PAHUJA LAW ACADEMY
GUJARAT JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAMINATION, 2022
1. ........was the first computer.
(a) Abacus
(b) Napier's Bones
(c) IBM6000
(d) Param8000
2. 5th generation of computers is called the age of.............
(a) Desktops
(b) Microsoft
(c) UNIVAC
(d) Artificial Intelligence
3. CTRL + C is used for...............
(a) Creating text
(b) Copying text
(c) Editing text
(d) Pasting text
4. India bought its first computer in the year................
(a) 1950
(b) 1966
(c) 1956
(d) 1959
5. There are how many most common classifications of operating systems?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 9
6. Which option enables us to see and check a page before printing?
(a) Review
(b) Field
(c) Print preview
(d) None of these options
7. Booting is a...........sequence.
(a) secondary
(b) Startup
(c) auxillary
(d) Ending
8. Under Section 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, there shall lie an appeal
to the Court of Session within...........days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served
on the aggrieved person or the respondent, as the case may be, whichever is later.
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(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
9. The Court may at any stage of the proceedings, order that the name of be any party improperly joined,
whether as plaintiff or defendant, be struck out. Where do you find this provision in the Code of Civil
Procedure?
(a) Order I, rule 8(2)
(b) Order I, rule 9
(c) Order I, rule 10(2)
(d) Order I, rule 12(2)
10. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 iş...........
(a) an arbitrary law
(b) a substantive law
(c) an adjective law
(d) None of these options
11. The Court may at any stage of the proceedings order to be struck out or amended any matter in any
pleading...............
(a) which may be vexatitous
(b) which may tend to delay the fair trial the suit
(c) which is otherwise an abuse of the process of the Court
(d) All of these options
12. An appeal against an order under rule 1, rule 2 of Order XXXIX of the C.P. Code, 1908 shall lie under
which of these Orders of the said Code?
(a) Order XLI
(b) Order XLII
(c) Order XLIII
(d) Order XLIV
13. The provisions of 'Precepts' are found in which of these provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(a) Section 34
(b) Section 36
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 150
14. The provisions regarding 'Discovery and Inspection' are found in which of these Orders of the C.P. Code,
1908?
(a) Order X
(b) Order XI
(c) Order XII
(d) Order XIII
15. Where any claim is preferred to, or any objection is made to the attachment of any property attached in
execution of a decree on the ground that such property is not liable to such attachment, the Court shall
proceed to adjudicate upon the claim or objection in accordance with the provisions contained in...........
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(a) Order XXI, rule 54
(b) Order XXI, rule 55
(c) Order XXI, rule 58
(d) Order XXI, rule 59
16. When the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, then, if
it is proved that the summons was duly served, the Court
(a) Shall direct a second summons to be issued and served on the defendant in larger interest of justice
(b) May make an order that the suit shall be heard ex parte
(c) Shall postpone the hearing of the suit to a future day to be fixed by the Court and shall direct notice of
such day to be given to the defendant
(d) None of these options
17. For the purposes of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every Court of Small Causes is subordinate to
the.........
(a) District Court only,
(b) High Court only
(c) High Court and District Court
(d) None of these options
18. In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on behalf of the corporation
by................who is able to depose to the facts of the case.
(a) The secretary
(b) Any director of the company
(c) Other principal corporation officer of the
(d) Any one of these persons mentioned in options A to C
19. Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition or contents of a document
(a) when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable
(b) when the original has been destroyed or lost
(c) when the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power of any person legally bound to
produce it
(d) All of these options
20. 'A man is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft' - Choose the correct presumption from the
options given which the Court may presume.
(a) That he is an innocent person
(b) That he must be knowing the thief
(c) That he is either a thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen
(d) None of these options
21. Under the indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said
that................
(a) The burden of proof lies on that person
(b) He has to discharge his burden in rebuttal
(c) Both the options (A) & (B)
(d) None of these options
22. Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions may be asked (noin in .....
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(a) examination-in-chief
(b) Re-examination
(c) Cross-examination
(d) None of these options
23. Law of evidence is......
(a) lex fori
(b) lex posterior
(c) lex specialis degogate legigenerali
(d) None of these options
24. Except as otherwise provided by Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the specific performance of a
contract may be obtained by...............
(a) A reversioner in possession, where the agreement is a covenant entered into with his predecessor in title
and the reversioner is entitled to the benefit of such covenant
(b) Any party thereto
(c) Where the contract is of a settlement on marriage, any person beneficially entitled thereunder
(d) All of these options
25. No suit under section 6(2) (a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of..........
months from the date of dispossession.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) six
26. Dispute arising out of which of these agreements given would mean 'Commercial dispute'?
(a) Joint venture agreements
(b) Technology development agreements
(c) Distribution and licensing agreements
(d) All of these options
27. Chapter IIIA__'Pre-institution Mediation and Settlement' in the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 was inserted
in the year............
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2015
28. An offence punishable under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 shall
be..............
(a) Non-bailable and cognizable
(b) Non-bailable and non-cognizable
(c) bailable and cognizable
(d) None of these options
29. The punishment for causing death by negligence under section 304A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is
(a) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
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(b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with
both
(c) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
(d) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with
both
30. Indian Penal Code was by..............
(a) Lord William Bentik
(b) Lord Delhousie
(c) Thomas Babington Macaulay
(d) Dr. Ambedkar drafted
31. Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of
such war, shall be punished with............
(a) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
(b) Imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
(c) Death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
(d) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to
fine
32. .................is designated as 'grievous hurt' under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
(a) Any hurt which endangers life
(b) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain
(c) Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
(d) All of these options
33. ............is an offence against the Public Tranquillity.
(a) Bribery
(b) Affray
(c) Fabricating false evidence
(d) Obstruction to lawful apprehension
34. In which of these cases were the Transgender people recognized as a Third gender?
(a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
(b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) Sarla Mudgal, President, Kalyani v. Union of India
(d) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
35. Any person may obtain an extract from the register of births and deaths relating to any birth or death
under.............. Of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
(a) Section 12
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 19
(d) Section 20
36. Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other, are called.............
(a) Reciprocal promises
(b) Acceptance
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(c) Voidable contracts
(d) None of these options
37. ………means and includes causing, however innocently, a party to to an agreement, to make a mistake as to
the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
(a) Fraud
(b) Undue influence
(c) Coercion
(d) Misrepresentation
38. The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called.........
(a) Hypothecation
(b) Pledge
(c) Guarantee
(d) Collateral security
39. 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both hockey
and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is
(a) 2
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) 3
40. Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same time rate how many minutes would it
take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 100
(d) 700
41. Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided
not to contribute, each of the other friends had to pay Rs. 150 more. The cost of the gift was Rs.
(a) 666
(b) 3000
(c) 12000
(d) 6000
42. 'A' bought a certain quantity of bananas at a total cost of Rs. 1500. He sold 1/3 of these bananas at 25% loss.
If he earns an overall profit of 10%, at what percentage profit did 'A' sell the rest of the bananas?
(a) 25.00%
(b) 27.00%
(c) 27.50%
(d) 25.75%
43. Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali,
Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the Mowing pairs are seated opposite each other?
(a) Rahul and Murali
(b) Srinivas and Arul
(c) Srinivas and Murali
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(d) Srinivas and Rahul
44. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism
shall be punished with...................
(a) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for ten years
(b) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
(c) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for seven years
(d) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for five years
45. ...means any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary course of
business to the members of the public.
(a) Data provider
(b) Cyber cafe
(c) Wifi
(d) Bluetooth
46. Choose the appropriate word from the options given to complete the following sentence: "One of his
biggest...........was his ability to forgive.".
(a) Vice
(b) Virtues
(c) Choices
(d) Strength
47. The grammatical categories of 'Strength, strengthen' are
(a) Noun, Verb
(b) Verb, Noun
(c) Adjective, Verb
(d) Adjective, Noun
48. A sheaf is of................
(a) Train
(b) Aeroplan
(c) Buses
(d) Arrows
49. The synonym of the word 'APEX' is
(a) Peak
(b) Underground
(c) Qualified
(d) Greedy
50. The antonym of the word 'Malign' is.............
(a) Praise
(b) Support
(c) Criticize
(d) Slender
51. Select the most appropriate word that can replace the highlighted word without changing the meaning of the
sentence: 'Now-a-days, most children have a tendency to belittle the legitimate concerns of their parents'.
(a) Disparage
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(b) bedrudge
(c) Reduce
(d) Applaud
52. Choose the correct idiom, from the options given, for: "loose one's temper".
(a) Flesh and blood
(b) In cold blood
(c) Knockout
(d) Fly off the handle
53. Choose the correct word for the expression given: "a room for the display of works of art".
(a) artery
(b) Artillery
(c) Gallery
(d) Library
54. Which of the options given, best completes the given sentence: 'She will feel much better if she...............
(a) Will get some rest
(b) Gets some rest
(c) Will be getting some rest
(d) Is getting some rest
55. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or the Board under the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015 may, within 30 days from the date of such order, prefer an appeal to
the.....
(a) Wakf Board
(b) Children's Court
(c) Metropolitan Magistrate
(d) High Court
56. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, 'heinous· offences' includes the
offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for
the time being in force is.....
(a) Imprisonment for five years or more
(b) Imprisonment for seven years or more
(c) Capital punishment or imprisonment for life
(d) Imprisonment for ten years or more
57. The provisions regarding 'bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be in conflict with law' is
found in which of these sections of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protects of Children) Act, 2015?
(a) Section 12
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 10
(d) Section 9
58. Which of these Acts define the expression 'penetrative sexual assault'?
(a) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(b) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
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(c) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
(d) The Indecent Representation Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
59. Under section 35 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, the Special Court shall
complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of .......... from the date of taking cognizance of the
offence.
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) six months
(d) three years
60. Under section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, any Court may alter or add to any charge at any
time.............
(a) Before the witnesses are examined
(b) Before the arguments are concluded
(c) Before the judgment is pronounced
(d) None of these options
61. Proceedings under section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 may be taken against any person in
any district
(a) Where he or his wife resides
(b) Where he last resided with his wife
(c) Where he is
(d) All of these options
62. ………is the main legislation on procedure for administration of substantive criminal law in India.
(a) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(c) The Bombay Police Act, 1951
(d) The Code of Criminal Procedure,.1973
63. In which of these cases did the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that ... Section 198(2), Cr.P.C. which contains
procedure for prosecution under Chapter XX of the Indian Penal Code shall be unconstitutional to the extent
that it is applicable to the offence of Adultery under section 497, I.P.C.'?
(a) Baba Saheb Maruti Kamble v. State of Maharashtra
(b) Joseph Shine v. Union of India
(c) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
(d) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
64. The provisions regarding 'Recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service' is found
in which of these Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 233
(b) Article 233A
(c) Article 234
(d) Article 237
65. Part III of the Constitution of India guarantees
(a) Citizenship
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
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(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
66. The words 'unity and integrity of the Nation' were substituted for the words 'unity of the Nation' by
the............
(a) Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
(b) Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
(c) Constitution (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1974
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005
67. In which of these cases has the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India held that 'Timely delivery of justice is part
of human rights. Denial of speedy justice is a threat to public confidence in the administration of justice'?
(a) K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
(b) Hussain v. Union of India
(c) Dipak Shubashchandra Mehta v. Central Bureau of Investigation
(d) Ravinder Singh v. State of Himachal Pradesh
68. What is the proper court-fee to be paid on a Vakalatnama when presented for the conduct of any one case to
a District Court or Court of Session?
(a) Rs. 2/-
(b) Rs. 3/-
(c) Rs. 5/-
(d) Rs. 10/-
69. Give the meaning of "Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Propria Sua Causa".
(a) No man can be judge in his own case
(b) A man shall not be vexed twice for one and the same cause
(c) No one can be punished twice for the same crime or offence
(d) No one is to be punished for the crime or wrong of another
70. Audi Alteram Partem means.....
(a) Alternate parties to the proceedings
(b) No one shall be condemned unheard
(c) State of affairs in accordance with law
(d) None of these options
71. 'Minor' under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 means................
(a) A person who has not completed the age of eighteen years but has not
(b) A person who has completed the age of sixteen years completed the age of eighteen years
(c) a person who has not completed the age of sixteen years
(d) A person who has completed the age of twelve years but has not completed the age of eighteen years
72. .................means an instrument made in relation to a Will, and explaining,, altering or adding to its
dispositions, and shall be deemed to form part of the Will.
(a) Corrigendum
(b) Addendum
(c) Codicil
(d) Deed of amendment
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73. The Sale of Goods is a..... Law
(a) Administrative
(b) Adjective
(c) Mercantile
(d) None of these options
74. Under section 2(4) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, "document of title to goods" includes............
(a) Warehouse keeper's certificate
(b) Railway receipt
(c) Bill of lading
(d) All of these options
75. An application for setting aside arbitral award may not be made after months have elapsed from the date on
which the party making that application had received the arbitral award or, if a request had been made under
Section 33, from the date on which that request had been disposed of by the arbitral tribunal.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) three
(d) four
76. The provisions regarding 'Interim measures ordered by arbitral tribunal are found in which of these sections
of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 ?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 18
(d) Section 34
77. ............ Was the Political Guru of Gandhiji.
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Mahadev Desai
(c) Karam Chand Gandhi
(d) John Ruskin
78. .................founded the Theosophical Society in India and started the Home Rule League.
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
79. Which one of the given options is classified as one of the inner planets?
(a) Mars
(b) Saturn
(c) Jupiter
(d) Uranu
80. The national tree of India is....
(a) The Mango Tree
(b) The Palm Tree
(c) The Banyan Tree
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(d) The Nilgiri Tree
81. The largest Country of world (area-wise) is...............
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) Canada
(d) USA
82. .................. is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu.
(a) Kathakali
(b) Bharatnatyam
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Mohiniattam
83. India has ................ languages which have been given the official language status.
(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 25
84. The sport organization FIDE is associated with the game of
(a) Football
(b) Table Tennis
(c) Chess
(d) Badminton
85. The study of ………is called Selenology.
(a) Sun
(b) Neptune
(c) Mercury
(d) Moon
86. The location of the famous tourist spot 'Laxman Jhula' is.........
(a) Delhi
(b) Chhatarpur (Madhya Pradesh)
(c) Rishikesh (Uttarakhand)
(d) None of these options
87. The Richter scale was invented by an American seismologist named Charles Richter to quantify the
magnitude or strength of...............
(a) Tides
(b) An earthquake
(c) Volcano
(d) Tornado
88. The period of limitation for filing a suit to cancel or set aside an instrument or decree or for the rescission of
a contract is......
(a) Three years
(b) One year
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(c) Twelve years
(d) Thirty years
89. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal, under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), to a
High Court from any decree or order is.........
(a) 120 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 30 days
90. Under section 2(a) of the Limitation Act, 1963, "applicant" includes.....
(a) Any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as administrator or other representative or
(b) Any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply
(c) A petitioner
(d) All of these options
91. The period of limitation for preferring an application to record an adjustment or satisfaction of a decree is 30
days. The time from which period begins to run is…….
(a) When the payment or adjustment is made
(b) When the payment or adjustment is refused
(c) When an appeal is preferred against the decree
(d) None of these options
92. ...... Is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised.
(a) Mortgage
(b) License
(c) Sale
(d) Lease
93. Under section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, if the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, such a
gift is
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Valid
(d) None of these options
94. The person committing an offence under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 shall be
punished with................
(a) Imprisonment for two years with fine to twice the amount of cheque
(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the
amount of the cheque
(c) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and with fine may extend to twice the
amount of the cheque, or with both
(d) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the
amount of the cheque
95. In which of these cases did the Hon'ble Supreme Court observed thus "The consequences scuttling the
criminal process at a pre-trial stage can be grave and irreparable. Quasi-proceedings at preliminary stages
will result in finality without the parties having had opportunity to adduce evidence and the consequence
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then is that the proper forum i.e. trial Court is ousted from weighing the material evidence. If this is allowed,
the accused may be given an un-merited advantage in the criminal process”?
(a) Akhilesh Prasad v. Jharkhan Public Service Commission and Others
(b) Ratish Babu Unnikrishnan v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi) and Another
(c) Shraddha Gupta v. State of Uttar Pradesh and Others
(d) Ram Chander v. State of Chhattisgarh
96. Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under section 138 of N.I. Act, 1881 upon complaint
made within....... of the date on which the cause of action arises under clause () of the proviso to section 138.
(a) six months
(b) three months
(c) two months
(d) one month
97. Every offence under the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition to Sex Selection)
Act, 1994 shall be
(a) Cognizable, non-bailable and non- compoundable
(b) Cognizable, bailable and compoundable
(c) Non-cognizable, non-bailable and compoundable
(d) Non-cognizable, bailable and non- compoundable
98. The provisions regarding 'Effect of non- registration' are found in which of these sections of the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932?
(a) Section 69
(b) Section 59
(c) Section 68
(d) None of these options
99. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, "business" includes.........
(a) Every trade
(b) Profession
(c) Occupation
(d) All of these options
100. Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, "liquor" includes.........
(a) Spirits
(b) Wine
(c) Toddy
(d) All of these options
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