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 Solid State

EXERCISES [PAGES 25 - 27]

Exercises | Q 1.1 | Page 25

Choose the most correct answer.
Molecular solids are _______.
1. crystalline solids
2. amorphous solids
3. ionic solids
4. metallic solids
Solution: Molecular solids are crystalline solids.
Exercises | Q 1.2 | Page 25
Choose the most correct answer.
Which of the following is n-type semiconductor?
1. Pure Si
2. Si doped with As
3. Si doped with Ga
4. Ge doped with In
Solution: Si doped with As
Exercises | Q 1.3 | Page 25
Choose the most correct answer.
In Frenkel defect, _______.
1. electrical neutrality of the substance is changed
2. density of the substance is changed
3. both cation and anion are missing
4. overall electrical neutrality is preserved
Solution: In Frenkel defect, overall electrical neutrality is preserved.
Exercises | Q 1.4 | Page 25
Choose the most correct answer.
In crystal lattice formed by bcc unit cell, the void volume is _______.
1. 68 %
2. 74 %
3. 32 %
4. 26 %
Solution: In crystal lattice formed by bcc unit cell, the void volume is 32%.
Exercises | Q 1.5 | Page 26
Choose the most correct answer.
The coordination number of atoms in bcc crystal lattice is _______.
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
Solution: The coordination number of atoms in bcc crystal lattice is 8.
Exercises | Q 1.6 | Page 26
Choose the most correct answer.
Which of the following is CORRECT?
1. Four spheres are involved in the formation of a tetrahedral void.
2. The centres of spheres in octahedral voids are at the apices of a regular tetrahedron.
3. If the number of atoms is N, the number of octahedral voids is 2N.
4. If the number of atoms is N/2, the number of tetrahedral voids is N.
Solution: Four spheres are involved in the formation of a tetrahedral void.
Exercises | Q 1.7 | Page 26
Choose the most correct answer.
A compound forms hcp structure. Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids in 0.5
mole of substance is respectively _______.
1. 3.011 × 1023, 6.022 × 1023
2. 6.022 × 1023, 3.011 × 1023
3. 4.011 × 1023, 2.011 × 1023
4. 6.011 × 1023, 12.022 × 1023
Solution: A compound forms hcp structure. Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids
in 0.5 mole of substance is respectively 3.011 × 1023, 6.022 × 1023.
Exercises | Q 1.8 | Page 26
Choose the most correct answer.
 Pb has fcc structure with edge length of unit cell 495 pm. Radius of Pb atom is
_______.
1. 205 pm
2. 185 pm
3. 260 pm
4. 175 pm
Solution: Pb has fcc structure with edge length of unit cell 495 pm. Radius of Pb atom
is 175 pm.
Exercises | Q 2.01 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What are the types of particles in each of the four main classes of crystalline solids?
Solution:
The type of particles in each of the four main classes of crystalline solids are:
1. Ionic solids: Constituent particles are cations and anions.
2. Covalent network solids: Constituent particles are atoms.
3. Molecular solids: Constituent particles are monoatomic or polyatomic molecules.
4. Metallic solids: Constituent particles are metallic ions in a sea of electrons.
Exercises | Q 2.02 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Which of the three types of packing used by metals makes the most efficient use of
space and which makes the least efficient use?
Solution: Out of the three types of packing, face-centered cubic (or ccp or hcp) lattice
makes the most efficient use of space while simple cubic lattice makes the least efficient
use of space.
Exercises | Q 2.03 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
The following pictures show population of bands for materials having different electrical
properties. Classify them as insulator, semiconductor or metal.
 Solution: The picture in the left represents a metal, the picture in the middle represents
an insulator and the picture in the right represents a semiconductor.
Exercises | Q 2.04 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is the unit cell?
Solution: The smallest repeating structural unit of a crystalline solid is called unit cell.
Exercises | Q 2.05 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
How does the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor change with temperature?
Why?
Solution:
1. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increasing temperature.
2. This is because the number of electrons with sufficient energy so as to get promoted to
the conduction band increases as temperature rises. Thus, at higher temperatures,
there are more mobile electrons in the conduction band and more vacancies in the
valence band than at lower temperatures.
Exercises | Q 2.06 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
The picture represents bands of MOs for Si. Label valence band, conduction band, and
band gap.

Solution:

Exercises | Q 2.07 | Page 26

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
A solid is hard, brittle and electrically nonconductor. Its melt conducts electricity. What
type of solid is it?
Solution:
Ionic solids are hard and brittle. They are nonconductors of electricity in solid-state.
However, they are good conductors when melted. Hence, the given solid is an ionic
solid.
Exercises | Q 2.08 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Mention two properties that are common to both hcp and ccp lattices.
Solution:
Properties common to both hcp and ccp lattice are the same coordination number of the
particles (i.e., 12) and the same packing efficiency (74%).
Exercises | Q 2.09 | Page 26
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Sketch a tetrahedral void.
Solution:
Tetrahedral void:

Exercises | Q 2.1 | Page 26

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What are ferromagnetic substances?
Solution: The substances containing large number of unpaired electrons are attracted
strongly by magnetic field. Such substances are called as ferromagnetic substances.

Exercises | Q 3.01 | Page 26

 Answer the following in brief.
What are valence band and conduction band?
Solution:
1. Conduction band:
The highest energy band formed by the interaction of the outermost energy levels of
closely spaced atoms in solids is called the conduction band.
The conduction band may be partially occupied or vacant.
Electrons in the conduction band are mobile and delocalized over the entire solid. They
conduct electricity when an electrical potential is applied.
2. Valence band:
The band having lower energy than conduction band is the valence band.
The electrons in valence band are not free to move because they are tightly bound to
the respective nuclei.
Exercises | Q 3.02 | Page 26
Answer the following in brief.
Distinguish between ionic solids and molecular solids
Solution:
Ionic solids Molecular solids
1. The constituent particles are charged ions 1. The constituent particles are monoatomic
(cations and anions). or polyatomic molecules

2. The constituent particles are held by the 2. The constituent particles are held by
electrostatic force of attraction between intermolecular forces of attractions such as
oppositely charged ions. London forces, dipole-dipole forces and/or
hydrogen bonds.

3. They are hard and brittle. 3. They are soft.

4. They have high melting points. 4. They have low melting points.

5. They are nonconductors of electricity in 5. They are poor conductors of electricity.

solid-state. However, they are good
conductors when melted or dissolved in
water.
 6. e.g. NaCl, CaF2, etc. 6. Ice, benzoic acid, etc.

Exercises | Q 3.03 | Page 26

Answer the following in brief.
Calculate the number of atoms in fcc unit cell.
Solution:
1. A face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell has particles at the eight corners plus particles at the
centre of its six faces.
2. Each particle present at the corner of a given unit cell is shared with seven other
neighbouring unit cells. As a result, its contribution to the given unit cell is only 1/8.
Thus, the number of particles present at corners per unit cell
= 8 corner atoms ×1/8 atom per unit cell = 1
3. Each particle at the centre of the six faces is shared with one neighbouring cube. Thus,
1/2 of each face particle belongs to the given unit cell.
Thus, the number of particles present at faces per unit cell
= 6 atoms at the faces × 1/2 atom per unit cell = 3
Therefore, fcc unit cell has one corner particle plus 3 face particles, making total of 4
particles per unit cell.
Exercises | Q 3.04 | Page 26
Answer the following in brief.
How are the spheres arranged in first layer of simple cubic close-packed structures?
How are the successive layers of spheres placed above this layer?
Solution:
Simple cubic close-packed structures are obtained by stacking two-dimensional square
close-packed layers.
So, the spheres in the first layer are placed adjacent to one another to form two
dimensional square close packing (i.e., AAAA type arrangement). All the spheres of the
successive layers are placed exactly above the spheres of the lower layers. This results
in perfect horizontal and vertical alignment between the spheres of various layers.
Exercises | Q 3.05 | Page 27
Answer the following in brief.
Calculate the packing efficiency of metal crystal that has simple cubic structure.
Solution:
Packing efficiency of metal crystal in the simple cubic lattice:
• Step 1: Radius of sphere:
In the simple cubic unit cell, particles (spheres) are at the corners and touch each other
along the edge.
A face of a simple cubic unit cell is shown in the figure.
From the figure, we can find that
a = 2r or r = a/2 ......(1)
where, ‘r’ is the radius of atom and ‘a’ is the length of the unit cell edge.
• Step 2: Volume of sphere:
Volume of a sphere = (4/3π)(r3).
Substitution for r from equation (1) gives:

• Step 3: Total volume of particles:

Because a simple cubic unit cell contains only one particle, the volume occupied by the
particle in unit cell = πa3/6
• Step 4: Packing efficiency:

Thus, in a simple cubic lattice, 52.36 % of total space is occupied by particles and
47.64% is empty space, that is, void volume.
Exercises | Q 3.06 | Page 27
Answer the following in brief.
What are paramagnetic substances? Give examples.
Solution:
The substances with unpaired electrons are weakly attracted by the magnetic field.
Such substances are called as paramagnetic substances.
e.g. Oxygen, Cu2+, Fe3+, Cr3+, etc

Exercises | Q 3.07 | Page 27

Answer the following in brief.
What are the consequences of Schottky defect?
Solution:
Consequences of Schottky defect:
i. As the number of ions decreases, mass decreases. However, the volume remains
unchanged. Hence, the density of a substance decreases.
ii. The number of missing cations and anions is equal. Hence, the electrical neutrality of
the compound is preserved.

Exercises | Q 3.08 | Page 27

Answer the following in brief.
Cesium chloride crystallizes in a cubic unit cell with Cl– ions at the corners and a Cs+ ion
in the centre of the cube. How many CsCl molecules are there in the unit cell?
Solution:

Given: Cl– ions are present at corners of the cube. Cs+ ion is at the centre of the cube.

To find: Number of CsCl molecules in the unit cell

Calculation:
i. Cl– ions are present at the 8 corners. The contribution of each corner particle to the
unit cell is 1/8. Hence, the number of Cl– ions that belongs to the unit cell = 8 × (1/8) = 1

ii. Cs+ ion is at the centres of unit cell. The contribution of a particle at the centre to the
unit cell is 1. Hence, the number of Cs+ ions that belongs to the unit cell = 1
There is one Cl– ion and one Cs+ ion in the unit cell.
Hence, the number of CsCl molecules in the unit cell = 1.

Number of CsCl molecules in the unit cell = 1.

Exercises | Q 3.09 | Page 27

Answer the following in brief.
Cu crystallizes in fcc unit cell with edge length of 495 pm. What is the radius of Cu
atom?
Solution:
Given: Type of unit cell is fcc.
Edge length of unit cell (a) = 495 pm
To find: Radius of Cu atom (r)
Formula: For fcc unit cell, r = 0.3535 a
Calculation: Using formula,
r = 0.3535 a
= 0.3535 × 495 pm = 175 pm
Radius of Cu atom (r) is 175 pm.

Exercises | Q 3.1 | Page 27

Answer the following in brief.
Obtain the relationship between the density of a substance and the edge length of the
unit cell.
Solution:
Relationship between the density of a substance and the edge length of the unit cell:
1. If the edge length of the cubic unit cell is ‘a’, then the volume of the unit cell is a3.
2. Suppose that mass of one particle is 'm’ and that there are ‘n’ particles per unit cell.
∴ Mass of unit cell = m × n …(1)
3. The density of unit cell (ρ), which is same as density of the substance is given by:

Exercises | Q 4 | Page 27
The density of iridium is 22.4 g/cm3. The unit cell of iridium is fcc. Calculate the radius of
iridium atom. Molar mass of iridium is 192.2 g/mol.
Solution:
Given: Type of unit cell is fcc.
Density of iridium (ρ) = 22.4 g/cm3
Molar mass of iridium = 192.2 g/mol
To find: Radius of iridium atom (r)
Formulae:

= 3.849 × 10-8 cm = 384.9 pm

Using formula (ii)
r = 0.3535 a
r = 0.3535 × 384.9 pm = 135.7 pm ≈ 136 pm
Radius of iridium atom (r) is 136 pm.
Exercises | Q 5 | Page 27
Aluminium crystallizes in a cubic close-packed structure with a unit cell edge length of
353.6 pm. What is the radius of Al atom? How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm 3 of
Al?
Solution:
Given: Type of unit cell is ccp.
Edge length (a) = 353.6 pm = 3.536 × 10–8 cm Volume (V) of Al = 1.00 cm3
To find:
1. Radius of Al atom (r)
2. Number of unit cells in 1.00 cm3 of Al
Formulae:
1. For ccp (fcc) unit cell, r = 0.3535 a
2. Number of unit cells in volume (V) of metal = V/a3
Calculation:
1. Using formula (i),
r = 0.3535 a
∴ r = 0.3535 × 353.6 = 125 pm
2. Using formula (ii),
Number of unit cells in volume (V) of metal = V/a3

∴ Number of unit cells in 1.00 cm3 of

1. Radius of Al atom (r) is 125 pm.

2. Number of unit cells in 1.00 cm3 of Al is 2.26 × 1022.

Exercises | Q 6 | Page 27
In ionic crystalline solid atoms of element Y form hcp lattice. The atoms of element X
occupy one-third of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Solution:
Given: Atoms of element Y form hcp structure.
Atoms of element X occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids
 To find: Formula of the compound
Calculation: The atoms of element Y form hcp structure.
The number of tetrahedral voids generated is twice the number of Y atoms.
Thus, number of tetrahedral voids = 2Y
The atoms of element X occupy (1/3) of these tetrahedral voids.

Exercises | Q 7 | Page 27
How are tetrahedral and octahedral voids formed?
Solution:
1. Two dimensional hexagonal close-packed layer has triangular voids which is formed by
three spheres.
2. When the triangular voids of the first layer are covered by spheres of the next layer,
tetrahedral voids are formed. A tetrahedral void is surrounded by four spheres.
3. The overlapping triangular voids from the two layers together form an octahedral void.
An octahedral void is surrounded by six spheres.
4. Thus, the depressions in which spheres of second layer rest are tetrahedral voids while
the depressions in which no sphere rests are octahedral voids.

Exercises | Q 8 | Page 27
Third layer of spheres is added to second layer so as to form hcp or ccp structure. What
is the difference between the addition of third layer to form these close-packed
structures?
Solution:
In ccp structure, the spheres of the third layer are not aligned with those of the first layer
or second layer.
Hence, the third layer is called ‘C’ layer. The spheres of the fourth layer get aligned with
the spheres of the first layer. Hence, the fourth layer is called ‘A’ layer. The resulting
pattern of layers is called ‘ABCABC....’.
Exercises | Q 9 | Page 27
An element with molar mass 27 g/mol forms a cubic unit cell with edge length of 405
pm. If the density of the element is 2.7 g/cm3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Solution:
Given: Edge length (a) = 405 pm = 4.05 × 10-8 cm
Molar mass = 27 g mol-1, Density (ρ) = 2.7 g/cm3
To find: Nature of cubic unit cell

= 4.00
∴ Number of atoms in unit cell = 4
Since unit cell contains 4 atoms, it has face-centred cubic (fcc) or ccp structure.
The nature of the given cubic unit cell is face-centred cubic (fcc) or ccp unit cell.

Exercises | Q 10 | Page 27
An element has a bcc structure with a unit cell edge length of 288 pm. How many unit
cells and number of atoms are present in 200 g of the element? (Density of an element
= 14.44 g/cm3 )
Solution:
Given: Type of unit cell is bcc.
Edge length (a) = 288 pm = 2.88 × 10–8 cm,
Mass of element (x) = 200 g
To find:
i. Number of unit cells in 200 g of element
ii. Number of atoms in 200 g of element
Formulae:

Calculation:
i. For bcc unit cell, n = 2.
Using formula (i),
Number of atoms in 200 g of element

∴ Number of atoms in 200 g element is 1.16 × 1024.

∴ Number of unit cells in 200 g element is 5.80 ×1023.

Exercises | Q 11 | Page 27
Distinguish with the help of diagrams metal conductors, insulators and semiconductors
from each other.
Solution:
 Metal conductors Insulators Semiconductors

Metals are good conductors of Insulators are nonconductors Semiconductors have

electricity. of electricity. conductivity that is
intermediate between
conductors and
insulators.
In metal conductors, the In insulators, the valence In semiconductors, the
conduction band is partially band and conduction band in valence band is
filled and there is no band gap insulators are separated by a completely filled with
or there is overlapping large energy gap called the electrons, and the
between the valence band and forbidden zone. conduction band is
conduction band. empty. However, the
energy gap between the
two bands is smaller than
that an insulator.

Exercises | Q 12 | Page 27
What are n-type semiconductors? Why is the conductivity of doped n-type
semiconductor higher than that of pure semiconductor? Explain with diagram.
Solution:
1. An extrinsic semiconductor, which is obtained by adding group 15 element to an
intrinsic semiconductor which belongs to group 14, is called an n-type semiconductor.
e.g. Silicon doped with phosphorus
2. n-type semiconductor contains an increased number of electrons in the conduction
band.
3. Consider the doping of Si with phosphorus. Si has a crystal structure in which each Si
atom is linked tetrahedrally to four other Si atoms. When a small quantity of
phosphorous is added to pure Si, the P atoms occupy some vacant sites in the lattice in
place of Si atoms. The overall crystal structure of Si remains unchanged.
Four of the five valence electrons of P are utilized in bonding the closest to four Si
atoms. Thus, P has one extra electron than needed for bonding. Therefore, Si doped
 with P has more number of electrons in the conduction band than those in the
conduction band in pure Si. Thus, the conductivity of Si-doped with P is higher than that
of pure Si. The electrons in the conduction band move under the influence of an applied
potential and conduct electricity.
P atom occupying regular site of Si atom

Exercises | Q 13 | Page 27
Explain with diagram, Frenkel defect. What are the conditions for its formation? What is
its effect on density and electrical neutrality of the crystal?
Solution:
• Frenkel defect:
a. Frenkel defect arises when an ion of an ionic compound is missing from its regular
lattice site and occupies an interstitial position between lattice points. The cations are
usually smaller than anions. Therefore, the cations occupy interstitial sites.
b. The smaller cation is displaced from its normal site to interstitial space. It, therefore,
creates a vacancy defect at its original position and an interstitial defect at its new
location in the same crystal. Frenkel defect can be regarded as the combination of
vacancy defect and interstitial defect.
c. This defect is found in ionic crystals like ZnS, AgCl, AgBr, AgI and CaF2.
Frenkel defect
• Conditions for the formation of Frenkel defect:
a. Frenkel defect occurs in ionic compounds with large difference between sizes of
cation and anion.
b. The ions of ionic compounds must be having low coordination number.
• Consequences of Frenkel defect:
a. As no ions are missing from the crystal lattice as a whole, the density of solid and its
chemical properties remain unchanged.
b. The crystal as a whole remains electrically neutral because the equal numbers of
cations and anions are present.

Exercises | Q 14 | Page 27
What is an impurity defect? What are its types? Explain the formation of vacancies
through aliovalent impurity with example.
Solution:
i. Impurity defect arises when foreign atoms, that is, atoms different from the host
atoms, are present in the crystal lattice.
ii. There are two kinds of impurity defects: Substitutional and interstitial impurity defects.
iii. Formation of vacancy through aliovalent impurity:
Vacancies are created by the addition of impurities of aliovalent ions (that is, ions with
oxidation state different from that of host ions) to an ionic solid.
e.g. Consider a small amount of SrCl2 impurity added to NaCl during its crystallization.
The added Sr2+ ions (O.S. = +2) occupy some of the regular sites of Na+ host ions (O.S.
= +1). In order to maintain electrical neutrality, every Sr2+ ion removes two Na+ ions.
One of the vacant lattice sites created by the removal of two Na+ ions is occupied by
one Sr2+ ion. The other site of Na+ ion remains vacant as shown in the figure.
 Solutions

EXERCISES [PAGES 44 - 46]

Exercises | Q 1.01 | Page 44

Choose the most correct option.
The vapour pressure of a solution containing 2 moles of a solute in 2 moles of water
(vapour pressure of pure water = 24 mm Hg) is ______.
1. 24 mm Hg
2. 32 mm Hg
3. 48 mm Hg
4. 12 mm Hg
Solution: The vapour pressure of a solution containing 2 moles of a solute in 2 moles of
water (vapour pressure of pure water = 24 mm Hg) is 12 mm Hg.
Exercises | Q 1.02 | Page 44
Choose the most correct option.
The colligative property of a solution is _______.
1. vapour pressure
2. boiling point
3. osmotic pressure
4. freezing point
Solution: The colligative property of a solution is osmotic pressure.
Exercises | Q 1.03 | Page 44
Choose the most correct option.
In calculating osmotic pressure the concentration of solute is expressed in _______.
1. molarity
2. molality
3. mole fraction
4. mass percent
Solution: In calculating osmotic pressure the concentration of solute is expressed
in molarity.
Exercises | Q 1.04 | Page 44
Choose the most correct option.
 Ebullioscopic constant is the boiling point elevation when the concentration of a solution
is _______.
1. 1 m
2. 1 M
3. 1 mass %
4. 1-mole fraction of solute.
Solution: Ebullioscopic constant is the boiling point elevation when the concentration of
solution is 1 m.
Exercises | Q 1.05 | Page 44
Choose the most correct option.
Cryoscopic constant depends on _______.
1. nature of solvent
2. nature of solute
3. nature of solution
4. number of solvent molecules
Solution: Cryoscopic constant depends on number of solvent molecules.
Exercises | Q 1.06 | Page 45
Choose the most correct option.
Identify the CORRECT statement.
1. Vapour pressure of solution is higher than that of pure solvent.
2. Boiling point of solvent is lower than that of solution.
3. Osmotic pressure of solution is lower than that of solvent.
4. Osmosis is a colligative property.
Solution: Boiling point of solvent is lower than that of solution.
Exercises | Q 1.07 | Page 45
Choose the most correct option.
A living cell contains a solution which is isotonic with 0.3 M sugar solution. What
osmotic pressure develops when the cell is placed in 0.1 M KCl solution at body
temperature?
1. 5.08 atm
2. 2.54 atm
3. 4.92 atm
4. 2.46 atm
Solution: 2.54 atm.
Exercises | Q 1.08 | Page 45
Choose the most correct option.
The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm at 310 K. An aqueous solution of glucose
isotonic with blood has the percentage (by volume)________.
1. 5.41 %
2. 3.54 %
3. 4.53 %
4. 53.4 %
Solution: The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm at 310 K. An aqueous solution of
glucose isotonic with blood has the percentage (by volume) 5.41%.

Exercises | Q 1.09 | Page 45

Choose the most correct option.
Vapour pressure of a solution is _______.
1. directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
2. inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
3. inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
4. directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
Solution:
Vapour pressure of a solution is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the
solute.
Exercises | Q 1.1 | Page 45
 Choose the most correct option.
Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because _______.
1. boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
2. heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
3. the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
4. cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise temperature
Solution:
Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because boiling point of water
involved in cooking is increased.
Exercises | Q 1.11 | Page 45
Choose the most correct option.
Henry’s law constant for a gas CH3Br is 0.159 mol dm-3 atm-1 at 25 °C. What is the
solubility of CH3Br in water at 25 °C and partial pressure of 0.164 atm?
1. 0.0159 mol L-1
2. 0.164 mol L-1
3. 0.026 M
4. 0.042 M
Solution: 0.026 M
Explanation:
S = KHP = 0.159 mol dm-3 atm-1 × 0.164 atm
= 0.026 M

Exercises | Q 1.12 | Page 45

Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct for 0.1 M urea solution and 0.05 M
sucrose solution?
1. Osmotic pressure exhibited by urea solution is higher than that exhibited by sucrose
solution
2. Urea solution is hypertonic to sucrose solution
3. They are isotonic solutions
4. Sucrose solution is hypotonic to urea solution
Solution: They are isotonic solutions.
Exercises | Q 2.01 | Page 45
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is osmotic pressure?
Solution:

The hydrostatic pressure (on the side of solution) that stops osmosis is called an
osmotic pressure of the solution.

OR

The excess of pressure on the side of the solution that stops the net flow of solvent into
the solution through a semipermeable membrane is called osmotic pressure.

Exercises | Q 2.02 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
A solution concentration is expressed in molarity and not in molality while considering
osmotic pressure. Why?
Solution:
1. The osmotic pressure measurements are made at a specific constant temperature.
Molarity remains constant at a specific temperature.
2. It is not necessary to express concentration in a temperature-independent unit like
molality.
Hence, the solute concentration is expressed in molarity while calculating osmotic
pressure rather than molality.

Exercises | Q 2.03 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write the equation relating boiling point elevation to the concentration of the solution.
Solution:

The boiling point elevation is directly proportional to the molality of the solution. Thus,

Δ Tb ∝ m

∴ Δ Tb ∝ Kb m

where, m is the molality of solution. The proportionality constant Kb is called boiling

point elevation constant or molal elevation constant or ebullioscopic constant.
Exercises | Q 2.04 | Page 45
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
A 0.1 m solution of K2SO4 in water has a freezing point of – 4.3 °C. What is the value of
van’t Hoff factor if Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1?
Solution:
Given: Molality of K2SO4 solution = m = 0.1 m
Freezing point of solution = Tf = – 4.3 °C
Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1
To find: van’t Hoff factor
Formula: ΔTf = i Kf m

Exercises | Q 2.05 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is van’t Hoff factor?
Solution:
van’t Hoff factor (i) is defined as the ratio of colligative property of a solution of
electrolyte divided by the colligative property of nonelectrolyte solution of the same
concentration.
Thus,
where quantities without subscript refer to electrolytes and those with subscript to
nonelectrolytes.
Exercises | Q 2.06 | Page 45
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
How is van’t Hoff factor related to degree of ionization?
Solution:
The van’t Hoff factor is related to degree of ionization as follows:
i = 1 + α (n – 1)
or
α = i-1/n-1
where, α = Degree of ionization/dissociation
i = van’t Hoff factor
n = Moles of ions obtained from ionization of 1 mole of electrolyte.

Exercises | Q 2.07 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Which of the following solution will have higher freezing point depression and why?
i. 0.1 m NaCl
ii. 0.05 m Al2(SO4)3
Solution:
For 0.1 m NaCl:
NaCl → Na+ + Cl-
0.1 m 0.1 m 0.1 m
Total particles in solution = 0.2 mol
For 0.05 m Al2(SO4)3:
0.05 m 0.1 m 0.15 m
Total particles in solution = 0.25 mol
Al2(SO4)3 solution contains more number of particles than NaCl solution. Hence,
Al2(SO4)3 solution has maximum ΔTf.
Therefore, the freezing point depression of 0.05 m Al2(SO4)3 solution will be higher than
0.1 m NaCl solution.

Exercises | Q 2.08 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
State Raoult’s law for a solution containing a nonvolatile solute.
Solution:
The Raoult’s law states that, “the vapour pressure of solvent over the solution is equal
to the vapour pressure of pure solvent multiplied by its mole fraction in the solution.”
Exercises | Q 2.09 | Page 45
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is the effect on the boiling point of water if 1 mole of methyl alcohol is added to 1
dm3 of water? Why?
Solution:
i. When 1 mole of methyl alcohol is added to 1 dm3 of water, the boiling point of water
decreases.
ii. Methyl alcohol is a volatile liquid. Therefore, it increases the vapour pressure of a
solution at a given temperature. Hence, the solution boils at lower temperature.

Exercises | Q 2.1 | Page 45

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Which of the four colligative properties is most often used for molecular mass
determination? Why?
Solution:

i. Among the four colligative properties, osmotic pressure is most often used for
molecular mass determination.

ii. Osmotic pressure is much larger and therefore more precisely measurable property
than other colligative properties.
Therefore, it is useful to determine molar masses of very expensive substances and of
the substances that can be prepared in small quantities.

Exercises | Q 3.1 | Page 45

Answer the following.
How vapour pressure lowering is related to a rise in the boiling point of solution?
Solution:
i. At the boiling point of a liquid, its vapour pressure is equal to 1 atm.
ii. In order to reach boiling point, the solution and solvent must be heated to a
temperature at which their respective vapour pressures attain 1 atm.
iii. At any given temperature the vapour pressure of a solution is lower than that of pure
solvent. Hence, the vapour pressure of solution needs a higher temperature to reach 1
atm than that of needed for vapour pressure of solvent.
Therefore, vapour pressure lowering causes a rise in the boiling point of a solution.

Exercises | Q 3.2 | Page 45

Answer the following.
What are isotonic and hypertonic solutions?
Solution:
i. Isotonic solutions:
Two or more solutions having the same osmotic pressure are said to be isotonic
solutions.
e.g. For example, 0.1 M urea solution and 0.1 M sucrose solution are isotonic because
their osmotic pressures are equal. Such solutions have the same molar concentrations
but different concentrations in g/L. If these solutions are separated by a semipermeable
membrane, there is no flow of solvent in either direction.
ii. Hypertonic solution:
If two solutions have unequal osmotic pressures, the more concentrated solution with
higher osmotic pressure is said to be the hypertonic solution.
e.g. For example, if osmotic pressure of sucrose solution is higher than that of urea
solution, the sucrose solution is hypertonic to urea solution.

Exercises | Q 3.3 | Page 46

Answer the following.
A solvent and its solution containing a nonvolatile solute are separated by a
semipermeable membrane. Does the flow of solvent occur in both directions? Comment
giving a reason.
Solution:
1. When a solution and pure solvent or two solutions of different concentrations are
separated by a semipermeable membrane, the solvent molecules pass through the
membrane.
2. The passage of solvent molecules through the semipermeable membrane takes
place in both directions, since the solvent is on both sides of the membrane.
3. However, the rate of passage of solvent molecules into the solution or from a more
dilute solution to more concentrated solution is found to be greater than the rate in the
reverse direction.
4. This is favorable since the vapour pressure of solvent is greater than that of solution.

Exercises | Q 3.4 | Page 46

Answer the following.
The osmotic pressure of CaCl2 and urea solutions of the same concentration at the
same temperature are respectively 0.605 atm and 0.245 atm, calculate van’t Hoff factor
for CaCl2.
Solution:
Given: Osmotic pressure of CaCl2 solution = 0.605 atm
Osmotic pressure of urea solution = 0.245 atm
To find: The value of van’t Hoff factor
Formulae: π = MRT, π = iMRT
Calculation: For urea solution
π = MRT
0.245 atm = MRT ....(i)
For CaCl2 solution
π = iMRT
0.602 atm = iMRT ....(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
∴ i = 2.47
The value of van’t Hoff factor is 2.47.

Exercises | Q 3.5 | Page 46

Answer the following.
Explain reverse osmosis.
Solution:
i. If a pressure larger than the osmotic pressure is applied to the solution side, then pure
solvent from the solution passes into pure solvent side through the semipermeable
membrane. This phenomenon is called reverse osmosis.
ii. For example, consider fresh water salt water separated by a semipermeable
membrane. When the pressure larger than the osmotic pressure of a solution is applied
to solution, pure water from salty water passes into fresh pure water through the
membrane. Thus, the direction of osmosis can be reversed by applying a pressure
larger than the osmotic pressure.
iii. The schematic set up for reverse osmosis is as follows:

Exercises | Q 3.6 | Page 46

Answer the following.
How molar mass of a solute is determined by osmotic pressure measurement?
Solution:
1. For very dilute solutions, the osmotic pressure follows the equation,
This formula can be used for the calculation of molar mass of a nonionic solute (i.e.,
nonelectrolyte), by osmotic pressure measurement.
Exercises | Q 3.7 | Page 46
Answer the following.
Why vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered by dissolving a nonvolatile solute into it?
Solution:
i. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends on the ease with which the molecules escape
from the surface of the liquid.
ii. When a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in a solvent, some of the surface molecules of
the solvent are replaced by nonvolatile solute molecules. These solute molecules do not
contribute to vapour above the solution.
iii. Thus, the number of solvent molecules available for vaporization per unit surface
area of a solution is less than the number at the surface of the pure solvent.
iv. As a result the solvent molecules at the surface of solution vaporize at a slower rate
than pure solvent. This results in lowering of vapour pressure

Exercises | Q 3.8 | Page 46

Answer the following.

Solution:
1. Raoult’s law expresses the quantitative relationship between vapour pressure of
solution and vapour pressure of the solvent.
2. In solutions of nonvolatile solutes, the law is applicable only to the volatile solvent.
3. The law states that, “the vapour pressure of solvent over the solution is equal to the
vapour pressure of pure solvent multiplied by its mole fraction in the solution.”
4. Suppose that for a binary solution containing solvent and one nonvolatile solute, P 1 is
the vapour pressure of
solvent over the solution, x1 and x2 are the mole fractions of solvent and solute,

respectively and is the vapour pressure of pure solvent, then,

5. Since, x1 = 1 – x2,

Note: A plot of P1 versus x1 is a straight as shown below.

Variation of vapour pressure of solution with mole fraction of solvent

Exercises | Q 3.9 | Page 46

Answer the following.
While considering boiling point elevation and freezing point depression a solution
concentration is expressed in molality and not in molarity. Why?
Solution:
1. In boiling point elevation and freezing point depression, we deal with the systems
whose temperature is not constant.
2. We cannot express the concentration of the solution in molarity because it changes
with temperature whereas molality is temperature independent.
Hence, while considering boiling point elevation and freezing point depression a solution
concentration is expressed in molality and not in molarity.

Exercises | Q 4 | Page 46
Derive the relationship between the degree of dissociation of an electrolyte and van’t
Hoff factor.
Solution:
1. The weak electrolytes involve the concept of degree of dissociation (α) that changes
the van’t Hoff factor.
2. Consider an electrolyte AxBy that dissociates in aqueous solution as
AxBy ⇌ xAy+ + yBx-

Initially 1 mol 0 0
At equilibrium (1 - α) mol (x α mol) (yα mol)

3. If α is the degree of dissociation of electrolyte, then the moles of cations are xα and
those of anions are yα equilibrium. We have dissolved just 1 mol of electrolyte initially. α
mol of electrolyte dissociates and (1 – α) mol remains undissociated at equilibrium.
Total moles after dissociation = (1 – α) + (xα) + (yα)
= 1 + α (x + y - 1)
= 1 + α (n - 1)
where, n = x + y = moles of ions obtained from dissociation of 1 mole of electrolyte.
4. The van’t Hoff factor given as

Exercises | Q 5 | Page 46
What is the effect of temperature on solubility of solids in water? Give examples.
Solution:
1. The effect of temperature on solubility of a substance depends on enthalpy of
solution.
a. When the substance dissolves in water by an endothermic process, that is, with the
absorption of heat, its solubility increases with an increase of temperature.
e.g. KCl dissolve in water by endothermic process.
b. On the other hand, when the substance dissolves in water by an exothermic process,
that is, with the release of heat, its solubility decreases with an increase of temperature.
e.g. CaCl2 and Li2SO4.H2O dissolve in water releasing heat.
2. It is important to understand that there is no direct correlation between solubility and
exothermicity or endothermicity. For example, dissolution of CaCl2 in water is
exothermic and that of NH4NO3 is endothermic. However, the solubility of these
substances increases with the temperature

Exercises | Q 6 | Page 46
Obtain the relationship between freezing point depression of a solution containing
nonvolatile-nonelectrolyte solute and its molar mass.
Solution:
1. The freezing point depression (ΔTf) is directly proportional to the molality of solution.
Thus, ΔTf = Kf m ….(1)
2. Suppose we prepare a solution by dissolving W2 g of solute in W1 g of solvent.

4. Substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we get,

Exercises | Q 7 | Page 46
Explain with diagram the boiling point elevation in terms of vapour pressure lowering.
Solution:
1. The vapour pressures of a solution and of pure solvent are plotted as a function of
temperature in the given diagram.
2. At any temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution is lower than that of pure
solvent. Hence, the vapour pressure-temperature curve of solution (CD) lies below that
of solvent (AB).
3. The difference between the two vapour pressures increases as temperature and
vapour pressure increase as predicted by the equation,

4. The intersection of the curve CD with the line corresponding to 760 mm is the boiling
point of solution. The similar intersection of the curve AB is the boiling point of pure
solvent. It is clear from the diagram that the boiling point of the solution (Tb) is higher

than that of pure solvent

5. At the boiling point of a liquid, its vapour pressure is equal to 1 atm.
6. In order to reach boiling point, the solution and solvent must be heated to a
temperature at which their respective vapour pressures attain 1 atm.
7. At any given temperature the vapour pressure of solution is lower than that of pure
solvent. Hence, the vapour pressure of solution needs a higher temperature to reach 1
atm than that needed for vapour pressure of solvent.
8. In other words, the solution must be heated to higher temperature to cause it to boil
than the pure solvent.
 Vapour pressure-temperature
of pure solvent and solution

Exercises | Q 8 | Page 46
Fish generally needs O2 concentration in water at least 3.8 mg/L for survival. What
partial pressure of O2 above the water is needed for the survival of fish? Given the
solubility of O2 in water at 0 °C and 1 atm partial pressure is 2.2 × 10-3 mol/L.
Solution:
Given: O2 concentration in water required for fishes = 3.8 mg/L
Solubility of O2 in water = 2.2 × 10-3 mol/L
Pressure = 1 atm
To find: Partial pressure of O2 above the water needed for the survival of fish.
Formula: S = KHP
Calculation: Pressure = 1 atm = 1.013 bar
Now, using formula and rearranging,
The partial pressure of O2 above the water needed for the survival of fish is 0.0548 bar.
Exercises | Q 9 | Page 46
The vapour pressure of water at 20 °C is 17 mm Hg. What is the vapour pressure of
solution containing 2.8 g urea in 50 g of water?
Solution:

∴ 17 mm Hg = 0.0168 × 17 mm Hg
∴ 17 mm Hg - P1 = 0.2856 mm Hg
∴ P1 = 17 mm Hg - 0.2856 mm Hg = 16.71 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of the given solution is 16.71 mm Hg.

Exercises | Q 10 | Page 46
A 5% aqueous solution (by mass) of cane sugar (molar mass 342 g/mol) has a freezing
point of 271 K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% aqueous glucose solution.
Solution:
Calculation: 5 % solution (by mass) of cane sugar means that mass of cane sugar (W 2)
= 5 g, and mass of solvent (W1) = 95 g.
Now, using formula (i),
Exercises | Q 11 | Page 46
A solution of citric acid C6H8O7 in 50 g of acetic acid has a boiling point elevation of 1.76
K. If Kb for acetic acid is 3.07 K kg mol-1, what is the molality of solution?
Solution:
Exercises | Q 12 | Page 46
An aqueous solution of a certain organic compound has a density of 1.063 g mL -1 ,
osmotic pressure of 12.16 atm at 25 °C and a freezing point of −1.03 °C. What is the
molar mass of the compound?
Solution:
Given: Density of a solution = d = 1.063 g mL-1
Osmotic pressure of solution = π = 12.16 atm
Temperature = T = 25 °C = 298.15 K
Freezing point of solution = Tf = - 1.03 °C
To find: Molar mass of a compound

Using formula (ii),

π = MRT

Exercises | Q 13 | Page 46
A mixture of benzene and toluene contains 30% by mass of toluene. At 30 °C, vapour
pressure of pure toluene is 36.7 mm Hg and that of pure benzene is 118.2 mm Hg.
Assuming that the two liquids form ideal solutions, calculate the total pressure and
partial pressure of each constituent above the solution at 30 °C.
Solution:
∴ Partial pressures of toluene and benzene are 9.78 mm Hg and 86.7 mm Hg,
respectively.
∴ Total pressure above the solution is 96.5 mm Hg.

Exercises | Q 14 | Page 46
At 25 °C, a 0.1 molal solution of CH3COOH is 1.35 % dissociated in an aqueous
solution. Calculate the freezing point and osmotic pressure of the solution assuming
molality and molarity to be identical.
Solution:
Given:
Molality of solution (m) = 0.1 m = 0.1 mol kg-1
Degree of dissociation (α) = 1.35% = 0.0135
Temperature = 25 °C = 25 °C + 273.15 = 298.15 K
Molarity of solution (M) = 0.1 M
To find:
1. Freezing point of solution
2. Osmotic pressure of solution
Formulae:

Δ Tf = i Kfm = 1.0135 × 1.86 K kg mol-1 × 0.1 mol kg-1

= 0.189 K = 0.189 °C

π = i MRT = 1.0135 × 0.1 mol dm-3 × 0.08205 dm3 atm K-1 mol-1 × 298.15 K = 2.48 atm
∴ The freezing point of the solution is – 0.189 °C
∴ The osmotic pressure of solution at 25 °C is 2.48 atm

Exercises | Q 15 | Page 46
A 0.15 m aqueous solution of KCl freezes at - 0.510 °C. Calculate i and osmotic
pressure at 0 °C. Assume the volume of solution equal to that of water.
Solution:
Given:
Molality of solution = m = 0.15 m
Freezing point of solution = Tf = - 0.510 °C
Temperature = 0 °C = 273 K
To find:
1. The value of van’t Hoff factor (i)
2. Osmotic pressure of solution
Formulae:
π = 1.83 × 3.36 atm
π = 6.15 atm
∴ The van’t Hoff factor is 1.83.
∴ The osmotic pressure of solution at 0 °C is 6.15 atm.
 Ionic Equilibria

EXERCISE [PAGES 61 - 62]

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 61

Choose the most correct answer:
The pH of 10-8 M of HCl is ____________
1. 8
2. 7
3. less than 7
4. greater than 7
Solution: The pH of 10-8 M of HCl is less than 7.
Exercise | Q 1.2 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer:
Which of the following solution will have a pH value equal to 1.0?
1. 50 mL of 0.1M HCl + 50mL of 0.1M NaOH
2. 60 mL of 0.1M HCl + 40mL of 0.1M NaOH
3. 20 mL of 0.1M HCl + 80mL of 0.1M NaOH
4. 75 mL of 0.2M HCl + 25mL of 0.2M NaOH
Solution: 75 mL of 0.2M HCl + 25mL of 0.2M NaOH
Exercise | Q 1.3 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer:
Which of the following is a buffer solution?
1. CH3COONa + NaCl in water
2. CH3COOH + HCl in water
3. CH3COOH + CH3COONa in water
4. HCl + NH4Cl in water
Solution: CH3COOH + CH3COONa in water
Exercise | Q 1.4 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer :
The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX is 5.2 × 10-13. Its solubility in mol
dm-3 is ______.
1. 7.2 × 10-7
2. 1.35 × 10-4
3. 7.2 × 10-8
4. 13.5 × 10-8
Solution: The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX is 5.2 × 10-13. Its solubility
in mol dm-3 is 7.2 × 10-7.
Exercise | Q 1.5 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer :
Blood in the human body is highly buffered at a pH of ________.
1. 7.4
2. 7.0
3. 6.9
4. 8.1
Solution: Blood in the human body is highly buffered at a pH of 7.4.
Exercise | Q 1.6 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer :
The conjugate base of [Zn(H2O)4]2⊕ is __________.
1. [Zn(H2O)4]2⊕NH3
2. [Zn(H2O)3]2⊕
3. [Zn(H2O)3OH]⊕
4. [Zn(H2O)H]3⊕
Solution: The conjugate base of [Zn(H2O)4]2⊕ is [Zn(H2O)3OH]⊕.
Exercise | Q 1.7 | Page 61
Choose the most correct answer :
For pH > 7 the hydronium ion concentration would be _________.
1. 10-7M
2. < 10-7M
3. > 10-7M
4. 10-7M
Solution: For pH > 7 the hydronium ion concentration would be < 10-7M .
Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Why cations are Lewis acids?
 Solution: Cations are electron-deficient species and can accept an electron pair.
Hence, cations are Lewis acids.
Exercise | Q 2.02 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Why is KCl solution neutral to litmus?
Solution: KCl, being salt of a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base (KOH), does not
undergo hydrolysis. Hence, the KCl solution is neutral to litmus.
Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
How are basic buffer solutions prepared?
Solution: Basic buffer solutions are prepared by mixing aqueous solutions of a weak
base and its salt with strong acid.
Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.8 × 10-5. Calculate percent dissociation of
acetic acid in 0.01 M solution.
Solution:
Given :
• Dissociation constant (Ka) = 1.8×10-5,
• Concentration (c) = 0.01 M
To find :
• Percent dissociation
Formulae :
1. Ka = a2c
2. Percent dissociation = α × 100
Calculation :
Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Write one property of a buffer solution.
Solution:
Properties of buffer solution:
i. When a small amount of strong acid (or strong base) is added to a buffer solution,
there is no significant change in the value of pH.
ii. The pH of a buffer solution is independent of the volume of the solution. Hence, the
dilution of a buffer solution will not change its pH.
iii. The pH of a buffer solution does not change even if it is kept for a long time.

Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 61

Answer the following in one sentence :
The pH of a solution is 6.06. Calculate its H⊕ ion concentration.
Solution:
Given:
pH of solution = 6.06
To find:
H+ ion concentration
Formula:
pH = -log10[H3O+]
Calculation:
From formula,
pH = -log10[H3O+]
∴ log10[H3O+] = -pH
= -6.06
= -6 - 0.06 + 1 - 1
= (- 6 - 1) + 1 - 0.06

The H+ ion concentration of the solution is 8.710 × 10-7 M.

Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Calculate the pH of 0.01 M sulphuric acid.
Solution:
Given: Concentration of sulphuric acid = 0.01 M
To find: pH
Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
The dissociation of H2S is suppressed in the presence of HCl. Name the phenomenon.
Solution:
The phenomenon due to which dissociation of H2S is suppressed in the presence of
HCl is known as the common ion effect.
Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Why is it necessary to add H2SO4 while preparing the solution of CuSO4?
Solution:
i.
The aqueous solution of CuSO4 is turbid due to the formation of sparingly soluble
Cu(OH)2 by hydrolysis as shown below:

ii.
If H2SO4, that is H3O+ ions are added, the hydrolytic equilibrium shifts to the left.
Turbidity of Cu(OH)2 dissolves to give a clear solution. Hence, it is necessary to add
H2SO4 while preparing the solution of CuSO4.
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 61
Answer the following in one sentence :
Classify the following buffers into different types :
a. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b. NH4OH + NH4Cl
c. Sodium benzoate + benzoic acid
d. Cu(OH)2 + CuCl2
Solution:
Buffer Type
i. CH3COOH + CH3COONa Acidic buffer
ii. NH4OH + NH4Cl Basic buffer
iii. Sodium benzoate + benzoic acid
Acidic buffer

iv. Cu(OH)2 + CuCl2 Basic buffer

Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
What are acids and bases according to Arrhenius theory?
Solution:
According to Arrhenius theory, acids and bases are defined as follows:
i.
Acid: An acid is a substance that contains hydrogen and gives H+ ions in an aqueous
solution.
e.g.

ii.
Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 62
Answer the following in brief :
What is meant by conjugate acid-base pair?
Solution:
i. The base produced by accepting the proton from acid is the conjugate base of that
acid.
ii. Similarly, the acid produced when a base accepts a proton is called the conjugate
acid of that base.
iii. A pair of an acid and a base differing by a proton is said to be a conjugate acid-base
pair.

Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
Label the conjugate acid-base pair in the following reaction:

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
Label the conjugate acid-base pair in the following reaction:

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
Write a reaction in which water acts as a base.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
Ammonia serves as a Lewis base whereas AlCl3 is Lewis acid. Explain.
Solution:
i.
According to Lewis's theory, an acid is a substance that can accept a share in an
electron pair. In the AlCl3 molecule, the octet of Al is incomplete. Therefore, it can
accept an electron pair to complete its octet. Hence, AlCl3 acts as a Lewis acid.
ii.
According to Lewis's theory, a base is a substance that can donate an electron pair. In
the ammonia (NH3) molecule, the nitrogen atom has one lone pair of electrons to
donate. Hence, NH3 acts as a Lewis base.

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
Acetic acid is 5% ionised in its decimolar solution. Calculate the dissociation constant of
acid.
Solution:
Given: Percent dissociation = 5%, Concentration (c) = 1 decimolar
To find: Dissociation constant of acid (Ka)
Formulae:
i. Percent dissociation = α × 100
ii. Ka = α2 c
Calculation:
Using formula (i),
Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 62
Answer the following in brief :
Derive the relation pH + pOH = 14.
Solution:
Relationship between pH and pOH:
The ionic product of water is given as:
Kw = [H3O+][OH–]

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
The aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline whereas the aqueous solution of
ammonium chloride is acidic. Explain.
Solution:
i.
Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is a salt of weak acid H2CO3 and strong base NaOH. When
dissolved in water, it dissociates completely.

ii.
The Na+ ions of salt have no tendency to react with OH− ions of water since the possible
product of the reaction is NaOH, a strong electrolyte.
iii.

iv.
As a result of excess OH− ions produced, the resulting solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline.
v.
Similarly, ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) is salt of strong acid HCl and weak base NH4OH.
When NH4Cl is dissolved in water, it dissociates completely as,
Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 62
Answer the following in brief :
The pH of a weak monobasic acid is 3.2 in its 0.02 M solution. Calculate its dissociation
constant.
Solution:
Given:
pH of weak monobasic acid = 3.2,
Concentration of solution (c) = 0.02 M
To find: Dissociation constant (Ka)
Formula:
i. pH = -log10[H3O+]
ii. Ka = α2c
Calculation:
From the formula (i),
pH = -log10[H3O+]
∴ log10[H3O+] = -3.2
= - 3 - 0.2 + 1 - 1
= (-3 - 1) + 1 - 0.2

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 62

Answer the following in brief :
In NaOH solution [OH-] is 2.87 × 10-4. Calculate the pH of the solution.
Solution:
Given: [OH-] = 2.87×10-4 M
To find: pH of the solution
Formulae:
i. pOH = -log10[OH-]
ii. pH + pOH = 14
Calculation:
From formula (i),
pOH = -log10[OH-]
∴ pOH = -log10[2.87 × 10-4] = -log102.87 - log1010-4
= -log102.87 + 4 = 4 - 0.4579
pOH = 3.5421
From formula (ii),
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 - pOH = 14 - 3.5421 = 10.4579,
pH of the solution is 10.4579

Exercise | Q 4.01 | Page 62

Answer the following :
Define the degree of dissociation
Solution:
The degree of dissociation (α) of an electrolyte is defined as a fraction of the total
number of moles of the electrolyte that dissociates into its ions when the equilibrium is
attained.
Exercise | Q 4.01 | Page 62
Answer the following :
Derive Ostwald's dilution law for the CH3COOH.
Solution:
i.
Consider an equilibrium of weak acid CH3COOH that exists in solution partly as the
undissociated species CH3COOH and partly H+ and CH3COO– ions. Then

iii.
Suppose 1 mol of acid CH3COOH is initially present in volume V dm3 of the solution. At
equilibrium, the fraction dissociated would be α, where α is the degree of dissociation of
the acid. The fraction of an acid that remains undissociated would be (1 - α).
vi.
If c is the initial concentration of CH3COOH in mol dm–3 and V is the volume in dm3 mol–
1 then c = 1/V. Replacing 1/V in equation (2) by c,

we get
Equation (5) implies that the degree of dissociation of a weak acid (CH3COOH) is
inversely proportional to the square root of its concentration or directly proportional to
the square root of the volume of the solution containing 1 mol of the weak acid.
Exercise | Q 4.02 | Page 62
Answer the following :
Define pH and pOH.
Solution:

i.

The pH of a solution is defined as the negative logarithm to the base 10, of the
concentration of H+ ions in solution in mol dm–3.

pH is expressed mathematically as

pH = -log10[H+] or pH = -log10[H3O+]

ii.

Similarly, pOH of a solution can be defined as the negative logarithm to the base 10, of
the molar concentration of OH− ions in solution.

pOH = -log10[OH-]

Exercise | Q 4.02 | Page 62

Answer the following :
Derive the relationship between pH and pOH.
Solution:

Relationship between pH and pOH:

The ionic product of water is given as:

Kw = [H3O+][OH-]

Now, Kw = 1×10-14 at 298 K

Thus, [H3O+][OH-] = 1.0 × 10-14

Taking the logarithm of both the sides, we write

log10[H3O+] + log10[OH-] = -14

-log10[H3O+] + {-log10[OH-]} = 14

Now, pH = -log10[H3O+] and pOH = -log10[OH-]

∴ pH + pOH = 14

Exercise | Q 4.03 | Page 62

Answer the following :
What is meant by hydrolysis?
Solution:
Hydrolysis of salt is defined as the reaction in which cations or anions or both ions of a
salt react with ions of water to produce acidity or alkalinity (or sometimes even
neutrality).
Exercise | Q 4.03 | Page 62
Answer the following :
A solution of CH3COONH4 is neutral. why?
Solution:
i.
CH3COONH4 is a salt of a weak acid, CH3COOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5), and weak base,
NH4OH (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5). When the salt CH3COONH4 is dissolved in water, it undergoes
hydrolysis:
Exercise | Q 4.04 | Page 62
Answer the following :
The dissociation of HCN is suppressed by the addition of HCl. Explain.
Solution:
i. HCN and HCl both dissociate to produce H+ ions which are common to both.
ii. HCN is a weak electrolyte. It dissociates to a little extent.
Exercise | Q 4.05 | Page 62
Answer the following :
Derive the relationship between the degree of dissociation and dissociation constant in
weak electrolytes.
Solution1:
i. Consider 1 mol of weak base BOH dissolved in V dm3 of solution. The base
dissociates partially as

iii. Let the fraction dissociated at equilibrium is α and that remains undissociated is (1 −
α).
vi. If c is the initial concentration of base in mol dm–3 and V is the volume in dm3 mol–
1 then c = 1/V. Replacing 1/V in equation (2) by c,

we get

The degree of dissociation of a weak base is inversely proportional to square root of its
concentration and is directly proportional to square root of volume of the solution
containing 1 mol of weak base.
Solution2:
i. Consider an equilibrium of weak acid HA that exists in solution partly as the
undissociated species HA and partly H+ and A– ions. Then

iii. Suppose 1 mol of acid HA is initially present in volume V dm3 of the solution. At
equilibrium, the fraction dissociated would be α, where α is the degree of dissociation of
the acid. The fraction of an acid that remains undissociated would be (1 − α).
The equation (5) implies that the degree of dissociation of a weak acid is inversely
proportional to the square root of its concentration or directly proportional to the square
root of volume of the solution containing 1 mol of the weak acid.
Exercise | Q 4.06 | Page 62
Answer the following :
Sulfides of the cation of group II are precipitated in acidic solution (H2S + HCl) whereas
sulfides of cations of group IIIB are precipitated in the ammoniacal solution of H 2S.
Comment on the relative values of the solubility product of sulfides of these.
Solution:
Group II and group IIIB cations are precipitated as their sulphides. However, the
solubility product of sulphides of group II cations is lower than group IIIB cations.
Therefore, for the precipitation of cations of group II, only a small concentration of
sulphide ion is required. This is achieved by passing H2S gas in the presence of strong
electrolyte HCl, which has a common ion (H+) with H2S. Due to the common ion effect,
the dissociation of H2S is suppressed and thus, the concentration of S2- ions decreases.
This results only in the precipitation of sulphides of group II while sulphides of the higher
group remain in solution as they require a higher concentration of S2- ions for
precipitation.
Exercise | Q 4.07 | Page 62
Answer the following :
The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt gets affected in the presence of a soluble salt
having one common ion. Explain.
Solution:
i. The presence of a common ion affects the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt.
ii. Consider, the solubility equilibrium of AgCl,

iii. Suppose AgNO3 is added to the saturated solution of AgCl. The salt AgNO3 being a
strong electrolyte dissociates completely in the solution.

iv. The dissociation of AgCl and AgNO3 produce a common Ag+ ion. The concentration
of Ag+ ion in the solution increases owing to complete dissociation of AgNO3.
v. According to Le-Chatelier's principle, the addition of Ag+ ions from AgNO3 to the
solution of AgCl shifts the solubility equilibrium of AgCl from right to left. The reverse
reaction in which AgCl precipitates is favoured until the solubility equilibrium is re-
established.
vi. However, the value of Ksp remains the same since it is an equilibrium constant. Thus,
the solubility of a sparingly soluble compound decreases with the presence of a
common ion in solution.

Exercise | Q 4.08 | Page 62

Answer the following :
The pH of rainwater collected in a certain region of Maharashtra on a particular day was
5.1. Calculate the H+ ion concentration of the rainwater and its percent dissociation.
Solution:
Given: pH of rainwater = 5.1
To find:
i. H+ ion concentration
ii. Percent dissociation
Formula:
i. pH = -log10[H3O+]
ii. Percent dissociation = α × 100
Calculation: From the formula (i),
pH = -log10[H3O+]
∴ log10[H3O+] = -5.1
= -5 - 0.1 + 1 - 1
= (-5 - 1) + 1 - 0.1

Considering that the pH of rainwater is due to the dissociation of a monobasic strong

acid (HA), we have

Exercise | Q 4.09 | Page 62

Answer the following :
Explain the relation between ionic product and solubility product to predict whether a
precipitate will form when two solutions are mixed?
Solution:

Condition of precipitation:

The ionic product (IP) of an electrolyte is defined in the same way as solubility product
(Ksp). The only difference is that the ionic product expression contains a concentration
of ions under any condition whereas the expression of Ksp contains only equilibrium
concentrations. If,

i. IP = Ksp; the solution is saturated and solubility equilibrium exists.

ii. IP > Ksp; the solution is supersaturated and hence precipitation of the compound will
occur.

iii. If IP < Ksp, the solution is unsaturated and precipitation will not occur.
 Chemical Themodynamics

EXERCISES [PAGES 86 - 89]

Exercises | Q 1.01 | Page 86

Select the most appropriate option.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures
are _______.
1. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
2. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
3. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
4. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
Solution: The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all
temperatures are ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0.
Exercises | Q 1.02 | Page 86
Select the most appropriate option.
A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against a constant external
pressure of 2.5 bar from an initial volume of 2.5 L to a final volume of 4.5 L. The change
in internal energy, ΔU of the gas will be _______.
1. –500 J
2. + 500 J
3. –1013 J
4. + 1013 J
Solution:
- 500 J
Explanation:
Since the container is insulated, this is an adiabatic process.
For adiabatic process,
ΔU = +W = - Pext Δ V = - Pext (V2 - V1)
Initial volume (V1) = 2.5 L = 2.5 dm3
Final volume (V2) = 4.5 L = 4.5 dm3
External pressure (Pext) = 2.5 bar
 ΔU = W = - 2.5 bar × (4.5 dm3 - 2.5 dm3)

Exercises | Q 1.03 | Page 86

Select the most appropriate option.
In which of the following, entropy of the system decreases?
1. Crystallization of liquid into solid
2. Temperature of crystalline solid is increased from 0 K to 115 K
3. H2(g) → 2H(g)
4. 2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
Solution: Crystallization of liquid into solid
Exercises | Q 1.04 | Page 87
Select the most appropriate option.
The enthalpy of formation for all elements in their standard states is _______.
1. unity
2. zero
3. less than zero
4. different elements
Solution: The enthalpy of formation for all elements in their standard states is zero.
Exercises | Q 1.05 | Page 87
Select the most appropriate option.
Which of the following reactions is exothermic?
1. H2(g) → 2H(g)
2. C(s) → C(g)
3. 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g)
4. H2O(s) → H2O(l)
Solution: 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g)
Hint:
Bond is formed between two Cl atoms and hence, energy is released.

Exercises | Q 1.06 | Page 87

 Select the most appropriate option.
6.24 g of ethanol are vaporized by supplying 5.89 kJ of heat. Enthalpy of vaporization of
ethanol will be _______.
1. 43.4 kJ mol–1
2. 60.2 kJ mol–1
3. 38.9 kJ mol–1
4. 20.4 kJ mol–1
Solution: 6.24 g of ethanol are vaporized by supplying 5.89 kJ of heat. Enthalpy of
vaporization of ethanol will be 43.4 kJ mol–1.
Explanation:
Molar mass of ethanol (C2H6O) = 46 g mol–1

Exercises | Q 1.07 | Page 87

Select the most appropriate option.
If the standard enthalpy of formation of methanol is –238.9 kJ mol–1 then entropy
change of the surroundings will be _______.
1. –801.7 J K–1
2. 801.7 J K–1
3. 0.8017 J K–1
4. –0.8017 J K–1
Solution:
If the standard enthalpy of formation of methanol is –238.9 kJ mol–1 then entropy
change of the surroundings will be 801.7 J K–1.
Explanation:
For standard state, temperature = 298 K
 Exercises | Q 1.08 | Page 87
Select the most appropriate option.
Which of the following are not state functions?
Q+W
Q
W
H - TS
1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4
Solution: 2 and 3 i.e., Q and W
Exercises | Q 1.09 | Page 87
Select the most appropriate option.
For vaporization of water at 1 bar, ΔH = 40.63 kJ mol–1 and ΔS = 108.8 J K–1 mol–1 . At
what temperature, ΔG = 0?
1. 273.4 K
2. 393.4 K
3. 373.4 K
4. 293.4 K
Solution: 373.4 K
Explanation:
Temperature at which reaction is at equilibrium (ΔG = 0) is,
 Exercises | Q 1.1 | Page 87
Select the most appropriate option.
Bond enthalpies of H–H, Cl–Cl, and H–Cl bonds are 434 kJ mol–1, 242 kJ mol–1, and
431 kJ mol–1, respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl is _______.
1. 245 kJ mol–1
2. –93 kJ mol–1
3. –245 kJ mol–1
4. 93 kJ mol–1
Solution:
Bond enthalpies of H–H, Cl–Cl, and H–Cl bonds are 434 kJ mol–1, 242 kJ mol–1, and
431 kJ mol–1, respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl is –93 kJ mol–1 .
Explanation:
ΔrH° = ∑ ΔH° (reactant bonds) - ∑ ΔH° (products bonds)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
∴ ΔrH° = [1 mol × 434 kJ mol-1+1 mol × 242 kJ mol-1] - [2 mol × 431 kJ mol-1]
= -186 kJ
∴ H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g), ΔrH° = -186 kJ
For enthalpy of formation of HCl, the reaction is

Exercises | Q 2.1 | Page 87

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Comment on the statement: no work is involved in an expansion of gas in a vacuum.
Solution:
1. A free expansion means expansion against zero opposing force. Such expansion
occurs in a vacuum.
2. When the gas expands in a vacuum, there is no opposing force, that is, P ext = 0. The
work done by a system during such expansion is
W = - Pext Δ V = 0
Thus, no work is done when the gas expands freely in a vacuum.
Note: Units of energy and work:
 1 J = 1 kg m2 s-2 = 1 Pa m3
1 Pa = 1 kg m-1 s-2
From the equation, W = – Pext∆V
If the pressure is expressed in bar and ΔV in dm3, then the work has the units of bar
dm3.
1 bar = 105 Pa = 105 kg m–1 s–2
1 dm3 bar = dm3 × 105 kg m-1 s-2
= m3 × 10-3 × 105 kg m-1 s-2
= 100 kg m2 s-2 = 100 J

Exercises | Q 2.2 | Page 87

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Solution:
According to the first law of thermodynamics, “the total energy of a system and
surroundings remains constant when the system changes from an initial state to final
state.”
Exercises | Q 2.3 | Page 87
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is enthalpy of fusion?
Solution:
Enthalpy change that occurs when one mole of a solid is converted into liquid without a
change in temperature at constant pressure is the enthalpy of fusion.
Exercises | Q 2.4 | Page 87
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is standard state of a substance?
Solution:
1. The standard state of a substance is the form in which the substance is most stable at a
pressure of 1 bar and at temperature 298 K.
2. If the reaction involves species in solution its standard state refers to 1 M concentration.
e.g. Standard states of certain elements and compounds are (at 1 bar and 25 °C); H 2(g),
Hg(l), Na(s), C(graphite), C2H5OH(l), CaCO3(s), CO2(g), C2H5OH(l), H2O(l), CaCO3(s), CO2(g).
Exercises | Q 2.5 | Page 87
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
State whether ΔS is positive, negative or zero for the reaction 2H(g) → H2(g). Explain.
Solution:
ΔS is negative. Two moles of gaseous H atoms are converted into 1 mole H2 gas. Thus,
a disorder of the system decreases, and hence, entropy increases or ∆S is positive.
Exercises | Q 2.6 | Page 87
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
State second law of thermodynamics in terms of entropy.
Solution:
Statement: “The second law of thermodynamics states that total entropy of a system
and its surroundings increases in a spontaneous process.”
For the process to be spontaneous,

Exercises | Q 2.7 | Page 87

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
If the enthalpy change of a reaction is ∆H how will you calculate the entropy of
surroundings?
Solution:
If ∆H is the enthalpy change accompanying a reaction (system) the enthalpy change of
the surroundings is then –∆H. The entropy change of surroundings can be calculated
using the following expression:\

Exercises | Q 2.8 | Page 87

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Comment on the spontaneity of reactions for which ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative.
Solution:
When ∆H positive and ∆S is negative, then ∆G is positive regardless of temperature.
Such reactions are nonspontaneous at all temperatures.
Exercises | Q 3.1 | Page 87
Answer in brief.
Obtain the relationship between ∆G° of a reaction and the equilibrium constant.
Solution:
 1. Gibbs energy change for a chemical reaction is given by
ΔG = ΔG° + RT ln Q …(1)
where, ΔG° is standard Gibbs energy change that is, the Gibbs energy change when
the reactants and products in a reaction are in their standard states. Q is called reaction
quotient. Q is analogous to that of the equilibrium constant and involves nonequilibrium
concentrations or partial pressures in case of a gaseous reaction.
2. Consider the reaction, aA + bB → cC + dD
From equation (1),
ΔG = ΔG° + RT lnQC or ΔG = ΔG° + RT lnQP

3. When the reaction reaches equilibrium, ΔG° = 0 and QC and QP become KC and KP,
respectively.
Thus,
∴ 0 = ΔG° + RT lnKC or 0 = ΔG° + RT lnKP
∴ ΔG° = –RT ln KC or ΔG° = –RT ln KP
∴ ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10KC or ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10KP

Exercises | Q 3.2 | Page 87

Answer in brief.
What is entropy? Give its units.
Solution:
1. Entropy is a measure of molecular disorder or randomness.
2. An entropy change of a system is equal to the amount of heat transferred (Qrev) to it in a
reversible manner divided by the temperature (T) in Kelvin at which the transfer takes
place. Thus,

3. Units of entropy: J K–1

Note: Entropy or its change ∆S is a state function and depends on the initial and final
states of the system and not on the path connecting two states

Exercises | Q 3.3 | Page 87

Answer in brief.
How will you calculate reaction enthalpy from data on bond enthalpies?
 Solution:
Reaction and bond enthalpies:
1. In a chemical reaction, bonds are broken and formed.
2. The enthalpies of reactions involving substances having covalent bonds are calculated
by knowing the bond enthalpies of reactants and those in products.
3. The calculations assume all the bonds of a given type are identical.
4. Enthalpy change of a reaction can be calculated using the following expression:
ΔrH° = ∑ ΔH° (reactant bonds) - ∑ ΔH° (product bonds)
e.g. Consider the reaction, H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
The enthalpy is given by
ΔrH° = [ΔH° (H - H) + ΔH° (I - I)] - [2ΔH° (H - I)]
Note:
i. If reactants and products are diatomic molecules, the above equation gives accurate
results. The bond enthalpies are known accurately.
ii. For reactions involving polyatomic molecules, the reaction enthalpies calculated using
above equation would be approximate and refer to average bond enthalpies.

Exercises | Q 3.4 | Page 87

Answer in brief.
What is the standard enthalpy of combustion? Give an example.
Solution:
1. The standard enthalpy of combustion of a substance is the standard enthalpy change
accompanying a reaction in which one mole of the substance in its standard state is
completely oxidised.
2. Consider the reaction,
C2H2(g) + 5/2 O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + H2O(l), Δr H° = - 1300 kJ
In the above reaction, the standard enthalpy change of the oxidation reaction, –1300 kJ
is the standard enthalpy of combustion of C2H2(g).

Exercises | Q 3.5 | Page 87

Answer in brief.
What is the enthalpy of atomization? Give an example.
Solution:
1. The enthalpy change accompanying the dissociation of one mole of gaseous substance
into atoms is called enthalpy of atomization.
2. For example, Cl2(g) → Cl(g) + Cl(g); ΔatomH = 242 kJ mol–1
Exercises | Q 3.6 | Page 87
Answer in brief.
Obtain the expression for work done in chemical reaction.
 Solution:
1. The work done by a system at constant temperature and pressure is given by
W = Pext ΔV ....(1)
2. Assuming Pext = P,
W = - PΔV
= - P (V2 - V1)
W = - PV2 + PV1 .....(2)
3. If the gases were ideal, at constant temperature and pressure.,
PV1 = n1RT and PV2 = n2RT ....(3)
Substitution of equation (3) into equation (2) yields
W = - n2RT + n1RT
= - (n2 - n1) RT
= - Δng RT .....(4)
4. The equation (4) gives the work done by the system in chemical reactions
Exercises | Q 3.7 | Page 88
Answer in brief.
Derive the expression for PV work.
Solution:
Pressure-volume work

1. Consider a certain amount of gas at constant pressure P is enclosed in a cylinder fitted

with a frictionless, rigid movable piston of area A. Let the volume of the gas be V 1 at
temperature T. This is shown in the adjacent diagram.
2. On expansion, the force exerted by a gas is equal to area of the piston multiplied by
pressure with which the gas pushes against piston. This pressure is equal in magnitude
and opposite in sign to the external atmospheric pressure that opposes the movement
and has its value - Pext.
Thus,
f = - Pext × A .....(1)
where, Pext is the external atmospheric pressure.
3. If the piston moves out a distance d, then the amount of work done is equal to the force
multiplied by distance.
W=f×d .....(2)
 Substituting equation (1) in (2) gives
W = - Pext × A × d .....(3)
4. The product of area of the piston and distance it moves is the volume change (ΔV) in
the system.
ΔV = A × d .....(4)
Combining equation (3) and (4), we get
W = - Pext ΔV
W = - Pext (V2 - V1)
Where V2 is the final volume of the gas.
Exercises | Q 3.8 | Page 88
Answer in brief.
What are intensive properties? Explain why density is an intensive property.
Solution:
1. A property which is independent of the amount of matter in a system is called intensive
property.
2. Density is a ratio of mass to volume. Mass and volume are extensive properties. Since
density is a ratio of two extensive properties, it is an intensive property. Thus, density is
independent of the amount of matter present.
Exercises | Q 3.9 | Page 88
Answer in brief.
How much heat is evolved when 12 g of CO reacts with NO2? The reaction is:
4CO(g) 2NO2(g) → 4CO2(g) + N2(g), ΔrH° = - 1200 kJ
Solution:
Given: ΔrH° = - 1200 kJ, Mass of CO = 12 g
To find: Heat evolved when 12g of CO reacts with NO2
Calculation:
According to the given reaction, 1200 kJ of heat is evolved when 4 moles of CO react
with NO2. So heat evolved per mole is 1200kJ/4 mol = 300 kJ mol-1
Molar mass of CO = 12 + 16 = 28 g mol–1

So, heat evolved when 0.4286 moles of CO reacts

= 0.4286 mol × 300 kJ mol-1 = 128.58 kJ
The heat evolved when 12 g of CO reacts with NO2 is 128.58 kJ.

Exercises | Q 4.01 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
Derive the expression for the maximum work.
Solution:

1. Consider n moles of an ideal gas enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless

movable rigid piston. It expands isothermally and reversibly from the initial volume V1 to
final volume V2 at temperature T. The expansion takes place in a number of steps as
shown in the figure.
2. When the volume of a gas increases by an infinitesimal amount dV in a single step,
the small quantity of work done
dW = -Pext dV ....(1)
3. As the expansion is reversible, P is greater by a very small quantity dp than P ext.
Thus P - Pext = dP or Pext = P - dP ....(2)
Combining equations (1) and (2),
dW = - (P - dP)dV = - PdV + dP.dV
Neglecting the product dP.dV which is very small, we get
dW = - PdV .....(3)
4. The total amount of work done during the entire expansion from volume V 1 to
V2 would be the sum of the infinitesimal contributions of all the steps. The total work is
obtained by integration of Equation (3) between the limits of initial and final states. This
is the maximum work, the expansion being reversible.
Thus,
Equations (5) and (6) are expressions for work done in reversible isothermal process.
Exercises | Q 4.02 | Page 88
Obtain the relationship between ΔH and ΔU for gas phase reactions.
 Solution:
1. At constant pressure, ΔH and ΔU are related as
ΔH = ΔU + PΔV …(1)
2. For reactions involving gases, ΔV cannot be neglected. Therefore,
ΔH = ΔU + PΔV
= ΔH + P(V2 – V1)
ΔH = ΔU + PV2 – PV1 …(2)
where, V1 is the volume of gas-phase reactants and V2 that of the gaseous products.
3. We assume reactant and product behave ideally. Applying an ideal gas equation, PV
= nRT. Suppose that n1 moles of gaseous reactants produce n2 moles of gaseous
products. Then,
PV1 = n1RT and PV2 = n2RT …(3)
4. Substitution of equation (3) into equation (2) yields
ΔH = ΔU + n2RT – n1RT
= ΔU + (n2 – n1) RT
= ΔU + Δng RT ....(4)
where, Δng is the difference between the number of moles of products and those of
reactants.

Exercises | Q 4.03 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
State Hess’s law of constant heat summation. Illustrate with an example. State its
applications.
Solution:
1. Hess’s law of constant heat summation:
Hess’s law of constant heat summation states that, “Overall the enthalpy change for a
reaction is equal to sum of enthalpy changes of individual steps in the reaction”.
2. Illustration:
• The enthalpy change for a chemical reaction is the same regardless of the path by
which the reaction occurs. Hess’s law is a direct consequence of the fact that enthalpy
is state function. The enthalpy change of a reaction depends only on the initial and final
states and not on the path by which the reaction occurs.
• To determine the overall equation of reaction, reactants and products in the individual
steps are added or subtracted like algebraic entities.
• Consider the synthesis of NH3,

3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g), ΔrH° = - 92.2 kJ

The sum of the enthalpy changes for steps (1) and (2) is equal to enthalpy change for
the overall reaction.
3. Application of Hess’s law:
The Hess's law has been useful to calculate the enthalpy changes for the reactions with
their enthalpies being not known experimentally.

Exercises | Q 4.04 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
Although ΔS for the formation of two moles of water from H2 and O2 is –327J K–1, it is
spontaneous. Explain.
(Given ΔH for the reaction is –572 kJ).
Solution:
1. For the process to be spontaneous, △Stotal=△Ssys+△Ssurr>0.
2. For the reaction, 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l), when 2 moles of H2 and 1 mole of O2 gas
combine to form 2 moles of liquid water, 572 kJ of heat is released which is received by
surroundings at constant pressure (and 298 K).
3. The entropy change of the surroundings is,

= - 327 J K-1 + 1919 J K-1

= + 1592 J K-1
5. Since △Stotal > 0, the reaction is spontaneous at 25 °C.
6. It follows that to decide spontaneity of reactions, we need to consider the entropy of
system and its surroundings.

Exercises | Q 4.05 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
Obtain the relation between ΔG and △Stotal. Comment on the spontaneity of the
reaction.
Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.06 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

One mole of an ideal gas is compressed from 500 cm3 against a constant pressure of
1.2 × 105 Pa. The work involved in the process is 36.0 J. Calculate the final volume.
Solution:
Given:
Initial volume (V1) = 500 cm3
External pressure (Pext) = 1.2 × 105 Pa
Work (W) = 36.0 J
To find: Final volume (V2)
Formula: W = - Pext Δ V = - Pext (V2 - V1)
Calculation: Initial volume (V1) = 500 cm3 = 0.5 dm3
External pressure (Pext) = 1.2 × 105 Pa = 1.2 bar
∴ 0.3 dm3 = - V2 + 0.5 dm3
∴ V2 = 0.2 dm3 = 200 cm3
The final volume (V2) = 200 cm3.

Exercises | Q 4.07 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

Calculate the maximum work when 24 g of O2 are expanded isothermally and reversibly
from the pressure of 1.6 bar to 1 bar at 298 K.
Solution:
Given:
Mass of O2 = 24 g
Initial pressure = P1 = 1.6 bar
Final pressure = P2 = 1 bar
Temperature = T = 298 K
To find: Maximum work (Wmax)

Exercises | Q 4.08 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
Calculate the work done in the decomposition of 132 g of NH4NO3 at 100 °C.
NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(g)
State whether work is done on the system or by the system.
Solution:
Given:
Decomposition of 1 mole of NH4NO3
Temperature = T = 100 °C = 373 K
To find: Work done and to determine whether work is done on the system or by the
system.
Formula: W = -Δ ngRT
Calculation:
Molar mass of NH4NO3 = (2 × 14) + (3 × 16) + (4 × 1) = 80 g mol-1

The given reaction is for 1 mole of NH4NO3. For 1.65 moles of NH4NO3, the reaction is
given as follows:
1.65 NH4NO3(s) → 1.65 N2O(g) + 3.30 H2O(g)
Now,
Δng = (moles of product gases) − (moles of reactant gases)
Δng = (1.65 + 3.30) – 0 = +4.95 mol (∵ NH4NO3 is in solid state)
Hence,
W = –Δng RT
= - (+ 4.95 mol) × 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 × 373 K
= - 15350 J
= - 15.35 kJ
Work is done by the system (since W < 0).
The work done is –15.35 kJ. The work is done by the system.

Exercises | Q 4.09 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

Calculate standard enthalpy of reaction,
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g), from the following data.
Δf H°(Fe2O3) = - 824 kJ/mol,
Δf H°(CO) = - 110 kJ/mol,
Δf H°(CO2) = - 393 kJ/mol
Solution:
Given:
Δf H°(Fe2O3) = - 824 kJ/mol,
Δf H°(CO) = - 110 kJ/mol,
Δf H°(CO2) = - 393 kJ/mol
To find: Standard enthalpy of the given reaction (ΔrH°)
Formula: Δ H° = ∑ Δf H° (products) - ∑ Δf H° (reactants)
Calculation:
The reaction is
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
ΔrH° = ∑ Δf H° (products) - ∑ Δf H° (reactants)
= [2 Δf H° (Fe) + 3 Δf H° (CO2)] - [Δf H° (Fe2O3) + 3 Δf H° (CO)]
= [0 + 3 mol × (- 393 kJ mol-1)] - [1 mol × (- 824 kJ mol-1) + 3 mol × (- 110 kJ mol-1)]
= - 1179 + 824 + 330
= - 25 kJ
The standard enthalpy of the given reaction is –25 kJ.

Exercises | Q 4.1 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

For a certain reaction ΔH° = 219 kJ and ΔS° = –21 J/K. Determine whether the reaction
is spontaneous or nonspontaneous.
Solution:

When ∆H positive and ∆S is negative, then ∆G is positive regardless of temperature.

Hence, the reaction is nonspontaneous at all temperatures.

Exercises | Q 4.11 | Page 88

Answer the following question.
Determine whether the following reaction is spontaneous under standard state
conditions.
2H2O(l) + O2(g) → 2H2O2(l)
if ΔH° = 196 kJ, ΔS° = –126 J/K, does it have a cross-over temperature?
Solution:

When ∆H positive and ∆S is negative, then ∆G is positive regardless of temperature.

Hence, the reaction is nonspontaneous at all temperatures. It does NOT have a cross-
over temperature.

Exercises | Q 4.12 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

Calculate ΔU at 298 K for the reaction,
C2H4(g) + HCl(g) → C2H5Cl(g), ΔH = - 72.3 kJ
How much PV work is done?
Solution:
Given:
Enthalpy change = ΔH = –72.3 kJ
Temperature = T = 298 K
To find:
PV work done and internal energy change (ΔU)
Formulae:
1. W = - ΔngRT
2. ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
Calculations:
Δng = (moles of product gases) - (moles of reactant gases)
Δng = 1 – 2 = –1 mol
Using formula (i)
W = - ΔngRT
= - (- 1 mol) × 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 × 298 K
= 2477.57 J = 2.48 kJ
Now, using formula (ii) and rearranging,
ΔU = ΔH - Δ ngRT = ΔH + W = –72.3 kJ + 2.48 kJ = –69.8 kJ
∴ The PV work done is 2.48 kJ.
∴ The internal energy change (ΔU) is –69.8 kJ.

Exercises | Q 4.13 | Page 88

Answer the following question.

Calculate the work done during the synthesis of NH3 in which volume changes from 8.0
dm3 to 4.0 dm3 at a constant external pressure of 43 bar. In what direction the work-
energy flows?
Solution:
Given:
Initial volume (V1) = 8.0 dm 3
Final volume (V2) = 4.0 dm 3
External pressure (Pext) = 43 bar
To find:
The work done (W) and direction of the work energy flow.
Formulae: W = - Pext Δ V = - Pext (V2 - V1)
Calculations:
From formula,
W = - Pext Δ V = - Pext (V2 - V1)
∴ W = - 43 bar × (4.0 dm3 - 8.0 dm3) = 172 dm3 bar
Now, 1 dm3 bar = 100 J

Since, the work is done on the system, work-energy flows into the system from
surroundings.
∴ The work done (W) = 17.2 kJ
∴ Work energy flows into the system.

Exercises | Q 4.14 | Page 88

Calculate the amount of work done in the

1) Oxidation of 1 mole HCl(g) at 200 °C according to reaction.
4HCl(g) + O2(g) → 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g)
2) Decomposition of one mole of NO at 300 °C for the reaction
2NO(g) → N2(g) + O2(g)
Solution:
Given:
1) Oxidation of 1 mole HCl(g)
Temperature = T = 200 °C = 473 K
2) Decomposition of one mole of NO
Temperature = T = 300 °C = 573 K
To find: Work done
Formula: W = - ΔngRT
Calculation:
1) The given reaction is for 4 moles of HCl. For 1 mole of HCl, the reaction is given as
follows:

Hence,
W = - ΔngRT
= -(- 0.25 mol) × 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 × 473 K
= + 983 J
2) The given reaction is for 2 moles of NO. For 1 mole of NO, the reaction is given as
follows:
Hence,
W = - ΔngRT
= - 0 mol × 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 × 573 K
= 0 kJ
No work is done (since W = 0).
∴ The work done is +983 J. The work is done on the system.
∴ The work done is 0 kJ. There is no work done.

Exercises | Q 4.15 | Page 89

Answer the following question.

When 6.0 g of O2 reacts with CIF as per
2ClF(g) + O2(g) → Cl2O(g) + OF2(g)
The enthalpy change is 38.55 kJ. What is standard enthalpy of the reaction? (Δr H° =
205.6 kJ)
Solution:
Given:
Enthalpy change for a given mass = 38.55 kJ
Mass of O2 = 6.0 g
To find: Standard enthalpy of the given reaction
Calculation:
Exercises | Q 4.16 | Page 89
Answer the following question.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data:

Solution:
ΔfH° = ΔrH° = 726 - 965 = - 239 kJ mol-1
The standard enthalpy of formation (ΔfH°) of CH3OH(l) from the given data is – 239 kJ
mol-1

Exercises | Q 4.17 | Page 89

Answer the following question.

Calculate ΔrH° for the following reaction at 298 K:
1) 2H3BO3(aq) → B2O3(s) + 3H2O(l), ΔrH° = + 14.4 kJ
2) H3BO3(aq) → HBO2(aq) + H2O(l), ΔrH° = - 0.02 kJ
3) H2B4O7(s) → 2B2O3(s) + H2O(l), ΔrH° = + 17.3 kJ
Solution:
Given: Given equations are,
2H3BO3(aq) → B2O3(s) + 3H2O(l), ΔrH° = + 14.4 kJ ...(i)
H3BO3(aq) → HBO2(aq) + H2O(l), ΔrH° = - 0.02 kJ ....(ii)
H2B4O7(s) → 2B2O3(s) + H2O(l), ΔrH° = + 17.3 kJ .....(iii)
To find: The standard enthalpy of the given reaction (ΔrH°)
Calculation:
Reverse equation (i) and multiply by 2,
2B2O3(s) + 6H2O(l) → 4H3BO3(aq) , ΔrH° = - 28.8 kJ ......(iv)
Multiply equation (ii) by 4
4H3BO3(aq) → 4HBO2(aq) + 4H2O(l), ΔrH° = - 0.08 kJ .......(v)
Add equations (iv), (v) and (iii),
2B2O3(s) + 6H2O(l) → 4H3BO3(aq) , ΔrH° = - 28.8 kJ
4H3BO3(aq) → 4HBO2(aq) + 4H2O(l), ΔrH° = - 0.08 kJ
H2B4O7(s) → 2B2O3(s) + H2O(l), ΔrH° = + 17.3 kJ
_____________________________________________________
H2B4O7(s) + H2O(l) → 4HBO2(aq) ΔrH° = - 28.8 + (- 0.08) + 17.3 = - 11.58 kJ
The standard enthalpy (ΔrH°) of the given reaction is -11.58 kJ.

Exercises | Q 4.18 | Page 89

Calculate the total heat required

a) to melt 180 g of ice at 0 °C
b) heat it to 100 °C and then
c) vapourise it at that temperature.
[Given: ΔfusH° (ice) = 6.01 kJ mol-1 at 0 °C, ΔvapH° (H2O) = 40.7 kJ mol-1 at 100 °C,
Specific heat of water is 4.18 J g-1 K-1]
Solution:
Given:
ΔfusH° (ice) = 6.01 kJ mol-1 at 0 °C,
ΔvapH° (H2O) = 40.7 kJ mol-1 at 100 °C,
Specific heat of water is 4.18 J g-1 K-1
To find:
The total heat required to carry out the given reaction using 180 g of ice.
Calculation:

∴ 10 mol of H2O requires = 60.1 kJ

∴ Heat required = 60.1 kJ …(i)

b) H2O(l) → H2O(s)
0 °C 100 °C

Heat required = Mass × Specific heat × ΔT

= 180 g × 4.18 J g-1 K-1 × 100 K

= 75240 J

= 75.240 kJ ....(ii)

c) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
100 °C 100 °C

Heat required = Latent heat of vaporization

1 mol of H2O requires = 40.7 kJ

∴ 1 mol of H2O = 18 g

∴ 180 g of H2O = 10 moles of H2O

∴ Heat required by 10 moles of water = 407 kJ ….(iii)

From (i) , (ii) and (iii),

Total heat required to carry out the given reaction using 180 g of ice

= 60.1 kJ + 75.240 kJ + 407 kJ = + 542.34 kJ

The total heat required to melt 180 g of ice at 0 °C, heat it to 100 °C and then vaporize it
at that temperature is + 542.34 kJ.

Exercises | Q 4.19 | Page 89

The enthalpy change for the reaction,

C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g) is - 620 J when 100 mL of ethylene and 100 mL of H2 react at 1
bar pressure. Calculate the pressure-volume type of work and ΔU for the reaction.
Solution:
Given:
Enthalpy change (ΔH) = - 620 J
Volumes of reactants; C2H4 = 100 mL, H2 = 100 mL
Pressure (Pext) = 1 bar
To find:
Pressure-volume work (W) and change in internal energy (ΔU) for the given reaction
Formulae:
1) W = - Pext = ΔV
2) ΔH = ΔU + Pext ΔV
Calculation:
According to the equation of reaction 1 mole of C2H4 reacts with 1 mole of H2 to produce
1 mole of C2H6. Hence, 100 mL of C2H4 would react with 100 mL of H2 to produce 100
mL of C2H6.
V1 = 100 mL + 100 mL = 200 mL = 0.2 dm3
V2 = 100 mL = 0.1 dm3
From formula (i),
W = - Pext = ΔV
= -1 bar (0.1 dm3 - 0.2 dm3)
= 0.10 dm3 bar

∴ - Pext = ΔV = 10.00 J
∴ Pext = ΔV = - 10.00 J
From formula (ii),
ΔH = ΔU + Pext ΔV
∴ ΔU = ΔH - Pext ΔV
= - 620 - (- 10.00 J) = - 610 J
Pressure-volume work (W) = +10.00 J and ΔU = - 610 J

Exercises | Q 4.2 | Page 89

Calculate the work done and comment on whether work is done on or by the system for
the decomposition of 2 moles of NH4NO3 at 100 °C
NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(g)
Solution:
Given:
Decomposition of 1 mole of NH4NO3
Temperature = T = 100 °C = 373 K
To find:
Work done and to determine whether work is done on the system or by the system
Formula: W = - Δ ngRT
Calculation:
The given reaction is for 1 mole of NH4NO3. For 2 moles of NH4NO3, the reaction is
given as follows:
2NH4NO3(s) → 2N2O(g) + 4H2O(g)
Now,
Δ ng = (moles of product gases) - (moles of reactant gases)
Δ ng = 6 - 0 = + 6 mol (∵ NH4NO3 is in solid state)
Hence,
W = - Δ ngRT
= - (+ 6 mol) × 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 × 373 K
= - 18606.75 J
= - 18.61 kJ
Work is done by the system (since W < 0).
The work done is - 18.61 kJ. The work is done by the system.
 Electrochemistry

EXERCISE [PAGES 117 - 119]

Exercises | Q 1.01 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
Two solutions have the ratio of their concentrations 0.4 and ratio of their conductivities
0.216. The ratio of their molar conductivities will be ______.
1. 0.54
2. 574
3. 0.0864
4. 1.852
Solution: Two solutions have the ratio of their concentrations 0.4 and ratio of their
conductivities 0.216. The ratio of their molar conductivities will be 0.54.
Exercises | Q 1.02 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
On diluting the solution of an electrolyte _______.
1. both ∧ and k increase
2. both ∧ and k decrease
3. ∧ increases and k decreases
4. ∧ decreases and k increases
Solution: On diluting the solution of an electrolyte ∧ increases and k decreases.
Exercises | Q 1.03 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
1 S m2 mol-1 is equal to _______.
1. 10–4 S m2 mol–1
2. 104 Ω –1 cm2 mol–1
3. 10–2 S cm2 mol–1
4. 102 Ω –1 cm2 mol–1
Solution: 1 S m2 mol-1 is equal to 104 Ω –1 cm2 mol–1.
Exercises | Q 1.04 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
The standard potential of the cell in which the following reaction occurs:
H2 (g,1 atm) + Cu2+ (1M) → 2H+ (1M) + Cu(s),

1. - 0.34 V
2. 0.34 V
3. 0.17 V
4. - 0.17 V
Solution: 0.34 V
Exercises | Q 1.05 | Page 117
 Choose the most correct option.
For the cell,
Pb(s) |Pb2+ (1 M)| |Ag+ (1 M)| Ag(s),
if concentration of an ion in the anode compartment is increased by a factor of 10, the
emf of the cell will
1. increase by 10 V
2. increase by 0.0296 V
3. decrease by 10 V
4. decrease by 0.0296 V
Solution: increase by 0.0296 V
Exercises | Q 1.06 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
Consider the half reactions with standard potentials _______.

The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are

1. Ag and Fe2+
2. Ag+ and Fe
3. Pb2+ and I
4. I2 and Fe2+
Solution: Ag+ and Fe
Exercises | Q 1.07 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
For the reaction:
Ni(s) + Cu2+ (1 M) → Ni2+ (1 M) + Cu(s),

1. 110 kJ
2. - 110 kJ
3. 55 kJ
4. - 55 kJ
Solution: - 110 kJ
Exercises | Q 1.08 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following is not correct?
1. Gibbs energy is an extensive property
2. Electrode potential or cell potential is an intensive property
3. Electrical work = – ΔG
4. If half-reaction is multiplied by a numerical factor, the corresponding E° value is
also multiplied by the same factor.
Solution:
If half-reaction is multiplied by a numerical factor, the corresponding E° value is also
multiplied by the same factor.
Exercises | Q 1.09 | Page 117
Choose the most correct option.
The oxidation reaction that takes place in lead storage battery during discharge is

Solution:

Exercises | Q 1.1 | Page 118

Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following expressions represent molar conductivity of Al2(SO4)3?

Solution:

Exercises | Q 2.01 | Page 118

What is a cell constant? What are its units? How is it determined experimentally?
Solution:
For a given cell, the ratio of separation (l) between the two electrodes divided by the
area of cross-section (a) of the electrode is called the cell constant.
Cell constant = l/a
The unit of cell constant is m-1 (SI unit) or cm-1 (C.G.S unit).

1) The cell constant is determined using the 1 M, 0.1 M or 0.01 M KCl solutions. The
conductivity of KCl solution is well tabulated at various temperatures.
2) The resistance of KCl solution is measured by Wheatstone bridge as shown in the
figure.
3) AB is the uniform wire. Rx is the variable known resistance placed in one arm of
Wheatstone bridge. The conductivity cell containing KCl solution of unknown resistance
is placed in the other arm of Wheatstone bridge.
4) D is a current detector. F is the sliding contact that moves along AB. A.C. represents
the source of alternating current.
5) The sliding contact is moved along AB until no current flows. The detector D shows
no deflection. The null point is, thus, obtained at C.
6) According to Wheatstone bridge principle,

7) By measuring lengths AC and BC and knowing Rx , resistance of KCl solution can be

calculated.
8) The cell constant is given by
Cell constant = kKCl × R(solution)
The conductivity of KCl solution is known. The cell constant, thus, can be calculated.

Exercises | Q 2.02 | Page 118

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
 Write the relationship between conductivity and molar conductivity and hence unit of
molar conductivity.
Solution:
1. The molar conductivity of the given solution is related to conductivity as:
∧ = k/c
2. The SI units of k are S m-1 and that of c are mol m-3. Hence, the SI units of ∧ is S
m2 mol-1
Exercises | Q 2.03 | Page 118
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write the electrode reactions during electrolysis of molten KCl.
Solution:

Exercises | Q 2.04 | Page 118

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write any two functions of salt bridge.
Solution:
1. It provides electrical contact between two solutions and thereby completes the electrical
circuit.
2. It prevents the mixing of two solutions.
3. It maintains electrical neutrality in both the solutions by the transfer of ions.

Exercises | Q 2.05 | Page 118

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is standard cell potential for the reaction

Solution:
Exercises | Q 2.06 | Page 118
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write Nernst equation. What part of it represents the correction factor for nonstandard
state conditions?
Solution:
1) For any general reaction, aA + bB → cC + dD
Nernst equation is given by

where n = moles of electrons used in the reaction, F = Faraday = 96500 C,

T = temperature in kelvin,
R = gas constant = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1
2) The second term in the Nernst equation is the correction for nonstandard state
conditions.

Exercises | Q 2.07 | Page 118

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Under what conditions the cell potential is called standard cell potential?
Solution:
The cell potential measured under the standard conditions is called standard cell
potential. The standard conditions chosen are 1 M concentration of a solution, 1 atm
pressure for gases, solids and liquids in pure form and 25 °C.

Exercises | Q 2.08 | Page 118

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Formulate a cell from the following electrode reactions:

Solution:

Notation for anode: Mg(s)

Notation for Au(s)

cathode:

Cell formula:
 Exercises | Q 2.09 | Page 118
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
How many electrons would have a total charge of 1 coulomb?
Solution:
Charge on l e- is 1.602 × 10-19 coulomb.
l e- ≡ 1.602 × 10-19 C
∴ Number of electrons having total charge of 1 coulomb

The number of electrons having a total charge of 1 coulomb is 6.242 × 1018

Exercises | Q 2.1 | Page 118
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is the significance of the single vertical line and double vertical line in the
formulation galvanic cell?
Solution:
1. A single vertical line placed between two phases in the galvanic cell represents the
phase boundary. It indicates direct contact between them.
2. A double vertical line placed between two solutions indicates that they are connected by
salt bridge.

Exercises | Q 3.01 | Page 118

Answer the following in brief.
Explain the effect of dilution of the solution on conductivity?
Solution:
1. The electrolytic conductivity is the electrical conductance of unit volume (1 cm 3) of
solution. It depends on the number of current-carrying ions present in unit volume of
solution.
2. On dilution total number of ions increases as a result of an increased degree of
dissociation.
3. An increase in the total number of ions is not in the proportion of dilution. Therefore, the
number of ions per unit volume of solution decreases.
4. This results in a decrease of conductivity with a decrease in the concentration of the
solution.
Exercises | Q 3.02 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
 What is a salt bridge?
Solution:
Salt bridge is a U tube containing a saturated solution of an inert electrolyte such as KCl
or NH4NO3 and 5% agar solution.
Exercises | Q 3.03 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
Write electrode reactions for the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.
Solution:
• Reduction half-reaction at cathode:
At cathode, two reduction reactions compete.
i. Reduction of sodium ions.

The standard potential for the reduction of water is higher than that for the reduction of
Na+. Hence, water has a much greater tendency to get reduced than the Na + ion.
Therefore, reduction of water is the cathode reaction when the aqueous NaCl is
electrolysed.
• Oxidation half-reaction at anode:
At anode, there will be competition between oxidation of Cl– ion to Cl2 gas as in the case
of molten NaCl and the oxidation of water to O2 gas.
i. Oxidation of Cl- ions to chlorine gas

The standard electrode potential for the oxidation of water is greater than that of Cl– ion
or water has a greater tendency to undergo oxidation. Hence, an anode half-reaction
would be oxidation of water. However, experiments have shown that the gas produced
at the anode is Cl2 and not O2. This suggests that anode reaction is oxidation of Cl– to
Cl2 gas. This is because of overvoltage.
• Net cell reaction:
The net cell reaction is the sum of two electrode reactions.

Exercises | Q 3.04 | Page 118

Answer the following in brief.
How many moles of electrons are passed when 0.8-ampere current is passed for 1 hour
through molten CaCl2?
Solution:
Given:
Current (I) = 0.8 ampere,
Time (t) = 1 hour = 1× 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
To find:
No. of moles of electrons passed through molten CaCl2
Formulae:
1. Quantity of electricity passed = I(A) × t(s)
Exercises | Q 3.05 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
Construct a galvanic cell from the electrodes Co3+ | Co and Mn2+| Mn.

Solution:
Exercises | Q 3.06 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
Using the relationship ΔG° of cell reaction and the standard potential associated with it,
how will you show that the electrical potential is an intensive property?
Solution:
Under standard state conditions, electrical work done in a galvanic cell is given by

ΔG° is an extensive property since its value depends on the amount of substance. If the
stoichiometric equation of redox reaction is multiplied by 2, that is, the number of
substances oxidized and reduced are doubled, ΔG° doubles. The moles of electrons
transferred also doubles.
The ratio,

Exercises | Q 3.07 | Page 118

Answer the following in brief.
Derive the relationship between standard cell potential and equilibrium constant of cell
reaction.
Solution:
The relation between standard Gibbs energy change of cell reaction and standard cell
potential is given by

The relation between standard Gibbs energy change of a chemical reaction and its
equilibrium constant as given in thermodynamics is:
ΔG° = - RT ln K .....(2)
Combining equations (1) and (2), we have
 Exercises | Q 3.08 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
It is impossible to measure the potential of a single electrode. Comment.
Solution:
1. Every oxidation reaction needs to be accompanied by a reduction reaction.
2. The occurrence of only oxidation or only reduction is not possible.
3. In galvanic cell oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously.
4. The potential associated with the redox can be experimentally measured. For the
measurement of potential two electrodes need to be combined together where the
redox reaction occurs.
Hence, it is impossible to measure the potential of a single electrode.

Exercises | Q 3.09 | Page 118

Answer the following in brief.
Why do the cell potential of lead accumulators decrease when it generates electricity?
How the cell potential can be increased?
Solution:
1. The cell potential depends on sulphuric acid concentration (density). As the cell
operates to generate current, H2SO4 is consumed. Its concentration (density) decreases
and the cell potential is decreased.
2. During the recharging process by applying external potential slightly greater than 2 V,
H2SO4 is regenerated. As a result, its concentration (density) increases and in turn, the
cell potential increases.
Exercises | Q 3.1 | Page 118
Answer the following in brief.
Write the electrode reactions and net cell reaction in NICAD battery.
Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.01 | Page 118
Answer the following:
What is Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions? How is it useful in obtaining
molar conductivity at zero concentration of a weak electrolyte? Explain with an example.
Solution:
1) Kohlrausch law states that “at infinite dilution each ion migrates independent of co-ion
and contributes to total molar conductivity of an electrolyte irrespective of the nature of
other ions to which it is associated.”
2) Both cation and anion contribute to molar conductivity of the electrolyte at zero
concentration and thus ∧0 is the sum of molar conductivity of cation and that of the
anion at zero concentration.

where λ+ and λ_ are molar conductivities of cation and anion, respectively, n+ and n– are
the number of moles of cation and anion specified in the chemical formula of the
electrolyte.
3) Determination of molar conductivity of weak electrolyte at zero concentration:
The theory is particularly useful in calculating ∧0 values of weak electrolytes from those
of strong electrolytes.
For example, ∧0 of acetic acid can be calculated by knowing those of HCl, NaCl and
CH3COONa as described below:
Λ0 (HCl) + Λ0 (CH3COONa) - Λ0 (NaCl)

Thus, Λ0 (CH3COONa) = Λ0 (HCl) + Λ0 (CH3COONa) - Λ0 (NaCl).

Because Λ0 values of strong electrolytes, HCl, CH3COONa and NaCl, can be
determined by extrapolation method, the Λ0 of acetic acid can be obtained.

Exercises | Q 4.02 | Page 118

Answer the following:
Explain electrolysis of molten NaCl.
Solution:
1) Construction of cell:
The electrolytic cell consists of a container in which fused NaCl is placed. Two graphite
electrodes are immersed in it. They are connected by metallic wires to a source of direct
current that is the battery. The carbon electrode connected to the terminal electrode of
the battery is an anode and that connected to the negative terminal of the battery is the
cathode.

2) Reactions occurring in the cell:

Fused NaCl contains Na+ and Cl– ions which are freely mobile. When potential is
applied, the cathode attracts Na+ ions and anode attracts Cl– ions. As these are
charged particles, their migration results in an electric current. When these ions reach
the respective electrodes, they are discharged according to the following reactions.
i) Oxidation half-reaction at anode:
Cl– ions migrate to anode. Each Cl– ion, that reaches anode, gives one electron to
anode. It oxidizes to neutral Cl atom in the primary process. Two Cl atoms then
combine to form chlorine gas in the secondary process.
The battery sucks electrons so produced at the anode and pushes them to cathode
through a wire in an external circuit. Thus, the battery serves as an electron pump. The
electrons from the battery enter into solution through cathode and leave the solution
through anode.
ii) Reduction half reaction at cathode:
The electrons supplied by the battery are used in cathodic reduction. Each Na+ ion, that
reaches cathode accepts an electron from the cathode and reduces to metallic sodium.

3) Results of electrolysis of molten NaCl:

i) A pale green Cl2 gas is released at anode.

ii) Molten silvery-white sodium is formed at the cathode.

iii) The decomposition of NaCl into metallic sodium and Cl2(g) is nonspontaneous. The
electrical energy supplied by the battery forces the reaction to occur.

Exercises | Q 4.03 | Page 118

Answer the following:
What current strength in amperes will be required to produce 2.4 g of Cu from
CuSO4 solution in 1 hour? Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol–1.
Solution:
Given:
Mass of Cu = 2.4 g,
Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol–1
1 hours = 1 × 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
To find: Current strength (in amperes)
Formulae:

Current strength in amperes required to produce 2.4 g of Cu from

CuSO4 is 2.03 A.

Exercises | Q 4.04 | Page 118

Answer the following:
Equilibrium constant of the reaction,

What is the standard potential of the cell in which the reaction takes place?
Solution:

Exercises | Q 4.05 | Page 119

Answer the following:
Calculate emf of the cell:
Zn(s) |Zn2+ (0.2 M)||H+ (1.6 M)| H2(g, 1.8 atm)| Pt at 25 °C.
Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.06 | Page 119
Answer the following:
Calculate emf of the cell at 25 °C.
Zn(s) |Zn2+ (0.08 M)| |Cr3+ (0.1 M)| |Cr3+ (0.1 M)| Cr(s)
Solution:

Exercises | Q 4.07 | Page 119

What is a cell constant? What are its units? How is it determined experimentally?
Solution:
For a given cell, the ratio of separation (l) between the two electrodes divided by the
area of cross-section (a) of the electrode is called the cell constant.
Cell constant = l/a
The unit of cell constant is m-1 (SI unit) or cm-1 (C.G.S unit).

1) The cell constant is determined using the 1 M, 0.1 M or 0.01 M KCl solutions. The
conductivity of KCl solution is well tabulated at various temperatures.
2) The resistance of KCl solution is measured by Wheatstone bridge as shown in the
figure.
3) AB is the uniform wire. Rx is the variable known resistance placed in one arm of
Wheatstone bridge. The conductivity cell containing KCl solution of unknown resistance
is placed in the other arm of Wheatstone bridge.
4) D is a current detector. F is the sliding contact that moves along AB. A.C. represents
the source of alternating current.
5) The sliding contact is moved along AB until no current flows. The detector D shows
no deflection. The null point is, thus, obtained at C.
6) According to Wheatstone bridge principle,

7) By measuring lengths AC and BC and knowing Rx , resistance of KCl solution can be

calculated.
8) The cell constant is given by
Cell constant = kKCl × R(solution)
The conductivity of KCl solution is known. The cell constant, thus, can be calculated.

Exercises | Q 4.08 | Page 119

Answer the following:
How will you calculate the moles of electrons passed and mass of the substance
produced during electrolysis of a salt solution using reaction stoichiometry?
Solution:
1) Calculation of moles of electrons passed:
Total charge passed is Q(C). The charge of one-mole electrons is 96500 coulombs (C).
It is referred to as one faraday (I F). Hence,

2) Calculation of moles of product formed:

The balanced equation for the half-reaction occurring at the electrode is devised. The
stoichiometry of half reaction indicates the moles of electrons passed and the moles of
the product formed. From this, we will find the mole ratio, which is given by:
Exercises | Q 4.09 | Page 119
Answer the following:
Write the electrode reactions when lead storage cell generates electricity. What are the
anode and cathode and write the electrode reactions during its recharging?
Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.1 | Page 119
Answer the following:
What are anode and cathode of H2 - O2 fuel cell? Name the electrolyte used in it. Write
electrode reactions and net cell reaction taking place in the fuel cell.
Solution:
1) The anode and cathode are porous carbon rods containing small amount of finely
divided platinum metal that acts as a catalyst.
2) The electrolyte used is hot aqueous solution of KOH.
3) Working (Cell reactions):
i) Oxidation at anode (–):
At anode hydrogen gas is oxidized to H2O

The overall cell reaction is combustion of H2 to form liquid water. However, the fuel
H2 gas and the oxidant O2 do not react directly. The chemical energy released during
the formation of O-H bond is directly converted into electrical energy accompanying in
above combustion reaction. The cell continues to operate as long as H2 and O2 gases
are supplied to electrodes.
Exercises | Q 4.11 | Page 119
Answer the following:
What are anode and cathode for Leclanche' dry cell? Write electrode reactions and
overall cell reaction when it generates electricity.
Solution:
1) The container of the cell is made of zinc which serves as anode (–) and an inert
graphite rod in the centre of the cell immersed in the electrolyte paste (manganese
dioxide (MnO2) and carbon black) serves as cathode (+).
2) Electrode reactions are as follows:
Exercises | Q 4.12 | Page 119
Answer the following:
Identify oxidising agents and arrange them in order of increasing strength under
standard state conditions. The standard potentials are given in parenthesis.
Al (–1.66V), Al3+(–1.66V), Cl2 (1.36V), Cd2+ (–0.4V), Fe (–
0.44V), I2 (0.54V), Br- (1.09V).
Solution:

Exercises | Q 4.13 | Page 119

Answer the following:
Which of the following species are reducing agents? Arrange them in order of
increasing strength under standard state conditions. The standard potentials are given
in parenthesis.
K (–2.93V), Br2(1.09V), Mg(–2.36V), Ce3+(1.61V), Ti2+(–0.37V), Ag+ (0.8 V), Ni (–
0.23V).
Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.14 | Page 119
Answer the following:
Predict whether the following reaction would occur spontaneously under standard state
condition.

Solution:

Exercises | Q 4.14 | Page 119

Answer the following:
Predict whether the following reaction would occur spontaneously under standard state
condition.
Solution:

Exercises | Q 4.14 | Page 119

Answer the following:
Predict whether the following reaction would occur spontaneously under standard state
condition.

Solution:
Exercises | Q 4.14 | Page 119
Answer the following:
Predict whether the following reaction would occur spontaneously under standard state
condition.

Solution:
 Chemical Kinetics

EXERCISE [PAGES 135 - 137]

Solution:

The rate law for the reaction aA + bB → P is rate = k[A] [B]. The rate of reaction doubles
if [A] is doubled and [B] is kept constant

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 135

Choose the most correct option.

The order of the reaction for which the units of the rate constant are mol dm-3 s-1 is
_______.
1. 1
2. 3
3. 0
4. 2
Solution:

The order of the reaction for which the units of the rate constant are mol dm-3 s-1 is 0.
 Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 135

Choose the most correct option.
The time required for 90 % completion of a certain first-order reaction is t. The time
required for 99.9 % completion will be _________.
1. t
2. 2t
3. t/2
4. 3t
Solution:
The time required for 90 % completion of a certain first-order reaction is t. The time
required for 99.9 % completion will be 3t .

Solution:
The slope of the graph ln[A]t versus t for the first-order reaction is -k.
Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 135
Choose the most correct option.
 What is the half-life of a first-order reaction if the time required to decrease the
concentration of reactant from 0.8 M to 0.2 M is 12 h?
1. 12 h
2. 3h
3. 1.5 h
4. 6h
Solution: 6 h

Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 135

Choose the most correct option.

1. unimolecular and second order

2. bimolecular and first order
3. bimolecular and second order
4. unimolecular and first order
Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 135

Choose the most correct option.
1. increase in temperature
2. increase of concentration of NO
3. increase of concentration of Cl2
4. increase of concentrations of both Cl2 and NO
Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 135

Choose the most correct option.
For an endothermic reaction, X ⇌ Y. If Ef is the activation energy of the forward reaction
and Er that for the reverse reaction, which of the following is correct?
1. Ef = E r
2. Ef < E r
3. Ef > E r
4. ∆H = Ef - Er is negative
Solution: Ef > Er

Solution:
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 136

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is the relationship between coefficients of reactants in a balanced equation for an
overall reaction and exponents in the rate law? In what case the coefficients are the
exponents?
Solution:
Coefficients of reactants in a balanced chemical equation may or may not be the same
as the exponents in rate law for the same reaction. For elementary reaction, coefficients
in a balanced chemical equation are the same as the exponents in the rate law.
Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 136
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Why all collisions between reactant molecules do not lead to a chemical reaction?
Solution:
All collisions of reactant molecules do not lead to a chemical reaction because the
colliding molecules need to possess certain energy which is greater than the activation
energy Ea and proper orientation.
Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 136
Answer the following in one or two sentences
What is the activation energy of a reaction?
Solution:
For the reaction to occur the colliding reactant molecules must possess the minimum
kinetic energy. This minimum kinetic energy is the activation energy.
Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 136
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What are the units for rate constants for zero-order and second-order reactions if time is
expressed in seconds and concentration of reactants in mol/L?
Solution:
Units of rate constant
i. Zero-order reaction is mol L-1 s-1
ii. The second-order reaction is mol-1 L s-1

Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 136

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write the Arrhenius equation and explain the terms involved in it.
Solution:

where k is the rate constant, Ea is the activation energy, R molar gas constant, T
temperature in kelvin and A is the pre-exponential factor.
Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 136
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
What is the rate-determining step?
Solution:
When a chemical reaction occurs in a series of steps, one of the steps is slower than all
other steps. Such a slowest step in the reaction is called a rate-determining step.
Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 136
Answer the following in one or two sentences.
Write the relationships between rate constant and half-life of the first order and zeroth-
order reactions.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 136

Answer the following in one or two sentences.
How do the half-lives of the first order and zero-order reactions change with the initial
concentration of reactants?
Solution:
i. The half-life of the first-order reaction is independent of the initial concentration of the
reactant.
ii. The half-life of zero-order reactions is proportional to the initial concentration of the
reactant.

Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
How instantaneous rate of reaction is determined?
Solution:
i. To determine the instantaneous rate of a reaction the progress of a reaction is
followed by measuring the concentrations of a reactant or product for different time
intervals.
ii. The concentration of a reactant or a product is plotted against time.
iii. A tangent drawn to the curve at time t1 gives the rate of the reaction. The slope thus
obtained gives the instantaneous rate of the reaction at time t 1.

Determination of instantaneous rate

iv. Mathematically the instantaneous rate is expressed by replacing Δ by derivative dc/dt
in the expression of the average rate.

Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
Distinguish between order and molecularity of a reaction.
Solution:
Order Molecularity
i. It is an experimentally determined property. It is a theoretical entity.
ii. It is the sum of powers of the concentration It is the number of reactant
terms of reactants that appear in the rate molecules taking part in an
equation. elementary reaction.
iii. It may be an integer, fraction, or zero. It is an integer.
iv. It is not based on a balanced chemical
It is based on a balanced
equation.
chemical equation.
Solution:

ii. Since, NOCl2 is formed in the first step and consumed in the second step. Hence, it is
the reaction intermediate.
iii. The molecularity of each step is 2 because two reactants are involved in each of the
steps.

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
Obtain the relationship between the rate constant and half-life of a first-order reaction.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
How will you represent the zeroth-order reaction graphically?
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
What are pseudo-first-order reactions? Give one example and explain why it is pseudo-
first-order.
Solution:
i. Certain reactions that are expected to be of higher order follow the first-order kinetics.
Such reactions are said to be pseudo-first-order reactions.
ii. Example: Consider the hydrolysis of methyl acetate.

The rate law is rate = k' [CH3COOCH3][H2O]

iii. Explanation: The reaction was expected to follow the second-order kinetics,
however, obeys the first order. The reason is that solvent water is present in such large
excess that the change in its concentration is negligible compared to the initial one or its
concentration remains constant. Thus [H2O] = constant = k''. The rate law becomes rate
= k' [CH3COOCH3]k'' = k [CH3COOCH3]
where, k = k'k''
The reaction is thus of first order.

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
What are the requirements for the colliding reactant molecules to lead to products?
Solution:
The requirements for colliding molecules to form the product are as follows:
i. Activation energy: For the reaction to occur the colliding reactant molecules must
possess the minimum kinetic energy. This minimum kinetic energy is the activation
energy. The reaction would occur only if colliding molecules possess kinetic energies
equal to or greater than the activation energy.
ii. The orientation of reactant molecules:
a. For reactions involving complex molecules or ions, reactant molecules must collide
with proper orientation. The molecules need to be so oriented relative to each other that
the reacting groups approach closely.
b. Consider, A + C - B → A - B + C
The collision of A with C approaching toward A would not lead to a reaction.

The reactant molecules would collide and separate owing to the improper orientation of
C – B.
c. The reaction is successful as a result of proper orientation of C – B. A fraction of such
collisions brings forth the conversion of reactants to products.

iii. Potential energy barrier:

Consider the reaction A + C – B → A – B + C
a. During a course of the collision, new bond A – B develops, and at the same time
bond C – B breaks. An activated complex is formed in which all three atoms are weakly
connected together. A + C – B → A-----B-----C → A – B + C
b. To attain the configuration A-----B-----C atoms need to gain energy, which comes
from the kinetic energy of colliding molecules. The energy barrier between reactants
and products is as shown in the diagram.

Potential energy barrier

c. To form an activated complex, the reactant molecules need to climb up and
overcome the energy barrier before they get converted to products.
d. The height of the barrier is called activation energy (Ea). Thus, the reactant molecules
transform into products only if they possess energy equal to or greater than such
activation energy. As a result, only a few collisions lead to products.

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 136

Answer the following in brief.
How a catalyst increases the rate of reaction? Explain with the help of a potential
energy diagram for catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions.
Solution:
i. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway associated with lower activation energy.
Potential energy barriers for catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions
ii. The potential energy diagram compares the potential energy barriers for the
catalysed and uncatalysed reactions. The barrier for uncatalysed reaction (Ea) is larger
than that for the same reaction in the presence of a catalyst E a.

At room temperature, the rate of reaction is slower in the absence of a catalyst with its
activation energy being 76 kJ mol-1. In the presence of catalyst, iodide ion (I- ), the
reaction is faster since the activation energy decreases to 57 kJ mol-1.
Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 136
Answer the following in brief.
Explain with the help of the Arrhenius equation, how do the rate of reaction changes
with (a) temperature and (b) activation energy.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 137

Answer the following in brief.
Derive the integrated rate law for the first-order reaction.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 3.11 | Page 137
Answer the following in brief.
How will you represent first-order reactions graphically?
Solution:

Variation of rate with [A]

Exercise | Q 3.12 | Page 137
Answer the following in brief.
Derive the integrated rate law for the first-order reaction,

Solution:
i. For the gas phase reaction,
AX(g)⟶BX(g)+CX(g)
Let initial pressure of A be Pi that decreases by x within time t.
ii. Pressure of reactant A at time t
PA = Pi - x ....(1)
The pressures of the products B and C at time t
PB = P C = x
iii. The total pressure at time t is then
P = Pi - x + x + x = Pi + x
Hence, x = P - Pi …(2)
The pressure of A at time t is obtained by substitution of Eq. (1) into Eq. (2).
Thus
PA = Pi - (P - Pi) = Pi - P + Pi = 2Pi - P
iv. The integrated rate law turns out to be

Exercise | Q 3.13 | Page 137

Answer the following in brief.
What is a zeroth-order reaction? Derive its integrated rate law. What are the units of the
rate constant?
Solution:
i. Reactions in which the rate is independent of the reactant concentration are zeroth-
order reaction.
ii. The integrated rate law for zero-order reactions:
For zero-order reaction, A → P
the differential rate law is given by
or [A]t - [A]0 = -kt
Hence, kt = [A]0 - [A]t ....(2)
iii. The unit of rate constant for the zero order reaction is mol dm -3 s-1 .
Exercise | Q 3.14 | Page 137
Answer the following in brief.
How will you determine activation energy:
(a) graphically using Arrhenius equation
(b) from rate constants at two different temperatures?
Solution:
Variation of log10k with 1/T
ii.
Determination of activation energy from rate constants at two different
temperatures.
Exercise | Q 3.15 | Page 137
Answer the following in brief.
Explain graphically the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction.
Solution:
i. The average kinetic energy of molecules is proportional to temperature.
ii. At a given temperature, the fraction of molecules with their kinetic energy equal to or
greater than Ea may lead to the product.
iii. With an increase in temperature, the fraction of molecules having their energies (E a)
would increases. The rate of the reaction thus would increase.
iv. This is depicted by plotting a fraction of molecules with given kinetic energy versus
kinetic energy for two different temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1). The area between the
curve and the horizontal axis is proportional to the total number of molecules. The total
area is the same at T1 and T2.

Comparison of fraction of molecules activated at T1 and T2

v. The entire shaded area which represents a fraction of molecules with kinetic energy
exceeding Ea is larger at T2 than at T1 (since T2 > T1).
vi. This indicates that a fraction of molecules possessing energies larger than
Ea increase with temperature. The rate of reaction increases accordingly.

Exercise | Q 3.16 | Page 137

Answer the following in brief.
Explain graphically the effect of a catalyst on the rate of reaction.
Solution:
i. Diagram:

Comparison of fraction of molecules for catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions

ii. A catalyst lowers the threshold energy.
iii. Consequently, more molecules acquire the minimum amount of energy and tend to
cross the energy barrier.
iv. A fraction of activated molecules is greater for the catalyzed reaction. The rate of
catalysed reaction thus is larger than the reaction with no catalyst.

Exercise | Q 3.17 | Page 137

Answer the following in brief.
For the reaction 2A + B → products, find the rate law from the following data.
[A]/M [B]/M rate/M s-1
0.3 0.05 0.15
0.6 0.05 0.30
0.6 0.2 1.20

Solution:
From above observations (i) and (ii)
0.15 = (0.3)x (0.05)y ......(i)
0.30 = (0.6)x (0.05)y .......(ii)
Dividing (2) by (1)
Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 137
Solve
In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 20 mmol dm -
3 to 8 mmol dm-3 in 38 minutes. What is the half-life of reaction?
Solution:
Given:
[A]0 = 20 mmol dm-3 , [A]t = 8 mmol dm-3 , t = 38 min
To find:
Half life of reaction t1/2
Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 137
Solve
The half-life of a first-order reaction is 1.7 hours. How long will it take for 20% of the
reactant to react?
Solution:
Given:
Half-life t1/2 = 1.7 hours, [A]0 = 100%, [A]t = 100 - 20 = 80%
To find:
Time for 20% of reactant to react = t
Formulae:
Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 137
Solve
The energy of activation for a first-order reaction is 104 kJ/mol. The rate constant at
25°C is 3.7 × 10–5 s –1. What is the rate constant at 30°C? (R = 8.314 J/K mol)
Solution:
Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 137
Solve
What is the energy of activation of a reaction whose rate constant doubles when the
temperature changes from 303 K to 313 K?
Solution:
Given:
Rate constants; k2 = 2k1,
Temperatures: T1 = 303 K, T2 = 313 K
To find:
Activation energy of the reaction (Ea)
Formula:
Exercise | Q 4.5 | Page 137
Solve
The rate constant of a reaction at 500°C is 1.6 × 103 M–1 s –1. What is the frequency
factor of the reaction if its activation energy is 56 kJ/mol?
Solution:
Exercise | Q 4.6 | Page 137
Solve
Show that time required for 99.9% completion of a first-order reaction is three times the
time required for 90% completion.
Solution:
For a first-order reaction,
ii.
Time is taken for 90% completion:
Let the time taken for 90% completion of the reaction be t90%.
Let initial concentration, [A]0 = a
Then, final concentration, [A]t = a - 90% of a
Therefore, for a first-order reaction, the time required for 99.9% completion is 3 times
that required for 90% completion.
Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 137
Solve
A first-order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate its half-life.
Solution:
Given:
[A]0 = 100%, [A]t = 100 - 30 = 70%, t = 40 min
To find:
Half life of reaction (t1/2)
Formula:
Exercise | Q 4.8 | Page 137
Solve
The rate constant for the first-order reaction is given by log10 k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104 T.
Calculate activation energy of the reaction.
Solution:

∴ Ea = 1.25 × 104 × 2.303 × 8.314 = 239339 K mol-1 = 239.3 kJ mol-1

The energy of activation of the reaction is 239.3 kJ mol-1

Exercise | Q 4.9 | Page 137

Solve
What fraction of molecules in a gas at 300 K collide with an energy equal to the
activation energy of 50 kJ/mol?
Solution:
Given:
Activation energy (Ea) = 50 kJ mol-1 = 50 × 103 J mol-1
Temperature (T) = 300 K
To find:
Fraction of molecule (f) with energy equal to Ea
Formula:
 Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18

EXERCISE [PAGES 163 - 164]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Which of the following has highest electron gain enthalpy?
1. Fluorine
2. Chlorine
3. Bromine
4. Iodine
Solution: Chlorine

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Hydrides of group 16 are weakly acidic. The correct order of acidity is ______.
1. H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
2. H2Te > H2O > H2S > H2Se
3. H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
4. H2Te > H2Se > H2O > H2S
Solution:

Hydrides of group 16 are weakly acidic. The correct order of acidity is H2Te > H2Se >
H2S > H2O.

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Which of the following element does not show an oxidation state of +4?
1. O
2. S
3. Se
4. Te
Solution: O
 Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

HI acid when heated with conc. H2SO4 forms _______.
1. HIO3
2. KIO3
3. I2
4. KI
Solution:

HI acid when heated with conc. H2SO4 forms I2

Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Ozone layer is depleted by _______.
1. NO
2. NO2
3. NO3
4. N2O5
Solution:

Ozone layer is depleted by NO.

Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Which of the following occurs in a liquid state at room temperature?
1. HIO3
2. HBr
3. HCl
4. HF
Solution: HF

Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 163

 Select appropriate answers for the following.
In pyrosulfuric acid oxidation state of sulfur is _______.
1. only +2
2. only +4
3. +2 and +6
4. only +6
Solution:

In pyrosulfuric acid oxidation state of sulfur is only +6.

Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Stability of interhalogen compounds follows the order _______.
1. BrF > IBr > ICl > ClF > BrCl
2. IBr > BeF > ICl > ClF > BrCl
3. ClF > ICl > IBr > BrCl > BrF
4. ICl > ClF > BrCl > IBr > BrF
Solution:

Stability of interhalogen compounds follows the order ClF > ICl > IBr > BrCl > BrF.

Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

BrCl reacts with water to form _______.
1. HBr
2. Br2 + Cl2
3. HOBr
4. HOBr + HCl
Solution:

BrCl reacts with water to form HOBr + HCl.

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

 Chlorine reacts with excess of fluorine to form _______.
1. CIF
2. CIF3
3. CIF2
4. Cl2F3
Solution:

Chlorine reacts with excess of fluorine to form CIF3.

Exercise | Q 1.11 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

In interhalogen compounds, which of the following halogens is never the central atom?
1. I
2. Cl
3. Br
4. F
Solution: F

Exercise | Q 1.12 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Which of the following has one lone pair of electrons?
1. IF3
2. ICl
3. IF5
4. ClF3
Solution: IF5

Exercise | Q 1.13 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

In which of the following pairs, molecules are paired with their correct shapes?
1. [I3]– : bent
2. BrF5 : trigonal bipyramidal
3. ClF3 : trigonal planar
4. [BrF4]- : square planar
Solution: [BrF4]- : square planar

Exercise | Q 1.14 | Page 163

Select appropriate answers for the following.

Among the known interhalogen compounds, the maximum number of atoms is
_______.
1. 3
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
Solution:

Among the known interhalogen compounds, the maximum number of atoms is 8.

Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 163

Answer the following.

Write the order of the thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements.
Solution:

The decreasing order of thermal stability: H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te

Exercise | Q 2.02 | Page 163

Answer the following.

What is the oxidation state of Te in TeO3?
Solution:
(Oxidation number of Te) + (Oxidation number of O) = 0
(Oxidation number of Te) + 3 × (- 2) = 0
Oxidation number of Te - 6 = 0
Hence, oxidation number of Te in TeO3 = +6

Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 163

Answer the following.

Name two gases which deplete ozone layer.
 Solution:

Two gases that deplete ozone layer: Nitric oxide (NO), chlorofluoro carbons (freons).

Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 163

Answer the following.

Give two uses of ClO2.
Solution:
1. ClO2 is used as a bleaching agent for paper pulp and textiles.
2. It is also used in the water treatment.
Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 163

Answer the following.

What is the action of bromine on magnesium metal?
Solution:

Bromine reacts with magnesium to form magnesium bromide.

Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 163

Answer the following.

Write the names of allotropic forms of selenium.
Solution:

Allotropes of Selenium: Red and grey selenium

Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 163

Answer the following.

What is the oxidation state of ‘S’ in H2SO4?
Solution:
(Oxidation number of H) + (Oxidation number of S) + (Oxidation number of O) = 0
2 × (+1) + (Oxidation number of S) + 4 × (- 2) = 0
Oxidation number of S + 2 - 8 = 0
Hence, oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2SO4 = +6
Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 163

Answer the following.

The pKa value of HCl is - 7.0 and that of HI is -10.0. Which is the stronger acid?
Solution:

Smaller is the pKa value, greater is its acidity. Hence, HI is stronger acid than HCl.

Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 163

Answer the following.

Give one example showing reducing property of ozone.
Solution:

Reaction showing reducing property of ozone is,

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Write the reaction of conc. H2SO4 with sugar.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.11 | Page 164

Write any two uses of Chlorine.

Solution:

Uses of chlorine:
1. Large quantities of chlorine are used industrially for bleaching wood pulp (required for
the manufacture of paper and rayon), bleaching cotton and textiles.
2. It is used in the extraction of gold and platinum.
3. It is used for the manufacture of dyes, drugs and organic compounds such as
CCl4, CHCl3, refrigerants, etc.
4. It is used in sterilising drinking water.
5. It is used in preparation of poisonous gases such as phosgene (COCl2), tear
gas (CCl3NO2), mustard gas (Cl.C2H4-S - C2H4Cl).
6. It is used in the manufacture of DDT and BHC which are important insecticide.
7. It is used in the manufacture of vinyl chloride which is starting material for polyvinyl
chloride plastics.
8. It is used in the manufacture of bleaching powder, aluminium chloride,
hydrogen chloride, hypochlorites, chlorates, perchlorates, etc., which are
important industrial compounds.

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

ICl3 + H2O → _______ + _______ + ICl
Solution:

ICl3 + H2O → HIO3 + 5HCl + ICl

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

l2 + KClO3 → _______ + KIO3
Solution:

l2 + KClO3 → ICl + KIO3

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

BrCl + H2O → _______ + HCl
Solution:

BrCl + H2O → HOBr + HCl

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

Cl2 + ClF3 → _______
Solution:

Cl2 + ClF3 → 3ClF

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

H2C = CH2 + ICl → _______
Solution:

H2C = CH2 + ICl → I - CH2 - CH2 - Cl

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

2XeOF4 + SiO2 → _______ + SiF4
Solution:

2XeOF4 + SiO2 → 2XeO2F2 + SiF4

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

XeF6 + H2O → _______ + 2HF
Solution:

XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF

Exercise | Q 2.12 | Page 164

Complete the following.

XeOF4 + H2O → _______ + HF
Solution:

XeOF4 + H2O → XeO2F2 + HF

Exercise | Q 2.13 | Page 164

Match the following:

A B
XeOF2 Xenon trioxydifluoride
 XeO2F2 Xenon monooxydifluoride
XeO3F2 Xenon dioxytetrafluoride
XeO2F4 Xenon dioxydifluoride
Solution:

A B
XeOF2 Xenon monooxydifluoride
XeO2F2 Xenon dioxydifluoride
XeO3F2 Xenon trioxydifluoride
XeO2F4 Xenon dioxytetrafluoride
Exercise | Q 2.14 | Page 164

What is the oxidation state of xenon in the following compounds?

XeOF4, XeO3, XeF6, XeF4, XeF2.
Solution:
Compound Oxidation state of xenon
XeOF4 +6
XeO3 +6
XeF6 +6
XeF4 +4
XeF2 +2

Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 164

Answer the following.

The first ionization enthalpies of S, Cl, and Ar are 1000, 1256 and 1520 kJ/mol-1,
respectively. Explain the observed trend.
Solution:
1. The elements S, Cl, and Ar belong to third period of the periodic table.
2. Across a period, effective nuclear charge increases and atomic size decreases with
increase in atomic number. Therefore, the energy required for the removal of an
electron from the valence shell (I.E.) increases in the order: S < Cl < Ar.
Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Acidic character of hydrides of group 16 elements increases from H2O to H2Te. Explain.
Solution:
The acidic character of the hydrides increases from H2O to H2Te because the bond
dissociation enthalpy of the H–E bond decreases down the group. (where, E = O, S, Se,
Te)

Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 164

Answer the following.

How is dioxygen prepared in the laboratory from KClO3?
Solution:

Dioxygen is prepared by heating potassium chlorate (KClO3) in presence of the catalyst,

MnO2.

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What happens when lead sulfide reacts with ozone (O3)?
Solution:

Ozone oxidizes lead sulfide to lead sulfate

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What happens when nitric oxide reacts with ozone.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 164

Answer the following.
Give two reactions showing the oxidising property of concentrated H2SO4.
Solution:

Metals and nonmetals both are oxidized by hot, concentrated sulfuric acid which itself
gets reduced to SO2.

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Discuss the structure of sulfur dioxide.
Solution:
1) Sulfur dioxide is angular with O – S – O bond angle of 119.5°.
2) The S – O double bond arises from dπ-pπ bonding.
3) It is a resonance hybrid of two canonical forms as shown below:

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Fluorine shows only –1 oxidation state while other halogens show –1, +1, +3, +5 and +7
oxidation states. Explain.
Solution:
1) The fluorine atom has no d-orbitals in its valence shell and therefore, cannot expand
its octet. Thus, fluorine is the most electronegative exhibit –1 oxidation state only.
2) Cl, Br, and I exhibit –1, +1, +3, +5, and +7 oxidation states. This is because they are
less electronegative than F and possess empty d-orbitals in the valence shell and
therefore, can expand the octet.
Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What is the action of chlorine on Excess NH3.
Solution:

Chlorine when reacted with excess of ammonia gives ammonium chloride and nitrogen.

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What is the action of chlorine on Fe?
Solution:

Chlorine reacts with Fe to form ferric chloride.

Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 164

Answer the following.

How is hydrogen chloride prepared from sodium chloride?
Solution:

1) In the laboratory, hydrogen chloride is prepared by heating sodium chloride (common

salt) with concentrated sulfuric acid

2) HCl gas can be dried by passing it through concentrated sulfuric acid.

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.
Draw structures of XeF6
Solution:
structures of XeF6 :

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Draw structures of XeF3
Solution:
structures of XeF3 :

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Draw structures of XeOF4
Solution:
structures of XeOF4 :
Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Draw structures of XeOF2
Solution:
structures of XeOF2 :

Exercise | Q 3.11 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What are interhalogen compounds? Give two examples.
Solution:
An interhalogen compound is a compound formed by a combination of atoms of
different halogens.
e.g. ClF, BrF3

Exercise | Q 3.12 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What is the action of hydrochloric acid on NH3?
Solution:

Hydrochloric acid reacts with ammonia and gives white fumes of ammonium chloride.
 Exercise | Q 3.12 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What is the action of hydrochloric acid on Na2CO3?
Solution:

Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give sodium chloride with the release
of CO2 gas.

Exercise | Q 3.13 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Give two uses of HCl.
Solution:
1. It is used in the manufacture of chlorine and chlorides such as ammonium chloride.
2. It is used in the preparation of aqua regia which is used to dissolve noble metals like
gold.
Exercise | Q 3.14 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Write the names and structural formulae of oxoacids of chlorine.
Solution:
1) Hypochlorous acid, HOCl

2) Chlorous acid, HOClO or HClO2

3) Chloric acid, HClO3

4) Perchloric acid, HClO4

Exercise | Q 3.15 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What happens when Cl2 reacts with F2 in equal volume at 437 K.
Solution:

When Cl2 reacts with F2 in equal volume at 437 K, chlorine monofluoride is formed.

Exercise | Q 3.15 | Page 164

Answer the following.

What happens when Br2 reacts with excess of F2.
Solution:

When Br2 reacts with excess of F2, bromine trifluoride is formed.

Exercise | Q 3.16 | Page 164

Answer the following.

How are xenon fluorides XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 obtained? Give suitable reactions.
Solution:

Xenon fluorides are generally prepared by direct reaction of xenon and fluorine in
different ratios and conditions, such as temperature, electric discharge and
photochemical reaction.
Exercise | Q 3.17 | Page 164

Answer the following.

How are XeF2 and XeOF4 prepared?
Solution:
1) Preparation of XeO3:
Fluorides of xenon react with water to form XeO3.

Exercise | Q 3.18 | Page 164

Answer the following.

List the uses of Neon and argon gases.
Solution1:
Uses of neon gas:
(i) It is mixed with helium to protect electrical equipments from high voltage.
(ii) It is filled in discharge tubes with characteristic colours.
(iii) It is used in beacon lights.
Uses of Argon gas:
(i) Argon along with nitrogen is used in gas-filled electric lamps. This is because Ar is
more inert than N.
(ii) It is usually used to provide an inert temperature in a high metallurgical process.
(iii) It is also used in laboratories to handle air-sensitive substances.

Solution2:
Uses of Neon
Neon is used in discharge tubes and fluorescent bulbs for advertisement display
purposes. Glow’of different colours ‘neon signs’ can be produced by mixing neon with
other gases. Neon bulbs and used in botanical gardens and in green’ houses.
Uses of Argon
Argon is used mainly to provide an inert atmosphere in high temperature metallurgical
processes such as arc welding of metals and alloys. In the laboratory, it is used for
handling substance which are air sensitive.
It is used in filling incandescent and fluorescent lamps where its presence retards the
sublimation of the filament and thus increases the life of the lamp.It is also used in
“neon signs” for obtaining lights of different colours.

Exercise | Q 3.19 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Describe the structure of the Ozone. Give two uses of ozone.
Solution:
Structure of ozone:
Ozone (O3) is an angular molecule. The two O – O bond lengths in the ozone molecule
are identical, 128 pm, and the O – O – O bond angle of about 117°. It is a resonance
hybrid of two canonical forms.
Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements:
Atomic radii
Solution:
Atomic radii:
The atomic radii increase down the group, as a result of an increase in the number of
quantum shells.

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements:
Ionisation enthalpy
Solution:
Ionisation enthalpy:
The ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group due to an increase in the atomic
size. Group 16 elements have less ionization energy than the corresponding group 15
elements.

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements:
Electronegativity
Solution:
Electronegativity:
The electronegativity decreases down the group. Oxygen has the highest
electronegativity next to fluorine amongst all the elements.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Distinguish between rhombic sulfur and monoclinic sulfur.
Solution:
The following are the points of difference between rhombic (α-sulfur) and monoclinic (β -
sulfur):
Rhombic sulfur Monoclinic sulfur
(α-sulfur) (β- sulfur)
1. It is a pale yellow coloured solid. 1. It is bright yellow solid
2. It forms orthorhombic crystals 2. It forms needle-shaped monoclinic
crystals
3. Its melting point is 385.8 K. 3. Its melting point is 393 K.
4. Its density is 2.06 g/cm3 4. Its density is 1.98 g/cm3
5. It is insoluble in water and soluble in 5. Soluble in CS2
CS2
6. It is stable below 369 K and transforms 6. It is stable above 369 K and transforms
to β-sulfur above this temperature into α-sulfur below this temperature.
7. It is prepared by the evaporation of rolls 7. It is prepared from rhombic sulfur.
sulfur in CS2.

Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Give two reactions showing the oxidising property of concentrated H2SO4.
Solution:

Metals and nonmetals both are oxidised by hot, concentrated sulfuric acid which itself
gets reduced to SO2.

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 164

Answer the following.

How is SO2 prepared in the laboratory from sodium sulfite?
Solution:

In laboratory, sulfur dioxide is prepared by treating sodium sulfite with dilute sulfuric
acid.
Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 164

Answer the following.

Describe the manufacturing of H2SO4 by the contact process.
Solution:
Sulfuric acid is manufactured by the contact process, which involves the following three
steps.
1) Roasting in air:
Sulfur or sulfide ore (iron pyrites) on burning or roasting in air produces sulfur dioxide.

2) Catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide:

i) Sulfur dioxide is oxidised catalytically with oxygen to sulfur trioxide, in the presence of
V2O5 catalyst.

ii) The reaction is exothermic and reversible and the forward reaction leads to decrease
in volume. Therefore, low temperature (720K) and high pressure (2 bar) are favourable
conditions for maximum yield of SO3.
3) Absorption, followed by dilution of sulfur trioxide gas:
i) Sulfur trioxide gas (from the catalytic converter) is absorbed in concentrated H 2SO4 to
produce oleum.

iii) The sulfuric acid obtained by contact process is 96-98 % pure.

 Transition and Inner transition Elements

EXERCISE [PAGES 190 - 191]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Which one of the following is dimagnetic.
1. Cr2+
2. Fe3+
3. Mn2+
4. Zn2+
Solution: Zn2+

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Most stable oxidation state of titanium is _______.
1. +2
2. +3
3. +4
4. +5
Solution: Most stable oxidation state of titanium is +4.

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Components of Nichrome alloy are _______.
1. Ni, Cr, Fe
2. Ni, Cr, Fe, C
3. Ni, Cr
4. Cu, Fe
Solution: Components of Nichrome alloy are Ni, Cr.

Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

 Most stable oxidation state of Ruthenium is _______.
1. +2
2. +4
3. +8
4. +6
Solution: Most stable oxidation state of Ruthenium is +8.

Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Stable oxidation states for chromiom are ________.
1. +2, +3
2. +3, +4
3. +4, +5
4. +3, +6
Solution: Stable oxidation states for chromiom are +3, +6.

Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Electronic configuration of Cu and Cu1+ are _______.
1. 3d10 4s0 ; 3d9 4s0
2. 3d9 4s1; 3d9 4s0
3. 3d10 4s1; 3d10 4s0
4. 3d8 4s1; 3d10 4s0
Solution: Electronic configuration of Cu and Cu1+ are 3d10 4s1; 3d10 4s0.

Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following have d0s0 configuration?
1. Sc3+
2. Ti4+
3. V5+
4. All of the above
Solution: All of the above
 Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Magnetic moment of a metal complex is 5.9 B.M. Number of unpaired electrons in the
complex is ______.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Solution: Magnetic moment of a metal complex is 5.9 B.M. Number of unpaired
electrons in the complex is 5.

Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

In which of the following series all the elements are radioactive in nature
1. Lanthanides
2. Actinides
3. d-block elements
4. s-block elements
Solution: Actinides

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 190

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following sets of ions contain only paramagnetic ions?
1. Sm3⊕, Ho3⊕, Lu3⊕
2. La3⊕, Ce3⊕, Sm3⊕
3. La3⊕, Eu3⊕, Gd3⊕
4. Ce3⊕, Eu3⊕, Yb3⊕
Solution: Ce3⊕, Eu3⊕, Yb3⊕

Exercise | Q 1.11 | Page 191

Choose the most correct option.

Which actinoid, other than uranium, occur in a significant amount naturally?
1. Thorium
2. Actinium
3. Protactinium
4. Plutonium
Solution: Thorium

Exercise | Q 1.12 | Page 191

Choose the most correct option.

The flux added during the extraction of iron from haematite is its?
1. Silica
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Sodium carbonate
4. Alumina
Solution: Calcium carbonate
Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 191
Answer the following
What is the oxidation state of Manganese in

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 191

Answer the following
What is the oxidation state of manganese in:

?
Solution:
Exercise | Q 2.02 | Page 191
Answer the following
Give uses of KMnO4
Solution:

Uses of KMnO4:

i. Used as an antiseptic.

ii. Used for unsaturation tests in the laboratory.

iii. Used in the volumetric analysis of reducing agents.

iv. Used for detecting halides in qualitative analysis.

v. Used as a powerful oxidizing agent in the laboratory and industry.

Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 191

Answer the following
Why salts of Sc3⊕, Ti4⊕, V5⊕ are colourless?
Solution:
i. Condensed electronic configurations of Sc3+, Ti4+, V5+ are: Sc3+: [Ar] 3d0 ; Ti4+: [Ar]
3d0 ; V5+: [Ar] 3d0
ii. The ions Sc3+, Ti4+ and V5+ have completely empty d-orbitals i.e., no unpaired
electrons are present. Thus, their salts are colourless, as d-d transitions are not
possible.

Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 191

Answer the following
Which steps are involved in the manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite
ore?
Solution:
Preparation of potassium dichromate:
In the industrial production, finely powdered chromite ore (FeOCr2O3) is heated with
anhydrous sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) and flux of lime in the air in a reverberatory
furnace.

Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 191

Answer the following
Balance the following equation

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 191

Answer the following
Balance the following equation

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 191

Answer the following
What are the stable oxidation states of plutonium, cerium, manganese, Europium?
Solution:
The stable oxidation state of plutonium is +4, cerium is +2, +3, +4, manganese is +2 to
+7 and europium is +2, +3.
Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 191
Answer the following
Write the probable electronic configuration of chromium and copper.
Solution:
i. The probable (expected) electronic configuration of chromium is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 or [Ar] 3d4 4s2 .
ii The probable (expected) electronic configuration of copper is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2 or [Ar] 3d9 4s2 .

Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 191

Answer the following
Why nobelium is the only actinoid with a +2 oxidation state?
Solution:
i. The electronic configuration of nobelium (No) is [Rn] 5f14 6d0 7s2.
ii. After losing 2 electrons No forms No2+ ion, which is stable due to completely filled 5f-
orbitals.
iii. Such extra stability due to completely filled orbital is not acquired by any other
actinoid in their +2 oxidation state.
Hence, nobelium is the only actinoid with a +2 oxidation state.

Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 191

Answer the following
Explain with the help of a balanced chemical equation, why the solution of Ce(IV) is
acidic.
Solution:
i. According to Lewis acid theory, a species that can accept a pair of electrons is an
acid.
ii. The electronic configuration of Ce is [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2 and that of Ce(IV) is [Xe].
iii. Ce(IV) can accept lone pairs of electrons from water molecules in its vacant orbitals
to form the complex.
Hence, the solution of Ce(IV) is acidic in nature.
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 191
Answer the following
What is meant by ‘shielding of electrons’ in an atom?
Solution:
i. The decrease in the force of attraction exerted by the nucleus on the valence
electrons due to the presence of electrons in the inner shells is called the shielding
effect.
ii. As a result of the shielding effect, the effective nuclear charge experienced by the
valence electron is less than the actual nuclear charge.

Exercise | Q 2.11 | Page 191

Answer the following
The atomic number of an element is 90. Is this element diamagnetic or paramagnetic?
Solution:
The electronic configuration of element with atomic number = 90 is [Rn] 5f0 6d2 7s2 .
There are two unpaired electrons in the 6d orbital of the element. Hence, it is
paramagnetic.
Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 191
Answer the following
Explain the trends in atomic radii of d block elements.
Solution:
i. Atomic radii of the elements of the transition series decrease gradually from left to
right.
ii. As we move across a transition series from left to right, the nuclear charge increases
by one unit at a time.
iii. The last filled electron enters a penultimate (n - 1)d subshell. However, d orbitals in
an atom are less penetrating or more diffused and, therefore d electrons offer smaller
screening effects.
iv. The result is that effective nuclear charge also increases as the atomic number
increases along with a transition series. Hence, the atomic radii gradually decrease
across a transition series from left to right.
Trends in atomic radii of d block elements

Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 191

Answer the following
Name different zones in the Blast furnace. Write the reactions taking place in them.
Solution:
Reduction (Smelting): This step is carried out in a blast furnace. The charge
containing ore and limestone is introduced into the furnace through a cup and cone
arrangement. In this arrangement, the cone enables uniform distribution of charge and
the cup prevents the loss of gases. A blast of preheated air is introduced into the
furnace below the bosh. The charge and hot air come in contact with each other and
various reactions take place.
Chemical reactions taking place in different zones of the blast furnace:
a. Zone of combustion: This is 5-10 m from the bottom. The hot air blown through the
tuyers reacts with coke from the charge to form CO.

The reaction is highly exothermic; thus, the temperature of this zone is around 2000 K.
Some of the CO formed dissociates to form finely divided carbon.
2CO → 2C + O2
The hot gas rich in CO rises upwards in the blast furnace. The charge coming down
gets heated and reacts with CO. Thus, CO acts as a fuel and also as a reducing agent.

b. Zone of reduction (22-25 m near the top): Here, the temperature is around 900 K.
Fe2O3 is reduced to spongy iron by CO.
c. Zone of slag formation (20 m height from the bottom): The gangue present in the
ore is converted to slag. This slag can be used for making a road foundation. The
temperature of this zone is 1200 K. The gangue contains silica, alumina, and
phosphates. Removal of this gangue is effected by adding lime-stone in the charge,
which acts as a flux. Limestone decomposes to give CaO (quick lime).

d. Zone of fusion (15 m height from the bottom): MnO2 and Ca3(PO4)2 present in the
iron ore are reduced to Mn and P. Some of the silica is also reduced to Si. The spongy
iron coming down in the furnace melt absorbs impurities like C, Si, Mn, P, and S. This
molten iron collects at the bottom in the furnace. The slag is lighter floats on the surface
of molten iron. Molten slag and iron are collected through separate outlets. Molten iron
is poured into moulds. These solid blocks are called pigs. This iron contains about 4%
of carbon. When pig iron is remelted, run into moulds, and cooled, it becomes cast iron.
The waste gases containing N2, CO, and CO2 escape through the outlet at the top.
These hot gases are used for preheating the blast of air.
Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 191
Answer the following
What are the differences between cast iron, wrought iron, and steel?
Solution:
Cast iron Wrought iron Steel
i. Hard and brittle i. Very soft i. Neither too hard nor too
soft.
ii. Contains 4% carbon. ii. Contains less than 0.2% ii. Contains 0.2 to 2% carbon
carbon
 iii. Used for making pipes, iii. Used for making pipes, iii. Used in buildings
manufacturing automotive bars for stay bolts, engine infrastructure, tools, ships,
parts, pots, pans, utensils, bolts and rivets, etc. automobiles, weapons, etc.
etc.

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 191

Answer the following
Iron exhibits +2 and +3 oxidation states. Write their electronic configuration. Which will
be more stable? Why ?
Solution:
i. Electronic configuration of Fe2+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6
ii. Electronic configuration of Fe3+ : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
iii. Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+. This is due to the presence of half filled ‘d’ orbital in
Fe3+ .

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 191

Answer the following
Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d, and 5d series.
Solution:
i. Similarities in physical properties:
i. All d block elements are lustrous and shining.
ii. They are hard and have a high density.
iii. They have high melting and boiling points.
iv. They are good electrical and thermal conductors.
v. They have high tensile strength and malleability.
vi. They can form alloys with transition and non-transition elements.
vii. Many metals and their compounds are paramagnetic.
viii. Most of the metals are efficient catalysts.
ii. Similarities in chemical properties:
i. All d block elements are electropositive metals.
ii. They exhibit variable valencies and form coloured salts and complexes. iii. They are
good reducing agents.
iv. They form insoluble oxides and hydroxides.
v. Iron, cobalt, copper, molybdenum, and zinc are biologically important metals.
vi. They catalyse biological reactions.
iii. Differences:
Although most properties exhibited by d block elements are similar, the elements of the
first row differ from second and third rows in the stabilization of higher oxidation states
in their compounds.

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 191

Answer the following
Explain trends in ionisation enthalpies of d block elements.
Solution:
i. The ionization enthalpies of transition elements are intermediate between those of s-
block or p-block elements. This suggests that transition elements are less
electropositive than elements of groups 1 and 2.
ii. As the atomic number increases across a transition series, the first ionization energy
increases with some irregularities.
iii. Ionization enthalpies for a given element increases from the first ionization enthalpy,
IE1 to the third ionization enthalpy, IE3.
iv. The atoms of elements of the third transition series possess filled 4f-orbitals. 4f
orbitals show a poor shielding effect on account of their peculiar diffused shape. As a
result, the valence electrons experience a greater nuclear attraction. A greater amount
of energy is required to ionize elements of the third transition series. The ionization
enthalpies of the elements of the third transition series are, therefore much higher than
the first and second series.

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 191

Answer the following
What is meant by diamagnetic and paramagnetic? Give one example of diamagnetic
and paramagnetic transition metal and lanthanoid metal.
Solution:
The substances with all electrons paired are weakly repelled by magnetic fields. Such
substances are called diamagnetic substances.
The substances with unpaired electrons are weakly attracted by the magnetic field.
Such substances are called paramagnetic substances.
Examples:
Transition metal Lanthanoid metal
 Diamagnetic Zinc Ytterbium

Paramagnetic Titanium Cerium

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 191

Answer the following
Why the ground-state electronic configurations of gadolinium and lutetium are different
than expected?
Solution:
Gadolinium and lutetium show different ground-state electronic configurations because
the 5d and 4f-orbitals are near to the same energy due to which the next electron goes
in 5d-orbital instead of 4forbital. This retains the extra stability achieved when the 4f
orbital is half-filled and completely filled respectively. Thus, 5d orbital contains one
electron in the case of gadolinium and lutetium.
Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 191
Answer the following
Write the steps involved in the metallurgical process.
Solution:
The various steps involved in the extraction of pure metals from their ores are as
follows:
i. The concentration of ores
ii. Conversion of ores into oxides or other desired compounds
iii. Reduction of ores to form crude metals
iv. Refining of metals

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 191

Answer the following
Cerium and Terbium behave as good oxidising agents in the +4 oxidation state. Explain.
Solution:
i. Cerium (Ce) and Terbium (Tb) show +4 oxidation states. Their electronic
configurations are given below:
Ce = [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2 ; Ce4+ = [Xe]
Tb = [Xe] 4f9 6s2 ; Tb4+ = [Xe] 4f7
ii. It is clear from the configuration of Ce that Ce4+ is favoured by its noble gas
configuration. But it can be easily converted into stable Ce3+ by a gain of an electron.
Due to this reason, Ce4+ is a good oxidizing agent.
iii. Similarly, Tb4+ ion is stabilized due to a half-filled f-subshell. It can be easily
converted into stable Tb3+ by gain of an electron. Due to this reason, Tb4+ is a good
oxidizing agent.

Exercise | Q 3.11 | Page 191

Answer the following
Europium and ytterbium behave as good reducing agents in the +2 oxidation state
explain.
Solution:
i. Europium (Eu) and Ytterbium (Yb) show +2 oxidation states. Their electronic
configurations are given below:
Eu = [Xe] 4f7 6s2 ; Eu2+ = [Xe] 4f7
Yb = [Xe] 4f14 6s2 ; Yb2+ = [Xe] 4f14
ii. It is clear from the configuration of Eu that Eu2+ is favoured by its half-filled f-subshell.
But it can be easily converted into stable Eu3+ by the loss of an electron. Due to this
reason, Eu2+ is a good reducing agent.
iii. Similarly, Yb2+ ion is stabilized due to completely filled f-subshell. It can be easily
converted into Yb3+ by the loss of an electron. Due to this reason, Yb2+ is a good
reducing agent.
 Coordination Compounds

EXERCISE [PAGES 207 - 209]

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

The oxidation state of cobalt ion in the complex [Co(NH3)5 Br]SO4 is __________.
1. +2
2. +3
3. +1
4. +4
Solution: The oxidation state of cobalt ion in the complex [Co(NH3)5 Br]SO4 is +3.

Exercise | Q 1.2 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)2(SCN)2]2+ is ____________.
1. bis (ethylenediamine dithiocyanatoplatinum (IV) ion
2. bis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyantoplatinate (IV) ion
3. dicyanatobis (ethylenediamine) platinate IV ion
4. bis (ethylenediammine)dithiocynato platinate (IV) ion
Solution: IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)2(SCN)2]2+ is bis (ethylenediamine
dithiocyanatoplatinum (IV) ion.

Exercise | Q 1.3 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

Formula for the compound sodium hexacynoferrate (III) is ____________.
1. [NaFe(CN)6]
2. Na2[Fe(CN)6]
3. Na[Fe(CN)6]
4. Na3[Fe(CN)6]
Solution: The formula for the compound sodium hexacynoferrate (III) is Na3[Fe(CN)6]

Exercise | Q 1.4 | Page 207

 Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following complexes exist as cis and trans isomers?
1. [Cr(NH3)2Cl4]-
2. [Co(NH3)5Br]2⊕
3. [PtCl2Br2]2- (square planar)
4. [FeCl2(NCS)2]2- (tetrahedral)
1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 4 only
Solution: 1 and 3

Exercise | Q 1.5 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following complexes is chiral?
1. [Co(en)2Cl2]⊕
2. [Pt(en)Cl2]
3. [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
4. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]⊕
1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 4
Solution: 1 and 3

Exercise | Q 1.6 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

On the basis of CFT predict the number of unpaired electrons in [CrF6]3-.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
 Solution: 3

Exercise | Q 1.7 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

When an excess of AgNO3 is added to the complex one mole of AgCl is precipitated.
The formula of the complex is __________.
1. [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl
2. [CoCl(NH3)4]Cl2
3. [CoCl3(NH3)3]
4. [Co(NH3)4]Cl3
Solution: When an excess of AgNO3 is added to the complex one mole of AgCl is
precipitated. The formula of the complex is [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl.

Exercise | Q 1.8 | Page 207

Choose the most correct option.

The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of M in [M(en)2C2O4]Cl is
_____________.
1. 6
2. 7
3. 9
4. 8
Solution: The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of M in
[M(en)2C2O4]Cl is 9.

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Write the formula for tetraammineplatinum (II) chloride.
Solution: [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Predict whether the [Cr(en)2(H2O)2]3+ complex is chiral. Write the structure of its
enantiomer.
Solution: i. The complex [Cr(en)2(H2O)2]3+ is chiral.
ii. Structures of enantiomers:

Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Name the Lewis acids and bases in the complex [PtCl2 (NH3)2].
Solution:
Lewis acid: Platinum (II) ion, (Pt2+)
Lewis bases: Chloride ion (Cl–), ammonia (NH3)

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

What is the shape of a complex in which the coordination number of the central metal
ion is 4?
Solution:
A complex with coordination number four has a tetrahedral or square planner structure.

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Is the complex [CoF6] cationic or anionic if the oxidation state of cobalt ion is +3?
Solution:

If the oxidation state of Co in [CoF6] is +3, then the charge on complex would be –3.
Hence, the given complex would be anionic.

Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Consider the complexes [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]. What type of
isomerism these two complexes exhibit?
Solution:

The complex [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] exhibit coordination isomerism.

Exercise | Q 2.7 | Page 208

Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Mention two applications of coordination compounds.
Solution:
Application of coordination compounds are as follows:
i. In biology: Several biologically important natural compounds are metal complexes.
They play important role in a number of processes occurring in plants and animals. For
example, chlorophyll present in plants is a complex of Mg. Haemoglobin present in the
blood is a complex of iron.
ii. In medicines: a. Pt complex, cisplatin is used in the treatment of cancer. b. EDTA is
used for the treatment of lead poisoning.
iii. To estimate the hardness of water: Hardness of water is due to the presence of
Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. The ligand. EDTA forms stable complexes with Ca2+ and Mg2+. It
can, therefore, be used to estimate hardness.
iv. In electroplating: Usually, stable coordination complexes on dissolution dissociate
to a small extent and furnish a controlled supply of metal ions. The metal ions when
reduced clump together to form the clusters or nanoparticles. When the coordination
complexes have used the ligands in the complex keep the metal atoms well separated
from each other. These metal atoms tend to form a protective layer on the surface.
Certain cyanide complexes K[Ag(CN)2] and K[Au(CN)2] find applications in the
electroplating of these noble metals.

Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What are bidentate ligands ? Give one example.
Solution:
Bidentate ligands: The ligands which bind to central metal through two donor atoms
are called bidentate ligands.
e.g.
1. Ethylenediammine binds to the central metal atom through two nitrogen atoms.
2. Similarly, Oxalate ligand ( ) utilizes electron pair on each of its negatively
charged oxygen atoms on linking with central metal.

Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What are the coordination number and oxidation state of the metal ion in the complex
[Pt(NH3)Cl5]-?
Solution:

In complex [Pt(NH3)Cl5]- , the coordination number of the metal ion is 6, and the
oxidation state of the metal ion is +4.

Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What is the difference between a double salt and a complex? Give an example.
Solution:
A double salt dissociates in water completely into simple ions, whereas a coordination
complex dissociates in water with at least one complex ion.
e.g. Mohr's salt, FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O is a double salt while K4[Fe(CN)6] is a complex.

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
Classify the following complexes as homoleptic and heteroleptic [Cu(NH3)4]SO4,
[Cu(en)2(H2O)Cl]2⊕, [Fe(H2O)5 (NCS)]2⊕, tetraammine zinc (II) nitrate.
Solution:
i. Homoleptic complexes: [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, tetraamminezinc(II) nitrate.
ii. Heteroleptic complexes: [Cu(en)2(H2O)Cl]2+, [Fe(H2O)5(NCS)]2+ .

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
Write formulae of the following complexes
a. Potassium amminetrichloroplatinate (II)
b. Dicyanoaurate (I) ion
Solution:
i. K[Pt(NH3)Cl3]
ii. [Au(CN)2]–

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What are ionization isomers ? Give an example.
Solution:
Isomers that involve the exchange of ligands between coordination and ionization
spheres are called ionization isomers.
e.g. [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What are the high-spin and low-spin complexes?
Solution:
i. High-spin complexes: When crystal field splitting energy is greater than electron
pairing energy, the complexes formed are high-spin complexes.
ii. Low-spin complexes: When crystal field splitting energy is smaller than electron
pairing energy, the complexes formed are low-spin complexes.

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
[CoCl4]2- is a tetrahedral complex. Draw its box orbital diagram. State which orbitals
participate in hybridization.
Solution:
i. Box orbital diagram of [CoCl4]2–
ii. One 4s and three 4p orbitals participate in hybridization.

Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
What are strong field and weak field ligands ? Give one example of each.
Solution:
i. Strong field ligands: Those ligands which cause larger splitting of d orbitals and
favour pairing of electrons are called strong field ligands. Strong field ligands contain C,
N, and P as donor atoms.
e.g. CN– , NCS– , CO, NH3, EDTA, en (ethylenediammine).
ii. Weak field ligands: Those ligands which cause lower splitting of d orbitals i.e.,
∆° parameter is smaller compared to the energy required for the pairing of electrons are
called weak field ligands. Weak field ligands contain halogen, O, and S as donor atoms.

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 208

Answer in brief.
With the help of the crystal field, energy-level diagram explain why the complex
[Cr(en)3]3⊕ is coloured?
Solution:
i. The central metal ion titanium has electronic configuration 3d3 and the electrons
occupy one of the t2g orbitals.

d - d transition in d' system

ii. The absorption of the wavelength of light promotes an electron from the t2g level to
eg level. Therefore, in the complex [Cr(en)3]3+, d-d transitions are possible. Hence, the
complex is coloured.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Give valence bond description for the bonding in the complex [VCl4]-. Draw box
diagrams for the free metal ion. Which hybrid orbitals are used by the metal? State the
number of unpaired electrons.
Solution:
i. The oxidation state of vanadium is +3
ii. Valence shell electronic configuration of free metal ion, V3+

iii. The number of Cl– ligands is 4. Therefore, the number of vacant metal ion orbitals
required for bonding with ligands must be four.
iv. Four orbitals on metal available for hybridisation are one s and three 4p. The
complex is tetrahedral.

v. The four metal ion orbitals for bonding with Cl– ligands are derived from the
sp3 hybridization.
vi. Four vacant sp3 hybrid orbitals of V3+ overlap with four orbitals of Cl– ions.
vii. Configuration after complex formation would be

viii. The complex has two unpaired electrons. The structure of [VCl4]– is
Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Draw a qualitatively energy-level diagram showing d-orbital splitting in the octahedral
environment. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the complex [Fe(CN)6]4-. Is the
complex diamagnetic or paramagnetic? Is it coloured? Explain.
Solution:
i. Diagram:

ii. There are no unpaired electrons in t2g orbital; hence, the complex is diamagnetic.
iii. In the complex, d-d transitions do not occur and hence, it is colourless.

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Draw isomers of the following
Pt(NH3)2ClNO2
Solution:
Cis and trans isomers of Pt(NH3)2ClNO2

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 208

Answer the following question.
Draw isomers of the following
Ru(NH3)4Cl2
Solution:
Cis and trans isomers of Ru(NH3)4Cl2

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Draw isomers of the following
[Cr(en2)Br2]⊕
Solution:
Cis and trans isomers of [Cr(en2)Br2]⊕
a. Cis and trans isomers of [Cr(en2)Br2]+

b. Optical isomers of [Cr(en2)Br2]+

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Draw geometric isomers and enantiomers of the following complex.
[Pt(en)3]4⊕
Solution:
[Pt(en)3]4+ shows only enantiomers as follows:

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 208

Answer the following question.

Draw geometric isomers and enantiomers of the following complex.
[Pt(en2)ClBr]2⊕
Solution:
a. Geometric isomers of [Pt(en2)ClBr]2⊕

b. Enantiomers of [Pt(en2)ClBr]2⊕
Exercise | Q 4.5 | Page 209

Answer the following question.

What are ligands? What are their types ? Give one example of each type.
Solution:
In the coordination compound, the species surrounding the central metal atom or ion
are called ligands. Depending upon the number of electron donor atoms present,
ligands are classified as:
i. Monodentate ligands: A monodentate ligand is the one where a single donor atom
shares an electron pair to form a coordinate bond with the central metal ion.
e.g. Cl–, OH–, CN–, etc.
ii. Polydentate ligands: A polydentate ligand has two or more donor atoms linked to
the central metal ion. Based on the number of donor atoms, polydentate ligands are
further classified as:
a. Bidentate ligands: The ligands which bind to central metal through two donor atoms
are called bidentate ligands.
e.g.
1. Ethylenediammine binds to the central metal atom through two nitrogen atoms.

2. Similarly, Oxalate ligand utilizes electron pair on each of its negatively

charged oxygen atoms on linking with central metal.

b. Hexadentate ligands: The ligands which bind to central metal through six donor
atoms are called hexadentate ligands.
e.g. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion (EDTA)4– binds to metal by electron pairs of four
oxygen and two nitrogen atoms.
iii. Ambidentate ligands: The ligands which have two donor atoms and use the
electron pair of either donor atoms to form a coordinate bond with the metal ion are
called ambidentate ligands.
e.g.

a. The ligand links to the metal ion through nitrogen or oxygen.

b. SCN– has two donor atoms nitrogen and sulphur either of which links to metal M ←
SCN– or M ← NCS–.

Exercise | Q 4.6 | Page 209

Answer the following question.

What are cationic, anionic, and neutral complexes? Give one example of each.
Solution:
On the basis of charge on complex ion, coordination complex is classified as:
i. Cationic complex: A positively charged coordination sphere or a coordination
compound having a positively charged coordination sphere is called the cationic
complex or cationic sphere complex.
e.g. [Zn(NH3)4]2+
ii. Anionic complex: A negatively charged coordination sphere or a coordination
compound having a negatively charged coordination sphere is called an anionic
complex or anionic sphere complex.
e.g. [Fe(CN)6]3–
iii. Neutral sphere complexes: A coordination complex that does not possess a
cationic or anionic sphere are neutral complexes of neutral sphere complexes.
e.g. [Ni(CO)4]

Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 209

Answer the following question.

How stability of the coordination compounds can be explained in terms of equilibrium
constants?
Solution:
The stability of the complex can be explained in terms of K. Higher the value of K larger
is the thermodynamic stability of the complex. The equilibria for the complex formation
with the corresponding K values are given below.

Among the above equilibrium constant data, [Co(NH3)6] 3+ is more stable than
[Ag(CN)2]– and [Co(NH3)6]3+ because [Co(NH3)6]3+ has higher value of equilibrium
constant.

Exercise | Q 4.8 | Page 209

Answer the following question.

Name the factors governing the equilibrium constants of the coordination compounds.
Solution:
The stability of a complex or equilibrium constant is governed by
i. Charge to size ratio of the metal ion
ii. Nature of the ligand.
 Halogen Derivatives

EXERCISE [PAGES 231 - 233]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 231

Choose the most correct option.

The correct order of increasing reactivity of C-X bond towards nucleophile in the
following compounds is
(I)

(II)

(III) (CH3)3 C-X

(IV) (CH3)2 CH-X
1. I < II < III < IV
2. II < I < III < IV
3. III < IV < II < I
4. IV < III < I < II
Solution:

I < II < III < IV

Explanation:

Alkyl halides are more reactive than aryl halides. This is because of the partial double
bond character between the benzene ring and the halogen. Further, in alkyl halides, the
greater the stability of carbocation formed, the more would be the reactivity. Thus, the
tertiary halide is more reactive. Nitro group which is electron-withdrawing increases the
reactivity of aryl halide.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 231

Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following is likely to undergo racemization during alkaline hydrolysis?
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. II and IV
4. Only IV
Solution: Only I
Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 231
Choose the most correct option.
The best method for the preparation of alkyl fluorides is _______.
1. Finkelstein reaction
2. Swartz reaction
3. Free radical fluorination
4. Sandmeyer's reaction
Solution: The best method for the preparation of alkyl fluorides is Swartz reaction.

Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 231

Choose the most correct option.
The best method for the preparation of alkyl fluorides is _______.
1. Finkelstein reaction
2. Swartz reaction
3. Free radical fluorination
4. Sandmeyer's reaction
Solution: The best method for the preparation of alkyl fluorides is Swartz reaction.
Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 231
Choose the most correct option.
Identify the chiral molecule from the following.
a. 1 - Bromobutane
b. 1,1-Dibromobutane
c. 2,3-Dibromobutane
d. 2-Bromobutane
Solution: c) 2,3-Dibromobutane and d) 2-Bromobutane
Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 231
Choose the most correct option.
An alkyl chloride on Wurtz reaction gives 2,2,5,5-tetramethylhexane. The same alkyl
chloride on reduction with a zinc-copper couple in alcohol gives hydrocarbon with
molecular formula C5H12. What is the structure of alkyl chloride?
Options

Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 231

 Choose the most correct option.
Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating _______.
1. propanol with KCN
2. butanol with KCN
3. n-butyl chloride with KCN
4. n-propyl chloride with KCN
Solution: Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating n-propyl chloride with KCN.
Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 232
Choose the most correct option.
Choose the compound from the following that will react fastest by S N1 mechanism
1. 1-Iodobutane
2. 1-Iodopropane
3. 2-Iodo-2 methylbutane
4. 2-Iodo-3-methylbutane
Solution: 2-Iodo-2 methylbutane
Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 232
Choose the most correct option.

Solution:
 Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 232
Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following is used as a source of dichlorocarbene?
1. tetrachloromethane
2. chloroform
3. iodoform
4. DDT
Solution: chloroform
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 232
Write IUPAC name of the following compound.

Solution:
2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 232
Write IUPAC name of the following compound.

Solution:
2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 232
Write IUPAC name of the following compound.

Solution: 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 232
Write IUPAC name of the following compound.

Solution: 1,4-Dichloro-2-methylbenzene
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 232
Write the structure and IUPAC name of the major product in the following
reaction.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 232

Write the structure and IUPAC name of the major product in the following
reaction.
CH3 - CH2Br + SbF3 →

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 232

Write the structure and IUPAC name of the major product in the following
reaction.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 232

Write the structure and IUPAC name of the major product in the following
reaction.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 232

Write the structure and IUPAC name of the major product in the following
reaction.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 232

Identify chiral molecule/s from the following.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 232

from the following pair would undergo SN2 faster from the other?

a. b.

Solution: Compound (a) will undergo SN2 mechanism faster than (b).
Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 232
from the following pair would undergo SN2 faster from the other?
a. CH3CH2CH2I b. CH3CH2CH2Cl
Solution: Compound (a) will undergo SN2 mechanism faster than (b).

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 232

Complete the following reaction giving major products.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 232

Complete the following reaction giving major products.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 232

Complete the following reaction giving major products.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 232

Complete the following reaction giving major products.

Solution:
 Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 233
Name the reagent used to bring about the following conversion.
Bromoethane to ethoxyethane
Solution: Sodium ethoxide (NaOC2H5)
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 233
Name the reagent used to bring about the following conversion.
1-Chloropropane to 1-nitropropane
Solution: Silver nitrite (AgNO2)
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 233
Name the reagent used to bring about the following conversion.
Ethyl bromide to ethyl isocyanide
Solution: Alcoholic silver cyanide (AgCN)
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 233
Name the reagent used to bring about the following conversion.
Chlorobenzene to biphenyl
Solution: Na metal in dry ether
Exercise | Q 2.7 | Page 233
Arrange the following in the increasing order of boiling points.
a. 1-Bromopropane
b. 2- Bromopropane
c. 1- Bromobutane
d. 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane
Solution: 2-Bromopropane < 1-bromopropane < 1-bromo-2-methylpropane < 1-
bromobutane.

Exercise | Q 2.8 | Page 233

Match the pairs.
 Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 233

Give reasons:
Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes.
Solution:
1. The low reactivity of aryl halides is due to resonance effect and sp2 hybrid state of
carbon to which halogen atom is attached.
2. In aryl halides, one of the lone pairs of electrons on halogen atom is in conjugation with
π-electrons of the ring. Due to resonance, the C–X bond acquires partial double bond
character. Thus, the C–X bond in haloarenes is stronger and shorter than haloalkanes.
Hence, it is difficult to break C–X bond in haloarenes. (e.g. C–Cl bond length in
chlorobenzene is 169 pm as compared to C–Cl bond length in alkyl chloride which is
178 pm).
Therefore, haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes.

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 233

 Give reason:
Alkyl halides though polar are immiscible with water.
Solution:
1. Alkyl halides cannot form hydrogen bonds with water.
2. In addition to this, the attraction between alkyl halide molecules is stronger than the
attraction between alkyl halide and water.
Hence, alkyl halides though moderately polar are immiscible with water.

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 233

Give reason:
Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.
Solution:
1. Grignard reagents are highly reactive compounds.
2. They react with water or compounds containing hydrogen attached to the
electronegative element.
Hence, reactions involving the Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous
condition.
Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 233
Give reason:
Alkyl halides are generally not prepared by free radical halogenation of alkanes.
Solution:
Free radical halogenation of alkanes leads to the formation of a mixture of mono and
poly halogen compounds. Hence, free radical halogenation of alkanes is not suitable for
the preparation of alkyl halides.
Exercise | Q 4 | Page 233
Distinguish between SN1 and SN2 mechanism of substitution reaction.
Solution:
Factor SN1 SN2
Kinetics 2nd order 1st order
Molecularity Bimolecular Unimolecular
Number of steps One step Two steps
 Bond making and bond Simultaneous First the bond in the
breaking reactant breaks and
then a new bond in the
product is formed

Transition state One step, one transition state Two steps, two transition
states

Direction of attack of Only back side attack Back side attack and
nucleophile front side attack

Stereochemistry Inversion of configuration (If the Racemisation (If the

substrate is optically active) substrate is optically
active)

Type of substrate Mainly 1° substrate Mainly 3° substrates

Polarity of solvent Aprotic (non-polar) or solvent with Polar protic solvent
low polarity favourable favorable

Intermediate No intermediate Intermediate involved

Exercise | Q 6.1 | Page 233

Convert the following:
Propene to propan-1-ol
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.2 | Page 233

Convert the following:
Benzyl alcohol to benzyl cyanide
Solution:
Exercise | Q 6.3 | Page 233
Convert the following:
Ethanol to propane nitrile
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.4 | Page 233

Convert the following:
But-1-ene to n-butyl iodide
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.5 | Page 233

Convert the following:
2-Chloropropane to propan-1-ol
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.6 | Page 233

Convert the following:
tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.7 | Page 233

How the following conversions can be carried out?
Aniline to chlorobenzene
Solution:

Exercise | Q 6.8 | Page 233

How will you bring about the following conversions?
Propene to 1-nitropropane
Solution:

Exercise | Q 7.1 | Page 233

HCl is added to a hydrocarbon ‘A’ (C4H8) to give a compound ‘B’ which on hydrolysis
with aqueous alkali forms tertiary alcohol ‘C’ (C4H10O). Identify ‘A’ ,‘B’ and ‘C’.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 7.2 | Page 233
Complete the following reaction sequence by writing the structural formulae of the
organic compound 'A', 'B' and 'C'.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 7.2 | Page 233

Complete the following reaction sequence by writing the structural formulae of the
organic compound 'A', 'B' and 'C'.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 7.3 | Page 233

Observe the following and answer the question given below.

Name the type of halogen derivative.

Solution: Vinylic halide

Exercise | Q 7.3 | Page 233
Observe the following and answer the question given below.
Comment on the bond length of C–X bond in it.

Solution: The bond length of C – X bond is expected to be shorter than C – X bond in

haloalkanes.
Exercise | Q 7.3 | Page 233
Observe the following and answer the question given below.

Can it react by SN1 mechanism? Justify your answer.

Solution:
It will not react by SN1 mechanism. The bond between sp2 hybridized carbon atom and
halogen is a strong bond. Also, the electrons of the –X atom are in conjugation with the
π bond. Thus, C – X bond acquires a double bond character. Thus, when nucleophile
approaches the sp2 carbon, it gets repelled by the π-electrons of the double bond.
 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

EXERCISE [PAGES 252 - 253]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.

Which of the following represents the increasing order of boiling points of (1), (2), and
(3)?

1. (1) < (2) < (3)

2. (2) < (1) < (3)
3. (3) < (2) < (1)
4. (2) < (3) < (1)
Solution: (2) < (3) < (1)

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.
Which is the best reagent for carrying out the following conversion?

1. LiAlH4
2. Conc. H2SO4, H2O
3. H2/Pd
4. B2H6, H2O2 -NaOH
Solution: B2H6, H2O2 -NaOH

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.
Which of the following substrate will give ionic organic products on reaction?
1. CH3 - CH2 - OH + Na
2. CH3 - CH2 - OH + SOCl2
3. CH3 - CH2 - OH + PCl5
4. CH3 - CH2 - OH + H2SO4
Solution: CH3 - CH2 - OH + Na
 Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 252
Choose the correct option.
Which is the most resistant alcohol towards oxidation reaction among the following?

Solution: (CH3)3C – OH

Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.
Resorcinol on distillation with zinc dust gives _________.
1. Cyclohexane
2. Benzene
3. Toluene
4. Benzene-1, 3-diol
Solution: Resorcinol on distillation with zinc dust gives Benzene.

Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.
Anisole on heating with concerntrated HI gives _________.
1. Iodobenzene
2. Phenol + Methanol
3. Phenol + Iodomethane
4. Iodobenzene + methanol
Solution: Anisole on heating with concentrated HI gives Phenol + Iodomethane.
Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 252
Choose the correct option.
 Which of the following is the least acidic compound?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 252

Choose the correct option.
The compound incapable of hydrogen bonding with water is _________.
1. CH3-CH2-O-CH3
2. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

3.
4. CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
Solution:
The compound incapable of hydrogen bonding with water is CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3.
Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 253
 Choose the correct option.
Ethers are kept in air tight brown bottles because ______________.
1. Ethers absorb moisture
2. Ethers evaporate readily
3. Ethers oxidise to explosive peroxide
4. Ethers are inert
Solution:
Ethers are kept in air tight brown bottles because Ethers oxidise to explosive
peroxide.
Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 253
Choose the correct option.
Ethers react with cold and concentrated H2SO4 to form ________.
1. oxonium salt
2. alkene
3. alkoxides
4. alcohols
Solution:
Ethers react with cold and concentrated H2SO4 to form
oxonium salt.

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 253

Answer in one sentence/ word.
Hydroboration-oxidation of propene gives _________.
Solution:
Hydroboration-oxidation of propene gives propan-1-ol (CH3CH2CH2OH).
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 253
Answer in one sentence/ word.
Write the IUPAC name of alcohol having molecular formula C4H10O which is resistant
towards oxidation.
Solution:
2-Methylpropan-2-ol is tertiary alcohol having the molecular formula, C4H10O, and is
resistant towards oxidation.
Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 253
Answer in one sentence/ word.
Write the structure of optically active alcohol having molecular formula C4H10O
Solution:
The optically active alcohol having molecular formula C4H10O is

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 253

Answer in one sentence/ word.
Write the name of the electrophile used in Kolbe’s Reaction.
Solution:
Carbon dioxide
Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 253
Answer in brief.
Explain why phenol is more acidic than ethyl alcohol.
Solution:
The difference in the acidic character of phenols and alcohol is due to the difference in
reactivity of these compounds towards the ionization of the O–H bond. This can be
explained as follows:
i. Ionization of alcohols is represented by the following equilibrium

The electron-donating inductive effect (+I effect) of the alkyl group destabilizes the
alkoxide ion (the conjugate base of alcohol). As a result, alcohol does not ionize much
in the water, and behaves like a neutral compound in an aqueous medium.
ii. Ionization of phenol is represented by the following equilibrium
Phenoxide ion, the conjugate base of phenol, is resonance stabilized by delocalization
of the negative charge. Therefore, phenol ionizes in an aqueous medium to a moderate
extent and thereby shows a weak acidic character.

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 253

Answer in brief.
Explain why p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than phenol.
Solution:
The conjugate base of p-nitrophenol is better resonance stabilized due to six resonance
structures compared to the five resonance structures of the conjugate base of phenol.
The resonance structure has a negative charge on only electronegative oxygen atoms.
Hence, p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than phenol.
Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 253
Answer in brief.
Write two points of difference between the properties of phenol and ethyl alcohol.
Solution:
Phenol Ethyl alcohol
i. Phenol is a low melting solid. Ethyl alcohol is liquid.
ii. The aqueous solution of phenol turns blue litmus to The aqueous solution
red, i.e., phenol is weakly acidic. of ethyl alcohol is
neutral to litmus, i.e,
ethyl alcohol is neutral.
iii. Phenol reacts with aqueous NaOH to form sodium Ethyl alcohol does not
phenoxide. react with aqueous
NaOH.
iv. Ethyl alcohol does not
Phenol reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution to
react with neutral ferric
give deep purple colouration of ferric phenoxide
chloride
Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 253
Answer in brief.
Give the reagents and conditions necessary to prepare phenol from Chlorobenzene
Solution:
Reagents and conditions required to prepare phenol from:
Chlorobenzene
Reagents: NaOH, dil HCl
Conditions: Temperature 623 K and Pressure 150 atm

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 253

Answer in brief.
Give the reagents and conditions necessary to prepare phenol from Benzene sulfonic
acid.
Solution:
Reagents and conditions required to prepare phenol from:
Benzene sulfonic acid
Reagents: NaOH, Solid NaOH, dil HCl
Conditions: Temperature 573 K

Exercise | Q 3.5 | Page 253

Answer in brief.
Give the equations of the reactions for the preparation of phenol from isopropyl
benezene.
Solution:
Cumene: This is the commercial method of preparation of phenol. Cumene
(isopropylbenzene) on air oxidation in presence of Conaphthenate gives cumene
hydroperoxide, which on decomposition with dilute acid gives phenol with acetone as a
valuable by-product.
Exercise | Q 3.6 | Page 253
Answer in brief.
Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethyl bromide.
Solution:
i. Ethanol on reaction with a very strong base like alkali metal Na or K gives sodium or
potassium ethoxide with the liberation of hydrogen gas.

Exercise | Q 4 | Page 253

An ether (A), C5H12O, when heated with excess of hot HI produce two alkyl halides
which on hydrolysis form compound (B) and (C), oxidation of (B) gave and acid (D),
whereas oxidation of (C) gave a ketone (E). Deduce the structural formula of (A), (B),
(C), (D), and (E).
Solution:
Exercise | Q 5.1 | Page 253
Write structural formulae for 3-Methoxyhexane
Solution:

Exercise | Q 5.2 | Page 253

Write structural formulae for Methyl vinyl ether.
Solution:
CH3OCH = CH2
Methyl vinyl ether

Exercise | Q 5.3 | Page 253

Write structural formulae for 1-Ethylcyclohexanol.
Solution:

1-Ethylcyclohexanol

Exercise | Q 5.4 | Page 253

Write structural formulae for Pentane-1,4-diol
Solution:

Exercise | Q 5.5 | Page 253

Write structural formulae for Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol.
Solution:
Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Exercise | Q 6.1 | Page 253

Write IUPAC name of the following

Solution:
1-Methylcyclopentanol

Exercise | Q 6.2 | Page 253

Write IUPAC name of the following

Solution:
2-Methylbutane-1,3-diol
Exercise | Q 6.3 | Page 253
Write IUPAC names of the following

Solution: 2-Nitrophenol
Exercise | Q 6.4 | Page 253
Write IUPAC names of the following

Solution: Methoxycyclohexane
 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids

EXERCISE [PAGES 280 - 281]

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 280

Choose the most correct option.
In the following resonating structures A and B, the number of unshared electrons in
valence shell present on oxygen respectively are

1. 2, 4
2. 2, 6
3. 4, 6
4. 6, 4
Solution: 4, 6
Exercise | Q 1.2 | Page 280
Choose the most correct option.
In the Wolff-Kishner reduction, alkyl aryl ketones are reduced to alkyl benzenes. During
this change, ketones are first converted into
1. acids
2. alcohols
3. hydrazones
4. alkenes
Solution: hydrazones
Exercise | Q 1.3 | Page 280
Choose the most correct option.
Aldol condensation is
1. electrophilic substitution reaction
2. nucleophilic substitution reaction
3. elimination reaction
4. addition - elimination reaction
 Solution: addition - elimination reaction
Exercise | Q 1.4 | Page 280
Choose the most correct option.
Which one of the following has the lowest acidity?

1.

2.

3.

4.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 1.5 | Page 280

Choose the most correct option.
Diborane reduces
1. ester group
2. nitro group
3. halo group
4. acid group
Solution: acid group
Exercise | Q 1.6 | Page 280
Choose the most correct option.
Benzaldehyde does NOT show positive test with
1. Schiff reagent
2. Tollens' reagent
3. Sodium bisulphite solution
4. Fehling solution
Solution: Fehling solution
Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 280
Answer the following in one sentence.
What are aromatic ketones?
Solution:

The compounds in which a group is attached to either two aryl groups or one
aryl and one alkyl group are called aromatic ketones.
e.g.

Exercise | Q 2.02 | Page 280

Answer the following in one sentence.
Is phenyl acetic acid an aromatic carboxylic acid?
Solution: Yes, phenyl acetic acid is a side-chain aromatic carboxylic acid.
Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 280
Answer the following in one sentence.
Write reaction showing conversion of ethanenitrile into ethanal.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 280

Answer the following in one sentence.
Predict the product of the following reaction:
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 280

Answer the following in one sentence.
Name the product obtained by reacting toluene with carbon monoxide and hydrogen
chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride.
Solution: The product obtained by reacting toluene with carbon monoxide and
hydrogen chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride is 4-
Methylbenzaldehyde.
Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 280
Answer the following in one sentence.
Write reaction showing conversion of benzonitrile into benzoic acid.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 280

Answer the following in one sentence.
Name the product obtained by the oxidation of 1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphthalene with
acidified potassium permanganate.
Solution:
The product obtained by the oxidation of 1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphthalene with acidified
potassium permanganate is Phthalic acid or benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid.
Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 280
Answer the following in one sentence.
What is formalin?
Solution: Aqueous solution of formaldehyde gas is called formalin.
Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 281
Answer the following in one sentence.
 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points:
Formaldehyde, ethane, methyl alcohol.
Solution: Ethane < Formaldehyde < Methyl alcohol
Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 281
Answer the following in one sentence.
Acetic acid is prepared from methyl magnesium bromide and dry ice in presence of dry
ether. Name the compound which serves not only as reagent but also as a cooling
agent in the reaction.
Solution:
Dry ice (Solid carbon dioxide)
Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 281
Answer in brief.
Observe the following equation of reaction of Tollens' reagent with aldehyde. How do
we know that a redox reaction has taken place? Explain.

Solution:
When an aldehyde is boiled with Tollens' reagent, it gets oxidized to carboxylate ion and
Ag+ ion is reduced to silver (Ag). The oxidation number of carbon in aldehyde increases
while the oxidation number of Ag decreases. Hence, this is a redox reaction.
Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 281
Answer in brief.
Formic acid is stronger than acetic acid. Explain.
Solution:
1. The negatively charged acetate ion (i.e., the conjugate base of acetic acid) gets
destabilized by + I effect of – CH3 group.
2. Lesser is the stabilization of the conjugate base, weaker is the acid.
3. In formate ion, there is no such destabilization effect.
Thus, formic acid is stronger than acetic acid.

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 281

Answer in brief.
What is the action of hydrazine on cyclopentanone in presence of KOH in ethylene
glycol?
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 281

Answer in brief.
Write reaction showing conversion of Acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.5 | Page 281

Answer in brief.
Aldehydes are more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions than ketones.
Explain.
Solution:
Reactivity of aldehydes and ketones is due to the polarity of carbonyl group which
results in electrophilicity of carbon. In general, aldehydes are more reactive than
ketones toward nucleophilic attack. This can be well explained in terms of both the
electronic effects and steric effect.
i) Influence of electronic effects:
a. Alkyl groups have an electron-donating inductive effect (+I). A ketone has two
electron-donating alkyl groups bonded to carbonyl carbon which are responsible for
decreasing its positive polarity and electrophilicity.
b. In contrast, aldehydes have only one electron-donating group bonded to the carbonyl
carbon. This makes aldehydes more electrophilic than ketones.

ii. Steric effects:

a. Two bulky alkyl groups in ketone come in the way of the incoming nucleophile. This is
called steric hindrance to nucleophilic attack.
b. On the other hand, nucleophile can easily attack the carbonyl carbon in aldehyde
because it has one alkyl group and is less crowded or sterically less hindered. Hence,
aldehydes are more easily attacked by nucleophiles.

Exercise | Q 3.6 | Page 281

Answer in brief.
Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propanenitrile:
Dilute NaOH
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.6 | Page 281

Answer in brief.
Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propanenitrile:
 Dilute HCl
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.7 | Page 281

Arrange the following carboxylic acids with increasing order of their acidic
strength and justify your answer.

1)

2)

3)

Solution:
1. Increasing order of their acidic strength: 2 > 3 > 1.
2. Oxygen atom is electronegative and exerts electron withdrawing inductive effect (–I
effect).
3. Thus, compound (2) and (3) are more acidic as compared to (1).
4. However, the inductive effect decreases as the oxygen in the ring moves away from the
carboxyl group. Therefore, compound (3) is less acidic than compound (2).
Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 281
Describe Cannizzaro reaction
Write a note on Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution:
1. This reaction is given only by aldehydes having no α-hydrogen atom.
2. Aldehydes undergo self -oxidation and reduction reaction on heating with concentrated
alkali.
3. In Cannizzaro reaction, one molecule of an aldehyde is reduced to alcohol and at the
same time the second molecule is oxidized to carboxylic acid salt. Thus, the reaction is
an example of disproportionation reaction.
Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 281
Write a note on Stephen reaction.
Solution:
Nitriles are reduced to imine hydrochloride by stannous chloride in presence of
hydrochloric acid which on acid hydrolysis give corresponding aldehydes. This reaction
is called Stephen reaction.

Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 281

What is the action of the following reagent on toluene?
Alkaline KMnO4, dil. HCl and heat
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 281

What is the action of the following reagent on toluene?
CrO2Cl2 in CS2
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 281

What is the action of the following reagent on toluene?
Acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 281

Write the IUPAC name of the following structure:

Solution: 3-Methylcyclohexanone
Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 281
Write the IUPAC name of the following structure:

Solution: Ethanedioic acid.

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 281
Write reaction showing conversion of p-bromoisopropylbenzene into p-isopropylbenzoic
acid (3 steps).
Solution:
Step 1: Converting - Br group to - CN:
Step 2: Converting - CN group to - CONH2:

Step 3: Converting -CONH2 group to - COOH:

Exercise | Q 4.5 | Page 281

Write reaction showing aldol condensation of cyclohexanone.
Solution:
 Amines

EXERCISE [PAGES 296 - 297]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

The hybridisation of nitrogen in primary amine is ____________.
1. sp
2. sp2
3. sp3
4. sp3d
Solution: The hybridisation of nitrogen in primary amine is sp3.

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Isobutylamine is an example of __________.
1. 2° amine
2. 3° amine
3. 1° amine
4. quaternary ammonium salt
Solution: Isobutylamine is an example of 1° amine.

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Which one of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
1. n-Butylamine
2. sec-Butylamine
3. isobutylamine
4. tert-Butylamine
Solution: n-Butylamine

Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 296

 Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following has the highest basic strength?
1. Trimethylamine
2. Methylamine
3. Ammonia
4. Dimethylamine
Solution: Dimethylamine

Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Which type of amine does produce N2 when treated with HNO2?
1. Primary amine
2. Secondary amine
3. Tertiary amine
4. Both primary and secondary amines
Solution: Primary amine

Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Carbylamine test is given by ____________.
1. Primary amine
2. Secondary amine
3. Tertiary amine
4. Both secondary and tertiary amines
Solution: The Carbylamine test is given by Primary amine.

Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Which one of the following compounds does not react with acetyl chloride?
1. CH3 - CH2 - NH2
2. (CH3 - CH2)2NH
3. (CH3 - CH2)3N
4. C6H5 - NH2
 Solution: (CH3 - CH2)3N

Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following compounds will dissolve in aqueous NaOH after undergoing
reaction with Hinsberg reagent?
1. Ethylamine
2. Triethylamine
3. Trimethylamine
4. Diethylamine
Solution: Ethylamine

Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.
Identify ‘B’ in the following reactions

1. CH3 - CH2 - NH2

2. CH3 - CH2 - NO2
3. CH3 - CH2N2+Cl-
4. CH3 - CH2 - OH

Solution: CH3 - CH2N2+Cl-

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 296

Choose the most correct option.
Which of the following compounds contains azo linkage?
1. Hydrazine
2. p-Hydroxyazobenzene
3. N-Nitrosodiethylamine
4. Ethylenediamine
Solution: p-Hydroxyazobenzene
Exercise | Q 2.01 | Page 296
Answer in one sentence.
Write the reaction of p-toluenesulphonyl chloride with diethylamine.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.02 | Page 296

Answer in one sentence.
How many moles of methylbromide is required to convert ethanamine to N, N-dimethyl
ethanamine?
Solution:
Two moles of methyl bromide are required to convert ethanamine to N,N-
dimethylethanamine.
Exercise | Q 2.03 | Page 297
Answer in one sentence.
Which amide does produce ethanamine by Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction?
Solution:
Propanamide (C2H5CONH2) produces ethanamine by Hofmann bromamide degradation
reaction.
Exercise | Q 2.04 | Page 297
Answer in one sentence.
Write the order of the basicity of aliphatic alkylamine in the gaseous phase.
Solution:
Order of basicity of aliphatic alkylamine in gaseous phase: 3° amines > 2° amines >1°
amine.
Exercise | Q 2.05 | Page 297
Answer in one sentence.
Why are primary aliphatic amines stronger bases than ammonia?
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.06 | Page 297

Answer in one sentence.

Predict the product of the following reaction.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.07 | Page 297

Answer in one sentence.
Write the IUPAC name of benzylamine.
Solution: IUPAC name of benzylamine is phenylmethanamine.
Exercise | Q 2.08 | Page 297
Answer in one sentence.
Arrange the following amines in increasing order of boiling points.
n-propylamine, ethylmethyl amine, trimethylamine.
Solution: Trimethylamine (3°) < ethylmethyl amine (2°) < n-propylamine (1°)
Exercise | Q 2.09 | Page 297
Answer in one sentence.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the action of dil H2SO4 on diethylamine.
Solution: The action of dil. sulphuric acid on diethylamine gives diethylammonium
sulphate.

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 297

Answer in one sentence.
Arrange the following amines in the increasing order of their pKb values.
Aniline, Cyclohexylamine, 4-Nitroaniline

Solution: Cyclohexylamine < aniline < 4-nitroaniline.

Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 297

Answer the following
Identify A and B in the following reactions.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 297

Answer the following
Explain the basic nature of amines with a suitable example.
Solution:
The basic nature of amines is due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the
nitrogen atom.
i. Lewis theory: In terms of Lewis theory, amines are bases because they can share a
lone pair of electrons on ‘N’ atom with an electron-deficient species.
For example, trimethylamine shares its lone pair of electrons with the electron-deficient
boron trifluoride.
Me3N: + BF3 → Me3N+– B-F3
ii. Lowry-Bronsted theory: The basic nature of amines is explained by writing the
following equilibrium.

a. In this equilibrium amine accepts H+, hence an amine is a LowryBronsted base.

b. For a stronger base, this equilibrium shifts towards the right, thereby, for stronger
bases, the Kb value is larger or the pKb value is smaller.
Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 297
Answer the following
What is diazotisation ?
Solution:
Aliphatic/aromatic primary amines react with nitrous acid to form corresponding
diazonium salts. This reaction is called as diazotisation.
Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 297
Answer the following
Write diazotisation reaction of aniline?
Solution:
Diazotisation reaction of aniline:

Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 297

Answer the following
Write a reaction to convert acetic acid into methylamine.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 297
Answer the following
Write a short note on coupling reactions.
Solution:
The reaction involves the retention of diazo groups.
i. Arenediazonium salts when treated with certain reactive aromatic compounds such as
phenols or aromatic amines, give azo compounds.
ii. These have extended conjugated system of double bonds in which two aromatic rings
are joined through the azo group – N = N–. This reaction is called azo coupling.
iii. Azo compounds are brightly coloured and are used as dyes.
iv. This is an example of an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction. Here, the
electrophiles are positively charged diazonium ions.
v. Substitution usually occurs para to the ring activating group.
e.g. Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with phenol in mild alkaline medium to give p-
hydroxyazobenzene (orange dye).

vi. Azo coupling with β-naphthol in NaOH is used as a confirmatory test for primary
aromatic amines.
vii. Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with aniline in mild alkaline medium to give p-
aminoazobenzene (yellow dye.)
Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 297
Answer the following
Explain Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Solution:
This method is used for the synthesis of primary amine. It involves the following three
stages.
i. Formation of the potassium salt of phthalimide from phthalimide on reaction with
alcoholic potassium hydroxide.

ii. Formation of N-alkyl phthalimide from the potassium salt by reaction with an alkyl
halide.

iii. Alkaline hydrolysis of N-alkyl phthalimide to form the corresponding primary

amine.
Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 297
Answer the following
Explain carbylamine reaction with suitable examples.
Solution:
Carbylamine reaction:
i. Aliphatic or aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform give foul (offensive)
smelling products called alkyl/aryl isocyanides or carbylamines.
ii. This reaction is a test for primary amines. Secondary and tertiary amines do not give
this test.

Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 297

Answer the following
Write a reaction to convert methanamine into ethanamine.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 297
Answer the following
Write a reaction to convert Aniline into p-bromoaniline.
Solution:
–NH2 group in aniline is highly ringing activating and o-/p- directing due to the
involvement of the lone pair of electrons on ‘N’ in resonance with the ring. As a result,
on reaction with Br2, it gives 2,4,6-tribromoniline. To get a monobromo product, it is
necessary to decrease the ring activating effect of -NH2 group. This is done by
acetylation of aniline. The lone pair of ‘N’ in acetanilide is also involved in resonance in
the acetyl group. To that extent ring activation decreases.

Hence, acetanilide on bromination gives a monobromo product p-bromoacetanilide.

After monobromination, the original -NH2 group is regenerated. The protection of the -
NH2 group in the form of acetyl group is removed by acid-catalyzed hydrolysis to get p-
bromoaniline, as shown in the following scheme.
 Biomolecules

EXERCISE [PAGES 320 - 321]

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

CH2OH-CO-(CHOH)4 -CH2OH is an example of
1. Aldohexose
2. Aldoheptose
3. Ketotetrose
4. Ketoheptose
Solution: Ketoheptose

Exercise | Q 1.2 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

Open chain formula of glucose does not contain
1. formyl group
2. anomeric hydroxyl group
3. primary hydroxyl group
4. secondary hydroxyl group
Solution: anomeric hydroxyl group

Exercise | Q 1.3 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

Which of the following does not apply to CH2NH2 – COOH?
1. Neutral amino acid
2. L - Amino acid
3. Exists as zwitter ion
4. Natural amino acid
Solution: L - Amino acid

Exercise | Q 1.4 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

 Tryptophan is called essential amino acid because
1. it contains aromatic nucleus
2. it is present in all the human proteins
3. it cannot be synthesised by human body
4. it is essential constituent of enzymes
Solution: it cannot be synthesised by human body

Exercise | Q 1.5 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

A disulphide link gives rise to the following structure of a protein.
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary
Solution: Tertiary

Exercise | Q 1.6 | Page 320

Select the most correct choice.

RNA has _______.
1. A - U base pairing
2. P-S-P-S backbone
3. double helix
4. G - C base pairing
Solution: RNA has A - U base pairing.

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 320

Give scientific reasons:

The disaccharide sucrose gives negative Tollens test while the disaccharide maltose
gives a positive Tollens test.
Solution:
1. The structure of sucrose contains glycosidic linkage between C-1 of α-glucose and C-2
of β-fructose.
2. Since the potential aldehyde and ketone groups of both the monosaccharide units are
involved in the formation of the glycosidic bond (i.e., α, β-1,2- glycosidic bond), sucrose
is a non-reducing sugar and gives negative Tollen’s test.
3. The glycosidic bond in maltose is in between C-1 of one glucose ring and C-4 of the
other (i.e., α -1,4-glycosidic linkage).
4. The hemiacetal group at C-1 of the second ring is not involved in the glycosidic linkage.
Hence, maltose is a reducing sugar and gives positive Tollen’s test.
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 320

Give scientific reasons:

On complete hydrolysis DNA gives equimolar quantities of adenine and thymine.
Solution:
1. Both the strands of DNA double helix are complementary to each other.
2. That is a number of bases on each strand are equal and complementary to each other.
3. As adenine pairs with thymine; the number of adenine bases on one strand and thymine
on another are equal in number.
Thus, on complete hydrolysis DNA gives equimolar quantities of adenine and thymine.

Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 320

Give scientific reasons:

α-Amino acids have high melting points compared to the corresponding amines or
carboxylic acids of comparable molecular mass.
Solution:
1. This is due to the peculiar structure called zwitter ion structure of α -amino acids.
2. α-Amino acid molecule contains both acidic carboxyl (–COOH) group as well as basic
amino (–NH2) group.
3. Proton transfer from the acidic group to the basic group of amino acid forms a salt,
which is a dipolar ion called zwitter ion.
Thus, α-amino acids have high melting points compared to the corresponding amines or
carboxylic acids of comparable molecular mass.

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 320

Give scientific reasons:

Hydrolysis of sucrose is called inversion.
Solution:
1) Sucrose (C12H22O11) is dextrorotatory (+66.5°). On hydrolysis with dilute acid or an
enzyme called invertase, sucrose gives equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-(–)-
fructose.
 2) Since the laevorotation of fructose (–92.4°) is larger than the dextrorotation of
glucose (+52.7°), the hydrolysis product has net laevorotation.
Hence, hydrolysis of sucrose is also called inversion of sucrose.

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 320

Give scientific reasons:

On boiling egg albumin becomes opaque white.
Solution:
1. Proteins when subjected to high temperature undergo disruption of noncovalent
interactions which are responsible for the specific shape of protein. That is, it undergoes
denaturation.
2. Denaturation disturbs the specific structure of egg albumin which causes a change in
the physical properties.
Thus, on boiling egg albumin becomes opaque white.
Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 321

The following statement applies to DNA only, some to RNA only, and some to
both. Label them accordingly.
The polynucleotide is double stranded. (_______)
Solution:

The polynucleotide is double-stranded. (DNA)

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 321

The following statement applies to DNA only, some to RNA only, and some to
both. Label them accordingly.
The polynucleotide contains uracil. (________)
Solution:

The polynucleotide contains uracil. (RNA)

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 321

The following statement applies to DNA only, some to RNA only, and some to
both. Label them accordingly.
The polynucleotide contains D-ribose. (_______)
Solution:

The polynucleotide contains D-ribose. (RNA)

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 321

The following statement applies to DNA only, some to RNA only, and some to
both. Label them accordingly.
The polynucleotide contains guanine. (_______)
Solution:

The polynucleotide contains guanine. (Both DNA and RNA)

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 321

Write the sequence of the complementary strand for the following segment of a
DNA molecule.
5' - CGTTTAAG - 3'
Solution:
Original strand 5' - C G T T T A A G - 3'
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
Complementary 3' - G C A A A T T C - 5'
strand

Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 321

Write the sequence of the complementary strand for the following segment of a
DNA molecule.
5' - CCGGTTAATACGGC - 3'
Solution:
Original strand 5' - C C G G T T A A T A C G G C - 3'
 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓

Complementary 3' - G G C C A A T T A T G C C G - 5'

strand

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 321

Write the names and schematic representations of all the possible dipeptides formed
from alanine, glycine and tyrosine.
Solution:
1. Glycylglycine: Gly-Gly
2. Alanylalanine: Ala-Ala
3. Tyrosyltyrosine: Tyr-Tyr
4. Glycylalanine: Gly-Ala
5. Alanylglycine: Ala-Gly
6. Glycyltyrosine: Gly-Tyr
7. Tyrosylglycine: Tyr-Gly
8. Tyrosylalanine: Tyr-Ala
9. Alanyltyrosine: Ala-Tyr
Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 321

Give two evidences for presence of formyl group in glucose.

Solution:
1. Glucose gets oxidized to a six-carbon monocarboxylic acid called gluconic acid on
reaction with bromine water which is a mild oxidizing agent. Thus, the carbonyl group in
glucose is in the form of formyl (–CHO).
2. Hemiacetal group of glucopyranose structure is a potential aldehyde (formyl) group. It
imparts reducing properties to glucose. Thus, glucose gives positive Tollen’s test or
Fehling test.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:

Haworth formula of glucopyranose
Solution:
Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 321
Draw a neat diagram for the following:
Zwitter ion

Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:

Haworth formula of maltose
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:

Secondary structure of protein
Solution:
∝ - Helix:

β - pleated sheet

Exercise | Q 4.6 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:
dCMP
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:
One purine base from nucleic acid

Solution:

Adenine A:

Guanine G:

Exercise | Q 4.8 | Page 321

Draw a neat diagram for the following:
Enzyme catalysis

Solution:
 Introduction to Polymer Chemistry

EXERCISE [PAGES 337 - 339]

Exercise | Q 1.01 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Nylon fibres are ______
1. semisynthetic fibres
2. polyamide fibres
3. polyester fibres
4. cellulose fibres
Solution: Nylon fibres are polyamide fibres.

Exercise | Q 1.02 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Which of the following is naturally occurring polymer?
1. Teflon
2. Polyethylene
3. PVC
4. Protein
Solution: Protein

Exercise | Q 1.03 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Silk is a kind of _____ fibre.
1. Semisynthetic
2. Synthetic
3. Animal
4. Vegetable
Solution: Silk is a kind of animal fibre.

Exercise | Q 1.04 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

 Dacron is another name of ______.
1. Nylon 6
2. Orlon
3. Novolac
4. Terylene
Solution: Dacron is another name of terylene.

Exercise | Q 1.05 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Which of the following is made up of polyamides?
1. Dacron
2. Rayon
3. Nylon
4. Jute
Solution: Nylon

Exercise | Q 1.06 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

The number of carbon atoms present in the ring of ɛ-caprolactam is
1. Five
2. Two
3. Seven
4. Six
Solution: Six

Exercise | Q 1.07 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Terylene is _____.
1. polyamide fibre
2. polyester fibre
3. vegetable fibre
4. protein fibre
Solution: Terylene is polyester fibre.
 Exercise | Q 1.08 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

PET is formed by _______.
1. addition
2. condensation
3. alkylation
4. hydration
Solution: PET is formed by condensation.

Exercise | Q 1.09 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Chemically pure cotton is _______.
1. acetate rayon
2. viscose rayon
3. cellulose nitrate
4. cellulose
Solution: Chemically pure cotton is cellulose.

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 337

Choose the correct option from the given alternatives.

Teflon is chemically inert, due to presence of _______.
1. C-H bond
2. C-F bond
3. H- bond
4. C=C bond
Solution: Teflon is chemically inert, due to presence of C-F bond.

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 337

Answer the following in one sentence.

Identify 'A' and 'B' in the following reaction ___.
Solution: Polymer ‘A’ is:

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 337

Answer the following in one sentence.
Identify 'A' and 'B' in the following reaction ___.

Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 337

Complete the following statement.
Caprolactam is used to prepare _______.
Solution: Caprolactam is used to prepare Nylon 6.
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 337
Complete the following statement.
Novolac is a copolymer of _______ and _______.
Solution: Novolac is a copolymer of Phenol and formaldehyde.
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 337
Complete the following statement.
Terylene is _______ polymer of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
Solution: Terylene is condensation polymer of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 337
Complete the following statement.
 Benzoyl peroxide used in addition polymerisation acts as _______.
Solution: Benzoyl peroxide used in addition polymerisation acts as initiator.
Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 337
Complete the following statement.
Polythene consists of polymerized_______.
Solution: Polythene consists of polymerized ethene.
Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 338
Draw the flow chart diagram to show the classification of polymers based on the type of
polymerization.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 338

Answer the following in one sentence.
Write examples of addition polymers and condensation polymers.
Solution:
1. Addition polymers:
Polythene, Teflon, Polyacrylonitrile, Polyvinylchloride (PVC), etc.
2. Condensation polymers:
Terylene, Nylon-6,6, Bakelite, Novolac, etc.
Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Name some chain-growth polymers.
Solution:
Chain growth polymers are. polyacrylonitrile, polyvinylchloride, polythene, etc
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Define the term: Monomer
Solution:
 Small molecules that are interlinked together to form polymers are called as monomers.
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Define the term: Vulcanization
Solution:
The process by which a network of cross-links is introduced into an elastomer is called
vulcanization.
Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Define the term: Synthetic fibres
Solution:
Man-made polymeric solids which form threads are called synthetic fibres.
Exercise | Q 2.7 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
What type of intermolecular force leads to high-density polythene?
Solution:
Van der Waals forces between closely packed linear polymeric chains are responsible
for high-density polythene.
Exercise | Q 2.8 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Give one example each of copolymer and homopolymer.
Solution:
1. Copolymer: Buna-S.
2. Homopolymer: Polythene.
Exercise | Q 2.9 | Page 338
Answer the following in one sentence.
Identify thermoplastic and thermosetting plastic from the following:
1. PET
2. Urea formaldehyde resin
3. Polythene
4. Phenol formaldehyde resin
Solution:
1. Thermoplastic: Polythene, PET
2. Thermosetting plastic: Urea formaldehyde resin, Phenol formaldehyde resin
Exercise | Q 3.01 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Write the names of classes of polymers formed according to intermolecular forces and
describe briefly their structural characteristics.
Solution:
1. Polymers are classified into various categories on the basis of intermolecular forces
as follows:
• Elastomers
• Fibres
• Thermoplastic polymers
• Thermosetting polymers
2. Their structural characteristics are as follows:
i. Elastomers:
• Elastomers have the property of elasticity in which a substance gets stretched by
external force and restores its original shape on the release of that force.
• Elastomers, the elastic polymers, have weak van der Waals type of intermolecular
forces that permit the polymer to be stretched.
• A few crosslinks between the chains help the stretched polymer to retract to its original
position on removal of applied force.
e.g. Vulcanized rubber, Buna-S, Buna-N, neoprene, etc.
ii. Fibres:
• Polymeric solids which form threads are called fibres.
• The fibres possess high tensile strength which is a property to have resistance to
breaking under tension.
• High tensile strength is due to the strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding
and strong dipole-dipole forces. Due to these strong intermolecular forces, the fibres are
crystalline in nature.
e.g. Polyamides (nylon 6,6), polyesters (terylene), etc.
iii. Thermoplastic polymers:
• Thermoplastic polymers have the property of plasticity, that is, these polymers can be
easily shaped or moulded.
• They are capable of repeated softening on heating and hardening on cooling.
• These polymers possess moderately strong intermolecular forces that are intermediate
between elastomers and fibres.
e.g. Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyls, etc.
iv. Thermosetting polymers:
• Thermosetting polymers are rigid polymers.
• During their formation, they have the property of being shaped on heating; but they get
hardened while hot. Once hardened, they cannot be softened by heating and therefore
cannot be remoulded.
• This characteristic is the result of extensive cross-linking by covalent bonds formed in
the moulds during hardening/setting process while hot.
e.g. Bakelite, urea-formaldehyde resin, etc.
Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Write the reaction of the formation of Nylon 6.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.02 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Write the reaction of the formation of Terylene.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.03 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Write structure of natural rubber and neoprene rubber along with the name and
structure of their monomers.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 3.04 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Name the polymer type in which following linkage is present.

Solution:
The polymer containing ester linkage is called polyester.
Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Write structural formula of the following synthetic rubbers:
SBR rubbe

Solution:
Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Write structural formula of the following synthetic rubbers:
Buna-N rubber

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.05 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Write structural formula of the following synthetic rubbers:
Neoprene rubber

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.06 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Match the following pairs:
Name of polymer Monomer
1. Teflon a. CH2 = CH2
2. PVC b. CF2 = CF2
3. Polyester c. CH2 = CHCl
4. Polythene d. C6H5OH and HCHO
5. Bakelite e. Dicarboxylic acid and
polyhydoxyglycol

Solution:
 Name of polymer Monomer
1. Teflon b. CF2 = CF2
2. PVC c. CH2 = CHCl
3. Polyester e. Dicarboxylic acid and polyhydoxyglycol
4. Polythene a. CH2 = CH2
5. Bakelite d. C6H5OH and HCHO

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Draw the structures of polymers formed from the following monomers
n HOOC–R–COOH + n HO–R'–OH

Solution:

Exercise | Q 3.07 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Draw the structures of polymers formed from the following monomers
H2N–(CH2)5 – COOH

Solution:
[- NH - (CH2)5 - CO-]n
Exercise | Q 3.08 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Name and draw structure of the repeating unit in natural rubber.
Solution:
Repeating unit in natural rubber is obtained from the monomer isoprene.
Structure of repeating unit is:
 Exercise | Q 3.09 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Classify the following polymers as natural and synthetic polymers
a. Cellulose
b. Polystyrene
c. Terylene
d. Starch
e. Protein
f. Silicones
g. Orlon (Polyacrylonitrle)
h. Phenol-formedehyde resins
Solution:
Polymer Type of polymer

a. Cellulose Natural

b. Polystyrene Synthetic

c. Terylene Synthetic

d. Starch Natural

e. Protein Natural

f. Silicones Synthetic

g. Orlon (polyacrylonitrile) Synthetic

h. Phenol-formaldehyde resins Synthetic

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 338

Answer the following.
 What are synthetic resins? Name some natural and synthetic resins.
Solution:
• Synthetic resins:
These polymers are artificially prepared by polymerization of one monomer or
copolymerization of two or more monomers.
e.g. nylon and terylene.
Synthetic polymers are further divided into three subtypes: fibres, synthetic rubbers, and
plastics.
• Natural resins: Natural rubber, silk, wool, etc.
• Synthetic resins: Nylon, terylene, neoprene, etc.
Exercise | Q 3.11 | Page 338
Answer the following.
Distinguish between thermosetting and thermoplastic resins. Write example of both the
classes.
Solution:
Thermosetting resin Thermoplastic resin

They do not soften on heating They soften on heating and harden on

cooling
They cannot be remoulded or reshaped. These can be remoulded or reshaped.

They possess extensive cross-linking They possess moderately strong

formed by covalent bonds. intermolecular forces that are intermediate
between elastomers and fibres.
They are rigid polymers. They are not rigid polymers.

e.g. Bakelite, urea-formaldehyde resins, e.g. PVC, polythene, polystyrene, etc.

etc.

Exercise | Q 3.12 | Page 338

Answer the following.
Write name and formula of raw material from which bake lite is made.
Solution:
Bakelite is made by condensation of two different monomers:
a. Phenol:
b. Formaldehyde: CH2O
Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 338
Identify condensation polymers and addition polymers from the following.

Solution: It is an Addition polymer.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 338
Identify condensation polymers and addition polymers from the following.
-(CH2 - CH = CH - CH2 -)n
Solution: It is an Addition polymer.
Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 338
Identify condensation polymers and addition polymers from the following.
-(CO(CH2)4 - CONH(CH2)6NH-)n

Solution: It is a Condensation polymer.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 338
Identify condensation polymers and addition polymers from the following.

Solution:
It is a Condensation polymer.
Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 339
Attempt the following:
Write the chemical reactions involved in the manufacture of Nylon 6,6.

Solution:
Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 339
Attempt the following:
Explain the vulcanisation of rubber. Which vulcanizing agents are used for the following
synthetic rubber.
a. Neoprene
b. Buna-N

Solution:
a. Neoprene: MgO is used to vulcanize neoprene.
b. Buna-N: Sulfur is used to vulcanize Buna-N.

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 339

Write chemical reaction to prepare the following polymer: Teflon
Solution:

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 339

Write the reaction involved in the formation of:
Bakelite

Solution:
Step 1:
 Step 2:

Step 3:

Exercise | Q 4.5 | Page 339

Attempt the following:
What is meant by LDP and HDP? Mention the basic difference between the same with
suitable examples.

Solution:
1. What is meant by LDP and HDP? Mention the basic difference between the same with
suitable examples.
2. LDP is a branched polymer of ethene with polymeric chains loosely held. Hence, even
though it is tough, it is extremely flexible. Therefore, LDP is used in producing extruded
 films, sheets, mainly for packaging and household uses like in preparation of squeeze
bottles, attractive containers, etc. where low tensile strength and flexibility is required.
On the other hand, HDP is a linear polymer of ethene with closely packed polymeric
chains. Hence, it is much stiffer than LDP and has high tensile strength and hardness.
Therefore, HDP is used in the manufacture of toys and other household articles like
buckets, dustbins, bottles, pipes, laboratory wares and other objects where high tensile
strength and stiffness is required.

Exercise | Q 4.6 | Page 339

Attempt the following:
Write preparation, properties and uses of Teflon.

Solution:
• Preparation of teflon:
1. The monomer used in preparation of teflon is tetrafluoroethylene, (CF2 = CF2), which
is a gas at room temperature.
2. Tetrafluoroethylene is polymerized by using free-radical initiators such as hydrogen
peroxide or ammonium persulphate at high pressure to produce polytetrafluoroethylene
(teflon).

• Properties of teflon:
1. Teflon is tough, chemically inert and resistant to heat and attack by corrosive
reagents.
2. C - F bond is very difficult to break and remains unaffected by corrosive alkali,
organic solvents.
• Uses:
Teflon is used in making non-stick cookware, oil seals, gaskets, etc.
Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 339
Attempt the following:
Classify the following polymer as straight-chain, branched-chain and cross-linked
polymers.
Solution:
Straight chain polymer
Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 339
Attempt the following:
Classify the following polymer as straight-chain, branched-chain and cross-linked
polymers.

Solution:
Branched-chain polymer

Exercise | Q 4.7 | Page 339

Attempt the following:
Classify the following polymer as straight-chain, branched-chain and cross-linked
polymers.
Solution: Crosslinked polymer
Exercise | Q 5.1 | Page 339
Answer the following
How is polythene manufactured? Give their properties and uses.

Solution:
i. LDP is prepared by polymerization of ethylene under high pressure (1000 - 2000 atm)
and temperature (350 - 570 K) in presence of traces of O2 or peroxide as initiator.

ii. The mechanism of this reaction involves free radical addition and H-atom abstraction.
The latter results in branching.
iii. Polymeric chains are loosely held due to branching and the polymer has low density.
iv. Properties of low-density polyethylene:
a. LDP films are extremely flexible but tough, chemically inert, and moisture resistant. b.
It is a poor conductor of electricity with a melting point 110 °C.
v. Uses of low-density polyethylene:
a. It is mainly used in the preparation of pipes for agriculture, irrigation, domestic water
line connections as well as insulation to electric cables.
b. It is also used in submarine cable insulation.
c. It is used in producing extruded films, sheets, mainly for packaging and household
uses like in preparation of squeeze bottles, attractive containers, etc.
vi. HDP is a linear polymer with high density due to close packing.
vii. It is obtained by polymerization of ethene in presence of Zieglar-Natta catalyst,
which is a combination of triethyl aluminium with titanium tetrachloride.
viii. Polymerization of ethene is carried out at a temperature of 333 K to 343 K and a
pressure of 6-7 atm.

ix. Properties of high-density polyethylene:

a. HDP is crystalline, melting point in the range of 144 - 150 °C.
b. It is much stiffer than LDP and has high tensile strength and hardness.
 c. It is more resistant to chemicals than LDP.
x. Uses of high-density polyethylene:
a. HDP is used in the manufacture of toys and other household articles like buckets,
dustbins, bottles, pipes, etc.
b. It is used to prepare laboratory wares and other objects where high tensile strength
and stiffness is required.

Exercise | Q 5.2 | Page 339

Answer the following.
Is synthetic rubber better than natural rubber? If so, in what respect?
Solution:
Yes, synthetic rubber is superior to natural rubber.
1. Synthetic rubber has high mechanical strength.
2. It has high abrasion resistance.
3. It is resistant to petroleum, vegetable oils, light as well as heat.

Exercise | Q 5.3 | Page 339

Answer the following.
Write main specialities of Buna-S, Neoprene rubber?
Solution:
1. Buna-S:
It has mechanical strength and has abrasion resistance. Hence, it is used in tyre
industry.
2. Neoprene:
• Neoprene is particularly resistant to petroleum, vegetable oils, light as well as heat.
• Hence, it is used in making hose pipes for the transport of gasoline and making gaskets.
• It is used for manufacturing insulator cable, jackets, belts for power transmission and
conveying.
Exercise | Q 5.4 | Page 339
Answer the following.
Write the structure of isoprene and the polymer obtained from it.
Solution:
Exercise | Q 5.5 | Page 339
Answer the following.
Explain in detail free radical mechanism involved during preparation of addition polymer.
Solution:
The free radical mechanism is most common in addition to polymerization. It is also
called a chain reaction which involves three distinct steps. These are as follows:
i) Step 1: Chain initiation:
a. The chain reaction is initiated by a free radical which is formed from an initiator
(catalyst) such as benzoyl peroxide, acetyl peroxide, tert-butyl peroxide, etc.
b. For example, acetyl peroxide generates methyl radical as shown below:

c. The free radical (say R•) so formed attaches itself to the olefin (vinyl monomer) and
produces a new radical, made up of two parts, namely, the attached radical and the
monomer unit.
ii. Step 2: Chain propagation:
a. The new radical formed in the initiation step reacts with another molecule of vinyl
monomer, forming another still bigger sized radical, which in turn reacts with another
monomer molecule.
b. The repetition of this sequence takes place very rapidly. It is called chain
propagation.

c. This step is very rapid and leads to high molecular mass radical.
iii. Step 3: Chain termination:
a. At some stage, termination of the growing chain takes place. It may occur by several
processes.
b. One mode of termination is by combination of two growing chain radicals.
 Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry

EXERCISE [PAGES 351 - 352]

Exercise | Q 1.1 | Page 351

Choose the most correct option.

The development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability
of future generations to meet their own need is known as _____________.
1. Continuous development
2. Sustainable development
3. True development
4. Irrational development
Solution: The development that meets the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own need is known as Sustainable
development.

Exercise | Q 1.2 | Page 351

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following is ϒ-isomer of BHC?
1. DDT
2. lindane
3. Chloroform
4. Chlorobenzene
Solution: lindane

Exercise | Q 1.3 | Page 351

Choose the most correct option.

The prefix 'nano' comes from ____________.
1. A French word meaning billion
2. Greek word meaning dwarf
3. A Spanish word meaning particle
4. Latin word meaning invisible
Solution: The prefix 'nano' comes from the Greek word meaning dwarf.
 Exercise | Q 1.4 | Page 351

Choose the most correct option.

Which of the following information is given by the FTIR technique?
1. Absorption of functional groups
2. Particle size
3. Confirmation of formation of nanoparticles
4. Crystal structure
Solution: Absorption of functional groups

Exercise | Q 1.5 | Page 351

Choose the most correct option.

The concept of green chemistry was coined by ________.
1. Born Haber
2. Nario Taniguchi
3. Richard Feynman
4. Paul T. Anastas
Solution: The concept of green chemistry was coined by Paul T. Anastas .

Exercise | Q 2.1 | Page 351

Answer the following

Write the formula to calculate the % atom economy.
Solution:

Exercise | Q 2.2 | Page 351

Answer the following

Name the ϒ-isomer of BHC.
Solution: Gammexane or Lindane

Exercise | Q 2.3 | Page 352

Answer the following

Ridhima wants to detect the structure of the surface of materials. Name the technique
she has to use.
Solution: Scanning Electron Microscopy

Exercise | Q 2.4 | Page 352

Answer the following

Which nanomaterial is used for tyres of the car to increase the life of tyres?
Solution: Carbon black

Exercise | Q 2.5 | Page 352

Answer the following

Name the scientist who discovered a scanning tunneling microscope (STM) in 1980.
Solution: Gerd Binnig and Heinrich Rohrer

Exercise | Q 2.6 | Page 352

Answer the following

1 nm = _________m ?
Solution: 1 nm = 10–9m

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 352

Answer the following

Define: Green chemistry
Solution: Green chemistry is the use of chemistry for pollution prevention by an
environmentally conscious design of chemical products and processes that reduce or
eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances.

Exercise | Q 3.1 | Page 352

Answer the following

Define: sustainable development
Solution:

Sustainable development is the development that meets the needs of the present,
without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own need.
Exercise | Q 3.2 | Page 352

Answer the following

Explain the role of green chemistry.
Solution:
The green chemistry approach recognizes that the Earth does have a natural capacity
for dealing with much of the waste and pollution that society generates. It is only when
that capacity is exceeded that we become unsustainable.
Following is the role of Green Chemistry:
i. To promote innovative chemical technologies that reduce or eliminate the use or
generation of hazardous substances in the design, manufacture, and use of chemical
products.
ii. The green chemistry helps to reduce capital expenditure, to prevent pollution.
iii. Green chemistry incorporates pollution prevention practices in the manufacture of
chemicals and promotes pollution prevention and industrial ecology.
iv. Green chemistry is a new way of looking at chemicals and their manufacturing
process to minimize any negative environmental effects.
v. Green chemistry helps to protect the presence of ozone in the stratosphere essential
for the survival of life on the earth.
vi. Green chemistry is useful to control the greenhouse effect (Global warming).

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 352

Answer the following

Give the full form (long form) of the name for following instrument.
XRD

Solution: X-ray diffractometer

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 352

Answer the following

Give the full form (long form) of the name for the following instrument.
TEM

Solution: Transmission Electron Microscope

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 352

Answer the following
Give the full form (long form) of the name for the following instrument.
STM

Solution: Scanning Tunneling Microscope

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 352

Answer the following

Give the full form (long form) of the name for the following instrument.
FTIR

Solution: Fourier Transform Infrared Spectrophotometer

Exercise | Q 3.3 | Page 352

Answer the following

Give the full form (long form) of the name for the following instrument.
SEM

Solution: Scanning Electron Microscope

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 352

Answer the following
Define the following term :
Nanoscience
Solution: Nanoscience:
Nanoscience is the study of phenomena and manipulation of materials at atomic,
molecular, and macromolecular scales where properties differ significantly from those at
a larger scale.

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 352

Answer the following
Define the following term: Nanotechnology

Solution:
Nanotechnology:
Nanotechnology is the design, characterization, production, and application of
structures, devices, and systems by controlling shape and size at nanometer scale.

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 352

Answer the following

Define the following term: Nanomaterial
Solution:
Nanomaterial:
The nanomaterial is a material having structural components with at least one
dimension in the nanometer scale, that is, 1-100 nm.

Exercise | Q 3.4 | Page 352

Answer the following
Define the following term: Nanochemistry

Solution:
Nanochemistry:
Nanochemistry is the combination of chemistry and nanoscience which deals with
designing and synthesis of materials of nanoscale with different sizes and shape,
structure and composition, and their organization into functional architectures.

Exercise | Q 3.5 | Page 352

Answer the following
How nanotechnology plays an important role in water purification techniques?

Solution:
Nanotechnology plays an important role in water purification techniques.
a. Water contains waterborne pathogens like viruses, bacteria.
b. Cost-effective filter materials coated with silver nanoparticles (AgNps) is an
alternative technology and can be used in water purification.
c. Silver nanoparticles act as a highly effective antibacterial agent that kills E. coli from
water.

Exercise | Q 3.6 | Page 352

Answer the following
Which nanomaterial is used in sunscreen lotion? Write its use.
Solution:
Sunscreen lotions contain nanoparticles of zinc oxide (ZnO) and titanium dioxide (TiO 2).
These chemicals protect the skin against harmful UV (ultraviolet) rays by absorbing or
reflecting the light. Hence, sunscreen lotions prevent the skin from damage.

Exercise | Q 3.7 | Page 352

Answer the following
How will you illustrate the use of a safer solvent and auxiliaries?

Solution:
Use of safer solvent and auxiliaries:
This principle of green chemistry involves the use of a safer solvent and minimizing the
total amount of solvents and auxiliary substances used for any given step of the
reaction. This is because solvents and auxiliary substances make up a large percentage
of the total waste created.
Illustration:
a. The main aim of this principle is to use green solvents. For example, water or
supercritical CO2 in place of volatile halogenated organic solvents (such as CH2Cl2,
CHCl3, CCl4) for chemical synthesis and other purposes.
b. Solvents as chemicals that dissolve solutes and form solutions facilitate many
reactions.
c. Water is a safe benign solvent while dichloromethane is hazardous.
d. The use of toxic solvent affects millions of workers every year and has implications
for consumers and the environment as well. Many solvents are used in high volumes
and many are volatile organic compounds. Their use creates large amounts of waste,
air pollution, and other health impacts.
e. Finding safer, more efficient alternatives or removing solvents altogether is one of the
best ways to improve a process or product.

Exercise | Q 3.8 | Page 352

Answer the following
Define catalyst.

Solution:

A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being
consumed in the process.
Exercise | Q 3.8 | Page 352
Answer the following
Give two examples of catalysts.

Solution:
i. In the contact process of industrial production of sulfuric acid; sulphur dioxide and
oxygen from the air react reversibly over a solid catalyst of platinised asbestos.
ii. Hydrogenation with nickel as a catalyst is used to convert inedible oils into solid fat
for the production of margarine.

Exercise | Q 4.1 | Page 352

Answer the following
Explain any three principles of green chemistry.

Solution:
Following the Principles of Green Chemistry:
i. Prevention of waste or by-products: According to this principle of green chemistry,
priority is given for the prevention of waste rather than cleaning up and treating waste
after it has been generated.
Illustration: To develop zero-waste technology (ZWT). As per ZWT, in chemical
synthesis, the waste product should be zero or minimum. It also aims to use the waste
product of one system as the raw material for other systems.
For example:
a. The bottom ash of the thermal power station can be used as a raw material for the
cement and brick industry.
b. The effluent coming out from the cleansing of machinery parts may be used as
coolant water in the thermal power station.
ii. Less hazardous chemical synthesis:
According to this principle of green chemistry, designed chemical reactions and
synthesis routes should be as safe as possible to avoid the formation of hazardous
waste from chemical processes.
Illustration:
Earlier Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) was used as an insecticide and was
effective in controlling diseases like typhoid and malaria-carrying mosquitoes. It was
realized that DDT is harmful to living things. Nowadays, benzene hexachloride (BHC) is
used as an insecticide. One of the γ-isomer (gamma) of BHC is called gammexane or
lindane.
iii. Designing safer chemicals: This principle of green chemistry aims at developing
products that are less toxic or which require less toxic raw materials. Illustration: In
chemical industries workers are exposed to a toxic environment. Safer chemicals must
be designed in order to prevent workers from exposure to toxicity.
For example:
Adipic acid is widely used in the polymer industry. Benzene is the starting material for
the synthesis of adipic acid but benzene is carcinogenic and benzene being a volatile
organic compound (VOC) pollutes the air. In green technology developed by Drath and
Frost, adipic acid is enzymatically synthesised from glucose.

Exercise | Q 4.2 | Page 352

Answer the following
Explain the atom economy with a suitable example.

Solution:
Atom economy:
a. Atom economy is a measure of the number of atoms from the starting materials that
are present in the useful products at the end of the chemical process.
b. Good atom economy means most of the atoms of the reactants are incorporated in
the desired products and only small amounts of unwanted by-products are formed and
hence lesser problems of waste disposal.
Illustration: The concept of the atom economy gives the measure of the unwanted
product produced in a particular reaction.

Exercise | Q 4.3 | Page 352

Answer the following
How will you illustrate the principle, minimization of steps?

Solution:
Reduce derivatives (Minimization of steps):
In organic synthesis protecting or blocking groups is commonly used. According to this
principle of green chemistry, unnecessary derivatization, for example,
installation/removal of the use of protecting groups should be minimized or avoided if
possible, because such steps require additional reagents and can generate waste.
Illustration:
a. In organic synthesis, the protection of some functional groups is required. Again, the
deprotection of the functional group is required at the end.
For example: Synthesis of m-hydroxybenzoic acid from mhydroxybenzaldehyde.
b. In such cases, the atom economy is also less.
c. The green chemistry principle aims to develop the methodology where unnecessary
steps should be avoided. This can be done if possible, by using practicable biocatalytic
reactions, which very often need no protection of the selective group.

Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 352

Answer the following
What do you mean by sol and gel?

Solution:
Sol-gel method (Wet chemical synthesis of nanomaterials):
i. Sol: Sols are dispersions of colloidal particles in a liquid.
ii. Gel: A gel is an interconnected rigid network with pores of sub-micrometer
dimensions and polymeric chains whose average length is greater than a micrometer.
Exercise | Q 4.4 | Page 352
Answer the following
Describe the sol-gel method of preparation for nanoparticles.

Solution:
Sol-gel process:
a. The sol-gel process is an example of wet chemical synthesis of nanomaterials.
b. This technique is based on inorganic polymerization reactions.
c. It is generally carried out at room temperature and includes four steps: Hydrolysis,
polycondensation, drying, and thermal decomposition.
d. This method is widely employed to prepare oxide materials.
e. Schematic representation:

Schematic representation of the sol-gel process of synthesis of nanoparticles

f. The reactions and steps involved in the sol-gel process can be described as follows:

1. Formation of the different stable solution of the alkoxide or solvated metal precursor.
2. Gelation resulting from the formation of an oxide or alcohol bridged network (gel) by a
polycondensation reaction.
3. Aging of the gel means during that period gel transforms into a solid mass.
4. Drying of the gel: In this step, water and other volatile liquids are removed from the
gel network.
5. Dehydration: The material is heated at temperatures up to 800°C.

Exercise | Q 4.5 | Page 352

Answer the following
Which flower is an example of self-cleaning?

Solution:

Lotus is an example of self-cleaning.