IMPORTANT ONE LINERS FOR OLETS

NATIONAL
DGCA Penalizes Air India ₹30 Lakh For 80-Year-Old Passenger’s Demise
 On February 12, upon arriving at Mumbai airport from New York on an Air India flight, an 80-year-old passenger,
who had pre-booked a wheelchair, chose to walk due to the unavailability of one.
 The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation, primarily
dealing with safety issues.

‘Tawi Festival’ In Jammu to kick off on March 1, 2024, For Four Days
 Jammu & Kashmir Rural Livelihoods Mission (JKRLM) SHGs prepare for their debut at the 4-day ‘Tawi Festival’ in
Jammu.
 The initiative, in collaboration with the Amar Mahal Museum and Library (AMML), is designed to provide a platform
for these women to exhibit their talents and achieve economic empowerment.

Zoological Survey of India Names New Marine Species after President Droupadi Murmu
 The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has identified and named a new species of marine head-shield sea slug
discovered along the West Bengal and Odisha coasts. Named Melanochlamys droupadi.
About Zoological Survey of India:
Headquarters: Kolkata;
Founded: 1 July 1916;
Director: Dr. Dhriti Banerjee;
Founder: Government of India.

Telangana Government Introduces One-Time Scheme

 The Telangana state government has issued a directive for the adoption of the One Time Scheme (OTS) across all
urban local bodies (ULBs), including the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC).

Nagaland assembly adopts resolution on FMR; asks Centre to reconsider decision

 The Nagaland legislative assembly has unanimously adopted a resolution against the central government’s decision
to fence the Indo-Myanmar border and suspend the Free Movement Regime (FMR) agreement with Myanmar.

Exercise Samudra Laksamana: Strengthening Indo-Malaysian Maritime Cooperation

 Exercise Samudra Laksamana, a significant bilateral maritime exercise between India and Malaysia, is currently
underway from February 28 to March 2, 2024, off the coast of Visakhapatnam.

Sarbananda Sonowal Inaugurates First Made-in-India ASTDS Tug

 Sarbananda Sonowal, Union Minister of MoPSW & AYUSH, virtually inaugurated the 60T bollard pull tug named
‘Ocean Grace’ and the Medical Mobile Unit (MMU) on March 2, 2024.
 The Ocean Grace is the first Make-in-India ASTDS Tug developed by Cochin Shipyard Limited under MoPSW.

Telangana Government Announces Launch of Indiramma Housing Scheme

 Telangana Chief Minister A Revanth Reddy has announced the launch of the Indiramma Housing Scheme starting
March 11.
 The first phase will witness the approval of 3,500 houses in each Assembly constituency, catering to a significant
number of beneficiaries.
Chapchar Kut Festival Celebrated Across Mizoram
 Chapchar Kut, the grandest festival in Mizoram, resonated throughout the state with vibrant traditional customs and
jubilant festivities.

Neolithic Child Burial Site Unearthed in Chengalpattu, Tamil Nadu

 A groundbreaking archaeological discovery has been made in Chettimedu Pathur village, approximately 77
kilometres from Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
 Researchers from the Department of Ancient History and Archaeology at the University of Madras have unearthed a
child burial site dating back to the Neolithic period, around 2500 BCE to 3000 BCE.
About Tamil Nadu:
Chief Minister: M. K. Stalin;
Capital: Chennai;
Governor: R. N. Ravi.

India’s first indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
 PM Modi marked the beginning of a new era in India’s nuclear energy sector by witnessing the “Core Loading” at the
Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.

Uttar Pradesh Leads in Issuing 5 Crore Ayushman Cards under Ayushman Bharat PMJAY
 Uttar Pradesh, under the leadership of Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, has achieved a milestone by becoming the
first state in the country to issue five crore Ayushman cards.
 The state of Uttar Pradesh has issued 50,017,920 Ayushman cards, benefiting 74,382,304 individuals.

Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi, Banglar muslin get GI tag

 The Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi, more widely known as Silver Filigree, has recently been awarded the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag by the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai.

Minister Hardeep S Puri Inaugurates 201 CNG Stations & GAIL’s First Small Scale LNG Unit
Source: News on AIR
 Minister Hardeep Singh Puri, overseeing Petroleum and Natural Gas as well as Housing and Urban Affairs, dedicated
201 CNG Stations and India’s inaugural Small Scale LNG Unit of GAIL.
 The event, graced by numerous dignitaries, underscored the government’s pledge to elevate the share of natural gas
in the primary energy basket to 15% by 2030.

Himachal Pradesh Announces “Indira Gandhi Pyari Behna Sukh Samman Nidhi Yojna”
Source: Mint
 Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister Sukhvinder Sukhu has announced a groundbreaking initiative aimed at
empowering women in the state.
 Under this scheme, eligible women will receive a monthly stipend of ₹1,500, amounting to an annual expenditure of
₹800 crore.

India’s IN-SPACe Inaugurates Satellite & Payload Technical Centre in Ahmedabad

Source: The Indian Express
 Union Minister of State for Science and Technology Jitendra Singh inaugurated a pioneering technical center in
Ahmedabad, representing a significant advancement in India’s space sector. Established by the Indian National
Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe).
 Situated at IN-SPACe headquarters in Bopal, Ahmedabad.
Shri Dharmendra Pradhan Inaugurates Management Education Center at NALCO, Angul
Source: PIB
 The Union Minister for Education, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, inaugurated
the Centre of Management Education jointly established by IIM Mumbai and IIM Sambalpur.
 The inauguration took place at the NALCO Training Institute in Angul, Odisha, amidst the presence of Shri Sridhar
Patra, CMD, NALCO.

Kerala to launch India’s first government-backed OTT platform

 Kerala, renowned for its cultural richness and cinematic brilliance, is set to make history in the digital entertainment
landscape with the launch of CSpace, India’s maiden government-backed Over-The-Top (OTT) platform.
About Kerala:
Chief Minister: Pinarayi Vijayan;
Capital: Thiruvananthapuram;

Indian Armed Forces to Conduct Mega ‘Bharat-Shakti’ Exercise in Jaisalmer

 The three forces of India – Army, Navy, and Air Force – are going to conduct the biggest exercise called ‘Bharat-
Shakti’ at Asia’s largest field firing range located in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. PM Modi’s Likely Visit Prime
Minister Narendra Modi may visit Pokhran on March 12, 2024.
 Top officers of the three forces, including Chief of Defense Staff General Anil Chauhan, will participate in the Bharat-
Shakti exercise to be held on March 12 in Pokhran.

Bengaluru to Get India’s First Driverless Metro Train

 The Bengaluru Metro Rail Corporation Limited (BMRCL) has received the first set of six train coaches for its
upcoming driverless metro line, called the Yellow Line.
 This 18.8 km-long line, connecting RV Road and Bommasandra, will be the first in India to have a driverless train
system.

Bichom Becomes Arunachal Pradesh’s 27th District

Source: The Hindu
 Bichom, carved out of West and East Kameng, has been declared the 27th district of Arunachal Pradesh.
 Chief Minister Pema Khandu led the inauguration ceremony, marking a significant milestone for the region.

PM Modi Unveils Bronze Statue of Ahom General Lachit Borphukan in Assam’s Jorhat
Source: The Indian Express
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a 125-foot bronze statue of the legendary Ahom general, Lachit Borphukan,
at his burial site in eastern Assam’s Jorhat district.
 Chief Minister of Assam’s Himanta Biswa Sarma accompanied the Prime Minister during the program.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi Virtually Inaugurates Sela Tunnel

Source: Hindustan Times
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi, during the Viksit Bharat Viksit North East programme in Itanagar, Arunachal
Pradesh on March 09, 2024, virtually dedicated the Sela Tunnel project to the nation.
 Constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) at an altitude of 13,000 feet, the tunnel is situated on the road
from Tezpur, Assam, to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh’s West Kameng district.

UGC Introduces SheRNI, Helping Female Scientists And Faculty Connect

Source: Times of India
 The University Grants Commission’s (UGC) Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre unveiled a
groundbreaking initiative, known as the ‘She Research Network in India’ (SheRNI).
 The SheRNI database currently hosts profiles of 81,818 women faculty members, showcasing their vast
contributions to the field of science.

J&K Police Launches “Operation Kamdhenu” to Combat Cattle Smuggling

Source: Kashmir Life
 In Jammu and Kashmir, the police have initiated “Operation Kamdhenu” to curb the rampant issue of cattle
smuggling in the Jammu, Samba, and Kathua (JSK) police ranges.
 Manoj Sinha is the second Lieutenant Governor of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Union Minister Arjun Munda Inaugurates National Dairy Mela and Agricultural Exhibition in Jharkhand
Source: PIB
 The 3-day National Dairy Mela and Agricultural Exhibition at Chaibasa in Jharkhand was inaugurated by Union
Minister of Tribal Affairs, Agriculture, and Farmers Welfare, Shri Arjun Munda.
 Organized by the National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal, Haryana, this event marks the first of its kind in
Jharkhand, aimed at fostering the comprehensive development of livestock and agriculture in tribal areas.

PM Modi Launches Mahtari Vandan Yojana in Chhattisgarh

Source: News on AIR
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually launched the ‘Mahtari Vandan Yojana’ in Chhattisgarh from Kashi, Uttar
Pradesh.
 PM Modi disbursed the first installment of Rs 1,000 to 70,12,417 women in Chhattisgarh.

Tamil Nadu CM Stalin Announces Non-Implementation of CAA

 Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin on Tuesday, March 12, 2024, announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act
(CAA), whose rules were notified by the Union Home Ministry on March 11, will not be implemented in the state.
 The decision comes amid growing concerns that the CAA goes against minorities and Sri Lankan Tamils living in
camps in Tamil Nadu.
 The CAA, passed by the Parliament in 2019.

Andaman & Nicobar Command’s Historic All-Women Maritime Surveillance Mission

 Coinciding with International Women’s Day and the 40th anniversary of INAS 318, the Andaman & Nicobar
Command achieved a significant milestone by conducting its first-ever all-women maritime surveillance mission.

Tamil Nadu Launches ‘Neengal Nalama’ Scheme to Review Implementation of Welfare Programs
 Tamil Nadu government has launched the ‘Neengal Nalama’ (Are you fine?) scheme, a beneficiary outreach program
aimed at reviewing the implementation of flagship schemes and addressing the grievances of the public.
 Under the ‘Neengal Nalama’ scheme, people will be directly contacted by the Chief Minister, Chief Secretary,
Department Heads, Department Secretaries, and District Collectors.
About Tamil Nadu:
Chief Minister: M. K. Stalin;
Capital: Chennai;
Governor: R. N. Ravi.

Dr Mansukh Mandaviya launches Credit Assistance Program for Jan Aushadhi Kendras
 Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, Union Minister for Chemicals and Fertilizers and Health and Family Welfare, spearheaded
the inauguration of a credit assistance program aimed at bolstering Jan Aushadhi Kendras across India.
 The program, initiated through a collaboration between SIDBI and PMBI.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi Inaugurates India’s First Automobile In-Plant Railway Siding
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the inaugural automobile in-plant railway siding at Suzuki Motor Gujarat
Private Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Maruti Suzuki India Limited (MSIL).
 Managing Director & CEO of Maruti Suzuki India Limited: Mr. Hisashi Takeuchi

Union Minister Inaugurates “National Speed Breeding Crop Facility” At NABI

 Dr. Jitendra Singh, the Union Minister of Science & Technology, inaugurated the “National Speed Breeding Crop
Facility” at NABI (National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute), Mohali.
 The facility serves all Indian states, with a focus on North Indian states like Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, and
Jammu & Kashmir.

NITI Aayog’s ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative: Empowering Grassroots Entrepreneurship

 NITI Aayog launched the ‘Vocal for Local’ initiative under its Aspirational Blocks Programme on March 13, 2024.
 Prof. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog, unveiled the logo for ‘Aakanksha’ under the ‘Vocal for Local’ initiative.

GOI Approves Electric Vehicle Policy to Boost Local Manufacturing

 The Indian government made a landmark announcement on March 15, approving a comprehensive scheme aimed at
positioning India as a global hub for electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing.
 This policy, designed by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, seeks to entice significant investments from
renowned global EV manufacturers into the Indian market.

Electoral Bonds: BJP Tops the List with Highest Receipt

 The Electoral Bonds scheme, introduced in 2018, allows individuals and entities to make donations to political
parties without revealing their identities. The Election Commission of India (ECI) has recently released data.
 According to the data released by the ECI, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) encashed electoral bonds worth a
staggering ₹6,060.5 crore between April 12, 2019, and January 24, 2024.

Rajasthan Government to Distribute Free Millet Seeds to Farmers

 The Rajasthan government has decided to distribute free seeds of millets and coarse grains to the state’s farmers.
This move aims to boost millet production in the state.
 Rajasthan has a 26% share in the total millet production of the country.
 Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi was launched on February 24, 2019.

Kashmir Hosts First Formula-4 Car Racing Event along Dal Lake
 The beautiful Dal Lake in Kashmir witnessed an exciting event on March 18. Formula-4 car racing was held for the
first time in the region.
About Jammu & Kashmir:
Capitals: Srinagar (May–October); Jammu (November–April)
Districts: 20
Union territory: 31 October 2019

Odisha CM Naveen Patnaik Inaugurates India’s First Indoor Athletics and Aquatic Centres
 Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik inaugurated India’s first indoor athletics stadium and indoor aquatic centre at
the Kalinga stadium in Bhubaneshwar.
About Odisha:
Capital: Bhubaneswar
Governor: Raghubar Das
Election Commission launches ‘Mission 414’ campaign in Himachal Pradesh to boost voter turnout
 The Election Commission has launched a special campaign in Himachal Pradesh to boost voter turnout in 414 polling
stations with less than 60% voting during the last Lok Sabha polls.
About Election commission of India:
Founded: 25 January 1950
Headquarters: New Delhi

India-US Joint Military Exercise “EX TIGER TRIUMPH – 24”

 A joint military exercise called Tiger Triumph-24 between India and the United States started on March 18 and will
continue until March 31. This exercise is taking place on the Eastern Seaboard (East Coast) of India.
 They had last met in November 2023 for the India-US Ministerial 2+2 Dialogue in New Delhi.
About US:
Capital: Washington, D.C.
Speaker: Mike Johnson (Republican Party)
Attorney general: Merrick Garland

Meta’s Plan to Combat Misinformation in 2024 Lok Sabha Elections

 Meta unveils its strategy to tackle the growing threat of AI-generated fake content that could influence the electoral
process.
 Meta will establish an India-specific Elections Operations Centre staffed by experts.

Tamil Nadu Makes History with India’s Second Privately Developed Rocket
 Tamil Nadu is set to witness a historic event as one of its space startups, Agnikul Cosmos Private Limited, prepares
to launch its first rocket, Agnibaan Sub Orbital Technology Demonstrator (SOrTeD), from the Satish Dhawan Space
Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
 This launch will also be India’s first semi-cryogenic engine-powered rocket launch, showcasing advancements in
propulsion technology.
 Agnikul Cosmos Private Limited, founded in 2017 by Srinath Ravichandran, Moin SPM, and Satya Chakravarthy,
became the first company in India to collaborate with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) under the IN-
SPACe initiative.

India’s First Battery Storage Gigafactory to Start Operations in J&K

 GoodEnough Energy has announced that it will start operations at India’s first battery energy storage gigafactory in
the northern region of Jammu and Kashmir by October 2023.
 India has set a goal to become net zero by 2070.

PM Modi Inaugurates State-of-the-Art Medical Facility in Thimphu

 Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Bhutanese counterpart Tshering Tobgay jointly inaugurated a modern
hospital in the Bhutanese capital, Thimphu.
 In a significant gesture, the King of Bhutan conferred the prestigious ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’ on PM Modi, making
him the first foreign Head of Government to receive this honor.
 India and Bhutan established diplomatic relations in 1968, and their relationship is guided by the Treaty of
Friendship and Cooperation signed in 1949 and revised in 2007.
About Bhutan:
Capital: Thimphu;
King: Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck;
Currencies: Bhutanese Ngultrum, Indian Rupee;
Official language: Dzongkha.
Election Commission’s Saksham App Revolutionizes Voting Accessibility
 The Election Commission has introduced the Saksham App. This initiative aims to address the needs of voters above
85 years of age and Persons-with-Disabilities (PWDs) with a 40 percent benchmark disability, allowing them to cast
their votes from the comfort of their homes.

Chandigarh set to host international film festival

 Five-day Cinevesture International Film Festival (CIFF) will be held from March 27 to 31 at Cinepolis in Jagat Mall,
Sector 17.
 Showcasing a diverse array of cinematic masterpieces from around the globe, the festival promises to captivate
audiences with its eclectic mix of films spanning various genres and themes.
 Actor Boman Irani will inaugurate the event and Cannes winner French film The Taste of Things will be the
inaugural film of CIFF.
 Three student films from SUPVA (Rohtak) will also be screened in the festival.

ASI Begins Excavation in MP to Find India’s Oldest Temple

 The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is conducting excavations at two mounds in Nachne village, located in the
Panna district of Madhya Pradesh.
 The excavation sites are situated just 30 meters away from two ancient temples – a Gupta-era Parvati temple and
the Chaumukh Nath temple built by the Kalachuri dynasty. These temples, known as the Nachna Hindu temples.
About Archaeological Survey of India (ASI):
Director General: Yadubir Singh Rawat;
Headquarters: New Delhi, India;
ASI Established: 1861

World’s First Om-Shaped Temple Inaugurated in Rajasthan

 The World’s first-ever temple designed in the iconic Om shape has been inaugurated in the village of Jadan, Pali
district of Rajasthan. This architectural masterpiece, spanning across 250 acres.
 The ‘Om Aakar’ temple, following the Nagara style commonly seen in North India.

INTERNATIONAL
Ghana Parliament Passes Anti-LGBTQ Bill
 Ghana’s parliament has approved a controversial anti-LGBTQ bill, the Human Sexual Rights and Family Values Bill,
which awaits presidential assent.
About Ghana:
Capital: Accra;
Currency: Ghanaian Cedi;
President: Nana Akufo-Addo

Tuvalu Appoints Feleti Teo as New Prime Minister

 Tuvalu has named Feleti Teo, the former Attorney General, as the Pacific Island nation’s new prime minister.
About Tuvalu:
Capital: Funafuti;
Continent: Oceania;
Official languages: Tuvaluan, English;
Currencies: Australian Dollar, Tuvaluan dollar.

Iran launches ‘Pars 1’ satellite into orbit from Russia

 Iran’s venture into space exploration and satellite deployment continues with the launch of the “Pars 1” satellite,
facilitated by Russia from the Vostochny Cosmodrome.
About Iran:
Capital: Tehran;
Official language: Persian;
President: Ebrahim Raisi.

France Pioneers Constitutional Protection for Abortion Rights

 France has made history by becoming the first nation globally to anchor the right to abortion within its constitution.
 About France
Capital: Paris;
President: Emmanuel Macron;
Prime minister: Gabriel Attal;
Official language: French.

Hungary Parliament Elects New President: Tamas Sulyok

Source: Hungry Today
 Hungary's parliament appoints Tamás Sulyok as president following the previous head's resignation over a
controversial pardon.
 Budapest is the national capital of Hungary.

India & South Korea to Boost Cooperation in New Tech & Semiconductors
 India aims to enhance its strategic partnership with South Korea by expanding cooperation into new and critical
areas, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar announced during the 10th India-South Korea Joint Commission
Meeting in Seoul.
 Co-chairing the meeting with his South Korean counterpart, Cho Tae-yul, Jaishankar.

Panama Officially Joins International Solar Alliance

 Panama has officially become the 97th member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA). This milestone was
announced by Randhir Jaiswal, the spokesperson for the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
About International Solar Alliance
Founders: Narendra Modi, François Hollande;
President: R. K. Singh;
Founded: 30 November 2015.

Sardar Ramesh Singh Arora: Pakistan’s First Sikh Minister in Punjab

Source: Hindustan Times
 Sardar Ramesh Singh Arora, a three-time member of the Provincial Assembly (MPA) in Pakistan, has become the
first Sikh minister in the Punjab province.
 The cabinet in Punjab was formed by the newly elected Pakistan Muslim League (PML-N) government led by Chief
Minister Maryam Nawaz Sharif.

Sea6 Energy Launches World’s First Large-Scale Mechanized Tropical Seaweed Farm
Source:
 Sea6 Energy, a pioneer in the Blue Economy, has launched the world’s first large-scale mechanized tropical seaweed
farm off the coast of Lombok, Indonesia.
 The one-square-kilometer seaweed farm is a significant milestone in establishing the scalability of sustainable
tropical seaweed cultivation for various industrial applications.

Asif Ali Zardari Sworn in as Pakistan’s 14th President

 Asif Ali Zardari took oath as Pakistan’s 14th President following his overwhelming victory in the presidential
election.
 Chief Justice of Pakistan Qazi Faez Isa administered the oath at Aiwan-e-Sadr, the Presidential Palace.
 Zardari succeeded Dr. Arif Alvi.
 This marks Zardari’s second term as President, making him the first civilian to hold the position twice in Pakistan’s
history.

President Abbas Named Mohammad Mustafa as New Palestinian PM

 President Mahmoud Abbas of the Palestinian Authority (PA) has appointed Mohammad Mustafa as the new Prime
Minister.

UK tests a laser weapon that can hit a coin from a kilometer

 Britain has recently conducted successful test firings of its DragonFire Laser Directed Energy Weapon (LDEW).

Vladimir Putin secures another Six-Year Term in Russian Election

 Russian President Vladimir Putin clinched victory in the recent election with a commanding lead of 76.1% of the
vote, as per preliminary results.
 Putin is set to become Russia’s longest-serving leader in over two centuries, surpassing Josef Stalin if he completes
his term.

Vladimir Putin secures another Six-Year Term in Russian Election

 Russian President Vladimir Putin clinched victory in the recent election with a commanding lead of 76.1% of the
vote, as per preliminary results.
 Putin is set to become Russia’s longest-serving leader in over two centuries, surpassing Josef Stalin if he completes
his term.

Vinay Kumar Appointed as New Indian Ambassador to Russia

 Vinay Kumar named as the next Ambassador of India to Russia. Kumar is currently serving as the Ambassador of
India to Myanmar.
 Russia has been a longstanding partner of India, with diplomatic ties between the two countries forming a
cornerstone of India’s foreign policy.
 Kumar will replace Pavan Kapoor, who has been appointed as the new Secretary (West) in the MEA, as India’s envoy
in Moscow.

Nepal Declares Pokhara as Its Tourism Capital

 The government of Nepal has officially declared Pokhara, a city in the Gandaki province, as the tourism capital of the
Himalayan nation.
 Pokhara, known for its natural beauty and adventure tourism, has long been recognized as a tourism hub in Nepal.
About Nepal:
Capital: Kathmandu;
Currency: Nepalese Rupee;
Prime Minister: Pushpa Kamal Dahal;
President: Ram Chandra Paudel.

Vaughan Gething Becomes First Black Leader of a European Country

 Vaughan Gething, who currently serves as the Economic Minister of Wales, has been elected as the new leader of the
Welsh Labour Party.
 His victory marks a historic milestone as he becomes the first ever Black person to lead a European country.

New Zealand Bans Disposable E-Cigarettes and Vapes

 The New Zealand government has announced a ban on disposable e-cigarettes or vapes. The move comes less than a
month after the country repealed a law that aimed to phase out tobacco smoking.
 Along with the ban, New Zealand will also raise fines for retailers and individuals who sell vapes or e-cigarettes to
minors under 18 years of age.

Microsoft named British AI pioneer Mustafa Suleyman as the head of its AI division
 Microsoft named British AI pioneer Mustafa Suleyman as the head of its AI division. Suleyman, who co-founded
Google’s DeepMind, will now report directly to Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella.

Simon Harris, Ireland’s Youngest PM in the Making

 Simon Harris, a prominent figure in Irish politics, has emerged as the sole candidate in the race to become Ireland’s
next prime minister following the unexpected departure of Leo Varadkar.
 At 37 years old, Harris is poised to become the youngest prime minister in Ireland’s history.

US Surgeons Perform First Pig-to-Human Kidney Transplant

 In a groundbreaking medical achievement, surgeons from Massachusetts General Hospital in Boston have performed
the first pig-to-human kidney transplant. A 62-year-old man with end-stage renal disease received a new kidney
from a genetically modified pig.

PepsiCo to invest $400 million more in two new plants in Vietnam

 PepsiCo, the U.S. food and beverage giant, has committed to investing an additional $400 million in Vietnam.
 This decision was made public during a visit by delegations from over 60 U.S. enterprises, including Suntory PepsiCo
Vietnam Beverage, to Vietnam last week.

Luis Montenegro Named Portugal’s Prime Minister

 After eight years of Socialist rule in Portugal, Luis Montenegro, leader of the centre-right Democratic Alliance (AD),
has been appointed as the new prime minister.
 Montenegro’s appointment marks the return of a centre-right leader to the prime minister’s office after more than
eight years.

Saudi Arabia Sends First Contestant to Miss Universe Pageant

 Rumi Alqahtani, a 27-year-old model and influencer from Saudi Arabia will be the first participant from the country
in the Miss Universe competition.
 This will be the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia’s first appearance in the Miss Universe pageant.
 The Miss Universe pageant 2024 will be held in Mexico.

Thailand’s Historic Move: Legalizing Same-Sex Marriage

 Thailand’s lower house of Parliament has passed a groundbreaking bill to legalize same-sex marriage, marking a
significant step towards equality in Southeast Asia.

Bassirou Diomaye Faye Wins Senegal’s Presidential Election

 Bassirou Diomaye Faye, an anti-establishment figure, has won the Senegalese presidential election with 54.28 per
cent of the votes in the first round.
 At 44 years old, Faye is set to become Africa’s youngest elected president and the first opponent to win in the first
round since Senegal’s independence from France in 1960.
About Senegal:
Capital: Dakar
President: Macky Sall
Currency: West African CFA franc
Official language: French
UN Appoints Saudi Arabia to Lead Women’s Rights Forum despite Criticism
 Saudi Arabia has been chosen to chair the UN Commission on the Status of Women (CSW), despite widespread
criticism due to its poor record on women’s rights.
 The appointment of Saudi Ambassador Abdulaziz Alwasil has sparked outrage from human rights groups.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

DRDO Successfully Tests Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS)
 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has conducted two successful flight tests of the Very
Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missile on February 28th and 29th, 2024.
 VSHORADS, a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD), has been designed and developed indigenously by the
Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners.
About DRDO:
Founded: 1958
Headquarters: New Delhi
Agency executive:Sameer V. Kamat, Chairman

Indian Scientists Create Eco Wound Dressings with Banana fibers

 The Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), an autonomous institute affiliated with the
Department of Science and Technology, have successfully converted banana pseudo stems—commonly regarded as
agricultural waste.

INAS 334 Squadron to Welcome MH 60R ‘Seahawks’ Into the Indian Navy
 The Indian Navy is poised to achieve a significant milestone on March 6, 2024, with the commissioning of the MH
60R Seahawk helicopter at INS Garuda, Kochi.
 The Seahawks squadron will be designated as INAS 334.

Google Unveils Genie AI: Revolutionizing Video Game Creation

 Google’s DeepMind team introduces “Genie,” a groundbreaking AI platform poised to transform the gaming industry
and creative endeavors.
 This innovative project signifies a fusion of cutting-edge technology and imaginative potential, offering the capability
to craft interactive 2D video games from single image prompts or text descriptions.

INS Jatayu Commissioned By Indian Navy at Lakshadweep

 Indian Navy took a significant stride in fortifying its operational prowess with the commissioning of its new base,
INS Jatayu, at Minicoy island of Lakshadweep.
 Ceremony of INS Jatayu was graced by Navy Chief Admiral R Hari Kumar.

DST and T-Hub Launch AI-ML Hub in Hyderabad

Source: The Hindu
 The Department of Science and Technology (DST), in collaboration with T-Hub, has launched the Machine Learning
and Artificial Intelligence Technology Hub (MATH) in Hyderabad.
 The MATH initiative targets to generate over 500 AI-related jobs by 2025.

India to Construct a 10,000-GPU Supercomputer for Self-Sufficient AI Advancement

Source: Hindustan Times
 The Indian government, led by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved a new $1.24 billion investment for
the IndiaAI mission.
DRDO Successfully Tests Agni-5 Missile with MIRV Technology, Mission Divyastra
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has
successfully conducted the maiden flight test of the locally developed Agni-5 missile with multiple independently
targetable re-entry vehicle (MIRV) technology.
 The test, codenamed “Mission Divyastra” (divine weapon.)

About DRDO:
Founded: 1958;
Headquarters: DRDO Bhavan, New Delhi;
Agency executive: Sameer V. Kamat, Chairman, DRDO.

Launch of ‘Agray’ and ‘Akshay’ Fifth and Sixth Ship of ASW SWC (GRSE) Project
 On 13th March 2024, a significant milestone was achieved in the Indian Navy’s shipbuilding program with the
launch of ‘Agray’ and ‘Akshay’, the 5th and 6th ships of the 08 x ASW (Anti-Submarine Warfare) Shallow Water Craft
(SWC) Project.
 These ships are being built by M/S Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata for the Indian Navy.
 The launch ceremony was presided over by Air Chief Marshal V R Chaudhari, Chief of the Air Staff, Indian Air Force.

Indian Army contingent departing for the joint military exercise “Exercise Lamitiye – 2024”
 The Tenth edition of the Joint Military Exercise “LAMITIYE-2024” between the Indian Army and Seychelles Defence
Forces (SDF).
 The exercise will be conducted in Seychelles from 18-27 March 2024.
 ‘LAMITIYE’ means ‘Friendship‘ in the Creole language.
 The exercise has been conducted in Seychelles since 2001.

NASA to Carry ‘Message in Bottle’ To Europa, One of Jupiter’s Moon in October

 In October 2024, NASA will embark on its Europa Clipper mission, aiming to explore Jupiter’s moon Europa in
search of signs of life.
About NASA:
Founder: Dwight D. Eisenhower
Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
Founded: 29 July 1958, United States

Indian Army Inducts First Apache 451 Aviation Squadron

 The Indian Army has raised its first squadron, the 451 Aviation Squadron, to operate the newly acquired AH-64E
Apache attack helicopters.
 The squadron was formally established on March 15 at Jodhpur.

Guyana Inks Deal to Purchase Indian-Made Dornier Aircraft

 The Indian defence industry is expanding its reach to the Caribbean region.
 The Guyana Defence Force (GDF) plans to purchase two aircraft from India with a loan of $23.27 million from the
Export-Import Bank of India.
 Guyana will acquire two Dornier 228 aircraft made by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) of India.
About Guyana:
Capital: Georgetown
President: Irfaan Ali
Prime minister: Mark Phillips
Indian Army’s New Tech Unit STEAG
 The Indian Army has set up a specialized technology unit called Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation
Group (STEAG) to research and evaluate next-generation communication technologies.

Tech Mahindra, IBM collaborate to drive digital adoption

 Tech Mahindra and IBM have joined forces to inaugurate a Synergy Lounge in Singapore, aimed at accelerating
digital adoption for enterprises across the Asia-Pacific region.

Army deploys advanced anti-drone defense systems along China border

 In response to escalating tensions along the northern borders with China, the Indian Army has initiated significant
enhancements to its air defence capabilities.
 Central to this strategic maneuver is the deployment of cutting-edge Integrated Drone Detection and Interdiction
Systems (IDD&IS), developed domestically in collaboration between the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Electronics.

ISRO’s START 2024 Program to Inspire Youth in Space Science

 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will conduct the Space Science and Technology Awareness Training
(START) 2024 program during April and May.
 ISRO is inviting Expression of Interest (EOI) from educational institutes, universities, and colleges within India
offering UG and PG courses in physical sciences and technology to host START-2024.

Indian Army Kicks Off Annual Army Commanders’ Conference in Hybrid Format
 The Indian Army is organizing the first Army Commanders’ Conference for the year 2024 in a hybrid mode.
 The virtual segment of the conference is scheduled for 28th March 2024, followed by the physical mode in New
Delhi on 1st and 2nd April 2024.
 The conference will be chaired by the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS), General Manoj Pande.

APPOINTMENT & RESIGNATIONS

IPS Officer Daljit Singh Chaudhary Named NSG’s New Director General
 Daljit Singh Chaudhary, a 1990 batch IPS officer, has been appointed as the Director General (DG) of the National
Security Guard (NSG).

Anurag Agarwal Appointed as Head of ParliamAent Security

 IPS officer Anurag Agarwal has been appointed as the new head of Parliament security.

RBI Appoints S. Ravindran as Part-Time Chairman of Tamilnad Mercantile Bank

 Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has taken a significant step by appointing S. Ravindran as the part-time chairman of
Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd. (TMB).

About Tamilnad Mercantile Bank:

Ltd Headquarters: Thoothukudi;
Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd CEO: K V Rama Moorthy (Sept 2017–);
Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Ltd Founded: 11 May 1921.

BPCL Teams Up With Neeraj Chopra as Brand Ambassador for ‘Speed’ Petrol
 Bharat Petroleum Corporation (BPCL), one of India’s leading petroleum companies, has recently announced its
partnership with Olympic and World Javelin Champion Neeraj Chopra.
 G. Krishnakumar is the Chairman and Managing Director of BPCL.
Sub-Inspector Suman Kumari Makes History as BSF’s First Female Sniper
 Sub-Inspector Suman Kumari has etched her name in history as the first woman sniper of the Border Security Force
(BSF).
About BSF:
Founder: Khusro Faramurz Rustamji;
Founded: 1 December 1965;
Director General: Nitin Agarwal, IPS.

Brajesh Mehrotra appointed as new chief secretary of Bihar

 The Bihar government appointed senior IAS officer Brajesh Mehrotra as the new chief secretary of the state.
About Bihar:
Capital: Patna;
Chief Minister: Nitish Kumar;
Bird: House sparrow;
Flower: Marigold;
Formation: 22 March 1912

Future Generali India Life Insurance Appoints Alok Rungta as Managing director & CEO
Source: Zee Business
 Alok Rungta has been appointed as the Managing Director and CEO of Future Generali India Life Insurance, effective
April 1st, pending regulatory approvals.

Slice Appoints Nayanthara as Brand Ambassador

Source: Amazon
 Slice, the popular mango-flavored drink, has recently announced the appointment of acclaimed actress Nayanthara
as its latest brand ambassador.
 It is originally introduced by PepsiCo in 1984.
 In India, PepsiCo reintroduced Slice in 2008 as a mango-flavored fruit drink under the brand Tropicana Slice.

SAP Appoints New President and MD for Indian Subcontinent

 German technology giant SAP has made a significant leadership change in the Indian Subcontinent region. Manish
Prasad has been appointed as the new president and managing director for the region, succeeding Kulmeet Bawa.

Rajendra Prasad Goyal Assumes Additional Charge as Chairman & MD Of NHPC Limited
Source: The Print
 Rajendra Prasad Goyal, Director (Finance) of NHPC, has recently assumed the additional charge of Chairman and
Managing Director of NHPC Limited.

Nayab Singh Saini to Succeed Manohar Lal Khattar as Haryana’s New Chief Minister
 Nayab Singh Saini, an influential leader from the Other Backward Classes (OBC) community, has been appointed as
the new Chief Minister of Haryana.
About Haryana:
Capital: Chandigarh
Governor: Bandaru Dattatreya

Kishor Makwana Assumes Charge as Chairman of National Commission for Scheduled Castes
 Kishor Makwana has assumed the charge of Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) in
New Delhi. Shri Luv Kush Kumar has also taken charge as a Member of the NCSC.
 National Commission for Scheduled Castes was founded in 19 February 2004.
AS Rajeev Appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission
 AS Rajeev was appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission by the Honourable
President of India on 9th February 2024.
 He took the oath as Vigilance Commissioner on 11th March 2024 before the Central Vigilance Commissioner, who
was authorized by the President of India under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
 Central Vigilance Commission was founded in February 1964;
 Central Vigilance Commission HQ is located in New Delhi.

ISMA Appoints Deepak Ballani as New Director General

 The Indian Sugar & Bio-energy Manufacturers Association (ISMA) has appointed Mr. Deepak Ballani as its new
Director General.
 ISMA HQ located in New Delhi.
 ISMA Established in 1932.

Nayab Singh Saini is the 11th Chief Minister of Haryana

 The Current Cabinet Ministers of Haryana 2024 consist of 10 Cabinet Ministers and 4 Ministers of State including the
Chief Ministers of Haryana.
 Nayab Singh Saini is the 11th and current Chief Minister of Haryana and this is his first term as the Chief Minister of
Haryana.

Sanjay Kumar Singh Nominated As Next Director (Projects) Of NHPC Limited

 Sanjay Kumar Singh is poised to step into the role of Director (Projects) at NHPC Limited, following a commendation
by the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) panel on March 12.
 Currently serving as Chief General Manager at SJVN Limited, Singh emerges as the recommended candidate from a
pool of twelve contenders.
 Founded in 1975 under the Companies Act, 1956, NHPC has expanded its portfolio to include solar and wind energy
ventures.

Gyanesh Kumar, Sukhbir Sandhu Appointed as New Election Commissioners

 The Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led three-member committee has appointed Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh
Sandhu as new Election Commissioners.
About Election Commissioner of India:
HQ: Delhi
Established: 25th January 1950.

B Sairam is the New Chairman and Managing Director of NCL

 B Sairam has been appointed as the new Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Northern Coalfields Limited
(NCL). NCL is the Singrauli-based flagship Subsidiary of Coal India Limited.

Navneet Sehgal Appointed as Prasar Bharati Board Chairman

 Retired bureaucrat Navneet Kumar Sehgal has been appointed as the new chairperson of the Prasar Bharati Board.
 The position had been vacant for four years after A Surya Prakash retired in February 2020 after turning 70, the
upper age limit for the post.
 Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar on Friday chaired a meeting to appoint the chairman of the nation’s public
broadcaster.

Poonawalla Fincorp Appoints Arvind Kapil as MD & CEO

 Poonawalla Fincorp, a notable NBFC, has chosen Arvind Kapil, a seasoned retail banking expert from HDFC Bank, as
its new Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer.
 Kapil will commence his five-year term on June 24, 2024, succeeding Abhay Bhutada, who opted for early
retirement.

CP Radhakrishnan Gets Additional Charge as Telangana Governor

 Jharkhand Governor CP Radhakrishnan has been given the additional responsibility as the in-charge governor of
Telangana.
 This comes after Tamilisai Soundararajan resigned from her constitutional post as the Telangana Governor.

Kiren Rijiju gets additional charge after Pashupati Kumar Paras resigns from Union cabinet
 Pashupati Kumar Paras, former Union minister and president of the Rashtriya Lok Janshakti Party (RLJP), resigned
from the Union Cabinet following his party’s exclusion from the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) seat-sharing
arrangement in Bihar for the upcoming Lok Sabha elections.
 In response, President Droupadi Murmu accepted his resignation and appointed Kiren Rijiju with an additional
charge as the Minister of Food Processing Industries.

Arvind Kapil Takes Over as Poonawalla Fincorp CEO

 Poonawalla Fincorp, a leading non-banking financial company (NBFC), has appointed Arvind Kapil as its new
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer.
 He will be replacing the current MD and CEO Abhay Bhutada, who is taking early retirement.

Ashwani Kumar Elected as New President of FIEO

 Ashwani Kumar, Partner at Victor Forgings in Jalandhar, has been unanimously elected as the new President of the
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO).

Naveen Jindal Takes Over as President of Indian Steel Association

 Naveen Jindal, Chairman of Jindal Steel and Power, has been unanimously elected as the President of the Indian Steel
Association (ISA) by the apex committee, which is the governing body of the ISA.
 Sajjan Jindal is the Chairman and Managing Director of JSW Steel.
 TV Narendran is the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Tata Steel.

M V Rao Elected as New Chairman of Indian Banks Association

 The Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) has elected M V Rao, Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of the
Central Bank of India, as its new Chairman.
 Dinesh Kumar Khara is the Chairman of State Bank of India (SBI)
 S L Jain is the Managing Director and Chief Executive of Indian Bank
 N Kamakodi is the Managing Director and Chief Executive of City Union Bank
 Madhav Nair, the Country Head and Chief Executive of the Bank of Bahrain and Kuwait, was unanimously elected as
the Honorary Secretary of the IBA.

Govind Dholakia Appointed New Chairman of Surat Diamond Bourse

 The Surat Diamond Bourse (SDB) has appointed Govind Dholakia, a Rajya Sabha MP from Gujarat, as its new
chairman.

Supreme Court Appoints Committee for Great Indian Bustard Preservation

 Great Indian Bustard (GIB) population from extinction caused by collisions with high-powered power cables in
Gujarat and Rajasthan.
 A bench led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, JB Pardiwala, and Manoj Misra has appointed an expert
committee.
 The committee is expected to propose additional measures and submit a report to the Supreme Court by July 31st.
Hansha Mishra appointed as Director of UPSC
 Hansha Mishra (IA&AS) has been selected for the appointment as Director in the Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC).
 According to an order issued from the Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT), she has been selected for the
appointment under the Central Staffing Scheme for a period of five years from the date of taking over charge of the
post or until further orders, whichever event takes place earlier.

Neeraj Chopra Named Eveready’s New Brand Ambassador

 Eveready Industries India (EIIL), a leading battery brand, has announced a partnership with Neeraj Chopra, the
reigning Olympic gold medalist and World no. 1 in men’s javelin throw, as its new brand ambassador.
Indian Diplomat Abhay Thakur Appointed as Next Envoy to Myanmar
 Senior Indian diplomat Abhay Thakur has been appointed as the country’s next ambassador or top envoy to
Myanmar.
 This was announced by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) on March 26.

New Chiefs Appointed to Lead NIA, NDRF, and BPR&D

 The Indian government has announced crucial appointments in key security agencies, including the National
Investigation Agency (NIA), National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and the Bureau of Police Research and
Development (BPR&D).

New Members Sworn In at Lokpal of India

 Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has taken oath as the new judicial member of the Lokpal (ombudsman) on 27 March 2024.
 The oath was administered by Justice AM Khanwilkar, the Chairman of the Lokpal of India.
 The institution of the Ombudsman was first established in Sweden in 1809.
 The concept gained popularity globally after being adopted by New Zealand and Norway in 1962.

Nidhu Saxena Appointed as MD & CEO of Bank of Maharashtra

 The central government has approved the appointment of Nidhu Saxena as the Managing Director & Chief Executive
Officer (MD & CEO) of the Bank of Maharashtra.
 This appointment will be effective for a period of three years starting from 27 March 2024.

Indian Expert Kamal Kishore to Lead UN’s Disaster Risk Reduction Efforts
 The United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres has appointed Kamal Kishore of India as the new Assistant
Secretary-General and Special Representative of the Secretary-General for Disaster Risk Reduction.
 He will lead the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
 Mr. Kishore will succeed Mami Mizutori of Japan, whom the Secretary-General thanked for her service.

Justice Mohammad Yousuf Wani Sworn in as Additional Judge of J&K and Ladakh High Court
 Justice Mohammad Yousuf Wani was administered the oath of office as an Additional Judge of the High Court of
Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
 The oath was administered by Chief Justice N. Kotiswar Singh in Srinagar.

Pavan Davuluri Appointed to Lead Microsoft’s Windows and Surface Teams

 Microsoft has named Pavan Davuluri as the new head of its combined Windows and Surface teams.
 This move comes after the previous leader, Panos Panay, left for Amazon last year.

Kotak Bank appoints Jaideep Hansraj as President of ‘One Kotak

 Kotak Mahindra Bank has appointed Jaideep Hansraj, the current MD and CEO of Kotak Securities, as the Group
President – One Kotak, effective from April 1, 2024.
About Kotak Mahindra Bank:
CEO: Ashok Vaswani (1 Jan 2024)
Founder: Uday Kotak
Founded: 21 November 1985
Headquarters: Mumbai

Senior Bureaucrat Rahul Singh Appointed New CBSE Chief

 Senior bureaucrat Rahul Singh has been appointed as the chairperson of the Central Board of Secondary Education
(CBSE), as part of a senior-level bureaucratic reshuffle effected by the Centre.
 Rahul Singh will succeed Nidhi Chhibber, who has been named Advisor in the Niti Aayog.

Telangana Governor Tamilisai Soundararajan Resigns

 Tamilisai Soundararajan, the Governor of Telangana, has resigned from her position on Monday, March 18, 2024.
According to sources, she is likely to contest the Lok Sabha elections from the state of Tamil Nadu.
 She has also resigned from her role as the Lieutenant Governor of the UT of Puducherry. She has sent her resignation
letter to the President of India, Droupadi Murmu.

Appointment of Mariam Mammen Mathew as DNPA Chairperson

 Mariam Mammen Mathew, CEO of Manorama Online, has been appointed as the Chairperson of the Digital News
Publishers Association (DNPA) for a two-year term starting April 1, 2024.
 She succeeds Tanmay Maheshwari, Managing Director of Amar Ujala.

AWARDS & RECOGNITION

Dr Pradeep Mahajan receives Maharashtra Bhushan Award 2024
 Dr. Pradeep Mahajan, the Founder and Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of StemRx Hospital and Research
Centre, along with StemRx Bioscience Solutions, has been awarded the prestigious Maharashtra Bhushan Award
2024.

Ministry of I&B Honored For Outstanding Accounting Performance

 On the occasion of the 48th Foundation Day of the Indian Civil Accounts Service, the Ministry of Information &
Broadcasting has been honored with the Award for Best Performance in Accounts during the Financial Year 2023-
24.
 The prestigious award ceremony took place at Vigyan Bhawan, Delhi, on March 1, 2024.

Yatin Bhaskar Duggal Wins First Prize in National Youth Parliament Festival 2024
 Yatin Bhaskar Duggal, a promising talent from Haryana, has emerged triumphant as the winner of the esteemed
National Youth Parliament Festival, 2024.
 First Prize: Yatin Bhaskar Duggal (Haryana)
 Second Prize: Vaishna Pitchai (Tamil Nadu)
 Third Prize: Kanishka Sharma (Rajasthan)

Zoya Akhtar, Asma Khan Honored at ‘India-UK Achievers’ Awards in London

 Renowned filmmaker Zoya Akhtar and British Indian chef Asma Khan were honored at the annual ‘India-UK
Achievers’ awards in London.
 The event celebrated Akhtar’s acclaimed work in cinema and Khan’s contributions to culinary arts.
 It was launched to celebrate bilateral educational relations between India and the UK.
India Receives ‘Measles and Rubella Champion’ Award
Source: News on AIR
 India has been awarded the prestigious ‘Measles and Rubella Champion’ Award by The Measles and Rubella
Partnership. This award recognizes India’s exemplary efforts in preventing measles and rubella diseases.
 The award was presented on March 6th, 2024, at the American Red Cross Headquarters in Washington D.C., USA.
 Ambassador Sripriya Ranganathan, Deputy Chief of Mission, Embassy of India, received the award on behalf of the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.

PM Narendra Modi Presents National Creators Award

Source: Mint
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi presented the first-ever National Creators Award at the Bharat Mandapam in New
Delhi.

Sudha Murty Nominated to Rajya Sabha

Source: The economic times
 President Droupadi Murmu nominated author and philanthropist Sudha Murty to the Rajya Sabha.
 Sudha Murty is an Indian educator, author, philanthropist, and the former chairperson of the Infosys Foundation.
 She is also a member of the public healthcare initiatives of the Gates Foundation.
 Murty has established the Murty Classical Library of India at Harvard University.

Miss World 2024, Krystyna Pyszkova from Czech Republic Wins the Crown
Source: India.com
 Krystyna Pyszkova from the Czech Republic was crowned as the new Miss World 2024 at a grand event in Mumbai,
India. The previous Miss World 2022, Karolina Bielawska from Poland, crowned her successor in a magnificent
ceremony.
 First Runner-Up: Yasmina Zaytoun of Lebanon
 Miss World Asia and Oceania: Yasmin Azaytoun of Lebanon
 Miss World Europe: Krystyna Pyszková of Czech Republic
 Miss World America and Caribbean: Aché Abrahams of Trinidad and Tobago
 Miss World Africa: Lesego Chombo of Botswana
 The Miss World Humanitarian Award was given to Nita Ambani for her work at the Reliance Foundation, a non-
profit organization.

Oscars 2024 Announced:

Source: The Economic Times
 The Oscars 2024 ceremony took place at the Dolby Theater in Los Angeles, with Jimmy Kimmel hosting for the
fourth time. The film “Oppenheimer” emerged as the big winner, earning 13 nominations and taking home
prestigious awards, including Best Director, Best Actor, and Best Picture.
 Cillian Murphy’s performance in the title role of “Oppenheimer” earned him the Best Actor award.

Delhi Airport Clinches ACI-ASQ’s Best Airport in Asia-Pacific Title for 6th Straight Year
 Delhi Airport has once again asserted its dominance in the aviation sector by securing the prestigious title of ‘Best
Airport’ in the Asia-Pacific region for the sixth consecutive year.
 The Airport Service Quality (ASQ) Best Airport award for 2023 was conferred upon Delhi Airport in the category of
over 40 Million Passengers Per Annum (MPPA) by the Airports Council International (ACI).

Smt. Droupadi Murmu Conferred Honorary Doctorate by University of Mauritius

 On March 12, 2024, President Droupadi Murmu was conferred with the honorary degree of Doctor of Civil Law by
the University of Mauritius.
 This prestigious honor demonstrates the depth of bilateral ties between India and Mauritius.
 In 1901, Mahatma Gandhi inspired Indian indentured workers in Mauritius to educate themselves, leading to their
political and social empowerment.

Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2022-23 Announced

 The President of India conferred the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards for the years 2022 and 2023 to 94 eminent
artists (including two joint awards) in the field of performing arts.
 In addition to the awards, the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna) was bestowed upon
7 eminent artists (one joint fellowship) during the ceremony.
 The Sangeet Natak Akademi is the apex body in the field of performing arts in India. Established in 1953.

Chameli Devi Jain Award 2024 for Outstanding Woman Media Person
 The prestigious Chameli Devi Jain Award 2024 for Outstanding Woman Media Person of the Year has been given
jointly to two remarkable journalists:
 Greeshma Kuthar – Independent Journalist
 Ritika Chopra – Indian Express
 The Chameli Devi Jain Award for Outstanding Woman Media Person of the Year was set up by The Media Foundation
in 1980.
 The first award was given in 1982, and since then, it has been presented annually.

Ratan Tata Awarded PV Narasimha Rao Memorial Award for Philanthropy Work
 Ratan Tata, former chairman of Tata Sons, has been bestowed with the prestigious PV Narasimha Rao Memorial
Award.
 He received the award for his outstanding philanthropic contributions.
 The award ceremony took place in Mumbai on March 15, 2024.
 On February 9, 2024, the nation’s highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, was posthumously conferred upon
former Prime Minister PV Narasimha Rao.

Indian Youth Uday Bhatia and Manasi Gupta Receive ‘Diana Memorial Award’
 Uday Bhatia and Manasi Gupta from India were honored with the prestigious ‘Diana Memorial Award’ on 14 March
2024.
 This award is given every two years in memory of Princess Diana.

Raksha Mantri Trophy for Best AFMS Hospitals 2022

 The Raksha Mantri Trophy for the Best and Second Best Command Hospitals of the Armed Forces Medical Services
(AFMS) for the year 2022 was awarded on 19th March 2024 in New Delhi.
 Command Hospital (Southern Command), Pune was judged as the Best Command Hospital, while the Command
Hospital (Central Command), Lucknow was the Second Best for 2022.
 The trophies were presented by Lt Gen Daljit Singh, Director General Armed Forces.
 The Raksha Mantri Trophy was instituted in 1989 to recognize excellence in healthcare services by Armed Forces
Hospitals.

Prabha Varma Bags 33rd Saraswati Samman for ‘Roudra Sathwikam

 Noted Malayalam poet and author Prabha Varma has been selected for the prestigious 33rd Saraswati Samman for
the year 2023.
 He won the award for his novel in verse ‘Roudra Sathwikam’ published in 2022.
 The Saraswati Samman, instituted by the K.K. Birla Foundation in 1991, is one of the highest literary honors in India.
 Last year’s 32nd awardee was Tamil writer Sivasankari for her novel ‘Surya Vamsam’.
T M Krishna Awarded Prestigious Sangita Kalanidhi
 Thodur Madabusi Krishna, a renowned Carnatic musician, has been chosen as the Sangita Kalanidhi awardee for
2024.
 This award, considered the Oscar equivalent for Carnatic music, is given away by the Music Academy in Chennai.
 The awardees will receive their honors at the Music Academy’s annual events in December 2024 and January 2025.

PM Modi Honoured with Bhutan’s ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’ Award

 Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has created history by becoming the first non-Bhutanese to receive the ‘Order
of the Druk Gyalpo’, Bhutan’s highest civilian award.
 He received this prestigious honour from Bhutan’s King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck during his two-day state
visit to Thimphu.
 The ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’ is a lifetime achievement award and is considered the pinnacle of Bhutan’s honour
system.
 PM Modi is the first non-Bhutanese to receive the ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’, he is also the first foreign head of
government to get this prestigious award.

Bina Agarwal and James Boyce awarded the first “Global Inequality Research Award”
 Bina Agarwal and James Boyce have been awarded the first “Global Inequality Research Award” for their significant
contributions to understanding global inequalities, specifically in the areas of social and environmental inequalities.

Aviation Week Laureates Award Was Given To ISRO for Chandrayaan-3

 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has been honored with the prestigious Aviation Week Laureates
Award for its remarkable achievements in the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

Indian Scientist Prof Jayant Murthy Honoured with Asteroid Name

 Professor Jayant Murthy, an esteemed astrophysicist, has been recognized for his remarkable contributions to the
field by having an asteroid named after him – (215884) Jayantmurthy.
 Originally discovered in 2005 by MW Buie at the Kitt Peak National Observatory in Arizona, USA, and previously
known as 2005 EX296, this asteroid orbits the Sun between Mars and Jupiter every 3.3 years.
About International Astronomical Union:
President: Debra Elmegreen;
Headquarters: Paris, France;
Founded: 28 July 1919;
General Secretary: Piero Benvenuti.

HSL bags 3 Governance Now 10th PSU Awards

 Hindustan Shipyard Ltd (HSL) has once again been recognised for its excellence in the maritime industry.
 The shipyard has received three awards at the Governance Now 10th PSU Awards ceremony held in New Delhi on
Friday.
 Two awards were presented to HSL in the categories of "CMD Leadership" and "Innovation in Refining Technology."
HSL's Director (Shipbuilding) Cmde Kunjumon E Mathew received the awards on behalf of HSL. These awards
reflect HSL's commitment to embracing technological innovation.

Michel Talagrand Awarded the 2024 Abel Prize

 The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters has awarded the 2024 Abel Prize to Michel Talagrand of the French
National Center for Scientific Research (CNRS), Paris, France.
 Talagrand received the prestigious prize “for his groundbreaking contributions to probability theory and functional
analysis, with outstanding applications in mathematical physics and statistics.”
 The common theme in Michel Talagrand’s pioneering discoveries is working with and understanding the random
processes
Allu Arjun’s Wax Statue at Madame Tussauds Dubai
 Allu Arjun, the popular Telugu actor has been honoured with a wax statue at the renowned Madame Tussauds
Museum in Dubai.

Vijay Jain Bags Times Power Icon 2024 Award

 At a glittering event recently held in Noida, organized by The Times Group, Vijay Jain, the Managing Director of Star
Estate, was awarded the prestigious Times Power Icon 2024 Award.
 Founded in 2012, Star Estate is a fastest-growing Real Estate enterprise

BOOKS & AUTHORS

Odisha CM Naveen Patnaik releases book titled ‘FIH Odisha Hockey Men’s World Cup 2023’
 Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik released the coffee table book titled ‘FIH Odisha Hockey Men’s World Cup
2023’.
 The book, a publication by Sportstar, the esteemed sports magazine of The Hindu Group, encapsulates the essence
and excitement of the 15th FIH Odisha Hockey Men’s World Cup held in 2023.
 FIH Hockey Men’s World Cup 2023 was a monumental event for Odisha, hosting the prestigious tournament at two
prime locations: Bhubaneswar and Rourkela.

A book on Indian modern art “The Gems of Indian Art” launched

Source: The Economic Times
 The launch of “The Gems of Indian Art”, a comprehensive documentation of Harish Khullar’s extensive collection of
20th-century Indian modern and contemporary art.
 This near-300-page book was unveiled by Ministers Shri Nitin Gadkari, Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, and Shri S.P.S.
Baghel, marking a pivotal moment in India’s art scene.

Parshottam Rupala release Book on Sagar Parikrama at Rajkot, Gujarat

 Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, Shri Parshottam Rupala, release a book and video
titled “Sagar Parikrama” at the Engineering Association in Rajkot, Gujarat.
 The event graced by the presence of the Union Minister for States of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, Dr.
Sanjeev Kumar Balyan, Dr. L. Murugan, and other dignitaries.

‘Phool Bahadur’ – The First Magahi Novel in English

 Dibrugarh University International Literary Festival held on 19-21 March 2024.
 The English translation of the first Magahi novel, ‘Phool Bahadur’. The translation was done by Abhay K, a renowned
writer from Nalanda, Bihar.
 ‘Phool Bahadur’ was originally written by Jayanath Pati and published in 1928.
 Published by Penguin Random House India, ‘Phool Bahadur’ is a delightful novel set in the town of Biharsharif in
Nalanda district of Bihar.

A book titled “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond” by S. Raman
 S. Raman’s autobiography, “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond,” offers a first-person account of his
remarkable journey from a clerk at SBI to becoming the Chairman and Managing Director of Canara Bank and a full-
time Member of SEBI.
 The book explores the intricate dance between personal integrity, professional challenges, and systemic issues in the
financial world.
 IMPORTANT DAYs
World Wildlife Day 2024, Date, Theme, History and Significance
 World Wildlife Day, celebrated annually on March 3, serves as a poignant reminder of the urgent need to protect and
preserve the world’s fauna and flora.
 The inception of World Wildlife Day traces back to a proposal made by Thailand to the United Nations General
Assembly in 2013.
 The theme for World Wildlife Day 2024, “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife
Conservation,”

World Hearing Day 2024: 3rd March

 Observed every year on March 3, World Hearing Day 2024 fall on a Sunday.
 The theme for this year, as designated by the World Health Organization (WHO), is “Changing mindsets: Let’s make
ear and hearing care a reality for all.”
 Initiated by WHO in 2007, World Hearing Day was formerly known as International Ear Care Day. The renaming to
World Hearing Day occurred post-2016.

National Safety Day 2024:4 March

 National Safety Day is celebrated each year on March 4. In India, this date also signals the commencement of
National Safety Week, extending the focus on safety measures beyond just a day.
 The theme for National Safety Day 2024, “Safety for a Sustainable Future”.
 National Safety Day in India traces back to the establishment of the National Safety Council (NSC) on March 4, 1966.

Geological Survey of India Celebrates 174th Foundation Day

 The Geological Survey of India (GSI) commemorated its 174th Foundation Day on March 4th, 2024.
 In Kolkata, the festivities kicked off with an inaugural ceremony led by Shri Janardan Prasad, Director General of GSI.
About Geological Survey of India:
Founded: 4 March 1851
Founder: Thomas Oldham
Headquarters: Kolkata, West Bengal, India
Formed: 4 March 1851; 172 years ago
Government agency executive: Shri Janardan Prasad
Parent Government agency: Ministry of Mines

Dissociative Identity Disorder Awareness Day 2024: March 5th

 Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly known as Multiple Personality Disorder is characterized by two or
more distinct personality states. This disorder is observed annually on March 5th.
 Dissociative Identity Disorder Awareness Day, first observed in 2012 by the Ivory Garden.

International Women’s Day 2024: 8 March

 International Women’s Day (IWD) is an annual global event celebrated on March 8th each year. It serves as a focal
point for recognizing the social, economic, cultural, and political achievements of women worldwide.
 International Women’s Day 2024 falls on March 8th, marking a global celebration of women’s achievements and a
call to action for gender equality.
 The United Nations has chosen the theme ‘Invest in Women: Accelerate Progress’ for International Women’s Day
2024.

Poshan Pakhwada 2024 from 9th to 23rd March

Source: News on AIR
 The Ministry of Women and Child Development will organize Poshan Pakhwada nationwide from March 9 to March
23, 2024. This 15-day celebration aims to spread awareness about nutrition, dietary practices, and women’s health.
 During the last Poshan Pakhwada in March-April 2023, over 4 crore sensitization activities were conducted. These
focused on promoting Shree Anna (fortified rice).
 POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched in 2018.

Launch of Digital Exhibition “Subhash Abhinandan” on 134th Foundation Day of National Archives of India
Source: PIB
 On the occasion of the 134th Foundation Day of the National Archives of India, Minister of State for Parliamentary
Affairs and Culture, Arjun Ram Meghwal, will inaugurate a digital exhibition titled “Subhash Abhinandan” in New
Delhi on March 11th.
 Organized by the National Archives of India, the exhibition commemorates the life of Subhash Chandra Bose,
featuring 16 sections covering key aspects from his birth to the present day.

International Day of Women Judges 2024

Source: The Quint
 The International Day of Women Judges is celebrated every year on 10 March. This year, it falls on Sunday. The day
is dedicated to recognizing the contributions of women judges worldwide and promoting women’s participation in
decision-making for achieving equality and democracy.
 The theme for this year’s celebration is “Women in Justice, women for justice,” promoting the full and equal
participation of women at all levels of the judiciary.

CISF Raising Day 2024

Source: The Quint
 CISF Raising Day is celebrated every year on March 10. This day marks the establishment of the Central Industrial
Security Force (CISF) in 1969.
 CISF is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Its Headquarter is located in New Delhi, India.

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Celebrates 19th Foundation Day
 On March 12, 2024, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) celebrated its 19th Foundation
Day at the Jacaranda Hall, Indian Habitat Centre, New Delhi.
About National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
Founded: 2007;
Headquarters: New Delhi, India;
Chairman: Priyank Kanoongo.

NIELIT & ITI Egypt Sign MoU to Improve Skills, Jobs, & Global Collaboration
 On the 12th of March, 2024, an MoU was signed between the National Institute of Electronics and Information
Technology (NIELIT) of India and the Information Technology Institute (ITI) of Egypt.
 This significant event took place in Cairo, Egypt.

International Day of Action for Rivers 2024:14th March

 The International Day of Action for Rivers is observed annually on March 14th. This year, on Thursday, March 14,
2024, the theme is “Water for All,” emphasizing the fundamental right of every individual to access clean water.
 The International Day of Action for Rivers has its roots in the First International Meeting of People Impacted by
Dams, held in Curitiba, Brazil, in March 1997.

World Kidney Day 2024: 14th March

 It is observed on the second Thursday of March every year. This year World Kidney Day is observed on 14th March.
 The 2024 World Kidney Day campaign theme is Kidney Health for All – Advancing Equitable Access to Care and
Optimal Medication Practice.
 World Kidney Day was first observed in 2006 with the slogan ‘Are Your Kidneys ok?’.

Celebrating Pi Day 2024: 14 March

 Pi (π) is an important symbol in Mathematics, Statistics, and Physics. It represents the ratio of the circumference of a
circle to its diameter. This ratio is a constant value of approximately 3.14.
 The constant value of Pi was first calculated by the renowned Mathematician Archimedes of Syracuse. In 1737,
Leonhard Euler introduced the symbol of Pi.
 The first Pi Day was celebrated in 1988 by American physicist Larry Shaw.

Ordnance Factories Day 2024 in India

 Ordnance Factories Day is observed every year on March 18th.
 In 1775, the Board of Ordnance was formed in Fort William, Kolkata. Later, in 1787, a gunpowder factory was
established in Ishapore.

French Language Day 2024: 20 March

 On March 20th, the United Nations celebrates French Language Day. This is one of the six official languages
celebrated by the UN each year.
 French Language Day commemorates March 20, 1970.
 The UN introduced Language Days in 2010 to celebrate its 6 official languages
 The OIF’s theme is “The Francophonie of the Future”

International Day of Happiness 2024:

 The International Day of Happiness is celebrated every year on March 20th.
 On July 12, 2012, the United Nations General Assembly passed a resolution, this resolution declared March 20th as
the International Day of Happiness.

World Sparrow Day 2024:

 World Sparrow Day is an annual observance held every year on March 20th to raise global awareness about the
household sparrow and its alarming population decline.
 The idea of World Sparrow Day was conceived by the Nature Forever Society (NFS) of India and the Eco-Sys Action
Foundation based in France.
 The first World Sparrow Day was marked in 2010.

World Forestry Day 2024:

 Every year, we celebrate World Forestry Day on March 21st. In 2024, it falls on a Thursday.
 The United Nations General Assembly established World Forestry Day in 2012.
 The theme for 2024 is “Forests and Innovation: New Solutions for a Better World.”

International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination 2024

 On 21st March every year, we observe the International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination.
 The theme for 2024 is “A Decade of Recognition, Justice, and Development: Implementation of the International
Decade for People of African Descent”.
 This year’s theme is linked to the International Decade for People of African Descent, which spans from 2015 to
2024.

World Water Day 2024:

 Every year on March 22, we celebrate World Water Day to recognize the importance of freshwater.
 This year, the occasion holds extra significance amid the ongoing Bengaluru water crisis.
 The idea of World Water Day was first proposed in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development in Rio de Janeiro. Later that year, the United Nations General Assembly declared March 22 as World
Water Day.
 The theme for World Water Day 2024 is ‘Water for Peace’.

Bihar Diwas 2024:

 Bihar Diwas 2024, celebrated on 22nd March 2024 in India, holds immense historical and cultural significance for
the state of Bihar. It commemorates the founding of Bihar as a separate state in 1912, marking its separation from
the Bengal Presidency.
 The inception of Bihar Diwas dates back to 2010, when the state government initiated the celebrations to honor
Bihar’s 112th statehood anniversary.
About Bihar:
Established on March 22, 1912
Governor: Rajendra Arlekar
Chief Minister: Nitish Kumar
Deputy Chief Ministers: Samrat Chaudhary, Vijay Kumar Sinha

Shaheed Diwas 2024:

 Shaheed Diwas 2024 falls on March 23, 2024, commemorating the day when three iconic freedom fighters – Bhagat
Singh, Shivaram Rajguru, and Sukhdev Thapar – were martyred by the British Government.
 Their most notable action was the bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi on April 8, 1929,
accompanied by the iconic slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” (Long Live the Revolution).

World Meteorological Day 2024

 Every year on March 23rd, the World Meteorological Day is celebrated. This day marks the establishment of the
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) in 1950.
 The WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
 The theme for World Meteorological Day 2024 is “At the Frontline of Climate Action“.
 In 1950, on March 23rd, the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) was founded.

World Tuberculosis Day 2024

 World Tuberculosis (TB) Day is an annual observation celebrated on March 24th.
 Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs.
 It is caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
 The theme for World TB Day 2024 is “Yes! We can end TB“.
 The first World TB Day was officially observed in 1983, and it has become an annual event since then.

International Day for the Right to the Truth 2024

 Every year, on March 24, the International Day for the Right to the Truth concerning Gross Human Rights Violations
and for the Dignity of Victims is observed.
 The date of March 24 was chosen to commemorate Monsignor Óscar Arnulfo Romero, who was assassinated on
March 24, 1980.

The Chipko Movement: A 50-Year Legacy of Environmental Protection

 The Chipko Movement originated in the Uttarakhand region of the Himalayas in early 1973. The name “Chipko”
means “to hug” in Hindi.
 While the modern Chipko Movement began in 1973, its roots can be traced back to the 18th century, when the
Bishnoi community in Rajasthan stood up to protect trees.
 In 1973, environmentalist and social activist Chandi Prasad Bhatt led the first Chipko protest near the village of
Mandal.

World Theatre Day 2024:

 World Theatre Day is a special day celebrated every year on March 27 to honour the art of theatre.
 The International Theatre Institute (ITI) started World Theatre Day in 1961.
Good Friday 2024: 29th March
 On March 29th, 2024, Christians around the globe will solemnly observe Good Friday 2024, a pivotal day in the
Christian calendar. Good Friday, also known as Holy Friday or Great Friday, commemorates the crucifixion of Jesus
Christ.

World Piano Day 2024: 28th March

 World Piano Day, celebrated annually on the 88th day of the year.
 World Piano Day traces its roots back to 2015 when it was officially established to celebrate the piano’s
magnificence.

International Day of Zero Waste 2024

 On December 14, 2022, the United Nations General Assembly passed a resolution to have an International Day of
Zero Waste celebrated every year on March 30th.

RBI Celebrates 90 Years of Service on Foundation Day 2024

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the nation’s central banking institution, is entering its 90th year on April 1st, 2024.
 The RBI was established on April 1, 1934, following recommendations from the Royal Commission on Indian
Currency and Finance to maintain the country’s monetary stability.
 Its operations commenced on April 1, 1935, with Sir Osborne Smith as the first Governor.
 The Central Office of the RBI was initially in Kolkata but was shifted to Mumbai in 1937.

Utkal Diwas 2024, A Celebration of Odisha’s Rich Culture and Heritage

 Utkal Diwas, also known as Odisha Day or Utkala Dibasa, is a significant annual celebration held in the Indian state of
Odisha. It is observed on 1st April every year to commemorate the formation of the state of Odisha on April 1, 1936.
About Odisha:
Capital: Bhubaneswar;
Chief Minister: Naveen Patnaik

Arnab Banerjee Elected as New ATMA Chairman

 Arnab Banerjee, the Managing Director & CEO of CEAT Ltd., has been elected as the new Chairman of the Automotive
Tyre Manufacturers’ Association (ATMA).
 Arnab Banerjee joined CEAT in 2005 as the Vice President-Sales and Marketing.

OBITUARIES
Brian Mulroney, Former Canadian Prime Minister, Passes Away at 84
 Brian Mulroney, the former Canadian Prime Minister known for his transformative policies and complex legacy, has
died at the age of 84.

Veteran Congress Leader and Former UP Governor Aziz Qureshi Passes Away
 Aziz Qureshi, a seasoned Congress leader and former Governor of Uttar Pradesh, who passed away at the age of 83.

Padma Shri Awardee Arun Sharma passaed away at 90.

 Padmashree Dr. Arun Kumar Sharma, who passed away at the age of 90 at his residence in Raipur, Chhattisgarh.

Renowned Artisan and Padma Awardee Kapildev Prasad Passes Away

 Kapildev Prasad, a renowned artisan and Padma awardee for his contributions to the handloom industry and the
revival of Bababuti sarees, passed away in Basavanbigha village, Bihar Sharif.
Admiral Laxminarayan Ramdas, Former Indian Navy Chief, Dies At 90
 Admiral Laxminarayan Ramdas, the former Chief of Naval Staff of the Indian Navy (1990-1993), breathed his last
peacefully at the age of 90 on March 15.
 Became the 13th Chief of Naval Staff (CNS) on November 30, 1990.

Prominent Tribal Leader Lama Lobzang Passes Away at 94

 The former member of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and prominent
Buddhist Monk of Ladakh, popularly known as Lama Lobzang, passed away this morning at his residence in New
Delhi.
 When the National Commission became constitutional through an amendment of Article 338 of the constitution, he
was appointed anew as its member for two terms from 1995 to 1998 and 1998 to 2001.

Popular Tamil Actor Lakshmi Narayanan Seshu Passes Away at 60

 Lakshmi Narayanan Seshu, a beloved figure in the Tamil entertainment industry passed away at 60. He is known as
Lollu Sabha Seshu.

Legendary Actor Louis Gossett Jr. Passes Away at 87

 Louis Gossett Jr., the first Black man to win the Academy Award for Best Supporting Actor, has sadly passed away at
the age of 87.
 His most notable achievement was winning the Best Supporting Actor Oscar in 1983 for his role as a Marine drill
instructor in the film “An Officer and a Gentleman.

RANKS & REPORTS

Happiest Country in the World 2024
Source: Deccan Herald
 The World Happiness Report, produced by the United Nations, assesses global happiness levels using data primarily
gathered from the Gallup World Poll.
 In 2024, Finland retains its title as the world’s happiest country with a score of 7.804.
 India ranks 126th out of 146 countries in the World Happiness Report, with a score of 4.036.
 Surpassing India in happiness are neighboring countries such as Nepal, Bangladesh, and China.

India Tops Global Arms Imports, SIPRI Report

 According to the latest data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India was the
world’s top arms importer for the period 2019-2023. India’s arms imports witnessed a 4.7% increase compared to
the 2014-2018 period.
 The United States, the world’s largest arms supplier, saw a 17% growth in arms exports between 2014-2018 and
2019-2023.

India’s Human Development Index ranking 134 out of 193 countries: A Detailed Analysis
 India’s position in the United Nations Human Development Index (HDI) for 2022 improved slightly, ranking 134 out
of 193 countries with an HDI value of 0.644.
 India has shown progress in reducing gender inequality, ranking 108 out of 166 countries in the Gender Inequality
Index (GII) 2022.

Tamil Nadu Tops Illegal Trade in Shark Body Parts

 Tamil Nadu dominates the illegal trade in shark body parts, comprising nearly 65% of seizures between January
2010 and December 2022, as per a recent analysis by TRAFFIC and WWF-India.
 TRAFFIC and WWF-India conducted a comprehensive study titled ‘Netted in illegal wildlife trade: Sharks of India’.
 WWF India was established in 1969.

V-Dem Institute’s Democracy Report 2024: India’s Decline into Electoral Autocracy
 The V-Dem Institute’s Democracy Report 2024 highlights India’s continued descent into electoral autocracy since its
downgrade in 2018.
 V-Dem Established in 2014 by Staffan Lindberg, a Swedish political scientist.

India’s ranking on the DHL Connectedness Index

 India climbs to 62nd in 2023 from 67th in 2022 on the DHL Connectedness Index.
 Singapore, the Netherlands, and Ireland lead the global rankings as the most connected countries, reflecting their
robust participation in international trade and commerce.

Begusarai Tops Global List of Most Polluted Cities

 The city of Begusarai in Bihar is the most polluted city in the world, according to the World Air Quality Report 2023
released by IQAir, a Switzerland-based organization.
 The report states that out of the top 100 most polluted places globally, 83 are from India. After Begusarai, Guwahati
is the second most polluted, followed by Delhi at third place and Mullanpur (Punjab) at fourth.
 At a national level, India ranks third behind Bangladesh and Pakistan among the five most polluted countries in the
list of 134 nations.
 India’s PM2.5 level of 54.4 µg/m3 is more than 10 times higher than the WHO annual guideline, the report
highlighted. PM2.5 refers to hazardous fine particulate matter.

WMO Report Highlights Record-breaking Climate Change Indicators in 2023

 The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released its State of the Global Climate 2023 report, revealing
unprecedented levels of climate change indicators.
 The global average near-surface temperature in 2023 was 1.45 ± 0.12°C above the 1850-1900 average, making it the
warmest year on record.

Global Trade Overview 2023 and 2024 Outlook: UNCTAD Report

 The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has released its Global Trade Update report,
outlining the state of global trade in 2023 and projections for 2024.
 Merchandise exports in India grew by 5% in the last quarter of 2023 compared to the same period in the previous
year.

Hurun Research Institute Report: Mumbai Surpasses Beijing as Asia’s Billionaire Capital
 Mumbai has overtaken Beijing as Asia’s billionaire capital, according to the latest report from the Shanghai-based
Hurun Research Institute.
 Mumbai boasts 92 billionaires, securing its position as Asia’s third billionaire capital, trailing behind New York (119)
and London (97).

SPORTS
Pro Kabaddi League Season 10, Puneri Paltan Clinches Maiden Title
 The 10th edition of the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) concluded with Puneri Paltan emerging as champions for the first
time, after a closely contested final against Haryana Steelers.

Tiger Woods Honored with USGA’s Prestigious Bob Jones Award

Source: Hindustan Times
 Legendary golfer Tiger Woods has been selected to receive the Bob Jones Award, the highest honour bestowed by
the United States Golf Association (USGA).
 The Bob Jones Award will be formally presented to Woods on June 12th during the week of the U.S. Open held at
Pinehurst Resort’s famed Course No. 2 in North Carolina.

Asian River Rafting Champions Take on the Sutlej River

Source: Tribune India
 Scenic town of Shimla has become the centre stage for the first-ever Asian River Rafting Championships, officially
opened on March 4th, 2024, by Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu.
About Himachal Pradesh:
Capitals: Shimla (summer), Dharamshala (winter);
Chief Minister: Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu;
Districts: 12;
High Court: Himachal Pradesh High Court.

Khelo India Medal Winners Now Eligible for Government Jobs

 Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), in collaboration with the Department of Sports, has introduced
significant reforms in the recruitment, promotion, and incentive mechanisms for athletes.
 The updated guidelines, effective from a memorandum issued on March 4, are designed to offer enhanced incentives,
transparency, and inclusivity.

Sansad Khel Mahakumbh 3.0 Inaugurated in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh

 Union Minister Anurag Singh Thakur grandly inaugurated the Sansad Khel Mahakumbh 3.0 at the Luhnu Cricket
Ground in Bilaspur on March 5, 2024. Chief Guests Indian cricket team captain Rohit Sharma and Indian cricket team
coach Rahul Dravid graced the occasion as chief guests.
 It was launched in 2018.
 In the first Sansad Khel Mahakumbh 1.0, more than 1400 teams and 42,700+ youth showcased their talents in
various sports. Over Rs 20 lakh in prize money was awarded.

England’s James Anderson Joins Elite 700 Test Wickets Club

Source: Hindustan Times
 England’s James Anderson claimed his 700th Test wicket by dismissing India’s Kuldeep Yadav in Dharamsala on the
morning of Day 3 of the final Test against India.
 This historic milestone makes Anderson the third bowler to reach the 700-wicket mark in Test cricket.
 Muthiah Muralidaran has 800 wickets.
 Shane Warne has 708 wickets.

Minister Hardeep S Puri Inaugurates 5th ONGC Para Games

Source: News on AIR
 Hardeep Singh Puri, Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing & Urban Affairs, inaugurated the 5th ONGC
Para Games, praising para-athletes for their unwavering determination.
 The event took place at Thyagaraj Stadium, New Delhi with the presence of Shri Pankaj Jain, Secretary.
 India demonstrated para-sports excellence with 19 medals at Tokyo Paralympics 2020.

Satwik-Chirag Win BWF French Open Men’s Doubles Title

Source: The Economic times
 Indian badminton stars Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty have won the BWF French Open men’s doubles
title, defeating Chinese Taipei’s Lee Jhe-Huei and Yang Po-Hsuan in the final.
 Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty won the French Open men’s doubles title
 This is their second French Open title after previously winning in 2022.
Yashasvi Jaiswal, Sutherland Named ICC Players of the Month for February 2024
 Yashasvi Jaiswal, the young Indian opener, has been named the ICC Men’s Player of the Month for February 2024.
 Annabel Sutherland of Australia claimed the ICC Women’s Player of the Month award for February 2024.

Max Verstappen Triumphs at Saudi Arabian Grand Prix

 Red Bull’s Max Verstappen clinched victory at the Saudi Arabian Grand Prix, starting from pole position.
 It marked Red Bull’s second consecutive one-two finish in the 2024 Formula One season.

Mumbai Wins Ranji Trophy 2024 after Beating Vidarbha

 Mumbai won the Ranji Trophy 2024 after beating Vidarbha by 169 runs at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai. This
was their 42nd Ranji Trophy title.

Arjuna Awardee Sheetal Devi Named ECI’s National PwD Icon at Inclusive Cricket Match
 The Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) organized an exhibition
cricket match to promote voter education and inclusivity.
 Ms. Sheetal Devi, a renowned Para-archer and Arjuna Awardee, was announced as the National Icon in the PwD
category.
 The event was graced by the presence of Chief Election Commissioner Shri Rajiv Kumar and Election Commissioners
Shri Gyanesh Kumar and Shri Sukhbir Singh Sandhu.

RCB conquer Delhi Capitals by 8 wickets, clinch maiden title

 Royal Challengers Bangalore defeated Delhi Capitals by eight wickets in the Women's Premier League 2024 final, on
Sunday in New Delhi.
 Deepti Sharma won the MVP award for her outstanding all-round performance, scoring 295 runs at an average of
98.33 and taking 10 wickets at an average of 21.70.

Carlos Alcaraz Tops Daniil Medvedev to Repeat As Indian Wells Champion

 In the final of the Indian Wells ATP tournament on Sunday, Carlos Alcaraz of Spain defeated Daniil Medvedev of
Russia in straight sets, with a score of 7-6 (7/5), 6-1.
 Alcaraz became the first player to win back-to-back Indian Wells titles since Novak Djokovic did it from 2014 to
2016.

Sharath Kamal to be Indian Flagbearer at Paris Olympics 2024

 Ace table tennis player Sharath Kamal will be the Indian team’s flagbearer for the upcoming Paris 2024 Olympics.
The announcement was made by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
 Ranked World No. 88, Kamal has won the national table tennis championship a record 10 times. He has also claimed
13 medals at the Commonwealth Games (CWG), including seven golds.
 Joining Kamal in the spotlight is MC Mary Kom, who has been named as the chef de mission for the Paris 2024
Summer Games.
 Mary Kom is the first female boxer in history to have captured six world titles.

Nayana James Shines at Indian Open Jumps Competition

 In the women’s long jump event at the 3rd Indian Open Jumps Competition, Nayana James from Kerala recorded a
personal best mark of 6.67m to secure the gold medal.
 Her jump stood out as no athlete threatened the 2024 Paris Olympics qualification mark on the day.
 Nayana’s distance was 16cms off Anju Bobby George’s National record and 19cms behind the Paris mark.

Sathiyan Gnanasekaran Creates History at WTT Feeder Beirut 2024

 Indian star paddler G. Sathiyan has achieved a remarkable feat by becoming the first-ever Indian to win a men’s
singles trophy at a WTT Feeder Series event. This historic moment took place in Beirut, Lebanon.
 This men’s singles title at the WTT Feeder event in Beirut marks Sathiyan’s first success at a WTT event.
 It is also his first singles title at an international ranking event since the ITTF Czech International Open 2021.

Virat Kohli Becomes First Indian to Score 12,000 T20 Runs

 Former Indian cricket captain Virat Kohli has etched his name in history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to
score 12,000 runs in the T20 format.
 Virat Kohli also holds the record for the highest runs in IPL of all time. He has scored 7,284 runs in 239 matches and
230 innings at an average of 37.24 and a strike rate of 130.02.

Ferrari’s Carlos Sainz clinched victory at the Australian Grand Prix

 Australian Grand Prix, Carlos Sainz of Ferrari emerged victorious, marking a remarkable comeback just two weeks
after undergoing appendicitis surgery.
 The race was filled with drama, including the first retirement in two years for Red Bull’s reigning world champion
Max Verstappen.

Haryana Crowned Champion at Boxing Sub Junior National Championship

 Haryana clinched the team titles in both the Boy’s and Girls categories with an impressive combined haul of 19
medals at the Boxing Sub Junior National Championship.

PR Sreejesh and Camila Caram Appointed Co-Chairs of FIH Athletes Committee

 The International Hockey Federation (FIH) has appointed former Indian men’s hockey team captain and goalkeeper
PR Sreejesh and Chile’s Camila Caram as co-chairs of the FIH Athletes Committee.
 The Fédération Internationale de Hockey sur Gazon (FIH) was founded by Paul Léautey on January 7, 1924.
 In 1982, the International Federation of Women’s Hockey Associations merged with the FIH.
 The FIH has 140 member countries.
 The headquarters of FIH is located in Lausanne, Switzerland.
 The current FIH President is Tayyab Ikram.

Rohan Bopanna and Matt Ebden Triumph at Miami Open

 The top-seeded duo of Rohan Bopanna from India and Matthew Ebden from Australia won the Men’s Doubles Title
at the Miami Open, a prestigious ATP Masters tennis tournament.
 This Miami Open triumph marks the second title of the season for Bopanna and Ebden. Earlier this year, they won
the Australian Open in Melbourne.

Sharfuddoula Becomes Bangladesh’s First ICC Elite Umpire

 Sharfuddoula has created history by becoming the first Bangladeshi umpire to be appointed to the ICC Elite Panel of
Umpires.
 The 47-year-old Sharfuddoula has been a part of the International Panel since 2006, with his first international
appointment coming in 2010 when he officiated an ODI between Bangladesh and Sri Lanka in Mirpur.

MS Dhoni Scripts History in T20 Cricket

 Dhoni achieved a remarkable feat, becoming the first wicketkeeper to record 300 dismissals in T20 cricket.
 SUMMITS AND MOUS
NTPC Green Energy Ltd Partners with MAHAGENCO to Develop Renewable Energy Parks in Maharashtra
 NTPC Green Energy Limited (NGEL) partners with Maharashtra State Power Generation Company Limited
(MAHAGENCO) to develop Renewable Energy Parks in Maharashtra.

MoSPI Signs MoU with ISRO on Urban Frame Survey using Bhuvan
 National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has
partnered with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) under the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) to
digitize the Urban Frame Survey (UFS) using advanced Geo ICT tools and techniques through the Bhuvan Platform.

India and Nicaragua Sign Historic MoU on Pharmacopoeia Recognition

 India and Nicaragua have forged a significant partnership in the field of pharmaceutical regulation through the
signing of a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on Pharmacopoeia recognition.
 India’s Ambassador to Nicaragua, Dr. Sumit Seth, and Nicaragua’s Minister of Health, Dr. Martha Reyes, signed the
MoU on Pharmacopoeia cooperation between the two nations.
 Global Recognition is established in 1955.
About Nicaragua:
Capital: Managua;
Currency: Nicaraguan Córdoba;
President: Daniel Ortega;
Continent: North America.

Google Partners with Shakti to Combat Online Misinformation and Deepfakes

 Google has taken a significant step to bolster the fight against online misinformation by announcing its support for
Shakti, a consortium of news publishers and fact-checkers.
 Shakti emerges as a pan-India network, orchestrated by DataLEADS in collaboration with the Misinformation
Combat Alliance.
About Google:
Founders: Larry Page, Sergey Brin
Parent organization: Alphabet Inc.
Founded: 4 September 1998, Menlo Park, California, United States
Google CEO: Sundar Pichai (2 Oct 2015–)

BIMSTEC Faculties Exchange Programme in Dhaka Aims to Boost Mutual Cooperation

 In Dhaka, a pioneering five-day exchange program unites diplomats and faculties from seven BIMSTEC countries to
enhance cooperation among Foreign Service academies.
 BIMSTEC comprises seven South Asian and Southeast Asian nations – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal,
Sri Lanka, and Thailand
 BIMSTEC was founded in 1997.

REC Limited Partners With UNISED to Support Education of Children in Siddharthnagar, Uttar Pradesh
 REC Limited, a prominent Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Power and a leading
Non-Banking Finance Company, has recently joined hands with the Unit of Science and Educational Development
(UNISED) to bolster educational initiatives in Siddharthnagar district, Uttar Pradesh.
 Formalization of collaboration through MoA between REC Foundation and UNISED occurred in a ceremony in New
Delhi.
Karnataka and World Economic Forum Join Forces to Establish AI Centre
 Karnataka state government, in a strategic alliance with the World Economic Forum (WEF), has announced the
establishment of a cutting-edge AI centre in the state.

The First Bharat Steam Boiler Expo 2024 in Guwahati

 The inaugural Bharat Steam Boiler Expo 2024 has officially commenced in Guwahati, Assam.
 Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), Oil India Ltd (OIL), Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL), Brahmaputra Cracker and Polymer
Ltd (BCPL), Assam Petro Chemicals Ltd, and NTPC Ltd.
About World Economic Forum:
Chairperson: Børge Brende;
Founder: Klaus Schwab;
Headquarters: Cologny, Switzerland;
President: Børge Brende;
Founded: 24 January 1971.

NPCI and IISc Partner for Deep Tech Research

 National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has forged a strategic partnership with the Indian Institute of
Science (IISc), Bangalore, to conduct joint research on Blockchain and Artificial Intelligence (AI) technology.
 This collaboration aims to establish the “NPCI–IISc Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Deep Tech Research &
Development”.
 Established in 1909, IISc is India’s premier institute for advanced scientific and technological research.

NIGEL Inks PPA with GUVNL for 600 MW Solar Project

 NLCIL has emerged victorious in securing a 600 MW Solar Power Project tender within the GSECL Khavda Solar
Park, initiated by GUVNL through a competitive bidding process.
 The wholly owned subsidiary of NLCIL, NIGEL, has entered into a Power Purchase Agreement (PPA) with Gujarat
Urja Vikas Nigam Limited (GUVNL) for the planned 600 MW Solar Power Project at Khavda Solar Park in Bhuj
District, Gujarat.

Tripartite MoU signed among USOF, Prasar Bharati and ONDC

 The Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) under the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has entered a
tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Prasar Bharati, under the Ministry of Information &
Broadcasting, and the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).

Google Collaborates with ECI for Voter Information and Combats Misinformation Ahead of Elections
 Google has partnered with the Election Commission of India (ECI) to provide authoritative information on voting
processes for the upcoming general elections.
About Google:
Founders: Larry Page, Sergey Brin;
Parent organization: Alphabet Inc.;
CEO: Sundar Pichai (2 Oct 2015–);
Founded: 4 September 1998, Menlo Park, California, United States.

Max India’s subsidiary partners with IIT Delhi for senior citizen care
 Max India Ltd announced a strategic partnership between its subsidiary, Antara Assisted Care Services Limited, and
the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi).

Startup Mahakumbh 2024:

 Startup Mahakumbh 2024, a groundbreaking initiative led by industry giants such as ASSOCHAM, Nasscom,
Bootstrap Incubation & Advisory Foundation.
 This three-day event, supported by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
 Central Theme: ‘Bharat Innovates’

Tamil Nadu Signs MoU to Implement PM SHRI School Scheme

 The Tamil Nadu government has agreed to implement the PM SHRI Schools (PM Schools for Rising India) scheme by
signing a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
 Launched by the Government of India after approval from the Union Cabinet on September 7, 2022.

SANY India signs MoU with J&K Bank to give finance solution to their customers
 SANY India, a top construction equipment manufacturer, has forged a strategic partnership with J&K Bank to fuel
growth and development opportunities in the region.

YES Bank Partners with Indian Olympic Association for Paris Olympics
 YES Bank has forged a strategic partnership with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to become the Official
Banking Partner for Team India at the Paris Olympics 2024.
 YES Bank introduces the ‘Milkar Jitayengey’ campaign.

India and Brazil Conduct Inaugural ‘2+2’ Dialogue

 India and Brazil recently held their inaugural ‘2+2’ defence and foreign ministerial dialogue.
 The dialogue took place in Delhi, underscoring India’s commitment to fostering closer ties with Brazil.
About Brazil:
President: Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva
Capital: Brasília

CBI, Europol sign Working Arrangement for cooperative relations

 The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and Europol have entered into a significant Working Arrangement aimed
at combating crime and fostering cooperation between the two agencies.
 Europol Executive Director Catherine De Bolle and CBI Director Praveen Sood signed the Working Arrangement in a
virtual event held on March 21.
 The signing ceremony took place simultaneously in New Delhi and the Hague.

AUKUS Partnership to Build Australia’s SSN-AUKUS Submarines

 The United States, the United Kingdom, and Australia have forged the AUKUS partnership to bolster trilateral
security and construct nuclear-powered submarines for the Royal Australian Navy.
 Collaboration between Australia’s ASC and UK-based BAE Systems to construct submarines.

HPCL and Tata Join Forces to Build Nationwide EV Charging Network

 Tata Passenger Electric Mobility (TPEM), a unit of Tata Motors, has announced a strategic partnership with
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) to establish a nationwide network of 5,000 public charging stations
for electric vehicles (EVs) by the end of 2024.
 TPEM and HPCL have signed an MoU to formalize their collaboration in building the charging infrastructure.

Ambani and Adani Join Forces: Reliance Buys Stake in Adani’s Power Project
 In a remarkable move, two of India’s richest businessmen, Mukesh Ambani and Gautam Adani, have joined forces for
the first time.
 Reliance Industries, owned by Ambani, has acquired a 26% stake in a power project owned by Adani’s company in
Madhya Pradesh.
IIM Mumbai and Starburst Collaborate to Boost ASD Startups
 India’s Aerospace, New Space, and Defence (ASD) industry, the Indian Institute of Management Mumbai (IIM
Mumbai) partners with Starburst, a prominent European Aerospace, New Space, and Defence (ASD) accelerator.
 Prof. Manoj K Tiwari, Director of IIM Mumbai, and Mr. Francois Chopard of Starburst solidified the partnership
through a signing ceremony at IIM Mumbai on March 26, 2024.

SIA-India and ABRASAT Sign MoU to Boost Space Sector Advancements

 The SatCom Industry Association of India (SIA-India) and ABRASAT, the Brazilian Satellite Communications
Association, have joined forces to propel advancements in the space sector.
 This strategic partnership aims to foster collaboration and drive innovative ventures and technological cooperation
between India and Brazil.

BANKING & ECONOMY

Amit Shah Launches National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC)
 Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation
Limited (NUCFDC) in New Delhi.

Policybazaar Insurance Brokers, PB Fintech’s subsidiary, Receives IRDAI Approval for Composite Insurance
Broker License
 PB Fintech’s subsidiary, Policybazaar Insurance Brokers, has secured approval from the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to transition from a direct insurance broker to a composite insurance
broker.
 PB Fintech records first-ever net profit of Rs 37.2 crore in Q4, compared to a net loss of Rs 87 crore in Q3FY23.
 Revenue from operations surges 43% YoY to Rs 871 crore for the December quarter.

Flipkart Introduces Its Digital Payments Solution, Flipkart UPI

 Ecommerce giant Flipkart has made a significant move in the digital payments space by introducing its own UPI
services, Flipkart UPI, in partnership with Axis Bank.

Goa Airline Fly91 Receives Air Operator Certificate (AOC) From DGCA
 Fly91, a regional airline headquartered in Goa, has reached a significant milestone in its journey with the issuance of
its Air Operator Certificate (AOC) by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) under the Ministry of Civil
Aviation.

Airbus Collaborates with IIM Mumbai to Elevate Aviation Training Standards

 Airbus, a prominent name in the aviation industry, has announced a significant partnership with the esteemed
Indian Institute of Management Mumbai (IIM Mumbai) to deliver high-quality aviation training to professionals.
About Airbus:
Chief Executive Officer Guillaume Faury;
Headquarters: Leiden, Netherlands;
Founded: 10 July 2000.

Government Approves Dearness Allowance Hike and Other Benefits for Employees and Pensioners
 The Union Cabinet has sanctioned a 4% increase in Dearness Allowance (DA) and Dearness Relief (DR) for central
government employees and pensioners, effective from January 1.
RBI and Bank Indonesia Sign MoU to Promote Local Currency Use
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Bank Indonesia (BI) have inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) aimed
at bolstering the utilization of local currencies – the Indian Rupee (INR) and the Indonesian Rupiah (IDR) – for cross-
border transactions.
 MoU, signed in Mumbai by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das and Bank Indonesia Governor Perry Warjiyo.

India Becomes Second-Largest Mobile Phone Producer Globally

Source: The Economic times
 At the end of the decade from 2014 to 2024, India has emerged as the world’s second-largest producer of mobile
phones.
 According to the India Cellular and Electronics Association, the mobile phone sector has transformed from being 78
percent import-dependent in 2014 to achieving 97 per cent self-sufficiency by 2024. Only 3 per cent of the total
mobile phones sold in India are now imported.

Majuli Mask Making and Manuscript Painting Receive GI Tags

Source: The Indian Express
 Majuli, the largest river island in the world, has received two prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tags from the
Indian government for its traditional crafts – Majuli mask making and Majuli manuscript painting.
 Masks have been made in Majuli since the 16th century
 Sudha Murty is known for her novel – ‘Dollar Bahu’.
 Murty is married to the co-founder of Infosys, Narayan Murty.

RBI Directs Federal Bank and South Indian Bank to Stop Issuing New Co-Branded Credit Cards
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued notices to Federal Bank and South Indian Bank, directing them to halt
the issuance of new co-branded credit cards. The two banks informed the stock exchanges about this development.
 According to market sources, the common link between the two banks is likely to be OneCard, a co-branded metal
card issuer.

PM Modi Lays Foundation Stone of three Semiconductor Facilities worth 1.25 Lakh Crore
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated three semiconductor projects virtually, with a combined investment of
approximately Rs 1.25 Lakh Crore.
 The three facilities include a semiconductor fabrication unit in Dholera, Gujarat, an Outsourced Semiconductor
Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility in Morigaon, Assam, and another OSAT facility in Sanand, Gujarat.

Reliance to buy 13% of Paramount’s stake in Viacom18 for Rs 4,286 crore

 Reliance Industries, India’s largest private company, has announced its acquisition of Paramount Global’s entire
13.01% stake in Viacom 18 Media for Rs 4,286 crore ($517 million).

Adani Green Energy operationalises 126 MW wind power plant in Gujarat

 Adani Green Energy announced the operationalisation of an additional 126 MW capacity in its 300 MW wind power
project in Gujarat. This comes after the earlier operationalisation of 174 MW.
 Food regulator FSSAI certifies nearly 100 jails as ‘Eat Right Campus’
 The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has certified nearly 100 jails across the nation as ‘Eat
Right Campus,’ a part of its broader Eat Right India movement.

India’s forex reserves jump to over two-year high of $636.1 bn

 India’s foreign exchange reserves witnessed a significant surge, marking a third consecutive increase in the week
ended March 8, 2024. This surge propelled the reserves to reach a two-year high of $636.1 billion.
Tata Sons Announces Sale of 0.6% Stake in TCS for over ₹9,300 Crore
 Tata Sons, aiming to alleviate its debt, plans to sell 0.65% equity in Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) for ₹9,362.3
crore. This move precedes a potential IPO, with related stocks rallying.
About TCS:
Founders: Faquir Chand Kohli, J. R. D. Tata
CEO: K. Krithivasan (1 Jun 2023–)
Headquarters: Mumbai
Founded: 1 April 1968

Axis Bank commits ₹100 crore to Enhance Cancer Care through National Cancer Grid
 In an effort to advance cancer care in India, Axis Bank has pledged a significant contribution of ₹100 crore to the
National Cancer Grid (NCG), in collaboration with Tata Memorial Centre.
About Axis Bank:
CEO: Amitabh Chaudhry (1 Jan 2019)
Founded: 1993, Ahmedabad
Headquarters: Mumbai

Mineral Production in the Country Grows by 5.9% during January 2024

 In January 2024, the index of mineral production in the mining and quarrying sector stood at 144.1, indicating a
5.9% increase compared to January 2023.

GRID-INDIA Achieves Miniratna Status

 Grid Controller of India Limited (GRID-INDIA) has achieved a significant milestone by being conferred with the
status of Miniratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE).
 This recognition was bestowed upon by the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
 Established in 2009, GRID-INDIA holds the crucial mandate of overseeing the seamless and uninterrupted operation
of the Indian Power System.

All-India Consumer Price Index Numbers for Agricultural and Rural Labourers – February, 2024
 In February 2024, the All-India Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Agricultural Laborers and Rural Laborers remained
stable, with figures of 1258 and 1269, respectively, based on the 1986-87=100 index.
 The CPI-AL and RL for March 2024 will be disclosed on April 19, 2024.

Iconic Indian Brand Amul Launches Fresh Milk in the US

 Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), the organization behind the iconic Amul brand, is set to
launch its fresh milk products in the United States for the first time.
 Within a week, GCMMF will introduce four variants of fresh milk in the US market.
About Amul:
Founders: Verghese Kurien, Tribhuvandas Kishibhai Patel;
Headquarters: Anand;
Founded: 14 December 1946;
Chairman: Shamalbhai B Patel.

Federal Bank Launches ‘Flash Pay’ in Partnership with NPCI for Contactless Payments
 National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Federal Bank introduces ‘Flash Pay,‘ a revolutionary RuPay smart
key chain facilitating contactless NCMC (National Common Mobility Card) payments.

Modi Government Allocates Rs 6212.03 Crore for Strengthening Regional Rural Banks
 The Modi government has allocated Rs 6212.03 crore to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as part of the recapitalization
scheme on March 6. RRBs, established in 1975 and owned by the Indian government.
India’s GDP to grow by 6.8% in FY25: S&P Global
 S&P Global released its Economic Outlook Asia-Pacific Q2 2024 report, offering insights into the region’s economic
landscape.
 S&P Global raises India’s GDP growth forecast for FY25 to 6.8%, a 40 basis points increase, contrasting with the
government and central bank’s projection of 7%.
 Forecasts a slowdown in China’s GDP growth to 4.6% in FY25 from 5.2% in FY24.

S&P Global Ratings Forecasts 75 Basis Points Repo Rate Cut in India in 2024-25
 S&P Global Ratings anticipates a repo rate reduction of up to 75 basis points by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
during the fiscal year 2024-25.
 The agency also foresees similar rate adjustments in Indonesia, New Zealand, and the Philippines.

RBI Grants Payment Aggregator Licences to Innoviti Payments and Concerto Software
 Innoviti Payments and Concerto Software have received payment aggregator (PA) licences from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
 Innoviti operates the PA ‘Innoviti Link’, serving 2,500 online merchants, while Concerto Software’s gateway ‘Vegaah’
joins the league of authorized PA solutions.

LIC: World’s Strongest Insurance Brand

 In the latest Brand Finance Insurance 100, 2024 report, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) solidifies its
position as the strongest insurance brand worldwide, maintaining a stable brand value of Rs 816 billion.
 With a Brand Strength Index score of 88.3 and an AAA brand.
 LIC India demonstrates remarkable performance, recording the highest first-year premium collection of Rs 39,090
crore in the fiscal year 2022-23.

India’s Transition from Minimum Wage to Living Wage

 India aims to replace its minimum wage system with a living wage framework by 2025.
 Despite the passage of the Code on Wages in 2019, implementation remains pending.
 Stagnant national wage floors since 2017 have led to disparities in wage payments, particularly affecting the vast
unorganized sector where 90% of India’s workforce is employed.

IRDAI Identifies LIC, GIC Re, and New India Assurance as D-SIIs
 The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has designated three insurers as Domestic
Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) for the year 2023-24.
 These insurers, namely Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re),
and New India Assurance Co Ltd.

NTPC Secures USD 200 Million Loan from JBIC for Renewable Projects
 State-owned power giant NTPC has finalized an agreement with the Japan Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC)
to obtain foreign currency loans totaling USD 200 million (JPY 30 billion or approximately Rs 1,650 crore).

Competition Commission of India (CCI) Approves Acquisition of Lanco Amarkantak Power Limited by Adani
Power Limited
 On March 26, 2024, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) granted approval to Adani Power Limited, a
subsidiary of the Adani Group, for the complete acquisition of Lanco Amarkantak Power Limited.
 This acquisition involves the transfer of 100% equity share capital of Lanco Amarkantak Power Limited to Adani
Power Limited.
 Statutory body responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002, constituted in March 2009.

Indian-British Writer’s Book on AI Shortlisted for Women’s Prize

 The inaugural Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction has announced its shortlist of six books, including “Code Dependent:
Living in the Shadow of AI” by Indian-British journalist and commentator Madhumita Murgia.
 The book explores the impact of artificial intelligence on human society.
Kotak Mahindra Bank Acquires Sonata Finance
 In a strategic move, Kotak Mahindra Bank has successfully acquired Sonata Finance Private Limited (Sonata) for a
total consideration of approximately Rs. 537 crore.
 This acquisition grants Kotak Mahindra Bank full ownership of Sonata.
 Sonata Finance is a Non-Banking Finance Company – Micro Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI) registered with the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Income Tax Department Imposes ₹564.44 Crore Penalty on BoI

 Bank of India (BoI) has disclosed the receipt of an order from the Income Tax Department, Assessment Unit,
concerning the Assessment Year (AY) 2018-19.
 The order imposes a penalty of ₹564.44 crore on various disallowances made by the bank.

India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves Reach Record High

 India’s foreign exchange reserves have soared to a new peak, reaching $642.631 billion in the week ending March
22, marking the fifth consecutive week of increase, according to the latest data from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

HDFC Bank to Divest 100% Stake in Education Arm: Shares in Focus

 HDFC Bank, a leading private sector lender in India, is pursuing the sale of its entire stake in HDFC Education and
Development Services.
 By Toprankers

LE Upcoming Batches April 2024

Centre Start Date Batch Time Batch Name
1-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
1-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent)
15-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)
15-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers)
BHOPAL
15-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
15-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent)
22-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
22-Apr-24 12:15 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent)
8-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
8-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)
Madhya Pradesh

8-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers)
8-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2025 | 1 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent)
INDORE
15-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)

15-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2025 | 1 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Intelligent)
15-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)
15-Apr-24 4:00 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers)
6-Apr-24 3:30 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)

8-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2026 | Fighters (Freshers) Offline Batch 02

8-Apr-24 11:00 AM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
JABALPUR 8-Apr-24 3:30 PM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
8-Apr-24 3:30 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)

8-Apr-24 3:30 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers)
15-Apr-24 10:30 AM CLAT 2026 | Warriors (Droppers) Offline Batch
22-Apr-24 10:00 AM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
GWALIOR 22-Apr-24 3:00 PM CLAT 2025 | Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Fighters)
22-Apr-24 2:30 PM CLAT 2026 | 2 Year Long Freshers Batch (aka Achievers)
5-Apr-24 10:00 AM CLAT 2025 | Droppers Year Long Batch (aka Warriors)
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 LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25
CLAT MOCK
TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120

1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has response Sheet.
to be detached and taken by the candidates. 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question shading the circles. Indicate only the most
booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for appropriate answer by shading from the
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. options provided. The answer circle should be
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet for shaded completely without leaving any space.
a fresh booklet so obtained. 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. take necessary precautions before marking the
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled appropriate circle.
carefully. 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
sought on the Questions Paper to be produced at the time of Admission.
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. not fold.
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
shall result in the cancellation of his/her the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
examination. Candidate should sign in the space provided on
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, the OMR response Sheet.
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
prosecuted. booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law sign in the space/column provided in the
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 attendance sheet.
multiple Choice Questions. 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response Sheet
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple to the invigilator after the examination.
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks will 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
be deducted for every wrong answer or where OMR response Sheet other than the details
candidates have marked more than one required and in the spaces provided for
response.
.
 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage(Q.1-Q.6): This idea of evolution misses the essential role played by individual differences and
competition between members of a species in response to environmental pressures: Individual cheetahs who can
run faster catch more prey, live longer, and reproduce more successfully; slower cheetahs lose out, and die out—
leaving the species to drift toward becoming faster overall. Evolution is the result of random differences and
natural selection, not agency or choice.

But belief in the “agency” model of evolution is hard to beat back. While educating people about evolution can
indeed lead them from being uninformed to being well informed, in some stubborn instances it also moves them
into the confidently misinformed category. In 2014, Tony Yates and Edmund Marek published a study that tracked
the effect of high school biology classes on 536 Oklahoma high school students’ understanding of evolutionary
theory. The students were rigorously quizzed on their knowledge of evolution before taking introductory biology,
and then again just afterward. Not surprisingly, the students’ confidence in their knowledge of evolutionary theory
shot up after instruction, and they endorsed a greater number of accurate statements. So far, so good.

The trouble is that the number of misconceptions the group endorsed also shot up. For example, instruction
caused the percentage of students strongly agreeing with the true statement “Evolution cannot cause an
organism’s traits to change during its lifetime” to rise from 17 to 20 percent—but it also caused those strongly
disagreeing to rise from 16 to 19 percent. In response to the likewise true statement “Variation among individuals
is important for evolution to occur,” exposure to instruction produced an increase in strong agreement from 11 to
22 percent, but strong disagreement also rose from nine to 12 percent. Tellingly, the only response that uniformly
went down after instruction was “I don’t know.”

And it’s not just evolution that bedevils students. Again and again, research has found that conventional
educational practices largely fail to eradicate a number of our cradle-born misbeliefs. Education fails to correct
people who believe that vision is made possible only because the eye emits some energy or substance into the
environment. It fails to correct common intuitions about the trajectory of falling objects. And it fails to disabuse
students of the idea that light and heat act under the same laws as material substances. What education often does
appear to do, however, is imbue us with confidence with the errors we retain.

1. "This idea of evolution misses the essential role played 2. "So far, so good." We can infer from the statement
by individual differences and competition…." The given in the second paragraph that
beginning of the sentence reflects an idea before. (a) The author is convinced of the result of the
What could be the possible idea that the author experiment.
argues upon? (b) The author is dissatisfied with the result of the
i) The idea that evolution is driven by natural experiment.
selection and random differences. (c) The author was satisfied with the accurate
ii) Evolution is essentially a game of species-level responses to the experiment up to the present.
strategy. (d) The author knows that the greater accurate
iii) The idea that evolution is uniform, tactical and responses by the students were superficial.
well structured.
(a) Only iii (b) ii & iii 3. The word ‘bedevils' in the context of the passage
(c) i & ii (d) I, ii & iii means
(a) Confound (b) Harass maliciously
(c) Bewitch (d) Soothe

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4. "Tellingly, the only response that uniformly went (c) Education fails to correct people who believe that
down after instruction was "I don't know." What can vision is made possible only because the eye
be concluded from the given statement? emits some energy or substance into the
(a) The author was expecting the drop in the "I don't environment.
know" response. (d) Again and again, research has found that
(b) The only response that showed a significant drop conventional educational practices largely fail to
was "I don't know". eradicate a number of our cradle-born misbeliefs.
(c) The drop in the response "I don't know" was
insignificant. 6. What education often does appear to do, however,
(d) The author was not convinced with the' I don't is imbue us with confidence with the errors we
know' response. retain. The following sentence has been divided
into sections in the given options. Choose the
5. Which of the following statement of the passage can option that contains a grammatical error.
be taken as the conclusive argument from the (a) What education often does
author's standpoint? (b) appear to do, however, is
(a) But belief in the "agency" model of evolution is (c) imbue us with confidence
hard to beat back. (d) with the errors we retain.
(b) What education often does appear to do,
however, is imbue us with confidence in the
errors we retain.

Passage(Q.7-Q.12): Galo Rodriguez uses his machete to dig a hole near the small stream on his farm in the north-
east of Ecuador, on the cusp of the Amazon rainforest. As he digs there is nothing unusual to be seen - but when he
hits 32cm below the surface, the soil releases a distinct and pungent smell of gasoline. More than half of his 35
hectares of land is primary forest, while the rest is sugar cane or small trees. But where he digs is devoid of trees
or crops. It is covered only by grass. This area used to be smothered in oil after a nearby pipeline leaked. The oil
filled his stream, killed of all of his fish and contaminated the only fresh water source he used for his cattle. The oil
sat here for 10 years before the company responsible for the pipeline came to clean it up, in 2016. Rodrigo says he
watched as they collected some 12-15,000 cubic metres of oil off his property, but they didn't remediate the soil.
Today, in the stream just beside him, blue and green streaks of oil residue can still be seen in the water.

"For 10 or 11 years, this area didn't produce anything, so we abandoned it," says the farmer. "Now we plan to
plant guavas and Chaya." Rodriguez is one of dozens of farmers in the north of Ecuador learning how to use plants
to try to eliminate the oil contamination from his land. This process, known as bioremediation, uses living
organisms like plants, fungi and microbes to break down pollutants, including crude oil. There are several ways
this could happen, but most of the hard work to break down crude oil happens below ground, where
microorganisms are concentrated around the roots of plants and mineralise, or decompose, the crude
components, making it easier for plants to take up. Some contaminants can be taken in by the plant directly and
stored in its shoots and roots, or can be evaporated through the leaves. The course Rodriguez attends is called
"Guardians of the Soil", which is an introduction to permaculture-based bioremediation for low-income
communities, founded by local resident and independent researcher, Lexie Gropper.

Ecuador's northern Amazon rainforest has seen heavy oil contamination since rich oil fields were discovered here
in the 1960s. One source of contamination was by the oil company Texaco - later acquired by Chevron – which
dumped billions of gallons of oil waste in the Amazon rainforest, most of which went into unlined, open-air pits in
the ground. In 1993, thousands of community members filed a lawsuit against the company, saying it did not
perform any adequate clean up and its drilling installations continued to contaminate the area, and demanded
they pay for remediation. The oil company admitted to releasing the waste, but said it cleaned up its share of the
contamination and was legally cleared of all future liabilities. Most recently, a court in the Hague found in favour of
Chevron. This has turned into one of the most complex and longest-running environmental legal battles in history.
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7. According to the passage, what is bioremediation? 10. What did the community members claim while
(a) The process of revitalising the water bodies by filing a lawsuit against Chevron in 1993?
using chemicals and machines. (a) The company did not perform any effective
(b) The process of cleaning the ocean in order to clean up activity and continued to contaminate
get rid of plastics contaminating The river. the area by its drilling installations.
(c) The process of contaminating the soil using (b) The company displaced thousands of
living organisms like plants, fungi and community members from their ancestral lands
microbes. in order to carry out its operations.
(d) The process of using living organisms like (c) The company was depleting the water table of
plants, fungi and microbes in order to break the area, rapidly.
down pollutants, including crude oil, in the soil. (d) The company was releasing untreated
industrial waste into the local water bodies.
8. Who founded 'Guardians of the Soil'?
(a) Lexie Gropper, a local resident and an 11. Which of the following is/are TRUE according to
independent researcher. the passage?
(b) Galo Rodriguez, a farmer. i. Due to the pipeline leak, oil filled up the near-by
(c) Dian Fossey, a research student at Brown stream, thereby killing all of Rodriguez's fishes.
University ii. Ecuador's northern Amazon rainforest has seen
(d) Milton Friedman, a local resident and an heavy oil contamination since rich oil fields
independent researcher were discovered here in the 1960s..
iii. Rodriguez' farm did not produce anything for
9. Where are micro-organisms present in order to 25-26 years after the pipeline leakage.
facilitate the breaking down of crude oil? (a) Only i) (b) Only ii)
(a) Around the roots of the plants. (c) Both i) and ii) (d) Both ii) and iii)
(b) In the leaves of the plants.
(c) In the stem of the plants. 12. Which is similar in meaning to the word ‘pungent’,
(d) In the fruit of the plants. as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Putrid (b) Strong
(c) Mild (d) Stimulating

Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Step into the study in Della Burnside's five-storey home and a clementine corner sofa and
matching partition wall, a crimson rug and poof and an exuberant pink feather flapper girl lamp vie for your
attention. "The colours all over the house are shocking and bright," says Burnside. "They suit my personality
better than my old house, which was more restrained." That was a late Victorian property, also in Clerkenwell,
central London, and it was "dark, with lots of wood panelling and traditional furniture". Fog House, which she
bought in 2016, gets its name from the sandblasted wall of glass on the top floor of the converted warehouse. Once
occupied by Marc Quinn, the YBA who made a sculpture of his head out of his own frozen blood, the building has
itself been given fresh blood, courtesy of leading architect Sir David Adjaye, who added a glass-clad parapet and a
cantilevered glazed extension on the back.

"I tell visitors to look for the house that looks like a prison," says Burnside, an investor and solicitor. It prepares
them for the stark black exterior with frosted windows. Cross the threshold, though, and you might think you're in
a funky library-cum-lifestyle pod. Almost an entire wall of the double-height space is lined with bookshelves that
sit on a steel gantry, the titles ranging from travel to politics to old favourites from Burnside's childhood. "I like
the feel of having books in a house," says Burnside. "You can't beat it." Peer over the railings and you'll see a blob
of blue, curves of steely grey, rounds of black and flashes of red and white - it's Burnside's home gym, the
equipment bouncing off a mirrored wall.

"This space was previously used as a lounge," she says, "but I wanted a lounge in the light. I use the gym every day
- I'm very disciplined. I like constantly going up and down stairs, too," she says. "It keeps me fit." She's less keen on
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 the twisting plywood staircase that leads to the top floors. "Apparently it's a very fancy design," she laughs.
"Personally, I don't like it that much. I might quite like to paint it, I mentioned when I was looking round. There
was shock and horror at that." It's what you get if you buy through the design-led estate agency The Modern
House, as Burnside did.

Each gleaming floor is open plan, with colour functioning as a focal point or room divider - sometimes both. In the
showstopper top floor, glazed on three sides and home to the kitchen, dining, living area and roof terrace, purple is
the eye candy. It is a hand-me-down from Elton John, an old friend of the previous owner, Janet Street-Porter, who
commissioned David Adjaye to create Fog House.

13. Who was an old friend of Janet Street-Porter? 17. “…a crimson rug and poof and an exuberant pink
(a) Marc Quinn (b) Broke Stuart feather flapper girl lamp vie for your attention…”
(c) Elton John (d) Della Burnside Which of the following best expresses the author’s
emotional state?
14. Which of the following facts about Della Burnside's (a) The author is caught off guard by the splendour
old house is correct in the context of the passage? of the décor that is state-of- the- art.
(a) It had a big kitchen. (b) The author is bemused at the child-like
(b) It had a swimming pool. simplicity of the house owner.
(c) It was a late-Victorian property. (c) The author is shocked at the myriad colours
(d) It had bright colours. that are at display in the house and is unable to
utter a sentence.
15. Which one of the following is a design-led estate (d) The author is surprised at the bright colours of
agency as per the passage? the décor; as it each item was competing for
(a) The Old House. (b) The Modern House. and seeking attention of the onlooker.
(c) The Peculiarity. (d) The Design House.
18. Which of the following word can replace the word
16. How was the gym place previously used? "keen" as used in the context of the passage without
(a) As a dining room (b) As a studio changing the meaning or making the sentence
(c) As a storeroom (d) As a lounge grammatically incorrect?
(a) Embrace (b) Abate
(c) Eagerly (d) Avid

Passage (Q.19-Q.24): The discovery of natural selection, by Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace, must itself be
counted as an extraordinary philosophical advance. The principle remained unknown throughout the more than
2,000-year history of philosophy ranging from the Greeks to Hume, Kant and the Victorian era. The concept of
natural selection had remarkable power for explaining directional and adaptive changes. Its nature is simplicity
itself. It is not a force like the forces described in the laws of physics; its mechanism is simply the elimination of
inferior individuals. This process of non-random elimination impelled Darwin’s contemporary, philosopher
Herbert Spencer, to describe evolution with the now familiar term “survival of the fittest.”

The truly outstanding achievement of the principle of natural selection is that it makes unnecessary the invocation
of “final causes”—that is, any teleological forces leading to a particular end. In fact, nothing is predetermined.
Furthermore, the objective of selection even may change from one generation to the next, as environmental
circumstances vary.

A diverse population is a necessity for the proper working of natural selection. (Darwin’s success meant that
typologists, for whom all members of a class are essentially identical, were left with an untenable viewpoint.)
Because of the importance of variation, natural selection should be considered a two-step process: the production
of abundant variation is followed by the elimination of inferior individuals. This latter step is directional. By
adopting natural selection, Darwin settled the several-thousand year- old argument among philosophers over
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 chance or necessity. Change on the earth is the result of both, the first step being dominated by randomness, the
second by necessity.

Darwin was a holist: for him the object, or target, of selection was primarily the individual as a whole. The
geneticists, almost from 1900 on, in a rather reductionist spirit preferred to consider the gene the target of
evolution.

For 80 years after 1859, bitter controversy raged as to which of four competing evolutionary theories was valid.
Darwin’s theory clearly emerged as the victor during the evolutionary synthesis of the 1940s, when the new
discoveries in genetics were married with taxonomic observations concerning systematics, the classification of
organisms by their relationships. Darwinism is now almost unanimously accepted by knowledgeable evolutionists.
In addition, it has become the basic component of the new philosophy of biology.

A most important principle of the new biological philosophy, undiscovered for almost a century after the
publication of On the Origin of Species, is the dual nature of biological processes. These activities are governed
both by the universal laws of physics and chemistry and by a genetic program, itself the result of natural selection,
which has moulded the genotype for millions of generations. The causal factor of the possession of a genetic
program is unique to living organisms, and it is totally absent in the inanimate world. Because of the backward
state of molecular and genetic knowledge in his time, Darwin was unaware of this vital factor.

19. Which of the following, as per the passage, is an 22. Darwin’s theory shaped the philosophy of chance or
example of a 'diverse population'? necessity as a
(a) A group of scientists trying to achieve a (a) homogenous concept.
breakthrough in a technology. (b) abstract conception.
(b) A group of theorists trying to debate the (c) duality of natural selection.
validity of their findings. (d) temporal feature.
(c) A group of people from eclectic fields trying to
propagate a law that protects women. 23. A significant shift in our interaction with lifeless
(d) A group of teenagers enjoying a school camp. entities through theory of evolution is:
(a) the perception that as long as species evolves,
20. Which of the following best describes the its natural surroundings also evolve.
architecture of natural selection? (b) the notion that existence on earth is a process
(a) It is an entity which can neither be controlled which governs both living and non-living
nor can be channelized. beings.
(b) It is a philosophy which integrates within itself (c) the understanding that rocks and stones also
the laws and theories of natural sciences. evolve following the physical laws.
(c) It is a deterministic philosophy whereby moral (d) the knowledge that additional factors control
end goals can fit into biological ones. the living beings.
(d) It is a philosophy based on directional and 24. What do you think is the essence – either positive
adaptive changes; the process of non-random or negative - of the shift between governing
elimination. biological factors being laws to governing factors
21. The theory of natural selection provided an being concepts?
important shift in existential perception. It can be (a) Laws are more stable and thus helpful in the
characterised as long run.
(a) Individual as a whole. (b) Concepts are not fixed and thus variety arises
(b) Aesthetic to practical. out of them.
(c) Reductionist to genetic. (c) Laws can never be taken out of context and
(d) Chaotic to determined. random species functions become redundant.
(d) Concepts can be manipulated for ulterior
motives.

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 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.25-Q.5): OPEC and recent Angola Issue

Angola has said it is leaving the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) with effect from Jan. 1
2024, after exits from Ecuador in 2020 and Qatar in 2019.

Angola, which joined OPEC in [X], produces about 1.1 million barrels per day, compared with 28 million bpd for
the whole group.
Here are details on OPEC members, market share and Angola's oil production.

OPEC was founded in 1960 by Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Venezuela, Iran and Iraq. Angola joined the group in 2007.
Since 2017, OPEC has worked with Russia and other non-members as part of the OPEC+ group to manage the
market, in whose agreements Angola participated.

Angola's departure from OPEC will leave it with 12 members and crude oil production of about 27 million bpd,
some 27% of the 102 million bpd world oil market.

This further reduces OPEC's share of the world market which stood at 34% in 2010.
As well as the departure of some members, OPEC and OPEC+ decisions to cut production and rising output of non-
OPEC countries including the United States have weighed on its market share. In recent years, Angola has been
unable to meet its OPEC+ output quota because of declining investment.

25. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? 28. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(a) 2007 (b) 2008 respect to the OPEC?
(c) 2009 (d) 2011 (a) Ecuador left in 2020 and Indonesia suspended
its membership in 2016.
26. Consider the following statements: (b) Qatar in 2019 quit OPEC to focus on gas, which
I. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting some analysts interpreted as a swipe at Saudi
Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Arabia, the oil exporting group's de facto leader.
Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in (c) Equatorial Guinea became a full member in
September 1960 by five countries namely 2017 and Gabon re-joined in 2016.
Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi (d) Congo became a full member in 2024.
Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the
Founder Members of the Organization. 29. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
II. Ecuador suspended its membership in Countries (OPEC) was founded in which of the
December 1992, rejoined OPEC in October following country?
2007, but decided to withdraw its membership (a) Iraq (b) Qatar
of OPEC effective 1 January 2020. (c) Nigeria (d) Congo
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Both I & II are correct.
(c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are incorrect. 30. As of March 2024, how many Member countries are
there in OPEC?
27. Which of the following is the current Secretary (a) 8 Member Countries
General of OPEC? (b) 12 Member Countries
(a) Audrey Azoulay (c) 18 Member Countries
(b) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (d) 17 Member Countries
(c) Haitham Al Ghais
(d) Dr. Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala

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 Passage (Q.1-Q.5): 13th Amendment
The Sri Lankan government will “fully implement” the 13th Amendment, President said, making a familiar promise
to the Tamils on the nearly 40-year-old legislation. “We hope to fully implement the 13th Amendment of the
Constitution. Not only in the North but also in the South, the Chief Ministers are demanding that it be
implemented. Speaking at a Pongal event organised in Jaffna, in Sri Lanka’s Tamil-majority Northern Province. His
remarks come even as his government is engaged in talks with the Tamil political leadership to find a durable
political solution to the civil war-scarred island nation’s long-pending national question. The President has
pledged to resolve the ethnic conflict— tied to the historic demand of Sri Lanka’s Tamils for equality and self-
determination— before February 4, 2023, when Sri Lanka marks its 75th anniversary of Independence. The
announcement on Sunday also assumes significance before the scheduled visit of External Affairs Minister S.
Jaishankar, who has earlier emphasized that addressing Tamil concerns and implementing the 13th Amendment
was in Sri Lanka’s interest. While several past leaders have made the promise, none has kept it. While the ITAK has
pitched its decision as a necessary poll strategy to strengthen its base, the decision only weakens the TNA’s
bargaining power on the political solution, according to PLOTE leader and Jaffna MP Dharmalingam Sithadthan.

31. The 13th Amendment to Sri Lanka's constitution (a) Article 370 (b) Article 385
was made after the signing of the Indo-Sri Lanka (c) Article 368 (d) Article 396
Accord between _________ and President J R
Jayewardene, on July 29, 1987, in Colombo. 34. In which of the following year Liberation Tigers of
(a) Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was formed?
(b) President Hamid Ansari (a) 1976 (b) 1987
(c) Prime minister Indira Gandhi (c) 1960 (d) 1992
(d) President Pratibha singh patil
35. India and Sri Lanka conducted one of the largest
32. Recently, President of Sri Lanka said that their joint Military exercises in Nov-Dec 2023. What is
government would “fully implement” the 13th the name of the exercise?
Amendment. As of December 2023, who is the (a) VAJRA (b) Mitra Shakti
current President of Sri Lanka? (c) Yudh Abhyas (d) PRAHAR
(a) Ranil Wickremesinghe
36. Who out of the following was the first Women
(b) Mahinda Rajapaksa
prime minister of the Sri Lanka?
(c) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
(a) Irene Wimala Kannangara
(d) Maithripala Sirisena
(b) Sirimavo Bandaranaike
33. Which out of the following Article of the Indian (c) Ferial Ismail Ashraff
Constitution deals with amending the power of the (d) Chandrika Kumaratunga
Indian Constitution?

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Samudrayaan project

After the Chandrayaan mission, India is now preparing to explore the deep oceans and its resources via the
Samudrayaan project, where three people will be sent into the depth of 6,000 metre in a submersible. The details
regarding the Samudayaan mission were shared by Union Minister of Earth Sciences Kiren Rijiju in a written reply
to a question in the Rajya Sabha on Thursday. The Samudrayaan Mission is India’s first manned mission to explore
the deep ocean. It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well. The
submersible project will be only used for exploring biodiversity while letting the marine ecosystem remain intact.
The project will be part of a larger deep ocean diversity exploration and research based mission, which supports
the Centre’s Blue Economy policy. This aims to sustainably use marine resources for the country’s economic
growth and livelihoods along with creating jobs and maintaining the health of the marine ecosystems as well.
While the lunar landing focused on geographical exploration, 'Samudrayaan' has an additional economic aspect. As
per the minister, the mission aims to support the 'Blue Economy', an initiative endorsed by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi. The mission envisages the sustainable extraction of ocean resources to bolster India’s economic
growth, and job creation. It will also ensure the health of marine ecosystems.
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37. According to the Ministry of Earth Science, the 40. Which out of the following is the strategic initiative
Samudrayaan Mission is expected to be realised by for port-led development through the extensive use
which of the following year? of IT enabled services for modernization of ports?
(a) 2026 (b) 2025 (a) Sagarmala Project
(c) 2028 (d) 2024 (b) O-SMART Project
(c) Integrated Coastal Zone
38. Samudrayaan Mission is aimed at sending three (d) National Fisheries Policy
personnel to 6000-metre depth in a vehicle called
_______ for the exploration of deep-sea resources like 41. Who out of the following is the current union
minerals. minister of Earth Sciences?
(a) SURYA 6000 (b) AKASH 6000 (a) Kiren Rijiju
(c) MATSYA 6000 (d) VIJAY 6000 (b) Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
(c) Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
39. Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Cabinet (d) Dr. Virendra Kumar
with the overall ________of the Mission period during
2021-2026. 42. The Samudrayaan project is designed and
(a) estimated cost of Rs.6077 Crores for three phases developed by the NIOT in Chennai. What does NIOT
(b) estimated cost of Rs.8077 Crores for four phases stands for?
(c) estimated cost of Rs.4077 Crores for two phases (a) National Institute of Ocean Technology
(d) estimated cost of Rs.9077 Crores for three phases (b) National Institute of Organic Technology
(c) Nations Institute of Ocean Tech
(d) National Institute of organized Technology

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): 2+2 India -Australia and India-UK

The inaugural India-UK 2+2 Foreign and Defence Dialogue was held in New Delhi on 16 October 2023. Indian
delegation was co-chaired by Shri Piyush Srivastava, Joint Secretary Europe West, Ministry of External Affairs and
Shri Vishwesh Negi, Joint Secretary, International Cooperation, Ministry of Defence. The UK delegation was co-
chaired by Mr. Ben Mellor, India Director, Indian Ocean Directorate, FCDO and Lt. General Rob Magowan, Deputy
Chief of Defence Staff, Finance and Military Capability, Ministry of Defence.

The 2+2 dialogue at Senior Official level is a mechanism to discuss and review all aspects of India-UK
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. Both delegations expressed satisfaction at the regular high level political
exchanges and interactions which have provided guidance and momentum to India-UK multifaceted ties. They
expressed happiness on the progress made in diverse areas of India-UK Roadmap 2030 including political
exchanges, economic cooperation, defence and security, people to people ties, as well as regional and multilateral
cooperation.

The two sides also discussed possibilities for further collaboration particularly in areas of trade and investment,
defence, critical and emerging technologies, civil aviation, health, energy, culture and strengthening peoples
connect. The officials had an opportunity to exchange assessments about recent international developments
including in the Indo-Pacific region, given their shared vision for peace, stability and prosperity and for a free,
open and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.

43. Who out of the following is the current Prime 44. Which strategic alliance involving India, Australia,
Minister of Australia? Japan, and the United States aims to promote a free
(a) Anthony Albanese and open Indo-Pacific region?
(b) Tony Abbott (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS
(c) Malcolm Turnbull (c) Quad (d) SAARC
(d) Kevin Rudd

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45. What is the name of the bilateral naval exercise
47. The historic Jallianwala Bagh massacre, where
conducted regularly between the Indian Navy and
British troops fired on unarmed civilians, took place
the Royal Australian Navy?
in which of the following Indian city?
(a) Varuna (b) Malabar
(a) Amritsar (b) Delhi
(c) AUSINDEX (d) SIMBEX
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
46. The British Monarch at the time of Indian
48. Which city is home to the High Commission of India
Independence was _______.
in the United Kingdom?
(a) Queen Elizabeth II
(a) London (b) Manchester
(b) Queen Victoria
(c) Edinburgh (d) Birmingham
(c) King George VI
(d) King Edward VII

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Postal Office Bill 2023

After being passed in the Rajya Sabha on December 4, the Post Office Bill, 2023, was brought to the Lok Sabha for
consideration on Wednesday (December 13). Seeking to repeal the 125-year-old [X], the Bill contains provisions
that allow the Centre to intercept, open, or detain any item, and deliver it to customs authorities.

The Bill aims to “consolidate and amend the law relating to Post Office in India,” which today provides many
services beyond simply mail delivery, the primary concern of the [X]. The Post Office network today has become a
vehicle for delivery of different citizen-centric services, which necessitated the repeal enactment of a new law, the
Bill states.

Notably, Section 9 of the Bill allows the Centre to, by notification, empower any officer to “intercept, open or detain
any item” in the interest of state security, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, emergency, public
safety, or contravention of other laws. This provision also allows post officers to hand over postal items to customs
authorities if they are suspected to contain any prohibited item, or if such items are liable to duty.

49. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? 51. What condition must be met for an officer of the
(a) Indian Post Office Act of 1898 Post Office to incur liability regarding a service
(b) Indian Postal Act 1892 provided?
(c) Indian Post Office Act of 1891 (a) Any loss, misdelivery, delay, or damage
(d) Indian Postal Act 1894 occurred
(b) Acting fraudulently or wilfully causing loss,
50. What authority does the officer of the Post Office delay, or misdelivery
gain in case of suspicion of duty evasion or (c) The item was not delivered on time
prohibited items? (d) The sender files a complaint
(a) Authority to dispose of the item
(b) Authority to deliver the item to customs or 52. Which of the following union ministry is
concerned authority responsible for Postal service in India?
(c) Authority to return the item to the sender (a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(d) Authority to auction the item Affairs
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Communications Affairs

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 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.53-Q.85): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The tort of Negligence makes sure that in case a person fails to exercise the due reasonable
care that a reasonable person should have exercised, then he will be punished for it. Such failure must cause injury
to a person to make the negligence punishable.
Before the tort of Negligence is established, the court needs to determine whether the accused owed a duty of
care towards the affected party or not.
Duty of care as per a dictionary definition means, “a moral or legal obligation to ensure the safety or well-being of
others.”
This duty of care need not be necessarily a legal duty. Rather it could be reasonable care that a person was
expected to take in such circumstances.
The duty breached must be by the absence of the exercise of reasonable care by the accused. Also, the injury
caused due to such breach should also be foreseeable.
An injury must be caused to the plaintiff because of the breach of duty. A ‘but for’ test is conducted for this i.e. ‘but
for’ the breach of duty, such injury would have not been caused to the plaintiff.

53. All Cure Hospital (ACH) has been a renowned 54. When Avanti got to know that a ‘wrong’ vaccine has
hospital in Delhi. Due to the pandemic, it designated been administered to her, she fainted out of panic
its Wing B for the treatment of Covid patients and and tension and claims that this under the damages
those coming to get inoculated. Avanti, a college for negligence. Is her claim likely to succeed?
student, went to get the second dosage of the (a) No, the injury caused to Avanti is not
vaccine, Covishield. Dr. Samadhaan was to foreseeable and therefore no damages can be
administer her the vaccine. However, due to the claimed for administering the ‘wrong’ vaccine.
busy schedule of the doctor and lack of manpower, (b) No, since the vaccine being administered was
he gave the second dosage of Covaxin to Avanti. On not a wrong vaccine perse as was confirmed by
realizing this Avanti brought a claim against the the government and studies undertaken
hospital for negligence, it is shown in studies and therefore no liability on any resultant outcome
governmental notifications permitting the of the vaccine too.
switching of the vaccines (both the dosages were (c) Yes, hospital and Dr. Samadhan will be
not required to be of same vaccine and would not vicariously liable for the injury and harm
have any side-effects). Will Avanti’s claim for caused to Avanti.
negligence succeed? (d) Yes, because of the breach of duty of Dr.
(a) Yes, the hospital authorities will be vicariously Samadhan, an injury has been caused to Avanti
liable for Dr. Samadhan’s negligence and Avanti and therefore her claim will succeed.
will be entitled to damages.
(b) Yes, since the vaccine not intended has been 55. Avanti was undertaking some renovation activities
administered to Avanti it indicates a breach of in her house and for that purpose she kept all the
legal duty on the part of Dr. Samadhan and scraps etc. at back of the house which was not
therefore he would be liable for negligence. accessed by anyone. On the occasion of Sankranti, a
(c) No, there appears to be no apparent injury by kite landed at the posterior part of the house. A kid,
the act of Dr. Samadhan and hence Avanti’s Raju went to catch the kite and a nail pierced
claim for negligence will fail. through his feet. A claim for negligence was brought
(d) No, since Dr. Samadhan exercised all against Avanti for not taking due care and caution
reasonable care and caution while as required. Will such a claim succeed?
administering the vaccine and it not due to any (a) No, Avanti is not liable for any injury caused to
personal breach of duty but lack of manpower trespassers in her land and therefore the claim
which resulted in switching of the vaccines. is likely to fail.

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 (b) Yes, injury is caused by the lack of care and Raju and therefore they would be liable for
caution on the part of Avanti as scraps which negligence.
could cause injury are required to be properly (c) No, the injury to Raju was not foreseeable by
disposed off. any reasonable person and therefore no
(c) Yes, Avanti is required to exercise due care and liability can be attributed to the Municipality
caution to even the trespassers and any harm for negligence.
or injury caused due to lack of such exercise (d) Yes, municipality would, however, be partly
will make her liable for negligence. responsible and not entirely as this is a case of
(d) No, Avanti had exercised all reasonable care contributory negligence.
and caution as is expected from a reasonable
person and therefore would not be liable for 57. When the grandmother of Raju heard of this
negligence. unfortunate news, she got a cardiac arrest and was
hospitalized. They decided to club this claim along
56. Raju had always been a mischievous kid who with the claim for Raju’s injury. Are both the claims
frequently landed into troubles and injured himself. likely to succeed?
Once, he was running at a sidewalk trying to (a) No, only the claim with respect to injury to Raju
balance in his newly bought roller skates. The will succeed and the claim as to cardiac arrest
municipality was undertaking some construction to grandmother will fail as it is not foreseeable.
activities but had forgotten to place the warnings/ (b) Yes, applying the but-for test, Municipality
roadblocks. Raju saw the pothole open in front at could be made liable for the injury to the
the very last moment and unable to balance himself grandmother of Raju (cardiac arrest) as the
fell into it thereby fracturing his bones. Can the injury would not have occurred but for the
municipality be made liable for negligence? negligence of Municipality.
(a) No, there is contributory negligence on the part (c) No, only the claim as to grandmother’s injury
of Raju also as he was unable to balance himself will succeed and the claim as to Raju’s injury
in the roller skates and used them in the public will fail because of contributory negligence.
road. (d) Yes, both the claims will succeed as they are
(b) Yes, there was a breach of duty on the part of direct impact of the negligence of municipality.
the municipality which resulted in the injury to

Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The Supreme Court on Tuesday held that if the prosecution has failed to prove the basic
facts alleged against the accused, the burden of proof cannot then be shifted to the accused by resorting to Section
106 of the Indian Evidence Act A Bench held that Section 106 of the Evidence Act is not intended to relieve the
prosecution from discharging its duty to prove the guilt of the accused.
Section 106 reads as, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact
is upon him.
"The prosecution having failed to prove the basic facts as alleged against the accused, the burden could not be shifted
on the accused by pressing into service the provisions contained in Section 106 of the Evidence Act," the Court said.
The Court also placed reliance on its 1956 judgment in Shambu Nath Mehra vs. State of Ajmer which had held that
Section 106 of the Evidence Act is designed to meet certain exceptional cases in which it would be impossible, or at
any rate disproportionately difficult, for the prosecution to establish facts within the accused's knowledge.
The accused had been charged and held guilty by the Sessions Court for offences under Sections 302 (murder)
read with Section 34 (criminal act with common intention) and Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code (causing
disappearance of evidence of office, or giving false information to screen offender).
The Bench relied on the judgment in Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, and opined that “it is a
settled position of law that circumstances how so ever strong cannot take place of proof and that the guilt of the
accused have to be proved by the prosecution beyond reasonable doubt.”
Specifically on the contention of the prosecution regarding Section 106, the Court said that the same was
misplaced since the provision is not intended to relieve the prosecution of burden of proof. Thus accused is
acquitted.
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58. During a murder trial, the accused in the case, A, (c) Yes, as the court has complete discretion in
was being tried for same and his guilt was proven deciding the matter and being satisfied with the
adequately by the prosecution. Now the court gave extent of the proof showed.
A the opportunity to prove his innocence in front of (d) Yes, as the court was satisfied of the guilt here
the court by defending him. Has the court done so and decided to expeditiously dispose of the
correctly? trial.
(a) Yes, as the court was obliged to give A the
opportunity to defend himself. 61. In the above case, if the guilt been proven beyond
(b) No, as the burden of proof is being shifted here reasonable doubt by the prosecution, and in
in the case. furtherance of the same, the court allowed section
(c) No, as the court should satisfy the guilt based 106 to be invoked in order to obtain the facts
on the prosecution’s arguments only. pertaining to the accused within his knowledge,
(d) Yes, as the prosecution herein has proven guilty would the same amount to a contravention of law
beyond doubt, thus opportunity to defend here?
should be given to the accused. (a) No, as the guilt was proven beyond reasonable
doubt.
59. In the above case, had the prosecution not been (b) No, as the section was invoked only to obtain
able to prove the guilt beyond reasonable doubt, particular facts and not for proving guilt.
but it was established that the accused was an (c) Yes, as the court cannot invoke the section
escaped offender, would the court be liable to hold without the prosecution praying for the same.
the accused guilty for murder unless he is able to (d) Yes, as the court has untenably shifted the
prove his innocence? burden of proof on the accused instead of the
(a) No, as that would amount to the court showing prosecution.
bias in this case.
(b) Yes, as the accused herein is a repeat offender 62. Abhay and Kanishka were two contracting parties
and deserves the strictest punishment for his who were now arguing before the court since the
erstwhile crimes. allegations were being presented wherein it was
(c) Yes, as the accused also deserves an prayed by Abhay that the contract was sullied and
opportunity for defending himself and thus, breached by Kanishka and should be punished for
should be allowed to contend. the same. The court, in order to obtain facts
(d) No, as the prosecution failed to prove the pertaining to why the breach occurred allowed for
innocence so burden of proof will not shift. section 106 IEA to be invoked and ordered
Kanishka to make submissions appropriately and
60. While considering a murder case, the prosecution testify. Is the court correct in doing so?
had presented all circumstantial evidence, and was (a) Yes, as the court is empowered to get to the
about to move on to summoning and presenting bottom of all the matters.
eyewitnesses, however, satisfied by the evidence; (b) No, as the matter here does not fall within the
the court allowed for the prosecution to skip the ambit of the passage above.
same and held the accused as guilty of the offence. (c) No, as the IEA does not apply to civil
Was the court correct in doing so? proceedings.
(a) No, as the matter here was not proven beyond (d) Yes, as the court herein is a criminal court and
reasonable doubt here. should be allowed to determine the standard of
(b) No, as the court jumped the gun in not hearing guilt here.
the witnesses.

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 Passage (Q.63-Q.67): The Supreme Court observed that interest on compensation under the Workmen's
Compensation Act 1923, shall be paid from the date of the accident and not the date of adjudication of the claim.
Ajaya Kumar Das was working as a labourer. Due to an accident, he suffered multiple injuries in his abdomen and
kidney.
A claim for compensation was lodged before the Workmen compensation-cum Assistant Labour Commissioner,
Odisha. Allowing his claim, the Commissioner directed that a compensation of Rs 2, 78,926 must be paid together
with interest at the rate of 12 per cent per annum on the principal sum awarded from the date of accident till the
deposit. Though the High Court refused to interfere with the compensation amount, it held that Das is not entitled
to any other interest on the compensation awarded except the accrued interest.
In appeal, the bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud and Dinesh Maheshwari noted that Section 4A of the
Workmen's Compensation Act stipulates that the Commissioner shall direct the employer to pay interest of 12%
or at a higher rate, not exceeding the lending rates of any scheduled banks specified, if the employer does not pay
the compensation within one month from the date it fell due shall be recovered from the employer by way of
penalty.
“This Court emphasises that the applicant is entitled to interest from the date of accident while rejecting the
submission that the award of interest should be after the expiry of 30 days from the date of accident. Thus, there was
no legal basis for the High Court to delete the order of payment of interest.” the bench observed.

63. Suraj Industries was being sued by its waged 65. While granting interest to an aggrieved employee in
workers for denying one of their member’s fair a dairy produce factory, the court had instructed
compensation on getting injured while performing the employer, who had allowed other medical
his workerly duties. The court ventured into the benefits of his employees, to also pay 11.75%
question of whether there was a claim payable in interest to his employee upon the adjudicated
the present case, as the employment status of the claim. Was the court right in doing so?
waged worker was disputed by the company as (a) Yes, as the passage specifies the compound
being not contractual, thereby, excluded from the interest limit as 12% to be payable here.
ambit of the law above. How shall the court rule? (b) No, as the rate of interest provided above has
(a) The company is correct as the worker is not a been incorrectly mentioned.
contractual employee. (c) Yes, as the worker has been treated fairly,
(b) The company is not correct as the worker, otherwise through benefits and amenities.
contractual or not, deserves compensation. (d) No, as the employer has been unfairly
(c) The workers would be held as correct, since the demanded an exorbitant rate to be payable.
term worker includes all sorts of workers.
(d) Not discernible as not provided in the principle 66. In the above case, had the claim been adjudicated
above. the same day as on which the injury occurred, and
the interest thereupon was offered by the employer
64. In the above question, if the court discernibly as 11.5%, which was disbursed by him the same
decided that the worker was supposed to receive day as well, would the situation of interest herein
compensation for the injury caused to him, the date be correctly conducted?
of compensation to be paid from was to be (a) Yes, as there was no delay and hence the
adjudicated. How shall the court rule? interest was aptly paid.
(a) Compensation is payable from the date of the (b) No, as the interest should have been paid at
medical expenses incurred by the injured party. 12%.
(b) Compensation is payable from the date of (c) No, as the interest should have been paid
detection of injury by the company. upwards of 12%.
(c) Compensation is payable from the date of the (d) Yes, as the claim was adjudicated and paid
incident and the injury taking place. quickly, leading to the employee receiving quick
(d) Not discernible as no law to the same effect has relief.
been provided above.

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67. Barjatya Industries was being sued by its workers 12% as well. Can the court direct the company to
for having risked their lives while making them make such payment?
work during the pandemic, which also led to three (a) No, as the interest accrued thereupon has not
workers asthmic for a period of 4 months, and was become payable yet.
now before the Supreme Court. Therein the (b) Yes, as the court has ordered fair and just
Supreme Court had ordered a compensation of 12 compensation in this case.
lakhs to be given to each person, and 15 lakhs to the (c) No, as the compensation paid herein is unfair as
severely affected. Moreover, as the claim was due it is too exorbitant for the current scenario.
on March 1st, and was not paid by April 1st, the (d) Yes, as the SC has complete discretion in
interest accrued thereupon had been held to be ordering the compensation that it has deemed
fair.

Passage (Q.96-Q.101): Joint liability is a term used for people who have committed an act in pursuance of a
common intention, where each of the persons is liable in the same manner, as this act was done by them alone.
Section 34 IPC, states the joint liability of partners in crime. The section only provides for the constitution of joint
liability, not the punishment. This section is only a rule of evidence and does not constitute a substantive offence.
It provides for the principle of constructive liability.

There are a few principles that guide the application of the concept of common intention. It is necessary that there
has been a prior conspiracy relating to that act. When the offence is proved only on the basis of circumstantial
evidence, the allegations of common intention cannot be established in the absence of meeting of minds. One of the
basic most requirements is that there must be some criminal act. Such a criminal act must be done by “several
persons.” Such a criminal act however would not include acts which are merely invalid in the law. An example
would be a minor man marrying a minor woman for the marriage is merely void and not a crime. The common
intention doctrine states that there should be an antecedent to the occurrence. A clear distinction is made between
common intention and common object is that common intention denotes action in concert and necessarily
postulates the existence of a pre-arranged plan implying a prior meeting of the minds, while common object does
not necessarily require proof of prior meeting of minds or pre-concert. Common intention has to be ascertained in
the investigations, however, it is not necessary that it happens before the occurrence only. It might happen during
the occurrence of the act as well. The intention is curated at any given point in the action. Usually, an overt act
would be sufficient to show that there is common intention; however the absence of the same also does not vitiate
the applicability of common intention. The law requires that the accused must be present on the spot during the
occurrence of the crime and take part in its commission; it is enough if he is present somewhere nearby.

68. A, B and C decided to commit burglary. They broke (b) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of murder
into a locked house. However, before they had because A, at the time of stabbing X, was acting
finished their work, a domestic servant appeared on behalf of B and C and he wanted to save not
from the out-house and started shouting. A, B and C only himself but B and C as well.
left the house and started running away. They were (c) A alone is guilty of murder because though
pursued by a small crowd. A, on being caught by X, there was common intention to commit the
one of the persons pursuing them, stabbed him offence of burglary, there was no common
with a knife kept at road side and ran away. By the intention to commit the offence of murder.
time B and C had disappeared. X died on account of (d) None of these.
the stab wounds. Later, the police arrested all the
three. They were charged for attempted burglary 69. Please refer to the facts above. While A was
and murder of X. stabbing X, B stood next to A in a jeep honking for A
(a) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of murder to come in jeep after stabbing, do a clean job and
because A stabbed X in furtherance of common run as soon as possible. Decide the liability of A and
intention. B.

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 (a) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of murder (c) The three had only run to save their lives from
because A stabbed X in furtherance of common the mob. They acted in self-defence and hence
intention are not liable
(b) A alone is guilty of murder because though (d) Abhishek and Boru are liable. Chetan joining
there was common intention to commit the them in their jeep after the murder had been
offence of burglary, there was no common committed does not show common intention
intention to commit the offence of murder
(c) Along with A, B is also liable for the offence as 71. A has romantic attachment with B for the past 25
he stood next to A in a jeep waiting to rescue A years. Both of them want to marry each other but
from the crowd. their parents are not agreeing to the same. A, along
(d) None of these with his friends C and D decides to run away with B
and marry in the nearby temple. Decide
70. Abhishek, Boru and Chetan conspire to rob Peter’s (a) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for there is
house for he had an affair with Abhishek’s sister. presence of common intention
When they were committing such robbery, they (b) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for
were caught and thus they had to run. During such there is nothing showing pre-meditation
running Abhishek was caught by Rathore. He (c) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for the four
stabbed Rathore. Boru was waiting right next to the should have spoken to their parents
place of murder on a jeep. After Abhishek stabbed (d) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for no
Rathore, he went away along with Boru in the jeep. criminal act has been committed.
On their way they found Chetan running and they
took Chetan along with them to run away quicker. 72. Please refer to the facts above. A is 20 years of age
Decide and B is 17 years of age. Both of them go and marry
(a) All of Abhishek, Boru and Chetan are liable for in the nearby temple. Decide
murder. The very fact that they escaped (a) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for there is
together shows that common intention was presence of common intention
present in all the 3. (b) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for
(b) Abhishek alone is guilty of murder because there is nothing showing pre-meditation
though there was common intention to commit (c) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for the four
the offence of burglary, there was no common should have spoken to their parents
intention to commit the offence of murder (d) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for no
criminal act has been committed

Passage (Q.100-Q.105): The Kerala HC recently held that a rape survivor's sexual history is immaterial in a rape
case and will have no bearing on the credibility of the testimony of such a survivor. A Single Judge bench held that
a rape survivor being habituated to sexual intercourse or being "a girl of easy virtue" would not be grounds to
absolve an accused of rape charges.

The Court categorically held that even when a survivor admits in cross-examination that she has had sexual
relationships with another person previously, the same does not in any way affect the credibility of her testimony.
"Even in a case where it is shown that the victim is a girl of easy virtue or a girl habituated to sexual
intercourse, it may not be a ground to absolve the accused from the charge of rape. Even assuming that the
victim is previously accustomed to sexual intercourse, that is not a decisive question. On the contrary, the
question which is required to be adjudicated is, did the accused commit rape on the victim on occasion
complained of. It is the accused who is on trial and not the victim,"

"Her evidence need not be tested with the same amount of suspicion as that of an accomplice. The nature of
evidence required to lend assurance to the testimony of the prosecutrix must necessarily depend on the facts
and circumstances of each case. Only if the Court finds it difficult to accept the version of the prosecutrix on

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 its face value, it may search for evidence, direct or circumstantial, which would lend assurance to her
testimony.
Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines rape as "sexual intercourse with a woman against her will, without
her consent, by coercion, misrepresentation, or fraud or at a time when she has been intoxicated or duped, or is of
unsound mental health and in any case, if she is under 18 years of age."

73. Shreya had given her consent to have intercourse

76. In the above case, had Shubhi and Ruben not been a
with Bhatav on Tuesday when they were on a date
married couple but just a dating couple, would the
after having two glasses of wine. However, after
Act of Shubhi forcing herself on Ruben be
having slept immediately after the wine at the table,
considered as committing rape?
Bhatav took her to her house and left her there
(a) Yes, as they are not a married couple, and
safely. They met again on Thursday for lunch when
Ruben did not consent to the same.
Bhatav finally approached her for intercourse
(b) No, as Ruben is not protected under law.
assuming that he had her consent. To his dismay,
(c) No, as Ruben consented to the same while
she pulled away and did not entertain his advances.
getting into a mutual relationship.
Would he be liable for committing rape in this case?
(d) Yes, as Shubhi violated his person.
(a) No, as she had given him her consent.
(b) Yes, as she was intoxicated while having given
77. Rinki was notoriously infamous in her friend group
her consent.
for having terrible relationships over the years. One
(c) No, as he did not have intercourse with Shreya.
such relationship was her recent one with a guy
(d) Yes, as he inappropriately manhandled her.
named Toby. To no one's disappointment, the
relationship ended badly, with Toby having
74. Shubhi and Ruben were a couple always at
violating Rinki. On her continous struggle during
crossroads wanting to have kids. Ruben wanted to
the process, he slapped her and left. She reported
have kids, while Shubhi did not. As a result them
the same to the police, and they charged him for
they would get in fights all the time. One day,
rape. Is this action of the police correct?
frustrated due to all the waiting, Ruben forced
(a) Yes, as he succeeded in violating Rinki.
himself upon her in order to have kids. This
(b) Yes, as Rinki did not consent to have
resulted in an altercation between the two while
intercourse with Toby.
Ruben was forcing an intercourse with her. Once he
(c) No, as Rinki exhibits a pattern of bad behaviour
was done, she rushed to the police and reported
and cannot be trusted.
him. Would he be liable for having raped her?
(d) No, as Rinki has a clearly flawed judgment and
(a) No, as he was her husband.
cannot be trusted.
(b) No, as he only wanted to have kids.
(c) Yes, as he forced her to have intercourse with
78. In the above-mentioned case, had Rinki had a
him.
pastrecord of having multiple relations with
(d) Both a & b.
multiple men and catfishing men, would her
charges and testimony be considered reliable?
75. In the above case, had Shubhi been the one forcing
(a) No, as she exhibits a clear behaviour of
Ruben to have kids and had forced her upon him,
repeated offending.
would it still amount to having committed rape?
(b) No, as she deliberately catfishes men into
(a) No, as she had a valid concern about having
having intercourse with her.
kids.
(c) Yes, as she was still raped in this case.
(b) No, as men cannot be raped.
(d) Both (a) & (b)
(c) Both a and b.
(d) Yes, as he was violated inappropriately.

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 Passage (Q.71-Q.76): Information contained in a document, if replicated, can be the subject of theft and can result
in wrongful loss, even though the original document was only temporarily removed from its lawful custody for the
purpose of extracting the information contained therein.
The following requirements need to be established in order to make out a case of theft under Section 378 IPC:
• Dishonest intention
• To take away movable property
• For wrongful gain
• To cause wrongful loss
Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that
person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft. The offence of theft is
complete a soon as the property is moved in order to such taking. It is not necessary that the person from whose
possession the property is taken is the true owner or has the real title of the property.
(Extracted with requisite revisions and edits from ‘Temporary removal of document for replication of content can
be the subject of Theft, Supreme Court’ at)

79. Arun, a 14-year old schoolboy, was quite famous for (b) Yes, Arun was a kleptomaniac and thus his acts
his academic acumen. However, what people didn’t would fulfil all the ingredients required to make
know that he was a kleptomaniac too. One day a person liable for theft.
while he visited the house of his friend Kabir, he (c) No, since law does not take into account trivial
saw anewly released game CD and seeing that he matters the allegationof theft is likely to get
picked it. However, since there was no space or dismissed by the Court of law.
opportunity to carry the CD, he hid it inside arug in (d) Yes, there is wrongful loss to Kabir which is
the room.Thereafter,he left thehouse planning to sufficient to make Arun liable for theft.
returnduring Kabir’s absence.Later, he got occupied
and soon enough forgot about the CD. Is he guilty of 81. When Arun was going back to his home, he found
theft? an expensive ring lying on the road. He picked the
(a) Yes, he is a kleptomaniac and his act of taking ring immediately and without inquiring about the
the CD will amount to theft and he will be liable owner of the ring kept it in his pocket. Later, he
for the same. went home. Is he guilty of theft?
(b) No, he is not liable as kleptomania is a condition (a) Yes, he had the dishonest intention to
which requires medical attention and since it’s dispossess someone of the valuable ring
an urge to steal, there is absence of any causing wrongful loss to such person and would
dishonest intention. thus be liable for theft.
(c) Yes, there is dishonest intention so as to (b) No, the property was not in the possession of
deprive Kabir of his CD and thus Arun would be anyone. Therefore, there is no theft committed
liable for theft. by Arun.
(d) No, Arun did not ultimately take the property (c) Yes, Arun had the moral and legal obligation to
i.e. CD withhim and would thus not be liable for inquire about the rightful owner of the ring
theft. instead of keeping the ring with himself and is
thus liable for theft.
80. That day Arun had come to study at Kabir’s house (d) No, Arun was a kleptomaniac and by virtue of
and forgot to bring his pencil box and thus the fact that it’s a condition/ urge not within his
borrowed apen from him. However, while leaving control, he did not possess dishonest intention
he forgot to return the pen and instead kept it in his and would not be liable for theft.
pocket. Is he guilty of theft?
(a) No, Arun did not possess any dishonest 82. The next day, the news broke of the missing ring
intention to take away the pen and thus would which belonged to a minister’s wife who came there
not be guilty of theft. for an official visit but their ring was stolen from
the hotel which somehow might have landed on the
road. After seeing the news, Arun thought it best to
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 keep shut and did not return the ring. Is he liable (c) No, the property was not in the possession of
for theft? anyone. Therefore, there is no theft committed
(a) No, the property was not in the possession of by Kabir.
anyone at the time it was picked. Therefore, (d) Yes, there is dishonest intention coupled with
there is no theft committed by Arun. wrongful gain to Kabir and thus he would be
(b) Yes, he had the dishonest intention to liable for theft.
dispossess someone of the valuable ring
causing wrongful loss to such person and would 84. Arun saw an Ivory tree in the garden of his
thus be liable for theft. neighbour. Being fascinated by the beauty of the
(c) No, the ring was originally stolen by someone tree, he chopped off few of the branches of the tree
else and therefore Arun cannot be made liable and carried it home. Is he guilty of the offence of
for the theft committed by someone else. theft?
(d) Yes, Arun was a kleptomaniac and making him (a) No, tree is an immovable property whereas
liable for his acts is a way to improve him and theft is restricted to movable property only and
get rid of the problem. therefore there is no theft committed by Arun.
(b) Yes, as soon as the branches were chopped off
83. There was a graveyard situated near the house of those turned into movable property and thus
Kabir. One day while he was returning from school theft would occur.
he found a shining bracelet over a body about to be (c) No, there was no dishonest intention as the
buried. He went ahead and took that bracelet with reason for taking the branches of the tree was
him. Is he guilty of theft? pure fascination and not ill intention and would
(a) No, there was no dishonest intention as it was therefore not qualify as theft.
taken from a dead body and would thus not (d) Yes, since ivory tree is a valuable tree taking
qualify as theft. away any part of it is an offence under State
(b) Yes, even dead bodies have rights under law laws and Arun would be punished under the
and cannot be disposed of the valuables with same.
which they are buried.

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 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.105): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.85-Q.90): The Karnataka water crisis has affected more than 7,000 villages, 1,100 wards, and 220
talukas thus far. The problem encompasses Mandya and Mysuru districts, where a major Cauvery river watershed
and the Krishnaraja Sagar dam are located, and both important sources of water to Bengaluru. While the capital
has hogged the headlines, the effects of the crisis are wider. Reports have suggested that the distal cause is the
‘insufficient’ rainfall last year, following the surplus in 2022, and the resulting under-‘replenishment’ of the
Cauvery. Erratic rainfall is not new to Karnataka. A Coffee Agro-forestry Network (CAFNET) project, a decade ago,
assessed 60 years of data and found the rainy season over Kodagu had shrunk by two weeks in three decades
while annual rainfall seemed to undulate in a 12-14-year cycle. Yet, the crisis now has come as a surprise thanks to
Bengaluru’s lack of preparation, a travesty for being one of India’s wealthiest urban municipalities and home to
many research institutions. Bengaluru consumes roughly 1,400 million litres a day each from the Cauvery and
groundwater reserves. The groundwater recharge rate is much lower while the Cauvery’s was compromised by
last year’s ‘deficient’ rain. These are deficits only relative to Bengaluru’s demand. The situation is worse further
away from the city’s centre. This is ironic because these areas do not receive piped water from the Cauvery and
depend on groundwater and water tankers, whereas the city was engineered for centuries until the 19th to move
away from water from distant sources and towards its surfeit of lakes. Seasonal lakes have since dwindled, while
perennial lakes have been strangled by concretisation and sewage.

Climate change is a crisis of time. It precipitates non-linear changes that lead to disproportionate, and sometimes
irreversible, outcomes, forcing underprepared governments to mount rapid responses to forces that have been
festering for decades. Even if the erratic rainfall is unrelated to climate change, the phenomenon only promises
more unpredictability. In this regard, Bengaluru, and most Indian cities, will achieve little when they mount
stopgap measures in the event of a crisis and drop the long-term view once the crisis has ended. Rapid growth,
such as Bengaluru has had this century, and short-termism cannot coexist. There is a need for bipartisan solutions
that transcend the change in government every five years; a circular water economy that maximises the utility of
every litre, reducing the city’s dependence on external sources; and, not to forget, a clean and healthy Cauvery.

85. Considering the information given about (b) The city’s expansion has facilitated greater
Bengaluru’s dependence on the Cauvery river and investment in water infrastructure.
groundwater, what might be a likely consequence if (c) Rapid urban growth has contributed to the
the current water management practices continue depletion of local groundwater reserves.
unchanged over the next decade? (d) Urban development policies have effectively
(a) Bengaluru may develop new technologies to managed the city's water scarcity issues.
enhance its water supply significantly.
(b) The groundwater levels in Bengaluru might 87. Which of the following, if true, would most
recover due to natural adaptation processes. strengthen the argument that Bengaluru's lack of
(c) Increased competition and conflict over water preparation for water scarcity is a significant factor
resources may arise within the region. in its current water crisis?
(d) The city could become self-sufficient in water (a) Bengaluru has historically relied on monsoon
through the adoption of rainwater harvesting. rains to meet its water needs.
(b) Recent studies have shown that water
86. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about consumption per capita in Bengaluru is rising.
the relationship between Bengaluru's rapid (c) The city has not updated its water management
urbanization and its water crisis? plans in over a decade.
(a) Urbanization has led to increased water (d) Other cities in Karnataka have not faced water
demand, straining existing water resources. scarcity to the same extent as Bengaluru.

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88. What information would most seriously weaken the (b) The potential environmental impact of
claim that the irregular rainfall patterns in implementing a circular water economy in
Karnataka are solely responsible for the water Bengaluru.
crisis in Bengaluru? (c) The percentage of Bengaluru’s water supply
(a) Data indicating that rainfall in Karnataka has that is currently lost due to leaks and
been consistently above average for the past inefficiencies.
decade. (d) Historical data on Bengaluru’s water crisis and
(b) Studies showing that water usage efficiency in its correlation with population growth.
Bengaluru has improved over the last five
years. 90. What is the main argument of the passage
(c) Evidence that the number of functional lakes in regarding the impact of climate change on water
Bengaluru has halved in the past twenty years. scarcity in Bengaluru?
(d) Reports confirming that neighboring regions (a) Climate change has directly caused the current
have managed their water resources without water scarcity in Bengaluru.
shortages. (b) The unpredictability brought by climate change
exacerbates Bengaluru's water management
89. To evaluate the argument that a circular water challenges.
economy could solve Bengaluru’s water crisis, (c) Climate change necessitates immediate global
which of the following pieces of information would action to prevent water scarcity in Bengaluru.
be most necessary? (d) Bengaluru's water scarcity is a result of poor
(a) The current cost of water transportation and urban planning rather than climate change.
distribution in Bengaluru.

Passage(Q.91 – Q.96): After raising its stakes in the forthcoming general election by declaring a target of 400
seats along with allies, the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is mopping up political partners across the country
to resurrect the National Democratic Alliance (NDA). Just as the BJP is courting allies with alacrity, the putative
alliance of Opposition parties that appeared on the horizon in mid-2023 is unravelling, if at all it ever took any
concrete form. The BJP has announced a tie-up with Chandrababu Naidu’s Telugu Desam Party which had parted
ways in 2018 over the issue of unfulfilled promises for Andhra Pradesh. Mr. Naidu has slowly made his way back
to the NDA by distancing himself from the Opposition. The BJP is assiduously courting the Biju Janata Dal, to revive
their alliance formed between 1998-2009, in Odisha. The Akali Dal is waiting for the farmers’ agitation to blow
over before it could make its next move, potentially to march back to the NDA camp. Efforts are on to bring the All
India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam back into the NDA’s fold in Tamil Nadu. The most striking of all the recent
realignments has been that of Janata Dal (United) chief and Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar, who is now
championing a third consecutive term for the BJP at the Centre, after calling for its defeat in the preceding months.

A corresponding disarray is evident in the Opposition camp, as parties and individual leaders are jumping on the
BJP bandwagon. The emaciated INDIA bloc also suffers from incoherence with allies such as the Trinamool
Congress which, after weeks of talks with the Congress, announced candidates for all 42 seats of West Bengal,
leaving nothing for the principal Opposition party. To add insult to injury, Mamata Banerjee has fielded cricketer
Yusuf Pathan from Baharampur against Congress state President Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury. In Maharashtra, the
Shiv Sena (UBT) has unilaterally announced some candidates, threatening the alliance with the Nationalist
Congress Party (Sharadchandra Pawar) and the Congress. In Kerala, the Left parties and the Congress, two key
proponents of national Opposition unity will be facing off. This usual paradox is starker this time, as Congress
leader Rahul Gandhi and CPI leader Annie Raja are opponents in Wayanad. It is not a coincidence that many of the
leaders and parties that are taking positions convenient for the BJP, if not openly joining hands with it, are facing
investigations by central agencies. This role of the state in influencing party politics in India is a disturbing sign for
the health of Indian democracy, and also of the inglorious records of the many Opposition leaders.

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91. Given the Bharatiya Janata Party's (BJP) efforts to 94. Given the apparent support for the BJP by parties
resurrect the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) and leaders who are facing investigations by central
by courting various political parties across the agencies, which explanation would best resolve the
country, which of the following, if true, would most paradox of these parties and leaders aligning with
strengthen the argument that these efforts are the BJP despite previously opposing it?
likely to be successful in the upcoming general (a) The investigations have uncovered no
election? substantial evidence, diminishing the leaders'
(a) Recent polls show a slight increase in public opposition to the BJP.
support for the NDA compared to last month. (b) These leaders and parties see aligning with the
(b) Key regional parties have expressed interest in BJP as a way to gain political leverage.
policy proposals put forward by the BJP. (c) Public support for these leaders has grown,
(c) Several previously non-aligned parties have encouraging a realignment with the BJP.
initiated formal alliance talks with the BJP. (d) The BJP has offered policy concessions to these
(d) A major party that left the NDA has agreed to parties, enticing them back into the fold.
rejoin based on new terms negotiated by the
BJP. 95. Considering Nitish Kumar's shift in support
towards the BJP for a third consecutive term, after
92. Considering the description of the Opposition's having called for its defeat in previous months,
current state of disarray and infighting, which piece what criterion would be most important in
of evidence would most significantly weaken the evaluating the sincerity of his current support for
assertion that the Opposition could present a the BJP?
unified front against the BJP in the forthcoming (a) The consistency of his public statements in
election? support of the BJP policies.
(a) A key opposition party has publicly criticized (b) The presence of significant policy agreements
the leadership strategy of another opposition between his party and the BJP.
party. (c) His willingness to campaign actively for the BJP
(b) Opposition parties have agreed to a shared in upcoming elections.
platform for only a minority of policy areas. (d) The duration of time since his last public
(c) Internal disputes within the largest opposition criticism of the BJP.
party have led to a split and formation of a new
party. 96. Given the Shiv Sena (UBT)'s unilateral
(d) Recent discussions among opposition parties announcement of candidates in Maharashtra,
have not yet resulted in a formal electoral pact. threatening the alliance with the Nationalist
Congress Party and the Congress, what logical flaw
93. Based on the BJP's strategic alliances and the can be identified in assuming that such a move
opposition's disarray, what can be most reasonably would automatically lead to a stronger position for
inferred about the potential impact on the electoral the BJP in Maharashtra?
landscape in the upcoming general elections? (a) It assumes that all Shiv Sena (UBT) supporters
(a) The BJP is likely to face minimal opposition would switch their allegiance to the BJP.
challenge in key battleground states. (b) It overlooks the possibility of the BJP facing its
(b) Voter turnout will decrease due to own internal divisions and challenges.
disillusionment with the fragmented (c) It disregards the potential for independent
opposition. candidates to influence election outcomes.
(c) The opposition's disarray may lead to the BJP (d) It ignores the capacity of the Nationalist
gaining unprecedented electoral margins. Congress Party and Congress to form a new
(d) Regional parties will become the primary alliance.
opposition in place of national parties.

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 Passage (Q.97-Q.102): The BJP has replaced the old BJP government in Haryana by a new BJP government, with
an election still to happen in election year at the Centre and in the state. In one sense, the swift and sudden
Haryana change of guard, orchestrated from above, isn’t surprising. It could even be said to be part of a now-
familiar BJP playbook — as, in recent years, in Karnataka, Uttarakhand and Gujarat. It speaks of the BJP’s will to be
seen as a change agent even where it is the incumbent, and its unflagging efforts to sidestep and beat back anti-
incumbency, often by its high command springing a surprise not just on the people but also on the BJP’s own.
Manoeuvres such as the overnight replacement of Manohar Lal Khattar by Nayab Singh Saini as Haryana Chief
Minister showcase a party at work and on the move, one that does not let victory blunt its appetite for victory.
After all, alongside the accomplishments in Khattar’s almost 10-year tenure, were several protests and agitations
— be it the Jat reservation stir in 2016, the farmers’ pushback in 2020-21, or the wrestlers’ protests in 2023, a
year that also saw communal violence flare in Nuh. The BJP evidently calculates that a change of chief minister can
help it project a new leaf before the Lok Sabha and assembly polls. But that may not be all there is to it.

Ever since the BJP’s winning spree began in 2014, it has tried to rearrange the conventional caste calculus in
politics-so-far. In Maharashtra, Jharkhand and Haryana, the party gambled on a chief minister from the non-
dominant caste. This was as much a hard-headed strategy to consolidate the anti-dominant caste vote in its own
favour, as it has been an ideological claim of the supremacy of Hindutva over caste. In a party with a high
command more powerful than ever before, it could also be read as an overriding of the tyranny of the caste
imperative by the prerogative of the leader. So it was that when the BJP won Haryana in 2014, Khattar, a Punjabi
Khatri, a caste that falls under the upper caste umbrella, became the first non-Jat chief minister of the state in
nearly two decades — it was seen as an upset, like the swearing-in of Devendra Fadnavis, a Brahmin, in
Maharashtra and of Raghubar Das, a non-tribal, in Jharkhand.

The replacement of Khattar now by an OBC leader may be an acknowledgement that the experiment did not
deliver as the BJP expected it to — incidentally, the same experiment was also seen to flounder for the party in
Maharashtra and Jharkhand. This recognition in Haryana has not led the BJP to abandon its anti-dominant caste
consolidation strategy, but to a recalibration of its tactic by putting forward an OBC face. This can be seen as a step
towards addressing the traditional caste logic that the party has made a point of shunning so far. It is also a direct
counter to the political opponent it disdains — Congress is talking up the OBC cause, and the need for the caste
census, in its own Lok Sabha campaign. And, in between all these lines, another message, with Khattar getting a
Lok Sabha ticket from Karnal. Clearly, the party has a plan for its former chief minister.

97. Which of the following, if true, would most 98. What information would most significantly weaken
strengthen the BJP's strategy of replacing chief the argument that the BJP’s replacement of
ministers as a way to mitigate anti-incumbency Manohar Lal Khattar with Nayab Singh Saini as
sentiments among voters? Haryana Chief Minister was primarily motivated by
(a) The new chief minister has previously the need to address the protests and agitations that
succeeded in significantly reducing occurred during Khattar's tenure?
unemployment rates in his constituency. (a) Nayab Singh Saini has a history of advocating
(b) Opinion polls show a slight increase in the BJP's for policies similar to those of Khattar.
popularity following the announcement of the (b) Recent surveys indicate that the majority of the
new chief minister. protests were due to national, not state policies.
(c) Historical data indicate that states with (c) Protests and agitations have intensified in
frequent leadership changes tend to have Haryana following the announcement of the
higher voter satisfaction ratings. new chief minister.
(d) The new chief minister is from a caste that (d) The BJP had planned to replace the chief
represents a large, previously unengaged voter minister prior to the major protests and
base in Haryana. agitations.

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99. What can be inferred about the BJP’s selection 101. Considering the BJP's historical context of
criteria for chief ministers in states like appointing non-dominant caste leaders as chief
Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Haryana based on its ministers, how should the success of Nayab Singh
historical pattern of appointing leaders from non- Saini's appointment be evaluated in the context of
dominant castes? the party’s broader political and ideological goals?
(a) The party prioritizes administrative experience (a) By measuring the immediate increase in the
over caste identity in its selection process. party's popularity in Haryana.
(b) The BJP aims to challenge traditional caste (b) Through the extent of policy changes
dynamics in politics through its appointments. implemented in the first year of his tenure.
(c) Selection is purely based on the candidate's (c) By assessing the improvement in the party's
popularity among the party's core supporters. performance in subsequent local elections.
(d) The party’s primary concern is aligning with (d) Evaluating the expansion of the BJP's voter base
the central leadership’s ideological vision. among previously unengaged communities.

100. Which piece of evidence from the passage best 102. How does the BJP's strategy of changing chief
supports the claim that the BJP is attempting to ministers to fight anti-incumbency reconcile with
project a new image before upcoming Lok Sabha its ideological stance that prioritizes Hindutva over
and assembly polls by changing its chief minister in traditional caste considerations?
Haryana? (a) It demonstrates the party’s flexibility in
(a) The appointment of an OBC leader as the new adapting to electoral necessities without
chief minister. compromising ideology.
(b) Historical instances of the BJP replacing chief (b) The strategy uses political maneuvering to
ministers in other states. subtly reinforce Hindutva by diversifying
(c) The occurrence of various protests and leadership.
agitations during Khattar's tenure. (c) It highlights the party's pragmatic approach to
(d) Manohar Lal Khattar receiving a Lok Sabha governance, prioritizing electoral success over
ticket from Karnal. ideology.
(d) Changing chief ministers is a tactic to keep the
party’s agenda fresh and appealing to voters.

Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The Supreme Court’s refusal to grant any further time to the State Bank of India (SBI) to
furnish details of those who purchased and parties that encashed electoral bonds since April 2019 has foiled an ill-
advised attempt to seek postponement of the disclosure until after the general election. The SBI has now been
asked to disclose to the Election Commission of India (ECI), by the end of March 12, the names of details of the
purchasers of the bonds, the dates on which these were bought, and denominations. The bank should also disclose
the names of parties that redeemed the bonds, along with dates and denominations. The ECI has to host the
information on its website by March 15. The upshot of the bank’s application for time until June 30 is that it is now
quite clear that it must disclose the data available to it, and need not try and match the names of the donors with
the parties. It appears that the initial directions of the Constitution Bench, as part of its February 15 judgment
invalidating the electoral bonds scheme, had been construed to mean that the SBI was required to match with
exactitude all the purchasers with the recipients. The bank deemed this a “time-consuming” exercise, as the details
were in separate silos and not stored in digital format.

In rejecting the bank’s application for time and keeping the threat of contempt action alive, the Court has sent a
message that it will not brook any further delay. The Bench has also rightly questioned the bank’s silence on what
had been done to comply with the order until the filing of an application for extension of time, just two days before
the March 6 deadline. It is now quite apparent that even manually matching the two datasets could not have taken
as long as the four months the SBI wanted. A question may arise as to whether the voters’ right to information, the
very basis for the Court finding the anonymous donation scheme unconstitutional, will be fulfilled by mere
disclosure of the names of bond purchasers and the parties that received the funds, without authentic data on who
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 donated what amount to which party. Given that the bonds have to be redeemed within a 15-day window, it may
still be possible for a diligent civil society to use the disclosures to match donors and parties based on the
proximity between dates of purchase and redemption. The data may also help unravel whether corporate houses
or individuals benefited from their donations to ruling parties at the Centre and in the States, or if the
contributions were made in response to any threat of investigation and prosecution.

103. What information most strongly supports the (d) The data not being stored in digital format,
decision's effectiveness in enhancing electoral complicating the matching process.
transparency?
(a) The Supreme Court's refusal to delay the 106. How does civil society's potential role validate the
disclosure of bond details until after the court's decision on electoral bonds?
election. (a) By tracking the flow of funds from donors to
(b) SBI's initial challenge in digitally matching bond political parties using public disclosures.
purchasers with recipients due to data silos. (b) Through protests against the anonymity
(c) Mandatory redemption of bonds within a 15- provided by the electoral bonds scheme.
day window allows tracking of political (c) By analyzing and publishing reports on political
donations. funding trends over time.
(d) SBI being asked to disclose bond details to the (d) Civil society's advocacy for transparency in
ECI by a specific deadline. political donations led to legal challenges.

104. According to the passage, what can be inferred 107. What is the Supreme Court's central concern with
about the court's priorities regarding bond pre-election bond disclosure?
disclosures? (a) Ensuring the public is informed about political
(a) Ensuring that bond disclosures do not interfere donations before casting their votes.
with the election process. (b) Preventing any form of delay by the SBI in
(b) The court prioritizes immediate transparency disclosing the bond details.
over logistical challenges faced by the SBI. (c) Upholding the voters' right to information
(c) Matching donors and recipients with exactitude about the sources of political funding.
is deemed essential by the court. (d) Facilitating the matching of bond purchasers
(d) The court values the right to information over with the political parties receiving funds.
the convenience of the SBI.
108. What role does the ECI's action play in the court's
105. What could potentially undermine the goal of decision on bonds?
increasing political funding transparency? (a) Ensuring timely public access to detailed bond
(a) The Supreme Court's fast-tracking of the information before the election.
disclosure process before the general election. (b) Acting as the intermediary for the Supreme
(b) SBI's difficulties in manually matching donors Court's orders to the State Bank of India.
with political parties due to data format issues. (c) Providing a platform for the transparency of
(c) The Election Commission's delay in hosting political donations through its website.
bond information on its website. (d) Verifying the accuracy of the disclosed bond
information by the State Bank of India.

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 SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Direction (Q.109-Q.114): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.

A florist sells six types of flowers viz. Roses, Lilies, Tulips, Orchids, Sunflowers, and Carnations. The ratio of the
number of Roses to Sunflowers sold by the florist is 3:5. The number of Tulips sold by the florist is 15 more than
that of Lilies. The sum of the number of Orchids and Carnations sold by the florist is 200. The number of
Sunflowers sold by the florist is double that of Carnations. The average number of Lilies, Orchids, and Sunflowers
sold by the florist is 250. The total number of flowers sold by the florist is 1495.

109. What is the ratio of the number of Orchids to Lilies

sold by the florist? 112. If the price of each Lily is Rs. 25, find the total
(a) 2:3 (b) 1:8 revenue generated by the florist by selling Lilies.
(c) 1:6 (d) 4:5 (a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 750
(c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 1200
110. The number of Roses sold by the florist is what
percent of the number of Sunflowers sold by the 113. Which of the following flowers sold by the florist is
florist? the maximum?
(a) 80 % (b) 60 % (a) Tulips (b) Lilies
(c) 75 % (d) 50 % (c) Orchids (d) Sunflowers

111. What is the difference between the number of 114. What is the average number of sunflower and roses
Tulips and Carnations sold by the florist? flowers sold?
(a) 265 (b) 250 (a) 280 (b) 300
(c) 285 (d) 300 (c) 240 (d) 320

Direction (Q.115-Q.120): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
P, Q, and R are traveling from Bhopal to Varanasi. Their speeds are in the ratio of 1:2:1 respectively. R left first,
then P, and finally Q. Q began his journey at 10 a.m., passed P at 1 p.m., and then R at 3 p.m. After reaching
Varanasi, Q turned back immediately towards Bhopal and met R again at 10 p.m. on the same day.

115. Q reached Varanasi at:

(a) 7.45 p.m. (b) 8.15 p.m. 119. If the distance between Bhopal and Varanasi is 800
(c) 9.30 p.m. (d) 9.15 p.m. km and the speed of Q is 160 km/h, then find the
difference between the time taken by P and Q to
116. R starts from Bhopal at: reach Varanasi from Bhopal.
(a) 4 a.m. (b) 5 a.m. (a) 5 hours (b) 8 hours
(c) 7 a.m. (d) 8 a.m. (c) 10 hours (d) 6 hours

117. Q meets P on his way back to Bhopal, at 120. If R's speed were 80 km/h, and P, Q, and R left for
(a) 12 midnight (b) 11.20 p.m. Varanasi from Bhopal at 8 a.m., 1 p.m., and 9 a.m.
(c) 10.40 p.m. (d) 10.20 p.m. respectively, then at what time did Q pass R on the
way to Varanasi?
118. P starts from Bhopal at: (a) 4 p.m. (b) 5 p.m.
(a) 6 a.m. (b) 5 a.m. (c) 7 p.m. (d) 8 p.m.
(c) 7 a.m. (d) 8 a.m.

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 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE existing theories, without any space for seeking the truth;
thus, making us confident misinformed knowledge
1. (b) To reach the answer, we must first understand that the absorbers. Option (b) is the apt answer.
author contradicts 'this idea'. The answer is spread across Option (a) is more an introduction to the later elaboration
the paragraph in which the author clears a common of the author's viewpoint.
misconception of the idea of evolution by stating that Option (c) is an example cited by the author to prove his
evolution is a natural selection based on random point.
differences acted upon by environmental factors too and Option (d) is the prop (the research) used by the author to
not some organised and strategical processes attributed prove his point.
to evolution. Going by the author's point of you, the idea 6. (d) The error lies in option (d). The preposition ‘with’ should
that the author contradicts is given in option B. i) is the be replaced with ‘in’ as the verb ‘imbued’(inculcate; infix)
point of view taken by the author. ii) and iii) are the takes in as a preposition. When we imbue an idea in
common theories that the author disagrees with. someone’s minds, we are letting the idea permeate and to
2. (c) The expression 'so far, so good' means that something (a remain there permanently.
project or an activity) has preceded well up the present. 7. (d) The fourth sentence of the second paragraph says, ‘This
The answer to the question stem lies in the preceding process, known as bioremediation, uses living
sentences of the paragraph where the author mentions an organisms like plants, fungi and microbes to break
experiment conducted by Tony Yates and Edmund Marek down pollutants, including crude oil.’ Hence, d) is the
published that tracked the effect of high school biology correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect as
classes on 536 Oklahoma high school students' Bioremediation has nothing to do with revitalizing the
understanding of evolutionary theory. After the activity, water bodies. Option (b) is incorrect as the mention is
the student's confidence concerning the Evolution theory of eliminating oil pollutants and not plastic pollution.
showed more accuracy. This is the result that the author Option (c) is ruled out as Bioremediation is not the
has been satisfied with till now. Nothing can be said of the process of contaminating the soil, rather
later outcome of the experiment. Based on this, Option C decontaminating the soil.
sums it up nicely. 8. (a) The last sentence of the second paragraph says, "The
Option A, prima facie, looks to be the answer, but the course Rodriguez attends is called "Guardians of the
expression 'so far, so good, defies option A. The Soil", which is an introduction to permaculture-based
expression 'so far, so good' should not have been bioremediation for low-income communities, founded
mentioned if the author is convinced. by local resident and independent researcher, Lexie
Option B is ruled out as the expression is not in response Gropper." Hence, a) is the correct answer. Option (b) is
to dissatisfaction with the result. incorrect as Galo Rodriguez was the farmer who found
Option D is false as the author nowhere alleges the oil on his farm. Options (c) and (d) find no mention in
'superficiality of the responses. the passage.
3. (a) While options (a), (b) and (c) all our meanings of the 9. (a) The fifth sentence of the second paragraph says, "There
word 'bedevils', but in the context of the passage, option are several ways this could happen, but most of the
(a) is most suited as the meaning of the word 'confound' is hard work to break down crude oil happens below
perplex or confuse. Since the context is with regard to the ground, where microorganisms are concentrated
student's conforming to the existing theories, any around the roots of plants and mineralise, or
deviation in the concept can confuse the students. Harass decompose, the crude components, making it easier for
maliciously is too strong a word concerning the context in plants to take up." Hence, a) is the correct answer. The
which 'bedevil' has been used, making option (b) rest of the options do not find a mention in the passage.
incorrect. 'Bewitch' (spellbound) in option (c) is another 10. (a) The third sentence of the last paragraph says, "In 1993,
meaning of the word 'bedevil' but is unsuitable in the thousands of community members filed a lawsuit
context. Option (d) is the antonym of the said word. against the company, saying it did not perform any
4. (b) To reach the answer, we first need to understand the adequate clean up and its drilling installations
meaning of the adverb 'tellingly'. It means having such continued to contaminate the area, and demanded they
force as to compel serious attention and usually pay for remediation." Hence, a) is the correct answer.
acceptance; significantly or conclusively. From the Option (b) is incorrect as it is not mentioned in the
meaning, it is evident that option (b) is the most fitting passage. Options (c) and (d) do not find support in the
answer as the most striking result was a drop in the "I passage.
don't know response'. 11. (c) Statement i) is true; the sixth sentence of the first
Options (a) changes the meaning. Option (c) is contrary, paragraph says, "The oil filled his stream, killed of all of
and Option (d) is far-fetched as an answer. his fish and contaminated the only fresh water source
5. (b) The above question stem asks us to derive the conclusion he used for his cattle."
from the given options that are the author's point of view. Statement ii) is true; It is the extraction of the original
The conclusions are either found in the beginning with sentence of the passage. Refer to the line,’ Ecuador's
the reasoning presented later on or are usually located northern Amazon rainforest has seen heavy oil
towards the end. The author towards the endpoints contamination since rich oil fields were discovered here
towards the faulty education that instils conformity to the in the 1960s.’

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 Statement iii) is incorrect; the first sentence of the mentions that gym was previously used as a lounge.
second paragraph says, " "For 10 or 11 years, this area Options (b) and (c) are incorrect because storeroom
didn't produce anything, so we abandoned it," says the and studio were not in the house, and neither some
farmer." other room was used as a studio or storeroom.
Hence, c) is the correct answer. Option (a) does not 17. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer. A red carpet and
consider statement ii, which is also true; therefore, is bright pink feather flapper girl lamp are catching the
incorrect. Option (b) does not take into consideration eye of the author. And the word, ‘vie’ means, as if these
statement I, which is a true statement; therefore, is items are competing for the author’s attention. What
incorrect. Option (d) takes statement iii, which is the author wants to communicate is that the author is
untrue; therefore, is incorrect. drawn towards each décor item that draws attention by
12. (b) Both options (b) and (d) are similar in meaning to the its colour. Option (a) is incorrect, as the lines do not
word ‘pungent’, except option (b) is a better choice as mention whether the author found the décor to have
the passage uses pungent with respect to gasoline that incorporated the newest technology, ideas or features.
has a distinct smell. A distinct smell means one can Option (b) is incorrect, as there is no mention of ‘child-
identify the oil; therefore, it has to be strong enough. like simplicity’ anywhere in the passage, let alone
‘Stimulating’ is a positive meaning of the word through the lines. Option (c) is an extreme reaction that
‘pungent’, which does not go with the theme. Putrid in does not find support in the given lines.
option (a) is incorrect as it is a smell of decomposing or 18. (d) Keen is an adjective which means having or showing
a decaying flesh; rotten. If the farmer was able to eagerness or enthusiasm. Therefore, option (a) cannot
identify the oil as Gasoline, it means that the oil was in be replaced. Since it’s an adjective, we need an adjective
its more or less same state. Option (c) is contrary to the to replace it. Option (a) talks about Embrace which is a
meaning. verb meaning accept (a belief theory, or change)
13. (c) Refer to the line, ‘It is a hand-me-down from Elton John, willingly and enthusiastically. Option (b) talks about
an old friend of the previous owner, Janet Street-Porter, ‘abate’ which is a verb, meaning become less intense or
who commissioned David Adjaye to create Fog House.’ widespread. Option (c) is an adverb. Options (a) and
The third sentence of the fourth paragraph talks about (b) are verbs, and option (c) is an adverb; hence,
an old friend of Janet Street- Porter. Option (c) is the eliminated. Option (d) which talks about ‘avid’ meaning
correct answer as per this sentence. Option (a) is not having or showing a keen interest in or enthusiasm for
the correct answer because paragraph one says that the something. It is an adjective as well as synonym of keen.
house was just earlier occupied by Marc Quinn. This Hence, Option d is the correct answer.
does not show any relation between him and Janet 19. (c) In the passage, ‘diverse population’ is presented as a
Street-Porter. Option (b) is incorrect because Broke scenario where there is a lack of common background
Stuart is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Similarly, or goal. The other options mention a group that can be
option (d) is incorrect. The house does belong to Della homogeneous. Homogeneous means of the same kind.
Burnside, but there is no apparent connection between Option (a) is homogenous because it talks about
the owner and Janet Street-Porter. Therefore, option collective effort of scientists. Option (b) is
(c) is the correct answer. homogeneous because again it collaborates the
14. (c) The first half of the first paragraph talks about the fact scientists together for validity of their findings.
about Della Burnside’s old house. Referring the para Similarly, in option (d) group of teenagers together
option (c) is accurate and correct answer. Option (a) is become homogeneous. Only option (c) has a possibility
incorrect because the passage talks about the kitchen, of a heterogeneous group (eclectic fields). Hence,
but not about whether the kitchen was big or small. option (c) is the correct answer.
Option (b) is incorrect because in the passage there is 20. (d) In the passage it is stated that natural selection is a
no mention of swimming pool. Option (d) is incorrect ‘process of non-random elimination’, based on
because it explains the facts about the new house and directional and adaptive changes. Refer to the lines,
not the old house. Refer to the lines, ‘"They suit my ‘The concept of natural selection had remarkable power
personality better than my old house, which was for explaining directional and adaptive changes.’ And,
more restrained." That was a late Victorian ‘…its mechanism is simply the elimination of inferior
property, also in Clerkenwell, central London, and it individuals. This process of non-random elimination…’
was "dark, with lots of wood panelling and traditional Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a),
furniture".’ while true, cannot form the basis of natural selection, as
15. (b) The last sentence of the third paragraph mentions that it is not a core concept, but merely a part of the
"it's what you get if you buy through the design-led philosophy. The other options (b) and (c) are logically
estate agency The modern House, as Burnside did.” wrong as they are not pertinent to the basic
Option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is not the architecture of natural selection.
correct answer because it is in the context of what 21. (a) In the given passage look at, ‘Darwin was a holist: for
author is talking about i.e., his new and old house and him the object, or target, of selection was primarily the
not the name of the estate agency. Option (c) and (d) individual as a whole. The geneticists, almost from
are incorrect because they are nowhere mentioned in 1900 on, in a rather reductionist spirit preferred to
the passage. consider the gene the target of evolution. In the past 25
16. (d) As per the last sentence of the second paragraph and years, however, they have largely returned to the
the first sentence of the third paragraph, option (d) is Darwinian view that the individual is the principal
the correct answer. The gym area was used as a lounge. target’. That existence and transformation of the
Option (a) is incorrect because the passage clearly individual will shape the species rather than other way

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 round is a huge break in traditional thought. The 25. (a) The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
individual is thus offered a hitherto unrealized (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing
responsibility of becoming noble rather than being of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries
born noble as a virtue of its species. Therefore, option namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi
(a) is correct. The other options are factually incorrect. Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the
Option (b) is incorrect because the explanation Founder Members of the Organization.
nowhere talks about aesthetics. Similarly, option (c) is These countries were later joined by Qatar (1961),
not the shift in existential perception; it is relevant to Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), the United Arab
the geneticist’s philosophy. Therefore, option (c) is Emirates (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971),
eliminated. Option (d) is wrong because passage talks Ecuador (1973), Gabon (1975), Angola (2007),
about the individual responsibility and not how Equatorial Guinea (2017) and Congo (2018).
individual becomes determined. Ecuador suspended its membership in December 1992,
22. (c) In the passage it is mentioned that, ‘By adopting natural rejoined OPEC in October 2007, but decided to
selection, Darwin settled the several-thousand year old withdraw its membership of OPEC effective 1 January
argument among philosophers over chance or 2020. Indonesia suspended its membership in January
necessity. Change on the earth is the result of both, the 2009, reactivated it again in January 2016, but decided
first step being dominated by randomness, the second to suspend its membership once more at the 171st
by necessity’. ‘Chance or necessity are two side of the Meeting of the OPEC Conference on 30 November 2016.
natural selection, displaying a contrast; therefore Gabon terminated its membership in January 1995.
option (c) is the natural answer. Option (a) gets negated However, it rejoined the Organization in July 2016.
because of this, as ‘homogenous means one similar core Qatar terminated its membership on 1 January 2019.
concept. Option (b) and (d) have no bearing on either Angola withdrew its membership effective 1 January
the passage or the given question. They are completely 2024.
irrelevant. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. 26. (b) The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
23. (d) In the passage it is given that, ‘A most important (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing
principle of the new biological philosophy, of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries
undiscovered for almost a century after the publication namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi
of On the Origin of Species, is the dual nature of Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the
biological processes. These activities are governed both Founder Members of the Organization.
by the universal laws of physics and chemistry and by a These countries were later joined by Qatar (1961),
genetic program, itself the result of natural selection, Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), the United Arab
which has moulded the genotype for millions of Emirates (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971),
generations. The causal factor of the possession of a Ecuador (1973), Gabon (1975), Angola (2007),
genetic program is unique to living organisms, and it is Equatorial Guinea (2017) and Congo (2018).
totally absent in the inanimate world’. The significant Ecuador suspended its membership in December 1992,
shift is that the earlier theory of evolution discarded rejoined OPEC in October 2007, but decided to
inanimate world as a functional to the evolution was withdraw its membership of OPEC effective 1 January
discarded by the new biological philosophy, that 2020. Indonesia suspended its membership in January
considered the non-living as part of the evolution 2009, reactivated it again in January 2016, but decided
process, making option (d) the natural choice as the to suspend its membership once more at the 171st
answer. Option (a) is factually incorrect and not Meeting of the OPEC Conference on 30 November 2016.
supported in the passage. Option (b) has no relevance Gabon terminated its membership in January 1995.
to the dual nature of biological process. Hence, it is However, it rejoined the Organization in July 2016.
incorrect. Option (c) is also wrong because rocks and Qatar terminated its membership on 1 January 2019.
stones have no relevance with the facts and origin of Angola withdrew its membership effective 1 January
species. 2024.
24. (b) The evolution theory emphasises on variety and on 27. (c) The Secretary General is the legally authorized
indeterminacies. A species thrives when these two representative of the Organization and Chief Executive
factors are achieved. Even ignoring the philosophical of the Secretariat. In this capacity, he administers the
possibilities of these concepts, just on the basis of the affairs of the Organization in accordance with the
survival of a species, random concepts are preferable directions of the Board of Governors.
over rigid laws. Hence, option (b) is correct. Looking at The Conference appoints the Secretary General for a
the facts, option (a) cannot be correct because it does period of three years, which may be renewed once for
not talk about variety instead talks about stability in the same period. This appointment takes place upon
long run. Option (c) is incorrect because facts says that nomination by Member Countries.
on the basis of survival of species, random concepts are Haitham Al Ghais is the current Secretary General of
preferable over rigid laws and it does not match the OPEC.
statement in option c. Option (d) is an illogical 28. (d) Angola would join other nations with relatively small
statement and hence, should be discarded. oil output that have left in recent years.
Qatar in 2019 quit OPEC to focus on gas, which some
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL analysts interpreted as a swipe at Saudi Arabia, the oil
KNOWLEDGE exporting group's de facto leader.
Ecuador left in 2020 and Indonesia suspended its
membership in 2016.

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 Some small producers have also joined OPEC in recent 35. (b) Mitra Shakti Exercise is a bilateral joint military
years. Equatorial Guinea became a full member in 2017 exercise between the armies of India and Sri Lanka. It is
and Gabon re-joined in 2016. Congo became a full one of the important joint military exercises that India
member in 2018. conducts with other nations. SLINEX (Sri Lanka India
29. (a) The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Naval Exercise) is a series of naval exercises between
(OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy.
of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries 36. (b) Sirimavo Bandaranaike was the first woman Prime
namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Minister of any country of the world she became the
Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka in 1960.
Founder Members of the Organization. 37. (a) According to the Ministry of Earth Science, the
These countries were later joined by Qatar (1961), Samudrayaan Mission is expected to be realised by year
Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), the United Arab 2026. The mission is aimed at sending three personnel
Emirates (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), to 6000-metre depth in a vehicle called ‘MATSYA 6000’
Ecuador (1973), Gabon (1975), Angola (2007), for the exploration of deep-sea resources like minerals.
Equatorial Guinea (2017) and Congo (2018). ‘MATSYA 6000’ vehicle is being designed and
Ecuador suspended its membership in December 1992, developed by National Institute of Ocean Technology
rejoined OPEC in October 2007, but decided to (NIOT), Chennai under Ministry of Earth Sciences. It has
withdraw its membership of OPEC effective 1 January an endurance of 12 hours under normal operation and
2020. Indonesia suspended its membership in January 96 hours in case of emergency for human safety. It is
2009, reactivated it again in January 2016, but decided India’s first unique manned ocean mission and is a part
to suspend its membership once more at the 171st of the Rs 6000-crores Deep Ocean Mission.
Meeting of the OPEC Conference on 30 November 2016. 38. (c) According to the Ministry of Earth Science, the
30. (b) Ecuador suspended its membership in December 1992, Samudrayaan Mission is expected to be realised by year
rejoined OPEC in October 2007, but decided to 2026. The mission is aimed at sending three personnel
withdraw its membership of OPEC effective 1 January to 6000-metre depth in a vehicle called ‘MATSYA 6000’
2020. Indonesia suspended its membership in January for the exploration of deep-sea resources like minerals.
2009, reactivated it again in January 2016, but decided ‘MATSYA 6000’ vehicle is being designed and
to suspend its membership once more at the 171st developed by National Institute of Ocean Technology
Meeting of the OPEC Conference on 30 November 2016. (NIOT), Chennai under Ministry of Earth Sciences. It has
Gabon terminated its membership in January 1995. an endurance of 12 hours under normal operation and
However, it rejoined the Organization in July 2016. 96 hours in case of emergency for human safety. It is
Qatar terminated its membership on 1 January 2019. India’s first unique manned ocean mission and is a part
Angola withdrew its membership effective 1 January of the Rs 6000-crores Deep Ocean Mission.
2024 39. (c) Deep Ocean Mission: It was approved in June 2021 by
This means that, currently, the Organization has a total the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It aims to explore the
of 12 Member Countries. deep ocean for resources, develop deep-sea
The OPEC Statute distinguishes between the Founder technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources, and
Members and Full Members - those countries whose support the Blue Economy Initiatives of the Indian
applications for membership have been accepted by the Government. The cost of the Mission has been
Conference. estimated at Rs. 4,077 crores over a five-year period
31. (a) The 13th Amendment to Sri Lanka's constitution was and will be implemented in phases.
made after the signing of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord 40. (a) India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy for
between Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and President J R Sustainable Development: It was inaugurated jointly by
Jayewardene, on July 29, 1987, in Colombo. Under the both the countries in 2020 to develop and follow up
1978 constitution, Sri Lanka had a unitary government, joint initiatives between the two countries. Sagarmala
with all powers in the hands of the Centre. Project: The Sagarmala project is the strategic initiative
32. (a) Ranil Sriyan Wickremesinghe is a Sri Lankan politician for port-led development through the extensive use of
who is the 9th and current president of Sri Lanka. He IT enabled services for modernization of ports. O-
also holds several ministerial positions, including the SMART: India has an umbrella scheme by the name of
Minister of Finance, Minister of Defence, Minister of O-SMART which aims at regulated use of oceans,
Technology, and Minister of Women, Child Affairs, and marine resources for sustainable development.
Social Empowerment. Integrated Coastal Zone Management: It focuses on
33. (c) The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is conservation of coastal and marine resources, and
laid down in Article 368 which says that an amendment improving livelihood opportunities for coastal
of the Constitution can be initiated only by the communities etc. National Fisheries Policy: India has a
introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of National Fisheries policy for promoting 'Blue Growth
Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the Initiative' which focuses on sustainable utilization of
state legislatures. fisheries wealth from marine and other aquatic
34. (a) The LTTE was established in 1976 by Velupillai resources.
Prabhakaran as the successor to an organization he had 41. (a) Kiren Rijiju is an Indian politician from Arunachal
formed earlier in the 1970s. The LTTE grew to become Pradesh who is the Cabinet Minister of Earth Sciences
one of the world's most sophisticated and tightly in the Government of India since 2023 and a member of
organized insurgent groups. During the 1970s the the parliament in Lok Sabha from Arunachal West since
organization carried out a number of guerrilla attacks. 2014 and from 2004 to 2009.

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 According to the Ministry of Earth Science, the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in the Punjab region (now
Samudrayaan Mission is expected to be realised by year in Punjab state) of India, killing several hundred people
2026. The mission is aimed at sending three personnel and wounding many hundreds more.
to 6000-metre depth in a vehicle called ‘MATSYA 6000’ 48. (a) The High Commission of India in London is the
for the exploration of deep-sea resources like minerals. diplomatic mission of India in the United Kingdom. It is
‘MATSYA 6000’ vehicle is being designed and located in India House on Aldwych, between Bush
developed by National Institute of Ocean Technology House, what was Marconi House (now Citibank) and
(NIOT), Chennai under Ministry of Earth Sciences. It has Australia House. It faces both the London School of
an endurance of 12 hours under normal operation and Economics and King's College London.
96 hours in case of emergency for human safety. It is 49. (a) The Central Government has proposed empowering
India’s first unique manned ocean mission and is a part post offices employees to open or detain any item
of the Rs 6000-crores Deep Ocean Mission. during transmission in the interest of national security
42. (a) A National Institute of Ocean Technology or public safety. It also prescribed immunity for post
The Samudrayaan mission is a testament to India's offices employees from liability in providing services,
innovation, being developed by the National Institute of but with conditions.
Ocean Technology (NIOT) in Chennai. It stands as These provisions are part of the Post Office Bill, 2023,
India's inaugural manned ocean exploration mission, as introduced in the Rajya Sabha this week. It “seeks to
signifying a significant leap in scientific achievement. repeal the Indian Post Office Act, 1898, and to
43. (a) Anthony Norman Albanese is an Australian politician consolidate and amend the law relating to the Post
serving as the 31st and current prime minister of Office in India”.
Australia since 2022. He has been leader of the Another provision says the Post Office and its officers
Australian Labor Party since 2019 and the Member of shall be exempt from any liability by reason of any loss,
Parliament for the division of Grayndler since 1996. misdelivery, delay or damage in course of any service
44. (c) In early 2007, Prime Minister Abe proposed the Quad, provided by it.
or "Quadrilateral Initiative", under which India would 50. (b) Authority to deliver the item to customs or concerned
join a formal multilateral dialogue with Japan, the authority
United States and Australia. (ii) An officer of the Post Office will be empowered to
Chinese belligerence, especially its blatant muscle deliver an item, received from domestic or
flexing on Asian nations, it is evolving into a strategic international source, to customs or any concerned
security dialogue between Australia, India, Japan, and authority in case there is suspicion of duty evasion or if
the United States. The US spearheads the Quad and it is prohibited under the law.
therefore, the strategic arrangement is sometimes 51. (b) Acting fraudulently or wilfully causing loss, delay, or
being described as an Asian NATO. In response, both misdelivery
Russia and China have also formed an anti-Quad (2) No officer of the Post Office shall incur any liability
grouping comprising of Russia, China, Pakistan, Iran with regard to a service provided by the Post Office,
and Turkey. unless the officer has acted fraudulently or wilfully
45. (c) Indian Navy Task Group comprising IN Ships Shivalik caused loss, delay or mis-delivery of service.
and Kadmatt, under the Command of Flag Officer 52. (d) The Department of Posts comes under the Ministry of
Commanding, Eastern Fleet, Rear Admiral Tarun Sobti, Communications. The Postal Service Board, the apex
VSM is participating in the 4th edition of AUSINDEX management body of the Department, comprises the
from 06 to 10 Sep 21. Royal Australian Navy (RAN) Chairman and six Members. The six members of the
Anzac Class Frigate, HMAS Warramunga which Board hold portfolios of Personnel, Operations,
participated in Exercise MALABAR along with the IN Technology, Postal Life Insurance, Banking & DBT and
units is also part of the exercise. This edition of planning respectively. The Additional Secretary and
AUSINDEX includes complex surface, sub-surface and Financial Advisor to the Department is a permanent
air operations between ships, submarines, helicopters invitee to the Board. The Board is assisted by a senior
and Long Range Maritime Patrol Aircraft of the staff officer of the Directorate as Secretary to the Board.
participating Navies. Deputy Directors General, Directors and Assistant
46. (c) George VI was King of the United Kingdom and the Directors General provide the necessary functional
Dominions of the British Commonwealth from 11 support for the Board at the Headquarters.
December 1936 until his death. He was the last
Emperor of India and the first Head of the SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Commonwealth. George VI served as king of the United
Kingdom during World War II and was an important 53. (c) Correct answer is Option (c) as there appears to be no
symbolic leader. In the 1930s, King George VI, a strong apparent injury by the act of Dr. Samadhan and hence
supporter of British Prime Minister Neville Avanti’s claim for negligence will fail. The passage has
Chamberlain, hoped that Chamberlain would be able to clearly stated that the breach of duty must result in
stave off a war with Nazi Germany. In 1938, some injury. According to the present set of factual
Chamberlain met with German Fuhrer Adolf Hitler and matrix, no injury to Avanti by administering of the
signed the Munich Pact. He was succeeded by Queen other vaccine has been highlighted and in the absence
Elizabeth II in 1952. of any injury, no liability for negligence can be made
47. (a) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, incident on April 13, 1919, out. Option (a) will therefore be incorrect. Option (b) is
in which British troops fired on a large crowd of incorrect as the liability for negligence can be invoked
unarmed Indians in an open space known as the when an injury has resulted from the breach of duty

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 which makes the option incorrect. Option (d) is burden of proof but merely gave the accused an
incorrect as it fails to provide ay logically deductible opportunity to be heard, as opposed to the third
answer to the question posed. passage above. Option (a) is incorrect as there is no
54. (a) Correct answer is Option (a) as the injury caused to mention of the court being obliged to give A an
Avanti is not foreseeable and therefore no damages can opportunity of being heard in the passage above.
be claimed for administering the ‘wrong’ vaccine. The Option (b) is incorrect as the burden of proof has not
passage has clearly enlisted foreseeability as one of the been shifted here, but a mere opportunity of being
criterions for invoking liability for negligence which heard has been given. Option (c) is incorrect as the
according to the present set of facts is not foreseeable court cannot only hear one side and not hear the other,
as the fainting was not a direct foreseeable outcome of as that would be against common legal reasoning.
administering other vaccine than the one administered 59. (d) The case above shows that the prosecution has failed to
during the first dosage. Option (b) is incorrect as it fails satisfy the extent of proof required here, i.e. beyond
to describe and answer the question posed and no reasonable doubt, and merely due to his history, the
direct impact of vaccine has any bearings on her accused is being subjected to a contravention of law in
fainting. Option (c) is incorrect as it is independent of having to prove his innocence, as has been provided for
what has been provided under the passage and fails to in the passage in para three. He is not required to prove
correlate between the passage and the factual matrix his innocence unless prosecution proves the case
and also due to reasons stated above. Option (d) is beyond reasonable doubt. On same reasoning option
incorrect, as despite agreeing to the fact of breach of (d) stands incorrect. Thus, option (d)is correct. Option a
duty to be true, if no foreseeable injury has been caused is incorrect as there is no mention of court bias in the
to the other party, then no liability for negligence can passage above, and the same cannot be inferred in the
be invoked. absence of any principle thereto. Option b is incorrect
55. (d) Correct answer is Option (d) as Avanti had exercised all as the accused being a repeat offender does not have
reasonable care and caution as is expected from a any bearing on the burden of proof being shifted on the
reasonable person and therefore would not be liable for accused here.
negligence. As provided under the factual matrix, 60. (a) The facts here clearly stand to show that the court
Avanti had exercised all reasonable care by placing the failed to appreciate the extent of proof, i.e. beyond
scraps at the back of the house and the injury to Raju reasonable doubt, as provided above in para six, and
was not foreseeable. Option (b) and Option (c) are has prematurely declared its verdict, and the same is in
incorrect on the same grounds. Option (a) is incorrect contravention of the law provided above. Option b is
as it would be incorrect to state that there would be no incorrect as there is no mention of gun-jumping and its
liability for injury caused to trespassers and there could meaning in the passage or the facts above. Option c is
be events when due care and caution is required to be incorrect as there is no mention of discretion in such
exercised for even trespassers and such a blanket decisions as being saved by the court in deciding the
statement would be incorrect. guilt of the parties, and the mention of proof being
56. (b) Correct answer is Option (b) as there was a breach of proved beyond reasonable doubt has been made in
duty on the part of the municipality which resulted in considering such matters, which has not been satisfied
the injury to Raju and therefore they would be liable for here. Thus, option c is incorrect. Option d is incorrect as
negligence. There was a duty enshrined on municipality the court has clearly erred, even though trying to
to others which it failed to exercise by failure to put the expeditiously dispose of the trial, in not appreciating
roadblocks/ warnings and such breach of duty resulted the extent of proof correctly.
in causing injury to Raju which would not have 61. (a) Since the passage above shows that section 106 of IEA
occurred otherwise. Option (a) and Option (d) are is meant to obtain particular facts from the knowledge
incorrect as it is independent of what has been of the accused, , as provided in paras one and two when
provided under the passage and fails to correlate any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person,
between the passage and the factual matrix. Option (c) the burden of proving that fact is upon him. Here facts
is incorrect as the injury to Raju was foreseeable and clearly states that guilt has been proven beyond
therefore the statement is incorrect. reasonable doubt thus burden will shift on accused to
57. (a) Correct answer is Option (a) and only the claim with prove his innocence. On same reasoning option B stands
respect to injury to Raju will succeed and the claim as incorrect because presumption of innocence implied guilt
to cardiac arrest to grandmother will fail as it is not is proved until he proves his innocence and on same
foreseeable. The passage has clearly stated that reasoning option D also stands incorrect. Option c is
‘foreseeability’ is one of the criterion to invoke liability incorrect as there is no mention of the court invoking
for negligence. The cardiac arrest of the grandmother the section on its own without the same being prayed
was clearly not foreseeable by any reasonable person for.
and the claim of Raju would succeed due to breach of 62. (b) As the passage above is clearly mentioned to extend to
duty of the Municipality. Option (b) and Option (d) are criminal laws and proceedings thereto, and since the
incorrect on the same grounds. Option (c) is incorrect case and the factual matrix here pertain to civil
as it is independent of what has been provided under proceeding, the same principles would not apply to the
the passage and fails to correlate between the passage proceedings here. Option a is incorrect as the court
and the factual matrix. being empowered to get to the bottom of all matters is
58. (d) As the facts suggest above, the prosecution has proven untenable and not relevant here. Option c is incorrect
the facts beyond reasonable doubt and adequately so, as the IEA has not been specified as being applicable to
and thus, the court, in hearing A, did not shift the only criminal proceedings, the same cannot be assumed

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 in the absence of any inference. Option d is incorrect as 68. (c) There is nothing in the facts that suggests that all the
the court has not been specified as being a criminal three accused had the chance to pre-arrange or a
court and the extent of guilt here has not been provided chance so that there could be a meeting of minds. Thus,
for. it cannot be said that there was common intention.
63. (d) As the passage above, throughout the scheme of the Thus, option C is correct. On the same reasoning as
law, does not mention the types of workers included there was no pre meeting of mind thus options A and B
therein, an inference, whether for or adverse cannot be stands incorrect. As C is the correct answer with correct
drawn in discerning the nature of the employment. As reasoning hence option D is eliminated.
such, while the other options may contain apt 69. (c) Option A is incorrect as in the question liability of A and
reasoning, the same is not applicable here, as no B is asked. 2nd para last 5th line states that it might
provision of law or delineation in different types of happen during the occurrence of the act as well. The
employment is mentioned above. intention is curated at any given point in the action.
64. (d) As mentioned in the question above, a similar reasoning Usually, an overt act would be sufficient to show that
is applied here. Since the passage of law only talks there is common intention. Last line also states that the
about the interest on the claim adjudicated to be paid, law requires that the accused must be present on the
and not the sum of the compensation itself, the same spot during the occurrence of the crime and take part in
would amount to not having been provided above. its commission; it is enough if he is present somewhere
Option A is incorrect as there is no mention of medical nearby. On this reasoning Along with A, B shall also be
expenditures in the passage above, and only interest on liable for the very fact that B was waiting for A to stab
compensation has been specified. Option B is incorrect and then run away with him in a jeep shows that there
as there is also no mention of the company detecting was a meeting of minds and thus common intention
the injury, and the mention of interest on compensation was formed. Thus option C is correct and on same
does not include the same. Option C is incorrect as the reasoning option B is incorrect.
compensation to be paid, while could be construed in 70. (d) Option D is correct, para last 5th line states that it might
the reasoning herein, has still not been provided in the happen during the occurrence of the act as well. The
passage above. intention is curated at any given point in the action.
65. (c) As the third para mentions, the rate of interest under Usually, an overt act would be sufficient to show that
the Workmen Compensation Act, is to be paid at 12% there is common intention. Last line also states that the
p.a. or at a higher rate , here interest of 11.75% is law requires that the accused must be present on the
imposed which is within the limit. Thus, is correct. On spot during the occurrence of the crime and take part in
the same reasoning options B and D stands incorrect. its commission; it is enough if he is present somewhere
Option A is incorrect as the interest mentioned in the nearby. On this reasoning it cannot be said that mere
passage above is not the limit it may exceed 12% p.a. or joining of Chetan in the escape jeep amounts to meeting
at a higher rate but shall not exceed the lending rates of of minds or pre-meditation. There was no chance of a
any scheduled banks specified and it does not menton common intention being developed with Chetan who
about the compound interest thus no presumption can was not aware of the stabbing in this case. Thus option
be made. A is incorrect. On the same reasoning the correct
66. (a) As the first and second paras, along with the law answer is (d). Option B is incorrect as Boru was waiting
specified in the third and fourth paras suggests, the right next to the place of murder on a jeep so that they
indication that the interest is to payable is judicially can run away so common intention was formed on the
held when the employer fails to pay the amount for spot during the occurrence of the crime. Hence option B
more than 30 days after the incident, however, since is incorrect. Option C does not provide appropriate
here there was no delay at all, no claim for interest can legal reasoning and passage is silent on self –defence.
anyways be made. Option B is incorrect as the rate of Thus it stands cancelled.
interest specified therein is for when the claim is 71. (d) Since both A and B were adults (as they loved each
delayed beyond 30 days. Option C is incorrect as the other for 25 years now), they had the right to run away
interest has not been specified it might exceed 12% . and marry each other. Thus, no criminal act had been
Option D is incorrect as the claim, even though, was committed in the instant case.The correct answer is
adjudicated quickly, the option inherently does not option (d).Options A and C are incorrect as 4 th line of
possess correct reasoning. the 2nd para clearly states that for common intention
67. (b) As the passage above, in the third para, clearly states one of the basic most requirements is that there must
that the passage of more than one month (30 days), be some criminal act. In present situation there is no
which has occurred here, would warrant a payment of criminal act thus stands incorrect. Option B is incorrect
atleast 12% interest on the amount payable from the as the reasoning is not correct. They both have
date of the injury, the same has been correctly done plannedto get marry which shows pre-meditationbut
here. Option A is incorrect as the payability of the getting married is not a criminal act so it stands
interest has not been ventured into by the passage incorrect.
above, and cannot be adjudicated here. Option C is 72. (d) 4th line of the 2nd para of the passage clearly states that
incorrect as the exorbitance of the compensation is a one of the basic most requirements is that there must
subjective question, not provided in the passage above, be some criminal act. Such a criminal act must be done
and the interest hereby should be levied. Option D is by “several persons.” Such a criminal act however
incorrect as there is no mention of the SC having would not include acts which are merely invalid in the
complete jurisdiction in the passage above. law. An example would be a minor man marrying a
minor woman for the marriage is merely void and not a

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 crime. The principle pertaining to the Marriage only 80. (a) as Arun did not possess any dishonest intention to take
renders a marriage void. It does not state that marrying away the pen and thus would not be guilty of theft. One
in such manner is an offence. Thus, there is not a of the ingredients for theft is the presence of dishonest
constituted criminal act for common intention to apply. intention. According to the present factual matrix, there
As a result The correct answer is (d). on the same was no dishonest intention present, as Arun forgot to
reasoning Options A and C are incorrect. Option B is return the pen and did not intentionally keep the pen
incorrect as the reasoning is not correct. They both with himself so as to gain wrongfully. Option (b) is
have planned to get marry which shows pre-meditation incorrect because it is based on the assumption that
but getting married is not a criminal act so it stands kleptomania is equivalent to theft which cannot be
incorrect. otherwise drawn from the passage provided. Option (c)
73. (c) In the present case, the only fact that matters is that no is incorrect because it is beyond the passage and the
intercourse happened; this is a necessary condition for factual matrix in hand. Option (d) is incorrect because
rape to have taken place. As a result of the same, her although not returning the pen might have caused
consent and mental capacity come secondarily. Thus wrongful loss to Kabir, however, in order to be
the other options are insufficient. punished for theft all the ingredients of theft need to be
74. (c) However benevolent the intention of Ruben may have present out of which, as has been pointed out, dishonest
been, he still forced Shubhi to have sex with him, which intention is absent in the present case.
resulted in her not consenting to it and reporting the 81. (b) as the property was not in the possession of anyone and
same to the police. As a result of the same, options a would thus not cause wrongful loss to anyone.
and b are incorrect. Therefore, there is no theft committed by Arun. Since,
75. (b) The criminal laws in India do not entail provisions for one of the ingredients of theft is the wrongful loss to
raping men, and thus women cannot be held liable for someone, now in this case since the property is a lost
having committed rape on a man under any property not belonging to anyone at that moment, all
circumstance. As such, only option b is correct. the ingredients are not satisfied and Arun would not be
76. (b) Since the position of law on violating men remains the liable for theft. Option (a) is incorrect because despite
same regardless of the marital status of the male the fact that there might be the existence of dishonest
individual, the Act of Ruben being violated, even though intention, however in order to be punished for theft all
immoral and illegal, would not amount to being rape. As the ingredients of theft need to be present which as has
a result of the same, options a and d are incorrect. been pointed out, wrongful loss is absent in the present
77. (b) Here the victim is pressing charges in order to get case. Option (c) is incorrect because it is not based on
respite for the attempted acts of Toby in trying to any sound logical and legal reasoning and although
violate her. As a result of the same, her pattern of there might be a moral obligation to look for the
relationships cannot be brought into consideration in rightful owner but this cannot be equated with legal
the present matter. Thus, options c and d are incorrect. obligation as well. Option (d) is incorrect because it is
78. (c) In this case, there is a clear history of Rinki catfishing based on a remote and independent assumption that in
men and having relations will have no bearing on the all cases of kleptomania, there is no dishonest intention
case as the passage clearly mentions that “the victim is and is thus incorrect.
a girl of easy virtue or a girl habituated to sexual 82. (a) The ring was not taken out of anyone’s possession
intercourse, it may not be a ground to absolve the which is an essential requirement for the offence of
accused from the charge of rape. Even assuming that Theft. Option (b) is incorrect as Theft occurs at the time
the victim is previously accustomed to sexual of movement of movable property out of someone’s
intercourse, that is not a decisive question. On the possession. When the owner came to light and Arun
contrary, the question which is required to be took no steps to return the ring, the offence that was
adjudicated is, did the accused commit rape on the committed then was that of criminal misappropriation
victim on occasion complained of. It is the accused of property which is beyond the scope of this passage.
who is on trial and not the victim.” Option (c) is incorrect because as has been provided in
79. (c) as there is dishonest intention so as to deprive Kabir of the passage, the person from whose possession the
his CD and thus Arun would be liable for theft. To property is taken need not be the true owner and
analyse this answer we need to check the ingredients therefore the option is incorrect. Option (d) is incorrect
provided in the passage. Dishonest intention is because it is based on a remote and independent
apparent from the factual matrix as he hid the CD assumption that all cases of kleptomania should be
(which is a movable property) by moving it from its punished (regardless of whether they qualify as theft or
assigned place to the rug which would cause wrongful not) and is thus incorrect.
loss to Kabir and gain to Arun. It is to be noted that the 83. (c) as the property was not in the possession of anyone and
property has to be moved for taking and actual taking would thus not cause wrongful loss to anyone.
away the property is not required. Option (a) is Therefore, there is no theft committed by Kabir. Since
incorrect as it fails to draw a logical conclusion on the the bracelet was adorned over a dead body, it was not
basis of the passage and merely provides that in the possession of anyone whom it will cause
kleptomania should be punished which is incorrect. On wrongful loss if deprived of such property. Hence, in the
the same reasoning, Option (b) is also incorrect. Option absence of fulfilment of all the ingredients in the
(d) is incorrect because as has been stated, the present case, the offence of theft cannot be made out.
operative part for theft is moving the property for the Option (a) is incorrect because it would be incorrect to
purpose of taking it and not the actual taking itself. state that there was no dishonest intention as the
Therefore, it would be incorrect. bracelet was taken for the purpose of wrongful gain.

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 Option (b) is incorrect because it is insufficient and updating water management plans in light of rapid
assumptive and fails to analyse the question in hand urban growth and changing climate conditions
based on sound legal reasoning. Option (d) is incorrect indicates a lack of proactive measures. Option A
because as has been pointed out the answer is in introduces a historical reliance on monsoon rains,
negative for theft as all the ingredients of theft are not which, while relevant, does not directly address the
present and therefore the option is incorrect. city's preparation or lack thereof. Option B, suggesting
84. (b) because as soon as the tree branches were chopped rising per capita water consumption, hints at increasing
those turned into movable property. The chopped parts demand but doesn't directly tie into the city's
of the tree become movable as they are no longer preparedness for handling water scarcity. Option D
attached to the tree which continues to be immovable contrasts Bengaluru with other cities, suggesting a
and thus the chopped parts are capable of being the unique problem in Bengaluru, but it does not
subject of theft. Option (a) is incorrect as has been strengthen the argument about Bengaluru's lack of
pointed out once the branchesare chopped off, preparation as much as the clear failure to update
thosebecomes movable property. Option (c) is incorrect water management plans, as stated in Option C.
because since the act of Arun will lead to causing of 88. (a) The correct answer is a. A is correct because it directly
wrongful loss to his neighbour and is committed challenges the claim that irregular rainfall patterns are
without his consent, the possibility of dishonest solely responsible for Bengaluru's water crisis. If
intention cannot be ruled out categorically. Option (d) rainfall has been above average, then factors other than
is incorrect because it is not based on sound logical or rainfall must be contributing to the water scarcity.
legal reasoning. Option B might seem relevant as it suggests improved
water usage efficiency, which could imply that the crisis
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING is not due to lack of rainfall. However, it does not
directly counter the claim about irregular rainfall being
85. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because it logically the sole cause. Option C, while highlighting an issue that
follows from the passage’s indication of Bengaluru’s could exacerbate water scarcity, does not directly
heavy reliance on the Cauvery river and groundwater, address the claim about rainfall patterns. Instead, it
combined with the lack of preparation for water suggests other contributing factors, which doesn't
scarcity and inefficient water management practices. If weaken the claim about rainfall's sole responsibility as
these practices continue unchanged, it is reasonable to directly as Option A. Option D introduces the
expect that increased demand for these limited management practices of neighboring regions, which,
resources could lead to competition and conflict. Option although suggesting possible mismanagement in
A introduces a speculative solution that is not Bengaluru, doesn't directly refute the specific claim
supported by the passage’s focus on current about the role of rainfall patterns.
management practices and challenges. Option B 89. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because
presents an overly optimistic scenario that contradicts understanding the current losses in the water supply
the passage’s concern over groundwater depletion and system due to leaks and inefficiencies directly
does not take into account continuous heavy reliance addresses the potential impact and feasibility of a
and inefficient practices. Option D suggests a potential circular water economy. If a significant percentage of
solution (rainwater harvesting) that, while beneficial, is water is lost, then improving efficiency and recycling
presented as an overly simplistic resolution to a within a circular economy could drastically improve the
complex issue, assuming a drastic change without situation. Option A, while relevant, focuses on cost
addressing the broader systemic issues highlighted in rather than the effectiveness of water use and recycling,
the passage making it less directly related to evaluating the
86. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because the potential success of a circular water economy. Option B
passage implies that Bengaluru’s water crisis is addresses environmental impacts, which, although
exacerbated by its reliance on both the Cauvery river important, do not directly answer the question of
and groundwater, with rapid urban growth putting whether a circular water economy could solve the
pressure on these sources, especially as the crisis. Option D provides background context but does
groundwater recharge rate cannot keep up with the not offer direct insight into the operational changes and
city's demand. Option A might seem correct as it efficiencies that a circular water economy aims to
mentions increased water demand due to urbanization, address, making it less critical for evaluating the
but it doesn't specifically address the critical issue of argument compared to the direct measure of current
groundwater reserves depletion, making it less precise water loss.
than Option C. Option B is incorrect because, despite 90. (b) The correct answer is b. B is correct because it captures
any investments, the passage critiques Bengaluru's lack the essence of the passage's argument that climate
of preparation for water scarcity, suggesting that change, by increasing unpredictability, compounds the
investments have not been effective in managing the difficulties Bengaluru faces in managing its water
crisis. Option D is misleading as it directly contradicts resources effectively. It suggests that the broader issue
the passage's assertion that Bengaluru was unprepared is not the direct cause of scarcity but how climate
for the water crisis, indicating poor management of change makes existing problems worse. Option A is a
water scarcity issues. trap because it simplifies the passage’s nuanced
87. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because it directly argument, suggesting a direct causality that the passage
supports the argument that Bengaluru's lack of does not explicitly make. Option C, while addressing the
preparation is a significant factor in its water crisis; not need for action against climate change, diverts from the

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 main argument concerning the impact of climate 94. (b) The correct answer is b. A misleads by suggesting that
change on Bengaluru's specific situation of water the lack of evidence would naturally lead to diminished
scarcity. Option D presents a misleading choice by opposition, which doesn't directly address the reason
suggesting an alternative cause (poor urban planning) for alignment with the BJP. C is a trap because
for Bengaluru’s water scarcity, ignoring the passage’s increased public support for the leaders doesn't
focus on the exacerbating effect of climate change on inherently explain why they would align with a former
existing water management challenges. adversary; it assumes public support influences such
91. (d) The correct answer is d. A is a trap because a slight political realignments directly. D could seem like a
increase in public support doesn’t directly correlate to strong contender because policy concessions are a
successful alliance formation or electoral success. It's common reason for political alliances; however, it
appealing but not definitive for success. B is misleading doesn't specifically address the unique situation of
because expressing interest in policy proposals is a parties facing investigations aligning with the BJP,
positive sign but doesn’t guarantee an electoral alliance making it less directly relevant to resolving the
or its success. It suggests compatibility but lacks paradox. B is correct because it addresses the core of
commitment. C is tempting because initiating talks the paradox: despite previous opposition, the prospect
suggests progress towards alliances. However, it of gaining political leverage or mitigating the impacts of
doesn't ensure the finalization of these alliances or investigations provides a rational explanation for these
their effectiveness in the election. D is correct because parties and leaders to support the BJP. This option
it demonstrates a tangible outcome of the BJP’s efforts directly connects the circumstances (facing
to resurrect the NDA: a major party's rejoining based investigations) with a plausible motive (gaining
on negotiated terms directly contributes to the NDA's political leverage) for changing their stance, effectively
strength and unity, making it the strongest indicator of resolving the paradox.
potential electoral success. This option has the most 95. (c) The correct answer is c. A is a trap because public
direct impact on the argument's validity. statements can be strategic rather than sincere
92. (c) The correct answer is c. A is misleading because public reflections of support, making them unreliable
criticism among opposition parties might indicate indicators of sincerity. B might seem compelling, as
disagreement but doesn’t directly prevent a unified policy agreements could indicate genuine alignment of
front; such dynamics can change closer to elections. B interests. However, such agreements could also be
suggests some level of agreement but falls short of pragmatic rather than sincere, aimed at political gain
indicating a significant division that would prevent rather than true support. D misleads by implying that
unity; it's a partial trap implying progress rather than time since criticism correlates with sincerity. However,
division. C is correct because the formation of a new the absence of criticism does not directly indicate
party due to internal disputes within the largest sincere support; it could simply reflect a strategic pause
opposition party is a direct and significant in opposition. C is correct because active campaigning
manifestation of disunity. This not only highlights deep- goes beyond verbal support or strategic agreements,
rooted disagreements but also physically divides the requiring a significant investment of time and
opposition, making it the strongest evidence against the resources. It demonstrates a practical commitment to
possibility of presenting a unified front. D is a trap by the success of the BJP, making it the strongest indicator
suggesting that the absence of a formal pact indicates of sincerity in support. This option involves active
disunity, but it's less definitive compared to the participation, which is harder to fake and thus serves as
tangible division of a party, as negotiations can still lead a better measure of genuine political allegiance.
to unity closer to elections. 96. (b) The correct answer is b. A is misleading because it
93. (a) The correct answer is a. B is a subtle trap; while focuses on voter behavior, which, while important,
disillusionment could affect voter turnout, it's an doesn't directly address the logical structure of the
assumption about voter behavior not directly tied to assumption regarding the BJP's strengthened position.
the electoral strength or outcomes. C seems plausible C introduces an external factor (independent
but overstates the situation by suggesting candidates) which, although potentially influential,
"unprecedented electoral margins," which cannot be doesn't specifically tackle the flaw in assuming a direct
directly inferred without assuming the extent of the benefit to the BJP from the Shiv Sena (UBT)'s actions. D
disarray’s impact on all voters. D introduces a possible is a trap by suggesting an alternative outcome (new
shift in opposition dynamics, which, while reasonable, alliances) that could mitigate the Shiv Sena (UBT)'s
focuses more on the aftermath than on the immediate impact. However, it doesn't directly critique the
electoral impact. It does not directly relate to the assumption about the BJP's automatic gain from the
strength of the BJP's position relative to the opposition. situation. B is correct because it identifies a key
A is correct because the BJP's strategic alliances oversight in the assumption: that the BJP would
combined with the opposition's disarray would automatically benefit from the Shiv Sena (UBT)'s
logically weaken the opposition challenge in key states. unilateral moves without considering the BJP's internal
This inference directly connects the conditions dynamics. This option directly challenges the
mentioned to a probable electoral outcome, making it a assumption by highlighting that the BJP's strength is
straightforward inference about the BJP's relative not solely determined by the actions of opposition
strength in the upcoming elections without making parties but also by its internal unity and strategic
broad assumptions about voter behavior or electoral coherence, making it the most relevant logical flaw.
margins. 97. (d) The correct answer is D because it directly addresses
the strategy's effectiveness by indicating a potential

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 increase in voter support from a large, previously while important, is more about short-term popularity
unengaged demographic, which could significantly rather than assessing the broader success of integrating
mitigate anti-incumbency sentiments. A, while positive, ideological goals with political strategy. B focuses on
focuses on a specific achievement that does not policy changes, which, although significant, do not fully
necessarily translate to mitigating anti-incumbency encapsulate the broader ideological and political
sentiments across the broader electorate. B presents a objectives related to caste dynamics. C, assessing
superficial change in popularity that could be performance in local elections, could indicate some
temporary and does not necessarily reflect deeper level of success but does not specifically address the
voter sentiments. C, although suggesting a correlation ideological goal of diversifying the party's base in the
between leadership changes and voter satisfaction, context of caste.
does not specifically strengthen the case for mitigating 102. (a) The correct answer is A because it directly addresses
anti-incumbency sentiments, as higher satisfaction does how the BJP can balance its ideological commitment to
not directly equate to reduced anti-incumbency. Hindutva with the pragmatic political strategy of
98. (d) The correct answer is D because it directly challenges changing chief ministers to mitigate anti-incumbency.
the premise that the replacement was a response to the This option suggests that adapting to political
protests and agitations by indicating the decision was challenges does not necessarily mean abandoning core
made before these events, thereby weakening the ideological principles but rather demonstrates a
argument that the change was primarily motivated by strategic flexibility within the framework of those
these incidents. A, while suggesting continuity in policy, principles. B suggests that the strategy reinforces
does not directly counter the motivation for the Hindutva through leadership diversity, which does not
replacement related to addressing protests. B points to directly reconcile the ideological stance with the anti-
a distinction between state and national policies, which incumbency strategy. C implies a prioritization of
could imply the protests were not directly Khattar's electoral success potentially at the expense of
responsibility, but it doesn't necessarily weaken the ideological commitments, which does not explain how
argument about the motivation for his replacement. C, the two are reconciled. D, while recognizing the
though suggesting a failure in mitigating protests, does importance of keeping the party's agenda appealing,
not directly refute the claim that addressing unrest was does not specifically address how this tactic aligns with
the primary motivation for the change; it could imply prioritizing Hindutva over caste considerations.
the attempt was unsuccessful, rather than not being the 103. (c) The correct answer is c. C is the correct answer because
motivation. it directly enables the tracking of political donations by
99. (b) The correct answer is B because it directly aligns with narrowing the window in which bonds can be
the information provided about the BJP's pattern of redeemed, facilitating easier matching of donors with
appointing non-dominant caste leaders as chief political parties, which directly impacts transparency.
ministers, indicating an intention to challenge and Option A is tempting because it reflects the Supreme
reconfigure traditional caste dynamics in politics. A, Court's commitment but doesn't directly address how
while potentially a factor, does not specifically relate to transparency is enhanced. Option B presents a logistical
the pattern of appointing leaders from non-dominant challenge rather than supporting the effectiveness of
castes. C suggests a criterion that is too narrow and the decision. Option D, while accurate, merely states a
does not account for the broader strategic implications requirement and does not directly explain how this
of challenging caste dynamics. D, although possibly enhances electoral transparency as effectively as the
true, does not directly address the inference about ability to track donations does.
challenging caste dynamics through the selection of 104. (b) The correct answer is b. B is correct because it directly
non-dominant caste leaders. captures the court's insistence on not allowing SBI's
100. (a) The correct answer is A because it directly illustrates logistical challenges to delay the transparency that
the BJP's effort to project a new image by appointing a comes with immediate disclosure of bond details.
leader from a non-dominant caste, indicating a strategic Option A introduces a plausible but misleading priority,
shift aimed at appealing to a broader electorate ahead as the court's action is more about transparency than
of the polls. B, while indicative of a pattern, does not about timing relative to elections. Option C is tempting
specifically support the claim of projecting a new image because it speaks to the heart of the issue but is
for the upcoming polls. C provides a context for why a incorrect because the passage indicates the court did
change might be deemed necessary but does not not require exactitude in matching but prioritized
directly support the notion of projecting a new image. disclosure itself. Option D is a trap because it contrasts
D, although related to the aftermath of the chief two concerns without directly addressing the court's
ministerial change, focuses on Khattar's future rather actual priority of ensuring timely transparency to
than the party's strategic image rebranding through the enhance electoral fairness, which is more precisely
appointment of his successor. captured by option B.
101. (d) The correct answer is D because it directly addresses 105. (d) The correct answer is d. D is correct because it
the broader political and ideological goal of altering identifies a fundamental issue that inherently slows
traditional caste dynamics in politics, as implied by the down and complicates the process of matching donors
BJP's pattern of appointing non-dominant caste leaders. to political parties, which is critical for transparency.
This choice focuses on the long-term strategic goal of This directly undermines the goal by making it more
broadening the party's appeal across different social difficult to quickly and accurately disclose the relevant
segments, particularly among those communities that information. Option A is incorrect because fast-tracking
have not been traditionally engaged by the party. A, the disclosure process is more likely to support the goal

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 of transparency rather than undermine it. Option B Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y.
introduces a challenge but does not directly address the Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15,
systemic issue that would undermine transparency and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x.
goals, as matching could eventually be accomplished According to the given information:
with more time. Option C, regarding the Election The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers
Commission's delay, is a procedural delay but doesn't equals 750:
fundamentally undermine the goal like the lack of 10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750
digital data does, since the information could still be This simplifies to:
disclosed, albeit late. 2.5x + 10y = 550
106. (a) The correct answer is a. A is correct because it directly Or, equivalently:
links the potential actions of civil society (tracking the 5x + 20y = 1100 (1)
flow of funds) with the court's decision to increase Additionally:
transparency through disclosures. This action uses the The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495:
disclosed information to connect donors with political 8x + 20y + 215 = 1495
parties, which is the essence of the court's aim for This simplifies to:
transparency. Options B and D, while they reflect civil 8x + 20y = 1280 (2)
society's engagement with the issue, do not directly By solving equation (1) and (2)
validate the court's decision on electoral bonds in terms x = 60, y = 40
of the effectiveness of the decision itself. Option C, Now, tabulating all the data as follows;
although related to the use of disclosed information, Flowers name Number of flowers sold
focuses on a broader analysis that does not directly Roses 180
validate the effectiveness of the court's decision in the Lilies 400
same immediate and practical manner as tracking the Tulips 415
flow of funds does. Orchids 50
107. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because it captures Sunflowers 300
the essence of the Supreme Court's central concern, Carnations 150
which is broader than just the mechanics of the Required ratio = 50: 400 = 1: 8
disclosure process. It focuses on the underlying 110. (b) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are
principle of transparency and the voters' right to know represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the
where political funding comes from, which underpins number of carnations would be 2.5x.
the court's decision. Option A, while related, is more a Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y.
consequence of the concern rather than the core Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15,
concern itself. Option B addresses the logistical aspect and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x.
of the court's order but doesn't touch upon the According to the given information:
fundamental reason behind the need for disclosure. The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers
Option D, though important, is a specific part of the equals 750:
disclosure process and not the overarching concern of 10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750
the court, which is more focused on the right to This simplifies to:
information and the broader implications of 2.5x + 10y = 550
transparency in political funding. Or, equivalently:
108. (c) The correct answer is c. C is correct because it 5x + 20y = 1100 (1)
highlights the Election Commission of India's (ECI) role Additionally:
in facilitating the Supreme Court's goal of enhancing The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495:
transparency in political funding by making the bond 8x + 20y + 215 = 1495
information accessible to the public. This action directly This simplifies to:
contributes to the court's objective by making the bond 8x + 20y = 1280 (2)
information widely available. Option A, while seemingly By solving equation (1) and (2)
correct, focuses more on the timing aspect rather than x = 60, y = 40
the role of the ECI itself. Option B is incorrect because Now, tabulating all the data as follows;
the ECI does not act as an intermediary between the
Flowers name Number of flowers sold
court and the SBI; rather, it plays a more active role in
Roses 180
executing the court's decision. Option D misinterprets
Lilies 400
the ECI's role; the commission is responsible for
Tulips 415
hosting the information, not for verifying its accuracy,
which remains the responsibility of the SBI and the Orchids 50
entities involved in the legal and disclosure process. Sunflowers 300
Carnations 150
180
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES Required percent = × 100 = 60 %
300
111. (a) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are
109. (b) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the
represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the number of carnations would be 2.5x.
number of carnations would be 2.5x. Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y.
Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15,
and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x.
Bhopal 9109108421 | Indore 9109108422 | Jaipur 9109108430| Jodhpur 9109108419 | Jabalpur 9039911553 | Lucknow 9109108172| Nagpur 9109108171 | Ranchi 9102673728 | | Jammu 9419188148 |
Delhi 8448444207 | Raipur 7000954770| Patna 7645019145 | Chandigarh 7000954770| Bhilai 7000954770| Navi Mumbai 7208369556 | Bilaspur 9109108416 | Gurugram 09717289708 | w
 According to the given information: The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers
The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers equals 750:
equals 750: 10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750
10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750 This simplifies to:
This simplifies to: 2.5x + 10y = 550
2.5x + 10y = 550 Or, equivalently:
Or, equivalently: 5x + 20y = 1100 (1)
5x + 20y = 1100 (1) Additionally:
Additionally: The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495:
The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495: 8x + 20y + 215 = 1495
8x + 20y + 215 = 1495 This simplifies to:
This simplifies to: 8x + 20y = 1280 (2)
8x + 20y = 1280 (2) By solving equation (1) and (2)
By solving equation (1) and (2) x = 60, y = 40
x = 60, y = 40 Now, tabulating all the data as follows;
Now, tabulating all the data as follows; Flowers name Number of flowers sold
Flowers name Number of flowers sold Roses 180
Roses 180 Lilies 400
Lilies 400 Tulips 415
Tulips 415 Orchids 50
Orchids 50 Sunflowers 300
Sunflowers 300 Carnations 150
Carnations 150 The florist sold 415 Tulips, which is the maximum
Required difference = 415 – 150 = 265 number of flowers.
112. (a) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are 114. (c) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are
represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the
number of carnations would be 2.5x. number of carnations would be 2.5x.
Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y. Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y.
Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15, Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15,
and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x. and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x.
According to the given information: According to the given information:
The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers The sum of the number of lilies, orchids, and sunflowers
equals 750: equals 750:
10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750 10y + 200 + 2.5x = 750
This simplifies to: This simplifies to:
2.5x + 10y = 550 2.5x + 10y = 550
Or, equivalently: Or, equivalently:
5x + 20y = 1100 (1) 5x + 20y = 1100 (1)
Additionally: Additionally:
The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495: The sum of 8x, 20y, and 215 equals 1495:
8x + 20y + 215 = 1495 8x + 20y + 215 = 1495
This simplifies to: This simplifies to:
8x + 20y = 1280 (2) 8x + 20y = 1280 (2)
By solving equation (1) and (2) By solving equation (1) and (2)
x = 60, y = 40 x = 60, y = 40
Now, tabulating all the data as follows; Now, tabulating all the data as follows;
Flowers name Number of flowers sold Flowers name Number of flowers sold
Roses 180 Roses 180
Lilies 400 Lilies 400
Tulips 415 Tulips 415
Orchids 50 Orchids 50
Sunflowers 300 Sunflowers 300
Carnations 150 Carnations 150
∴ Total revenue generated by the florist by selling Lilies Required average =
300+180
= 240
2
= 400 × 25 = Rs. 1000
115. (b) Q meets P at 1 p.m., i.e. 3 hr after the start. P would have
113. (a) Let's assume the number of roses and sunflowers are
taken 6 hr to cover the same distance. Hence, P would
represented as 3x and 5x respectively. Therefore, the
have started his journey at 7 a.m.
number of carnations would be 2.5x.
Similarly, Q meets R, 5 hr after Q started. R would have
Also, let's assume the number of lilies is 10y.
covered the same distance in 10 hr. Hence, R would
Consequently, the number of tulips would be 10y + 15,
have started his journey at 5 a.m.
and the number of orchids would be 200 – 2.5x.
Bhopal --------(1 p.m.) P1------- (3 p.m.) R1--------------P2--
According to the given information:
-------(10 p.m.) R2--------- Varanasi

Bhopal 9109108421 | Indore 9109108422 | Jaipur 9109108430| Jodhpur 9109108419 | Jabalpur 9039911553 | Lucknow 9109108172| Nagpur 9109108171 | Ranchi 9102673728 | | Jammu 9419188148 |
Delhi 8448444207 | Raipur 7000954770| Patna 7645019145 | Chandigarh 7000954770| Bhilai 7000954770| Navi Mumbai 7208369556 | Bilaspur 9109108416 | Gurugram 09717289708 | w
 R has taken 7 hr to cover the stretch R1R2.Hence, Q The distance between P and R on the way to Varanasi
would have taken 3.5 hr (or) he would have been at R 2 will always be the same, as both are moving at a
at 6.30 p.m. For Q, R2 to Varanasi and Varanasi to R2 has constant speed (x).
taken 3.5 hr. Hence, R2 to Varanasi should have taken 1 ∴ Distance between P and R= x × 2 = 2x
hr 45 minutes. So, Q reaches Varanasi at 8.15 p.m. The time taken by Q when he meets P on his way back
116. (b) Q meets P at 1 p.m., i.e. 3 hr after the start. P would have to Bhopal = 10 p.m. +
2𝑥
= 10.40 p.m.
𝑥+2𝑥
taken 6 hr to cover the same distance. Hence, P would
118. (c) Q meets P at 1 p.m., i.e. 3 hr after the start. P would have
have started his journey at 7 a.m.
taken 6 hr to cover the same distance. Hence, P would
Similarly, Q meets R, 5 hr after Q started. R would have
have started his journey at 7 a.m.
covered the same distance in 10 hr. Hence, R would
Similarly, Q meets R, 5 hr after Q started. R would have
have started his journey at 5 a.m.
covered the same distance in 10 hr. Hence, R would
117. (c) Q meets P at 1 p.m., i.e. 3 hr after the start. P would have
have started his journey at 5 a.m.
taken 6 hr to cover the same distance. Hence, P would 800 800
have started his journey at 7 a.m. 119. (a) Required difference = – = 10 – 5 = 5 hours
80 160
Similarly, Q meets R, 5 hr after Q started. R would have 120. (b) Distance travelled by R in 4 hours = 80 × 4 = 320 km
320
covered the same distance in 10 hr. Hence, R would Time taken by Q to pass R = = 4 hours
160−80
have started his journey at 5 a.m. ∴ Required time = 1 p.m. + 4 hours = 5 p.m.
Bhopal --------(1 p.m.) P1------- (3 p.m.) R1--------------P2--
-------(10 p.m.) R2--------- Varanasi

Bhopal 9109108421 | Indore 9109108422 | Jaipur 9109108430| Jodhpur 9109108419 | Jabalpur 9039911553 | Lucknow 9109108172| Nagpur 9109108171 | Ranchi 9102673728 | | Jammu 9419188148 |
Delhi 8448444207 | Raipur 7000954770| Patna 7645019145 | Chandigarh 7000954770| Bhilai 7000954770| Navi Mumbai 7208369556 | Bilaspur 9109108416 | Gurugram 09717289708 | w