TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN CHÂU TRINH

NỘI DUNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II- MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12
(Năm học 2023- 2024)

Giới hạn chương trình: từ Unit 10 đến Unit 16

I. Kĩ năng ngôn ngữ:
Đọc hiểu các bài đọc về môi trường, sách, thể thao, vai trò của phụ nữ; các tổ chức quốc tế.
2. Trọng tâm ngôn ngữ:
* Ngữ pháp:
- Tenses
- Modal verbs
- Double comparison
- Phrasal verbs
- Clauses
* Từ vựng:
- Các từ vựng liên quan đến các chủ điểm đã học: môi trường, sách, thể thao, vai trò của phụ nữ; các tổ chức
quốc tế
* Phát âm và dấu nhấn: ôn lại kiến thức đã học
3. Kĩ năng viết:
- Sentence transformation
- Sentence building

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PRACTICE TEST 1
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the other words.
A. official B. office C. species D. special
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the other words.
A. fertile B. rhinoceros C. river D. primary
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that has the stress differently from that of the
other words.
A. preserve B. enact C. extinct D. drainage
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that has the stress differently from that of the
other words
A. habitat B. endanger C. commercial D. destruction
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Many (A) plant and animal species (B) are now in (C) dangerous of (D) extinction.
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
I’m (A) not working (B) tomorrow, so I (C) mustn’t get up (D) early.
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
The ________ of one or several species may result in the loss of biodiversity.
A. appearance B. disappearance C. appear D. disappear
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Thousands of animal and plant species are _________and the number increases each year.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endanger D. endangered
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Various organizations publish _________ of endangered species to improve public awareness.
A. lists B. queues C. columns D. lines
Question 10: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Nina said that she ________ come over right after work, so she ________ be here by 6:00.
A. would/ should B. will/ can C. can/ will D. would / can
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
That’s why I told my father that he _________start walking once a day.
A. can B. should C. must D. would
Question 12: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct
______.
A. have increased B. has increased C. increases D. increase
Question 13: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Species diversity has provided humans ______so many essential things.
A. to B. with C. for D. about
Question 14: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
We saw a herd of giraffes containing 30 ________.
A. persons B. individuals C. animals D. characters
Question 15: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchange.
Tom : “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”
Dennis : “__________”
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind . D. You were absent-minded.
Question 16: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchange.
A: “I think it is a good idea to have more national parks to protect rare and endangered animals.”
B: “_______.”
A. It’s not true. B. That’s wrong. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. I don’t agree.
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word.
Animals are at their most vulnerable when searching for food for their young.
A. strong B. susceptible C. powerful D. invincible
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word.
The greatest danger to tigers now is through loss of habitat.
A. a thing that you do often and almost without thinking
B. the place where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found
C. subject that students don’t understand
D. a theme that everyone likes to discuss
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word.
Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction.
A. Enriched B. Contaminated C. Purified D. Strengthened
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word.
The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. eliminate B. protect C. pollute D. destroy
Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
following sentence.
Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys. B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys. D. These needn’t be the keys.
Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C or D that correctly combines the following sentences.
The governments have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect endangered species.
A. Whether the governments have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species are
still protected.
B. Endangered species can’t be protected although the governments have established some wildlife
reserves.
C. The governments have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the governments established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect endangered
species.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for
each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Researchers have found out that the size of an animal is important when it comes to extinction.
Scientists have determined that the biggest and the smallest animals are more (23) ______risk of dying out
than medium-sized animals. Heavy animals are mostly endangered by hunting and poaching while the
smallest creatures may die out (24) ______their living area is being polluted. Among the most endangered
animals are elephants, lions, and rhinos. Public awareness is large and campaigns to save such animals have
been around for a long time. It is the smallest species that get the least (25) ______. Especially fish and frogs
are in danger of dying out.
The species that are most at risk have a weight of over 1 kilogram. They are in danger of being (26)
______because we need food, skin and other items.
According to the study, animals that are (27) ______extinct affect large ecosystems, like forests,
deserts and oceans.
(Adapted [Link])
Question 23: A. in B. of C. from D. at
Question 24: A. because B. although C. therefore D. but
Question 25: A. intention B. organization C. attention D. determination
Question 26: A. raised B. arrested C. killed D. purchased
Question 27: A. running B. reaching C. becoming D. involving

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
With 13,000 floral species and over 15,000 faunal species, three newly discovered big animal
species, and a ratio of country/world species of 6.3%. Vietnam has enormous tourism-particularly
ecotourism-potential. In fact, since 1986, when Renovation Reforms began the shift from a centrally planned
to a socialist-oriented market, or multi-sectoral economy, tourism has been a sector of primary concern to
the government. In May 1995, the prime minister of Vietnam approved a master plan of tourism
development for the period 1995-2010. In February 1999, the state decree on tourism was part of the socio-
economic development strategy for the period 2001-2010 approved at the IX National Congress of the Party:
“Tourism development has become a spearhead economic industry indeed. It is necessary to improve the
quality and effectiveness of tourism activities, bringing into full play the natural conditions, and cultural and
historical tradition to meet the domestic and international demand for tourism and to catch up with tourism
development in the region” (Document of the IX National Congress 2001).
Tourism has so far brought great benefits to the economy, but it has also contributed to
environmental degradation, especially biodiversity deterioration. Thus, the concept of “sustainable
development”-development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs - must be factored into tourism development. This consideration is
reflected in the term “ecotourism,” which is referred to variously as ecological or environmental tourism,
nature or green tourism, sustainable or responsible tourism.
Ecotourism involves travel to relatively undisturbed natural areas with the specific object of
studying, admiring, and enjoying scenery, plants, and animals, as well as any cultural features found in these
areas. It is distinguished from mass or resort tourism by its lower impact on the environment, lower
infrastructure requirements, and its role in educating tourists about natural environments and cultural values.
Fully aware of its significance, the government of Vietnam has prioritized ecotourism in its strategy
for tourism development to ensure both sustainability and economic benefits. Though ecotourism in
Vietnam is at a beginning stage of development, it is expected to grow strongly through support from
government and international organizations.

Question 28: When has tourism officially contributed to socio-economic development?

A. Since 2010 B. Since 1995 C. Since 1999 D. Since 2001
Question 29: It can be inferred that in the late 20 century Vietnam’s tourism ______.
th

A. has never been a spearhead economic industry

B. was not as developed as that in other Asian countries
C. has always been effective and necessary for economy
D. did not need natural conditions or cultural traditions
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as “ecotourism”?
A. Environmental tourism B. Green tourism
C. Responsible tourism D. Resort tourism
Question 31: What is the word "degradation" closest in meaning to?
A. Creation B. Pollution C. Protection D. Decline
Question 32: According to the passage, who help ecotourism to develop in Vietnam?
A. Vietnam’s government and international organizations
 B. Business people and environmental conservationists
C. Foreign tourists and local Vietnamese people
D. Business corporations and non-government organizations

SECTION B. WRITING
Complete the second sentence with the given words without changing its original meaning.
Question 1: The guests are not allowed to throw objects into the Zoo’s animals and their habitats. (mustn’t)
 …………………….……..……………………………………………………………………….….…
Question 2: It is not necessary for children to go to the kindergarten. (not have to)
 …………..………………..… ………………………………………………………………….….…..
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
Question 3: We/ should/ organize/ different activities/ raise people’s awareness/ the need/ protect these
animals.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………….….……
Question 4: Many rare species/ animals/ drive/ the verge/ extinction/ by/ environmental pollution,
/deforestation/ other causes.
 …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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PRACTICE TEST 2
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. attitude B. survive C. introduce D. human
Question 2: A. killed B. enjoyed C. described D. digested
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. entertainment B. information C. difficulty D. understanding
Question 4: A. survive B. destroy C. swallow D. maintain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Books (A) with (B) good stories (C) are often described (D) like ‘hard to put it down’.
Question 6: This book needs (A) to read (B) carefully before you (C) must make a report (D) on it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: This book is not really ________. It is a waste of money buying it.
A. inform B. information C. informative D. informatively
Question 8: If you ________ a book, you have a brief look at it without reading or studying it seriously.
A. dip into B. put away C. pick up D. put down
Question 9: The novel has had a tremendous impact on ________ and publishing markets.
A. entertain B. entertainer C. entertainment D. entertainingly
Question 10: __________ books are ones in which the story is told or illustrated with pictures.
A. Comic B. Thriller C. Romantic D. Science
Question 11: When a reader reads an interesting book slowly and carefully, he _________ it.
A. reviews B. chews and digests C. swallows D. dips into
Question 12: Things ________ clear to them so that they can do the work in the way that you have told
them.
A. are making B. ought to be made C. have made D. needn't be made
Question 13: I would recommend the book __________anyone who likes animals.
A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 14: A fax is a machine by which _________ over the telephone line.
A. written messages can be sent B. can send written messages
C. can be sent written messages D. written messages can send them
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Two students are talking after the test.
- Sue: "I love comic books." - Alice: "______________."
A. I do, too B. No, I won't C. Yes, I like it D. Neither do I
Question 16: - Jane :“The reference book you lent me last week is so helpful for my science report.”
- Janet :“_____________”
A. Keep your nose out of my business. B. Well, mind your words.
C. I’m very happy to hear that. D. You can’t believe it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: It is quite incredible to me that he participated in the party last night.
A. credible B. unbelievable C. trusted D. incapable
Question 18: Please give me some advice to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl.
A. recommendation B. information C. fiction D. interest
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 19: That was an impressive performance from such a young tennis player.
A. unimpressive B. dazzling C. spectacular D. unimpressed
Question 20: It's a great book. I couldn't put it down.
A. stop reading it B. pick it up C. feel like reading it D. take it over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 21: They have to fix the air conditioner before the hot weather comes.
A. The air conditioner have to be fixed before the hot weather comes.
B. The air conditioner has to be fixed before the hot weather comes.
C. The air conditioner must be fixed before the hot weather comes.
D. The air conditioner need be fixed before the hot weather comes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22: He will go to the dentist’s. He wants the dentist to pull his tooth out.
A. He needs to pull his tooth out, so he’ll go to the dentist’s.
B. He’ll go to the dentist’s so that he can pull his tooth out.
C. He’ll go to the dentist’s to have his tooth pulled out.
D. Going to the dentist’s, he’ll pull his tooth out.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for
each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can be found in books. The
invention of the book is one of humankind’s greatest achievements, the (23)_________of which cannot be
overestimated. Books are very adaptable providing us with both entertainment and information. The
production (24)_____ books began in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form that is recognizable to us today.
The books read by the Romans, however, have some similarities to the ones we (25) ______ now. Until the
middle of the 15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were often (26) ______
illustrated and always rare and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, large-scale
publication and distribution of books, making knowledge (27) ______ widespread and accessible.
Question 23. A. important B. importantly C. importance D. more important
Question 24. A. toward B. by C. with D. of
Question 25. A. buy B. sell C. read D. translate
Question 26. A. beautician B. beautifully C. beauty D. beautiful
Question 27. A. more B. less C. little D. few

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 28 to 32.
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that
begin with the words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell you how
to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would
like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money
at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to
have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love Every Minute of Your Life”. If you are
tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to
redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today
people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books
help people deal with modern life.
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to succeed in love every minute of your life. B. How to turn failure into success.
C. How to make a millionaire. D. How-to books.
Question 29. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. advice B. instruction C. how-to books D. career
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT the type of book giving information on careers?
A. “How to Succeed in Love Every Minute of Your Life”.
B. “How to Live on Nothing”
C. “How to Make a Millionaire”.
D. “How to Turn Failure into Success”
Question 31. The word “step-by-step” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. side by side B. gradually C. slower and slower D. rapidly
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that ______________.
A. Today people are more bored with modern life B. Modern life is more difficult to deal with
C. Today people have fewer choices to make D. Today people are more interested in modern life

SECTION B. WRITING
Question 33: Use the words / phrases given to make a complete sentence.
a. Children/ should / warn/ not/ speak/ to strangers.
____________________________________________________________________________.
b. The book/first published/ three volumes/ October 1851
_____________________________________________________________________________.
Question 34: Rewrite the sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meanings stay the same.
a. Did Mr John teach them how to read books effectively ?
Were____________________________________________________________________ ?
b. No one can do anything unless someone gives us more information.
Nothing____________________________________________________________________ .

------The end-----
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PRACTICE TEST 3

SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in the following questions.
Question [Link] B. coach C. load D. broaden
Question 2.A. decision [Link] C. defensive D. windsurfing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question [Link] [Link] [Link] D. survive
Question 4.A. referee [Link] C. gurantee D. committee
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following questions.
Question 5. You should (A) rise money (B) to help the disadvantaged and (C) handicapped children in our
(D) neighbourhood.
Question 6. Something (A) strange(B) was happened(C) at this crossroads (D) yesterday morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7:In water polo, the _______ wears red cap with the number 1 in white.
A. referee B. coach C. player D. goalie
Question8: The word scuba stands for self-contained underwater_______ apparatus .
A. breaking B. bathing C. breathing D. building
Question 9 : I am worried about the contest tomorrow because my_______ has once won the championship.
A. player B. enemy C. partner D. opponent
Question 10 :They sent me the book which was _______ on the table over there.
A. lay B. lain C. lying D. laying
Question 11: The author_______ the scenes for most of his stories in faraway places.
A. lay B. lays [Link] D. lain
Question 12: The project _______ from an original idea by Stephen.
A. developing B. being developed C. has developed D. has been developed

Question 13: When a little boy, David _______ from going out at night by his mother.
A. stopped B. stops C. was stopped D. is stopped
Question 14: The myth that eating carrots improves your eyesight _______ years ago.
A. exploding B. exploded
C. being exploded D. was exploded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.
Question 15: Nam:“_________" Hung: " I won’t say no"
A. How are things with you, Hung? B. What about playing water polo this
afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are? D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee ?
Question 16: Tom and John are talking about their school curriculum.
Tom: "I think water polo should be a compulsory subject." John:"_________. Water helps develop both
physical and mental health.”
A.I quite agree. B. You must be kidding.
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D.I don’t think that’s a good idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in the
following questions.
Question 17:We’d better speed up if we want to get there on time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
Question [Link] lost her head when she didn’t win the rowing competition.
A. kicked herself B. changed her tune C. kept her head D. took her breath
away
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. moved slightly D. ran slowly
Question 20: In water polo, a player is ejected after committing 5 personal fouls.
A. punished B. criticized C. thrown out D. defeated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the following questions.
Question 21: He can’t practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart.
A. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
B. He has a weak heart but he continues to practise scuba diving.
C. The reason why he can’t practise scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
D. The fact that he has a weak heart can’t stop him practicing scuba diving.
Question 22: The students are required to keep silent during the exam.
A. The student may keep silent during the exam.
B. The students must keep silent during the exam.
C. The student needn’t keep silent during the exam.
D. The students shouldn’t keep silent during the exam.

Read the open conversation and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Marie: You’re the best swimmer in the school team, Janet.
Janet: Well, I’ve learned how to swim when I was a little girl. My father used to be an athlete who
won the gold medals in some swimming (23) ______. He’s advised me to take part in the synchronized
swimming club.
 Marie: Oh! Synchronized swimming is (24) ______as one of the most interesting water sports. Is it a
new one?
Janet: Well. It’s a sport that dates to the early (25) ______century. In 1890 and 1891 the first
competitions were held in Berlin, and in 1892 in London. At that time, only (26) ______could compete. The
first mention of women participating in a competition was in 1907.
Marie: As far as I’ve known Katherine Curtis, a student at the university of Wisconsin, (27) ______
a water ballet club. When did she start it?
Janet: In 1923. She started the club at the University of Chicago, called the Modern Mermaid

Question 23. [Link] B. contests C. races D. competitions

Question 24. A. thought B. believed [Link] D. named
Question 25. A. 17th B. 18th C. 19th D. 20th
Question 26. A. athteles B. youngsters [Link] D. women
Question 27. A. found B. founded C. has founded D. has found
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
WATER SPORTS

Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of
leisure and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term “recreational diving” is used in contradistinction to
“technical diving”, a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater levels of training,
experience and equipment.

Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting. For
a long time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could be held.
However, the invention of aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Couteau and its development over subsequent
years led to a revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of the 1950s and early 1960s,
recreational scuba diving was a sport limited to those who were able to afford or make their own kit, and
prepared to undergo intensive training to use it. As the sport became more popular, manufacturers became
aware of the potential market, and equipment began to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable.
Continued advances in SCUBA technology, such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet
or dry suits, and dive computers, increased the safety, comfort and convenience of the gear encouraging
more people to train and use it.

Until the 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only providers
of diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of equipment. There were
no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. Professional instruction
started in 1959 when the non-profit National Association of Underwater Instructors was formed.

Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba-diving has
become a popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some forms of dive shop presence that
can offer air fills, equipment and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there is a large
market in holiday divers, who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to home. Generally,
recreational diving depths are limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters ( 100 and 130 feet),
beyond which a variety of safety issues make it unsafe to dive using recreational diving equipment and
practices, and specialised training and equipment for technical diving are needed.

Question 28 . What is the topic of the passage ?

A. The reason why people like scuba-diving B. The history of scuba-diving.

C. The equipment for scuba-diving. D. The reason why not many people take up scuba-diving.

Question 29. Recreational diving ______.

A. requires more equipment than technical diving

B. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainment

C. needs no equipment D. requires more experience than technical diving

Question 30. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited ______ .

A. as underwater hunting was banned

B. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to afford.

C. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with them

D. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring

Question 31. These following sentences are true EXCEPT ______.

A. In the early 1950s anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained

B. In the early 1950s there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba
equipment

C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving equipment

D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.

Question 32. Holiday divers ______.

A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical parts

B. can dive as deep as they like because of the safety

C. are those who go away from home to dive D. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts

SECTION B. WRITING

Write a second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the word in brackets.
1. They should gather rather than throw waste cans away. ( thrown )
 ……………………………………………………………
2. The nun released the bird which they took to the market to sell. (was )
.…………………………………………………………………….
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
3. a game of water polo/ divide/ quarters/ range/ from 5 to 8 minutes / length.
.………………………………………………………………………
4. rules/synchronized swimming/base on/score methods/ used/gymnastics and diving.
.…………………………………………………………………………..

-------The end--------
----------------------------------------------------------------------

PRACTICE TEST 4
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. host B. compete C. propose D. denote
Question 2: A. medal B. even C. complete D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. occur B. prefer C. vary D. deny
Question 4: A. dependent B. important C. potential D. excellent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5: (A) Anyone rowing a boat in a (B) strong wind knows it is (C) much easy to go with the wind
than (D) against it.
Question 6: The harder he (A) tried, the (B) worst he (C) danced before the (D) large audience.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: The Vietnamese were very satisfied with excellent performances of the young and
__________athletes.
A. energy B. energetic C. energetically D. energize
Question 8: The ________ is the official who controls the game in some sports.
A. captain B. attacker C. defender D. referee
Question 9: The festival is ______ dependent on sponsorship for its success.
A. excellently B. respectively C. heavily D. recently
Question 10: Peter tried his best to win the gold medal ________he had a pain in his back.
A. moreover B. because C. although D. however
Question 11. Mike's very ______ – he always wants to come first when he plays a game.
A. outstanding B. competitive C. interested D. impressed
Question 12. Your English is improving. It’s getting ______.
A. better and better B. more and more C. worse and worse D. less and less
Question 13. The baby is crying! Will you look after him ______ I am preparing his meal?
A. since B. before C. after D. while
Question 14. The more she practises, ______ she becomes.
A. the greater confidence B. the more confident C. the more confidently D. the most confident
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable question/response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 15: Peter: “______________” - Mary: “No, I’ve never tried it.”
A. Have you ever gone skiing? B. How often do you go skiing?
C. Would you like to go skiing? D. Is this the first time you have gone skiing?
Question 16: An: “Let’s go to Egypt to see the Great Pyramid this summer.”
Linh: “______________. How far is it from here?”
A. It sounds well B. It sounds good C. Sounds nicely D. Sounds well

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: Over-tourism is still an outstanding problem that needs to be addressed.
A. sensational B. unrivaled C. unresolved D . fantastic
Question 18:The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. participated B. impressed C. defended D. organized

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 19: Harry displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness

Question 20: The ring wasn’t worth very much but it had great sentimental value.
A. unworthy B. priceless C. precious D. valueless

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 21. We always find Robert’s stories amusing.
A. Robert’s amusing stories are found. B. Robert is interested in amusing stories.
C. We always find Robert reading amusing stories. D. We are always amused by Robert’s stories.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for
each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
The origins of baseball probably stretch back to 1839 when Abner Doubleday, a civil engineering
student, laid out a diamond-shaped field at Cooperstown, New York, and attempted to standardize the
(23)_________ governing the playing of such games as town ball and four old cats, the ancestor of baseball.
By the end of the Civil war, interest in the game had grown rapidly. Over 200 teams or clubs existed, some
of (24)_________ toured the country playing rivals; they belonged to a national association of "Baseball
Players" that had proclaimed a set of standard rules. These teams were amateurs or semi-professionals, but
as the game waxed in popularity, it offered opportunities for profit, and the first professional team, the
Cincinnati Red Stockings, (25)_________ in 1869. Other cities soon fielded professional teams, and in 1876
the present National League was organized(26)_________ by Albert Spalding. Soon a rival league appeared,
the American Association. Competition between the two was intense, and in 1883 they played a post-season
contest, the first "world's series". The American Association eventually (27)_________, but in 1900 the
American League was organized.
Question 23: A. roles B. rules C. equipment D. forms
Question 24: A. which B. that C. what D. who
Question 25: A. held B. born C. happened D. appeared
Question 26: A. annually B. apparently C. chiefly D. informally
Question 27: A. destroyed B. ruined C. collapsed D. hurt
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 28 to 32.
Kim Yeon-Ah looks like every other 18-year-old girl as she carries her skates to the ice rink. However,
Kim Yeon-Ah is no ordinary girl; she is a real class act. She is a four-time South Korean National Champion
figure skater, a World Junior Champion and the 2006-2007 Grand Prix Final Champion.
Kim Yeon-Ah was born in Bucheon, South Korea in 1990. When she was six, she moved to Gunpo, and
then, in 2006, she moved to Toronto, Canada for coaching. She started skating when she was seven. She
skated at her neighborhood rink with her older sister. She was so talented that, at twelve, she became the
youngest skater ever to win the Senior National Title.
Yeon-Ah is the first Korean skater to win the World Cup. She is currently ranked second in the world,
and her home country, Korea, is very proud of her. She is very small for her age and people call her the
“skating elf”. But dynamite comes in small packages. Yeon-Ah is very determined and has a strong fighting
spirit. She exercises for about 8 hours a day and has to follow a very strict diet. She may not eat candy or
junk food. She has to do her schoolwork, too. She works hard and practices every day. She is all heart, and
her determination is what makes her so successful.
Question 28. What did Yeon-Ah win when she was 12?
A. The World Cup B. The Olympic gold medal
C. The Senior National Title D. The Canadian Cup
Question 29. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Yeon-Ah is as small as an elf. B. Yeon-Ah doesn’t have any fun.
C. Yeon-Ah doesn’t enjoy exercising. D. Yeon-Ah succeeds as she works hard.
Question 30. Why is Yeon-Ah’s home country proud of her?
A. Because she exercises for eight hours a day. B. Because she is such a successful skater.
C. Because she travels all around the world. D. Because she is very beautiful.
Question 31. What kind of food does Yeon-Ah eat?
A. She follows a strict diet with no junk food. B. She eats food from all over the world.
C. She likes to eat pizzas and hamburgers. D. She likes to eat junk food.
Question 32. What do you think the author meant by “She is currently ranked second in the world”?
A. She is the second best skater in the world. B. She is the second youngest skater in the world.
C. She has the second highest number of points. D. She always comes in second in competitions.
SECTION B. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 1: She got nervous as the exam date came close.
The closer ______________________________ she got.
Question 2: If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner ……………………………,……………………………….... for all concerned.
II. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given.
Question 3: Though/ it/ be/ first time/ Viet Nam/ host / such/ big sports event/, the Games / be/ great
success.
………………………………………………………………………….. .
Question 4: prepare/ the 22nd Sea Games, Viet Nam/ carry out/ intensive program/ its athletes.
….……………………………………………………………………………

----The end----

PRACTICE TEST 5

SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 1. A. initiate B. impartial C. nation D. volunteer
Question 2. A. inspire B. provide C. comprise D. society
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question 3. A. dedicate B. establish C. resemble D. recover
Question 4. A. objective B. tsunami C. potential D. colony
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following questions.
Question 5. (A) My mobile phone (B) didn’t ring (C) because I (D) switched off it.
Question 6. One of the (A) objectives of (B) UNICEF is to advocate (C) to the protection of (D) children’s
rights.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7: The government has declared a state of _______ following the tsunami.
A. disaster B. poverty C. tragedy D. emergency
Question8: Tsunami is an extremely large wave in the sea caused by a/an _______.
A. storm B. flood C. earthquake D. tide
Question 9: Inhabitants in the village depend on farming for their_______.
A. life B. living C. survival D. livelihood
Question 10: The building work has been _______ by bad weather.
A. given up B. lain down C. held up D. turned off
Question 11: With that bad temper he certainly _______ after his father. He’s exactly the same.
A. looks B. takes C. goes D. runs
Question 12: We had never come_______ such a beautiful little village before.
A. off B. up C. along D. across
Question 13: One of the aims of the organization is to provide _______ aid to the refugees.
A. humanity B. humanized C. humanitarian D. human
th
Question 14: Up until the middle of the 19 century, there were no _______ and well established army
nursing systems for casualties.
A. organize B. organizers C. organizational D. organized
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.
Question 15: Nam: “Which organization was formed in 1965 as part of the UN?"
Hung: " _________."
A. I noted it B. I have no idea C. Check it again D. You made it
Question 16: Tom: "I’ve just known that the United Nations is an organization of most of the world’s
countries."
John:"_________”
A. Really? B. How can you do it? C. You will get it. D. You should do it
earlier.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in the
following questions.
Question 17: Henry is thinking of taking up golf but the equipment is too expensive.
A. giving up B. turning up C. putting up D. running up
Question 18. He has always looked up to his elder brother.
A. respected B. admired C. looked down on D. thought highly of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to help victims of major disasters such as
floods, earthquakes, ect….
A. catastrophes B. accidents C. injuries D. dangers
Question 20: All young people in the city are willing to raise money for famine relief.
A. aid B. reduction C. eradication D. destruction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the following questions.
Question 21: It was in 1945 that U.N was fully founded.
A. The U.N founded its organization in 1945.
B. When the U.N was founded was in 1945.
C. It was said that the U.N gave birth to its organization.
D. The U.N came into existence fully in 1945.
Question 22: I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t come.
A. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t arrive on time.
B. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t turn up
C. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he turned up late.
D. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t arrive early.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks
from question 23 to question 27.

International organizations are formal (23) ______ that include multiple countries or entities that come
together to collaborate and address shared objectives or challenges. These organizations can have a range of
goals, from promoting peace and security to environmental conservation or economic development. Some
well-known international organizations include the United Nations, the World Health Organization, and the
International Monetary Fund.
International organizations are important (24) ______ they provide a platform for countries to coordinate
and work collaboratively, helping to overcome challenges that require global cooperation. Through these
organizations, different countries can come together to (25) ______ resources, share knowledge, and
collaborate on projects and initiatives that benefit all members. These organizations can also provide
guidance for global policies, which they then work to implement and enforce.
While international organizations have been successful in achieving many of their goals, they can face
challenges, including funding constraints, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and occasional resistance from
member states. (26) ______, despite these challenges, international organizations remain a crucial part of the
global governance system, working to promote cooperation, collaboration, and progress (27) ______ shared
objectives.
(Adapted from Council on Foreign Relations)

Question 23. A. parties B. bodies C. companies D. enterprises

Question 24. A. although B. because C. however D. therefore
Question 25. A. make B. earn C. target D. pool
Question 26. A. Despite B. Even C. Although D. However
Question 27. A. of B. about C. towards D. for

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
THE UNITED NATIONS
In one very long sentence, the introduction to the U.N Charter expresses the ideals and the common
aims of the peoples whose governments joined together to form the U.N
“ We the people of the U.N determined to save succeeding generations from scourge of war, which
twice in our lifetime has brought untold sufferings to mankind, and to reaffirm faith in fundamental rights, in
the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women and of nations large and
small , and to establish conditions under which justice and respect for the obligations arising from treaties
and other sources of international law can be maintained , and to promote social progress and better
standards of life in large freedom, and for these ends, to practise tolerance and live together in peace with
one another as good neighbours , and to unite our strength to maintain international peace and security, and
to ensure, by the acceptance of principles and the instruction of methods , that armed force shall not be used,
save in the common interest , and to employ international machinery for the promotion of economic and
social advancement of all peoples, have resolved to combine our efforts to accomplish these aims.”
The name “United Nations” is accredited to U.S President Franklin D. Roosevelt, and the first group
of representatives of member states met and signed a declaration of common intent on New Year’s Day in
1942. Representatives of five powers worked together to draw up proposals, competed at Dumbarton Oaks
in 1944. These proposals, modified after deliberation at the conference on International Organization in San
Francisco which began in April 1945, were finally agreed on and signed as the U.N Charter by 50 countries
on 26 June 1945. It was not until that autumn, however, after the Charter had been ratified by China, France,
the U.S.S.R, the U.K and the U.S and by a majority of the other participants that the U.N officially came
into existence. The date was 24 October, now universally celebrated as United Nations Day.
(Adapted from [Link]
Question 28. The first stated aim of the U.N was to ______.
A. supervise peace treaties B. prevent a third war
C. revise international laws D. assist the “third world” countries
Question 29. Under its Charter, the U.N guarantees ______.
A. never to use arms B. to promote economic and social advancement
C. to employ international machines D. better standards of life
Question 30. President Roosevelt______.
A. was given the name “The United Nations” B. established “The United Nations”
C. probably devised the name “The United Nations” D. was credited to “The United Nations”
Question 31. Dumbarton Oaks was the place where ______.
A. the representatives of five powers formulated basic suggestions
B. the U.N first met
C. the final proposals were agreed on and the Charter signed
D. 50 countries signed the U.N Charter
Question 32. The U.N came into existence fully in ______.
A. 1944 B. 1942 C. 1945 D. 1940

SECTION B. WRITING
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the given and other
words.
1. The meeting has been postponed until next Friday. (put)
 They ………………………………………………….. until the next Friday.
2. What was the reason for their late arrival? (turn )
 Why did ………………………………………………. so late?
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
3. WHO’s main activities/ carry out/ research/ medical development/ and/ improving international health
care.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I’d like / work/ the World Wildlife Fund.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

-------The end--------

PRACTICE TEST6
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. discrimination B. civilization C. enlightenment D. pioneer
Question 2: A. divided B. controlled C. advocated D. added
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. improvementB. involvement C. employment D. pioneer
Question 4: A. agreement B. advantage C. advocate D. employment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5: (A) Lack of an education (B) severely restricts a woman’s access (C) with information and (D)
opportunities.
Question 6: They (A) offered her the job (B) with a (C) high-paid salary, but she (D) turned down it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: When a woman works outside the home and makes money herself, she is _____ independent
from her husband.
A. financially B. politically C. philosophically D. variously
Question 8: Birth control methods have ________ women from the endless cycle of childbearing and
rearing.
A. free B. freely C. freedom D. freed
Question 9: In the past many people believed that women’s_______roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. naturally C. natural D. naturalist
Question 10: Women nowadays are freed from doing the housework ______ labor-saving devices for the
home.
A. because B. thanks to C. in spite of D. although
Question 11: Women nowadays are suited for __________ in the public life of business and politics.
A. co-operation B. abolishment C. involvement D. recognition
Question 12: This cold has lasted too long, I feel like I'll never get ______ it.
A. away B. back C. over D. with
Question 13: Discrimination __________ women should be prevented as soon as possible.
A. to B. on C. against D. of
Question 14: He tried to _____________ but she didn’t believe him at all.
A. explain the problem for his wife B. explain the problem to his wife
C. explain his wife about the problem D. explain his wife the problem
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Peter and Anny are talking about women’s role.
- Peter: “In my opinion, women should not go to work.” - Anny: “______________”
A. Yes, I do B. What nonsense! C. Yes, it was ever D. Yes, I don’t agree
Question 16: Fiona and Fallon are talking about the weather.
- Fiona: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?” - Fallon: “_______________.”
A. Yes, it isn’t. B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. No, it is.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child C. Bringing up a child D. Educating a child
Question 18: I can't make out what he has talked about because I am not used to his accent.
A. stand B. write C. understand D. read
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 19: We should encourage women to join more social activities.
A. promote B. stimulate C. permit D. discourage
Question 20: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. made room for B. got in touch with C. lost control of D. put in charge of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 21: Women nowadays spend less time doing the housework.
A. It takes women nowadays more time to do the housework.
B. It took women nowadays less time to do the housework.
C. It took women more time to do the housework.
D. It takes women nowadays less time to do the housework
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22: She was tired. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
A. Tired as she was, she still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
B. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family; however, she was tired.
C. Because she was not tired enough, she still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
D. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family but tired.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for
each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
The attitude against women had its (23) _______ from the beginning of mankind’s history when men
lived in caves and went hunting for food. The task of hunting needed great strength of body. (24) _______,
the best place for women was not in forests, but at home where they could satisfactorily do their job, such
as doing household chores and looking after children. In our modern time, there are more and more jobs
which do not need the strength of (25) _______. It is a consequence that women have played a/an (26)
_______ important role in the society. However, there are still many backward places, especially in Asian
countries. Most illiterates are females. A man often expects his wife and daughters to stay at home, serve
him, and obey him in all things. Women are considered as (27) _______ to men. Young girls are educated
to tolerate and accept intimate partner violence as a part of tradition.
Question 23: A. evolution B. origin C. organization D. effect
Question 24: A. Therefore B. But C. Nevertheless D. And
Question 25: A. brains B. heads C. will D. muscles
Question 26: A. increasingly B. extensively C. tiringly D. repeatedly
Question 27: A. inferior B. superior C. major D. higher

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 28 to 32.
In the late 19th century, the women’s movement occurred in many developed countries. It is said to
begin in Western societies and then quickly spread over the world. During the movement, women fought
against inequality in education, employment, reproductive rights, etc. Their uprising was the inevitable
result of such a long period of being subdued. The victims of the temporarily old society were not only
women from poor families but also from all the social classes not permitted to express their own ideas. To
these people, life seemed to last endlessly without freedom and joyfulness. Therefore, their reaction was
considered as the revolution in recognizing their contributions and narrowing the huge gender gap between
males and females. The victory of the feminist movement gave birth for the new era of independence,
liberty, and happiness for all women globally. Since then, women have legally gone to school, chosen their
career, and been admitted to most social institutions and organizations, which had been considered
extremely luxurious things for them. Although gender inequality has been substantially reduced over the
past decades, there are still a few places where women do not have their entitlement, young girl children are
completely illiterate and mature ones cannot work and receive payment as equally as men. How to help them
to be released from the culturally regional oppression is a very tricky situation. However, it is believed that
this issue is going to be resolved soon.
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The violent war happened in the late 19th century to gain independence.
B. Women are maltreated int the world.
C. Women life has changed since their feminist movement.
D. Women were the victims of violent behaviour.
Question 29. Who were often repressed when expressing their own perspective?
A. Women from the lower, middle, and upper social status.
B. Women from poor rural families.
C. Women working in social groups.
D. Women in Western countries only.
Question 30: In the past, working for social groups or organizations was _______.
A. an honour for those having luxurious life B. severely limited for women
C. women’s regular choice D. encouraged by the wealthy
Question 31: According to the passage, what is one of the remaining drawbacks of gender
inequality in a few nations?
A. The low participation rate of women in politics
B. The high level of illiterate young girls
C. The decrease in the salary for working women
D. The law against reproductive rights
Question 32: The gender inequality problems in a few nations will be _______.
A. not solvable B. defined in a short time
C. eliminated in the near future D. considered by feminists soon
SECTION B. WRITING
Use the words / phrases given to make a complete sentence.
Question 33: Women / believed / be / better / suited / childbearing / homemaking many years ago.
____________________________________________________________________________.
Question 34: They/promote/strategy/ prevent/ violence/ discrimination against girls, boys and women for
the past few years.
_____________________________________________________________________________.
Rewrite the sentence so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.
Question 35: They have postponed the meeting until next week (Use “PUT” to rewrite the sentence)
The meeting__________________________________________________________________________
Question 36: Because of the bad weather, our flight was delayed for several hours. (use “HELD” to rewrite
the sentence)
Because of __________________________________________________________________________

-----The end-----

PRACTICE TEST 7
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 1. A. integration B. international C. immigration D. operation
Question 2. A. deal B. eagle C. instead D. eager
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question 3. A. stability B. immensity C. advocacy D. capacity
Question 4. A. advice B. justice C. circus D. product
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following questions.
Question 5. The population of Singapore is approximately (A) 4.59 million. Though (B) Singapore is highly
cosmopolitan and diversity(C), ethnic Chinese forms (D) the majority of the population.
Question 6. Over the past(A) 24 years, Vietnam has consistently(B) considered ASEAN a(C) foundation
and one of top priority (D) of its foreign policy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7:The major goal of ASEAN is to ____economic growth, social progress and cultural
development.
A. cooperate B. accelerate C. communicate D. operate
Question8:The _______ is increasing faster and faster.
A. Gross Domestic Product B. Gross Domestic Production
C. Growth Domestic Product D. General Domestic Production
Question 9:We are trying to control the ________ of the dollar on the world’s money markets.
A. stable B. stabilize C. stability D. stabilizer
Question 10:Strategic alliances are being ________ with major European companies.
A. forced B. formulated C. forbidden D. forged
Question 11: _________ you finish typing that report, make five copies of it and give it to the officers.
A. While B. When C. If D. As long as
Question 12:_______ I visit him, we talk about politics a lot.
a. Up to B. As far as C. Whenever D. Until
Question 13:What did that man die ________? –A heart attack.
A. in B. for C. of D. about
Question 14:When the passenger ________, will you please give him this package?
A. will arrive B. arrives C. would arrive D. arriving
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.
Question 15: Rolls: “Would you like to go to the concert?” - Bob: “________. I’m very busy.”
A. All right, let me see B. I’d love to, but I can’t
C. No, not at all D. I don’t think so
Question 16: Tom: “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?”- Nam:
“________”
A. Yes, please. B. Sorry, I’m new here myself.
C. Sure, go ahead. D. OK. Here’s your ticket.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in the
following questions.
Question 17:ASEAN also works for the promotion of peace and stabilityin the region.
A. constancy B. equilibrium C. consistency D. unsteadiness
Question [Link] ASEAN Investment Area aims to enhance the competitiveness of the region for attracting
direct investment which flows into and within ASEAN.
A. boost B. intensify C. promote D. lessen
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. same B. various C. identical D. similar

Question 20: There's nojusticein the world when people can be made to suffer like that.
A. fairness B. partiality C. injustice D. inequity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the following questions.
Question 21: When I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn.
A. After I picked up my book, I tore the cover.
B. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn.
C. Before I picked up the book, I saw that the cover of the book was torn.
D. The cover was torn as soon as my book waspicked up.
Question 22:By the time we finished our work, Peter had already gone home.
A. Peter did not go home until we finished our work.
B. As soon as we finished our work, we would go home with Peter.
C. We finished our work before Peter went home.
D. Peter had gone home before we finished our work.
Read the passage and circle the best answer A, B, C, or D.
Singapore was one of the five original member countries that founded ASEAN in 1967. Since its
independence in 1965, Singapore has become one of the world’s most prosperous countries, with per capita
GDP equalling that of the leading nations of Western Europe. Singapore is highly ranked for its economic
competitiveness, and it was the world’s most competitive country from 1997 to 1999 as ranked by the World
Economic Forum.

Singapore’s strategic location at the entrance to the Strait of Malacca has helped it to become one of the
most important shipping centres in Asia. The Port of Singapore, the world’s busiest in terms of shipping
tonnage, is a key component of Singapore’s prosperity and economic health. Singapore is a leader in
manufacturing of computer components, petroleum refining, and business services.

Singapore has made an impressive recovery after the Asian financial crisis of 1997-1998. The government is
currently restructuring the economy by promoting higher-value-added activities in line with a “knowledge-
based” economy, and by opening up protected sectors such as financial services to increase overall
efficiency. Various bilateral free-trade agreements are also being negotiated to improve market access and
encourage foreign investment inflows.
23. Since when has Singapore become one of the world’s most prosperous countries?
A. 1965 B. 1967 C. 1997 D. 1999
24. What does the word “it” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. ASEAN C. Singapore
B. GDP D. the World Economic Forum
25. What is the important component of Singapore’s prosperity and economic health?
A. Singapore’s strategic location C. Singapore’s shipping
B. the Strait of Malacca D. the Port of Singapore
26. In what areas is Singapore leading?
A. manufacturing of computer components
B. petroleum refining
C. business services
D. A, B, and C
27. What happened in the period of 1997-1998?
A. Singapore made an impressive recovery.
B. The Asian financial crisis took place.
C. The Singaporean government promoted higher-value-added activities.
D. The Singaporean government opened up financial services.

Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

The 15th Asian Games (28) _______ from December 1st through December 15th, 2006, in Doha, Capital of
Qatar. More than 10,000 athletes, who represented 45 countries and regions, took part in 39 sports and 424
events of the Games, the most important event in Asia. Some new events such as chess and triathlon were
also (29)_______ in the Games. The 15th Asian Games was (30) _______ at 34 sporting venues, including
Khalifa Stadium, (31) _______ hosted the opening and closing ceremonies. The Opening Ceremony of the
15th Asian Games, Doha 2006, at Khalifa Stadium, was the most spectacular opening of any Games with
50,000 people to get into Khalifa Stadium and more than one billion television viewers. The Doha Asian
Games Organizing Committee (DAGOC) wanted to ensure that everybody who saw the ceremony would
have a (32) _______ for life as suggested in the slogan "The Games of Your Life."The 15th Asian Games
was a successful sporting event that all the attendees would never forget.

28. A set up B. took part C. brought about D. took place

29. A. included B. contained C. insisted D. celebrated

30. A. made B. organized C. symbolized D. opened

31. A. that B. who C. where D. which

32. A. match B. memory C. portrait D. partner

SECTION B: WRITING

Rewrite the sentence so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.

1. After having met the movie star in person, I understand she was so popular. (Use adverbial clause of time
to replace the underlined phrase, beginning with “After”)

After ………………………………………….,

2. Before flying on a space mission, an astronaut will have undergone thousands of hours of training. (Use
adverbial clause of time to replace the underlined phrase, beginning with “Before”)

Before ………………………………………..,

Write complete sentences with the following clues.

3. ASEAN leaders/ also adopt/ ASEAN Vision 2020/aim/ forge/ closer economic integration/ the region.

4. ASEAN / actively/ contribute/ improve / socio- economic situations / solve / problems / the world.

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