

A.) Repeating
B.) Resistance
C.) Exhaustion
D.) Alarmed
Correct Answer: C
136. During the acceptance stage of grief, who needs more help?

A.) Doctor
B.) Family
C.) Paramedic Correct
D.) Patient
Correct Answer: B
137. Which is a symptom of anxiety that is NOT felt?

A.) Increased blood glucose levels

B.) Heart palpitations
C.) Rapid or difficult breathing
D.) Fluctuation in body temperature
Correct Answer: A

138. What means a hardship, force or strain?

A.) Stress
B.) Relief
C.) Crisis
D.) Work
Correct Answer: A

139. Which type of stress reaction follows a catastrophic event?

A.) Reactive
B.) Cumulative
C.) Acute
D.) Delayed
Correct Answer: C
140. Which abbreviation stands for family history?

A.) FHX
B.) APC
C.) D5W
D.) Hct
Correct Answer: A
141. Which abbreviation stands for sublingual?

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 A.) SICU
B.) SIDS
C.) SL
D.) SVT
Correct Answer: C
142. Which abbreviation stands for blood sugar?

A.) BS
B.) AT
C.) DM
D.) AP
Correct Answer: A
143. Which prefix means disease?

A.) Trans-
B.) Patho-
C.) Pseudo-
D.) Retro-
Correct Answer: B
144. Which abbreviation stands for hemoglobin?

A.) Hct.
B.) LUQ
C.) Hg
D.) Hb.
Correct Answer: D

145. Which prefix means without?

A.) Blast-
B.) Auto-
C.) A-
D.) Angio-
Correct Answer: C
146. Which root word means soft fat of animals?

A.) Acq-
B.) Acou-
C.) Alg-
D.) Adip-
Correct Answer: D
147. Which abbreviation stands for treatment?

A.) Rx
B.) Tx
C.) Px
D.) Dx

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 Correct Answer: A
148. Which abbreviation stands for times two?

A.) NS
B.) TPR
C.) IO
D.) X2
Correct Answer: D
149. Which suffix means blood?
p. 133
A.) -Emia
B.) -Phasia
C.) -Algia
D.) –Plasty
Correct Answer: A
150. Which root word means opening or mouth?

A.) Stoma
B.) Viscous
C.) Stature
D.) Vertex
Correct Answer: A
151. Which abbreviation stands for intramuscular?

A.) IM
B.) IC
C.) ICP
D.) IO
Correct Answer: A
152. Which abbreviation stands for front-to-back?

A.) CP
B.) BG
C.) FB
D.) AP
Correct Answer: D
153. Which abbreviation stands for by mouth?

A.) p.c.
B.) post.
C.) p.o.
D.) PO
Correct Answer: C
154. Which root word means cartilage?

A.) –Centesis

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 B.) Cubitus
C.) Carpus
D.) Chond-
Correct Answer: D
155. Which abbreviation stands for right eye?

A.) O.D.
B.) OB
C.) OD
D.) OR
Correct Answer: A
156. Which root word means belly?

A.) Gast-
B.) Eryth-
C.) Meatus
D.) Menin-
Correct Answer: A
157. Which abbreviation stands for lactated Ringer's?

A.) LPM
B.) LR
C.) LAC
D.) LL
Correct Answer: B
158. Which prefix means outside?

A.) Infra-
B.) Macro-
C.) Endo-
D.) Exo-
Correct Answer: D
159. Which part of a medical term conveys its essential meaning?

A.) Suffix
B.) Prefix
C.) Root
D.) Stem
Correct Answer: C
160. Which abbreviation stands for drop?

A.) mEq.
B.) e.g.
C.) gtt.
D.) inf.
Correct Answer: C

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161. Which abbreviation stands for diagnosis?

A.) c/o
B.) GU
C.) fx
D.) Dx
Correct Answer: D
162. Which root word means network?

A.) Reticulum
B.) Ophthalm-
C.) Percuss
D.) Pneum-
Correct Answer: A

163. Which type of tissue lines body surfaces and protects the body?

A.) Epithelial
B.) Muscle
C.) Connective
D.) Nerve
Correct Answer: A

164. Which is the correct order of the spinal column from top to bottom?

A.) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum

B.) Thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacrum
C.) Sacrum, lumbar, thoracic, cervical
D.) Lumbar, cervical, sacrum, thoracic
Correct Answer: A

165. Which is the smallest part of the lung?

A.) Trachea
B.) Bronchiole
C.) Pleura
D.) Alveolus
Correct Answer: D
166. What refers to the body's natural tendency to keep all physiological activities fairly
constant?

A.) Homeostasis
B.) Homeostatic
C.) Homeolysis
D.) Homeopathic
Correct Answer: A

Page 29 of 113
167. Which structure holds the ribcage together?

A.) Sternum
B.) Clavicle
C.) Scapula
D.) Thyroid cartilage
Correct Answer: A

168. Which is the largest part of the brain?

A.) Pituitary gland
B.) Medulla oblongata
C.) Cerebellum
D.) Cerebrum
Correct Answer: D

169. Which directional term means toward the top of the body?

A.) Anterior
B.) Superior
C.) Lateral
D.) Doral
Correct Answer: B
170. Which vertical line drawn from the mid-axilla downward separates the anterior chest
from the posterior chest?

A.) Mid-sternal
B.) Mid-spinal
C.) Mid-axillary
D.) Mid-nastral
Correct Answer: C
171. What is another name for the collarbone?

A.) Scapula
B.) Clavicle
C.) Maxilla
D.) Mandible
Correct Answer: B
172. Which movement term means moving away from the body?

A.) Abduction
B.) Pronation
C.) Adduction
D.) Flexion
Correct Answer: A
173. What is the fundamental component of the human body?

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 A.) Cell
B.) Neutron
C.) Photon
D.) Atom
Correct Answer: A

174. Which positional term means lying on the side?

A.) Lithotomy position

B.) Suspine
C.) Semi-Fowler's position
D.) Lateral recumbent
Correct Answer: D

175. What is the top arch of the external ear called?

A.) Lobe
B.) Helix
C.) Concha
D.) Cartilage
Correct Answer: B

176. Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?

A.) Cranium
B.) Spinal
C.) Abdominal
D.) Thoracic
Correct Answer: D
177. Which is NOT a muscle in the leg?

A.) Serratus
B.) Sartorius
C.) Vastus Medialis
D.) Gastrocnemius
Correct Answer: A
178. Which organ system consists of the kidneys and bladder?

A.) Gastrointestinal
B.) Lymphatic
C.) Genitourinary
D.) Endocrine
Correct Answer: C
179. Which is NOT a major nerve of the shoulder?

A.) Radial

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 B.) Sural
C.) Lateral cord
D.) Axillary
Correct Answer: B
180. Which structure in the female reproductive system releases an egg for fertilization
each month?

A.) Ovary
B.) Uterus
C.) Fallopian tube
D.) Fundus
Correct Answer: A
181. Where is the femoral artery located?

A.) Arm
B.) Neck
C.) Shoulder
D.) Thigh
Correct Answer: D
182. Which structure in the eye controls the amount of light that enters the eye?

A.) Sclera
B.) Fornix
C.) Lens
D.) Pupil
Correct Answer: D

183. Which organ system provides oxygen to the body?

A.) Cardiovascular
B.) Endocrine
C.) Gastrointestinal
D.) Respiratory
Correct Answer: D

184. What is the study if body structure?

A.) Anatomy
B.) Physics
C.) Physiology
D.) Biochemistry
Correct Answer: A
185. Which intersection of ribs and vertebra create the cosovertebral angle?

A.) 9th

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 B.) 12th
C.) 10th
D.) 11th
Correct Answer: B
186. Which organ is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen?

A.) Appendix
B.) Kidney
C.) Liver
D.) Gall bladder
Correct Answer: A

187. What does the pleural space surround?

A.) Heart
B.) Lung
C.) Joint
D.) Bone
Correct Answer: A

188. Which organ is NOT located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?

A.) Tail of the pancreas

B.) Stomach
C.) Small intestine
D.) Spleen
Correct Answer: C

189. Which vein carries blood into the heart from the body?

A.) Descending pulmonary vein

B.) Bicuspid vena cava
C.) Superior vena cava
D.) Left pulmonary vein
Correct Answer: C

190. Which structure of the digestive system do the large and small intestine share?

A.) Appendix
B.) Cecum
C.) Jejunum
D.) Stomach
Correct Answer: B

191. Where is are the jugular veins located?

A.) Leg

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 B.) Neck
C.) Armpit
D.) Ankle
Correct Answer: B
192. Which directional term means away from the midline of the body?

A.) Cephalad
B.) Craniad
C.) Lateral
D.) Medial
Correct Answer: C
193. Which gland is located on top of each kidney?

A.) Prostate
B.) Suprarenal
C.) Adrenal
D.) Celiac
Correct Answer: B
194. Which is NOT a cause of a sluggish pupil reaction to light stimulus?

A.) Drugs
B.) Hypercarbia
C.) Hypoxia
D.) Anisocoria
Correct Answer: D
195. What is the first thing that needs to be done in a head-to-toe evaluation?

A.) Palpate the head

B.) Examine the ears
C.) Examine the nares
D.) Inspect the eyes
Correct Answer: A

196. Which type of examination is non-invasive and non-endangering to the patient?

A.) Palpation
B.) Auscultation
C.) Inspection
D.) Percussion
Correct Answer: C

197. How long does the initial assessment generally take?

A.) 2 minutes
B.) 6 minutes
C.) 14 minutes
D.) 10 minutes

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 Correct Answer: A

198. Which patient should have more than one mechanism used to determine circulatory
effectiveness?
A.) 63 year old
B.) 2 year old
C.) 10 year old
D.) 6 month old
Correct Answer: A

200. Which item is NOT included in the secondary assessment of the patient?

A.) Vital signs

B.) Glasgow coma scale
C.) Patient history
D.) Head-to-toe evaluation
Correct Answer: B
201. Which condition is blood pressure NOT good at evaluating?

A.) Stress
B.) Heat stroke
C.) Shock
D.) Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: C
202. Which term describes skin that is reddening?

A.) Erythema
B.) Cyanosis
C.) Pallor
D.) Jaundice
Correct Answer: A

203. Which type of pain comes on when the palpating hands are suddenly removed from
the abdomen?

A.) Grey Turner's sign

B.) Cullen's sign
C.) Presacral edema
D.) Rebound tenderness
Correct Answer: D
204. Which part of assessing the circumstances of the present illness deals with what the
patient was doing when the
problem began?

A.) Time

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 B.) Severity
C.) Onset
D.) Provocation
Correct Answer: C
205. Which type of vibration upon percussion would indicate a possible tension
pneumothorax?

A.) Solid
B.) Hollow
C.) Sharp
D.) Dull
Correct Answer: C
206. What color is cerebral spinal fluid when it leaks from the ear?

A.) Yellow
B.) Brown
C.) Clear
D.) Red
Correct Answer: C
207. Which sound indicates laryngeal obstruction?

A.) Apnea
B.) Wheezing
C.) Snoring
D.) Stridor
Correct Answer: D
208. What is the reason that the paramedic was called out?

A.) Present patient history

B.) Secondary complain
C.) Past medical problems
D.) Chief complaint
Correct Answer: D
209. Which is NOT a sign of vascular compromise to an extremity?
A.) Slow capillary refil
B.) Warm extremity
C.) Absent pulse
D.) Ashen skin
Correct Answer: B
210. What is generally the last thing to be examined with the head-to-toe examination?

A.) Head and neck

B.) Abdomen
C.) Extremities
D.) Posterior body
Correct Answer: D

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211. What is the patient's problem called in the event of a trauma?

A.) Mechanism of injury

B.) Nature of the injury
C.) Cause of injury
D.) Effect of the injury
Correct Answer: A
212. Which acronym should be used when determining the patient's mental status?

A.) ALRT
B.) AVPU
C.) AMEN
D.) ACPL
Correct Answer: B
213. Which temperature (degrees Fahrenheit) can brain cells die and seizures occur?

A.) 103
B.) 105
C.) 99
D.) 101
Correct Answer: B
214. What odor coming from the mouth can be indicative of a lower-bowel obstruction?

A.) Fecal
B.) Alcohol
C.) Urine
D.) Acidic
Correct Answer: A
215. What is an acceptable range for an adult radial pulse?

A.) 75-140 bpm

B.) 50-120 bpm
C.) 30-70 bpm
D.) 85-160 bpm
Correct Answer: B
216. Which item is NOT a minimum detail that needs to be transmitted to the receiving
hospital?
A.) Baseline vital signs
B.) Emergency care given
C.) Patient's chief complaint
D.) Patient's name and race
Correct Answer: D
217. What should be palpated in the face?

A.) Facial bones

B.) Cartilage areas

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 C.) Soft tissues
D.) Do not palpate the face
Correct Answer: A
218. What is the percentage of blood occupied by red blood cells?

A.) Hemostat
B.) Hematocrit
C.) Hemoglobin
D.) Hemotension
Correct Answer: B
219. What part of assessing a patient deals with how the patient describes the pain?

A.) Quality
B.) Severity
C.) Radiation
D.) Onset
Correct Answer: A
220. How long should the respiration rate be determined over?

A.) 15 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 60 seconds
D.) 45 seconds
Correct Answer: B
221. Which term is used to describe fluid in the abdominal cavity?
A.) Umbilicus
B.) Peritoneum
C.) Ascites
D.) Edema
Correct Answer: C
222. What time frame should the paramedic inquire about in regards to food or drink?

A.) 72 hours
B.) 48 hours
C.) 24 hours
D.) 36 hours
Correct Answer: C

223. What length of transport time would lead the paramedic to remove a patient's contact
lens?

A.) 12 minutes
B.) 8 minutes
C.) 15 minutes
D.) 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C

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224. What height of a fall is considered significant for an infant?

A.) 8 feet
B.) 4 feet
C.) 6 feet
D.) 10 feet
Correct Answer: D
225. Which is generally related to increasing intracranial pressure?

A.) Turner's respirations

B.) Cullen's respirations
C.) Biot's respirations
D.) Kussmaul's respirations
Correct Answer: C

226. What level on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates coma?

A.) 10
B.) 9
C.) 7
D.) 8
Correct Answer: C

227. What is generally the first thing a patient will lose orientation to whose level of
consciousness is dropping?

A.) Person
B.) Self
C.) Time
D.) Place
Correct Answer: C

228. Which term describes normal breath sounds?

A.) Effusion
B.) Rhonchi
C.) Rales
D.) Vesicular
Correct Answer: D
229. What is something that a rape victim should NOT do before examination?

A.) Talk about it

B.) Remain calm
C.) Cry or lament
D.) Shower or bathe
Correct Answer: D

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230. What should be looked at to determine if air is being moved?

A.) Chest
B.) Arms
C.) Stomach
D.) Head
Correct Answer: A
231. When the patient can move the paramedic's hand away to stop a painful stimuli, what
is this movement called?

A.) Purposeful
B.) Purposeless
C.) Meaningless
D.) Meaningful
Correct Answer: A

232. Which is NOT considered a significant mechanism of injury for an adult?

A.) High-speed vehicle collision

B.) Motor vehicle-pedestrian
C.) Fall over 10 feet in height
D.) Unresponsive or altered mental status
Correct Answer: C

233. How often should the minor injury patient be re-assessed after the first few 5 minute
assessments?

A.) Every 10-15 minutes

B.) Every 25-30 minutes
C.) Every 15-20 minutes
D.) Every 20-25 minutes
Correct Answer: A

234. Which area should be focused on when examining a trauma patient due to hidden
injuries?

A.) Leg
B.) Feet
C.) Arm
D.) Abdomen
Correct Answer: D
235. Which position of the patient allows for jugular vein distention?

A.) Lithotomy
B.) Lateral recumbent
C.) Prone
D.) Suspine

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 Correct Answer: D
236. What is the evaluation of a patient to detect a possible medical problem?

A.) Patient enlistment

B.) Patient query
C.) Patient assessment
D.) Patient examination
Correct Answer: C
237. What is the difference between the systolic and diastolic readings?
A.) Pulse pressure
B.) Venous pressure
C.) Brachial pressure
D.) Arterial pressure
Correct Answer: A
238. Which vital sign is of little use in the prehospital care setting?

A.) Body temperature

B.) Blood pressure
C.) Pulse
D.) Respiration
Correct Answer: A

239. What color sputum indicates congestive heart failure?

A.) Brown
B.) Green
C.) Pink
D.) Yellow
Correct Answer: C
240. Which piece of the body is NOT generally exposed to look for life-threatening injury?

A.) Pelvis
B.) Feet
C.) Chest
D.) Neck
Correct Answer: B
241. What should be done en route to the scene?

A.) Listen music on the radio

B.) Discuss previous similar calls
C.) Review dispatch information
D.) Meditate to prepare
Correct Answer: C
242. What term means there is blood in the thoracic cavity?

A.) Pneumothorax

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 B.) Pleura
C.) Hemothorax
D.) Excursion
Correct Answer: C
243. Which piece of the physical exam involves examination by touch?

A.) Auscultation
B.) Percussion
C.) Inspection
D.) Palpation
Correct Answer: D
244. Who should be masked as a minimum if the patient shows signs of a respiratory
disease?
A.) Commander
B.) Bystanders
C.) Paramedic
D.) Patient
Correct Answer: D
245. What is the normal pulse rate range for adults?

A.) 60-80
B.) 40-60
C.) 80-100
D.) 20-40
Correct Answer: A

246. Which item is NOT included in the primary assessment of the trauma patient?
A.) Airway and breathing
B.) Look for disability
C.) Expose for critical injuries
D.) Head-to-toe evaluation
Correct Answer: D

247. What condition should the trachea be in if there is no injury to it or obstruction?

A.) Midline and free moving

B.) Midline and stationary
C.) To the right and free moving
D.) To the left and stationary
Correct Answer: D

248. What is the first step in assessment?

A.) Perform evaluation

B.) Scene size-up
C.) Package the patient
D.) Transport the patient

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 Correct Answer: B
249. What oxygen saturation range is acceptable?

A.) 81%-85%
B.) 96%-100%
C.) 86%-90%
D.) 91%-95%
Correct Answer: B
250. Which trauma patient can be stabilized on scene before transport?

A.) Respiratory difficulties

B.) Indications of developing shock
C.) Minor facial lacerations
D.) Central nervous system deficit
Correct Answer: C
251. Which indicates spinal cord interruption in male patients?

A.) Effusion
B.) Ascites
C.) Priapism
D.) Clubbing
Correct Answer: C

252. How long after the injury should the critical trauma patient have surgery to achieve the
best outcome?

A.) 1 1/2 hours

B.) 1/2 hour
C.) 1 hour
D.) 2 hours
Correct Answer: C
253. Where should the light of the lighted stylet be visible when it is in proper position?

A.) Back of the neck

B.) Front of the neck
C.) Right side of the neck
D.) Left side of the neck
Correct Answer: B
254. Which action is NOT performed when using the modified jaw-thrust maneuver due to
cervical injury?

A.) Tilting the head

B.) Displacing the jaw
C.) Kneeling at the head
D.) Retracting the lower lip
Correct Answer: A

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255. What is a major drawback to mouth to mouth ventilation?

A.) Difficult to maintain seal

B.) Ventilator exhaustion
C.) Disease transmission
D.) Patient regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
256. What is true about air that is breathed in when it has reached the lower airway?

A.) It is body temperature and 100% humidified

B.) It is room temperature and 100% humidified
C.) It is room temperature and 50% humidified
D.) It is body temperature and 50% humidified
Correct Answer: A

257. What is the first criteria that needs to be checked when performing a primary
assessment of the patient's airway?

A.) Check adequacy of breathing

B.) Gauge oxygen concentration
C.) Ensure it is patent
D.) Measure air movement
Correct Answer: C
258. Which is NOT considered an advantage of the nasotracheal intubation?

A.) It is more comfortable for the patient

B.) The tube cannot be bitten
C.) The tube can be easily anchored
D.) It is less traumatic for the patient
Correct Answer: D

259. What is the main laryngeal cartilage?

A.) Arytenoid
B.) Cricoid
C.) Tracheal
D.) Thyroid
Correct Answer: D
260. Which is NOT a reason for oxygenation of the hypoxic patient?

A.) Increasing oxygen concentration at the alveolar level

B.) Increasing the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient's cells
C.) Increasing arterial oxygen levels
D.) Increasing the percentage of expired oxygen
Correct Answer: D
261. Which is NOT a contraindication of using the esophageal obturator airway?
A.) Persons over the age of 16
B.) Persons who may have ingested caustic poisons

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 C.) Persons with a history of alcoholism
D.) Persons under 5 feet tall
Correct Answer: A
262. Which is the best way to confirm proper placement of the endotracheal tube?

A.) Observe the chest rising and falling

B.) Visualize the entire intubation process
C.) Utilize the end-tidal carbon dioxide detector
D.) Esophageal detector device
Correct Answer: B
263. Which is the uppermost part of the pharynx?
A.) Nasopharynx
B.) Hypopharynx
C.) Oropharynx
D.) Laryngopharynx
Correct Answer: A
264. How should the tubing of an esophageal obturator airway be grasped?

A.) Like a fork

B.) Like an apple
C.) Like an axe
D.) Like a pencil
Correct Answer: D
265. What is the average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle?

A.) Minute volume

B.) Tidal volume
C.) Alveolar volume
D.) Dead space volume
Correct Answer: B
266. What is the superior-most portion of the airway?

A.) Oropharynx
B.) Nasopharynx
C.) Nasal cavity
D.) Oral cavity
Correct Answer: C
267. Which device delivers high pressures?

A.) Automatic ventilator

B.) Pocket mask
C.) Demand valve
D.) Bag-valve
Correct Answer: C
267. Which part of the airway does gas exchange take place?

A.) Middle

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 B.) Upper
C.) Lower
D.) Outer
Correct Answer: C
268. What is used to lift the tongue and epiglottis out of the way for placement of an
endotracheal tube?

A.) Endotracheal tube

B.) Laryngoscope
C.) Stylet
D.) Magill forceps
Correct Answer: B
269. Which is NOT a disadvantage to percutaneous trans tracheal catheter ventilation?

A.) It may not allow for efficient elimination of carbon dioxide

B.) It may perforate the trachea if the needle is inserted too far
C.) It may lead to pneumothorax due to high pressures generated during ventilation
D.) It does not allow for direct suctioning of secretions
Correct Answer: B
270. What can be used to prevent regurgitation while ventilating a patient?

A.) Fondren's Maneuver

B.) Sellick's Maneuver
C.) Trudrit's Maneuver
D.) Glottic's Maneuver
Correct Answer: B

271. Which type of process is normal expiration of air?

A.) Reactive
B.) Active
C.) Passive
D.) Aggressive
Correct Answer: C

272. Which direction is the patient's jaw displaced when performing the jaw-thrust
maneuver?

A.) Right
B.) Forward
C.) Backward
D.) Left
Correct Answer: B
273. What measures oxygen saturation in peripheral tissues?
A.) Peripheral oximeter

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 B.) Pulse oximeter
C.) Saturation oximeter
D.) Blood oximeter
Correct Answer: B
274. What color will the skin turn when there is carbon monoxide poisoning?

A.) Cherry red

B.) Ashen gray
C.) Pink
D.) Yellow
Correct Answer: A
275. Which tube should be used first when the esophageal tracheal combitube is in place?

A.) Clear
B.) Green
C.) Blue
D.) Yellow
Correct Answer:C
276. If the clear tube is in the esophagus, a breath into which color tube will make the chest
rise?

A.) Clear
B.) Yellow
C.) Green
D.) Red
Correct Answer: B

277. What is a blood clot in the pulmonary circulation that adversely affects oxygenation of
the blood?

A.) Pulmonary edema

B.) Atelectasis
C.) Emphysema
D.) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: D
278. What is the total lung capacity of the adult male?

A.) 6 liters
B.) 4 liters
C.) 3 liters
D.) 5 liters
Correct Answer: A

279. What is the minimum amount of oxygen that should be delivered with the simple face
mask?

A.) 10 liters

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 B.) 12 liters
C.) 8 liters
D.) 6 liters
Correct Answer: D
280. Which is a disadvantage of the nasopharyngeal airway?

A.) It is rapidly inserted

B.) It is smaller than the oropharyngeal airway
C.) It bypasses the tongue
D.) It may be used in the presence of a gag reflex
Correct Answer: B

281. What is the last method of checking the effectiveness of ventilatory support?

A.) Smell
B.) Listen
C.) Feel
D.) Look
Correct Answer: C
282. Which situation does NOT call for the use of a nasotracheal tube?

A.) Patient with fractured jaw

B.) Severely obese patient
C.) Patient with basilar skull fracture
D.) Spinal injury patient
Correct Answer: C
283. What gauge cannula should be used for an adult needle cricothyrotomy?

A.) 18-20
B.) 12-14
C.) 16-18
D.) 14-16
Correct Answer: B
284. What percentage of oxygen administration does the nasal cannula deliver?

A.) 34%-54%
B.) 14%-34%
C.) 44%-64%
D.) 24%-44%
Correct Answer: D
285. Which type of airway obstruction is characterized with an effective cough?

A.) Upper
B.) Partial
C.) Lower
D.) Complete
Correct Answer: B

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286. Which is NOT an advantage of the pharyngeo-tracheal lumen airway?

A.) It can be used in patients with a gag reflex

B.) It has no face mask to seal
C.) It does not require head or neck movement
D.) It does not require direct visualization of the larynx
Correct Answer: A
287. What is the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide concentrations called?
A.) Cadonography
B.) Caconography
C.) Caronography
D.) Caponography
Correct Answer: D
288. Which hand should the laryngoscope be used in?

A.) Right
B.) Both
C.) Neither
D.) Left
Correct Answer: D
289. What is the minimum amount of oxygen per minute that should be delivered when
providing ventilatory support?

A.) 500 mL
B.) 700 mL
C.) 800 mL
D.) 600 mL
Correct Answer: C
290. What is the maximum amount of time an attempt at suctioning a patient should last
due to the fact that the patient's oxygen is cut off?

A.) 20 seconds
B.) 10 seconds
C.) 30 seconds
D.) 40 seconds
Correct Answer: B
300. Which is a disadvantage of the oropharyngeal airway?

A.) The device is easily dislodged

B.) Allows air to pass around the device
C.) Prevents obstruction by teeth
D.) Serves as an effective bite block
Correct Answer: A
301. How many square meters of surface area do the aveoli possess?

A.) 20

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 B.) 30
C.) 10
D.) 40
Correct Answer: D
302. What is an asymmetrical chest wall movement caused by a defect that lessens
respiratory efficiency called?

A.) Hemodoxical breathing

B.) Paradoxical breathing
C.) Latidoxical breathing
D.) Baradoxical breathing
Correct Answer: B
303. When should the suction be activated?
A.) Before the tube is inserted
B.) While the tube is being inserted
C.) Once the tube is in place
D.) After the tube has been removed
Correct Answer: C
304. Which major respiratory gas is metabolically inert?

A.) Oxygen
B.) Nitrogen
C.) Carbon dioxide
D.) Water
Correct Answer: B

305. Which nostril should be picked when performing nasotracheal intubation?

A.) Smaller
B.) Left
C.) Larger
D.) Right
Correct Answer: C
306. How many lobes does the right lung contain?
A.) 4
B.) 3
C.) 1
D.) 2
Correct Answer: B
307. What is the minimum age limit for usage of the mechanical ventilator?

A.) 5
B.) 4
C.) 2
D.) 3
Correct Answer: A

Page 50 of 113
308. Which is a sign of esophageal intubation?

A.) Lack of sounds made by the vocal chords

B.) Breath sounds on one side only
C.) Poor compliance felt with bag-valve device
D.) Absence of breath sounds with ventilatory support
Correct Answer: D
309. Which serves no known physiological purpose?

A.) Sneezing
B.) Coughing
C.) Grunting
D.) Hiccoughing
Correct Answer: D
310. Which is NOT an oxygen concentration that can be delivered with the Venturi mask?

A.) 24%
B.) 40%
C.) 37%
D.) 28%
Correct Answer: C
311. Which activity decreases respiratory rate?

A.) Sleep
B.) Fever
C.) Hypoxia
D.) Pain
Correct Answer: A
312. What shape should the stylet and tubing be bent into when performing digital
intubation?

A.) J
B.) L
C.) S
D.) U
Correct Answer: A

313. What is NOT a step to take when placing an endotracheal tube in a patient with an
esophageal obturator airway?

A.) Hyperventilate the patient with 100% oxygen

B.) Inflate the distal cuff with 5-10 mL of air
C.) Place the endotracheal tube in with the EOA
D.) Remove the EOA tubing, then place the endotracheal
Correct Answer: D
314. Which causes increased carbon dioxide production?

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 A.) Muscle exertion
B.) Asthma
C.) Respiratory depression by drugs
D.) Airway obstruction
Correct Answer: A

315. What is a harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inhalation associated with laryngeal
edema?

A.) Snoring
B.) Gurgling
C.) Gargling
D.) Stridor
Correct Answer: D
316. Which position should the patient's head be placed in when performing a blind
nasotracheal intubation?

A.) Relaxed
B.) Back-tilt
C.) Sideways
D.) Front-tilt
Correct Answer: A
317. What helps prevent food from entering the lungs?

A.) Chock reflex

B.) Food reflex
C.) Gag reflex
D.) Swallowing reflex
Correct Answer: C
318. What ending point is used to measure out a nasopharyngeal airway?

A.) Adam's apple

B.) Earlobe
C.) Carotid artery
D.) Chin
Correct Answer: B
319. What is the pressure exerted by each component of a gas mixture?

A.) Exerted pressure

B.) Total pressure
C.) Combined pressure
D.) Partial pressure
Correct Answer: D
320. Which direction in relation to the top of the mouth should the tip of the oropharyngeal
airway be inserted?

A.) Towards the top

B.) Towards the left cheek

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 C.) Towards the tongue
D.) Towards the right cheek
Correct Answer: A

321. Which side of the patient's mouth should the endotracheal tube be inserted from?
A.) Bottom
B.) Top
C.) Right
D.) Left
Correct Answer: C
322. Which condition occurs as a result of increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the
blood?

A.) Hyperoxemia
B.) Hypoxemia
C.) Hypocarbia
D.) Hypercarbia
Correct Answer: D
323. How many divisions occur before the bronchioles become respiratory bronchioles?

A.) 28
B.) 24
C.) 26
D.) 22
Correct Answer: D
324. What can be placed in the syringe to signal that the needle is in the trachea when
performing a transtracheal jet ventilation procedure?

A.) Saline
B.) Food coloring
C.) Morphine
D.) Dye
Correct Answer: A

325. What concentration of oxygen will the bag-valve device deliver when no
supplementation is used?

A.) 35%
B.) 21%
C.) 31%
D.) 25%
Correct Answer: B
326. What is the range of lengths of the nasopharyngeal airway?

A.) 20-23 cm

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 B.) 17-20 cm
C.) 26-29 cm
D.) 23-26 cm
Correct Answer: B
327. Which condition is NOT indicative of using endotracheal intubation?

A.) Possible airway obstruction

B.) Respiratory arrest
C.) Conscious with a gag reflex
D.) Decreased minute volume
Correct Answer: C
328. How long should the patient be ventilated with 100% oxygen if an attempt at the rapid
sequence ventilation is not successful?

A.) 15-30 seconds

B.) 30-60 seconds
C.) 90-120 seconds
D.) 60-90 seconds
Correct Answer: B
330. What position should the patient's head be when inserting the airway of the
esophageal obturator airway?

A.) Tilted left

B.) Tilted right
C.) Tilted back
D.) Neutral
Correct Answer: D
331. What is defined as the mechanical process whereby air is taken into and out of the
lungs?

A.) Respiration
B.) Diffusion
C.) Ventilation
D.) Circulation
Correct Answer: C
332. How many millimeters of oxygen does each gram of saturated hemoglobin carry?

A.) 1.64
B.) 1.34
C.) 1.44
D.) 1.54
Correct Answer: B
333. What is the optimal liters per minute delivery with a nonrebreather mask?

A.) 10-15
B.) 25-30

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 C.) 20-25
D.) 15-20
Correct Answer: A

334. Which type of neuromuscular blocker takes effect in 60-90 seconds and lasts 3-5
minutes?

A.) Vecuronium
B.) Pancuronium
C.) Succinylcholine
D.) Pavulon
Correct Answer: C
335. What reflex prevents the lungs from becoming over inflated?

A.) Tordol-Breuer
B.) Hering-Breuer
C.) Fondren-Breuer
D.) Mindre-Breuer
Correct Answer: B

336. Where does the main center for respiratory control lie?

A.) Apneustic center

B.) Medulla
C.) Pneumotaxic center
D.) Pons
Correct Answer: B
337. How long should each attempt at intubation be limited to in order to avoid hypoxia?

A.) 15 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 60 seconds
D.) 45 seconds
Correct Answer: B

338. Where does the paramedic sit when performing endotracheal intubation in the trauma
patient?

A.) Next to the patient's chest

B.) Above the patient's head
C.) Over the patient's chest
D.) Below the patient's head
Correct Answer: B
339. Which angle should the needle be directed caudally when performing a needle
cricothyrotomy?

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 A.) 45 degree
B.) 70 degree
C.) 65 degree
D.) 90 degree
Correct Answer: A

340. Which type of suctioning device is not capable of retrieving even small pieces of food?

A.) Tonsil-tip
B.) Whistle-tip
C.) Trumble-tip
D.) Yankauer-tip
Correct Answer: B

341. Which is a disadvantage of using the esophageal tracheal combitube?

A.) It cannot be used in patients with a gag reflex

B.) It cannot be rapidly inserted
C.) It does not require visualization of the larynx
D.) The airway is anchored behind the soft palate
Correct Answer: A

342. Where should the paramedic be located relative to the patient when performing the
head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver?

A.) Above his/her head

B.) Across his/her abdomen
C.) At his/her side
D.) Over his/her chest
Correct Answer: C
343. How long is the trachea?

A.) 10-12 centimeters

B.) 12-14 centimeters
C.) 14-16 centimeters
D.) 16-18 centimeters
Correct Answer: A

344. What part of the anatomy is the cutoff point for the upper airway?

A.) Larynx
B.) Septum
C.) Tonsil
D.) Pharynx
Correct Answer: A

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345. How long should each attempt at endotracheal intubation take maximum in a pediatric
patient?

A.) 45 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 15 seconds
D.) 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B

350. Which end of the tubing of the endotracheal tube is open?

A.) Both
B.) Top
C.) Bottom
D.) Neither
Correct Answer: A

351. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

A.) Trauma
B.) Tongue
C.) Laryngeal spasm
D.) Foreign body
Correct Answer: B

352. What is a standard size of endotracheal tubing for an adult male or female?

A.) 7.5 i.d.

B.) 8.5 i.d.
C.) 6.0 i.d.
D.) 9.0 i.d.
Correct Answer: A

353. Which reading of oxygen saturation indicates sever hypoxia?

A.) 85%
B.) 90%
C.) 95%
D.) 100%
Correct Answer: A

354. Which is NOT a difference between the adult and pediatric anatomy in relation to
endotracheal intubation?

A.) Epiglottis is "floppy" and narrow

B.) Glottic opening is lower and more posterior to the neck

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 C.) Tongue is larger in relation to the oropharynx
D.) Narrowest part of the upper airway is at the cricoids cartilage
Correct Answer: B

355. Which is important for electrical impulse transmission?

A.) Potassium
B.) Phosphate
C.) Magnesium
D.) Bicarbonate
Correct Answer: A

356. Which colloid contains albumin?

A.) Hetastarch
B.) Hespan
C.) Dextran
D.) Plasmanate
Correct Answer: D
357. Which does NOT lead to decreased perfusion?

A.) Excessive afterload

B.) Inadequate container
C.) Inadequate pump
D.) Overadequate fluid
Correct Answer: D

358. Which gauge cannula is used to treat a pediatric patient in the prehospital setting?

A.) 22
B.) 18
C.) 16
D.) 20
Correct Answer: A

359. Which situation would warrant the use of whole blood as the first choice?

A.) Dehydration
B.) Hemorrhagic shock
C.) Shock from burns
D.) Cardiac arrest
Correct Answer: B

360. What is the fluid of the cardiovascular system?

A.) CSF

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 B.) Bile
C.) Water
D.) Blood
Correct Answer: D
361. What principle says that an adequate concentration of inspired oxygen must be present
for the overall movement and use of oxygen in the body?

A.) Fick
B.) Pick
C.) Muck
D.) Luck
Correct Answer: A

362. What degree angle should the needle and catheter be inserted into the skin when
administering a cannula?

A.) 30-45 degree

B.) 45-60 degree
C.) 60-75 degree
D.) 15-30 degree
Correct Answer: A

363. What should be done when the site is prepared for cannula placement?

A.) Driver pull over for placement

B.) Driver speed up for placement
C.) Nothing needs to be done for placement
D.) Driver slow down for placement
Correct Answer: A

364. What must be overcome for the heart to pump blood effectively?
A.) Tissue perfusion residue
B.) Cardiac contractile force
C.) Peripheral vascular resistance
D.) Cardiac output
Correct Answer: C
365. Which movement of a solvent across a semi-permeable membrane does not require
energy?

A.) Osmosis
B.) Gradiation
C.) Active transport
D.) Facilitated diffusion
Correct Answer: A

366. What should NOT be done if a transfusion reaction is suspected?

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 A.) Keep the vein open
B.) Squeeze the bag
C.) Keep the fluid
D.) Notify medical control
Correct Answer: B

367. What liter flow should be used when using a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is
breathing sufficiently?
A.) 20-25 liters/minute
B.) 10-15 liters/minute
C.) 5-10 liters/minute
D.) 15-20 liters/minute
Correct Answer: B

368. Which type of shock does not generally warrant the use of medications?

A.) Cardiogenic
B.) Neurogenic
C.) Hypovolemic
D.) Extravolemic
Correct Answer: C

369. What percentage of plasma is made from water?

A.) 74%
B.) 86%
C.) 68%
D.) 92%
Correct Answer: D
370. Which item does NOT affect peripheral resistance?
A.) Viscosity of the blood
B.) Length of the vessel
C.) Thickness of the vessel
D.) Diameter of the vessel
Correct Answer: C

371. What percentage of the total body weight is composed of water?

A.) 30%
B.) 40%
C.) 60%
D.) 50%
Correct Answer: C

372. Which results from bicarbonate ions being consumed?

A.) Metabolic alkalosis

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 B.) Respiratory alkalosis
C.) Respiratory acidosis
D.) Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: D

373. Which type of shock is a result of the heart not being able to pump enough blood to
supply all body parts?

A.) Hypovolemic
B.) Cardiogenic
C.) Neurogenic
D.) Hemorrhagic
Correct Answer: B

374. Which can signal shock even before there are changes in blood pressure?

A.) Skin color

B.) Body temperature
C.) Mental status
D.) Capillary refill
Correct Answer: A
375. Which is NOT an adjective used when referring to the blood vessels of the
cardiovascular system?

A.) Pressurized
B.) Permeable
C.) Closed
D.) Continuous
Correct Answer: B

376. Which is a description of an angiocath?

A.) Plastic catheter inserted through a hollow needle

B.) Solid needle
C.) Plastic catheter inserted over a hollow needle
D.) Hollow needle
Correct Answer: C

377. Which is among the most frequently occurring anion?

A.) Potassium
B.) Chloride
C.) Magnesium
D.) Calcium
Correct Answer: B

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378. Which term refers to the state when the pH is lower than normal due to increased
hydrogen ion concentration?

A.) Hepatosis
B.) Hemotosis
C.) Acidosis
D.) Alkalosis
Correct Answer: C

379. What is a state of inadequate tissue perforation?

A.) Shock
B.) Acidosis
C.) Afterload
D.) Metabolism
Correct Answer: A

380. What should be wrapped first when using the PASG?

A.) Feet
B.) Arms
C.) Abdomen
D.) Legs
Correct Answer: D

381. Which is NOT one of the most commonly used solutions used in prehospital care?

A.) Normal saline

B.) Lactated Ringer's
C.) D5W
D.) Whole blood
Correct Answer: D

382. What is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute?

A.) Cardiac contractile force

B.) Peripheral vascular resistance
C.) Cardiac preload
D.) Cardiac output
Correct Answer: D

383. Which stage of shock is characterized by prolonged capillary refill time and a
rapid/thready pulse?

A.) Irreversible

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 B.) Compensated
C.) Reversible
D.) Decompensated
Correct Answer: D

384. Which is an example of a crystalloid that has an electrolyte composition similar to

blood plasma?

A.) Hypotonic
B.) Hypertonic
C.) Isotonic
D.) Intratonic
Correct Answer: C
385. When the hydrogen ion concentration is high, how does the pH level relate to this?

A.) pH does not relate to hydrogen level

B.) pH level is same
C.) pH level is high
D.) pH level is low
Correct Answer: D
386. Where is 75% of the body's water found?

A.) Intravascular compartment

B.) Extracellular compartment
C.) Intracellular compartment
D.) Extravascular compartment
Correct Answer: C
387. What is the major sign of overhydration?

A.) Tugor
B.) Lack of tears
C.) Othostatic hypotension
D.) Edema
Correct Answer: D
388. Which type of metabolism requires oxygen?

A.) Anaerobic
B.) Peripheral
C.) Aerobic
D.) Lateral
Correct Answer: C
389. Which is the first stage of shock that is characterized by tachycardia?

A.) Decompensated
B.) Reversible
C.) Irreversible
D.) Compensated
Correct Answer: D

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390. Which blood type is referred to as the universal donor?

A.) A
B.) B
C.) AB
D.) O
Correct Answer: D
391. Which is the result of retention of carbon dioxide?
A.) Metabolic alkalosis
B.) Respiratory alkalosis
C.) Respiratory acidosis
D.) Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: C
392. What term is used to describe the totality of the ongoing biomedical and physiological
activity necessary to support life?

A.) Metabolism
B.) Dehydration
C.) Homeostasis
D.) Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
393. Which action is dependent on the venous return?

A.) Preload
B.) Cardiac output
C.) Cardiac contractile force
D.) Afterload
Correct Answer: A

394. Which is NOT something that can be observed in a potential shock victim when walking
up to them?

A.) Body temperature

B.) Respiratory effort
C.) Mental status
D.) Skin color
Correct Answer: A

395. Which is a contraindication for the use of the pneumatic anti-shock garment?

A.) Stabilization of fractures

B.) Pulmonary edema
C.) Blood pressure
D.) Control of bleeding
Correct Answer: B
396. Which part of the body receives a lessened blood flow when shock begins?

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 A.) Heart
B.) Brain
C.) Skin
D.) Kidneys
Correct Answer: C
397. What is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid when the patient is in respiratory
acidosis?

A.) 20:1
B.) 15:4
C.) 15:1
D.) 20:4
Correct Answer: D
398. Which complication has occurred when there is an abrupt onset of fever after
cannulation has been performed?

A.) Circulatory overload

B.) Catheter shear
C.) Pyrogenic reaction
D.) Air embolism
Correct Answer: C
399. Which type of intravenous administration set is standard?

A.) Minidrip
B.) Milidrip
C.) Macrodrip
D.) Microdrip
Correct Answer: C
400. What systolic pressure can it be assumed the patient has if the femoral pulse can be
palpated, but the radial cannot?

A.) 70 mm Hg
B.) 50 mm Hg
C.) 80 mm Hg
D.) 60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A

401. How many inches should the patient's legs be elevated when treating for shock?

A.) 10-12 inches

B.) 12-14 inches
C.) 8-10 inches
D.) 14-16 inches
Correct Answer: A

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402. Which is considered a disadvantage of using the more distal veins when administering
a cannula?

A.) Medications get to heart too fast

B.) They are more fragile
C.) Can use higher veins if failure occurs
D.) Patient can move hand freely
Correct Answer: B
403. During which stage of shock does cellular death occur?

A.) Reversible
B.) Decompensated
C.) Irreversible
D.) Compensated
Correct Answer: C
404. Which state occurs when solutions on opposite sides of a semi-premeable membrane
are equal in concentration?

A.) Hypertonic
B.) Hypotonic
C.) Intratonic
D.) Isotonic
Correct Answer: D
405. What is the maximum amount of fluid that should be administered to an adult patient
in the field setting?

A.) 5-6 liters

B.) 3-4 liters
C.) 2-3 liters
D.) 4-5 liters
Correct Answer: C
406. Which type of water loss occurs from a severe burn?

A.) Internal
B.) Increased sweating
C.) Gastrointestinal
D.) Plasma
Correct Answer: D
407. Which type of hemorrhage is NOT controlled by the PASG?

A.) Lower extremity

B.) Spleen
C.) Upper extremity
D.) Liver
Correct Answer: C
408. What does NOT need to be used to monitor the patient en route to the hospital?

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 A.) Capillary refill
B.) Skin moisture
C.) Blood pressure
D.) ECG
Correct Answer: A

409. What is a safe dosage of ipratropium for a child?

A.) 0.03 mg/kg body weight

B.) 0.15 mg/kg in 2.5 ml of normal saline by nebulizer
C.) Safety has not been established
D.) 0.5 g/kg slow IV diluted with 1:1 sterile water
Correct Answer: C

410. How long after the first dose has been given can a second of naloxone be given?

A.) 10 minutes
B.) 5 minutes
C.) 2 minutes
D.) 7 minutes
Correct Answer: B
411. What is the pediatric dose of furosemide?

A.) 1 mg/kg
B.) 5 mg/kg
C.) 80 mg IV push
D.) 20 mg IV push
Correct Answer: A

412. Which condition increases the rate of absorption of a medication?

A.) Hyperthermia
B.) Acidosis
C.) Hypothermia
D.) Shock
Correct Answer: A

413. Which is NOT a condition that results from stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous
system?

A.) Secretion by digestive glands

B.) Pupillary dilation
C.) Bronchoconstriction
D.) Increased smooth muscle activity
Correct Answer: B

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414. What is the protective mechanism that selectively allows the entry of only a limited
number of compounds into the brain?

A.) Drug brain barrier

B.) Compound brain barrier
C.) Blood brain barrier
D.) Fluid brain barrier
Correct Answer: C
415. How long does it generally take to see results from a glucagon injection?

A.) Instantly
B.) 5-20 minutes
C.) 5-15 minutes
D.) 5-10 minutes
Correct Answer: B
416. What is not an indication of methylprednisolone?

A.) Spinal cord injury

B.) Major motor seizure
C.) Anaphylaxsis
D.) Exacerbation of COPD
Correct Answer: B
417. Which is the fundamental measurement of length in the metric system?

A.) Inch
B.) Mile
C.) Gram
D.) Meter
Correct Answer: D
418. What medication decreases a bodily function or activity?

A.) Stimulant
B.) Bolus
C.) Synergism
D.) Depressant
Correct Answer: D
419. Which type of solid drug comes in the form of a gelatin container with a powder inside?

A.) Capsule
B.) Tablet
C.) Suppository
D.) Pill
Correct Answer: A
420. Which is an indication of magnesium sulfate?

A.) Hypocalcaemia

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 B.) Hypertensive
C.) Eclampsia
D.) Shock
Correct Answer: C
421. Which is the fundamental measurement of volume in the metric system?

A.) Gram
B.) Quart
C.) Ounce
D.) Liter
Correct Answer: D
422. What is the difference between effective and toxic concentrations of a medication
called?

A.) Therapeutic leve

B.) Therapeutic index
C.) Therapeutic zone
D.) Therapeutic range
Correct Answer: B

423. Which is the formula for computing the volume of a drug to be administered?

A.) Volume administered=(volume on hand) X (desired dose)/concentration on hand

B.) Volume administered=(concentration on hand) X (desired dose)/volume on hand
C.) Concentration on hand=(volume on hand) X (volume administered)/desired dose
D.) Volume on hand=(volume administered) X (desired dose)/concentration on hand
Correct Answer: A

424. How should nifedipine be administered?

A.) Orally
B.) Intravenously
C.) Intramuscularly
D.) Rectally
Correct Answer: A

425. What is the dosage to an adult in cardiac arrest with the 1:10,000 solution of
epinephrine?

A.) 1.0-1.5 mg
B.) 0.5-1.0 mg
C.) 2.0-2.5 mg
D.) 1.5-2.0 mg
Correct Answer: B
426. When is aminophylline contraindicated?

A.) Congestive heart failure

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 B.) Uncontrolled cardiac dysrhythmias
C.) Bronchial asthma
D.) Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B

427. What oxygen level should the COPD patient receive initially?

A.) 50%
B.) 80%
C.) 35%
D.) 65%
Correct Answer: C
428. Which type of administration places the lines into the bone?

A.) Intraosseous
B.) Sublingual
C.) Intravenous
D.) Intracardiac
Correct Answer: A
429. When is lidocaine contraindicated?

A.) Bradycardia with PVC's

B.) Malignant PVC's
C.) Ventricular fibrillation
D.) Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: A

430. What percentage of total hormones released by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine?

A.) 60%
B.) 80%
C.) 20%
D.) 40%
Correct Answer: B
431. Which type of drugs are administered via an intramuscular route?

A.) Liquid
B.) Parenteral
C.) Solid
D.) Rectal
Correct Answer: B

432. What classification is given to verapamil?

A.) Non-selective beta blocker

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 B.) Antiarrhythmic
C.) Calcium channel blocker
D.) Sympathetic agonist
Correct Answer: C
433. How are most critical care medications administered?

A.) Subcutaneously
B.) Orally
C.) Intravenously
D.) Intramuscularly
Correct Answer: C

434. Which preganglionic nerves control activity in the abdonimopelvic region?

A.) Adrenal medulla
B.) Sympathetic chain
C.) Parasympathetic chain
D.) Collateral
Correct Answer: D
435. What is the amount of aminophylline should be mixed with 90 milliliters of 5%
dextrose when being used to treat bronchial asthma?

A.) 500 mg
B.) 600 mg
C.) 250 mg
D.) 350 mg
Correct Answer: C
436. How many milligrams of procainamide are in the 10-milliliter vials?

A.) 2000 mg
B.) 1000 mg
C.) 3000 mg
D.) 4000 mg
Correct Answer: B
437. Which is the drug of choice for managing cardiogenic shock?

A.) Labetalol
B.) Norepinephrine
C.) Dobutamine
D.) Dopamine
Correct Answer: D

438. What medication slows intraventricular conduction to a greater degree than lidocaine?

A.) Adenosine
B.) Verapamil
C.) Bretylium tosylate
D.) Procainamide

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 Correct Answer: D

439. How many milligrams of norepinephrine should be diluted in 500 milliliters of D5W to
attain the recommended dose?

A.) 8
B.) 6
C.) 2
D.) 4
Correct Answer: A

440. Which patient should naloxone be used carefully in?

A.) Narcotic analgesic overdose

B.) Habitual narcotic user
C.) Coma of unknown origin
D.) Narcotic overdose
Correct Answer: B
441. What is the adult emergency dosage of thiamine?

A.) 400 mg
B.) 200 mg
C.) 300 mg
D.) 100 mg
Correct Answer: D
442. What must be done first if a medication amount is to be figured using the patient's
weight?

A.) Convert the weight to micrograms

B.) Convert the weight to kilograms
C.) Convert the weight to grains
D.) Convert the weight to kilograins
Correct Answer: B
443. Which schedule of addictive medication has a lesser potential for abuse as well as a
number of accepted medical uses?
A.) II
B.) IV
C.) I
D.) III
Correct Answer: D
444. How many milliliters does it take to make one cubic centimeter?

A.) 3
B.) 2
C.) 1
D.) 4
Correct Answer: C

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445. What results from an inactive medication after biotransformation has occurred?

A.) Mesabolite
B.) Melabolite
C.) Menabolite
D.) Metabolite
Correct Answer: D
446. How should sodium bicarbonate be administered?

A.) IV infusion
B.) Intraosseous
C.) Endotracheal
D.) IV bolus
Correct Answer: D
447. What is the pediatric dosage of epinephrine 1:10,000?

A.) 0.02 mg/kg

B.) 0.04 mg/kg
C.) 0.03 mg/kg
D.) 0.01 mg/kg
Correct Answer: D
448. Which type of parenteral administration places the medication in the fatty layer under
the skin?

A.) Sublingual
B.) Intravenous
C.) Subcutaneous
D.) Transdermal
Correct Answer: C

449. What is the usual dosage of promethazine when used to treat nausea?

A.) 37.5-50 mg
B.) 12.5-25 mg
C.) 25-37.5 mg
D.) 50-62.5 mg
Correct Answer: B
450. How long after administration of syrup of ipecac does emesis occur?

A.) 15-20 minutes

B.) 5-10 minutes
C.) 10-15 minutes
D.) 20-25 mintes
Correct Answer: B
451. What is the space between the nerve cell and the target organ called?

A.) Synapse space

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 B.) Neurotransmittor space
C.) Cholinergic space
D.) Neuroeffector space
Correct Answer: D
452. Which is a contraindication of diphenhydramine?

A.) Dystonic reactions

B.) Anaphylaxis
C.) Allergic reactions
D.) Asthma
Correct Answer: D
453. Which is used to treat children with croup?

A.) Racemic epinephrine

B.) Methylprednisolone
C.) Albuterol
D.) Glucagon
Correct Answer: A
454. How many units of oxytocin can be administered intramuscularly following delivery of
the placenta?

A.) 3-10
B.) 6-13
C.) 4-11
D.) 5-12
Correct Answer: A

455. Which receptors are specific to norepinephrine and epinephrine-like substances?

A.) Neuroinergic
B.) Adrenergic
C.) Cholinergic
D.) Dopaminergic
Correct Answer: B
456. What dosage increments are commonly used when using morphine for pain?

A.) 4 mg
B.) 3 mg
C.) 2 mg
D.) 5 mg
Correct Answer: C
457. What is the maximum total dosage of procainamide that should be administered when
given at a rate of 20 mg/minute?

A.) 13 mg/kg
B.) 15 mg/kg

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 C.) 19 mg/kg
D.) 17 mg/kg
Correct Answer: D
458. Where does the sympathetic nervous system arise from?

A.) Cervical spine

B.) Thoracic spine
C.) Occiput spine
D.) Sacrum spine
Correct Answer: B
459. How many grams of magnesium sulfate should be administered via the IV?

A.) 6-8
B.) 8-10
C.) 4-6
D.) 2-4
Correct Answer: D
460. When is nitros oxide contraindicated?

A.) Intoxicated patient

B.) Hyperventilation
C.) Suspected ischemic chest pain
D.) Burns
Correct Answer: A

461. What is the initial dose of atropine when treating asystole?

A.) 0.5 mg
B.) 1.0 mg
C.) 0.7 mg
D.) 1.2 mg
Correct Answer: B
462. When administering naloxone endotracheally how much total fluid needs to be used?

A.) 30 ml
B.) 10 ml
C.) 40 ml
D.) 20 ml
Correct Answer: B
463. What are the groups of autonomic nerve cells located outside of the central nervous
system called?

A.) Post-ganglionic
B.) Pre-ganglionic
C.) Autonomic synapse
D.) Autonomic ganglia
Correct Answer: D

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464. How should haloperidol be administered?

A.) Subcutaneously
B.) Sublingually
C.) Intramuscularly
D.) Intravenously
Correct Answer: C
465. What is the pediatric dosage of diphenhydramine?

A.) 2-5 mg/kg

B.) 9-11 mg/kg
C.) 7-9 mg/kg
D.) 5-7 mg/kg
Correct Answer: A
466. Which is an example of a synthetic medication?

A.) Insulin
B.) Calcium chloride
C.) Lidocaine
D.) Atropine
Correct Answer: C
467. What is the subcutaneous injection dosage of terbutaline in an adult?

A.) 0.75 mg
B.) 0.25 mg
C.) 0.07 mg
D.) 0.01 mg
Correct Answer: B

468. Which is NOT one of the most common methods of administering drugs in the
prehospital setting?

A.) Intravenous
B.) Orally
C.) Intramuscular
D.) Subcutaneous
Correct Answer: B
469. What is the maximum dosage of verapamil in a 30-minute period?

A.) 40 mg
B.) 10 mg
C.) 30 mg
D.) 20 mg
Correct Answer: C
470. Where does the liver eliminate a drug?

A.) Air

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 B.) Urine
C.) Feces
D.) Bile
Correct Answer: D
471. Which type of drugs block the actions of the sympathetic nervous system?

A.) Antagonists
B.) Sympatholytics
C.) Sympathomimetics
D.) Agonists
Correct Answer: B
472. What is the maximum recommended dosage of adenosine?

A.) 10 mg
B.) 16 mg
C.) 12 mg
D.) 14 mg
Correct Answer: C
473. What is the trade name that is given to a drug?

A.) Drug's chemical structure name

B.) Abbreviated chemical name
C.) Name published in the United States Pharmacopeia
D.) Manufacturer's given name
Correct Answer: D
474. What is a side effect that is harmful to the patient?

A.) Therapeutic action

B.) Cumulative action
C.) Untoward effect
D.) Idiosyncratic effect
Correct Answer: C
475. How should labetalol be administered to treat hypertensive crisis?
A.) Intramuscular injection
B.) Slow IV injection
C.) Rectally
D.) Bolus
Correct Answer: B
476. What is the concentration of nitronox to oxygen in nitros oxide?

A.) 50% to 50%

B.) 80% to 20%
C.) 75% to 25%
D.) 40% to 60%
Correct Answer: A
477. What is the metric system based upon?

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 A.) The unit 4
B.) The unit 8
C.) The unit 6
D.) The unit 10
Correct Answer: D
478. How many times the recommended IV dose should an endotracheal dose be?

A.) 4 times
B.) 5 times
C.) 2 times
D.) 3 times
Correct Answer: C
479. Which drugs bind to the receptors and cause a response?

A.) Antibolus
B.) Bolus
C.) Agonists
D.) Antagonists
Correct Answer: C
480. Which method of administering a parenteral drug has one patient dose ready to be
loaded into the syringe?
A.) Preloaded syringe
B.) Tube
C.) Ampule
D.) Vial
Correct Answer: C
481. Which is a contraindication of using calcium chloride?

A.) Patient with calcium-channel-blocker toxicity

B.) Patient with digitalis toxicity
C.) Patient with decreased calcium
D.) Patient with elevated potassium
Correct Answer: B
482. What is the only method that albuterol should be administered?
A.) Absorption
B.) Injection
C.) Ingestion
D.) Inhalation
Correct Answer: D
483. What is the pediatric dosage of diazepam?

A.) 0.3-0.4 mg/kg

B.) 0.4-0.5 mg/kg
C.) 0.2-0.3 mg/kg
D.) 0.1-0.2 mg/kg
Correct Answer: D

Page 78 of 113
484. How many sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be administered in the prehospital
setting maximum?

A.) 3
B.) 5
C.) 4
D.) 6
Correct Answer: A
485. What is the standard dosage of activated charcoal used to treat poisoning?

A.) 25-50 grams

B.) 50-75 grams
C.) 75-100 grams
D.) 100-125 grams
Correct Answer: B
486. What are most drugs used for in prehospital care?

A.) Neurological emergency

B.) Gastrointestinal emergency
C.) Muscular skeletal emergency
D.) Cardiovascular emergency
Correct Answer: D
487. How soon after administration of nitroglycerin is pain relief generally felt?
A.) 4-5 minutes
B.) 1-2 minutes
C.) 2-3 minutes
D.) 3-4 minutes
Correct Answer: B
488. Which is the fundamental measurement of mass in the metric system?

A.) Ounce
B.) Liter
C.) Gram
D.) Pound
Correct Answer: C
489. What are proteins present on the surface of cell membranes?

A.) Drug receptors

B.) Drug acceptors
C.) Drug relayers
D.) Drug inhibitors
Correct Answer: A
490. How many grams of a 50% dextrose in water solution should be administered?

A.) 50
B.) 75
C.) 100

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 D.) 25
Correct Answer: D
491. What is the desired dosage range for dobutamine?

A.) 2-20 mcg per kg per minute

B.) 4-40 mcg per kg per minute
C.) 3-30 mcg per kg per minute
D.) 1-10 mcg per kg per minute
Correct Answer: A

492. Which medication can be administered orally in the prehospital setting?

A.) Nitroglycerin
B.) Diazepam
C.) Procardia
D.) Activated charcoal
Correct Answer: D
493. What is the standard preparation of dopamine?

A.) 100 milligrams in 4 milliliters of solvent

B.) 400 milligrams in 7 milliliters of solvent
C.) 300 milligrams in 6 milliliters of solvent
D.) 200 milligrams in 5 milliliters of solvent
Correct Answer: D

494. What is verapamil indicated for in the prehospital setting?

A.) Cardiogenic shock

B.) Ventricular tachycardia
C.) Severe hypertension
D.) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
495. How long does the sympathomimetic effects of breylium last in the non-cardiac arrest
setting?

A.) 50 minutes
B.) 40 minutes
C.) 30 minutes
D.) 20 minutes
Correct Answer: D
496. Which schedule of addictive medications have a high potential for abuse and offer no
acceptable medical indications?

A.) II
B.) I
C.) IV
D.) V
Correct Answer: B

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497. How many milligrams are in one grain?

A.) 15
B.) 45
C.) 90
D.) 60
Correct Answer: D
498. Which medication cannot be diluted in saline for endotracheal administration in the
field?

A.) Diazepam
B.) Atropine
C.) Lidocaine
D.) Naloxone
Correct Answer: A

499. Which type of liquid drug preparation does not remain mixed?

A.) Suspension
B.) Spirit
C.) Syrup
D.) Solution
Correct Answer: A
500. Which is NOT a basis for the physical description of medicine?
A.) Height
B.) Mass
C.) Length
D.) Volume
Correct Answer: A
501. How long will a 75- to 100-milligram bolus of lidocaine maintain adequate blood levels?

A.) 90 minutes
B.) 60 minutes
C.) 20 minutes
D.) 40 minutes
Correct Answer: C
502. What is the pediatric dosage of glucagon?

A.) 0.03 mg/kg

B.) 0.09 mg/kg
C.) 0.07 mg/kg
D.) 0.05 mg/kg
Correct Answer: A

503. When is epinephrine contraindicated?

A.) Bronchial asthma

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 B.) Hypertension
C.) Exacerbation of some forms of COPD
D.) Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: B
504. Which type of receptors cause peripheral vasoconstriction, mild bronchoconstriction
and stimulation of metabolism?

A.) Alpha 2
B.) Beta 1
C.) Alpha 1
D.) Beta 2
Correct Answer: C
505. What dosage vials are available of methylprednisolone?

A.) 125 mg and 250 mg

B.) 200 mg and 325 mg
C.) 225 mg and 350 mg
D.) 175 mg and 300 mg
Correct Answer: A

506. Which neurotransmitter is used by all pre- and post-ganglionic nerve fibers?

A.) Dopamine
B.) Norepinephrine
C.) Epinephrine
D.) Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: D

507. What absorbs most of the crash injury in a motorcycle accident?

A.) Other object

B.) Pavement
*C.) Rider
D.) Steel
B.) Correct Answer: D
508. During which phase of a blast is the victim struck by debris?
A.) Quadiary
B.) Tertiary
C.) Primary
D.) Secondary
Correct Answer: D
509. Which phase of a blast results in injury to the sinuses?

A.) Primary
B.) Tertiary
C.) Quadriary
D.) Secondary

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 Correct Answer: A
510. What percentage of vehicle collisions in an urban area are frontal?

A.) 32%
B.) 15%
C.) 38%
D.) 9%
Correct Answer: A
511. Which type of weapon is used to produce a high velocity penetrating injury?

A.) Bullet
B.) Knife
C.) Arrow
D.) Blast debris
Correct Answer: A

512. Which is NOT a factor in determining the mechanism of injury?

A.) Nature
B.) Strength
C.) Direction
D.) Duration
Correct Answer: D
513. What consideration needs to be given when the extremities sustain a penetrating
injury?

A.) Air embolism

B.) Airway compromise
C.) Excessive bleeding
D.) Organ penetration
Correct Answer: C
514. Which side of the body is a child generally struck on when hit by a car?

A.) Left side

B.) Right side
C.) Back
D.) Front
Correct Answer: D
515. What is the formula for calculating force?

A.) Force=Mass X Energy

B.) Force=Mass X Velocity
C.) Force=Mass X Impact
D.) Force=Mass X Acceleration
Correct Answer: D
516. What is the anticipation of injuries based on analysis of the mechanism of injury?

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 A.) Index of anticipation
B.) Index of injury
C.) Index of analysis
D.) Index of suspicion
Correct Answer: D
517. Which structure in the thoracic region is most tolerant of injury?

A.) Trachea
B.) Heart
C.) Lungs
D.) Esophagus
Correct Answer: C
518. Which is NOT a pathway that occurs with the frontal impact?

A.) Injection
B.) Up-and-over
C.) Down-and-under
D.) Ejection
Correct Answer: A
519. What percentage of injuries are caused by ejection?

A.) 59%
B.) 63%
C.) 18%
D.) 27%
Correct Answer: D
520. What is the most common cause of blunt trauma?

A.) Falls
B.) Blasts
C.) Auto accidents
D.) Sports injuries
Correct Answer: C
530. What should be done if the patient loses consciousness with a sports related injury?

A.) Assess them at the field only

B.) If they can count to ten, let them continue playing
C.) Have them rest out the remainder of the game
D.) Have them assessed at the emergency department
Correct Answer: D
531. What aspect of projectile travel is most significant?

A.) Energy dissipation

B.) Trajectory
C.) Cavitation
D.) Profile
Correct Answer: A

Page 84 of 113
532. What function does the seatbelt serve?

A.) Cushions body from impact

B.) Pins the body to the seat
C.) Does not serve function
D.) Slows body with the vehicle
Correct Answer: D
533. What is the energy of motion?

A.) Impact energy

B.) Velocity energy
C.) Kinetic energy
D.) Inertial energy
Correct Answer: C
534. What percentage of fatal accidents have been shown to involve an intoxicated driver?
A.) 20%
B.) 50%
C.) 40%
D.) 30%
Correct Answer: B
535. What type of blow does a female strike with when administering a low velocity blow?

A.) Forward and downward

B.) Crosswise and upward
C.) Overhand and downward
D.) Outward and upward
Correct Answer: C
536. Which type of injury occurs less with a lateral impact?

A.) Rib fracture

B.) Femur fracture
C.) Internal head injury
D.) Cervical spine injury
Correct Answer: A
537. Which type of collision tends to have less serious injuries than the others?

A.) Rotational
B.) Frontal
C.) Rear-end
D.) Rollover
Correct Answer: A
538. If the speed of an object is doubled, how does that affect the energy?

A.) Increases twofold

B.) Increases fourfold
C.) Increases threefold
D.) Increases fivefold

Page 85 of 113
 Correct Answer: B
539. What is the leading cause of death among Americans under 34?

A.) Trauma
B.) Cancer
C.) Liver failure
D.) Cardiovascular disease
Correct Answer: A

540. Which type of motorcycle collision results in lesser serious injury?

A.) Ejection
B.) Frontal
C.) Sliding
D.) Angular
Correct Answer: C
541. Which type of penetrating injury is more likely to lead to an air embolism by air
entering a vein?

A.) Neck
B.) Abdominal
C.) Thoracic
D.) Head
Correct Answer: A
542. Which type of recreational vehicle is most often involved in accidents?

A.) Snowmobile
B.) Motorcycle
C.) Golf cart
D.) Bicycle
Correct Answer: A

543. Which type of collision has occurred when the occupant of the vehicle strikes the
interior of the vehicle?

A.) Vehicle
B.) Secondary
C.) Body
D.) Organ
Correct Answer: C
544. Which mechanism of injury is NOT indicative of immediate transport?

A.) Death of a car occupant

B.) Severe vehicle deformity
C.) Ejection from vehicle
D.) Fall less than 10 feet
Correct Answer: D

Page 86 of 113
545. How much of the Golden Hour is consumed by the prehospital on-the-scene care?

A.) 30 minutes
B.) 20 minutes
C.) 10 minutes
D.) 40 minutes
Correct Answer: C
546. What often results in compression fractures of the spine?

A.) Frontal loading

B.) Rotational loading
C.) Lateral loading
D.) Axial loading
Correct Answer: D
547. Which area of the head tends to be fatal with a gunshot wound?

A.) Cranium
B.) Mandible
C.) Nasal cavity
D.) Maxilla
Correct Answer: A
548. What percentage of fatalities are due to injury to the spine and chest?

A.) 37.3%
B.) 2.0%
C.) 4.7%
D.) 8.3%
Correct Answer: D

549. Which type of gunshot wound is most likely to result in an open pneumothorax?

A.) Shotgun at close range

B.) .45 caliber from a distance
C.) .44 caliber from a distance
D.) .22 caliber at close range
Correct Answer: A
550. How is energy transmitted in a fall?

A.) Up the legs

B.) Down the spine
C.) Down the legs
D.) Up the spine
Correct Answer: D
551. What is the rate of motion in a particular direction in relation to time?

A.) Energy

Page 87 of 113
 B.) Velocity
C.) Inertia
D.) Acceleration
Correct Answer: B
552. What is the tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest?

A.) Kinetics
B.) Force
C.) Velocity
D.) Inertia
Correct Answer: D

553. What collision happens immediately after the vehicle collision?

A.) Body
B.) Secondary
C.) Organ
D.) Downward
Correct Answer: A

554. Which type of respiration is characterized by erratic and gasping breaths?

A.) Ataxic
B.) Agonal
C.) Biot's
D.) Cheyene-Stokes's
Correct Answer: C

555. Which protective membrane is firmly attached to skull?

A.) Arachnoid
B.) Peristeum
C.) Pia
D.) Dura
Correct Answer: D
556. Which condition is the lucid interval usually associated with?

A.) Subarachnoid leak

B.) Intracerebral hemorrhage
C.) Subdural hematoma
D.) Epidural hematoma
Correct Answer: D

557. Which type of facial fracture involves the bone of the upper jaw?

A.) Zygoma

Page 88 of 113
 B.) Maxilla
C.) Mandible
D.) Scapula
Correct Answer: B

558. What is the connective tissue that suspends the brain in the cranial cavity and the cord
in the spinal foramen?

A.) Arachnoid membrane

B.) Peristeum
C.) Dura
D.) Pia matter
Correct Answer: A
559. What is the point where the spinal cord exits the cranium and is the largest opening in
the skull?
A.) Spinal foramen
B.) Foramen magnum
C.) Subarachnoid space
D.) Cribriform plate
Correct Answer: B
560. Which medication is used to reduce swelling of the spinal cord?

A.) Methylprednisolone
B.) Oxygen
C.) Furosemide
D.) Diazepam
Correct Answer: A

561. Which area of the spine is more likely to be injured?

A.) Coccygeal
B.) Cervical
C.) Thoracic
D.) Sacral
Correct Answer: B
562. Which is NOT a part of Cushing's Reflex?

A.) Increased pulse rate

B.) Erratic respirations
C.) Deep respirations
D.) Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer: A

563. What surface in the eye needs to be bathed in the fluid that flows from the lacrimal
ducts?

Page 89 of 113
 A.) Cornea
B.) Conjuctiva
C.) Lens
D.) Retina
Correct Answer: A
564. Which type of brain injury occurs on the opposite side of the initial impact?
p. 448
A.) Concussion
B.) Contusion
C.) Contrecoup
D.) Laceration
Correct Answer: C

565. Which nerve senses the collar area?

A.) S-1
B.) C-3
C.) T-10
D.) T-4
Correct Answer: B
566. What should the spinal injury patient be monitored for due to the body's inability to
control body temperature?

A.) Hypoflaccidity
B.) Hypovolemia
C.) Hypothermia
D.) Hypotoxemia
Correct Answer:C

567. What fills the anterior chamber of the eye?

A.) Retinal humor

B.) Aqueous humor
C.) Lens humor
D.) Vitreous humor
Correct Answer: B
568. What type of hemorrhage results from a ruptured blood vessel within the substance of
the brain?

A.) Epidural
B.) Subdural
C.) Subarachnoid
D.) Intracerebral
Correct Answer: D
569. Which type of brain injury is characterized by a brief period of dysfunction?

A.) Edema

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 B.) Concussion
C.) Contusion
D.) Hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B

570. Which part of the brain is the largest and is responsible for conscious thought?

A.) Cerebrum
B.) Cerebellum
C.) Medulla oblongata
D.) Pons
Correct Answer: A
571. Where does the third cranial nerve which is responsible for sight reside within the
brain?

A.) Central sulcus

B.) Neurilemma
C.) Tentorium
D.) Falx cerebri
Correct Answer: C
572. What should be done with any sizeable open neck wound?

A.) Seal against possibility of jugular aspiration of air

B.) Seal against possibility of vertebral aspiration of air
C.) Seal against possibility of arterial aspiration of air
D.) Seal against possibility of vascular aspiration of air
Correct Answer: D

573. Where does the bruising occur when a basilar skull fracture occurs near the foramen
magnum?

A.) Auditory canal

B.) Orbital area
C.) Mouth and teeth
D.) Nasal canal
Correct Answer: A
574. What degree angle should the body be kept with the head down to keep the jugular
pressure positive?

A.) 15 degree
B.) 45 degree
C.) 35 degree
D.) 25 degree
Correct Answer: A

575. What is the first-line drug used in the care of a patient with suspected care injury?

A.) Solu-Medrol

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 B.) Oxygen
C.) Lasix
D.) Valium
Correct Answer: B
576. Which part of the spine supports the entire upper torso, neck, head and upper
extremities?

A.) Cervical
B.) Lumbar
C.) Coccygeal
D.) Thoracic
Correct Answer: B
577. Which type of spinal injury is characterized by priapism?

A.) Lumbar
B.) Cervical
C.) Sacral
D.) Thoracic
Correct Answer: B
578. What are the most anterior structures of the neck?

A.) Larynx and Maxilla

B.) Trachea and esophagus
C.) Trachea and larynx
D.) Esophagus and larynx
Correct Answer: C
579. Which should be used to control facial or head bleeding?

A.) Indirect pressure

B.) Tourniquet
C.) Direct pressure
D.) Pressure points
Correct Answer: C
560. What is a direct window into the brain during the patient assessment?

A.) Mental status

B.) Ears
C.) Pupils
D.) Airway
Correct Answer: C
561. Which type of pulse indicates possible head or CNS injury?

A.) Fast and pounding

B.) Slow and thread
C.) Slow and pounding
D.) Fast and thread
Correct Answer: C

Page 92 of 113
562. How long should pressure be held on a bleeding nose minimum due to clotting time in
that area?

A.) 15 minutes
B.) 20 minutes
C.) 10 minutes
D.) 25 minutes
Correct Answer: C

563. Which type of skull fracture is a small crack in the skull?

A.) Depressed
B.) Impaled
C.) Open
D.) Linear
Correct Answer: D
564. In addition to the hard and compact bone, what other type of bone is in the cranium to
protect the brain from trauma?

A.) Marrow
B.) Cartilage
C.) Meninges
D.) Cancellous
Correct Answer: D

565. Which body parts should be kept in the same plane to ensure that further spinal injury
does not occur during extrication?

A.) Ear, arm, leg

B.) Eyes, back, buttocks
C.) Mouth, nipple, knee
D.) Nose, naval, toes
Correct Answer: D

566. Which item act as a cushion for the brain?

A.) Occiput
B.) Cranium
C.) Cerebrospinal fluid
D.) Odontoid process
Correct Answer: C
567. What should NOT be done with objects that are penetrating the head, neck or face?

A.) Remove the object

B.) Stabilize the object
C.) Leave the object in place
D.) Tape around the object

Page 93 of 113
 Correct Answer: A
568. What is the most common sign of blunt trauma to the scalp?

A.) Complete removal of the scalp

B.) Protruding bump
C.) Sunken in pit
D.) Soft, mushy pit
Correct Answer: B
569. Where does the spinal cord terminate in an adult?

A.) S-2
B.) T-2
C.) C-2
D.) L-2
Correct Answer: D
570. Which type of hematoma occurs between the interior surface of the brain and the
dura?

A.) Epidural
B.) Subdural
C.) Subarachnoid
D.) Intracerebral
Correct Answer: A
571. Which type of eye injury involves a small vessel rupturing leaving the surface of the
eye blood red?

A.) Acute retinal artery occlusion

B.) Hypothema
C.) Conjunctival hemorrhage
D.) Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: C
572. Which type of intubation is accomplished by walking your fingers along the patient's
tongue and lift the epiglottis?

A.) Nasal
B.) Digital
C.) Oropharyngeal
D.) Endotracheal
Correct Answer: B

573. What should be administered if a head injury is suspected to help slow the
development of the cerebral edema?

A.) Nasal cannula

B.) Nitroglycerin
C.) 100% oxygen
D.) IV fluids

Page 94 of 113
 Correct Answer: C
574. What is the arterial circle that assures good circulation to the body of the brain?

A.) Circle of Wilson

B.) Circle of Watson
C.) Circle of Walker
D.) Circle of Willis
Correct Answer: D
575. At what level on the body can the last cervical vertebrae be palpated?

A.) Buttocks
B.) Waist
C.) Shoulder
D.) Mid-back
Correct Answer: C
576. Which nervous system controls skeletal muscles and dermatomes?

A.) Somatic
B.) Nervous
C.) Intrinsic
D.) Autonomic
Correct Answer: A

577. What structure in the ear is responsible for position and motion sense?

A.) Lacrimal canals

B.) Cochlea canals
C.) Semicircular canals
D.) Vertigo canals
Correct Answer: C
578. How many layers of bone is the cranium made from?

A.) 2
B.) 3
C.) 1
D.) 4
Correct Answer: B

579. What accounts for the majority of vehicular deaths?

A.) Head injury

B.) Abdomen injury
C.) Pelvis injury
D.) Spine injury
Correct Answer: A

Page 95 of 113
580. How many milliliters of IV fluid should be used to replace each milliliter of blood lost?

A.) 2
B.) 3
C.) 4
D.) 1
Correct Answer: B
581. Which patient should NOT use nitronox?

A.) Head injury

B.) Leg injury
C.) Abdominal injury
D.) Back injury
Correct Answer: A
582. What is the most important concern with chest trauma?

A.) Hypoglycemia
B.) Hypoacidosis
C.) Hypoxia
D.) Hypovolemia
Correct Answer: C
583. Which is NOT part of the bellow's system?

A.) Skeletal muscles

B.) Diaphragm
C.) Airway
D.) Pleura
Correct Answer: B
584. What gauge needle should be used to perform needle decompression of a tension
pneumothorax?

A.) 16-18
B.) 14-16
C.) 18-20
D.) 10-14
Correct Answer: D
585. Which organ in the abdomen is NOT susceptible to injury due to the cavitational wave?

A.) Kidneys
B.) Spleen
C.) Liver
D.) Small bowel
Correct Answer: D

586. Which type of injury should always be suspected in the patient with body cavity
trauma?

Page 96 of 113
 A.) Extremity
B.) Spinal
C.) Laceration
D.) Soft tissue
Correct Answer: B
587. When observing the chest during the secondary assessment, which areas should be
paid closest attention to?

A.) Ribs and sternum

B.) Ribs and accessory muscles
C.) Accessory muscles and arms
D.) Clavicle and sternum
Correct Answer: A
588. Which is the most common protruding viscera?

A.) Colon
B.) Small bowel
C.) Large bowel
D.) Kidneys
Correct Answer: B
589. What should be done with the patient who has an evisceration to prevent them from
touching it?

A.) Make the tissue numb

B.) Push the evisceration back in
C.) Restrain their hands
D.) Administer a sedative
Correct Answer: C
590. What forms the upper border of the abdomen?

A.) 12th rib

B.) Heart
C.) Diaphragm
D.) Sternum
Correct Answer: C
591. What should be assumed if the patient presents with symptoms of hypovolemic shock
with no obvious signs of bleeding?

A.) Bleeding in the arms

B.) Bleeding in the legs
C.) Bleeding in the body cavity
D.) Bleeding in the head area
Correct Answer: C

592. What acts as the container and a dynamic component of the respiratory process?

Page 97 of 113
 A.) Thorax
B.) Abdomen
C.) Diaphragm
D.) Pelvic cavity
Correct Answer: A

593. How many sides of an occlusive dressing should be sealed?

A.) 4
B.) 3
C.) 1
D.) 2
Correct Answer: B
594. What is a double fold of peritoneum that supports the major portion of the small
bowel?

A.) Jejunum
B.) Duodenum
C.) Omentum
D.) Mesentery
Correct Answer: D

595. Which type of chest injury limits excursion due to pain?

A.) Traumatic asphyxia

B.) Rib fracture
C.) Pneumothorax
D.) Flail chest
Correct Answer: B
596. How long after being spilled will bile inflame the peritoneum?

A.) 16 hours
B.) 24 hours
C.) 36 hours
D.) 12 hours
Correct Answer: D
597. Which side will the trachea displace to with a tension pneumothorax?

A.) Ipsilateral
B.) Paradoxical
C.) Contralateral
D.) Peritoneal
Correct Answer: C
598. What is the first component of the alimentary canal?

A.) Esophagus
B.) Stomach

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 C.) Duodenum
D.) Small bowel
Correct Answer: A

599. What should be used to describe the patient's type of pain?

A.) Medical terminology

B.) Patient's own words
C.) Local protocol
D.) Predetermined description
Correct Answer: B

600. What are the muscles between the ribs that serve to expand the chest?

A.) Pleural
B.) Mastoid
C.) Intercostal
D.) Thoracic
Correct Answer: C
601. Which is NOT a symptom of cardiac tamponade?

A.) Narrowing of pulse pressure

B.) Distending jugular veins
C.) Distant heart sounds
D.) Increased systolic pressure
Correct Answer: D

602. What percentage of body cavity injuries does the chest injury account for in the United
States?

A.) 35%
B.) 55%
C.) 25%
D.) 45%
Correct Answer: C
603. Which type of condition is exhibited when pain comes on after the release of pressure
on the abdomen?

A.) Rebound masses

B.) Rebound tenderness
C.) Rebound guarding
D.) Rebound pulsation
Correct Answer: B
604. Which organ is NOT located in the mediastinum?

A.) Trachea

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 B.) Diaphragm
C.) Vena cava
D.) Esophagus
Correct Answer: B

605. Which part of the body should NOT be used when obtaining blood pressure on a
patient with a traumatic aortic aneurysm?

A.) Left leg

B.) Left arm
C.) Right arm
D.) Right leg
Correct Answer: B
606. Which medication may be ordered for potential acidosis caused by traumatic asphyxia?

A.) Sodium bicarbonate

B.) Nitronox
C.) Morphine sulphate
D.) Methylprednisolone
Correct Answer: A
607. How long should the patient's respirations be timed?

A.) 10 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 45 seconds
D.) 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
608. Which is NOT a result of tension pneumothorax?

A.) Reduce the heart's ability to fill

B.) Push the mediastinum against the unaffected lung
C.) Increase venous return to the heart
D.) Increase the effort of respiration
Correct Answer: C

609. What is the two-layered sac that surrounds the heart?

A.) Pericardium
B.) Peristeum
C.) Peritoneum
D.) Peristalsis
Correct Answer: A

610. Which location of fracture has a greater chance of blood vessel and nerve damage?

A.) Ligament
B.) Joint

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 C.) Tendon
D.) Long bone shaft
Correct Answer: B

611. What is the hollow shaft of the long bones called?

A.) Iliaphysis
B.) Metaphysis
C.) Epiphysis
D.) Diaphysis
Correct Answer: D
612. Which is NOT a type of muscle found in the body?

A.) Smooth
B.) Myocardium
C.) Autonomic
D.) Skeletal
Correct Answer: C
613. What holds the joints together?

A.) Cartilage
B.) Tendon
C.) Fat
D.) Ligaments
Correct Answer: D

614. What is the ideal way to deal with a fracture of or near a joint?

A.) Splint in the neutral position

B.) Splint in the above neutral position
C.) Splint in the position it was found
D.) Splint in the most comfortable position
Correct Answer: C

615. Which surfaces of the lower extremity should be palpated first?

A.) Anterior and posterior

B.) Lateral and medial
C.) Lateral and posterior
D.) Anterior and medial
Correct Answer: B
616. Which order should be followed when performing the lower-and upper-extremity
assessment?

A.) Observe, expose, palpate

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 B.) Palpate, expose, observe
C.) Expose, observe, palpate
D.) Expose, palpate, observe
Correct Answer: C

617. Which type of fracture only disrupts one side of a long bone?

A.) Open
B.) Closed
C.) Greenstick
D.) Hairline
Correct Answer: C
618. What canal does the blood vessels flow within inside of the bone?

A.) Periosteum
B.) Cancellous
C.) Haversian
D.) Synovial
Correct Answer: C

619. Which type of injury involves a displacement of the bone ends from the joint?

A.) Strain
B.) Dislocation
C.) Subluxation
D.) Sprain
Correct Answer: B
620. Which type of shoulder dislocation locks the patient's arm above their head?

A.) Inferior
B.) Distal
C.) Anterior
D.) Posterior
Correct Answer: A

621. Which is the largest and strongest of the long bones?

A.) Fibia
B.) Talus
C.) Femur
D.) Tibia
Correct Answer: C
622. What allows for much of the motion of the lower extremity?

A.) Leg

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 B.) Foot
C.) Pelvis
D.) Thigh
Correct Answer: C

623. Which type of skeletal injury should lead to immediate transport?

A.) Femur fracture

B.) Elbow fracture
C.) Knee dislocation
D.) Shoulder dislocation
Correct Answer: A

624. Which method of movement does NOT help align the patient's body in the case of rapid
transport?

A.) Secure upper and lower extremities to each other

B.) Axial traction
C.) Secure upper extremities to the body
D.) Secure legs to each other
Correct Answer: A

625. Which splint type is NOT used for ankle and foot injuries?

A.) Padded board

B.) Full-leg air
C.) Pillow
D.) Vacuum
Correct Answer: A

626. In addition to the patient's physical injury, what else does the paramedic need to tend
to?

A.) Triage of all of the patients

B.) Psychological needs of the patient
C.) Family contact on behalf of the patient
D.) Scene control for the patient
Correct Answer: B
627. Which attachment of muscle to bone moves when the muscles contracts?

A.) Origin
B.) Ending
C.) Tendon
D.) Insertion
Correct Answer: D

628. What is an overstretching of the muscles that presents as pain?

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 A.) Cramp
B.) Sprain
C.) Strain
D.) Spasm
Correct Answer: C
630. Which area does compartment syndrome occur in most often?

A.) Head
B.) Pelvis
C.) Back
D.) Forearm
Correct Answer: D

631. Which is NOT known for a lot of blood loss?

A.) Pelvic fracture

B.) Femur fracture
C.) Lower-leg fracture
D.) Hip dislocation
Correct Answer: C
632. What is the most ideal position to place and splint an injured limb?

A.) Most comfortable

B.) Above neutral
C.) Neutral
D.) Way it was found
Correct Answer: C

633. How long should the eyes be flushed minimally when contaminated with an unknown
agent?

A.) 5 minutes
B.) 15 minutes
C.) 10 minutes
D.) 20 minutes
Correct Answer: D

634. Who should be allowed to shut-off the electricity in the case of an electrical burn
patient?

A.) Police officer

B.) Utility company
C.) Firefighter
D.) Paramedic
Correct Answer: B

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635. Which part does NOT make up 9% of the body for the rule of nines on an adult?

A.) Lower chest

B.) Front of each lower extremity
C.) Front of head and neck
D.) Front of the chest
Correct Answer: C

636. Which type of radiation is the most severe and hardest to protect against?

A.) Alpha
B.) Gamma
C.) Theta
D.) Beta
Correct Answer: B
637. What is the mathematical relationship between distance and radiation exposure?

A.) Diverse and squared

B.) Diverse and tripled
C.) Inverse and squared
D.) Inverse and tripled
Correct Answer: C

638. What does NOT need to be done in the field with a large open wound?

A.) Remove debris

B.) Irrigate with saline
C.) Dress it neatly
D.) Clean the wound
Correct Answer: D
639. Which degree of burn is not painful due to nerve destruction?

A.) 1st
B.) 3rd
C.) 4th
D.) 2nd
Correct Answer: B
640. What is the last choice for blood loss control?

A.) Tourniquet
B.) Pressure points
C.) Direct pressure
D.) Elevation
Correct Answer: A

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 641. What is the blue-black discoloration of the skin due to leakage of blood into the tissues
called?

A.) Ecchymosis
B.) Erythema
C.) Abrasion
D.) Hematoma
Correct Answer: A

642. Which type of wound is closed, but there is damage to the tissue directly beneath?

A.) Contusion
B.) Avulsion
C.) Laceration
D.) Abrasion
Correct Answer: A
643. Which type of airway burn is associated with inhaling steam?

A.) Airway thermal burn

B.) Carbon monoxide poisoning
C.) Gamma radiation burn
D.) Toxic inhalation
Correct Answer: A

644. Which layer within the blood vessel is the muscular part of the tube?

A.) Tunica intima

B.) Tunica adventia
C.) Tunica lumenica
D.) Tunica media
Correct Answer: D
655. Which is NOT a layer of skin?

A.) Subcutaneous
B.) Dermis
C.) Epidermis
D.) Integumentary
Correct Answer: D

656. Who should be used when there is a risk of radiation exposure during patient removal?

A.) Youngest rescuers

B.) Oldest rescuers
C.) No one should attempt removal
D.) Middle-aged rescuers
Correct Answer: B

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657. Which burn patient is NOT considered an immediate transport?

A.) Geriatric patient with minor burns

B.) Localized burns to the upper thighs
C.) Inhalation of smoke or flame
D.) Third-degree burns over large part of the body
Correct Answer: B
658. Which substance needs to be cleaned with alcohol?

A.) Sodium
B.) Phenol
C.) Carbon
D.) Dry lime
Correct Answer: B
659. Which type of burn must destroy tissue before moving deeper into the skin?

A.) Thermal
B.) Electrical
C.) Chemical
D.) Inhalation
Correct Answer: C
660. Which type of injury makes it difficult to locate and stop the source of hemorrhage?
A.) Laceration
B.) Incision
C.) Amputation
D.) Crushing
Correct Answer: D

662. Which area of the body needs to be treated as more severe with a full-thickness burn?

A.) Abdomen
B.) Hands
C.) Legs
D.) Arms
Correct Answer: B

663. Which should NOT be done when treating a chemical burn?

A.) Use a neutralizer

B.) Flush with water
C.) Use a mild soap
D.) Scrub with gentle brush
Correct Answer: A

664. Which complication can restrict breathing with a thoracic burn?

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 A.) Eschar
B.) Hypovolemia
C.) Medar
D.) Hypothermia
Correct Answer: A

665. What should be done differently in the case of a thermal burn assessment?

A.) Conduct full scene survey

B.) Question the patient
C.) Expose all concealed areas
D.) Identify the burns
Correct Answer: A

666. What color and rate is venous hemorrhage generally?

A.) Brown and intermittent

B.) Red and oozing
C.) Bright red and pulsing
D.) Dark red and flowing
Correct Answer: D

667. How long should pressure be maintained when using pressure points to control
hemorrhage?

A.) 10 minutes
B.) 40 minutes
C.) 30 minutes
D.) 20 minutes
Correct Answer: A

668. Which type of burn is characterized as minor?

A.) Limited full-thickness burn

B.) Partial-thickness burn over 15% BSA
C.) Limited partial-thickness
D.) Full-thickness burn over 5% BSA
Correct Answer: C
669. What does a sterile bandage provide when placed over the third degree burn?

A.) Fluid retention of the skin

B.) Protective barrier against contamination
C.) Padding against minor bumping
D.) Medical treatment of the burned flesh
Correct Answer: B
670. How should an amputated body part be transported to the hospital?
A.) In a cloth and ice

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 B.) In a plastic bag and cool water
C.) In a plastic bag and ice
D.) In a cloth and cool water
Correct Answer: B
671. What is the most common source of poison in the United States?

A.) Carbon dioxide

B.) Carbon monoxide
C.) Carbon trioxide
D.) Carbon bioxide
Correct Answer: B

672. What is NOT something that must be done to secure the scene at a fire?

A.) Take off watches and rings carefully

B.) Remove ant clothing that was involved in the fire
C.) Move away from any overt flames
D.) Check patient's posterior surface
Correct Answer: C
673. Which type of burn is the result of increased molecular movement within the cells?

A.) Inhalation
B.) Chemical
C.) Thermal
D.) Radiation
Correct Answer: C
674. What serves as a strata of insulation?

A.) Dermis layer

B.) Subcutaneous tissue
C.) Tunica tissue
D.) Epidermis layer
Correct Answer: B

675. Which special type of laceration involves a deep wound to the skin and underlying
organs?

A.) Puncture
B.) Amputation
C.) Contusion
D.) Avulsion
Correct Answer: A

676. Which degree of burn has a reddening and blisters on the skin?

A.) 4th

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 B.) 2nd
C.) 3rd
D.) 1st
Correct Answer: B

677.What is the field limit on crystalloid infusions due to blood dilution?

A.) 3 liters
B.) 12 liters
C.) 9 liters
D.) 6 liters
Correct Answer: A

678. What is one of the first signs of shock?

A.) Increased respiratory rate

B.) Slow pupil dilation
C.) Restlessness and anxiety
D.) Ashen color of the skin
Correct Answer: C
679. What time frame does decompensated shock occur in the otherwise healthy adult?

A.) 2 hours
B.) 1 hour
C.) 2.5 hours
D.) 1.5 hours
Correct Answer: B
680. Which is an ideal location for IV placement in the trauma patient?

A.) Antecubital fossa

B.) Branchial fossa
C.) Basilic fossa
D.) Cephalic fossa
Correct Answer: A

681. What responds first to blood loss?

A.) Arterial supply

B.) Venous supply
C.) Plasma supply
D.) Capillary supply
Correct Answer: B

682. When should the helicopter be considered?

A.) Transport time will exceed 30 minutes

B.) Transport time will exceed 15 minutes

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 C.) Transport time will exceed 20 minutes
D.) Transport time will exceed 25 minutes
Correct Answer: A

683. What is the fluid portion of the blood consisting of serum and protein substances in
solution?

A.) Plasma
B.) White blood cells
C.) Red blood cells
D.) Erythrocyte
Correct Answer: A

684. Which type of injury is NOT known for causing silent shock and even death?

A.) Chest
B.) Leg
C.) Abdomen
D.) Head
Correct Answer: B
685. From which direction should the helicopter be approached?

A.) Left side

B.) Right side
C.) Front
D.) Rear
Correct Answer: C
686. What can be used to increase blood pressure during shock?

A.) Autotransfusion
B.) Intubation
C.) Debridement
D.) Sphygmomanometer
Correct Answer: A

687. What percentage of the body weight does the blood account for?

A.) 10%
B.) 7%
C.) 13%
D.) 16%
Correct Answer: B
688. Which trauma score would indicate a poor prognosis?

A.) 9
B.) 13

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 C.) 15
D.) 11
Correct Answer: A
689. Which is NOT an item used to determine breathing?

A.) Minute volume

B.) Rate
C.) Depth
D.) Peripheral perfusion
Correct Answer: D
690. Which life threat is the first concern?

A.) Saturation
B.) Breathing
C.) Airway
D.) Circulation
Correct Answer: C

691. What is the goal in prehospital care in terms of shock?

A.) Recognize early and treat decompensated shock aggressively

B.) Recognize early and treat preload shock aggressively
C.) Recognize early and treat irreversible shock aggressively
D.) Recognize early and treat compensated shock aggressively
Correct Answer: D
692. What maximum timeframe should fluid therapy begin in the shock patient?

A.) 1 minute
B.) 2 minutes
C.) 4 minutes
D.) 3 minutes
Correct Answer: A

693. Which deformity should be looked for when exposing the patient for assessment?

A.) Laceration
B.) Contusion
C.) Abrasion
D.) Hematoma
Correct Answer: D

694. What does trauma assessment begin with?

A.) Survey of the scene

B.) Performing secondary assessment
C.) Performing primary assessment
D.) Review of dispatch information

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 Correct Answer: D

695. What size landing zone needs to be clear for the medium sized helicopter at the scene?

A.) 105 X 105 feet

B.) 60 X 60 feet
C.) 75 X 75 feet
D.) 120 X 120 feet
Correct Answer: C

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