NEET Mock Test 4 Solutions
NEET Mock Test 4 Solutions
3
3 3
1
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1. (3) A soap bubble of radius ‘R’ breaks into 27 small Ee 1
102
soap bubbles of equal radius ‘r’. E p 100
Volume of big soap bubble 27 Volume of
Correct option is (2).
4 4
smaller soap bubbles R 3 27 r 3
3 3 GM sun
3. (1) We know orbital speed 0
R 3 (3)3 ( r )3 R 3r (1) Rorbit
Now, mechanical force acting per unit area on (0 )mercury Rearth
4T (0 )earth Rmercury
bigger soap bubble, P
R
1.5 106 5
7
4T 6 10 2
and for one small soap bubble, P '
r Correct option is (1).
P 4T r r r 4. (3) F q ( B )
Required ratio,
P ' R 4T R 3r
F q B sin
(Using eqn. (1))
Intertial frame of reference has following
P 1 two properties.
or (i) In this frame, we can apply Newton’s laws
P 3
of dynamics.
Correct option is (3).
(ii)Inertial frames are either stationary or
2. (2) For electron, moving with constant speed ( ) .
In the formula of Lorentz force is involved and
h h 100h so value of F will be different in different inertial
e (1)
me ve me (c / 100) me c frames.
Correct option is (3).
h 1 2
e Since Ee mee
2me Ee 2
5. (2) u adt
2
h
Ee (2) u (3t 2 2t 2)dt
2e2 me
3t 3 2t 2
u 2t
hc hc 3 2
For photon, E p
p 2e
u t 3 t 2 2t
p 2e (given) At t 2s, its value will be
2 8 4 4 18 m /s
Ep
hc 2e2 me e me c
Correct option is (2).
Ee 2e h2 h
Vinduced
100h me c 6. (3) ( I induced )
100 R
me c h
Using eq. (1), where
1
60
dB 28 Ni* 60
28 Ni 2
NA 4
dt 20 (25 10 ) 1000 0.5 A Where * mark for (Ni) indicates “excited state”.
R 100
Correct option is (3).
q1 q2
8. (2) F
4 0 r 2 Note that ( ) is (e )
Correct option is (4).
q1 q2 0.2 106 0.4 10 6 9 109
r2 11. (4) For H-like atom we have
4 0 F 0.4
1 1 1 1 1 21R
R 2 2 R
3 1/2
r (1.8 10 ) 0.0424 m 42.4 10 m 3
2 5 4 25 100
Correct option is (2).
100 100 100
107 m
l 7
21R 21 1.1 10 23.1
9. (4) Resistance of a wire, R
A
rate of energy dissipated as heat is 4.329 107 m
o
V2 V2A 4329 A . This corresponds to violet (V).
H
R l (Recall: Visible spectrum VIBGYOR range f r o m
o o
4000 A [Violet V] to 7000 A [red R].
V 2A Correct option is (4).
For wire1, H 1
L
12. (3)
For wire 2, we have
V2A 0.694V 2 A
H2 0.694 H1
(1.2 )(1.2 L) L
For wire 3,
V2A 1.23V 2 A
H3 1.23H1
(0.9 )(0.9 L) L
For wire 4,
V2A 0.666V 2 A g K2 1
H4 0.666 H1 a [For solid cylinder 2 ]
( )(1.5L) L K2 R 2
1 2
R
H 3 H1 H 2 H 4
Correct option is (4). g 2
a g
1 3
10. (4) The decay by Co is of 2 steps. 1
2
60
27 Co 60
28 Ni (e ) (ve ) 1 and Correct option is (3).
13. (3) Here intensity,
2
power 100 2.5 2.5 F2 (2000 500) kg (10 15)ms 2 62500 N
I 2
W m 2
area 4 (3) 100 36 6.25 104 N
Half of this intensity belongs to electric field and [It acts vertically downwards].
half of that to magnetic field. (iii) Force on helicopter due to surrounding air is
equal and opposite to the action of rotor of
1 1 helicopter on the surrounding air.
0 E02 c
2 4
Hence: Required F3 6.25 10 4 N .
2I [It acts vertically upwards].
E0
0c Correct option is (4).
2.5 l
2 16. (2) Resistance of a wire, R
36 A
E0
1 4.08 V /m 2
3 108 Here A r
4 9 109 1/ 2
l
E0 4.08 r
B0 1.36 108 T R
c 3 108 Substituting the data of , l and R
Correct option is (3).
1/ 2
14. (3) 1.7 108 0.5
r
2 3.14
3
m 9 105 2.73 105 (9 2.73) 105
V
M m
6.27 105 cal
So the initial K.E. acquired by the system Correct option is (3).
2
2 2 21. (2)
1 1 m 1 m
( M m)V 2 (m M )
2 2 M m 2 (m M )
This kinetic energy goes against friction work done
by friction R x (m M ) g x
By the law of conservation of energy
1 m 2 2
(m M ) g x
2 (m M )
2
2 mM
2 gx
m Form the triangle OAC
M m 1
2 gx r OC sin 45 4 2 2
m 2
Correct option is (3).
We know (Angular momentum) (Linear
19. (1) Here, momentum) (Perpendicular distance of line of
action of linear momentum from the point of
L1 90 cm, f1 124 Hz , f 2 186 Hz , L2 ? rotation)
1 Tension L p r m r 5 3 2 2 2 60 units.
frquency of vibration f
2l linear mass Correct option is (2).
( f l ) constant (for same tension and linear
mass). 22. (4) x Ay B tan (Cz )
4
Correct option is (2). AB 4 cm
24. (2) The two fringes coincides when AB 0.04 m, AC 0.08 m
n1 D1 n2 D2 n1 2 3500 The Potential energy of the charge at A is
or
d d n2 1 2500 1 q q q q
U
n1 7 4 0 AB AC
n2 5 4 1012 4 10 12
9 109 1.35 J
7th order fringe of 1st source will coincide with 0.04 0.08
5th order fringe of 2nd source.
Correct option is (4).
Correct option is (2).
25. (3) Number of photons falling in one second 28. (3) In the graph, for region C to D , current is
decreasing despite of increase in voltage.
P P
Corrrect option is (3).
E hc where P is power of light and E is
energy of photon. 29. (1) Torque M B .
Converted 1 of 106 photons causes electron to
be emitted.
Number of photoelectron emitted per second
P 1
hc 106 M , B 0
P M Ni A
Photocurrent e
hc 106 A r2
We know sin 0 0 .
5 800 109 (1.6 1019 )
A 3.2 A Total torque on the coil, BIAN sin .
6.63 1034 3 108 106
Correct option is (3). Where is the angle which the normal to the
plane of the coil makes with the direction of
26. (4) Force on a current carrying wire in a magnetic field.
uniform magnetic field is Here, 0
F IlB sin Correct option is (1).
Here, I 10 A, l 2 m, B 0.15 T , 45 30. (2) As axis of rotation changes, distribution of mass
3 about the axis of rotation is changed. I MR 2 I
F (10) (2) (0.15)sin 45 N
2 will change.
Correct option is (4). Correct option is (2).
5
Hence, option (2) with small nuclei as well as
sin iA
sin B sin 1
1
conservation of Z and A can be ‘fusion reaction’.
A sin iB Correct option is (2).
Correct option is (4). 37. (1) If Q0 calorie of heat is received from the sun
32. (2): We know, H nI per cm2 per minute. The heat collected by the lens
of radius 2.5 cm in 20 minutes is
H 2500 Q1 Q0 A t Q0 (2.5) 2 (20)
I 3.125 A
n 800
(392.5)Q0 cal
Correct option is (2).
33. (1) As motion is governed by acceleration due Heat required to melt 10 g of ice is
to gravity (g). Q2 mL 10 80 800 cal
u2
H max with 0 By data Q1 Q2
2g
Correct option is (1). 392.5Q0 800 Q0 2.04 cal cm 2 min 1
Correct option is (1).
air sin 60
34. (2) glass (1) 38. (1)
sin 35
air sin 60
water (2)
sin 41
water sin 41
glass (3)
sin
air
water water glass air glass
1
sin 60 sin 41 sin 60 Vinduced Bl 2
2
sin 41 sin sin 35
(Using (1), (2) and (3)) 1
(1)(2 50)(1) 2
sin sin 35 35 2
Correct option is (2).
22 50
35. (1) The energy density is
7
1 1 157.1Volt
uav 0 E02 (8.85 1012 ) (50) 2
2 2 157Volt
1.1 10 J m 8 3 Correct option is (1).
39. (3) Quantity C has maximum power. So it brings
The volume of the cylinder is V 5 104 m3
maximum error in P.
The energy contained in cylinder is Correct option is (3).
U (1.1 108 J m 3 ) (5 104 m3 ) 5.5 1012 J . 40. (2) We know Young’s modulus,
Correct option is (1). FL 4FL
Y where the symbols have
36. (2) Small nuclei only fuse. AL D 2 L
Option (4) is not fusion, rather it is fission. their usual meanings.
In option (1) and (3), the numbers Z and A are not
4FL
conserved. L
Those reactions are not possible. D 2Y
LS FS LS DB2 YB
LB FB LB DS2 YS
6
where subscripts S and B refer to steel and brass V2
respectively. Power VI
R
The tensions are FS (2m 3m) g 5 mg The smaller resistance consumes greater
power. Here 100 W bulb has less resistance. It
FB 3mg
should glow more brightly. The 60 W bulb has
more resistance and so burns less brightly.
LS D Y
Given : q , S p, S r Correct option is (1).
LB DB YB
45. (1) Maximum speed, vm A
2
LS 5mg 1 1 Maximum acceleration, am 2 A
( q)
LB 3mg p r
am 2
5q vm T
2
3p r
31.4 2 3.14
Correct option is (2).
10 T
41. (1) a g [ LT 2 ] T 2s
Correct option is (1).
n1[ L1T12 ] n2 [ L2T22 ]
46. (3) u E Energy density of the field (or) energy
2
L T
n2 n1 1 1 1
per unit volume is uE 0 r E 2
L2 T2 2
2
2
metre second 1 V
10 0 r d
kilometer hour 2
r 5,V 500Volts , d 2 10 3 m
1 1
10 3
10 3600 5 1 (500)2
u 9
3 2
1.38 J m 3
129600 2 4 9 10 (2 10 )
Correct option is (1). Correct option is (3).
42. (2) Here, p-n junction is forward biased.
1 q2
V 5 1 47. (1) By Coulomb’s law F1
Therefore, Current I A. 4 0 r 2
r R 25 10 7
Correct option is (2).
1 q2
F2
43. (2) Let n be the number of molecules in the gas 4 0 K R 2
PV nK BT
q2 1 q2
nK BT Given: F1 F2 , hence
P r 2 K R2
V
r
n R
3 6
Here, 5 cm 5 10 m
3
K
V Correct option is (1).
K B 1.38 10 23 J mol 1 K 1 48. (4) Relative velocity of parrot with respect to
train 5 (10) 5 10 15 m / sec .
P 5 10 6 1.38 10 23 3
d 150
Time taken by the parrot 10sec.
17
20.7 10 N m 2 vrel . 15
Correct option is (4).
Correct option is (2).
49. (4) Using the concept of area of triangle
44. (1) When the same potential difference (that is
the voltage) is applied as in houses.
7
0 I 5 3 4 7 0 I
48 x 5 5 48 x
k 7
Correct option is (4).
8
CHEMISTRY O2 8 8 1 17
Total number of electrons in
52. (3) In (NH4)3PO4, one unpaired electron, O22 have zero unpaired
electron. As number of unpaired electrons
mole of H atom 12 increases paramagnetic character increases.
mole of O atom 4
Bond energy order: H 2 He2 H 2
4 57. (4) Alanine is a non - essential amino acid. Valine,
mole of ‘O’ atom mole of H atom
12 Leucine and Lysine are essential amino acids.
1 58. (1)
3.18 1.06
3 V2
Wmax,iso 2.303nRT log
V1
h
53. (1) x.mv
4
25
2.303 1 8.314 310 log
h 15
v
4m x 59.35 0.22 1305 J 1.305 kJ
(-ve sign shows work of expansion i.e. work
6.626 1034 done by the system)
3 10
ms 1
4 3.14 150 10 10 59. (4) Acid H conjugate base
3.499 1024 ms 1
H 2 PO4 H HPO 42
54. (1) Element with atomic number 106 is
Seaborgium with the symbol Sg. The expected So, HPO24 is the conjugate base of H 2 PO4
configuration is Rn 5f 14 6d 4 7s 2 . But due to extra 60. (1) Di - tert - butyl ether cannot be made by
stability of half - filled orbitals, its configuration Williamson’s synthesis, since tert - alkyl halides
is Rn 5f 14 6d 5 7s1 . prefer to undergo elimination rather than
substitution, i.e.,
55. (3) Total number of electrons in
N 2 7 7 1 15
Total number of electrons in
N 22 7 7 2 16
Total number of electrons in
O22 8 8 2 18
Total number of electrons in
9
2NO g O 2 g 2NO 2 g 66. (2) Alkylation and acylation of benzene in the
61. (4)
presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride are
known as Friedel - Crafts reaction.
Hreaction H f products H f reactants 67. (3) Nitration is carried out by the help of
electrophile, NO2
2 33.18 2 90.25 0
HNO3 2H 2SO4 NO 2 2HSO 4 H3O
H reaction 114.1 kJ
chlorination is carried out by the help of
62. (1) Co Ar 3d , no. of unpaired e 4
3 6 electrophile, Cl+
Spin magnetic moment Cl2 FeCl3 Cl FeCl4
4 4 2 24 B.M.
1 a
68. (3) For first order reaction, k ln
Cr 3 Ar 3d 3 , no. of unpaired e 3 t a x
Spin magnetic moment
1 a 1 1 1
3 3 2 15 B.M. k ln ln 8 ln 23 ln 2s 1
24 a / 8 24 24 8
Fe3 Ar 3d 5 , no. of unpaired e 5
Conductivity 1000
Spin magnetic moment 69. (3) m
M
5 5 2 35 B.M.
0.0152 1000
Ni 2 Ar 3d8 , no. of unpaired e 2 101 1 cm 2 mol1
0.15
Spin magnetic moment
70. (4) (1) k Ae Ea /RT
2 2 2 8 B.M.
If T ,
4B H and 2 B H B bonds only
k Ae0 K A
63. (4) Nucleophiles are electron rich species hence,
they are Lewis bases. 2 & 3 options are facts
po 2 0.434
x 1 105
KH 4.34 10 4
10
Ce 2 Z 58 : Xe 4f 1 ,5d1
Only Yb 2 is diamagnetic. (1) , Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic
80. (4)
(4) , Naphthalene, is also aromatic
81. (3)
85. (4)
11
87. (4)
Ag NH3 2
aq
K2 (2)
Ag NH3 H 2 O aq NH3 aq
Ag H 2 O 2 2NH 3 aq
aq
88. (1) G 2.303 RT log K; Ag NH 3 2 aq 2H 2 O l
aq
K 2 (3)
G 5705.84 2.09 11964.65 J
Ag H 2 O 2 NH 3 aq
aq
= 11.96 kJ.
From equations (1), (2) and (3), it is clear that
89. (4) 1. Oxidation state of C in CO2
K K1K 2 2 103 8.3 103 16.6 106
x 2 2 0 x 4
93. (3) CH 3COOH + CH 3 COONa
2. Oxidation state of C in CF4 0.1N, 5 mL 0.05 N, 10 mL
x 4 1 0 x 4 milli eq. 0.5 0.5
It is acidic buffer,
3. Oxidation state of C in CCl4
x 4 1 0 ; x = 4 CH 3COO
pH pK a log
4. Oxidation state of C in CH4 CH 3COOH
x 4 1 0 x 4 pH pK a
This solution will have lowest pH.
90. (1) O NH 2 OH NHCOCH 3
94. (4) C 6 H 6 and C 6 H 5 CH 3 will form an ideal solution
91. (3) over the entire range of composition. The bonding
interactions among the molecules will be same
1
Boiling point Molar mass before and after mixing.
Branching
95. (1) For a cell reaction to be spontaneous
Order of B.P.: n-pentane > iso-pentane > neo- G should be negative. As G nFE, So
pentane > n – butane the value will be negative only when E is
So, option (3) is correct. positive.
96. (1) t 0 p 0 a
92. (4) Ag H 2 O 2 aq NH 3 aq
t t pt a x
Ag NH 3 H 2 O aq H 2 O l ;
1 p
K1 2.0 103 k ln 0
t pt
Ag NH3 H 2 O aq
K1 97. (3) Invert sugar is prepared by acid catalysed
Ag H 2 O 2 NH 3 aq (1) hydrolysis of sucrose.
aq
HCl
Ag NH 3 H 2 O aq NH 3 aq C12 H 22 O11 H 2 O C6 H12 O6 C6 H12 O6
D Glu cos e D Fructose
Sucrose
Invert sugar
Ag NH 3 2 aq H 2 O l ; K 2 8.3 103
Specific rotation of invert sugar is
12
of symmetry.
min 0.5 52 0.5 92 26 46
20 99. (2) As steric hindrance increases around
carbonyl group, the rate of nucleophilic addition
On reaction with Br2 water, invert sugar forms reaction decreases.
gluconic acid as one of the products. Br2 water
oxidises glucose into gluconic acid and fructose is
not oxidised by it. 100. (2) does not form hydrogen
98. (4) Trans form is optically inactive due to plane bonding.
13
114. (4) Polymers of nucleotides are not used as
BOTANY source for energy or respiratory substrate.
115. (2) Formation of morphologically different
101. (1) ICBN stands for International Code for
leaves in different developmental stages is s e e n
Botanical Nomenclature
in the life cycle of Buttercup, known as
102. (3) Flagella & Pili are outward extensions and heterophylly.
mesosomes are inward extensions.
116. (4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D – iii
Chromatophores are present in BGA.
A) Plant with external fertilization -(ii) Cladophora
103. (2) Peptide bonds are formed on the surface of
ribosomes between amino acids during translation. B) Plant with internal fertilization-
Disulphide bonds are formed post- translationally (iv) Sphagnum
in the lumen of rough endoplasmic reticulum. So,
C) Animals showing external fertilization -
the correct answer is option (2).
(i) Fishes
104. (2) Axoneme is the core of eukaryotic cilium and
D) Animals showing internal fertilization -
also the eukaryotic flagellum.
(iii) Reptiles
105. (2) All lipids have phosphorus is incorrect , lipids
117. (3) In grass embryo, the hollow foliar structure
vary e.g., simple fatty acid,glycerol etc.
encloses plumule, the future shoot.
106. (3) An enzyme involved in the conversion of
118. (2) All bisexual flowers are cleistogamous is
Glucose to Fructose is Isomerase as glucose and
incorrect.
fructose have same molecular formula but different
functional groups. 119. (3) Prior to fertilisation, the structure of embryo
sac that may show karyogamy in central cell due
107. (1) Nuclear organization takes place in telophase to the fusion of the two polar nuclei.
and it is lost in prophase.
120. (2) Usually the pollen tube enters into the ovule
108. (3) S-phase is the synthetic phase, in this through Micropyle known as porogamy.
phase chromosomes replicate and DNA doubles.
121. (1) I. Yellow pods
Each chromosome comes to have two chromatin
threads which are attached at centromere. During II. Green seeds these are recessive traits.
metaphase, every chromosome has four 122. (1) I. Pink flowered Snapdragon X Pink flowered
chromatids. Snapdragon
109. (2) Radial vascular bundles, polyarch xylem, no II. AB blood group father X AB blood group
secondary growth is seen in monocot root. mother, these both would show the phenotypic and
110. (2) House fly and wheat families respectively are genotypic ration of 1:2:1.
Muscidae and Poaceae. 123. (3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i
111. (1) Temperature shows more influence on dark 124. (1) Point mutations are mutations due to single base
reaction of photosynthesis, The light reactions are substitutions in a gene.
temperature sensitive but they are affected to a
125. (3)No amino acid has five codons, there arethree
much lesser extent because they do not involve
stop codons these are correct.
enzymatic reactions. Dark phase being enzymatic
are temperature controlled. 126. (2) II, III, I, IV is the correct sequence.
112. (1)Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon di 127. (3) Releasing factor recognises stop
oxide. codons during translation
128. (2) The DNA segment of Agrobacterium
113. (4) Plants with Kranz anatomy in their leaves
tumiefaciens, that can transform normal cells
do not show regeneration of PEP in bundle
of dicots into tumor cells is called as T-DNA
sheath cells. Regeneration of PEP occurs in
located in Ti plasmid.
mesophyll cells.
129. (3) In the process of recombinant DNA
technology, the last step is downstream
14
processing. 145. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect,
Statement A: A spine is a modified leaf
130. (1) Meloidegyne incognitia is one of the
Statement B: A phylloclade is a modified stem
following types of plant parasites which is a
nematode. 146. (4) Bracts -a modified leaf or scale, typically small,
with a flower or flower cluster in its axil.
131. (3)Important biofertilizer of paddy fields is
Oscillatoria 147. (3) Aestivation is arrangement of petals with
respect to other members of the whorl in bud
132. (2)A- T, B-P, C-S, D-Q
condition of a flower.
133. (3) Milk is converted into curd by the action of the
148. (4) The placentation type in the ovary of onion is
following microbe Lactobacillus.
different from that of Solanum.
134. (3) In the flowers of one of the following plants
149. (3) Root hairs are unicellular elongations while
the number stamens is diadelphous is Pea belonging
trichomes in the shoot system are usually
to fabaceae.
multicellular, and trichome help absorb water and
135. (1) Spindle fibers are formed by a component of minerals. Root hair is involved in absorption of
cytoskeleton, this is the correct statement. water and minerals.
136. (4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv, 150. (1) ‘A’ are the components of dermal tissue system
(a) Co-extinction (i) Plant-pollinator - subsidiary cells
(b) Habitat loss (iii) Amazon forest ‘B’ are the components of vascular tissue -
albuminous cells
(c) Overexploitation (ii)Passenger pigeon
(d) Alien species invasion(iv) Nile perch ZOOLOGY
137. (1) In majority of higher animals and plants,
growth and reproduction are mutually 151. (3) Ascaris has a body cavity not lined with
exclusive events. peritoneum
138. (2)The common character of plantae in two 152. (4) A gizzard is not unique to birds. It is also
kingdom classification was all organisms present in other animals, e.g., cockroach.
having cell walls. 153. (2)a-i; b-iii; c-iv; d-ii
139. (2) Nostoc is a filamentous BGA. 154. (3) The tissue that is specialized to conduct
140. (3) During sexual reproduction, there is no electrical signals from one structure in the
fusion of gametes or gametangia but there is body to another structure is neural tissue.
fusion of cells or hyphae of two genetically 155. (4) The structural and functional units of the
different genotypes or strains. This condition compound eye of the cockroach are ommatidia
is shown by Basidiomycetes.
156. (3) D A B E C
141. (1) Viroids have single stranded RNA.
Respiration involves the following steps:(i)
142. (3) Numerical taxonomy - considers and
Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which
gives equal importance to all characters of
organisms for classification, this is the correct atmospheric air is drawn in and CO 2 rich alveolar
statement. air is released out.(ii) Diffusion of gases ( O 2 and
143. (4) Development of endosperm after CO 2 ) across the alveolar membrane.(iii) Transport
fertilization, is not seen in gymnosperms.
of gases by the blood.(iv) Diffusion of O 2 and
144. (3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i,
CO 2 between blood and tissues.(v) The utilisation
A) Mycorrhizal roots -iv) Pinus
of O 2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and
B) Coralloid roots - iii) Cycas
resultant release of CO 2 .
C) Root nodules - i) Rhizophora
157. (3) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers
D) Pneumatophores - ii) Groundnut
15
approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the alveoli indicated for a woman who cannot produce an
ovum
158. (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
174. (1) Male grasshopper has a pair of dissimilar
159. (4) The majority of oxygen is transported in the allosomesis incorrect, it has XO sex
blood of man bound to haemoglobin. chromosomes.
160. (2) The blood of the frog differs from that of the 175. (4) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
cockroach in that it circulates only through a closed (a) Phenylketonuria (iv) Tyrosine deficiency
network of blood vessels. (b) Down’s syndrome - (iii) Aneuploidy
161. (2) The human heart is called ‘myogenic’ (c) Sickle cell trait -(i) HbAHbS
heart because its normal activities are (d) Haemophilia - (ii) Queen Victoria family
regulated intrinsically by specialised muscles. 176. (2) Use and disuse of an organ or part was
162. (4) In human beings, nitrogenous wastes are the advocated by Lamarck.
byproducts of the metabolism of proteins and 177. (4) The equation p2 +2pq+q2 describes the
nucleic acids genotype frequencies of a population which is not
163. (1)An increase in sodium reabsorption in the DCT evolving
is primarily caused by a/an increase in aldosterone 178. (3) Homo sapiens first appeared during
levels. quaternary period
164. (4) Gap junctions are characteristic of electrical 179. (2) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
synapses
(a) Elephantiasis - (iv) Wuchereria bancrofti
165. (1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii (b) Amoebiasis - (iii) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) Cerebral medulla -(ii) White matter (c) Malaria - (i) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Autonomic neural system (iv) Smooth (d) Ringworms - (ii) Trichophyton
muscle 180. (2) HIV causes immune deficiency because it
(c) Somatic neural system (i) Skeletal destroys helper T cells.
muscle
(d) Cerebral cortex (iii) Grey matter 181. (1) On the top of inter-ventricular septum AV
bundle immediately divides and form 1) Right and
166. (3)ADH is proteinaceous hormone and binds to left bundle of his
receptors on the cell membrane
182. (3) Both are correct.
167. (2) Parathyroid gland is located near the
posterolateral aspect of the superior pole of the 183. (4) The maximum number of individuals in a
thyroid. particular area can sustain is known as the carrying
capacity.
168. (2) Only B is correct
184. (4) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
169. (3) Low levels of estrogen,progesterone, FSH and
185. (4) Chemoautotrophic bacteria are primary
LH
producers.They use the chemical energy to make
170. (1) Insulin keeps blood glucose levels from ATP, and use the ATP to make organic substance.
becoming too high. It causes glucose to move
186. (2) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
from the blood into cells, where it is either u s e d
for respiration or stored in liver and 187. (1) Threonine and Threonine respectively
muscle cells as glycogen.Thus, both Assertion
188. (4) Statins - Trichoderma polysporum is wrong,
and Reason are true and Reason is the correct statins are produced by yeast Trichoderma
explanation of Assertion. purpureus.
171. (3) Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of 189. (3) All are correct.
oxytocin from maternal neurohypophysis.
190. (4) Biodiversity hotspots characteristically are
172. (2)Emergency contraceptives are effective if used rich in endemic species.
within three days from the time of coitus
191. (4) A - R, B - S, C - Q, D - P
173. (3) GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology
16
192. (1) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the 197. (1) Androgens are secreted by Leydig cells/
behaviour of genes during inheritance. It was noted Interstitial cell of testis.
by Sutton and Boveri
198. (2) LNG-20, progestasert are hormone releasing
193. (1) Both S-I & S-II are correct IUDs.
194. (1) Head of myosin has ATPase site on it. 199. (3) IgA is abundantly found in colostrum.
195. (1) The number of facial bones in the human 200. (1) Dentalium, Chaetopleura, Aplysia –
skeleton is 14 Mollusca, this is correct. Nereis is an annelid.
Ascaris is acshelminthes. Locusta is
196. (1) In adults, RBCs are formed primarily in the
arthropoda.
red bone marrow.
17
QUESTION PAPER
GENERATOR