PRACTICE EXERCISES FOR CHM 121

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS & CONVERT TO PDF BEFORE SUBMISSION

1. Give the IUPAC nomenclature of this compound

2,5-dimethylhept-1,3,5-triene
2. Give the IUPAC nomenclature of this compound

6-phenyl non-2-ene-5-ol

3. The correct IUPAC name for the compound is

2,7,7-trimethyl-5-nitroheptan-3-yne
4. You are provided with 1.00 mol of Mg and 0.252 mol of iron (III) oxide. The balanced
equation for the reaction is 3Mg + Fe2O3 → 3MgO + 2 Fe [Mg= 24, O=16,Fe= 56] What is
the maximum amount of Fe that can be produced? 28.2g of Fe
5. What mass of ZnCl2 can be prepared from the reaction of 3.27g of zinc with 3.30g of HCl?
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 [Zn = 65g H= 1 Cl= 35.5]. 6.17g of ZnCl2
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT
A. Chemical equilibrium can only be achieved in closed system. B. Chemical equilibrium is
dynamic in nature C. Chemical equilibrium can be achieved from either direction. D. Only
reactants can be used as the initial source for the establishment of chemical equilibrium
7. A state function is defined as a property that
A. Depends on the number of particles. B. It is independent by the state was achieved C.
Depends on how the state was achieved. D. Has all properties described above
8. In an open system .... can be exchanged across a boundary.
A. matter and energy B. neither matter nor energy C. either matter or energy D. only energy
9. A chemical reaction that absorbs heat from the surrounding is said to be...... and has a
....... H at constant pressure.
A. Endothermic, positive B. Endothermic, negative C. Exothermic positive
D. Exothermic negative
10. An endothermic reaction is a reaction which occurs
A. with evolution B. with absorption of heat C. in forward direction direction D. In backward
direction
11. Which of the following is not a simple sugar? A. mannose B. glucose C. sucrose D.
arabinose
12. The quantity of heat evolved or absorbed during a chemical reaction is called ....... A.
Heat of reaction B. Heat of formation C. Heat of combustion D. Heat of combination

13. Energy changes that accompany physical and chemical processes are called ........ A.
Enthalpy change B.Thermodynamics C. Enthalpy of reaction D. Physical and chemical
reaction
14.Which statements concerning the sign conventions of ∆E= q + w is false? A. For work
done by the system, w is negative B. For heat absorbed by the system, q is positive C. If ∆E
is positive, energy can be written as a product in the equation of the reaction D. When
energy is released by the reacting system ∆E is negative.
15. Which of the following techniques cannot be used to calculate ∆H of the reaction? A.
melting points of reactants and products B. calorimetry C. Hess’s Law D. bond energies of
reactants and products
16. The energy flowing through a boundary as a result of temperature difference is A. work
B. Heat C. Enthalpy D. Internal energy
17. The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called ..........
A . Specific heat B. Thermal capacity C. Water heat D. Heat energy
18. Hydrogenation of CH2=CH2 gives
A. CH3CH2(OH) B. C2H6
C. CH2XCH3 D. CH2XCH2X
19. A carbon atom bearing four different atoms or groups of atoms is called .............
A. optical carbon B. chiral center C. dextrorotary D. enantiomer
20. Which of these is the correct trend observed when moving down the group of elements
in the periodic table.?
A. two extra shells are added B. three electrons shells are added C. An electron shell is
removed D. an extra shell is added.
21. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Halogens exist as diatomic molecules B. Noble gases have low melting and boiling
point. C. Reactivity decreases as you go down the group D. Helium is heavier than air.
22. Which of the following is correct?
A. vertical columns are groups B. Vertical columns are called periods. C. Horizontal columns
are called groups. D. Horizontal columns are periods.
23. The atomic size of any element is determined by A. Nuclear charge B. Electronic
configuration C. isotopes D. screening effect
24. The amount of energy required to remove an electron completely from an atom to
produce an ion is called ........A. electron affinity B. ionization energy C. activation energy
energy
25. What is entropy of a system?
A. Rate of random motion.
B. Degree of randomness or disorderliness of a system
C. A degree of dynamic coherence and stability of a system D. Degree of orderliness and
cohesiveness of a system
D. potential
26. The electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 can be assigned to ......... A. K only B.
Ca+ C. both K and Ca+ D. None of the above

27. Hund’s rule states that ......

A. electrons must not sit next to another person in the bus. B. electrons enter the lowest
available energy level C. an orbital can hold up to two electrons D. electrons in similar
energy orbitals remain unpaired as far as possible
28. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of Boron and Aluminium are ....? A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
29. How many protons and electrons are present in sulphide ion if it has a charge of -2? A.
16p and 18 e B. 18p and 16e C. 18p and 18e D. 31p and 14e
30. The Aufbau’s principle states that ........
A. electrons enter the lowest available energy levels B. only two electrons can occupy an
orbital C. orbitals are regions in space where one is likely to find an electron. D. electrons
remain unpaired if possible.
31. Which of the following statement about p orbital is incorrect? A. They are found in all
principal energy levels B. they have a dumb- bell shape C. There are three types of p orbital
D. each p orbital can hold up to two electrons
32. An atom that contains 35protons, 45 neutrons and 35 electrons have an atomic number
of .... Atomic number=35
33. The electronic configuration of zinc is ......1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6 4S2 3D10
34. How many unpaired electrons are found in the most stable electronic state (ground
state)of an argon atom? 0
35. An atom of element Y has the electronic configuration of 1s22s2p63s23p3, the
compound most likely formed with magnesium Mg is ......Mg3Y2

36. Inside the nucleus of a atom are ...........5 proton,6 neutrons

37. Which of the following atoms has the greatest number of unpaired electrons in its
ground state? Ca
38. Which of the following pairs contains isoelectronic species?
A. F2, Cl2 B. Na, Na+ C. S2-, S D. D. Na+,O2-

39. What volume of 0.20M NaOH is required to neutralize 50cm3 of 0.1M H2SO4? 50cm3
40. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Ideal gases do not exist in real life.
B. Most gases do not behave ideally above 1 atm pressure
C. Real gases obey ideal gas law at low pressures and high temperatures D. Ideal gases
exist in real life and all gases aim to obey the law at s.t.p.
41. 5.5g of sodium carbonate decomposes to sodium oxide and carbon dioxide in a sealed
5.0L flask. What is the pressure inside the flask after the reaction goes to completion and the
temperature is 25°C? [Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16] 0.254atm
42. Noble gases are defined as ...........completely filled outermost electrons
43. In which species does Sulphur have the highest oxidation number? A. K2SO4 B. H2S
C. SO2 D. S8

44. Which of the following is not a property of group I elements? A. They are electropositive
elements B. They have one valence electron C. They react with water D. They accept one
valence electron.
45. Which one of the following elements is used as an antiseptic agent for cuts? A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine C. Bromine D. Iodine
46. The ability of carbon atoms being covalently bonded to other carbon atoms is
called….Catenation
47. The bond angle in sp3 hybridization is .........109.5
48. The product of the reaction of acyl chloride with aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbons in
the presence of a Lewis acid is ....
A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. acid D. alcohol
49. An epoxide can be prepared from an alkene by reacting the alkene with which of the
following A. ozone B. KMnO4 C. acid D. per acid
50. Reaction of alkene with cold alkaline KMnO4 will give
A. alcohol B. Diol C. Ketone and aldehyde D. D. two ketones
51. Two classes of hydrocarbons having the same general formula areA. alkanes and alkene
B. alkyne and alkene C. cycloalkane and alkane D. cycloalkane and alkene
52. Alkane can be obtained from acid salt by ......
A. decarboxylation B. reduction C. alcoholysis D. hydrolysis
53. Which of the rules below can be used to determine if a compound is aromatic
A. Markonicoff’s rule B. Huckel’s rule C. Hund’s rule D. Kekule’s rule
54. How many products might be obtained from the nitration of toluene
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
55. Which of the following cannot be used to convert an alcohol to alkyl halide
A. PCl5 B. HCl C. SOCl2 D. AlCl3
56. The reduction of an ester to alcohol can be brought about by ........
A. LiAlH4 / C2H5OH B. LiAlH4 / (C2H5)2O C. NaBH4 / C2H5OH
D. NaBH4 / (C2H5)2OC
57. Aldehydes are usually more reactive than ketones because of ...
A. overcrowding in ketones B. overcrowding in aldehydes
C. Presence of hydrogen in aldehydes D. absence of hydrogen in ketones
58. Based on the periodic trends for ionization energy, which element has the highest
ionization energy?
A. Si B. Ge C. Sn D. Pb
60. Which of the element has the smallest atomic radius?
A. Potassium (K)
B. Titanium(Ti)
C. Copper(Cu)
D. Germanium (Ge)
59. Which of the element has the largest atomic radius?
A. Sc B. Ti C. V D. Cr
61. Which one of these has more metallic character? A. Si
B. Ge
C. Sn
D. Pb
63. ΔG = ΔH – TΔS represents .....
A. Enthalpy energy
B. Bond energy
C. Gibb’s free energy
D. Entropy
64. When ΔS is negative and ΔH is negative, what happens to spontaneity
A. There is spontaneity at low temperatures
B. There is spontaneity at high temperatures
C. There is non-spontaneity at any temperature
D. There is spontaneity at all temperatures
65. When is there spontaneity at all temperatures?
A. ΔS is positive, ΔH is negative
B. ΔS is positive, ΔH is positive
C. ΔS is negative, ΔH is negative
D. ΔS is negative, ΔH is positive
62. Which of the element is not a rare gas?
A. Se B. Ne
C. Kr D. Xe
66. The difference between PCl3 and PCl5 is that PCl3 is a ........ while PCl5 is a ....... A. Oily
liquid and yellow solid
B. Brownish solid and whitish liquid
C. Semi- solid and brownish solid
D. Cloudy liquid and reddish solid.
67. .............. is good for making match sticks.
A.Hydrazine B. Sodium fluoride C. Phosphorus sulphide D. Bismuth

68. All are reducing agents except ..........

A. Pt
B. Pd
C. Ni
D. O2
69. Antimony (III) oxide is ...........
A. an acid
B. Amphoteric compound C. A basic compound
D. A desiccant
70. The oxidation states of antimony include -3, +3, and +5 ......... A. +3 B. -3 C. -2 D. +5
71. Compounds of arsenic are used as ............ except insecticides
A.alloys B. abrasives D. weed killers
72. Fertilizers are made from all these except
A. Ammonium sulphate B. Potassium or sodium nitrate
C. Urea D. Boric acid
73. The reaction of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia produces A.Schiff bases B. Acid
salt C. Secondary amine D.Tertiary amine
74. Group 15 elements are referred to as ........
A. Metallic compounds
B. Pnicogens
C. Charcogens
D. Transition elements

75. Sc, Ni and Cu belong to the family termed ......

A. Metallic compounds B. Pnictogens C. Chalcogens D. Transition metals
76. Which of the following pairs belong to the same period? A. Rb and V B. Na and Li C. Mn
and Fe D. Na and Ne
77. Why is the carbonyl group regarded as being polar?
A. because of the greater electronegativity of oxygen
B. because of the greater overcrowding
C. because of the steric effects on the carbon
D. because they dissolve in aqueous solution with amphoteric character
78. Hydrolysis of diazonium salts gives A. Carboxylic acids
B. Phenols C. Zinc chloride D. nitric oxide
79.Reaction of primary amines with alkyl halide in alkaline medium gives ....... A. Secondary
amine B. Alcohol C. Carboxylic acid D. Nitrile
80. All the following are methods of obtaining amines except....
A.Ammonolysis of alkyl halide
B.Reductive Animation of aldehydes and ketones
C. Reductive hydrogenation of alkenes
D. Reduction of nitroalkanes using with LiAlH4
81. (CH3)3N is named ........
A. Nitromethine
B. 1,1,1- tri methylnitrate
C. Trimethylamine
D. methylaminenitrate
82. .............. is an example of a secondary amine.
A. (CH3)2NH B. NH3
C. CH3NH2
D. (CH3)3N
83. Esters undergo hydrolysis with mineral acids or alkalis to yield ........... A. Alkane and
alcohol
B. Alcohol and aldehyde
C. Aldehyde and ketone
D. carboxylic and alcohol
84. Which of these factors will not affect solubility?
A. Solute-solvent interaction B. Catalyst
C. Temperature
D. Pressure
85. All these are carboxylic acid derivatives except .........
A. RCOOR’ B. RCOCl C. ROR’
D. RCONH2
86. Methyl ketones on oxidation with halogen and hydroxide ions produce ...........
A. Alcohol
B. Ketone
C. Aldehyde
D. Carboxylic acid
87. Primary alcohols and aldehydes are oxidized to carboxylic acids with.......
A. HCl / H3O+
B. CH3COOH in ZnCl2
C. K2Cr2O7 in H2SO4
D. H2 / Pt or Ni
88. ..... is a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture of two or more chemically non-reacting
substances. A. Compound
B. Solvent
C. solute
D. Solution
89......... test is used to determine whether a given unknown chemical contains carbonyl
compounds with the structure R-CO-CH3 ...
A. Iodoform
B. Lucas
C. Bromine
D. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
90. Phenols are distinguished from alcohols using ............. A.Bromine water
B. Potassium Permanganate
C. Ferric Chloride
D. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
91. Alkenes are distinguished from alkyne using .......... A. Ammoniacal cuprous chloride
B. Ferricchloride
C. Potassium Permanganate
D. Bromine water
92. Alkanes are different from alkenes and alkynes because
A. They have double bonds B. They're Saturated.
C. They're Unsaturated. D. They have pi electrons
93. Which of these formulas is associated with the Alkanoates? A. RX
B. ROH C. RCOOR D. RCOOH
94. Carbonyl compounds give orange precipitate with ........ reagent. A. Iodoform
B. Tollen’s C. Brady’s D. Lucas
95. Which of these reagents is used to identify the three classes of alcohol? A. Iodoform test
B. Tollen’s reagent
C. Brady’s reagent
D. Lucas reagent
96. Which alkali metal belong to the sixth period?
A. Li B. Rb C. Na D. Cs
97. Which halogen belongs to the fourth period? A. F
B. Cl C. Br D. I
98. What is the Periodic Law?
A. The properties of elements repeat periodically
B. The properties of elements with the same frequency.
C. The reoccurring periods and groups.
D. The properties that take their relative course and colours.
99. Based on the periodic trends for ionization energy, which element has the highest
ionisation energy?
A. Fluorine (F)
B. Nitrogen (N)
C. Neon (Ne)
D. Lithium (Li)

100. Which of the element has the largest atomic radius? A. Al

B. Ga
C. In
D. Tl
101. Which of the element has the largest atomic radius?
A. Ca B. Ge C. Se D. Br
102. Which one of these has more metallic character? A. Si
B. Ge
C. Sn
D. Pb
104. By what property did Mendeleev arrange the elements?
A. electronegativity
B. atomic mass
C. atomic radius
D. Atomic number
105. By what property did Moseley suggest that the Periodic Table be arranged?
A. electronegativity
B. atomic mass
C. atomic radius
D. Atomic number
106. A period is ..................
A. vertical rows on the periodic table.
B. horizontal columns on the periodic table.
C. vertical columns on the periodic table.
D. A horizontal row on the periodic table.
107. How many periods are in the Periodic Table? A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
103. Which of the element has the largest atomic radius?
A. C B. N C. O D. F
108. A group is ....................
A.vertical column on the Periodic table.
B.vertical rows on the periodic table.
C.horizontal columns on the periodic table.
D. horizontal row on the periodic table.
horizontal columns on the periodic table.
109. There are ........... number of groups. A. 2
B. 8
C. 18
D. 32
110. A group is also called ......... A. Tally
B. Family
C. Series
D. Columns
111. Sulphur has the following oxidation numbers except
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
112. An atom of Calcium has .............. number of valence electrons in its outermost shell.A.1
B. 2 C. 3 D.4
113. A chloride ion has ..... number of electrons in its outermost shell.
A. 1 B. 3 C. 7 D. 8
114. The chemical symbol for elements with 7, 10, 18,30,90 atomic number
A. F, Ne, Ar, Zn, Th
B. N, F, Cl, Ni, Pb
C. N, Ne, Ar, Zn, Th
D. O, Na, K, Cu, T
115. Be, Fe and Pb belong to periods ......
 A. 2,3,4
B. 2,4,6
C. 1,3,4
D. 3,4,5
116. Be, Fe and Pb belong to groups ......
A. 2,8,14
B. 2,8,18
C. 2, 6,14
D. 2, 5,14
117. Which of the following pairs belong to the same period? A. Na and Cl B. Na and Li C.
Na and Cu D. Na and Ne
118. Which of the following pairs belong to the same group? A. H and He B. Li and Be C. C
and Pb D. Ga and Ge
119. How does the period number of elements relate to the number of the energy level of its
valence electrons?
A. Group number equals the energy level of valence electrons
B. Atomic number equals the energy level of valence electrons
C. The number of electrons equals the number of protons.
D. Period number equals the energy level of valence electrons
120. Which is NOT a property of transition elements?
A. They form non-complex ions.
B. They form coloured compounds due to the presence d-d transitions.
C. They form paramagnetic compounds due to the presence of unpaired d electrons.
D. They are elements with variable oxidation states.