lOMoARcPSD|29116485

Part2 Histo

Medtech (San Pedro College)

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PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 2)

1. Nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium would be found lining the:

A. Skin C. Esophagus
B. Trachea D. Urinary bladder
2. The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:
A. Plasma cells C. Macrophages
B. Mast cells D. Fibroblasts
3. Tissue composed of a network of bony trabeculae separated by interconnecting bone marrow spaces:
A. Cortical bone C. Cancellous bone
B. Woven bone D. Compact bone
4. Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the
fibers is classified as:
A. Smooth C. Skeletal
B. Visceral D. Cardiac
5. Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:
A. Carcinomas C. Sarcomas
B. Lipomas D. Fibromas
6. The antibody class most frequently used in immunofluorescent and immunoenzyme staining is:
A. IgM C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgA
7. The most specific stain available for the identification of melanomas in paraffin section is the:
A. DOPA reaction C. Warthin-Starry
B. Gridley method D. Immunostain for HMB-45
8. Frozen sections are commonly used for:
1. Rapid pathologic diagnosis during surgery 3. Immunohistochemical staining
2. Diagnostic and enzyme histochemistry 4. Demonstration of lipids and carbohydrates
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
9. Characteristics of a good fixative:
1. Cheap, stable and safe to handle 3. Inhibit bacterial decomposition and autolysis
2. Produce minimum shrinkage of tissue 4. Harden tissue thereby making cutting of sections easier
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
10. Microanatomical fixatives:
1. 10% formol saline 3. Zenker’s solution
2. Heidenhain’s susa 4. Flemming’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
11. Mercuric chloride fixatives:
1. Zenker’s fluid 3. B-5 fixative
2. Heidenhain’s Susa solution 4. Orth’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
12. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
13. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
14. When fat is to be preserved, the fixative of choice is:
A. Formalin C. Carnoy solution
B. Zenker solution D. Bouin solution
15. Zenker fluid contains all of the following, except:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Formaldehyde
B. Potassium dichromate D. Glacial acetic acid
16. Orth solution contains all of the following, except:
A. Potassium dichromate C. Sodium sulfate
B. Mercuric chloride D. Formaldehyde
17. Fixative for blood smears:
A. Bouin solution C. B-5
B. Carnoy solution D. Methanol
18. An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most
likely:
A. Melanin pigment C. Hemosiderin
B. Formalin pigment D. Mercury pigment
19. A common reason for adding acetic acid to fixatives is to:
A. Coagulate proteins C. Preserve carbohydrates
B. Reduce shrinkage D. Change the pH
20. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these

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21. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
22. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
23. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
24. Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
A. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues C. In very small volume rations
B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues D. For long periods without changing
25. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
26. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
27. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
28. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
29. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
30. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
31. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes
32. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
33. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC C. 46-48oC
o
B. 54-58 C D. 50-54oC
34. Carbowax has a major disadvantage of:
A. Dissolving during flotation C. Making tissues brittle fro sectioning
B. Being a lengthy processing method D. Causing cell shrinkage
35. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
36. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
37. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
38. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27 o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
39. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
40. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC C. -20oC
o
B. 4 C D. -4oC
41. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
42. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm C. 2 mm
B. 3 mm D. 4 mm

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43. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
44. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
45. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 C. 1.185
B. 1.518 D. 1.155
46. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
47. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
48. Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:
A. Hydrolysis C. Mordanting
B. Oxidation D. Reduction
49. Mercuric oxide or sodium iodate is used in hematoxylin to:
A. From hematein C. Prevent oxidation
B. Serve as the mordant D. Stabilize the solution
50. A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:
A. Masson trichrome C Best carmine
B. van Gieson D. Aldehyde fuchsin
51. The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
A. Edema fluid C. Ground substance
B. Muscle striations D. Reticulin network
52. A method for demonstrating the nucleic acids, in which the DNA stains green and the RNA stains red:
A. Feulgen reaction C. Masson trichrome
B. Methyl green - pyronin D. Gomori trichrome
53. Thin sections for electron microscopy are stained with:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin C. Uranyl acetate and lead
B. Toluidine blue D. fluorescein and rhodamine
54. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA C. Both
B. DNA D. Neither
55. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown C. Red
B. Black D. Blue
56. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
57. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
58. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
59. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
60. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
61. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
62. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
63. Identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei:
A. Superficial cells C. Intermediate cells
B. Parabasal cells D. None of these
64. May occur in large groups or small sheets and may present a honeycomb appearance when viewed on end:
A. Navicular cells C. Endometrial cells
B. Pregnancy cells D. Endocervical glandular cells
65. If smears cannot be made immediately for cytology, the collected material should be placed in ___ for all types of
effusion.
A. 10% formalin C. Chloroform

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B. Glacial acetic acid D. 50% alcohol

66. Absence of alveolar macrophages:

A. Saliva C. Both of these
B. Sputum D. None of these
67. Jelly-like clots in peritoneal, pleural and pericardial fluids may be prevented by addition of:
A. Acetic acid C. Alcohol
B. Formalin D. Heparin
68. For CSF specimens, a minimum of ____ is necessary for cytologic evaluation.
A. 1 cc C. 10 cc
B. 15 cc D. 20 cc
69. To obtain a more reliable cytological evaluation, urine specimen may have to be collected and examined twice – one
in the early morning and another later in the day. At least ___mL is needed which must be centrifuged. Smears of
sediments should be prepared and fixed as soon as possible after collection.
A. 10 mL C. 20 mL
B. 40 mL D. 50 mL
70. Ferning in vaginal smear is the basis for early detection of:
A. Early malignancy C. Menopausal cervix
B. Normal cervix D. Early pregnancy
71. Presence of large number of Doderlein bacilli may be found in which of the following conditions:
1. Last trimester of pregnancy 3. Infection
2. Diabetes mellitus 4. Estrogen deficiency
A. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. Cytologic picture strongly suggestive of malignancy
A. Class II C. Class IV
B. Class III D. Class V
73. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the number of cells resulting from growth of new cells:
A. Hypoplasia C. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy D. Hyperplasia
74. Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
75. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
76. Reversible change involving the transformation of one cell type to another:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
77. Rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring 6-12 hours after death:
A. Algor mortis C. Livor mortis
B. Rigor mortis D. Autolysis
78. Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
79. Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
80. It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due
to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
81. It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or
appendicitis):
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
82. Blood Banking Law of 1956:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
83. Clinical Laboratory Act of 1966:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
84. Creation of Professional Regulation Commission:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
85. The clinical laboratory law requires that:
A. The pathologist owns the clinical laboratory
B. The clinical laboratory is owned by a medical technologist
C. The clinical laboratory has a pathologist, medical technologist and medical laboratory technician
D. The clinical laboratory is headed by a pathologist
86. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET

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C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
87. A medical technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology Board
Exam):
A. 65-74.9% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-74.9%
88. Administrative investigations shall be conducted by:
A. At least one member of the Board C. At least one member of the Board w/one legal officer
B. Three members of the Board D. At least two members of the Board w/ one legal officer
89. The Commissioner of PRC is appointed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. Senate president
B. Speaker of the House D. Secretary of Health
90. Any member of the Medical Technology Board, if after due hearing, if found guilty of neglect of duty or incompetence
can be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. PRC chairman
B. CHED Commissioner D. Civil Service Commissioner
91. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote C. Either of these
B. Unanimous vote D. Neither of these
92. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 5527 C. RA 1517
B. RA 7719 D. RA 8504
93. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
A. RA 7719 C. RA 8504
B. RA 1517 D. PD 223
94. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
95. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
96. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8 and 13 C. 11, 16 and 29
B. 16, 21 and 22 D. 11, 21 and 29
97. The records of anatomic and forensic pathology shall be kept in the laboratory for:
A. Five years C. Ten years
B. Fifteen years D. Permanently
98. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Accept the responsibilities inherent to being a (98).
A. Professional C. Medical technologist
B. Filipino D. None of these
99. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Perform my task with (99) absolute reliability and accuracy.
A. Within constructive limits C. Full confidence
B. No conflict of interest D. None of these
100. MT CODE OF ETHICS: (100) of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.
A. Uphold the dignity C. Contribute to the advancement
B. Uphold the law D. None of these

END OF THE EXAM

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