ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC.

SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK (2023-24)
CLASS – XI
ACCOUNTANCY (055)

Section A
1 Which of the following is correct? [1]
(a) Gross Profit = Net Profit - Other Income + Indirect Expenses

(b) Gross Profit = Net Profit - Indirect Expenses + Other Incomes

(c) Gross Profit = Net Profit + Cost of Goods Sold

(d) Gross Profit = Net Profit - Cost of Goods Sold

2 Ankit is the owner of a firm. He brought additional capital of t ₹ 8,00,000 to the firm. The receipt [1]
of money in business is
(a) revenue receipt (b) capital receipt (c) revenue expenditure (d) capital
expenditure

3 Which of the following is correct? [1]

A. Operating Profit = Net Profit + Operating Expenses - Non - operating Income
B. Operating Profit = Net Profit + Non - operating Expenses + Non - operating Income
C. Operating Profit = Net Profit + Non - operating Expenses - Non - operating Income
D. Operating Profit = Net Profit - Non - operating Expenses + Non - operating Income
4 Which of the following is the journal entry for unsold stock at the end of the accounting year [1]
31st March, 2020 of ₹ 40,500?

(a) Closing Stock A/c Dr 40,500

To Profit and Loss A/c 40,500

(b) Trading A/c Dr 40,500

To Profit and Loss A/c 40,500

(c) Closing Stock, A/c Dr 40,500

To Trading A/c 40,500

(d) Trading A/c Dr 40,500

To Closing Stock A/c 40,500

5 Final Accounts are prepared: [1]

A. at the end of the accounting year
B. None of these
C. on every Diwali
D. at the end of the assessment year
6 Goods distributed as free sample. The effect of this entry will be [1]
(a) it is the proprietor drawings.

(b) it is deducted from purchases in the trading account

(c) it will be shown on the debit side of the profit and loss account

(d) Both (b) and (c)

7 Main object of charging depreciation is: [1]

A. Ascertaining true profit or loss
B. All of these
C. Ascertaining true financial position
D. Ascertaining true cost of production
8 Depreciation arises because of: [1]
A. Expiry of time
B. Constant use of assets
C. All of these
D. Obsolescence
9 Which of the following statements is correct: [1]
1. King’s International - P & L A/c as on 31st March 2017
2. King’s International - P & L A/c for the year ended 31st March
3. King’s International - P & L A/c for the year ended 31st March 2017
4. King’s International - P & L A/c for the current year (2016 - 2017)
A. Only C is correct
B. Only B is correct
C. Only D is correct
D. Only A is correct
10 Current liabilities are such obligations which are to be satisfied: [1]
A. within two years
B. within one year
C. none of these
D. within three years
11 Expenditure incurred on research is an example of _______. [1]
A. Deferred revenue expenditure
B. Revenue expenditure.
C. Capital expenditure.
D. Partly capital expenditure
12 The term amortisation is used to write off: [1]
A. Intangible Assets
B. Fixed Assets
C. Tangible Assets
D. Wasting Assets
13 Revenue Income is transferred to: [1]
A. Profit and Loss Account
B. Trading and P & L A/c
C. Balance Sheet
D. None of these
14 Machinery was purchased for Rs.1,80,000 on 1st January 2006. Depreciation was charged annually [1]
 1
@ 10% on written down value method.4 of this machinery was sold on 1st July 2008 for Rs.36,000.
Calculate the profit on the sale of machinery.

A. Rs.321
B. Rs.615
C. Rs.1,372.5
D. Rs.212

15 Assertion (A): Obsolescence of assets can lead to a decline in their economic value. Reason (R): [1]
Technological changes, improved production methods, and changes in market demand can render
an asset obsolete.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

16 Assertion (A): It is necessary to charge depreciation to comply with the tax regulations. Reason (R): [1]
Depreciation should be deducted according to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

17 Neeraj and Co. purchased machinery for Rs.21,000 in 01.01.2011. The estimated life of the [1]
machinery is 10 years after its residual value will be Rs.1,000 only. Find the amount of annual
depreciation according to Fixed Installment Method.

A. Rs.2,000
B. Rs.4,000
C. Rs.3,000
D. Rs.1,000

18 If total assets of the business are ₹ 4,50,000 and outside liabilities are ₹ 2,00,000, calculate [1]
owner’s equity.

(a) ₹ 6,50,000 (b) ₹ 2,50,000 (c) ₹ 4,50,000 (d) ₹ 2,00,000

19 Which of the following are two-sided errors? [1]

(a) Machinery purchased recorded in purchase book

(b) Old furniture sold recorded as sale of goods

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

20 Purchase of office furniture of ₹ 10,000 has been debited to general expense account. Which [1]
type of error is it?

(a) Error of Omission (b) Error of Commission (c) Error of Principle (d) Compensating
 error

21 Debtors are included under [1]

(a) Bills receivable (b) Fixed assets (c) Trade receivables (d)
Trading account

22 Sales return is also called [1]

(a) return outward (b) return inward (c) bills payable (d) goods
return

23 How many categories are there in GST for accounting purpose? [1]
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 4

24 Which of the following is a business transaction? [1]

(a) Goods worth ₹ 10,000 purchased on credit

(b) Purchasing air conditioner ₹ 15,000 for cash for personal use

(c) Owner not keeping good health

(d) Owner purchased a car of ₹ 5,00,000 for his son

25 Date of purchase 1st January, 2019, purchase price ₹ 1,00,000. On 30th September, 2020, this [1]
machine was sold for ₹ 50,000. Depreciation is provided on straight line method basis. The loss
on sale will be

(a) ₹ 10,000 b) ₹ 15,000 (c) ₹ 0 (d) ₹ 20,000

26 The amount due from customers which could not be recovered and requires to be written-off is [1]
booked into

(a) bad debt recovered account (b) cash withdrawal

(c) goods withdrawn (d) bad debts account

27 Goods costing ₹ 50,000 (selling price ₹ 60,000) were destroyed by fire. What will be the journal [1]
entry?

(a) Loss by Fire A/c Dr 50,000

To Purchases A/c 50,000

(b) Purchases A/c Dr 50,000

To Loss by Fire A/c 50,000

(c) Cash A/c Dr 50,000

To Loss by Fire A/c 50,000

(d) Loss by Fire A/c Dr 50,000

To Cash A/c 50,000

28 What is primary objective of financial statements? [1]

29 Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet always represents Credit balances. Do you agree? [1]
30 Assets and Liabilities of a particular accounting period are shown in the Balance Sheet. Do you [1]
agree?
31 If both Adjusted Purchases and Closing Stock are given in the Trial Balance, where are the two [1]
accounts shown in the Final Accounts?

32 State true or false: [1]

Any expenditure intended to benefit the current period is revenue expenditure.

33 State true or false: [1]

The reason for the end of the sole proprietorship can be Death.

34 What is an operating profit? [1]

35 Under the liquidity approach, assets that are most liquid are presented at the top of the balance [1]
sheet. Do you agree?

36 Under the liquidity approach assets which are most liquid is presented at the bottom of the Balance [1]
Sheet. Comment.

37 Fill in the blanks: [1]

Depreciation represents a ________ in the value of fixed assets.

38 Fill in the blanks: [1]

A Sole proprietor concern is free from regulation by ________.

39 What is meant by the debit balance of the Input CGST Account? [1]

40 X Ltd. purchased a plant for₹ 7,80,000 and spent ₹ 60,000 on its installation. Its scrap value is ₹ [1]
42,000 and useful life 10 years. What will be the rate of depreciation as per the straight - line
method?
Section B
41 Distinguish between straight line method and written down value method of calculating [3]
depreciation.
42 Book value of machine as on 31st March, 2013 is Rs.2,91,600. This machine was purchased on 1st [3]
April, 2010. Depreciation is charged at 10% on written down value method. What is the original cost
of machine?
43 Is depreciation affected by obsolescence? Give reason. [3]
44 A boiler was purchased from abroad for₹ 10,000. Shipping and forwarding charges ₹ 2,000, Import [3]
duty ₹ 7,000 and expenses of installation amounted to ₹ 1,000. Calculate the Depreciation for the
first three years (separately for each year) @ 10% p.a. on Diminishing Balance Method.
𝑠𝑡
45 From the following transactions of a concern, prepare Machinery Account for the year ending 31 [3]
 March, 2023:

46 Although, written down value method is based upon a more realistic assumption, it suffers from [3]
some limitations. Give any three such limitations.
47 Calculate gross profit and cost of goods sold from the following information: Net Sales₹ [3]
8,00,000,Gross Profit is 40% on Sales.
48 State the meaning of capital expenditure and revenue expenditure. What is the difference between [3]
them?
49 From the following details, calculate Opening Inventory: Closing Inventory ₹ 60,000; Total Revenue [3]
from Operations ₹ 5,00,000 (including cash revenue from operations ₹ 1,00,000); Total purchases ₹
3,00,000 (including credit purchases ₹ 60,000). Goods are sold at a profit of 25% on cost.
50 What are financial statements? What information do they provide. [3]
51 Calculate the operating profit from the following: [3]

52 Calculate Gross Profit on the basis of the following information: [3]

3/4 of the goods are sold for₹ 6,00,000.

Section C
53 From the following transactions of a concern, prepare the Machinery Account for the year ending 31 [4]
 st March, 2017:

[ Hint: The amount spent on repairs and renewal of machinery ₹ 3,000 on 31st December, 2018 is of
revenue nature and not of capital nature and hence not debited to the Machinery Account.

54 An asset was purchased for₹ 10,500 on 1st April 2011. The scrap value was estimated to be ₹ 500 at [4]
the end of asset’s 10 years life. The straight Line Method of depreciation was used. The accounting
year ends on 31st March. The asset was sold for ₹ 600 on 31st March 2018. Calculate the following

1. The depreciation expenses for the year ended 31st March 2012.

2. The net book value of the asset on 31st March 2016.

3. The gain or loss on sale of the asset on 31st March 2018.

𝑠𝑡
55 You are given the following balance on 1 April, 2022. [4]

Depreciation is charged on machinery at 20% p.a. by the Diminishing Balance Method. A piece of
machinery purchased on 1𝑠𝑡 April, 2020 for₹ 1,00,000 was sold on 1 𝑠𝑡 October, 2022 for ₹ 60,000.
Prepare the Machinery Account and Provision for Depreciation Account for the year ended 31 𝑠𝑡
March, 2023. Also, prepare the Machinery Disposal Account.

56 Green Ltd. purchased machinery on 1st May 2011 for Rs 60,000. On 1st July 2012, it purchased [4]
another machine for Rs 20,000. On 31st March 2013, it sold off the first machine purchased in 2011
for Rs 38,500 and on the same date purchased new machinery for Rs 50,000. Depreciation is
provided at 20% p.a. on the original cost each year. Accounts are closed each year on 31st
December. Show the Machinery Account for three years.
57 M/s Digital Studio bought a machine for₹ 8,00,000 on April 01, 2013. Depreciation was provided on [4]
a straight - line basis at the rate of 20% on the original cost. On April 01, 2015, a substantial
modification was made to the machine to make it more efficient at a cost of ₹ 80,000. This amount is
to be depreciated @ 20% on a straight - line basis. Routine maintenance expenses during the year
2013 - 14 were ₹ 2,000. Draw up the Machine account, Provision for depreciation account and
charge to profit and loss account in respect of the accounting year ended on March 31, 2016.
58 Rashmi Cement Limited purchased on 1𝑠𝑡 April, 2020 a plant for ₹ 80,000. On 1 𝑠𝑡 July, 2021, it [4]
𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑡
purchased additional plant costing ₹ 48,000. On 1 December, 2022, the plant purchased on 1
April, 2020 was sold off for ₹ 42,000 and on the same date fresh plant was purchased at the cost of ₹
75,000. Depreciation is provided at 10% per annum on the Diminishing Balance Method every year.
Accounts are closed each year on 31 𝑠𝑡 March. Show the Plant account for 3 years. IGST is charged
@12% on purchase and sale of plant.
59 What is a balance sheet? What are its characteristics? [4]
60 A machine was purchased on 1st April, 2016 for₹ 2,50,000. On 1st October, 2016, another machine [4]
was purchased for ₹ 1,50,000. Depreciation is to be provided @ 10% p.a. on the machines under the
Reducing Balance System. (i) Show Machinery Account for the years ended 31st March, 2017 and
2018. (ii) Show how Machinery Account will appear in the Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2018.
61 The following balances appear in the books of Sankalp on 01 - 01 - 2015.Machinery A/c Rs. 8,00,000, [4]
Provision for Depreciation a/c Rs. 3,18,000. On 01 - 01 - 2015 they decided to sell a machine for Rs.
34,500. This machine was purchased for Rs. 1,20,000 on 01 - 01 - 2011. Show the machinery A/c,
Provision for Depreciation A/c for the year ended Dec 31, 2015, assuming that depreciation was
charged at 10% p.a. on Written Down value method.
62 From the following information, prepare the trading account for the year ended 31st March, 2013 [4]
The percentage of gross profit on sales is 20%.

63 Prepare a trading account of M/s Anjali from the following information related to 31st March, 2017. [4]

64 From the balance sheet given below, calculate (i) fixed assets, (ii) current assets, (iii) current [4]
liabilities, (iv) working capital, (v) capital employed.
65 Rectify the following errors and use suspense account where necessary. [4]
(i) ₹ 2,500 paid for office furniture was debited to office expenses account.
(ii) A cash sale of t ₹ 7,500 to Saksham was correctly entered in the cash book but was posted to
the credit of Saksham's account.
(iii) Goods amounting to ₹ 1,800, returned by Aryan, were entered in the sales book and posted
therefrom to the credit of Aryan's account
(iv) Bills receivable received from Sangeet for ₹ 5,000 was posted to the credit of bills payable
account and credited to Sangeet's account.

66 From the following information, draw up a trial balance in the books of Ramesh Kumar as on [4]
31st March, 2020.

Capital ₹ 2,80,000; purchases ₹ 72,000; discount allowed ₹ 2,400; carriage inwards ₹ 17,400,
carriage outwards ₹ 4,600; sales ₹ 1,20,000; return inward ₹ 600; return outward ₹ 1,400; rent
and taxes ₹ 2,400; plant and machinery ₹ 1,61,400; stock on 1st April, 2018 ₹ 31,000, sundry
debtors ₹ 40, 400; sundry creditors ₹ 24,000; investments ₹ 7,200; commission received ₹
3,600; cash in hand ₹ 200, cash at bank ₹ 20,200; motor cycle t ₹ 69,200 and stock on 31st
March, 2019 (not adjusted) ₹ 41,000.

67 Enter the following transactions in the purchase book of M/s Shyam Book Store, Meerut. [4]
2020

Jan 4 Purchased from Vikas Book Store on credit, Meerut, vide Invoice No. 221

200 Business Studies Books @ ₹ 150 each, paid GST @ 12%

100 Economics Books @ ₹ 100 each, paid GST @ 12%

Jan 8 Purchased goods from Mayur Book Store on credit, Delhi, vide Invoice No. 231

150 Accountancy Books @ ₹ 250 each, paid GST @ 12%

50 Biology Books @ ₹ 350 each, paid GST @ 12%

Jan 13 Purchased goods from Nanak Book Store, Delhi, vide Invoice No. 239
 20 Arihant Economics Class 12th @ ₹ 400 each, plus GST @12%

10 Arihant Political Class 12th @ ₹ 400 each, plus GST @12%

Less 20% trade discount on total purchases.

Section D
68 From the following particulars, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March, 2016. [6]
(i) Bank balance as per cash book is ₹ 1,00,000.
(ii) A cheque for ₹ 10,000 deposited but not recorded in the cash book. Bank has collected and
credited this cheque.
(iii) A bank deposit of ₹ 2,000 was recorded in the cash book as if there is no bank column
therein.

(iv) A cheque issued for ₹ 2,500 was recorded as ₹ 2,050 in the cash column. Bank has made the
payment of this cheque.

(v) The debit balance of ₹ 15,000 as on the previous day was brought forward as a credit
balance.

(vi) The payment side of the cash book (bank column) was undercast by ₹ 1,000.

(vii) A cash discount allowed of ₹ 1,120 was recorded as ₹ 1,210 in the bank column.

(viii) A cheque of ₹ 5,000 received from a debtor was recorded in the cash book but not
deposited in the bank for collection.

(ix) One outgoing cheque of ₹ 3,000 was recorded twice in the cash book.

70 What do you understand by historical cost of an assets? [6]

(ii) Following balances appear in the books of Mukesh Sharma, as on 1st April, 2020

Machinery Account ₹ 80,000

Provision for Depreciation Account ₹ 31,000

On 1st July, 2020, a machinery which was purchased on 1st April, 2017 for ₹ 12,000 was sold for
₹ 5,000 plus CGST and SGST @ 6% each and on the same date another machinery was
purchased for ₹ 3,200 plus CGST and SGST @ 6% each. The firm charges depreciation @ 15%
p.a. by fixed instalment method and followed financial year.

Prepare machinery account and provision for depreciation account for the year 2020-21. Also,
pass journal entry for the sale of machinery.

71 Analyse the effect of each transaction and prove that the accounting equation (A = L + C) always [6]
remains balanced.
(i) Introduced ₹ 4,00,000 as cash and ₹ 25,000 by stock.
(ii) Purchased plant for ₹ 1,50,000 by paying ₹ 7,500 in cash and balance at a later date.
(iii) Deposited ₹ 3,00,000 into the bank.
(iv) Purchased office furniture for ₹ 50,000 and made payment by cheque.
 (v) Purchased goods worth ₹ 40,000 for cash and for ₹ 17,500 on credit.
(vi) Goods amounting to ₹ 22,500 was sold for ₹ 30,000 on cash basis.
(vii) Goods costing to ₹ 40,000 was sold for ₹ 62,500 on credit basis.
(viii) Cheque issued to the supplier of goods worth ₹ 17,500.
(ix) Cheque received from customer amounting to ₹ 37,500.
(x) Withdrawn by owner for personal use ₹ 12,500.
72 Journalise the following transactions in the books of M/s. Chandra Mohan. [6]
(i) Vishal who owed ₹ 5,000 was declared insolvent and 60 paise in a rupee are received as final
compensation.
(ii) Out of insurance paid this year, ₹ 3,000 is related to next year.
(iii) Provide depreciation @ 10% on furniture costing ₹ 10,000 for 9 months.
(iv) Paid customs duty ₹ 11,000 in cash on import of a new machinery.
(v) Goods sold costing ₹ 10,000 to M/s. Bhardwaj & Sons at a invoice price 10% above cost less
10%
trade discount.
(vi) Received a cheque from Rajesh ₹ 5,450. Allowed him discount ₹ 150.
(vii) Returned goods to Simran of the value of ₹ 350.
(viii) Issued a cheque in favour of M/s. Rajveer Timber Company on account of the purchase of
timber
worth ₹ 7,500.
(ix) Sold goods to Sunny, list price ₹ 4,000, trade discount 10% and cash discount 5%. He paid
the amount on the same day and availed the cash discount.
(x) Received an order from Gauri & Co. for supply of goods of the list price ₹ 1,00,000 with an
advance of 10% of list price.
(xi) Received commission ₹ 5,000 half of which is in advance.
(xii) Cash embezzled by an employee ₹ 1,000.
73 On 1st January, 2017, the Jaipur Golden Transport Company purchased a truck for₹ 8,00,000. On 1st [6]
July, 2018, this truck was involved in an accident and was destroyed and ₹ 6,00,000 were received by
a cheque from the Insurance Company in a full settlement on 1st October, 2018. On 1st July, 2018,
another truck was purchased by the company for ₹ 10,00,000 plus COST and SGST @ 6% each. The
company charges depreciation @ 20% p.a. following the Written Down Value Method. Prepare Truck
Account and Depreciation Account for 2017 to 2019 when books are closed on 31st March every
year.
74 Vinod limited purchased a machine for Rs. 2,50,000 including installation cost on January 1, 2012. On [6]
October 1, 2014, machine was sold for Rs. 1,50,000. Depreciation was provided @ 10% p.a. on Fixed
Installment method and accounts are closed on December 31, each year. Show the Machinery
Account and Provision for Depreciation Account for the year, 2012 to 2014.
75 A Noida based Construction Company owns 5 cranes and the value of this asset in its books on April [6]
01, 2017 is₹ 40,00,000. On October 01, 2017 it sold one of its cranes whose value was ₹ 5,00,000 on
April 01, 2017 at a 10% profit. On the same day it purchased 2 cranes for ₹ 4,50,000 each. Prepare
cranes account. It closes the books on December 31 and provides for depreciation on 10% written
down value.
76 From the following information of M/s Gold Star, prepare Machinery Account for the three years [6]
ending on 31st March, 2019:
 Method of Depreciation is the Written Down Value Method and Rate of Depreciation is 20%p.a.

77 On 1 - 4 - 2020, a Company purchased plant and machinery for₹ 2,00,000. New machinery for ₹ [6]
10,000 was purchased on 1 - 1 - 2022 and for ₹ 20,000 on 1 - 10 - 2022. On 1 - 7 - 2023, a
machinery whose book value had been ₹ 30,000 on 1 - 4 - 2020was sold for ₹ 16,000 and the entire
amount was credited to Plant and Machinery Account. Depreciation had been charged at 10% per
annum on straight - line method. Accounts are closed on 31 𝑠𝑡 March every year. Show the Plant
and Machinery Account from 1 - 4 - 2020to 31 - 3 - 2023.
78 From the following balances extracted from the books of Mr. Bhagat Verma on 31st March, 2023, [6]
prepare a Trading Account, P & L A/c and a Balance Sheet. Closing Stock valued on that date was₹
15,000.
79 State with reasons whether the following are Capital or Revenue expenditures: [6]
1. An old plant costing₹ 1,00,000 was purchased; ₹ 2,000 were paid on its carriage; ₹ 3,000
were spent on its repairs and ₹ 4,000 were paid to an engineer who had supervised its
installation.
2. ₹ 2,00,000 spent on repainting the factory building.
3. Legal expenses incurred on the purchase of Land.
4. ₹ 10,000 were spent on lawyer’s fees to defend a suit claiming that the firm’s factory site
belonged to the plaintiff.
5. Expenditure on Advertisement₹ 25,000.
6. ₹ 25,000 paid to a discharged employee as compensation.
7. Repairs for₹ 2,000 necessitated by negligence.
8. Insurance claim of₹ 20,000 received from the insurance company for loss of goods by the fire
of ₹ 25,000.
80 The following is the trial balance of Manju Chawla on March 31, 2017. You are required to prepare [6]
trading and profit and loss account and a balance sheet as on date
 Closing stock ₹ 2,000.

81 From the following trial balance of Sh. Prakash, prepare trading and profit and loss account for [6]
the year ended 31st March, 2020 and balance sheet as at that date.

Particulars Amt (Dr) Amt (Cr)

Purchases and Sales 5,50,000 10,40,000
Return Inwards 30,000 ………..
Return Outwards ……….. 18,000
Carriage 24,800 ……….
Wages and Salaries 1,17,200 ……….
Trade Expenses 4,400 ……….
Rent ………. 26,000
Insurance 4,000 ………..
Audit Fees 2,400 ………..
Debtors and Creditors 2,20,000 1,24,200
Bills Receivable and Bills 6,600 4,400
Payable 11,000 ………..
Printing and Advertising ………. 2,000
Commission 72,000 ……….
Opening Stock 25,600 ……….
Cash-in-Hand 53,600 ……….
Cash-at-Bank ………. 40,000
Bank Loan 3,000 ………..
Interest on Loan ………. 5,00,000
 Capital 30,000 ……….
Drawings 6,00,000 ………
Fixed Assets
17,54,600 17,54,600

Additional Information
(i) Stock at the end ₹ 1,20,000.
(ii) Depreciation to be charged on fixed assets @ 10%.
(iii) Commission earned but not received amounting to ₹ 800.
(iv) Rent received in advance ₹ 2,000.
(v) 8% interest to be allowed on capital and ₹ 1,800 to be charged as interest on drawings.
82 From the following ledger balances of Mr Navjot Singh, prepare the trading and profit and loss [6]
account for the year ended 31st March, 2020 after making the necessary adjustments.

Particulars Amt (₹) Particulars Amt (₹)

Trade expenses 1,600 Purchases 1,64,000
Freight and duty 4,000 Stock (1st April, 2019) 30,000
Carriage outwards 1,000 Plant and machinery (1st April, 2019) 40,000
Sundry debtors 41,200 Plant and machinery (additions on 1st
Furniture and fixtures 10,000 October, 2019) 10,000
Return inwards 4,000 Drawings 12,000
Printing and stationery 800 Capital 1,60,000
Rent, rates and taxes 9,200 Provision for doubtful debts 1,600
Sundry creditors 20,000 Rent for premises sublet 3,200
Sales 2,40,000 Insurance charges 1,400
Return outwards 2,000 Salaries and wages 42,600
Postage and telegraphs 1,600 Cash in hand 12,400
Cash at bank 41,000
Additional Information
(i) Stock on 31st March, 2020 was ₹ 28,000.
(ii) Write-off ₹ 1,200 as bad debts.
(iii) Provision for doubtful debts is to be maintained @ 5%.
(iv) Provision for depreciation on furniture and fixtures at 5% p.a. and on plant and machinery
at 20% p.a.
(v) Insurance prepaid was ₹ 200.
(vi) A fire occurred in the godown and stock of the value of ₹ 10,000 was destroyed. It was
insured and the insurance company admitted full claim.
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS – XI (2023 - 24)
APPLIED MATHEMATICS (241)
General Instructions:
1. This Question paper contain- five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory.
However, there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has MCQ’s questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has VSA -type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has Short Answer questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has Long Answer questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has source based / case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (4
marks each) with sub-parts.
SECTION - A
1. If a circle passes through the points (0, 0), (1, 0) and (0, b), then the coordinates of its centre are
A) (a, b) B)(-a/2 , -b/2) C)(a/2, b/2) D) (-a, -b)
2 2
2. The farthest distance of the point (1, 5) from the circle (x-1) +(y-1) = 16 is
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10
3. If one end of a diameter of the circle x² + y²- 4x -6y+ 11=0 is (3, 4), then the coordinates of the
other end of the diameter are
A) (2, 1) B) (-2,1) C) (1,2) D) (-1,-2)
4. The equation of a circle concentric with the circle x²+y²-6x + 12y-15 = 0 and double its area is
A) x²+y²-6x + 12y + 30 = 0 B) x²+y²-6x + 12y + 45 = 0
C) x²+y²-6x + 12y- 30 = 0 D)x²+y²-6x + 12y-15 = 0
5. The equation of the circle which passes through the origin and cuts off intercepts -2 and 3 from
the coordinate axes is
A) x2+y²+2x+3y=0 B) x2+y²+2x - 3y=0
C) x2+y² - 2x+3y=0 D) x2+y² - 2x - 3y=0
6. The equation of the parabola with vertex at origin and directrix the line y+3=0 is
A) y2 = 12x B) y2 = -12x C)x2 = 12y D) x2 = -12y
7. The equation of parabola through (-1, 3) and symmetric with respect to x-axis and vertex at
origin is
A) y2 = -9x B) y2 = 9x C)y2 = 3x D) y2 = -3x
8. The point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points (3, 2) and (-5,-2) is
A) (-2,0) B) (0, -2) C) (0, -1) D)(-1,0)
9. A circle of diameter 20 units passes through the point (-3,-1). If the centre of a circle is (2a-1,
3a+1), then natural number a is
A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1
10. If point C(-4, 1) divides the line segment joining the points A(2,-2) and B in the ratio 3:5, then
the coordinates of B are
A) (-14, 6) B) (6, -14) C) (-14, -6) D) (-6, -14)
11. If the points A(-2,-1), B(1, 0), C(a, 3) and D(1, b) form a parallelogram ABCD, then the values of
a and b are
A) a= -4, b= -2 B) a = -4,b=2 C) a = 4,b=2 D) a = -2, b = -4
12. If the middle points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 1), (2, -3) and (3, 2), then the centroid of the
triangle is
A) (-2, 0) B) (0, 2) C) (3, 2) D) (2, 0)
Page 1 of 4
13. The vertices of a triangle are A (-5, 3), B (p, -1) and C(6, q). If the centroid of the ∆ABC is (1,-1),
then the values of p and q are
A) p = -2, q=5 B) p = 2, q = -5 C) p = 3,q= 5 D) p = -5, q = 2
14. The tangent of the angle between the lines joining the points (-1, 2), (3,5) and (-2, 3), (5,0) is
A)37/49 B) 49/37 C) 23/47 D) 47/23
15. If a line joining the points (-2, 6) and (4, 8) is perpendicular to the line joining the points (8, 12)
and (x, 24), then the value of x is
A) 3 B) 4 C)-4 D) 2
16. If log(3x+1) = 2, then the value of x is
1 19
A) 3 B) 99 C) 33 D) 3
log 8−log 2
17. The value of is
log 32
2 1 2 1
A)5 B)4 C)− 5 D)3
18. If n(U)=50, n(A)= 38, n(B)= 30, then the least value of n(A∩ 𝐵) is
A) 30 B)38 C) 50 D)18
19. If R = {(x, y) : x, y ∈W, 2x + y = 8}, then domain of R is
A) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} B) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} D){0, 1, 2, 3}
20. How many two digit numbers are divisible by 4?
A) 21 B) 22 C) 24 D) 25
21. The sum of an infinite G.P. 10, -8, 6.4,….is
50 48 42 40
A) 9 B) 9 C) D) 9
9
22. The number of 3 digit odd numbers, when repetition of digits is allowed is
A) 450 B) 360 C) 400 D) 420
23. The number of signals that can be made by 4 flags of different colours, taking one or more at a
time is
A) 48 B) 52 C) 64 D) 56
24. Let A be a finite set containing 3 elements, then the number of functions from A to A is
A) 512 B) 511 C) 27 D) 26
𝑥−2
25. The domain of the function f defined by f(x) = 2−𝑥 are
A) R-{2} B) R-{-2} C) R D)(2, ∞)
26. If f(x) = px +q, where p and q are integers f(-1) = 1 and f(2) = 13, then p and q are
A) p=4, q=5 B) p=-4, q=5 C) p=-4, q=-5 D) p=4, q=-5
27. lim𝑥→3 [𝑥]is equal to
2
A) 1 B) -1 C) 2 D) does not exist
|𝑥|
28. log 𝑥 →0 is equal to
𝑥
A) 1 B) -1 C) 0 D) does not exist
3𝑥+1 (2 𝑥−1)
29. If f(x) = , then f’(1) is equal to
𝑥
11
A) 5 B) -5 C) 6 D) 2
1 𝑑𝑦
30. If y = 𝑥 + , then 𝑑𝑥 at x = 1 is
𝑥
1 1
A) 1 B)2 C) 2 D) 0
31. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of getting a king or a heart or a red
card is
11 15 4 7
A)26 B)26 C)13 D)13
32. A and B throw two dice each. If A gets a sum of 9 on his two dice, then the probability of B
Page 2 of 4
 getting a higher sum is
1 1 2 11
A)6 B) 36 C)9 D)36
33. The probability of an event A occurring is 0.5 and of B is 0.3. If A and B are mutually exclusive
events then the probability of neither A nor B occurring is
A) 0.2 B)0.3 C) 0.5 D)0.8
34. A and B are two mutually exclusive events of an experiment. If P(not A) = 0.65, P(A∪∪ 𝐵) = 0.65
and P(B) = p, then the value of p is
A) 0.35 B) 0.25 C) 0.30 D) 0.40
SECTION – B
1. Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 5 and n(B) = 2. If (a, 1), (b, 5),(c, 5),(d, 1),(e, 5) are in
A×Bfind A and B, where a, b, c, d, e are distinct elements. Also write the remaining elements of
A×B.
2. Find the value of n: n+1P3 = nP4
1
3. Find the domain and the range of following functions: f(x) = .
5−𝑥
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 −𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎
4. Evaluate the limit:lim𝑥→𝑎 𝑥−𝑎
5. Events E and F are such that P ( not E or not F) = 0.25. State whether E and F are mutually
exclusive.
6. Find the amount and the compound interest on 8000rs at 5% per annum for 2 years.
7. On what sum will the compound interest for 2 years at 5% per annum be 246rs?
8. How much will 25000rs amount to in 2 years, at compound interest if the rates for the successive
years are 4% and 5% per year?
SECTION – C
21
1. Solve for x: log2x + log4x + log16x = .
4
2.In a certain town 25% of families own a phone, 15% own a car and 65% families own neither a
phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car and a phone. Find how much percentage of family
own either a car or a phone. Also, find how many families live in the town?
13
3. The sum of three numbers in G.P. is 12 and their product is -1. Find the numbers.
(𝑎+2𝑥)− 3𝑥
4. Evaluate the following limits: lim𝑥→𝑎
(3𝑎+𝑥)−2 𝑥

𝑥 𝑎 𝑑𝑦 𝑥 𝑎
5. If y = + , prove that 2xy𝑑𝑥 = 𝑎 - 𝑥 .
𝑎 𝑥
1 1
6. If A and B are two independent events with P(A) = 3 and P(B) = 4 , then find P(B’/𝐴) .
1
7. Find the amount and the compounded interest on 8000rs for 12 years at 10% per annum, the
interest being compounded half- yearly.
8. Calculate the amount due and the compound interest on 7500rs in 2 years when the rate of
interest on successive year is 8% and 10% respectively.
9. In financial year 2019-20, Ramu’s( age 42 years) total salary was 6,43,000 rs (exclusive of HRA).
He deposited 7250rs per month in NPS and paid 24000rs as tuition fee of two children. He also
paid 5600rs as LIC premium. He purchased NSC of 20000rs in the same financial year. Calculate
his income tax at the end of the financial year.
10. Manufacture A sells a washing machine to a dealer B for 12500rs. The dealer B sells it to a
consumer at a profit of 1500rs. If the sales are intra- state and the rate of GST is 12%, find the
amount that the consumer pays for the machine.
11. Asha invest 240000rs for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually. If the income tax at

Page 3 of 4
 20% is deducted at the end of each year on interest accrued, find the amount she received at
the end of 2 years.
SECTION – D
1. If the A.M. of two distinct positive real numbers a and b (a>b) be twice as much as their G.M.,
show that a : b = (2 + 3) : (2 - 3).
1 1
2. If f(x) = x3 -𝑋 3 , prove that f(x) + f(𝑥 ) = 0.
1 1
3. If f(x) = x + 𝑥 , prove that (f(x))3 = f(x3) + 3f(𝑥 ).

𝑑𝑦
4. If y = log 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + log 𝑥 + … . . ∞ , prove that x(2y - 1)𝑑𝑥 = 1.

𝑑𝑦 log 𝑥
5.If y log x = x – y, prove that = (1+log 𝑥)2 .
𝑑𝑥
6. A man borrowed a sum of money and agrees to pay off by paying 3150 rs at the end of the first
year and 4410 rs at the end of the second year. If the rate of compound interest is 5 % per
annum,
find the sum borrowed.
7. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn
and are found to be both clubs. Find the probability of the lost card being a club.
SECTION – E
1. Two friends A and B are playing a game in which they throw a pair of coins alternatively and
decided who gets both heads first will win the game. If A starts the game, based on the above
information, answer the following questions:
i. What is the probability that A throws two heads in a particular throw of pair of coins?
ii. What is the probability that B do not throw two heads on a particular throw of a pair of coin?
iii. What is the probability that A wins the game?
iv. What is the probability that B wins the game?
2. In a survey of 40 students, it was found that 21 had taken Mathematics, 16 had taken Physics
and 15 had taken Chemistry, 7 had taken Mathematics and Chemistry, 12 had taken Mathema-
tics and Physics, 5 had taken Physics and Chemistry and 4 had taken all the three subjects.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
i. The number of students who had taken Mathematics only is
ii. The number of students who had taken Physics and Chemistry but not Mathematics is
iii. The number of students who had taken exactly one of the three subjects is
iv. The number of students who had taken atleast one of the three subjects is
3. The number of bacteria in a certain culture doubles every hour. Given that the number of
bacteria present at the end of 4th hour was 160000.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
i. The number of bacteria present originally was
ii. The number of bacteria present at the end of 7th hour was
iii. The number of bacteria present at the beginning of 3rd hour was
iv. The sum of number of bacteria present originally to the end of 8 th hours is

Page 4 of 4
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK

CLASS –XI SESSION :- 2023-24

SUBJECT – BANKING (811)

One/ two mark questions :

1. Define cheque .
2. Define negotiable instrument.
3. What is bill of exchange?
4. What is promissory notes
5. What is crossings.
6. What is holder and holder in due course?
7. What is endorsement?
8. Who is endorser and endorsee.
9. What is dishonour of bill?
10. What is noting?
11. What is protesting?
12. What is liquid assets?
13. Define money at call and short notice
14. What is cash reserve ratio.
15. What is liquidity management?
16. What is ALM?
17. What is secured loans and unsecured loans ?
18. What is credit rating ?
19. What is KYC?
20. What is overdrafts?

Three / Four Marks Questions :

21. Explain the Investment in Securities?

22. Differentiate between Secured and unsecured loans ?
23. Explain the Credit Rating?
24. Explain KYC and their process?
25. What is Consumer durable loans?
26. Explain types of home loans ?
27. Explain term loans ?
28. Explain cash credits , overdrafts.
29. What is purchase and discounting of bills ?
30. Explain the cheque and their characterstices and their essential
parties?
31. Explain the types of cheques ?
32. Explain the Parties and essentials of bill of exchange?
33. Explain the parties and essentials of promissory notes?
34. Explain the modes of crossings?
35. Explain the liabilities of parties?
Five Marks Questions:
36. Explain the credit card ? explain the benefits of credit card holders?
37. What is consumer durable loans ? explain the types of it?
38. Explain the Modes of Creating Charge on Securities?
39. Explain the types of securities?
40. Define cheque and make a specimen of cheque?
41. Explain different types of Cheques with proper examples.
42. Make a specimen of bill of exchange and promissory notes.
43. What is crossing with their proper examples?
44. Explain Endorsement ? Explain the types of Endorsement?
45. Explain the dishonour of negotiable instrument in different areas?
46. Explain the contents of noting and protesting.
47. Explain the laibilities of parties under the different sections.
 ANGELS ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAM
CLASS XI (2023-24)
BIOLOGY (044)
Animal Kingdom
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. l. Define the term poikilotherms.
Q. 2. What are radiata?
Q. 3. What is open type circulatory system?
Q.4. Write a technical term for an animal having true body cavity.
Q.5. What are bilateria?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 1. Give the levels of organisation in animals.
Q. 2. Distinguish between intracellular and extracellular digestion.
Q. 3. What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of
the animal kingdom?
Q.4. If you are given a specimen, what are the steps that you would follow to classify it?
Q.5. How useful is the study of the nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1. What are the basic plans of body in animal groups?
Q. 2. Define germinal layers.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks each)
Q. 1. How many types of body symmetry found in animals?
Q. 2. How can you group the animals on the basis of their nitrogenous wastes?
Q. 3. Give distinguishing features of Phylum Porifera.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Name two adaptations for an aerial mode of life.
Q. 2. How many cranial nerves are present in amphibians?
Q. 3. Name three reptiles without urinary bladder.
Q. 4. What is blubber?
Q. 5. What is coprophagy?
Q. 6. Name a poisonous lizard.
Q. 7. What is diastema?
Q. 8. What is the function of lateral line sense organs in fishes?
Q 9. How can you identify a poisonous frog?
Q. 10. Define pneumatic bones.
Q. 11. Give one difference between cartilaginous and bony fishes.
Q. 12. What is aestivation?
Q. 15. Name two flightless birds.
Q. 16. What is notochord?
Q. 17. Name two division of vertebrata.
Q. 18. Name any two poisonous snake.
Q. 19. Distinguish between Viviparous and Oviparous animals.

Page 1 of 19
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1. Point out the difference between dog fish and cat fish.
Q. 2. Write a short note on Kangaroo.
Q. 3. What enables bony fishes to stay afloat at a particular depth without expending energy in
swimming?
Q. 4. How important is the presence of air bladder in Pisces?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. l. Write the main characteristics of Chondrichthyes.
Q. 2. "All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates". Justify the statement.
Q. 3. What are the modifications that are observed in bird that help in flying?
Q 4. Which features make reptiles successful on land ?
Q. 5. Give three basic chordate characters.
Q. 6. Distinguish between a whale and a fish.
Q 7. What is cephalization ?
Q. 8. Distinguish between the following by giving one main point •
Q. 9. Members of which phylum are known as "the segmented worms"? Name the excretory units of
these organisms. Write about their body symmetry and mode of respiration also.
Q. 10. Mention the behaviour that birds exhibit.
Q. 11. Difference between turtle and tortoise.
Q. 12. Differentiate between Shark and Rays.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks each)
Q. 1 . Point out the differences between the following:
Q. 2. Distinguish between •
(a) Bony fishes and cartilaginous fishes.
(b) Exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
Q. 3. Give the salient features of class Cyclostomata.
Q. 4. In how many sub-classes does class Mammalia is divided?
Q. 5. "Mammals are the most successful and dominant animals today." Justify the statement with six
evidences.
Q. 6. Point out main differences between large bats and small bats.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Name the special cells characteristic of coelenterates.
Q. 2. Name a sanguivorous annelid.
Q.3. What organs do echinoderms have for respiration and locomotion?
Q.4. What is tube within a tube plan ? Give one example.
Q. 5. Which sponge is used as a marriage gift ?
Q. 6. What prevents the blood from clotting while the leech is feeding?
Q. 7. Name the toxin found in the cnidoblast of coelenterates.
Q. 8. Name the larva found in mollusca and annelids.
Q. 9. What do you understand by hermaphrodite ?
Q. 10. What is polymorphism ?
Q. 11. What are benthos? Ans. These animals live at the bottom of sea, oceans and lakes.
Q. 12. What are worm castings ?
Q. 13. What is mantle?
Q 14. Name the type of mouth part found in Cockroach and Mosquito.

Page 2 of 19
Q. 15. What are choanocytes ?
Q. 16. What are flame cells ?
Q. 17. What is radula?
Q. 18. Why do parasitic tapeworms not have digestive tracts?
Q.19. Name the larval stage of sponges .
Q.20. What are green glands ?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 1. What are the unique features of cnidarians ?
Q.2. Write about sexual dimorphism in Nemathelminthes.
Q.3. Distinguish between the following by giving one main point : Coelenteron and spongocoel.
Q. 4. What are the unique features of sponges ?
Q. 5. What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of
the animal kingdom?
Q. 6. Differentiate between Annelida and Arthropoda.
Q. 7. How annelids have receptors to sense the environment?
Q.8. Give two evidences that suggest molluscs have descended from annelids.
Q.9. How reproduction occurs in phylum Echinodermata?
Q. I O. What do you understand by metameric segmentation?
Q. 11. What is the difference between direct and indirect development?
Q. 12. Distinguish between Insecta and Arachnida.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1 . What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Q.2. What are coral and coral reefs ?
Q.3. Write short notes on •
Q. 4. How pearls are formed ?
Q. 5. Differentiate between male and female Ascaris.
Q. 6. Members of which phylum are known as "the segmented worms" ? Name the excretory units of
these organisms. Write about their body symmetry and mode of respiration also.
Q.7. Give important characters of Phylum Nemathelminthes.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Give distinguishing features of Phylum Porifera.
Q. 2. Write a brief note on reproduction of Platyhelminthes.
Q.3. Give the salient features of phylum Annelida.
Q.4.Give the important characters of Phylum Echinodermata.
Q.5.In how many classes phylum Annelida is divided?
Q. 6. Define the following :
(a) Nephridium, (b) Hirudin
(c)Prostomium,
(d)Peristomium
(e)Parapodia,
(f)Mantle,
(g)Ctenidia,
(h) Radula.
Q 7. Define nematocyst, polyp, medusa, mesoglea.
Q. 8. Write a short note on the circulatory system of Annelids.

Page 3 of 19
Q 9. Enlist the main features of Aschelminthes.
Structural Organisation in Animals
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. How many chambers are there in a heart of cockroach?
Q. 2. What are setae?
Q. 3. What is haemolymph?
Q.4. What is the function of nephridia?
Q.5. How many types of nephridia are found in earthworm based on their location?
Q. 6. What are the visual units of compound eyes are called?
Q. 7. Write the significance of typhlosoler region.
Q. 8. What is a nymph?
Q. 9. Name the cells which are analogous to the liver of vertebrates.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1. Malphigian tubules are proto structure of nephron. How?
Q. 2. Write a note on gaseous exchange in cockroach.
Q. 3. Distinguish between the followings:
(a) Prostomium and peristomium
(b) Septal nephridium and pharyngeal nephridium
Q. 4. Mention the function of the following:
(a)Ureters in frog
(b)Malpighian tubules
Q.5 How many types of nephridia are found in earthworm based on their location?
Q.6.Give reason why earthworms are known as "friends of farmers".
Q. 7. How can a male frog be distinguished from a female frog?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. l . Give an account olfactory canal of frog.
Q. 2. (i) Give three differences between frogs and toads.
(ii) What do you understand by open type of circulatory system?
Q. 3. What are malphigian tubules? What is it function?
Q. 4. Differentiate between male and female cockroach.
Q.5. How does a metazoan body become multicellular?
Q.6. Describe the structure of compound eyes of cockroach.
Q. 7. What is hepatic portal system?
Q. 8. What type of development occur in Periplanata americana? Write about nymphs.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Describe the external morphology of cockroach.
Q. 2. Answer in one word:
(a) Write the common name of Periplanata americana.
(b) What is the position of ovaries in cockroach?
(c) How many segments are present in the abdomen of cockroach ?
(d) Where do you find malphigiantubules ?
Structural Organisation in Animals
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What are mucus secreting cells called?
Q.2. Why intestinal mucosa has microvilli?

Page 4 of 19
Q.3. Which protein constitute bone matrix?
Q.4. What other name is given to transitional epithelium?
Q.5. Where does "deltoid ridge" is found?
Q.6. Name two proteins found in straited muscles.
Q.7. Name the type of epithelium that lines the buccal cavity.
Q.8. Why blood plasma is pale yellow in colour?
Q.9. What are myoblasts?
Q.10. Define ecdysis.
Q. I l . Name any one heterocrine gland.
Q. 12. What causes fatigue of the muscle fibre?
Q. 13. What is a ligament?
14. Name any two granulocytes.
Q. 15. What is the role of mast cells?
Q. 16. Name the tissue which lacks intercellular material.
Q. 17. What is mucus membrane?
Q. 18. What is neurology?
Q. 19. Name the tissue which connects muscles to a bone.
Q. 20. What are neuroglia cells?
Q. 21. What do fibroblasts synthesize?
Q. 22. What are dendrites?
Q. 23. Give one example each of exocrine, endocrine and heterocrine glands.
Q. 24. What is diapedesis?
Q. 25. Name the materials of which white and yellow fibres are formed.
Q. 26. Why are muscle cells usually called muscles fibres ?
Q. 27. Name any one bone and the part where exactly the blood cells are formed.
Q. 28. What are two main groups of epithelial tissues?
Q. 29. Where are RBCs formed?
Q. 30. Functionally, differentiate tendon and ligament.
Q. 31. Define thrombosis.
Q. 32. What is the unit of nervous tissues?
Q. 33. What do you understand by synapse?
Q. 34. What are myoepithelial cells?
Q. 35. What is single unit smooth muscles?
Q. 36. Where does areolar tissues occur?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. l . What is histology? Who coined the term?
Q. 2. What are functions of epithelial tissues?
Q. 3. What are the functions of mast cells?
Q. 4. Distinguish between myosin and actin filaments.
Q. 5. Write about transitional epithelium and its use.
Q. 6. What are endocrine glands?
Q. 7. Does lymph help in maintaining volume of blood? How?
Q. 8. What is Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate?
Q. 9. What are the main functions of nervous tissue?
Q. 10. What are fat storing connective tissues? Give its structure.

Page 5 of 19
Q. 11. Distinguish between simple and compound epithelium.
Q. 12. Give difference between dense regular and dense irregular connective tissue.
Q. 13. What is the difference between adipose tissue and blood tissue.
Q. 14. Differentiate between simple and compound gland.
Q. 15. Where is areolar tissue present in our body? Name the types of cells and fibres found in it.
Q. 16. Pawan was biten by an ant on finger and after few minutes the finger swells up. How does it
occur? Which cells are responsible for it?
Q. 17. Cardiac muscle tissues have both character of skeletal and smooth muscles, how? Explain.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1. Distinguish between cardiac muscles and striated muscles.
Q. 2. Name the tissues which perform the following functions:
(i) Haemopoiesis, (ii) Formation of antibodies,
(iii) Coagulation,
(iv) Locomotion,
(v) Transmission of message,
(vi) Protection against mechanical shocks,
Q.3. Differentiate between epithelial tissue and connective tissue.
Q. 4. What are the following and where you find them in animal body?
(a) Chondriocytes, (b) Axons, (c) Ciliated epithelium.
Q. 5. What are malpighian tubules? What is it function?
Q. 6. What are leucocytes? Mention their different kinds.
Q. 8. Differentiate between the fibres of connective tissue.
Q. 9. Name the major classes of plasma proteins and describe their functions.
Q. 10. What is the difference between blood and lymph?
Q. 11. How many membranes are found in epithelium? Give a brief account on each of them.
Q.12. Describe briefly the structure of voluntary muscle.
Q. 13. Write a note on glandular epithelium.
Q. 14. Explain the cell type and structure as well as functions of connective tissue cells.
Q. 15. Point out differences between: (a) Neuron and Neuroglia,
(b) Nerve fibre and muscle fibre,
(c) Myelinated nerve fibres and non-myelinated nerve fibres.
Q. 16. What are tendons and ligaments? Also give their function.
Q. 17. Differentiate between a bone and cartilage by citing two points.
OR
What are the main difference between cartilage and bone?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (5 marks each)
Q. 1. What are the cellular components of blood?
Q.2. Write briefly about the following:
Q.3. Describe with examples, various types of connective tissue.
Q. 4. How do erythrocytes transport oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood?
Q.5. Describe the microscopic structure of decalcified mammalian bone.
Q.6. What do you understand by cartilage? In how many groups are they divided?
Q. 7. Differentiate between striated, smooth and cardiac muscles.
Q. 8. Write any four important functions of each:
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue

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(c) Muscular tissue.
Q. 9. Describe various types of simple epithelial tissues with the help of diagrams.
The Living World
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What are the taxonomic aids or tools?
Q. 2. How many zoological parks occur in India?
Q. 3. Where was the first zoological museum started?
Q. 4. Which is the largest herbarium of the world?
Q. 5. Name the largest Herbaria of India.
Q. 6. How are insects kept in museums?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1. Give the role of botanical gardens.
Q. 2. Mention any two aims of zoological parks.
Q. 3. What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Q. 4. What are the steps involved in the preparation of herbarium?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II
Q. 1. Write a short note on botanical garden. Name some botanical gardens.
OR
Botanical gardens are living herbaria. Comment.
Q.2. What are taxonomic aids? Name a few taxonomic aids.
Q.3. How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
Q.4. Describe the role of museums.
Q. 5. Name some zoological parks.
Q.6. Name the other taxonomic aids used in modern taxonomic studies.
Q.7. How different specimens are preserved in the museums?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What are museums? Name some animals and plants which are preserved in museum.
Q.2. What are zoological parks? Write its significance also.
Q.3. What do you understand by herbarium? How it is prepared?
Q.4. What is the role of keys in taxonomy? Illustrate with example.
Q.5. A scientist has come across a plant which he feels is a new species. How will he go about its
identification, classification and nomenclature?
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What does ICBN stand for?
Q. 2. Define nomenclature .
Q. 3. Who is known as the father of Botany?
Q. 4. What is the need of taxonomy?
Q. 5. What is biochemical systematics?
Q. 6. Who introduced the term species?
Q. 7. Linnaeus is considered as Father of Taxonomy. Name two other botanists known for their
contribution to the field of plant taxonomy?
Q. 8. Why are common names not employed in scientific studies?
Q. 9. Who wrote 'Systema Naturae' ?
Q. 10. What does ICZN stand for ?
Q. 11. What is polynomial nomenclature?

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Q. 12. Write the names of two books brought out by Linnaeus.
Q. 13. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name. Mangifera
Indica or Mangifera indica
Q. 14. In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call this as
'diversity' or 'biodiversity'? Justify your answer.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 1. A plant may have different names in different regions of the country or world. How do botanists
solve this problem?
Q. 2. What processes are basic to taxonomy?
Q. 3. Do you consider classification of organisms is advantageous?
Q. 4. What is the utility of systematics ?
Q. 5. What is classical taxonomy?
Q. 6. Why nomenclature was necessary?
Q. 7. Given the scientific names of the following : Rose, Mango, Potato, Frog, Cat, Earthworm. Ans. Q.
8. Define classification. Can it be separated from nomenclature?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1. Why are classification systems changing every now and them ?
Q.2. What different criteria would you choose to classify people that you meet often?
Q.3. On what basis "new systematics" differ from classical systematics?
Q. 4. Distinguish between taxonomy and systematics.
Q.5. Binomial nomenclature is the most acceptable mode of naming orgranisms. Why?
Q.6. What is the correct way of writing a scientific name ? Give with example.
Q. 7. What is trinomial nomenclature?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Define taxonomy. Briefly explain the processes in Taxonomy.
Q. 2. Why biological classification is useful ?
Q.3. What are the guidelines for naming of organisms ?
Q.4. Why were most of the earlier botanists and zoologists chiefly taxonomists ?
Q.5. Who proposed Binomial system of nomenclature? Give scientific name of mango.
OR
What is the binomial system of nomenclature ? Who proposed this system ? Give the scientific name
of Mango.
Q.6. What is nomenclature ? State the practices of providing names to the organisms. Ans. Q. 7. How
classical taxonomy is different from modern taxonomy?
Q. 8. Brassica campestris linn
(a) Give the common name of the plant.
(b) What do the first two parts of the name denote?
(c) Why are they written in italics?
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1 . Who discovered viruses?
Q. 2. Who obtained viruses in crystal form?
Q. 3. What does the term virus means?
Q. 4. What does bacteriophage means?
Q. 5. Why lichens are called as dual organisms
Q. 6. From which lichen does litmus paper prepared?

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Q. 7. What are viroids?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q.1. What do you understand by the terms phycobiont and mycobiont?
OR
Write distinguishing features of viruses.
Q.3. Give an account of structure and life cycle of bacteriophage.
OR
What are bacteriophages? Describe their structure and life cycle.
Q. 4. What are lichens? What are the forms of lichens? Give any two uses of lichens.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II
Q. 1. Give the salient features of kingdom Animalia.
Q. 2. Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also
name four common viral diseases.
Q. 3. Give the importance of lichens.
Q. 4. Write salient feature of viruses.
Q. 5. What is bacteriophage? Also describe its structure?
Q. 6. What are the differences between viruses and viroids?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Describe the structure of viruses.
Q. 2. Why are viruses known as the intermediate between living and non-living entities?
OR
Organise a discussion in your class on the topice. Are viruses living or non-living?
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Name the cell wall material of fungi.
Q. 2. Why phycomycetes are called algal fungi?
Q. 3. Name any two antibiotics.
Q. 4. What is plasmogamy?
Q. 5. What is syngamy?
Q. 6. What is dikaryon?
Q. 7. Name the group of fungi commonly called sac fungi.
Q. 8. Name the fungus which causes the rust of wheat.
Q. 9. What are ascocarp?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1. Why some fungi are called as 'imperfect fungi'?
Q.2. What is the mode of nutrition in kingdom Plantae?
Q.3. What is alternation of generation? Explain.
Q.4. Neurospora - an ascomycetes fungus has been used as a biological tool to understand the
mechanism of plant genetics much in the same way as Drosophila has been used to study animal
genetics. What makes Neurospora so important as a genetic tool?
Q.5. Define mycorrhiza. How is it beneficial to the organisms?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II
Q.1 . Plants are autotrophic. Can you think of some plants that are partially heteroptrophic
Q. 2. In which group are the following found : Conidia, Zygospore, Ascospore, Sporangiophore.
Q.3. How ascomycetes are different from basidiomycetes?
Q.4. Give the distinct features of fungi of class Phycomycetes.

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Q.5. Give the scientific name of a species of fungus which:
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. l. What is an ascocarp? Describe the three types of ascocarp found in fungi.
Q. 2. What are the salient features of kingdom Fungi?
Q. 3. Give a comparative account of the classes of kingdom Fungi under the following:
(i) Mode of nutrition
(ii) Mode of reproduction.
Q. 4. Explain in detail the various methods of asexual reproduction in fungi.
Q. 5. Give the salient features of kingdom Plantae.
Q.6. Describe the various types of sexual reproduction in fungi.
Q.7. How ascomycetes are different from basidiomycetes?
Q. 8. What are antibiotics? Give some important antibiotics.
Q. 9. What do you mean by alternation of generation? Show it by a figure.
DPP-Ol
ITOPIC- Classification of Plants : Algae, Bryophyta and Pteridophytal
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What type of organisms have been included in kingdom plantae?
Q. 2. What are algae?
Q. 3. Name a red algae inhabiting fresh water.
Q.4. Which are the pigments responsible for red colour of red algae?
Q.5. Name a unicellular algae and the algae which reproduce sexually by conjugation.
Q. 6. When a palmella stage is formed in algae?
Q. 7. Name an algae which is used in laboratory culture media.
Q. 8. What is the importance of epizoic alga to tree dwelling sloth?
Q. 9. Name a parasitic red alga responsible for the disease red rust of tea and coffee plant.
Q. 10. Why are some bryophytes called liverworts?
Q. 11. What are rhizoids?
Q. 12. Name the bryophyte in which sporogonium is embedded in the thallus.
Q. 13. Define Protonema stage.
Q.14. What are tracheophytes?
Q. 15. Which types of plants are kept under the division thallophyta?
Q. 16. What are phycocolloids?
Q. 17. Name seedless vascular plants.
Q. 18. What are the main features of the flowering plants?
Q. 19. Define a sporophyll.
Q. 20. Which group of plants is called vascular cryptogams?
Q. 21. Name the food stored in red alga.
Q. 22. From which algae does bromine is obtained?
Q. 23. Why are Bryophytes referred as amphibians of plant kingdom?
Q. 24. Give the classes of Bryophytes.
Q. 25. Name the plant which is commonly called 'walking fern'.
Q. 26. What is apophysis?
Q. 27. What is Algin?
Q. 28. Write the economic importance of moss plant.
Q. 29. Define fertilization.

Page 10 of 19
Q. 30. Name the female sex organ in red algae.
Q. 31. What is Peristome?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 32. Define haustoria.
Q. 33. What is Rhizome?
Q. 6. Give the difference between red algae and green algae.
Q. 7. Why bryophytes do not attain great heights?
Q. 8. Explain the structure of vegetative cells and alternation of generation in Phaeophyta.
Q. 9. Enlist the uses of ferns.
Q. 10. Write in brief the structure of Spirogyra cell.
Q. 11. Describe the habit, habitat and morphology of moss.
Q. 12. Mention the points of differences between a zygospore and a zoospore.
Q. 13. Why Bentham and Hooker's system of classification was adopted?
Q. 14. What is the role of capsule in the life history of moss? Explain with neat diagram.
Q. 15. What are the structure of leaves found in ferns?
Q. 16. Explain in brief the structure of prothallus of fern.
Q. 18. Differentiate between: Liverworts and Mosses.
Q. 19. Differentiate between homosporous and heterosporous pteridophyte.
Q. 1. Write a note on economic importance of algae and gymnosperms.
Q. 2. How will you differentiate between green-algae and brown algae? Give one example of each.
Q.3. How does red algae differ from brown algae?
Q.4.What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance.
Q.5."Green algae are ancestors of land plants". Comment upon the statement.
Q. 6. Give the difference between red algae and green algae.
Q. 7. Why bryophytes do not attain great heights?
Q. 8. Explain the structure of vegetative cells and alternation of generation in Phaeophyta.
Q. 9. Enlist the uses of ferns.
Q. 10. Write in brief the structure of Spirogyra cell.
Q. 11. Describe the habit, habitat and morphology of moss.
Q. 12. Mention the points of differences between a zygospore and a zoospore.
Q. 13. Why Bentham and Hooker's system of classification was adopted?
Q. 14. What is the role of capsule in the life history of moss? Explain with neat diagram.
Q. 6. Give the difference between red algae and green algae.
Q. 7. Why bryophytes do not attain great heights?
Q. 8. Explain the structure of vegetative cells and alternation of generation in Phaeophyta.
Q. 9. Enlist the uses of ferns.
Q. 10. Write in brief the structure of Spirogyra cell.
Q. 11. Describe the habit, habitat and morphology of moss.
Q. 12. Mention the points of differences between a zygospore and a zoospore.
Q. 13. Why Bentham and Hooker's system of classification was adopted?
Q. 14. What is the role of capsule in the life history of moss? Explain with neat diagram.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q.1. What are the basis of classification of algae?
Q.2. What are the similarities between algae and fungi?

Page 11 of 19
Q.3. Name two pigments other than chlorophyll that are found in algae which help in grouping them
into red and brown algae.
Q.4. Write any four main characteristic features of algae.
Q. 5. How does the red algae prepare their food?
Q. 6. What are the modes of reproduction in algae?
Q. 7. What are phycocolloids? List their functions.
Q. 8. Why do mosses thrive only in moist habitat?
Q. 9. Describe the importance of mosses.
Q. 10. What are thallophyta? How many groups are included in it?
Q. 11. How does an algae differ from fungi?
Q. 12. What are horsetails?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 6. Give the difference between red algae and green algae.
Q. 7. Why bryophytes do not attain great heights?
Q. 8. Explain the structure of vegetative cells and alternation of generation in Phaeophyta.
Q. 9. Enlist the uses of ferns.
Q. 10. Write in brief the structure of Spirogyra cell.
Q. 11. Describe the habit, habitat and morphology of moss.
Q. 12. Mention the points of differences between a zygospore and a zoospore.
Q. 13. Why Bentham and Hooker's system of classification was adopted?
Q. 14. What is the role of capsule in the life history of moss? Explain with neat diagram.
Q. 15. What are the structure of leaves found in ferns?
Q. 16. Explain in brief the structure of prothallus of fern.
Q. 18. Differentiate between: Liverworts and Mosses.
Q. 19. Differentiate between homosporous and heterosporous pteridophyte.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks each)
Q. l. Give the diagonistic characters of Algae.
Q. 2. Why mosses and ferns are considered as amphibians of plant kingdom?
Q. 3. Differentiate between Red, Brown and Green Algae.
Q. 4. Describe the different modes of reproduction in Spirogyra.
Q.5. Write the characteristics of seedless vascular plants (Pteridophytes).
Q.6. Describe the similarities in sexual reproduction of Moss and Fern.
Q. 7. Differentiate between Antheridia and Archegonia.
Q. 8. What are ferns? Describe their salient features.
Plant Kingdom
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 mark each)
Q. 1. What are cone bearing plants called?
Q.2. What is endosperm?
Q.3. What are chilgozas?
Q.4. Name one tallest and one smallest angiosperm.
Q. 5. What do you understand by siphonogamy?
Q. 6. What is an ovule?
7. What are epiphytes?
Q. 8. What is polyembryony?
Q. 9. Give an example of unisexual angiospermic plant.

Page 12 of 19
Q. 10. Name the different whorls of a flower.
Q. 11. Name a wild gymnosperm.
Q. 12 What term is used for life cycle having diploid dominant phase and gametophytic phase
represented by few cells?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 1. Differentiate between Cryptogams and Phanerogams?
Q. 2. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds but then why are they classified separately?
Q. 3. Distinguish between dicots and monocots.
Q. 4. "A seed encloses three generations one within the others". Justify the statement.
Q. 5. Mention the adaptation of seed plants to land.
Q. 6. What are the main classes of gymnosperms? Briefly mention their properties.
7. What do you understand by double fertilization?
Q. 8. What are resins? How are they useful?
Q. 9. What are identifying features of angiosperms or flowering plants?
Q. 10. Mention the ploidy of the following: protonemal cell of a moss; primary endosperm nucleus in
dicot, leaf cell of a moss; prothallus cell of a fern; gemma cell in Marchantia; meristem cell of
monocot, ovum of a liverwort, and zygote of a fern.
Q. 11. Give difference between syngamy and triple fusion.
Q. 12. Give difference between syngamy and triple fusion.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II
Q. l. Write the salient features of vascular plants?
Q.2. Explain briefly the alternation of generation in bryophytes.
OR
What do you understand by "alternation of generation"? Explain it with the examples of moss.
Q.3.What are the main characteristics of Gymnosperms?
Q.4.How many types of life cycle does green algae exhibit? Explain.
Q. 5. Explain the life cycle of Pine.
Q. 6. Explain the following:
(i) Sporophyll (ii) Antheridium (iii) Archegonium
(v) Diplontic.
(iv) Isogamy
Morphology of Flowering Plants
DPP-02
[TOPIC- Parts of the Flowering Plants: Flower, Fruit and Seed]
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. l . What is coleorrhiza?
Q.2. What is scutellum?
Q.3. Name the male and female reproductive parts of a flower.
Q. 4. Where is aleurone layer found in plant material? What does it consist of?
Q. 5. Which are trioecious plants?
Q. 6. What do you understand by cotyledon?
Q. 7. Name the smallest and the largest flower.
Q. 8. In which family, the old sepal is anterior?
Q. 9. Define pseudocarp.

Page 13 of 19
Q. 10. Write the floral formula of a actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous, flower with five united
sepals, five free petals, five free stamens and two united carpels with superior ovary.
Q. I l . What are monoecious and dioecious plants?
Q. 12. What is pomology?
Q. 13. Give two examples of false fruits.
Q. 14. Write the floral formula of Fabaceae.
Q. 15. Can the sepals be caducous? At what stage?
Q. 16. Define composite or multiple fruits.
Q. 17. What is mother axis?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. l. Differentiate between: (a) Epigynous and Perigynous flower (b) True fruit and False fruit (c)
Alternate and Whorled phyllotaxy.
Q.2. What do you understand by staminode and pistillode? Differentiate between staminate and
pistillate flower.
Q.3. Give difference between apocarpous ovary and syncarpous ovary.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1. Give differences between Racemose and Cymose inflorescence.
Q. 2. Define aestivation, placentation, actinomorphic.
Q.3. Differentiate between extrose anthers and introse anthers.
Q.4. (a) Name the families to which these plants belong:
(i) Onion and lily
(ii) Potato and tomato
(b) Describe the gynoecium of any one of the families identified as above. Write its floral formula and
draw floral diagram also.
Q.5. Explain two types of anther lobes.
Q.6. Describe the arrangement of floral members in relation to their insertion on thalamus.
OR
Draw the labelled diagram of the following:
(i) Gram seed, (ii) V. S. of maize seed.
Q. 7. Define simple fruits. How many types of simple fruits are found in plants?
Q.8. What is seed dormancy? Give the types of dormancy.
Q.9. What are the natural overcoming of seed dormancy?
Q. 10. What is a fruit? Describe various zones of fruit by taking any example of succulent fruit.
Q. I l. Distinguish between the following:
(a) Dicot flower and Monocot flower (b) Gamopetalous and Polypetalous.
Q. 12. Differentiate between: (a) Marginal and Axile placentation
(b) Marginal and Parietal placentation.
Q. 13. Write the economic importance of plants of family Liliaceae.
Q. 14. What are the economic importance of plants of family Solanaceae?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. What is a floral diagram? What special features does a floral diagram inform?
Q.2. What do you understand by aestivation? How many types of aestivation are found?
Q.3. What is a flower? Describe the parts of a typical angiospermic flower.
Q.4. Define inflorescence and describe its various types.
OR

Page 14 of 19
Define the term inflorescence. Explain the basis for the different types of inflorescence in flowering
plants.
Q. 5. Give the structure of the maize grain.
Q. 6. Differentiate between Monadelphous, Syngenesious and Synandrous Stamens.
Q. 7. Briefly explain the diagnostic features of family Solanaceae.
Q. 8. What is Heterophylly? Give its types.
Q. 9. Describe the various types of placentations found in flowering plants.
Q. 10. Write an account of various types of fruits.
Q. 11. Give differences amongst three sub-families of Leguminaceae family.
VALUE BASED QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Students of class X were asked to prepare a herbarium file for their biology project. Teacher told
the children to collect the varieties of leaves and stuck them in the file with their informations. Sumit,
a student of the same class, during collection of leaves saw some modifications of the leaves. He took
those modifications and place them in front of teacher to ask his confusion.
(a)What are leaf tendrils? Why are they useful?
(b)Why are leaves important to plants?
Q. 2. Doctors recommended that fruits which are eaten by human beings should be an important item
of their food. Plants invest a lot of their reserve food in the formation of fruits.
(a)Mention the economical importance of fruits.
(b)"Fruit formation has its own biological significance." Justify the statement by giving some reasons.
Q.3. Ruchi has a good variety of flowering plants in her garden. She saw some flower arises from the
bud and some from the nodes. She saw birds and insects sit on brightly coloured flowers to suck their
nectar.
(a) Why flowers are considered to be a modified shoot?
(b) Name the floral organs of a flower.
(c) What values are shown by Ruchi to have flowering plants in her garden?
Q. 4. Avantika has a passion to collect different types of seeds wherever she goes. One day, she soaked
some seeds in water and saw that their seed coats were removed. As the seed coat removed, the large
embryo becomes visible. She found that in some seeds there are two fleshy structures whereas in
some there is only one fleshy structure.
(a)What are cotyledons? How are monocotyledonous seeds are different from dicotyledonous seeds?
(b)How are seeds useful to us?
Q. 5. 0m prakash used to go to vegetable market with his grandfather, a retired biology teacher.
Grandfather told 0m prakash that chillies, brinjal and tomato belong to the same family of plants and
asked him to find out similarity in these plants. (a) Identify the family to which these plants belong.
(b) What are the characteristic features of the family?
(c) What value is reflected in grandfather's behavior?
Q. 6. Pointing towards a sunflower plant, father asked Kailash, a biology student, to show him flower
of this plant. Kailash pluck flowering twig and pointed towards the big yellow structure at the tip of the
twig. Father laughed and clarified that it is not a single flower but a group of several flowers arranged
in a disc like structure.
(a) What is inflorescence?
(b) Define racemose and cymose inflorescence.
(c) What message is delivered by father of Kailash?

Page 15 of 19
Q. 7. Ishwar was reading a chapter on function of different parts of a green plant. His mother asked
him about the functions of roots. He replied that roots are meant for anchorage and absorbing water
and minerals from soil. Then mother showed him radish, carrot and turnip and asked him about the
additional functions that the roots perform. Read the above passage and answer the following
questions:
(a) What is the special function of roots in above examples? (b) What other secondary functions roots
are known to perform?
(c) What value is displayed by his mother?
Morphology
DPP-Ol
[TOPIC-I Modifications of Root, Stem and Leafl
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. How does plant morphology help in classification?
Q.2.How do pneumatophore roots help in gaseous exchange?
Q.3.Name the type of roots found in leguminous plants.
Q. 4. Give the function of root hair.
Q. 5. What is the main function of leaf lamina?
Q. 6. How is phyllode helpful to a plant?
Q. 7. What is the function of haustoria?
Q. 8. Name the special tissue present in the epiphytic roots of orchids.
Q. 9. What are epiphytes?
Q. 10. Give two examples of fasciculated roots.
Q. 11. What are lenticels?
Q. 12. How is a phyllode helpful to a plant?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1 Distinguish between fibrous root and adventitious root.
Q. 2. Define phyllotaxy. Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy.
Q. 3. Write the main characteristic of stem.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. l. Describe modifications of stem with suitable example.
Q.2. What is the importance of morphology?
Q.3. Differentiate between reticulate and parallel venation.
Q.4. Write major difference between petiole and pulvinus.
Q. 5. Where are leaf bladders found and what are their functions?
Q. 6. List the various functions of root.
Q. 7. What are the primary functions of a leaf?
Q. 8. How do you distinguish a simple leaf from a compound leaf?
Q. 9. Point out differences between Thorns, Spines, Prickles and the Bristles.
Q. 10. Explain the following:
(a) Clinging root, (b) Contractile root.
Q. 11. Phylloclade and cladode both are aerial modifications of the stem. Justify with examples.
Q. 12. How is a pinnately compound leaf different from a palmately compound leap
Q. 13. How do leaves get modified? Describe some of the important modifications of the leaf that you
have studied giving suitable examples.
OR

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How do the various leaf modifications help plants?
Q. 14. How many types of roots are found in plants?
Q. 15. Differentiate stem tuber (Potato) and root tuber (Sweet potato).
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is root? Briefly explain the regions or parts possesses in a typical root.
Q.2. Describe with examples modifications of adventitious roots.
Q. 3. Define buds. What are the modification of buds?
Q.4. What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of roots is found in the
(a) Banyan tree, (b) Turnip, (c) Mangroove trees?
Q.5. Justify the following statements on the basis of external features:
Q. 6. What is venation? Explain its types.
Q. 7. Differentiate between:
(a) Prop roots and Stilt roots
(b) Tuberous root and Fasciculated roots (c) Coriander and Mustard Inflorescence
(d) Monoecious Plants and Dioecious Plants.
Anatomy
DPP-02
[Topic: Anatomy of Root, Stem and Leaf; Secondary Growth
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1 . Define calyptrogen.
Q.2. What is quiescent centre?
Q.3. What are casparian strips?
Q. 4. What is an annual ring?
Q. 5. Name the most durable soft wood.
Q. 6. What is the function of cork in plants?
Q. 7. When do you refer a vascular bundle as a closed bundle?
Q. 8. What forms the cambial ring in a dicot stem during the secondary growth?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I
Q. 1. What do you understand by anomalous secondary growth?
Q.2. 'Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork.' Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Q.3. Differentiate between collateral vascular bundle and bicollateral vascular bundles.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II
Q. 1. What is phellogen? What does it produce?
OR
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in the dicot stem?
Q. 2. Distinguish between primary and secondary xylem.
Q. 3. How are secondary vascular tissues formed in dicot roots?
Q. 4. Distinguish between: (a) Exarch and Endarch condition, (b) Protoxylem and Metaxylem.
Q. 5. Why is cambium considered to be a lateral meristem?
Q. 6. Distinguish between primary and secondary meristems.
Q. 7. What is the significance of secondary growth?
Q. 8. Answer the following with reference to the anatomy of monocot stem:
(a) How are the vascular bundles arranged?
(b) How are the xylem vessels arranged in each bundle?
(c) Are vascular bundles closed ones? What type of tissues they lack?

Page 17 of 19
Q. 9. Define the terms: albunum and duramen.
Q. 10. Name the plant in which bicollateral vascular bundles are found.
Q. 11. What are the cells included in a stele?
Q. 12. What is the function of pith cells?
Q. 13. What is lysogineous cavity?
Q. 14. If one debarks a tree, what part of the plant is being removed?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks each)
Q. 1. How many vascular bundles are found on the basis of arrangements of xylem and phloem?
Q. 2. Distinguish between:
(a) Sieve tube and Sieve cell, (b) Phellem and phelloderm.
Q. 3. What is wood? Write its different types.
Q. 4. Why do stems of dicot plants increase in girth every year? Explain this growth with the help of
suitable schematic diagrams.
OR
Explain the process of secondary growth in the stem of woody angiosperms with the help of schematic
diagrams.
Q. 5. Describe the internal structure of a dicotyledonous stem/root.
Q. 6. Write a detailed note on the vascular bundles of monocot root.
Q. 7. Why wood is a unique raw material? Give its limitations.
Q. 8. Draw illustrations to bring out the anatomical difference between:
(a) Monocot root and dicot root.
(b) Monocot stem and dicot stem.
Anatomy
DPP-Ol
ITopic: Plant Tissues, Type of Plant Tissues, Epidermal Tissue System, Vascular Tissue
Systeml
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q. 1. Define tissues.
Q. 2. Which industry depends on the knowledge of wood anatomy?
Q. 3. Which meristem does produce growth in length?
Q. 4. What is axillary bud?
Q. 5. What are the meristematic regions that arises from root apical meristem?
Q.6. From where does the lateral root originate?
Q.7. Name the tissues which provides mechanical strength to the plant organs.
Q. 8. What is conjunctive tissue?
Q. 9. What is the economic use of phloem fibres?
Q. 10. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Q.11. Name the tissue represented by the jute fibres that are used for making the ropes.
Q. 12. What are stomata?
Q. 13. What are cotton fibres?
Q.14. How many types of collenchyma cells are found?
Q. 15. What is a bark?
Q. 16. Define promeristem.
Q.17. Define albuminous cells.
Q.18. Why is the root apical meristem subterminal?

Page 18 of 19
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-I (2 marks each)
Q. 1. What are lenticels? What are their functions?
Q.2. What are trichomes and what are their functions?
Q.3.Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Q.4. Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each
system.
Q. 5. What is a bark and what is their function?
Q. 6. Distinguish between a dicot and a monocot leal
Q. 7. While eating peach or pear, it is usually seen that some stone like structures get entangled in the
teeth. What are these stone like structures called?
Q. 8. Plants require water for their survival but when watered excessively plants die. Discuss.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS-II (3 marks each)
Q. 1. Briefly describe the types of xylem.
Q. 2. What are tissues? What are their main groups?
Q. 3. State the location and function of different types of meristem.
Q. 4. Write any three main functions of parenchymatous tissues.
Q. 5. Write differences between vessels and tracheids.
Q. 6. Anatomically, how many types of leaves are there?
7. Name the main components of xylem. Which of these is suitable for carrying water and why?
Q. 8. What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Q. 9. What is mesophyll tissue? How are they
Q. 10. What are lenticels? What is their role?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 marks each)
Q. 1. How many types of meristems are found on the basis of origin?
Q. 2. Give a brief account on the components of xylem.
Q. 3. What is epidermal tissue system? Explain.
Q. 4. Draw and describe the internal structure of leaf of a dicotyledonous plant.
OR
Describe the internal structure of a dorsiventral leaf with the help of labelled diagram.
OR
Draw and describe the internal structure of leaf in which stomata are found on lower surface.
Q.5. What is root apex? Name the three meristematic regions of it.
Q.6. Define meristematic tissue. Give their important characters.
Q. 7. What is phloem? Explain its components.
Q. 8. What are simple permanent tissues? Briefly explain their structure.
Q. 9. What is shoot apical meristem? Explain the theories of structure organisation of shoot apex.

Page 19 of 19
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK

CLASS –XI SESSION :- 2023-24

SUBJECT – BUSINESS STUDIES (054)

One mark questions :

Multiple choice questions:

1. Which of the following is a short –term source of finance?

A. Shares B. Trade credit C. Debentures D. All of these
2. The providers of ________ funds have a control over the management of business.
A. Owners’ B. Borrowed C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these
3. The liability of equity shareholders is ________.
A. Unlimited B. Limited C. Zero D. None of these
4. __________ Capital is used for buying Current Assets .
A. Fixed B. Working C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these
5. Retained Earnings does not involved any cost in the form of:
A. Dividend B. Interest C. Flotation Cost D. All of the above
6. Which of the following constitutes a source for long –term finance?
A. Retained Earning B. Equity Shares C. Debentures D. All of the above
7. _______ Capital is used for Buying Current Assets .
A. Fixed B. Working C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these
8. Out of the following, which one is not a feature of Owners’ Funds?
A. Risk Bearer Capital C. Periodic Interest Payment
B. Permanent Capital D. No Security Needed
9. Which of the following sources of finance does not create any change against the
assets of a company?
A. Equity Shares and Debentures C. Equity Shares and Preference Shares
B. Pres reference Shares and Debentures D. None of the above
10. _________ are more dependable than external sources as they do not depend on
investors’ preference and market conditions.
A. Equity Shares C. Retained Earnings
B. Preference Shares D. Debentures
11. Out of the following , which one is the type of Inter- Corporate Deposit?
A. Three Month Deposit C. Six Month Deposit
 B. Call Deposit D. All of these
12. Which of the preferential right is enjoyed by preference shareholders over equity
shareholders?
A. Voting Right C. Right to receive fixed rate of dividend
B. Right to receive repayment of capital D. Charge on Assets
13. Which of the following is the source of Borrowed Fund ?
A. Equity shares C. Global Depository Receipt
B. Inter – Corporate Deposits D. Indian Depository Receipt
14. Preference shares are referred to as Hybrid Securities because they have features of
both ___________ and ________.
A. Equity Shares, Debentures
B. Retained Earnings , Debentures
C. Equity Shares, Global Depository Receipts
D. D. Retained Earnings, Equity Shares
15. Retained Earnings is also known as :
A. Internal Financing C. Self Financing
B. Ploughing back of profits D. All of these
16. Which source of finance is available in normal course of purchase of goods ?
A. Inter – Corporate Deposits C. Trade Credit
B. Public Deposits D. None of these
17. Which of the following point highlight the role of small scale business in the
development of the country?
A. Promotes Balanced Regional Development C. Low Cost of Production
B. Employment Generation D. All of these
18. Investment limit in equipments micro service enterprises is:
A. Rs. 10 Crore C. Rs. 50 Crore
B. Rs. 50 Crore D. Rs. 1 Crore
19. ‘Performance and credit rating ‘ scheme is implemented by:.
A. DIC B. NSIC C. NABARD D. SIDBI
20. Out of the following , which incentive is not given by government to industries in
rural , backward and hilly areas?
A. Power at concessional rates C. Free Raw Material
B. Tax Holiday D. Loans at concessional rates
21. _____________ was set up by the World Association for Small and Medium
Enterprises and sponsored by NABARD.
A. Rural and Woman Entrepreneurship Development
B. The National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector
C. Small Industries Development Bank of India
 D. The Rural Small Business Development Centre
22. Out of the following , which one is not a feature of small business?
A. Capital intensive C. Slow Decision
B. Low Capital Investment D. Local area of Operation
23. In case of _____________, investors are individuals with surplus cash who have
keen interest to invest in upcoming start – ups.
A. Boost Strapping C. Angel Investment
B. Crowd funding D. Venture Capital
24. As per the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, a start up means and industry ,a start
–up means an entity incorporated or registered in India which is not older than
____years .
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. five
25. Which of the following method can be used to fund a Start –Up?
A. Crowdfunding B. Angel Investment C. Bootstrapping D. All of the Above
Assertion Reason based Questions :
26. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : The important of business finance has increased tremendously these
days.
Reason (R ): Goods are produced on large scale and capital intensive techniques are
used.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True.
27. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : Equity Shares Capital act as a temporary sources of capital for the
business.
Reason (R ): Equity Capital is to be repaid at the time of liquidation of a company .
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True.
28. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : The providers of Owners’ funds have a control over the management
of business.
Reason (R ): There is a risk involved in the refund of owners’ funds as they are the
primary risk bearer.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
29. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : Retained Earnings can only be used by an established firm and not by
a new firm .
Reason (R ): A newly established firm has not yet earned any profits to be used as
reserves.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
30. Read the following Statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : Small business is defined on the basis of investment in plant and
machinery and equipments in India.
Reason (R ): In India , there is scarcity of capital and abundance of labour.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
31. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
 Assertion (A) : Small Industries promotes balanced regional development of the
country.
Reason (R ): In case of small industries, quick and timely decisions can be taken due
to small size of the organization.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
32. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : Small business is an important source of employment generation.
Reason (R ): Entrepreneurs of small business command huge capital.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
33. Read the following statements : Assertion and Reason . Choose one of the correct
alternative given below:
Assertion (A) : Products of small industries gives a tough competition to products of
large companies .
Reason (R ): Small industries are unable to use modern technology and it is difficult
for them to invest in quality research.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion .
C. Assertion is True but Reason is False .
D. Assertion is False but Reason is True
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:
34. What do you mean by ED?
35. Wha is the investment limit in plant and machinery for micro manufacturing
enterprises ?
36. Mention the any two problems faced by small business.
37. State any two roles played by small business in rural India.
38. What do you mean by Trade Credit?
39. What is Retained Earnings?
40. What is the ICD?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:
THREE/ FOUR MARKS QUESTIONS:
41. Discuss the various characterstics of ‘Debenture’.
42. What do you mean by Owner Fund and Borrowed Fund .
43. What do you mean by “ Business Finance “? Explain the Sigificance .
44. What is equity shares? Discuss its features
45. What is Public deposit? Explain the features.
46. State the main functions of National Small Industries Centers.
47. State the main objectives of Start-Up India Scheme.
48. Explain the role of small scale Industries in Rural Areas.
49. Why does Small Business face shortage of finance and raw material?
50. Discuss the five incentives provided by Indian Government for industries in
backward and hilly areas.
51. Discuss the various features of Small Business.
52. What is the meaning of Entrepreneurship and Entrepreneurship Development.
53. Explain the concept of Intellectual property Rights.
54. Explain the short note on DIC .
55. Differentiate between the owner fund and borrowed fund .
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION:
SIX MARKS QUESTIONS:
56. Discuss the features of Retained Earning as a source of business finance.
57. Discuss the various points of difference between the equity share and preferance
shares .
58. Discuss the ‘Trade Credit’ as a source of finance.
59. Explain the features of ‘loans from commercial banks’.
60. Discuss the ‘Inter - Corporate Deposits’ as a source of finance.
61. Discuss the various ways to fund Start –up.
62. Discuss the various raasons for need of Entrepreneurship.
63. Small scale sector in India faces a lot of problems in its day -to- functioning . explain
the five such problems .
64. Explain the some important centers which give the the financial instititutional
Support.
65. Explain the future of Small Business Sector in the World.
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS – XI (2023 - 24)
CHEMISTRY (043)
Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

Chemistry developed mainly in the form of Alchemy and Iatrochemistry during 1300-1600 CE. Modern
chemistry took shape in 18th century Europe. Chemistry contributes in a big way to the national economy. It
also plays an important role in meeting human needs for food, healthcare products, and other material
aimed at improving the quality of life anything which has mass and occupies space is called matter.
Everything around us, for example, a book, pen, pencil, water, air, all living beings, etc., are composed of
matter can exist in three physical states viz. solid, liquid and gas. Particles are held very close to each other
in solids in an orderly fashion and there is not much freedom of movement. In liquids, the particles are close
to each other but they can move around. However, in gases, the particles are far apart as compared to those
present in solid or liquid states and their movement is easy and fast. Because of such arrangement of
particles.

Which of the following drugs is used for helping AIDs patients?

a. Taxol b. Cisplatin c. Steroid d. Azidothymidine

2. ________ completely occupy the space in the container in which they are placed.
a. Liquid b. Gases c. Solid and liquid both d. Solid
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

I. Methane is greenhouse gas

II. CFCs responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere
III. AZT is very effective in cancer therapy
IV. Chemistry doesn't play a major role in the growth of nation

a. III and IV b. III and I c. I and II d. II and IV

4. Who describes recipes for making scents?
a. Brihat b. Gandhayukli c. Atharvaveda d. None of these
5. Which of the following is the incorrect match?

Column A Column B

a. Solid change in liquid on heating

b. Liquid change into gas on heating

c. Gas change into liquid on heating

d. Liquid change to solid on cooling

i. Option (b)
ii. Option (d)
iii. Option (a)

Page 1 of 20
 iv. Option (c)

6. Mass of phosphoric acid needed to neutralise 100 g of magnesium hydroxide is:

a. 168 g b. 112 g c. 66.7 g d. 252 g
-1
7. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L , what will be the molarity of glucose in
blood?
a. 5 M b. 0.5 M c. 0.005 M d. 50 M
8. For a reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent in the following
reaction mixtures.
a. 14g of N2 + 4g of H2 c. 28g of N2 + 6g of H2
b. 56g of N2 + 10g of H2 d. 35g of N2 + 8g of H2
9. Assertion (A): The molality of the solution does not change with change in temperature.
Reason (R): The molality is expressed in units of moles per 1000 gm of solvent.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Equivalent weight of a compound differs in different reaction.
Reason (R): Equivalent weight = .
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
11. State True or False:

i. A pure compound has always a fixed proportion of masses of its constituents.

a. True
b. False
ii. In two isomorphous compounds, valency of dissimilar elements is same.
a. True
b. False

12. Fill in the blanks:

a. A ________ is the smallest particle of a substance that can have a stable independent
existence.
b. A pure substance is defined as a variety of matter, all samples of which have same ________
and ________.
13. How many oxygen atoms are there in 18 g of water?
14. How is empirical formula of a compound related to its molecular formula?

15. Calculate the mass percentage of each element of water.

16. The water level in a metric measuring cup is 0.75 L before the addition of a pebble weighing 150 g.
The water level after submerging the pebble is 0.82 L. Determine the density of the pebble.
17. A crystalline salt, when heated, becomes anhydrous and losses 51.2 % of its weight. The
anhydrous salt on analysis gave the percentage composition as Mg = 20.0 %, S = 26.66 % and O =
53.33 %.
18. A welding fuel gas contains carbon and hydrogen only. Burning a small sample of it in oxygen gives
3.38 g carbon dioxide, 0.690 g of water and no other products. A volume of 10.0 L (measured at S.T.P)

Page 2 of 20
 of this welding gas is found to weigh 11.6 g.
Calculate

i. empirical formula,
ii. molar mass of the gas, and
iii. molecular formula.

CHAPTER 2
Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

In view of the shortcoming of Bohr’s model, attempts were made to develop a more suitable and general
model for atoms. Two important developments which contributed significantly in the formulation of such a
model were the Dual behaviour of matter, Heisenberg uncertainty principle. Uncertainty principle which is
the consequence of the dual behaviour of matter and radiation. It states that it is impossible to determine
simultaneously, the exact position and exact momentum (or velocity) of an electron. If the position of the
electron is known with a high degree of accuracy (x is small), then the velocity of the electron will be
uncertain [(vx) is large]. Physical measurements on the electron’s position or velocity, the outcome will
always depict a fuzzy or blur picture. One of the important implications of the Heisenberg Uncertainty
Principle is that it rules out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons and other similar
particles.

1. Assertion (A): For a sub-atomic object such as an electron, it is not possible simultaneously to
determine the position and velocity.
Reason (R): x is the uncertainty in momentum.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

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complete study material for CBSE, NCERT, JEE (main), NEET-UG and NDA exams. Teachers can
use Examin8 App to create similar papers with their own name and logo.

2. Assertion (A): Radiation exhibits dual behaviour i.e., both particle and wavelike properties.
Reason (R): Electrons should also have momentum as well as wavelength.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
3. Assertion (A): The effect of the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle is significant only for the motion
of microscopic objects.
Reason (R): The trajectory of an object is determined by its location and velocity at various
moments.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
4. Assertion (A): De Broglie predicted that an electron beam undergoes convergence.
Reason (R): According to de Broglie, every object in motion has a wave character.
Page 3 of 20
 a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
5. Assertion (A): An orbit is a clearly defined path.
Reason (R): The wave character of the electron is not considered in the Bohr model.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
6. What is the total spin value in case of 26Fe3+ ion?
a. +2.5 or -2.5 b. +3 or -3 c. +2 or -2 d. +1 or -1
7. The formula E= his used to calculate:
a. wave number c. Energy of the ejected electrons
b. energy of quantum d. radiation emitted by a black body
8. Assertion (A): Hydrogen atom has only one electron in its orbit. But it produces several spectral lines.
Reason (R): There are many excited energy levels available.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
9. Assertion (A): The spectrum of He+ is expected to be similar to that of hydrogen.
Reason (R): He+ is also an one-electron system.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. State True or False:

i. The angular momentum of the electron is proportional to the order of the orbit i.e., mvr = nh / (2).
a. True
b. False
ii. The atomic mass is the sum of a number of protons and neutrons in the atom. Thus, the atomic
mass of an atom is always a whole number.
a. True
b. False

11. Fill in the blanks:

a. The electrons in an atom are 11 and its atomic mass is 23. The number of neutrons in the
nucleus of the atom are _______.
b. Electron, proton and neutron are called ________ particles.
12. Match the following:

Column A Column B

(a) Cu (i) [Ar] 3d8

(b) Fe2+ (ii) [Ar] 3d10 4s1

Page 4 of 20
 (c) Ni2+ (iii) [Ar] 3d54s1

(d) Cr (iv) [Ar] 3d6 4s0

13. What is the difference in the origin of cathode rays and anode rays?
14. What is the ratio of an electron?
15. Using s, p, d, f notations, describe the orbital with the following quantum numbers

a. n = 2, l = 1 b. n = 4, l = 0 c. n = 5, l = 3 d. n = 3, l = 2
16. Spectral lines are regarded as the fingerprints of the elements. Why?

17. Calculate the energy required for the process:

He+ (g) He2+ (g) + e-
The ionization energy for the H atom in the ground state is 2.18 10-18 J atom.
18.

i. The diameter of zinc atom is . Calculate

a. the radius of zinc atom in pm
b. number of atoms present in a length of 1.6 cm if the zinc atoms are arranged side by
side lengthwise.
8
ii. 210 atoms of carbon are arranged side by side. Calculate the radius of carbon atom if length
of this arrangement is 2.4 cm.

CHAPTER 3
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Test 01
Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers which is related
to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron, the elements
in the periodic table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d, and f. The modern periodic table consists
of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy shell. In accordance with the
Aufbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements respectively. The
seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long, the two series of f-block
elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of the main body of the periodic table.

1. Which of the following sequences contain atomic numbers of only representative elements?
I. 3, 33, 53, 87
II. 2, 10, 22, 36
III. 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
IV. 9, 35, 51, 88

a. I and II b. I and II c. I and IV d. III and IV

2. The last element of the p-block in the 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic
configuration.
a. 5f146d10 7s27p0 b. 4f14 5d106s26p4 c. 4f145d106s26p6 d. 7s2 7p6

Page 5 of 20
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3. Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the
present set up of the long form of the periodic table?

a. 109 b. 118 c. 126 d. 102

4. The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________.
a. Halogens b. noble gases c. heavy metals d. light metals
5. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C, and D are given below:

a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 b. 1s2 2s2 2p4 c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 d. 1s2 2s2 2p4

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electrons:

a. A < C < B < D b. D < A < B < C c. A < B < C < D d. D < B < C < A
6. Which ions has greatest radius in the following?

a. H- b. F- c. Br- d. I-

7. The ionization energy will be higher when the electron is removed from ________ if other factors
being equal.
a. s-orbital b. p-orbital c. f-orbital d. d-orbital
8. Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R): Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be
farther from the nucleus.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
9. Assertion (A): The valence electron of Li experiences a net positive charge which is less than the
actual charge of +3.
Reason (R): The 2s electron in lithium is shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of 1s electrons.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. State True or False:
i. In a period from left to right, reducing nature increases.
a. True
b. False
ii. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl and Br is F > Cl > Br.
a. True
b. False

11. Fill in the blanks:

Page 6 of 20
 a. Size of the atoms ________ from left to right across a period and ________ on descending in
a group of normal elements.
b. In the periodic table, vertical rows are known as _________.
12. Electronic configuration of some elements is given in Column I and their electron gain enthalpies are
given in Column II. Match the electronic configuration with electron gain enthalpy.

Column (I) Column (II)

Electronic Electron gain enthalpy / kJ

configuration mol-1

(a) 1s2 2s2 sp6 (i) -53

(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (ii) -328

(c) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (iii) -141

(d) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (iv) +48

13. What is the basis of triad formation of elements?

14. How many elements are known at present?
15. Eka-aluminium and eka-silicon were the names given by Mandeleev for the then-unknown elements
gallium and germanium respectively. A recently discovered element was first named as eka-mercury.
What is its atomic number? Write its group number, electronic configuration, IUPAC and official
names.
16. Which of the following pairs of elements would have a more negative electron gain enthalpy?

i. O or F
ii. F or Cl

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17. The first (IE) and second (IER) ionization enthalpy: (KJ mol-1) of three elements A, B and C are given
below:

A B C

IE1 403 549 1142

IE2 2640 1060 2080

18. Identify the element which is likely to be

Page 7 of 20
 i. a non-metal
ii. an alkali metal
iii. an alkaline earth metal

19. Discuss the factors affecting electron gain enthalpy and the trend in its variation in the periodic table.
CHAPTER 4
Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

The Lewis dot structures provide a picture of bonding in molecules and ions in terms of the shared pairs of
electrons and the octet rule. While such a picture may not explain the bonding and behaviour of a molecule
completely, it does help in understanding the formation and properties of a molecule to a large extent. The
total number of electrons required for writing the structures is obtained by adding the valence electrons of
the combining atoms. In general, the least electronegative atom occupies the central position in the
molecule/ion. After accounting for the shared pairs of electrons for single bonds, the remaining electron
pairs are either utilized for multiple bonding or remain as the lone pairs. The basic requirement being that
each bonded atom gets an octet of electrons. Lewis dot structures, in general, do not represent the actual
shapes of the molecules. In the case of polyatomic ions, the net charge is possessed by the ion as a whole
and not by a particular atom. It is, however, feasible to Knowing the chemical symbols of the combining
atoms and having knowledge of the skeletal structure of the compound (known or guessed intelligently).

1. Which of the following steps not involve in the formation of the lewis structure of nitrate ion.
a. Then draw a single bond between the N2 and each of the O2 atoms completing an octet
of O2 atoms.
b. Then complete the octet of one oxygen.
c. Then write the skeletal structure of NO2.
d. Count the total number of valence electrons of the N2 atom.
2. In NF3 and the position occupied by the central atom is.
a. N and C
b. N and O
c. F and O
d. F and C

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3. In ion the two negative charges indicate.

a. It is neutral.
b. Two-electron to be subtracted.
c. None of these
d. Two additional electrons.
4. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
a. SiF4
b. PCl3
c. Cl3CF
d. CIF
5. Which of the following is the Lewis dot structure of HNO3.

Page 8 of 20
 a.

b.

c.

d.
6. The number of anti-bonding electron pairs in molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory
is (Atomic number of O is 8):
a. 4 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
7. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by:
a. O2
8. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases the enthalpy of a liquid due to the:
a. increase in the attraction between molecules
b. decrease in the attraction between molecules
c. increase in the effective molar mass of hydrogen-bonded molecules
d. decrease in the molar mass of unassociated liquid molecules
9. Assertion (A): BF3 molecule has zero dipole moment.
Reason (R): F is electronegative and BF bonds are polar in nature.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds conduct electricity in solution as well as in molten form.
Reason (R): Ionic compounds are formed by sharing of electrons.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
11. State True or False:

i. NO molecule has bond order 3.

a. True
b. False
Page 9 of 20
 ii. Greater the bond order, greater is the stability of the molecule.
a. True
b. False

12. Fill in the blanks:

a. Pure covalent bond is formed when the electronegativity difference between the two atoms is
________.
b. Ionic bond is formed between ________ and _______ atoms.
13. How many - and - bonds are there in CH2 = CH-CH = CH2?
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14. Why does type of overlap given in the following figure not result in bond formation?

15. Use molecular orbital theory to explain why the Be2 molecule does not exist.
16. Explain the shape of BrF5.
17. Write the significance /applications of dipole moment.
18.

i. What factors the formation of the ionic bond. Explain with examples.
ii. Arrange the following in increasing order of ionic character and also give the reason.
NaCl, CaCl2, MgCl2, MgO.

CHAPTER 5(THERMODYNAMICS)

CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS TEST 01

Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

The enthalpy change occurring during a reaction when all the involved substances are in their standard
states, is called the standard enthalpy of the reaction.
The purest and most stable form of a substance at 1 bar and at a specified temperature is called its standard
state. e.g. The standard state of solid iron at 500 K is pure iron at 1 bar. The standard enthalpy change is
represented by writing the superscript to the symbol , i.e. by .

1. In some reactions heat is evolved when

a. None of these
b. HR > HP
Page 10 of 20
 c. HR = HP
d. HP > HR
2. The standard enthalpy of formation of diamond is not zero because
a. None of these
b. it is hard
c. standard state is graphite
d. standard state is diamond

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3. The standard heat of formation at 298 K for CCI4(g), H2O(g), CO2(g) and HCI (g) are -25.5, -57.8, -
94.1 and -22.1 kcal mol-1 respectively. Calculate for the reaction.
CCI4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4HCI(g)
a. -41.4 kcal
b. -82.8 kcal
c. 82.8 kcal
d. 41.4 kcal
4. Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
given enthalpies of formation of CH4, CO2 and H2O are -74.8 kJ mol-1, -393.5 kJ mol-1 and -286.2
kJ mol-1 respectively.
a. 891.1 kJ
b. 400 J
c. 891.1 J
d. 400 kJ
5. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon the formation
of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is
a. -315 kJ
b. -630 kJ
c. -3.15 kJ
d. +315 kJ
6. The Gibbs energy change in kJ/mole when liquid water boils at 1 atm and 100 oC: (Latent heat of
vaporization is 2072.3 J/mole)
a. 1.0
b. 37.3
c. 0
d. 2.072
7. The difference between H and U(H - U), when the combustion of one mole of heptane (I) is carried
out at a temperature T, is equal to:
a. 3RT
b. -3 RT
c. -4 RT
d. 4RT
8. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a. Viscosity
b. Refractive index
c. Density
Page 11 of 20
 d. Internal energy
9. Assertion (A): Molar entropy of vaporization of water is different from ethanol.
Reason (R): Water is more polar than ethanol.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Water in the liquid state is more stable than ice at room temperature.
Reason (R): Water in liquid form has higher entropy than ice.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
11. State True or False:

i. For a spontaneous reaction, G must be negative.

a. True
b. False
ii. A system in which the fundamental properties do not undergo any change with time is said to
be in thermodynamic equilibrium.
a. True
b. False

12. Fill in the blanks:

a. At absolute zero, the entropy of a pure crystal is zero. This is ________ law of
thermodynamics.
b. The pressure is an intensive property while internal energy is an _________ property.
13. Define enthalpy.
14. Define reaction enthalpy.
15. When is bond energy equal to bond dissociation energy?
16. The enthalpy of reaction for the reaction:
is
What will be the standard enthalpy of formation of H2O(l)?
17. Two moles of an ideal gas initially at 27 and one atmospheric pressure are compressed isothermally
and reversibly till the final pressure of the gas is 10 atm. Calculate q, W and for the process.
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18.

i. An athlete is given 100 g of glucose of energy equivalent to 1560 kJ. He utilises 50% of this
gained energy in the event. In order to avoid storage of energy in the body, calculate the
weight of water that would need to perspire. The enthalpy of vaporisation of water is 44 kJ
mol-1.
ii. Compound with carbon-carbon double bond, such as ethylene, C2H4, add hydrogen in a
reaction called hydrogenation,

Calculate enthalpy change for the reaction, using the following combustion data

Page 12 of 20
 ... (i)
... (ii)

CHAPTER 6( EQUILIBRIUM)

Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

For the following reaction,

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g); = -22.4 kcal; the favourable conditions are

i. high concentration of N2 and H2.

ii. high pressure (as = -2).
iii. low temperature (as the reaction is exothermic).

Although the low temperature favour the formation of NH3, yet an optimum temperature is set, as the rate
of reaction is very slow at low temperature. A temperature of 500oC is selected and a pressure of 200 atm is
applied in practice.

1. What is the expression of equilibrium constant for synthesis of NH3.

a.
b.
c.
d.

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2. What happens to the yield of ammonia produced when the pressure is increased?
a. Increases
b. Remain constant
c. Decreases
d. Increases and then decreases
3. Which substance is used as a catalyst promoter in the synthesis of ammonia?
a. Mn
b. Fe
c. Cr
d. Cu
4. In the reaction,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Which side equilibrium is shifted when we increase the pressure of the system?
a. Right
b. Left
c. First toward right and then left
d. No change
5. Formation of ammonia is a gaseous phase reaction taking place in 1 L flask at 127 oC. If starting
with 1 mole N2 and 3 moles H2, equilibrium mixture requires 500 mL of 1 MHCl. Than Kc is
a. 0.04
b. 0.03
Page 13 of 20
 c. 0.3
d. 0.4
6. The ratio of degree of dissociation of HCN (Ka = 10-9) in its 0.1 M and 0.001 M solution:
a. 0.4
b. 0.2
c. 0.1
d. 0.3
7. Which is not an acid salt?
a. NaH2PO4
b. NaH2PO3
c. None of these
d. NaH2PO2
8. Which of the following salts will give the highest pH in water?
a. KCl
b. CuSO4
c. Na2CO3
d. NaCl
9. Assertion (A): In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant pressure and temperature addition of helium at
equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl5.
Reason (R): Helium removes Cl2 from the field of action.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.
Reason (R): Acidic/basic nature of a salt solution of a salt of a weak acid and weak base depends on
the Ka and Kb value of the acid and the base forming it.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
11. State True or False:

i. When a strong acid is neutralised by an equal volume of a weak base, the resulting solution
will be acidic.
a. True
b. False
ii. Hydrolysis is reverse of neutralisation.
a. True
b. False

12. Fill in the blanks:

a. The ionization of a weak electrolyte _______ due to common ion.
b. A strong acid has ________ conjugate base and a weak acid has a ________ conjugate base
and vica-versa.
13. What inference do you get when ?
14. Write the chemical equation for the following chemical constant :
15. Lead chloride has a solubility product of 1.7 10-5 at 298 K. Calculate its solubility at this temperature.
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16. The species H2O, , and NH3 can act both as Bronsted acid and base. For each case, give the
corresponding conjugate acid and conjugate base.
17. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.5 10-10. Predict whether there will be any precipitation by mixing
50 mL of 0.01 M NaCl and 50 mL of 0.01 M AgNO3 solution.
18. The value of Kp for the reaction,
CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO (g)
is 3.0 at 1000 K. If initially, = 0.48 bar and PCO = 0 bar and pure graphite is present, calculate the
equilibrium partial pressures of CO and CO2.

Chapter 7(Redox reactions)

Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

When a strip of metallic zinc placed in an aqueous solution of copper nitrate for about one hour. The strip
becomes coated with reddish metallic copper and the blue colour of the solution disappears. The formation
of Zn2+ ions among the products can easily be judged when the blue colour of the solution due to Cu2+ has
disappeared. When we place a strip of metallic copper in a zinc sulphate solution. No visible reaction is
noticed and an attempt to detect the presence of Cu2+ ions by passing H2S gas through the solution to
produce the black colour of cupric sulphide, CuS, does not succeed. The competition for the release of
electrons incidentally reminds us of the competition for the release of protons among acids. The
competition for electrons between various metals helps us to design a class of cells, named Galvanic cells in
which the chemical reactions become the source of electrical energy.

1. What will happen if hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through the colour solution
containing Zn2+ ions.
a. Formation of Zn2+ ion
b. None of these
c. Zinc is oxidize
d. The appearance of white zinc sulphideZnS
2. Which of the following is not an oxidising agent?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Magnesium oxide
d. Ozone

Page 15 of 20
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3. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the rection of metallic zinc and aqueous
copper nitrate?

I. Zinc has lost an electron

II. Zinc is reduced
III. Copper is oxidize
IV. Copper accepting the electron loss by zinc

a. II and III
b. III and I
c. I and IV
d. IV and II
4. Which of the following is true as per the metal activity Series?
a. Zn > Ag < Cu
b. Zn > Cu > Ag
c. Zn > Ag > Cu
d. Zn < Cu < Ag
5. The intensity of blue colour increases gradually when
a. Zinc rod is dipped in the silver solution
b. Copper rod is dipped in zinc solution
c. Copper rod is dipped in Silver nitrate solution
d. Silver rod dipped in copper nitrate solution
6. Which among the following shows maximum oxidation state?
a. Mn
b. Cr
c. V
d. Fe
7. In the balanced redox reaction for the disproportionation of bromine in the presence of a strong
base, OH- producing bromide ion and bromate ion, the coefficient of bromide ion is ________.
a. 6
b. 3
c. 5
d. 12
8. C2H6 (g) + nO2 CO2 (g) + H2O (l) in this equation, the ratio of the coefficients of CO2 and H2O is
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : 3
c. 3 : 2
d. 2 : 3
9. Assertion (A): H2SO4 cannot act as reducing agent.
Reason (R): Sulphur cannot increase its oxidation number beyond +6.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

Page 16 of 20
 10. Assertion (A): A metal having negative reduction potential when dipped in the solution of its own
ions has a tendency to pass into the solution.
Reason (R): Metal having negative reduction potential have large hydration energy.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
11. State True or False:

i. When a negative ion changes to neutral species, the process is oxidation.

a. True
b. False
ii. In the reaction between chlorine and potassium iodide, chlorine is an oxidising agent and
potassium iodide as a reducing agent.
a. True
b. False

12. Fill in the blanks:

a. The photosynthesis in plants is an example of ________ reaction.
b. Oxidation number of an element in free state is _________.
13. Define reduction reaction.
14. Name the different types of redox reaction.
15. Calculate the oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO4 and Na2SO4.
16. Write two important functions of salt bridge in a galvanic cell.
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17. Justify that the reaction: 2 Na(s) + H2(g) 2 NaH (s) is a redox change.
18. Justify that the following reactions are redox reactions:

i. CuO + H2(g) Cu(s) + H2O(g)

ii. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
iii. 4BCl3(g) + 3LiAlH4(s) 2B2H6(g) + 3LiCl(s) + 3 AlCl3(s)
iv. 2K(s) + F2(g) 2K+F– (s)
v. 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)

Chapter 8( organic chemistry/Hydrocarbons)

Question No. 1 to 5 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:

The existing large number of organic compounds and their ever-increasing numbers has made it necessary
to classify them on the basis of their structures. Organic compounds are broadly classified as open-chain
compounds which are also called aliphatic compounds. Aliphatic compounds further classified as
homocyclic and heterocyclic compounds. Aromatic compounds are special types of compounds.
Alicyclic compounds, aromatic compounds may also have heteroatom in the ring. Such compounds are
called heterocyclic aromatic compounds. Organic compounds can also be classified on the basis of functional
groups, into families or homologous series. The members of a homologous series can be represented by
general molecular formula and the successive members differ from each other in a molecular formula by a –
CH2 unit.

Page 17 of 20
 1. Assertion (A): Hydroxyl group (–OH) is a functional group.
Reason (R): The functional group is defined as an atom or group of atoms joined in a specific
manner with characteristic chemical properties of the organic compounds.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

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2. Assertion (A): Non-benzenoid compound is a classification as the alicyclic compound.

Reason (R): Aniline is a benzenoid compound.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
3. Assertion (A): H2C=CH2 is a condensed structural formula.
Reason (R): Condensed structural formula is represented by omitting some or all of the dashes
representing covalent bonds.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
4. Assertion (A): Cyclic compound is classified as a carbocyclic and heterocyclic compound.
Reason (R): Thiophene is a homocyclic compound.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
5. Assertion (A): Tetrahydrofuran is aliphatic compounds
Reason (R): Sometimes atoms other than carbon are also present in the ring known as
heterocyclic.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

6. The radical, is aromatic because it has:

a. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
b. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
c. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
d. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
7. Which method will be used for separation of a mixture of acetone and ethanol?
a. Fractional distillation
b. Sublimation
Page 18 of 20
 c. Simple distillation
d. Crystallisation
8. Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy for C — H bonds in these compounds?

a. X > Z > Y
b. X > Y > Z
c. Y > Z > X
d. Z > X > Y
9. Assertion (A): Electron deficient species that can accept lone pair of electrons known as an
electrophile.
Reason (R): is an electrophile.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies of all canonical forms.
Reason (R): Resonance hybrid cannot be presented by a single structure.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

2Marks Questions

13.How many σ and π bonds are present in each of the following molecules?
(a) HC≡CC≡CCH3 (b) CH2=C=CHCH3.

14.Give the TUPAC names of the following compounds:

15. Which of the two: O2NCH2CH2O– or CH3CH2O– is expected to be more stable and why?

16. Explain why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a π-system.

Page 19 of 20
17. Draw the resonance structures for the following compounds. Show the electron shift using curved-
arrow notation. (a) C6H5OH

18. Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form trans alkenes. Will the butene thus formed on
reduction of the 2-butyne show the geometrical isomerism?

( 3marks/5marks question)

19. What are aromatic compounds and define order of preferences?

20. What is isomerism and explain different types of isomerism?

21. Define homolytic and heterolytic cleavage?

22. Differentiate between carbocation and carboanion?

23. Define and also explain its types?

1.Inductive effect 2.resonance effect

3.electrometric effect 4. Hyperconjugation

24. Preparation of alkanes,alkenes,alkynes and aromatic hydrocarbon.(all reactions)

25. Chemical properties of alkanes,alkenes,alkynes and aromatic hydrocarbon.(all reactions)

Page 20 of 20
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CLASS: XI (2023-24)
COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
1. Who has developed Python programming Language? In which year it was developed?
2. On what basis python has been named?
3. Explain any three merits of Python.
4. Explain any three demerits of Python.
5. Why Python is called a cross-platform language?
6. Give full form of Python’s IDLE.
7. What do you mean by IDE? Explain.
8. Name a few Python IDEs.
9. Why Python is called an interpreted language?
10. Does Python support UNICODE?
11. What are tokens? List all tokens in Python.
12. What are keywords? Explain. List a few keywords available in Python.
13. What do you mean by identifiers? Give any four rules to define an identifier.
14. What are literals? List all literals in Python.
15. How do you form string literals in Python?
16. Explain how you can use single line and multiline strings in Python.
17. What do you mean by complex literal? How will you write a complex value, explain with an example?
18. List Boolean literal?
19. What is “None”?
20. What do you mean by comments? How will you add inline, single line or multiline comments in Python?
21. What is a block in python? How is a block created in Python, explain with example?
22. How many spaces are used to define an indentation level?
23. Define variable in Python? How a variable does created?
24. What will happen if variable holding a value of integer type assigned another value of string type?
25. What do you mean by lvalue and rvalue? Give an example.
26. Give an example each of following:
i. Assigning same value to multiple variables.
ii. Assigning multiple values to multiple variables.
27. What is dynamic typing?
28. Explain the use of input() function with an example.
29. What type value is returned by input() function? If the integer or float values are to be input write an
example statement how will you use input() function?
30. Identify the types of following literals:
i. 23.789 ii. False iii. “True” iv. 34.71E-4 v. None vi. 4+3j 3 25
31. Identify valid or invalid identifiers:
i. True ii. Student-Name iii. IF iv. PRINT v. 1stAge vi. Number1
32. Find out the error in following code:
Salary= input(“Salary :”)
Bonus=10/100 * Salary
Print (“Bonus”, Bonus)
33. What do you mean by function?
34. Explain return keyword.
35. What is dictionary?
36. What will be output of the following code:

d1={1:2,3:4,5:6}
d2=d1.get(3,5)
0print(d2)

Page 1 of 7
37. Write the output of the code given below:
d = {"name": "Akash", "age": 16}
d['age'] = 27
d['city'] = "New Delhi"
print(d.items())

38. How is clear() function different from del statement?

39. What will be the output of the following python dictionary operation?
data = {'A':2000, 'B':2500, 'C':3000, 'A':4000}
print(data)
40. Assertion (A): A variable declared as global inside a function is visible with changes made to it outside the
function. Reasoning (A): All variables declared outside are not visible inside a function till they are
redeclared with global keyword.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
41. Assertion (A):- If the arguments in a function call statement match the number and order of arguments as
defined in the function definition, such arguments are called positional arguments.
Reasoning (R):- During a function call, the argument list first contains default argument(s) followed by
positional argument(s).
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
42. Assertion(A):Functionisdefinedasasetofstatementswrittenunderaspecificname in the python code
Reason(R): The complete block (set of statements) is used at different instances in the program as and
when required, referring the function name. It is a common code to 1 execute for different
values(arguments),provided to a function.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True

43. Study the following program and select the possible output(s) from the options (i) to (iv) following it. Also,
write the maximum and the minimum values that can be assigned to the variable Y.

(i) 0 : 0 (ii) 1 : 6 (iii) 2 : 4 (iv) 0 : 3

44. Define scope of a variable. What are two basic scopes of variables in Python?
45. What do you understand the default argument in function? Which function parameter must be given
default argument if it is used? Give example of function header to illustrate default argument
46. What is a key-value pair with reference to Python dictionary?
47. Write the output of the code given below:

Page 2 of 7
48. Write a program to illustrate “Keyword arguments”.
49. What are the characteristics of Python Dictionaries?
50. Explain Global vs. Local variables.
51. Does a function always return a value? Explain with an example.
52. Write the two ways to construct an empty dictionary.
53. Write a Python program to input ‘n’ names and phone numbers to store it in a dictionary and to search
and print the phone number of that particular name.
54. Define a function ‘Subtract Number (x, y)’ which takes in two numbers and returns the different of the
two.
55. Pretty has written a code to add two numbers .Her code is having errors. Rewrite the correct code and
underline the corrections made:

56. Write a statement in Python to declare a dictionary whose keys are 1, 2, 3 and values are Jan, Feb and
Mar respectively.
57. Write the output of following code:
x = {1:10, 2:20, 3:30}
x[2]=25
print(x)
58. Write the output of following code:

x = {1:10, 2:20, 3:30}

x[4] = 20
print(x)
59. Write the output of following code:

d = {'x': 1, 'y': 2, 'z': 3}

for k in d:
print (k, '=', d[k])
60. Write the output of following code:

d = {'x': 1, 'y': 2, 'z': 3}

for k in d.keys():
print (k, '=', d[k])

61. Write a program to enter names of employees and their salaries as input and store them in a dictionary.
62. Write the output for the following codes.
A= (10:1000,20:2000,30:3000,40:4000, 50:5000}
print A.items()
print A.keys()
print A.values()
63. Write 3 methods to import a module with an example.
64. Predict the output:

Page 3 of 7
65. Write a program to read 6 numbers and create a dictionary having keys EVEN and ODD. Dictionary's value
should be stored in list. Your dictionary should be like:
{'EVEN':[8,10,64], 'ODD':[1,5,9]}
66. Write a program that reads string from user. Your program should create a dictionary having key as word
length and value is count of words of that length. For example, if user enters 'A fat cat is on the mat'.
67. Write a function find_max that accepts three numbers as arguments and returns the largest number
among three. Write another function main, in main() function accept three numbers from user and call
find_max.
68. Write a function, is_vowel that returns the value true if a given character is a vowel, and otherwise
returns false. Write another function main, in main() function accept a string from user and count number
of vowels in that string.
69. Write a function named is_prime, which takes an integer as an argument and returns true if the argument
is a prime number, or false otherwise. Also, write the main function that displays prime numbers
between 1 to 500.
70. Write a function in python to find the sum of the cube of elements in a list. The list is received as an
argument to the function, in turn, the function must return the sum. Write the main function which
invokes the above function.
71. Find the output of the following code:

72. Write the output:

73. Write a program to input roll numbers and their names of students of your class and store them in the
dictionary as the key-value pair. Perform the following operations on the dictionary:
a) Display the Roll numbers and name for all students.
b) Add a new key-value pair in this dictionary and display the modified dictionary
c) Delete a particular student's record from the dictionary
d) Modify the name of an existing students.
74. Write the definition of a function zero_ending(scores) to add all those values in the list of scores, which
are ending with zero and display the sum. For example: If the scores contain [200, 456, 300, 100, 234,
678] The sum should be displayed as 600.
75. Write a definition of a method count_now(places) to find and display those place names, in which there
are more than 5 characters.
For example :
If the list places contains
["DELHI","LONDON","PARIS","NEW YORK","DUBAI"]
The following should get displayed :
LONDON
NEW YORK
Page 4 of 7
76. Write output:
defsimple_interest(principle, rate = 8, time = 1):
si = principle * rate * time / 100
print(si)
simple_interest(1200)
simple_interest(1200,11)
simple_interest(1200,11,4)
77. Write a function that:
(i) Asks the user to input a diameter of circle in inches.
(ii) Sets a variable called radius to one half of that number.
(iii) Calculate the area of circle.
(iv) Print the area of circle with appropriate unit.
(v) Return this same amount as the output of the function.
78. Give the output of the following code:-
list=['p','r','o','b','l','e','m']
list[1:3]=[]
print(list)
list[2:5]=[]
print(list)

79. Give the output of the following code:-

l1=[13,18,11,16,13,18,13]
print(l1.index(18))
print(l1.count(18))
l1.append(l1.count(13))
print(l1)
80. WAP in python to create a list of natural numbers from 1 to 50 using for loop.
81. WAP in python to take two lists of same size and create a third list of same size with adding elements at
the same location of 1st & 2nd list. E.g. if A=[1,2,3], B= [4,5,6], then C[5,7,9].
82. WAP in Python to accept any ten numbers from the user in a list and display the maximum number along
with its position.
83. WAP in Python to calculate & display the factorial of an integer list.
84. Predict the output of the following code in python:
T1=(1,)*3
T1[0]=2
print(T1)
85. Predict the output of the following code in python:
TupleA=’m’,’n’
TupleB=(‘m’,’n’)
print(TupleA==TupleB)

86. WAP in Python to create a phone dictionary for your ten friends and then print them in format:
name of friend : mobile number
87. Predict the output of the following code in python:
Fruit ={ }
L=*‘Orange’,’Apple’,’Grapes’+
for index in L:
If index in Fruit:
Fruit[index]+=1
else:
Fruit[index]=1
print(len(Fruit))
print(Fruit)
Page 5 of 7
88. WAP to display sum of even numbers up to number n entered by user.
89. WAP to remove all uppercase letters from the string and print the resultant string.
INPUT :COmpuTEr
OUTPUT :mpur
90. WAP to print all prime numbers between 5 to 50
91. What is cyber Bullying? Give an example to explain it.
92. Draw logic circuit of following expression:
(a) A’.B’.C+C’.A
(b)(X+Y+Z).(X’.Y)

(c) A’.B’ + A’.C

93. Convert the following:
(a) (43)10 (?)2
(b) (113)8 -(?)10
(c) (A8E)16(?)10

94. List 3 advantages and 3 disadvantages of social networking.

95. T1=(100,200,”global”,3,3.5,”exam”,*1,2+,(30,40),3,5,3))
Consider the above tuple T1 and answer the following question:
(a) t1[-8:-4] (b) 20 not in T1 (c) T1.index(5) (d)T1[2]*2 (e) T1[5:]
96. What is malware? Explain virus, worms and Trojans.
97.

(i) This email is an example of which cyber-crime?

(ii) What may happen if user will reply to email?
(iii) Is this mail is a spam?
(iv)What is cyber-crime?
(v)Give any one tip that help in preventing these type of attacks.
98. Differentiate between using example:
1) if / else 2) for / while 3) break /continue
99. Define proprietary software and write any two example.
100. What is the difference between compiler and interpreter?
101. What is digital footprint? Why is it so important?
102. What is phishing?
103. What is the difference between mutable and immutable? Explain with example.
104. What is a cross-platform software?
105. Write the following operators according to the precedence rule : or, and, not, <>, *, **, ()
106. What will be the output produced by following code?
a = 5-4-3
b=3**2**3
print(a)
print(b)

Page 6 of 7
 107. Start with the list[8,9,10].
Do the following using list functions
(a) Set the second entry (index 1) to 17
(b) Add 4, 5 and 6 to the end of the list.
(c) Remove the first entry from the list.
(d) Sort the list.
(e) Double the list.
(f) Insert 25 at index 3
108. State the differences between Iteration and Recursion.

109. Write the equivalent Boolean Expression for the following logic circuit:

109. Explain the following: (a) Adware (b) Malware (c) Virus (d) Trojans
110. What are the cautions kept in mind before using any social networking websites?
111. What are the psychological effects of cyber bullying and cyber trolls? What should anyone do
when he/she is facing any of the problem?

Page 7 of 7
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS- XI (2023-24)
ECONOMICS (030)
CHAPTER- MICROECONOMICS
1. Micro Economics studies the behaviour of an _________ unit.
a) Individual Economic b) As a whole
c) Both A and B d) None
2. What are the causes of Economic problems?
a) Unlimited human wants b)Scarcity of economic resources
c) Alternative uses of resources d) All of the above
3. Abbreviate MOC ___________
a) Marginal object character b) Marginal opportunity cost
c) Both A and B d) None
4. What are the reasons for the Rightward shift of PPC?
a) Migration b) War c) Skill development programme d) None
5. PPF can be a straight line: When?
a) Decrease in production of both goods.
b) More of both goods can be produced
c) All resources are equally efficient in the production of both goods
d) None of the above
6. MRT formula ___________
a) MRT = ∆x / ∆y b) MRT = ∆y c) MRT= ∆x*∆y d) MRT= ∆y / ∆x
7. Economic Analysis are ___________
a) Positive Economic Analysis b) Normative Economic Analysis
c) Regular Economic Analysis d) Both A and B
8. When Marginal Opportunity Cost increases, PPF is _________ to origin.
a) Convex b) Concave c) Direct d) All of the above
9. Economy is a system that helps to produce __________ and enables people to earn their living.
a) Goods and Services b) Scarcity c) Resources d) Human wants
10. Example of Macro Economics?
a) Production of a firm b) Demand of an individual consumer
c) Aggregate demand d) All of the above
11. Allocation of resources comes under ___________
a) Causes of Economic problems b) Causes of Central problems
c) Causes of Opportunity cost d) Causes of Marginal demand
12. MRT is ___________ because all resources are not equally efficient in the production of both
goods.
a) Decreasing b) Increasing c) Both A and B d) None
13. Positive Economics deals with ___________
a) As they are b) They ought to be c) Both A and B d) None of the above
14. ___________ is defined as the additional cost in terms of number of units of good sacrificed to
produce an additional unit of other good.
a) MRT b) MOC c) PPF d) Rightward shift
Page 1 of 14
15. “Rich people should be taxed more”, is an example of ________ Economic Analysis
a) Positive b) Productive c) Normative d) None
16. If MOC remains constant, PPF is __________ sloping straight line.
a) Upward b) Downward c) Central d) Behind
17. Scarcity means _________
a) Increase of resources b) Shortage of resources
c) Constant resources d) Both A and B
18. Allocation of resources explained as __________
a) What to produce b) How to produce
c) For whom to produce d) All of the above
19. How many properties of PPC are involved?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below:
Alternatives:
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is False
d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is true.
20. Assertion (A): Tools of microeconomics are demand and supply.
Reason (R): Microeconomics studies the behaviour of individual units of an economy.
Ans – b)
21. Assertion (A): Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) is a concave-shaped curve.
Reason (R): PPF shows all the maximum possible combinations of two goods, which can be
produced with the available resources and technology.
Ans – b)
22. Assertion (A): Human wants differ in priorities.
Reason (R): For every individual, some wants are more important and urgent as compared to
others
Ans – a)
23. Assertion (A): Macroeconomics is also known as Income and Employment Theory.
Reason (R): Macroeconomics aims to determine income and employment level of the economy.
Ans – a)
24. Assertion (A): Positive Economics avoids economic value judgments.
Reason (R): Positive Statements can be verified as true or false by comparing with actual data.
Ans – b)
25. Assertion (A): Sun rises in the east is a positive statement.
Reason (R): Positive statements are based upon facts and figures.
Ans – a)
26. Assertion (A): Microeconomics is the study of an individual unit of a commodity.
Reason (R): The basic tools of microeconomics are demand and supply.
Ans – b)
27. Assertion (A): Opportunity cost is also known as opportunity lost.
Page 2 of 14
 Reason (R): Opportunity cost is the amount of next best alternative sacrifice to gain an additional
unit of hte commodity.
Ans – a)
28. Assertion (A): Scarcity is the mother of all economic problems
Reason (R): Scarcity and choice go hand in hand.
Ans – b)
29. Assertion (A): Positive economics deals with what is, what was and what will ought to be.
Reason (R): Positive economics is based upon facts and figures.
Ans – b)
30. Assertion (A): Tools of microeconomics are demand and supply.
Reason (R): Microeconomics studies the bahaviour of aggregates like national income,
government budget etc.
Ans – c)
31. Assertion (A): Choice is the process of selection from available limited alternatives.
Reason (R): Resources are scarce and have alternative uses.
Ans – a)
32. Assertion (A): How much to produce is not one of the dimensions of what to produce.
Reason (R): Rich or poor, developed or underdeveloped, every economy faces central problems
Ans – d)
33. Assertion (A): Economics is the study of the management of human resources in the presence of
scarcity of resources
Reason (R): Resources are not scarce always but they are scarce in relation to the human wants
Ans – a)
34. Assertion (A): Microeconomics and macroeconomics are two branches of economics that are
studied in isolation from each other.
Reason (R): In an economic sense, what applies in microeconomics doesn’t hold true in
macroeconomics
Ans – d)
35. Assertion (A): Positive science relates to the statements which are based upon a value judgment.
Reason (R): Every economic statement can be classified either as positive science or normative
science.
Ans – d)
36. Assertion (A): Study of the central problem of ‘How to produce’ depends upon the problem of
choice of ‘What to produce’
Reason (R): All the central problems of an economy are interdependent on each other.
Ans – b)
37. What are the three central problems of Economy?
38. Give two examples of Micro and Macro Economy.
39. Define Scarcity.
40. What is the Production Possibility Frontier?
41. Define marginal rate of transformation.
42. From the scheduled PP evaluate MRT of good X.
PRODUCT POSSIBILITY A B C D E
Production of good X units 0 1 2 3 4
Production of good Y units 14 13 11 8 4
Page 3 of 14
43. What are the three central problems of an economy?
44. What is the opportunity cost?
45. What do you mean by economising of resources?
46. Define Normative Economics.
47. What does the problem for whom to produce refer to?
48. What does the opportunity cost mean? Explain with a numerical example.
49. What is the difference between the planned economy and market economy?
50. Explain the central problem of the choices of products to be produced.
51. Only scarce goods attract price.” Comment.
52. What does the slope of PPF indicate?
53. “Scarcity and Choice go together”. Comment.
54. “An economy always produces on, but not inside, a PPC”, Defend or refute the
statement.
55. Want satisfying capacity of goods and services is called_________
a) Production b) Capacity c) Utility d) Demand
56. ___________ is the total satisfaction a consumer gets from consumption of all units of a
commodity
a) Utility b) Total utility c) Marginal utility d) All of the above
57. ___________ is the net increase in total utility by consuming an additional unit of a commodity.
a) Utility b) Total utility c) Marginal utility d) All of the above
58. __________ is a quantitative combination of two goods that can be purchased by a consumer
from his given market prices.
a) Information b) Data c) Figures d) Consumers bundle
59. ___________ is the rate at which a consumer is willing to substitute good Y for good X.
a) Opportunity cost b) Opportunity gain
c) Marginal rate of substitute d) Marginal cost
60. Formula for MRS is ____________
a) Loss of good Y / gain of good X b) Loss of good X / gain of good Y
c) Gain of good y / loss of good X d) Gain of good X / loss of good Y
61. MRS Formula is _________________
a) -∆x b) -∆y c) (-∆Y / ∆X) d) Y/X
62. MRS abbreviated as _________
a) Marginal Rate of Substitution b) Marginal Rate of Subtracted
c) Margin Rate of Solvency d) None
63. Law of diminishing marginal utility describes that when consumer consumes _______of a unit
the utility derived from that unit _________
a) more and more b) less and less c) declines d) Both A and C
64. _____________ is a situation where a consumer is spending his income in such a way that he is
getting maximum satisfaction and has no tendency to change.
a) Equilibrium b) Consumers satisfaction c) Consumers equilibrium d) None
65. Consumer’s preferences are ____________ when consumer always choose a bundle having more
of one good and less of other.
a) Consumer budget b) Budget preference c) Monotonic preference d) Margin method
66. The approach to study What are the conditions for consumer’s equilibrium is?
a) Cardinal approach b) Ordinal approach c) Both A and B d) A or B
Page 4 of 14
67. Cardinal approach is also called________
a) Utility approach b) Indifference curve approach c) Ordinal approach d) All
68. Ordinal approach is also called___________
a) Utility approach b) Indifference curve approach c) Cardinal approach d) None
69. _____________ is the quantity which a consumer is able and is willing to buy at given price and in
a given period of time.
a) Demand b) Supply c) Quantity demanded d) Quantity supplied
70. ___________ is the total quantity purchased by all the consumers in the market at given and in
given period of time.
a) Quantity demanded b) Demand c) Market d)Market demand
71. _____________ shows functional relationship between quantity demanded and factors affecting
demand.
a) Cost function b) Factors function c) Demand function d) Supply function
72. __________ is an economic agent, who consumes final goods and services to fulfil his basic
needs.
a) Consumer Bundle b) Consumer c) Consumer Equilibrium d) None
73. __________is a table, which shows the quantity demanded of a commodity at various prices.
a) Demand function b) Demand market c) Demand schedule d) Quantity demand
74. Law of demand define _________
a) Price increases quantity demanded decreases as price decreases quantity demanded
increases, keeping other factors constant.
b) Price decreases quantity decreases as price increases quantity increases.
c) Price increases quantity decreases as price increases quantity increases.
d) None
75. A consumer is able and willing to buy at a given price and in a given period of time is known as
________________
a) Market demand b) Quantity demand c) Demand schedule d) Demand function
76. Downward movement along a demand curve is called _______________________ demand.
a) Expansion / Extension b) Contraction / Compression
c)Both A and B d) None
77. Change in demand, is also called as __________________
a)Quantity b) Quality c) Shift in demand d) None
78. Determinants of demand are ____________
a) Change In price b) Income of the consumer c) Price of good d) All of the above
79. Demand function shows the functional relationship between the demand of ___________ and
___________ affecting demand.
a) Goods, services b) Services, supplies c) Factors, services d) Goods, factors
80. When demand changes due to changes in determinants other than price demand it is called
a) Demand change b) Change in demand c) Change in quantity demanded d) All
81. When demand changes due to the price of its own commodity then it is termed as
a) Demand change b) Change in demand c) Change in quantity demanded d) None
82. ___________ is a graphical representation of demand schedule.
a) Curve b) Maps c) Demand curve d) None
83. Relation between price and quantity demanded of a commodity is___________
a) Direct b) Inverse c) Converse d) Positive
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84. Slope of demand curve is ___________
a) P/Q b) ∆Q c) ∆P d) ∆P/∆Q
85. Assertion (A): If a consumer consumes a good with a time lag then the law of DMU does not hold
true.
Reason (R): Human wants are unlimited, as soon as one want gets satisfied another want arises.
Ans – a)
86. Assertion (A): Different persons derive different levels of utility from the consumption of similar
types of commodities.
Reason (R): The want satisfying power of any commodity is known as its utility, which is
measured in ‘utils’ under the cardinal approach.
Ans – b)
87. Assertion (A): Consumer’s utility is the point of ‘Satiety’ where he attains maximum gain with
given resources.
Reason (R): A rational consumer always prefers the consumption of more units of goods as
compared to less units.
Ans – d)
88. Assertion (A): Marginal Utility can never be negative.
Reason (R): Total Utility is maximum when Marginal Utility is Zero
Ans – d)
89. Assertion (A): Total utility increases at a decreasing rate, when marginal utility falls but remains
positive.
Reason (R): Total utility is the sum of marginal utility
Ans – a)
90. Assertion (A): Marginal utility can never be zero.
Reason (R): TU is maximum when MU is zero
Ans – d)
91. What does the slope of PPF indicate?
92. “Scarcity and Choice go together”. Comment.
93. “An economy always produces on, but not inside, a PPC”, Defend or refute the
statement.
94. Law of DMU operates only with continues consumption.
95. What changes will take place in TU, when: (i) MU curve remains p ositive; (ii) MU
becomes ‘0’ ; (iii) MU is negative.
96. State the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium in the Indifference Curve Analysis and
explain the rationale behind these conditions.
97. A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y whose prices are Rs.4 and R s.5 per unit
respectively. If the consumer chooses a combination of the two goods with marginal
utility of X equal to 5 and that of Y equal to 4, is the consumer in equilibriumRs.Give
reasons. What will a rational consumer do in this situationRs.Use utilit y analysis.
98. “Law of Demand is a Qualitative statement”. Comment.
99. Distinguish between an inferior good and a normal good. Is a good which is inferior
for one consumer also inferior for all the consumers? Explain.
100. Derive the law of demand from the single com modity equilibrium condition
“Marginal utility = Price”.

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101. Distinguish between demand by an individual consumer and market demand of a
good. Also state the factors leading to fall in demand by an individual consumer.
102. Suppose there are two consumers in the ma rket for good and their demand
functions are as follows:
 d 1 (p) = 20 – p for any price less than or equal to 15, and d 1 (p) = 0 at any price
greater than 15.
 D 2 (p) = 30 – 2p for any price less than or equal to 15, and d 1 (p) = 0 at any price
greater than 15.
Find out the market demand function.
103. Why MP curve cuts AP curve at its maximum point?
104. Can AP rise when MP starts declining?
105. What are the different phases in the Law of Variable Proportions in terms of Total
Product? Give reasons behind each phase. Use di agram.
106. Let the production function of a firm be: Q = 2L 2 K 2 . Find out the maximum
possible output that the firm can produce with 5 units of L and 2 units of K. What is
the maximum possible output that the firm can produce with zero unit of L and 10
units of K?
107. Find out the maximum possible output for a firm with zero unit of L and 10 units
of K when its production function is: Q = 5L + 2K.
108. “The gap between AC and AVC keeps on decreasing with rise in output, but they
never meet each other”. Comment.
109. Why does the minimum point of AC curve fall towards right of AVC curve?
110. “MC can be calculated both from total cost and total variable cost and is not
affected by total fixed cost”. Discuss
111. Calculate TFC, if AC and AVC are Rs. 22 and Rs. 18 respectively, at output o f 10
units.
112. Classify the following as fixed cost and variable cost:
(i) Salary to manager of the company.
(ii) Wages to casual labour.
(iii) Payment of insurance premium for insurance of factory.
(iv) Payment for raw material.
(v) Payment of rent of Postpaid connection of Mobile Phone.
(vi) Interest on loan taken from ICICI.
(vii) Electricity charges beyond the minimum rent.
(viii) Payment of rent of the factory building to the landlord.
(ix) Commission to production manager on the basis of number of units produced.
(x) Payment of fuel used in machines.
113. Why AR curve under monopolistic competition is more elastic than AR curve under
monopoly?
114. Under what market condition does Average Revenue always equal Marginal
Revenue? Explain?
115. What is the relation between market price and marginal revenue of a price -taking
firm?

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116. Compute the total revenue, marginal revenue and average revenue schedules in
the following table. Market price of each unit of the good is Rs. 10.
Quantity sold TR MR AR
1 — — —
2 — — —
3 — — —
4 — — —
5 — — —
6 — — —
117. What would be shape of demand curve, so that TR curve is: (a) a positively sloped
straight line passing through the origin; (b) a horizontal line?
118. Why should MC curve cut MR curve from below to achieve producer’s
equilibrium?
119. A table showing TC and TR of a firm is given. Calculat e MC and MR and find out
the equilibrium level of output.
Output 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
TC 45 80 95 105 135 175 225 285 360 440
TR 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400
120. The equality of marginal cost and marginal revenue is a condition necessary for
equilibrium, but it is not by itself sufficient to assure the attainment of producer’s
equilibrium. Comment.
121. Why is the equality between marginal cost and marginal revenue necessary for a
firm to be in equilibrium? Is it sufficient to ensure equilibrium? Explain .
122. Explain why will a producer not be in equilibrium if the conditions of equilibrium
are not met.
123. Give one point of difference between individual supply and market supply.
124. ‘Supply curve is the rising portion of marginal cost curve over and above the
minimum of Average Variable cost curve’. Do you agree? Support your answer with
valid reason.
125. What happens to profits in the long run if firms are free to enter in the industry?
126. Explain the ‘Implications’ of the following:
(i) ‘Large Number of Buyers’ under Perfect Competition
(ii) ‘Freedom of Entry and Exit’ to firms under Perfect Competition
(iii) ‘Large number of Sellers’ under Perfect Competition
(iv) ‘Homogeneous Products’ under Perfect Competition
(v) ‘Perfect Knowledge’ under Perfect Competition
127. Explain the effect of increase in income of buyers of a ‘normal’ commodity on its
equilibrium price.
128. What will be the effect on equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, when price
of complementary goods increases?
129. If market demand function is given as: Q MD = 25 - 2P and market supply as: Q MS =
3P, then what will be the equilibrium price and equilibrium
130. Explain the effects of ‘Maximum Price Ceiling’ on the market of a good. Use
diagram.

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131. What are the effects of ‘price-floor’ (Minimum Price Ceiling) on the market of a
good? Use diagram.
132. Which of the following statements is true about the production function?
a. It shows the technological relationship between cost and inputs
b. It shows the technological relationship between output and input
c. It shows the technological relationship between price and inputs
d. It shows the economic relationship between output and input
133. Which of the following is the true meaning of opportunity cost?
a. It is the next best alternative that is available in a given situation
b. It is the next best alternative that is sacrificed in a given situation
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Both a and b are incorrect
134. Which of the following economists gave the statement ‘Supply creates its own demand’?
a. Jean-Baptiste Say c. James Madison
b. Thomas Jefferson d. None of the above
Answer: a
135. A firm comes to the point of shutdown when ________.
a. The total revenue is equal to the total variable cost
b. The total revenue is equal to the total cost
c. The marginal cost is equal to the average cost
d. The total cost is equal to the average variable cost
136. When the total revenue is greater than the total cost, it is a situation of _______.
a. Normal losses b. Abnormal losses c. Normal profits d. Abnormal profits
137. A firm makes ______ at the break-even point.
a. Abnormal profits b. Abnormal losses c. Normal profits d. None
138. Any movement along the supply curve happens because of _______.
a. Decrease in the own price of a commodity
b. Increase in the own price of a commodity
c. Both a and b are incorrect
d. Both a and b are correct
139. Which of the following is an example of a fixed cost?
a. The wages and salaries of employees c. The interest on fixed capital
b. The electricity bill d. None of the above
140. Which of the following statements is true?
a. When the production is zero, the total cost will also be zero
b. When the production is zero, the total cost will be equal to variable cost
c. When the production is zero, the total cost will be equal to the total fixed cost
d. When the production is zero, the total cost will be equal to marginal cost
141. When the marginal cost curve cuts the average cost curve, then the _______.
a. The average cost will be equal to the marginal cost
b. The average cost will be less than the marginal cost
c. The average cost will be greater than the marginal cost
d. None of the above
142. Assertion (A): When price remains the same at all levels of output, then Price = MC at the
equilibrium level.
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 Reason (R): When MC is greater than MR after equilibrium, it means producing more will lead to
a decline in profits.
Ans – b)
143. Assertion (A): The state of the Producer’s Equilibrium either reflects maximum profits or
minimum losses.
Reason (R): When MC > MR after equilibrium, it means producing more will lead to rise in profits.
Ans – c)
144. Assertion (A): A firm is at equilibrium when MR = MC and beyond that level of output, MC
must be falling
Reason (R): MC curve should cut MR curve from below to achieve Producer’s Equilibrium.
Ans – d)
145. Assertion (A): When price remains the same at all levels of output, then Price = MC at the
equilibrium level.
Reason (R): When MC is greater than MR after equilibrium, it means producing more will lead to
a decline in profits.
Ans – b)
146. Assertion (A): The state of the Producer’s Equilibrium either reflects maximum profits or
minimum losses.
Reason (R): When MC > MR after equilibrium, it means producing more will lead to rise in profits.
Ans – c)
147. Assertion (A): A firm is at equilibrium when MR = MC and beyond that level of output, MC
must be falling
Reason (R): MC curve should cut MR curve from below to achieve Producer’s Equilibrium.
Ans – d)
148. Which of the following statements highlights one of the essential conditions of perfect
competition?
a. A perfect competition has a number of sellers and a few buyers
b. A perfect competition has different levels of pricing for identical products at a particular point
of time
c. A perfect competition has the same pricing for identical products at a particular point of time
d. None of the above
149. Which of the following institutes recommends the minimum support price in India?
a. The minimum support price is recommended by the Ministry of Food and Agriculture
b. The minimum support price is recommended by the Food Corporation of India
c. The minimum support price is recommended by the Commission of Agricultural Costs and
Prices
d. The minimum support price is recommended by the Food and Agriculture Organisation
150. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct?
a. India follows the Capitalist economic structure
b. India follows the Socialist economic structure
c. India follows the Mixed economic structure
d. None of the above
151. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The process of charging different prices from different consumers for the same product is
called price extension
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 b. The process of charging different prices from different consumers for the same product is
called price control
c. The process of charging different prices from different consumers for the same product is
called price discrimination
d. None of the above
152. Which of the following statements is true about the average revenue curve?
a. The average revenue curve is shaped as a horizontal straight line in a perfect competition
b. The average revenue curve is shaped as a vertical straight line in a perfect competition
c. The average revenue curve is shaped downward to the right in a perfect competition
d. The average revenue curve is shaped rectangular hyperbola in a perfect competition
153. Which of the following statements is accurate?
a. Under the perfect competition, the marginal revenue and average revenue are indicated by a
common rectangular hyperbola
b. Under the perfect competition, the marginal revenue and average revenue are indicated by a
common horizontal straight line
c. Under the perfect competition, the marginal revenue and average revenue are indicated by a
common vertical straight line
d. Under the perfect competition, the marginal revenue and average revenue are indicated by
different lines that are sloping downward
154. ________ is determined when the quantity demanded of a commodity becomes equal to the
quantity supplied.
(a) Market supply (b) Market demand (c) Market equilibrium (d) None of the above
155. The price determined corresponding to market equilibrium is known as ______.
(a) Market supply (b) Market price (c) Market demand (d) Market equilibrium
156. The quantity sold at equilibrium level is known as
(a) Equilibrium quantity (b) Maximum quantity
(c) Quantity supplied (d) All of the above
157. Excess supply results in ______.
(a) Surplus (b) Competition among sellers (c) Both (a)&(b) (d) None
158. Excess demand results in_______.
(a) Surplus (b) Competition among seller
(c) Both (a)&(b) (d) Competition among buyers
159. Firm is a ______ under Perfect competition.
(a) Price maker (b) Price taker (c) Price influencer (d) Price controller
160. Industry under perfect competition is ______.
(a) Price maker (b) Price taker (c) Price influencer (d) Price controller
161. Each firm under market equilibrium earns_______.
(a) Supernatural profit (b) Negative profit
(c) Normal profit (d) None of the above
162. ________ is when decisions of consumers and producers in the market are coordinated
through the free flow of prices.
(a) Price elasticity (b) Price making (c) Price taking (d) Price mechanism
163. ______ operates under market equilibrium.
(a) Law of demand (b) Law of supply
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
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164. A situation where the quantity demanded is more than the quantity supplied at the prevail
marker price is known as;
(a) Excess equilibrium (b) Excess demand (c) Excess supply (d) Shortage
165. In excess demand, buyers are ready to Pay higher prices to;
(a) Sell the excess stock (b) Meet their demands
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
166. Situation, when the quantity supplied, is more than the quantity demanded at the prevailing
market price.
(a) Excess equilibrium (b) Excess demand (c) Excess supply (d) Shortage
167. An industry for which supply curve and demand curve intersect each other in positive axes is
known as;
(a) Equilibrium industry (b) Viable industry (c) Non-Viable industry (d) All
168. An industry for which the supply curve and demand curve never intersect each other in
positive axes is known as;
(a) Equilibrium industry (b) Viable industry (c) Non-Viable industry (d) All
169. A demand curves shifts due to;
(a) Change in price of complementary goods (b) Change in taste and preferences
(c) Change in population (d) All of the above
170. Supply curve shifts due to;
(a) Change in the number of firms (b) Change in taxation policy
(c) Change in the goals of the firm (d) All of the above
171. An increase in demand leads to;
(a) Rightward shift (b) Leftward shift
(c) Upward movement (d) Downward movement
172. A decrease in demand leads to;
(a) Rightward shift (b) Leftward shift
(c) Upward movement (d) Downward movement
173. Increase in supply leads to;
(a) Rightward shift (b) Leftward shift
(c) Upward movement (d) Downward movement
Read the following statement given below and choose the correct alternative
(a) Both are correct
(b) Both are incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
174. Statement 1- When Decrease in demand is equal to a decrease in supply, then a leftward shift
in the demand curve is equal to a leftward shift in the supply curve.
Statement 2- When Decrease in demand is more than the decrease in supply, then the rightward
shift in the supply curve will be more than the Demand curve.
175. Statement 1- When Decrease in demand is more than the increase in supply, then a rightward
shift in the demand curve is more than a rightward shift in the supply curve.
Statement 2- When an increase in demand is less than the increase in supply, then a rightward
shift in the demand curve is less than a rightward shift in the supply curve.
176. Statement 1- When Decrease in demand is equal to an increase in supply, then a leftward
shift in the demand curve is equal to a leftward shift in the supply curve.
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 Statement 2- When Decrease in demand is equal to an increase in supply, then a rightward shift
in the demand curve is equal to a rightward shift in the supply curve
177. Statement 1- When Decrease in demand is less than the increase in supply, then a leftward
shift in the demand curve is less than a rightward shift in the supply curve
Statement 2- When an increase in Demand is more than the decrease in supply, then the
rightward shift in the demand curve is more than the leftward shift in the supply curve.
178. Statement 1- When supply decreases, the supply curve shifts to the right and the demand
curve shifts to the left.
Statement 2- When the demand curve is perfectly elastic, it will be a horizontal straight line
parallel to the x-axis.
179. Statement 1- Government doesn’t intervene in the process of price determination.
Statement 2- Too low price of a commodity leads to more profits.
180. Statement 1- Foreign government plays an important role in determining the price of our
country.
Statement 2- The price of non-essential commodities is determined by the government
181. Assertion (A)- Price ceiling refers to the maximum price of a commodity at a level lower than
the equilibrium price.
Reason ( R )- price ceiling is also known as a maximum price ceiling.
182. Assertion (A)- The price ceiling is always fixed below the equilibrium price.
Reason (R )- The price ceiling is always fixed above the equilibrium price.
183. Assertion (A)- The equilibrium price can get too high which leads to low profitability of the
seller
Reason (R )- The equilibrium price gets too high and poor people are not able to purchase items
at that price.
184. Assertion (A)- Price ceiling leads to black Marketing.
Reason (R )- The price ceiling leads to a shortage.
185. Assertion (A)- The black market is any market in which the commodities are sold at a higher
price than the maximum price fixed by the government.
Reason ( R )- The black market is a consequence of the price floor.
186. Assertion (A)- Black market arises due to sellers, who are willing to sell at high prices.
Reason ( R )- Consumers face difficulty in obtaining goods from ration shops.
187. Assertion (A)- Government enforces Rationing system.
Reason ( R)- Government needs to meet the situation of excess demand.
188. Assertion (A)- Rationing is a technique adopted by the government to sell a minimum quota
of essential commodities at a price less than the equilibrium price to supply goods to the poor
community at a cheaper rate
Reason ( R )- Commodities available in the ration shops are often of inferior quality.
189. Assertion (A)- Price floor refers to the minimum price, fixed by the government.
Reason ( R )- The price floor is fixed for the poor community.
190. Assertion (A)- the price floor is fixed below the equilibrium price.
Reason ( R)- Price floor leads to excess supply.
191. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following
Column A Column B
A. Buffer stock 1. Demand
B. Rationing 2. Price ceiling
C. The behavior of firms in the market 3. Price floor
D. The behavior of consumers in the market 4. Supply
(a) A-1 (b) B-2 (c) C-3 (d) D-4
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192. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following
Column A Column B
A. Equilibrium price remains the same 1. Decrease in Demand when supply remains the
same
B. Equilibrium price and quantity rise 2. Increase in supply when demand remains the
same
C. Equilibrium price and quantity fall 3. Decrease in demand=Decrease in supply
D. Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium 4. Increase in demand when supply remains the
quantity rises same
(a) A-3 (b) B-2 (c) C-4 (d) D-1
193. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following
Column A Column B
A. Price ceiling 1. Price floor
B. Change in supply 2. Black market
C. MSP 3. Increase in supply
D. Decrease in demand 4. Rightward shift
(a) A-3 (b) B-4 (c) C-1 (d) D-2
194. “Government fixes support price for crops”, because;
(a) To support farmers (b) To increase the income of sellers
(c) Both (a)&(b) (d) None of the above
195. “Excess supply leads to falling in market price”, because:
(a) In this situation, the market price is more than the equilibrium price
(b) To sell the excess stock
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Read the following text given below and answer the questions that follow:
Market equilibrium refers to the point that arises under a given supply and demand condition and
has a tendency to remain at that level; where demand = supply.
If we deviate from our position due to a disturbance, economic forces will act to return them to their
original position; Demand = supply that can go back. In short, it is the resting position.
A viable industry refers to an industry in which the supply curve and the demand curve intersect on
positive axes.
The nonviable industry refers to an industry where the supply curve and the demand curve never
intersect on the positive axes. In India, commercial aircraft is an example of an unviable industry.
That means aeroplanes cannot be produced at all. Bear in mind that an industry that is not viable in
one country may be viable in another. For example, commercial aircraft are used in countries like the
US, UK, France, etc.
196. Equilibrium is situated where;
(a) Demand=Supply (b) Demand>Supply
(c) Supply>Demand (d) Demand<Supply
197. Equilibrium is the position of ____.
(a) Rest (b) Production (c) Supply (d) None of the above
198. In a viable industry refers to an industry in which the supply curve and the demand curve
intersect on ______.
(a) Origin (b) Negative axis (c) Positive axis (d) None of the above
199. Which of the following are examples of a viable industry
(a) Commercial aircraft (b) Wheat (c) Crops (d) None of the above
200. Commercial aircraft is an example of an unviable industry.
(a) India (b) France (c) US (d) All of the above

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR.SEC.SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS –XI SESSION 2003-24
SUBJECT- ENGLISH CORE (301)

SECTION-A (WRITING AND GRAMMAR)

1. Advertisement writing

i.You are Ranjan Mohan, Director of Fourtrell Apparels. You are looking for a Sales and
Marketing Manager for your company in the Southern Zone. Draft a suitable advertisement
to be given in the ‘Situations Vacant’ column of Bengaluru News offering attractive
remuneration.

ii. Applications are invited from suitable candidates for the post of assistant in the Delhi
administration. All applications are to be addressed to Director, Recruitment, Old Secretariat,
5, Rajpur Road, Delhi. Draft a suitable advertisement to this account in about 50 words giving
necessary details.

iii. You are Dr Madhu, M.D. You are looking for an independent house in Ghaziabad on a
reasonable rent for your residence – cum – clinic. Draft a suitable advertisement in not more
than 50 words to be published in The Daily Times, New Delhi. Your telephone no is 12341234.

v. You wish to sell your cycle. Place an advertisement in the classified section of a local daily
giving suitable details.

vi. Recent floods in Orissa, which left more than 200 people dead, have affected more than
2.1 million people in 3,128 villages. Draft an appeal to be published in a newspaper on behalf
of the CM’s Relief Fund asking for donations to “CHIEF MINISTER’S RELIEF FUND, ORISSA”. All
contributions to ORISSA CMRF may be sent to Joint Secretary to Government, GA (CMRF)
Department, Orissa Secretariat, Bhubaneswar 751001, Orissa.
vii. You are Ram/Rajani. Draft a classified advertisement, in not more than 50 words, to be
published in India Times for the sale of a used motor car giving all the necessary details. You
can be contacted at 12345679.
viii. You have found a ladies purse containing some valuable documents and cash. Draft an
advertisement to be given in a local daily.
2. POSTER WRITING
i. Design a poster for your School Fete. You may use slogans. Do not exceed 50 words.
ii. Design a poster in not more than 50 words for your school library on the value of books and
good reading habits. You may use slogans.
iii. As the manager of ‘Excellent Coaching Centre’ run by you, prepare a poster calling the
attention of students desirous of attending IIT, CPMT coaching to join your coaching centre.

1
iv. The Directorate of Education, Orissa State is organising an Essay Contest for all the students
of the state. Prepare a suitable poster which can be sent to different schools for display on
their notice-board.
v. Prepare a graceful poster for the Inter-School Poetic Recitation contest that the Hindi
Sahitya Sabha of your school is organising to celebrate the birthday of MunshiPrem Chand
3. Speech Writing

i. You are Ratan/Radha of Class XI. You have been asked to write a debate on the motion:
‘Extracurricular Activities Should Be Accorded Equal Importance as Academics’. Write a speech
for the motion.
ii. A volunteer of the National AIDS Foundation, deliver a speech for the students of classes
IX-XII on the causes, spread, and prevention of this disease. You are Uday Man Singh.
iii. Write a speech in 150-200 words on ‘Benefits of early rising’ to be delivered by you in the
morning assembly of your school. You are Karuna/Karan, Head Girl/Head Boy.
iv. You are Ali/Alia, Head girl / Head boy of your school. You are deeply disturbed by the rising
cases of aggressive behaviour of students in your school. You decide to speak during the
morning assembly about it. Write a speech on ‘Indiscipline in Schools’. (150 – 200 words)
v. The recent rise in incidents of violent behaviour of students is a matter of concern for all.
The problem can be curbed if students learn how to manage anger. Write a speech on the
topic in 150-200 words to be delivered in the school morning assembly.
4.DEBATE WRITING
i. Brain drain is not a bane for a developing country like India.’ Write a debate in 150 – 200
words either for or against the motion.
ii. You are Mukul / Mahima of Alps Public School. Your school has organized a debate on “Social
Media and It’s Effects” and you will be participating in your school. Prepare your views against
or in favour of the motion. (120 – 150 words)
iii.“Online Smart Classes are the future of the education style”. Write a debate either for or
against the motion. (120 – 150 words). (5)
iv. Homes for the aged is a necessity in India ‘. Write a debate in 120- 150 words either for or
against the motion. You are Shivam/ Shivani.
v. You are a NEET aspirant. Your institution is organising a debate competition on the topic
“Are entrance exams advantageous?”. You wish to present your views on the topic. Write a
debate on the given topic in 150-200 words
Grammar
.4. Complete the dialogue using clauses given in the box:
4.1. What your friend likes most; that it may he quite expensive;
What present I should buy, which she could use and cherish.

Rita: Hello, Anita! why do you look so worried?

Anita: Well, I’ve to go to my cousin Sunita’s birthday party, and Pam unable to
decide (a) ………………………………
Rita: Let me know (b) ………………………………
Anita: She loves cosmetics, perfumes, ear-rings, and gaudy dresses.
Rita: Well, you could offer‘her some items (c) ………………………………
Anita: But I fear (d) ………………………………

2
Rita: Not at all. You can buy one for your pocket money. I saw a French perfume
which is quite aromatic and not so expensive.

4.2. Ravi and Raj are planning to visit Jaipur. Complete the dialogue between them using
the following sentences as clauses:
how are we going?
what are we carrying?
when I was child.
Ravi : I am really excited about the trip.
Raj : I have been to the place (a) ……………………………
Ravi : Tell me (b) …………………………… by car or by train.
Raj : We’ll be going by car. Have you decided (c) …………………………
4.3. Fill in the blanks with proper connectives in the sentences given below:
1. The boy, …………. Is reciting the poem, is my brother.
2. Sunil is in the habit of abusing …………. Comes before him.
3. He went away saying …………. He would not see her.
4. I know the place …………. He lives.
5. Life is …………. We make it.
6. I want to know …………. You will return.
7. I know …………. He has cheated you.
8. Uneasy lies the head …………. Wears the crown.
9. This is the cat …………. Drank all the milk.
10. The lawyer ………….we hired was very clever.
4.4 Transform the following sentences as directed:
1. He was afraid, therefore, he ran away. (Into a Complex
Sentence)
2. Though he worked hard, he failed. (Into a Compound
Sentence)
3. All that glitters is not gold. (Into a Simple
Sentence)
4. I am glad to know of his success. (Into a Complex
Sentence)
5. To add to his misfortune, his father died. (Into a Compound
Sentence)
6. He confessed to his crime. (Into a Complex
Sentence)
7. We must eat to live. (Into a Complex
Sentence)
8. The teacher punished the boy for disobedience. (Into a Compound
Sentence)
9. I don’t know the time of his death. (Into a Complex
Sentence)
10. But for your help, I would have been ruined. (Begin
using ‘if’)

5. Read the words and phrases below. Rearrange them to form meaningful sentences.
i. (a) the/is/world/wrestling/oldest sports/in/the/one of
(b)of/Europe/ancient/people/cave/wrestling/have been/drawings/in/found
(c) television/amateur wrestling/very different/the/from/is/professional wrestling/on/seen/the

3
(d) sport/not/money/amateur wrestlers/do/wrestle/love/for/they/wrestle/for the/of the
(e) the/Olympics/the top goal/nearly/at/every/of/is/to compete/amateur wrestler

ii.(a) communications/not matter/were slow/it did/between different/when the/parts of the world

(b) for a/people feel/our times/the need/but in/common language
(c) to the put forward/solutions/problem/have been/various
(d) unconnected with/creation of/the first/an artificial language/was the/any existing language
(e) invention of a/natural/based on/the second solution/synthetic language/was the

iii. (a) Ramesh/the park/a boy/met/one day/in

(b) was/old/young boy/seven years/the/only
(c) asked/the nearest/he/bookstore/about/him
(d) wanted/buy/he/to/books/a few
(e) governments of the/international language/almost unlikely/to an/world will agree that the/it is

iv. (a) is/an/known/Jaipur/Pink City.

(b) in the/are/building/city/in pink colour/ painted/most of the
(c) have made / a popular / it / its / historical buildings / destination/ tourist.
(d) go there / one / bus / from Delhi / can easily / by

v. (a) wear / these / people / a majority / of / days / a watch

(b) time / it / in / measures / seconds / and / hours / minutes
(c) shapes / different / a wristwatch / sizes / and / is available /it
(d) like / digital / while / prefer / wristwatches / mechanical ones / others / some people

6. LITERATURE (Prose, Poetry and Supplementary Reader)

Extracts from the Textbook Hornbill

Extract- 1
We lifted her off the bed and, as is customary, laid her on the ground and covered her with a
red shroud. After a few hours of mourning, we left her alone to make arrangements for her
funeral. In the evening we went to her room with a crude stretcher to take her to be cremated.
The sun was setting and had lit her room and verandah with a blaze of golden light. We
stopped half-way in the courtyard.
All over the verandah and in her room right up to where she lay dead and stiff wrapped in
the red shroud, thousands of sparrows sat scattered on the floor. There was no chirruping.
We felt sorry for the birds and my mother fetched some bread for them. She broke it into
little crumbs, the way my grandmother used to, and threw it to them. The sparrows took no
notice of the bread. When we carried my grandmother’s corpse off, they flew away quietly.
Next morning the sweeper swept the bread crumbs into the dustbin.
Questions:

i. Who was covered with a red shroud?

(a)The grandfather (b)the grand mother
(c)The mother (d)the poet’s sister

ii) Why did the birds not eat the breadcrumbs?

(a)Because they were not hungry
(b) because they were mourning

4
 (c)Because they wanted to eat something else
(d) because they had no time to eat

iii) Which word in the passage means ‘a dead body’?

(a)Shroud (b) blaze
(c)Corpse (d) funeral

iv) Who is the author of the above passage?

(a) Nick Middleton (b) Khushwant Singh
(b) A. R. Williams (d) Shirley Toulson

v) The birds ----

(a)ate the bread crumbs
(b) did not eat bread crumbs
(c)swept the bread crumbs into the dustbin
(d) chirruped loudly

Extract -2

People said that she had once been young and pretty and even had a husband, but that was
hard to believe. My grandfather’s portrait hung above the mantelpiece in the drawing room.
He wore big turban and loose-fitting clothes. His long, white beard covered the best part of
his chest and he looked like a hundred years old.
Questions:
i) Who is the author of the above extract?

(a)Khushwant Singh (b) James Harriot

(c)Gordon Cook (d)Alan East

(ii) Who has been referred as ‘she’ in above extract?

(a)Sister of the author (b)Mother of the author

(c)Grandmother of the author (d)Aunt of the author

(iii) Which word in the extract means ‘picture of face’?

(a)Turban (b)Beard
(c)Portrait (d)Mantelpiece

(iv) According to the extract, how old did the grandfather look in his portrait?
(a)Hundred years (b)Less than hundred years
(c)More than hundred year (d)None of the above

(v) Which of the following has not been depicted in the portrait?
(a)Beard (b)Turban
(c)Clothes (d)Ornaments
Extract-3

5
IN July 1976, my wife Mary, son Jonathan, 6, daughter Suzanne, 7, and I set sail from
Plymouth, England, to duplicate the round-the-world voyage made 200 years earlier by
Captain James Cook. For the longest time, Mary and I — a 37-year-old businessman — had
dreamt of sailing in the wake of the famous explorer, and for the past 16 years, we had spent
all our leisure time honing our seafaring skills in British waters. Our boat Wave walker, a 23
meter, 30-ton wooden-hulled beauty, had been professionally built, and we had spent
months fitting it out and testing it in the roughest weather we could find. The first leg of our
planned three-year, 105,000 kilometre journey passed pleasantly as we sailed down the
west coast of Africa to Cape Town
. Questions:
i) What was the occupation of the writer?
(a) A businessman (b) a sailor
(b) A doctor d) a Navy office

ii) What does ‘seafaring’ mean?

(a) Swimming in a sea (b) trading by sea
(c)Regular travelling by sea (d) None of these
iii) What was the name of their boat?
(a)Titanic (b) Voyager
(c) Wave walker (d) Avenger

iv) Which of these is similar in meaning to leisure?

(a)Limited time (b) free time
(c)Labour (d) difficulty

v) Two hundred years ago, a round-the-world voyage was made by Captain James Cook.
True/ False

Extract- 4
That evening, Mary and I sat together holding hands, as the motion of the ship brought
more and more water in through the broken planks. We both felt the end was very near. But
Wave walker rode out the storm and by the morning of January 6, with the wind easing, I
tried to get a reading on the sextant.
Questions:
i) Who is Mary?
(a)Wife of author (b) mother of Sue
(c)Mother of Jon (d) all of the above

(ii)Why Mary and the author were holding hands of each other?
(a)They wanted to heal the hands of each other.
(b)They wanted to remain on the ship.
(c)They wanted to comfort each other.
(d)They wanted to jump in the sea together.

(iii) What is the meaning of phrase ‘rode out’ in above extract?

(a )Went out (b) came out
(c) Jumped out (d dug out

6
(iv) What did the couple think about their situation?
(a)It will improve. (b)It will remain the same.
(c)Their end was near (d)They could not decide anything.

v) Sextant is used for measuring-

(a)Weight (b) angle
(c) speed (d) opacity

Extract-5
He was just a teenager when he died. The last heir of a powerful family that had ruled Egypt
and its empire for centuries, he was laid to rest laden with gold and eventually forgotten.
Since the discovery of his tomb in 1922,the modern world has speculated about what
happened to him, with murder being the most extreme possibility. Now, leaving his tomb for
the first time in almost 80 years, Tut has undergone a CT scan that offers new clues about his
life and death — and provides precise data for an accurate forensic reconstruction of the
boyish pharaoh. An angry wind stirred up ghostly dust devils as King Tut was taken from his
resting place in the ancient .Egyptian cemetery known as the Valley of the Kings*. Dark-
bellied clouds had scudded across the desert sky all day and now were veiling the stars in
casket grey. It was 6 p.m. on 5 January 2005. The world’s most famous mummy glided head
first into a CT scanner brought here to probe the lingering medical mysteries of this little
understood young ruler who died more than 3,300 years ago.
Questions:
i) What is the Cemetery of Tut called?
(a) Valley of the kings (b) Tut’s resting place
(c) resting peace (d) valley of flowers

(ii)When was Tut’s body taken for CT scan after being found?
(iii) How did Tut die?
(a) It is a mystery. (b) due to heart attack
(c) due to Cancer (d) during a war

(iv)Tut was laid to rest, laden with- (a)platinum(b) aluminium(c) gold (d) silver (v) When did
Tut die?
(a)22000 years ago (b) more than 33000 years ago
(c) 10000 years ago (d) 16000 years ago

Extract-6
Archaeology has changed substantially in the intervening decades, focusing less on treasure
and more on the fascinating details of life and intriguing mysteries of death. It also uses
more sophisticated tools, including medical technology. In 1968, more than 40 years after
Carter’s discovery, an anatomy professor X-rayed the mummy and revealed a startling fact:
beneath the resin that cakes his chest, his breast-bone and front ribs are missing. Today
diagnostic imaging can be done with computed tomography, or CT, by which hundreds of X-
rays in cross section are put together like slices of bread to create a three-dimensional
virtual body. What more would a CT scan reveal of Tut than the X-ray? And could it answer

7
two of the biggest questions still lingering about him — how did he die, and how old was he
at the time of his death?
Questions:
(i)What does CT scan stand for?
(a)Computed Telegraphy (b) Computed Tomography Scan
(c) Car Topology (d) Computer Technology

(ii) What facts were revealed when the mummy was X-Rayed in 1968?
(a) His several possessions were missing
(b)His hip bone was missing
(c)His breast bone and front ribs were missing
(d)His feet bone was missing

(iii) How has archaeology changed through the decades?

(a) Focusses more on treasure
(b)Focusses more on physical findings
(c)Focusses on time factors more
(d)Focusing less on treasure and more on the fascinating details of life and mysteries of
death.

(iv) The word decade means-

(a)A period of five year (b) a period of ten years
(c) a period of twenty years (d) a period of fifty years

(v) What can CT scan reveal about Tut?

Extract-7
The Jijamata Express sped along the Pune- Bombay route considerably faster than the
Deccan Queen. There were no industrial townships outside Pune. The first stop, Lonavala
came in forty minutes. The ghat section that followed was no different from what he knew,
The train stopped at Karjat only briefly and went on even at greater speed. It roared through
Kalyan. Questions:
(i)From which lesson the above extract has been taken?
(a)Silk Road (b)The Portrait of a Lady
(c) The Adventure (d)The Ailing Planet

(ii) Who is the author of the above lines.

(a)NaniPalkhiwala (b) Kushwant Singh
(c)Jayant Narlikar (d)Nick Middleton

(iii) Who was travelling by the Jijamata Express?

(iv) Which of these has the similar meaning to ‘roared’?

(a) trembled (b) thundered
(c) shivered (d) none of these

(v) Which was the first stop of the Jijamata Express?

8
Extract-8
By making a transition, you were able to experience two worlds although one at a time. The
one you live in now and the one where you spent two days. One has the history we know,
the other a different history. The separation or bifurcation took place in the Battle of
Panipat. You neither travelled to the past nor to the future. You were in the present but
experiencing a different world. Of course, by the same token there must be many more
different worlds arising out of bifurcations at different points of time.”
Questions:
(i)Who is the speaker of the above lines?
(a)Professor Gaitonde (b)Librarian
(c) Vinay Gaitonde (d) Rajendra Deshpande

(ii) Who made transition to a different world?

(a)Professor Gaitonde (b) Librarian
(c) Rajendra Deshpande (d) Vinay Gaitonde

(iii) How many worlds did Gangadharpant experience?

(iv) Which of these has the similar meaning to ‘bifurcation’?
(a) Whole (b) divide
(c) unity (d) none of these

(v)From which lesson the above extract has been taken?

Extract-9
We passed nomads’ dark tents pitched in splendid isolation, usually with a huge black dog, a
Tibetan mastiff, standing guard. These beasts would cock their great big heads when they
became aware of our approach and fix us in their sights. As we continued to draw closer,
they would explode into action, speeding directly towards us, like a bullet from a gun and
nearly as fast. These shaggy monsters, blacker than the darkest night, usually wore bright
red collars and barked furiously with massive jaws. They were completely fearless of our
vehicle, shooting straight into our path, causing Tsetan to brake and swerve. The dog would
make chase for a hundred metres or so before easing off, having seen us off the property. It
wasn’t difficult to understand why ferocious Tibetan mastiffs became popular in China’s
imperial courts as hunting dogs, brought along the Silk Road in ancient times as tribute from
Tibet
. Questions:
(i)Who are nomads?
(a)one who roams around
(b) one who has no home
(c) one who pitches tents here and there
(d) all of these

(ii)Who guards nomads?

(iii)Tibetan mastiffs had become popular as-

(a)Black dogs (b) guard dogs

9
(c)hunting dogs (d) none of these

(iv) Which of these has the similar meaning to ‘swerve’?

(a) to sleep (b) to enjoy
(c) to turn sharply (d) none of these

(v)From which lesson the above extract has been taken?

7. Extracts from the Poetry (Hornbill)

The cardboard shows me how it was When the two girl cousins went peddling.
Each one holding one of my mother’s hands, And she the big girl ---- some twelve year or so.
All three stood still to smile through their hair, At the uncle with the camera. A sweet face,
My mother’s, that was before I was born.
And the sea, which appears to have changed the less Washed their terribly transient feet.
Questions:
i)What does the cardboard show?
(a)A photograph (b) a painting
(c) Picture of a horse (d) none of these

ii) Who was not present at the beach?

(a)The poetess (b) Her uncle
(c) Her aunts (d) Her mothe

iii) What does transient mean?

(a) Permanent (b) temporary
(c) impermanent (d) both (b) and (c)

Extract-2
Some twenty- thirty- years later
She’d laugh at the snapshot. “See Betty
And Dolly,” she’d say, “and look how they Dressed us for the beach.” The sea holiday Was
her past, mine was her laughter.
Both wry with the laboured ease of loss.

(i)Who are Betty and Dolly?

(a)Author’s cousins (b)Uncle’s cousins
(c)Mother’s cousins (d)None of the above

(ii)Which word in the extract has been used to mean ‘favourite’?

(a)beach (b)wry
(c)past (d)ease

(iii)Which poetic device has been used in ‘laboured ease of loss.’?

(a)Alliteration (b)Oxymoron
(c)Metaphor (d)Anaphora

Extract – 3

10
Till the gold finch come, with a twitching chirrup.
A suddenness, a startlement, at a branch end.
Then sleep as a lizard, and alert, and abrupt,
She enters the thickness, and a machine starts up of chitterings,
and a tremor of wings, trilling.
The whole tree trembles and thrills.
It is the engine of her family.
She stokes it full, then flirts out to a branch end.
Showing her barred face identity mask. Questions:

(i) What is described as ‘sleek’ in the poem?

(a) goldfinch (b) lizard
(c) Spider (d) Laburnum tree

ii) Who comes to feed the young ones?

(a) a lizard (b) goldfinch
(c) a cuckoo (d) a sparrow

iii) Who gives shelter to the bird and her young ones?
(a)An old building (b) A peepul tree
(c) An oak tree (d) Laburnum tree

Extract – 4
And who ort thou? Said I to the soft falling shower,
Which, strange to tell, gave me an answer, as here translated:
I am the poem of Earth, said the voice of rain,
Eternal I rise impalpable out of the land and the bottomless sea,
Upward to heaven, whence vaguely form’d, altogether changed, and yet the same.
Questions:
(i)The poem of earth is-
(a)Tree (b) River
(c) Rain (d) Flower

ii) What is the meaning of impalpable?

(a)Something that cannot be eaten (b) Something that cannot be digested
(c) Something that cannot be smelled (d) something that cannot be touched

iii) Which poem these lines have been taken from?

(a)The voice of the Rain (b) A photograph
(c)The laburnum top (d) Father to son

Extract – 5
When did my childhood go?
Was it the time I realised that adults were not all they seemed to be,
The talked of love and preached of love, But did not act so lovingly, Was that the day!

Questions:

11
(i)Who do not practice what they preach?
(a)Adolescents (b) Children
(c)Adults (d) Middle aged people

(ii)Who is the composer of the poem from which these lines have been taken?
(a)Markus Natten (b) Shirley Toulson
(c)Elizabeth Jennings (d) Walt Whitman

(iii)What does the poet miss?

(a)His school days (b) His childhood
(c)His adulthood (d)His old age

Extract – 6
The seed I spent or sown it where, The land is his and none of mine?
We speak like strangers, there’s sign
Of understanding in the air,
This child is built to my design Yet what he lives I cannot share, Questions:

(i)What does the father wish for?

(a)Understanding (b) Financial support
(c)Moral support (d) None of these

(iii)What kind of a relationship the father and the son have?

(a)Cordial (b) strained
(c)Warm (d) good

(iii)These lines show-

(a)Friendship (b) understanding
(c)Grief (d) happiness

Extract-7
The Laburnum Top is silent,
quite still in the afternoon yellow September sunlight,
A few leaves yellowing, all its seeds fallen

(i) write the name of the poem and the poet.

(ii) Find the opposite of ‘noise’ from the poem.

(iii)How was the tree standing in the month of September?

(a)still and death-like (b)Alive
(c)green and happy (d)Still and green

Extract-8
It is the engine of her family.
She stokes it full, then flirts out to a branch-end
Showing her barred face identity mask

12
Then with eerie delicate whistle-chirrup whisperings
She launches away, towards the infinite
And the laburnum subsides to empty

(i)What happens to the laburnum tree after the goldfinch flies away?

(ii)What is the machine?

(iii)Who is the engine of her family?

Extract-9
Then sleek as a lizard, and alert, and abrupt,
She enters the thickness, and a machine starts up
Of chitterings and a tremor of wings, and trilling
The whole tree trembles and thrills.

(i)Who is ‘she’ in the second line? Where does she enter?

(a)She is the baby goldfinch who enters the thickness of the Laburnum tree
(b)She’ is a squirrel who enters the thickness of the Laburnum tree
(c)‘She’ is a lizard who enters the thickness of the Laburnum tree
(d)‘She’ is the mother goldfinch who enters the thickness of the Laburnum tree

(ii)What does ‘machine’ refer to in the extract?

(a)If refers to the machine used to drill a hole in the tree
(b )It refers to the machine used to cut the tree
(c )It refers to the nest of the goldfinch where its young ones are staying
(d) It refers to the nest of the squirrel

(iii)Find a word from the extract which is the synonym of ‘entire’.

(a)Abrupt (b) hole
(c) whole (d) tremor

Extract-10
I descend to lave the drouths, atomies, dust-layers of the globe,
And all that in them without me were seeds only, latent, unborn;
And forever, by day and night, I give back life to my own origin,
and make pure and beautify it;
(For song, issuing from its birth-place, after fulfilment, wander- ing, Reck’d or unreck’d. Duly
with love returns.

Questions
(i)Who is latent and unborn?

(ii)Give the name of the poet.

(iii) How does the rain benefit the earth?

Extract-11

13
Eternal I rise impalpable out of the land and the bottomless sea,
Upward to heaven, whence, vaguely form’d, altogether changed, and yet the same,
I descend to lave the drouts, atomies, dust-layers of the globe,
And all that in them without me were seeds only, latent, unborn;
Questions
(i)There are two voices in the poem. Who do they belong to?

(ii)Who rises out of the bottomless sea?

(iii) Give the name of the poem.

8. Extracts from Supplementary Reader (Snapshots)

Extract-1
It wasn’t morning yet, but it was summer and with daybreak not many minutes around the
corner of the world it was light enough for me to know I wasn’t dreaming. My cousin
Mourad was sitting on a beautiful white horse. I stuck my head out of the window and
rubbed my eyes. Yes, he said in Armenian. It’s a horse. You’re not dreaming. Make it quick if
you want to ride.
Questions
(i)Who was sitting on the horse?
(a)Cousin of the speaker (b) the speaker
(c)No one (d)both (a) and (b)
(ii) From which lesson the above extract has been taken?
(a)The Address
(b) Birth
(c)The Summer of the Beautiful White Horse
(d)Mother’s Day

iii)In which language did Mourad speak?

(a)German (b) English
(c) Armenian (d) Arabian

(iv) Write the noun form of the word ‘beautiful’.

Extract-2
I got down and my cousin Mourad kicked his heels into the horse and shouted, Vazire, run.
The horse stood on its hind legs, snorted, and burst into a fury of speed that was the lovliest
thing I had ever seen. My cousin Mourad raced the horse across the field of dry grass to an
irrigation ditch, crossed the ditch on the horse, and five minutes later returned, dripping
wet.
Question-
(i)What is the name of the horse?
(a)Mourad (b) Aman
(c) Vazire (d)None of the above

(ii) What did the horse do when Mourad kicked it?

(a)It snorted (b) it stood on its hind legs.

14
(c)It started running at great speed (d) All of the above

(iii) Where did Mourad race the horse?

(a)Across the village (b) across the field of dry grass
(c) across the forest (d) across the road

(iv) How long did Mourad take to return?

(a)An hour (b) a week
(c)five minutes (d) half an hour

Extract-3
My mother seemed to notice that I was not entirely convinced. She looked at me reprovingly
and after that we spoke no more about it. Meanwhile I had arrived at the station without
having paid much attention to things on the way. I was walking in familiar places again for
the first time since the War, but I did not want to go further than was necessary. I didn’t
want to upset myself with the sight of streets and houses full of memories from a precious
time.
In the train back I saw Mrs Dorling in front of me again as I had the first time, I met her. It
was the morning after the day my mother had told me about her. I had got up late and,
coming downstairs, I saw my mother about to see someone out.

Questions:
(i)From which lesson this text has been taken-
(a)The Address (b) Ranga’s Marriage
(c)Mother’s Day (d) The Tale of Melon City

ii) Who has told the author about Mrs. Dorling?

(a)the woman (b) the girl
(c)Her mother (d) her daughter

(iv )Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word ‘precious’-

(a)cheap (b) valuable
(c) worthless (d) moderate

iv) The author did not want to get upset by--------

(a)her mother (b) Mrs Dorling
(c) memories (d) familiar places

Extract – 4
I had got up late and, coming downstairs, I saw my mother about to see someone out. A
woman with a broad back. ‘There is my daughter,’ said my mother. She beckoned to me. The
woman nodded and picked up the suitcase under the coat-rack. She wore a brown coat and
a shapeless hat. ‘Does she live far away?’ I asked, seeing the difficulty she had going out of
the house with the heavy case. ‘In Marconi Street,’ said my mother. ‘Number 46. Remember
that.’
Questions:
(i)Why did mother introduce her daughter to the woman?

15
(a)They were seeing each other for the first time.
(b)The author was not bothered to meet the woman.
(c)The author had just woken up.
(d )The woman was in hurry to go.

(ii)The author noticed which of the following things about the dress of the woman
(a) green cardigan (b) brown coat
(c) broad back (d) black shoes

(iii) Why did the author ask her mother how far the woman lived?
(a) because the woman was carrying many things from the house
(b)Because the woman was facing difficulty in lifting the suitcase
(c)Because the woman was very old
(d)All of the above

(iv)Why did the mother want her daughter to remember the address of the woman?
(a)She may need to contact her later.
(b)She may like to take back things taken by the woman.
(c)It was hint to the author to collect things later from the woman. (d) all of the above

Extract-5
And one day I noticed that I was still curious about all the possessions that must still be at
that address. I wanted to see them, touch, remember. After my first visit in vain to Mrs.
Dorling’s house I decided to try a second time. Now a girl of about fifteen opened the door
to me. I asked if her mother was at home. ‘No’ she said, ‘My mother ‘s doing an errand.’ ‘No
matter,’ I said, ‘I’ll wait for her.’

Questions:
(i)Which address the author is talking about?
(a)address of her own (b) address of her mother
(c) address of Mrs. Dorling (d)none of the above

(ii) What are the possessions the author is referring to?

(a)things at the house of her mother
(b)things owned by herself
(c)things taken away by Mrs. Dorling
(d)things stolen from her

(iii) For whom did the author want to wait?

(a)for Mrs. Dorling (b) for her mother
(c) for Mrs. Dorling’s daughter (d) both (a) and (b)

(iv) What is the noun form of ‘curious’?

(a)Curiously (b)curiosity
(c) cure (d) none of the above

Extract- 6

16
MRS PEARSON: Yes, thank you, Mrs Fitzgerald. I’m much obliged, I’m sure. It’s wonderful
having a real fortune-teller living next door. Did you learn that out East, too?
MRS FITZGERALD: I did. Twelve years I had of it, with my old man rising to be Lieutenant
Quartermaster. He learnt a lot, and I learnt a lot more. But will you make up your mind now,
Mrs Pearson dear? Put your foot down, once an’ for all, an’ be the mistress of your own
house an’ the boss of your own family.
MRS PEARSON: [smiling apologetically] That’s easier said than done. Besides I’m so fond of
them even if they are so thoughtless and selfish. They don’t mean to be..

Questions:
(i) Who was a fortune-teller?

(ii)From which lesson the above extract has been taken?

(iii)To whom does ‘ old man’ refer to in the above extract?

(a)husband of Mrs. Pearson (b) old person of any age
(c) husband of Mrs. Fitzgerald (d) none of these

(iv) Where did she learn the art of fortune telling?

(a) In the east (b) in the west
(c) in the north (d) in the south

Extract-7
An hour elapsed. It was a long, harsh struggle. Then, as the first streaks of dawn strayed past
the broken edges of the blind, the child was born, lifeless. As he gazed at the still form a
shiver of horror passed over Andrew. After all that he had promised! His face, heated with
his own exertions, chilled suddenly. He hesitated, torn between his desire to attempt to
resuscitate the child, and his obligation towards the mother, who was herself in a desperate
state. The dilemma was so urgent he did not solve it consciously. Blindly, instinctively, he
gave the child to the nurse and turned his attention to Susan Morgan who now lay collapsed,
almost pulseless, and not yet out of the ether, upon her side. His haste was desperate, a
frantic race against her ebbing strength. It took him only an instant to smash a glass ampule
and inject the medicine.

Questions:
(i) How was the new born child?
(a) Healthy (b) lifeless
(c) underweight (d) weak

ii) What dilemma did doctor Andrew confront?

(a)To save child or mother (b) to save mother
(c)To inform father (d) to save child

iii) In the dilemma he faced, what did Andrew do?

(a)Check upon Susan first (b) check upon the child first
(c) ran away (d) left it to handle to the nurse

17
(Iv) Which of these is similar in meaning to the word ‘desperate’?
(a)Composed (b) cheerful
(c) fearful (d) frantic

9. Short Answer Type Questions from Prose (Hornbill) 30 words

Chapter 1- The portrait of a lady
1.Why was the grandmother sad when the author was admitted in an English school?
2.When was the link of the friendship between the author and his grandmother snapped?
3.What did the grandmother do when the author returned from abroad after five years?
4.What did grandmother used to feed village dogs and why?
5.Why did grandmother carry stale chapatis with her?
6.Why was the grandmother upset with the author when he joined music classes?
7.Describe the author’s grandfather.
8. What could the author not believe about his grandfather?

Chapter 2- We’re not afraid to die

1.What was the feat that Gordon Cook repeated after 200 years back?
2.What problems did they encounter in the first phase of voyage?
3.How did the sailors repair their ship when it was first attacked by winds?
4.What injuries did the father suffer in the accident?
5.Who were other two crew men that accompanied the journey?
6.Which Island did they find nearby using their charts?
7.How did the children console the fear-stricken parents?
8.Describe the little girl and his brother’s courage in supporting their father in fighting
against strong waves.

Chapter-3 Discovering Tut

1. What is the Cemetery of Tut called?
2. Who said “The mummy is in very bad condition because of what Carter did in the 1920s”?
3. Who is Osiris?
4. When did Tut die?
5. Who was Tutankhamun?
6.When was Tut’s body taken back in his tomb after CT scan?
7. For how many years did Amenhotep III rule Egypt?
8. When was the mummy examined in X-Ray by the anatomy professor?
9. What name did Amenhotep IV change to?
10. What was found with Tutankhamun’s body?
Chapter-7 The Adventure
1. Where was Khan Sahib going? How did he intend to reach there?
2. What was the profession of Gaitonde?
3. Whom did Gaitonde want to meet?
4. How will Khan sahib go to Peshawar?
5. Where did Gangadharpant go after leaving library?
6. Why was the chair unoccupied?

7. What did the professor Gaitonde do to see the vacant chair?

18
8. What was the strange reality that Professor Gaitonde saw as he stepped out of the
station?

Chapter--8 Silk Road

1.What does Kora means?
2.What could home create a hindrance in advancement of the writer?
3. What does Kyang mean? Which language does it belong to?
4.“Not good” sir, who spoke these words and why?
5.Why were the narrator and his friends heading towards Mount Kailash?
6..What happened to the author as they reached of 5400 meters?
7. Describe the appearance of Hor.
8. Where had the narrator taken tea and who served him tea?
9. Who was Norbu?
10.What was the farewell present given by Lhamo to the author?
11. How did the Tibetan mastiffs react when the author and his group approached?
12. Why is it that on the top of the mountain there is a plateau pockmarked with salt flats?
13. What troubled the author at Darchen?
14. What, according to the doctor, was the problem the author suffered from?
15. How did Norbu become an ideal companion for the author?
16. What is the importance of Lake Mansarovar?

10. Short Answer Type Questions from Poetry Hornbill (30 words)
Poem – A Phtograph
1. Who are the persons in the photograph?
2.What does the cardboard refers to in the poem?
3.Who has not changed over the year?
4.What do you infer about feelings of poet in the poem ‘A Photograph’?
5.What impression can you form about the mother of the poet?

Poem- The Laburnum Top

1.What is the colour of Laburnum tree in September?
2.Why the laburnum tree become yellow in the month of September?
3.What was compared with Goldfinch movement?
4.How is the tree transformed during the bird’s visit?
5. What is the engine of the machine? What is its fuel?

Poem- The Voice of Rain

1.What will happen if it doesn’t rain?
2.How does the shower fall?
3.What took the shape of showers in the sky?
4.What happens when the rain falls on the seeds?
5.What does the rain wash?
6.What makes the earth beautiful?

Poem-Childhood
1. What does the poet experience about the adults?
2. What was the thing that poet couldn’t find in the books of Geography?

19
3. What according to the poem Childhood is involved in the process of growing up?
4. What happened when the poet Markus Natten completed eleven years of his age?
5. Why does the poet feel that Heaven and Hell are not real places?
6. What does the child think about the adult in the poem “Childhood”.
7. Which do you think is the most important step towards adulthood? Why?
8. What according to the poem is involved in the process of growing up?
9. What is the poet’s feeling towards childhood?
10. Where has his childhood gone according to the poet?
11. Bring out the hypocrisy that the adults exhibit with regard to love.
12. According to Markus Natten, when does the Child become an adult?
13.Describe the different stages of human development that are discussed in the poem
‘Childhood’?

Poem- Father to Son

1.Why does father feel like a stranger with his son?
2.What is the father’s problem in the poem ‘Father to Son?
3. What does father intend to do in order to understand his son?
4. Why can’t the father understand what his son speaks?

Q.11 Short Answer Type Questions from Supp. Reader Snapshots (30 Words)
Lesson-1 The Summer of the White Beautiful Horse
1. What were the hallmarks of the Garoghlanian tribe?
2. What according to Aram, was his first longing?
3. What was the name of the horse? Who had an understanding with the horse?
4. What sort of understanding did Mourad have with the horse?
5. When did the boys return the horse?
6. Why did the boys return the white horse to its owner?
7. What happened when Aram tried to ride the horse?
8. Where did the boys hide the horse for the night?
9. Who was John Byro? What concern did he express at Aram’s place?

Lesson-2 The Address

1. Why did the author wait for such a long time before visiting ‘The Address’?
2. Why did the objects lose their value for the author?
3. Why had the author come to visit Mrs. Dorling?
4. How did Mrs. Dorling treat the author when the author visited her?
5. Why did the author of the story ‘The Address’ want to forget the address?
6. Whom did the author desire to meet in Holland? Why?
7. When did the narrator first learn about the existence of Mrs Dorling?
8. Why did the narrator return to Marconi Street after a long time? Lesson-5 Mother’s Day
9. Who was Mrs. Fitzgerald? What did she advice Mrs. Pearson?
10. What was Mrs. Pearson’s reaction to Mrs. Fitzgerald’s advice?
11.How was Mrs. Pearson responsible for her own misery?
12. How did Mrs. Pearson and Mrs. Fitzgerald exchange their personalities and how do they
react after their bodies were changed?
13.What kind of girl was Doris? How did she trouble her mother?
14. Who was Cyril? How did he behave in the family?

20
15. Describe the personality of George. What was his attitude towards Mrs. Pearson?
16. What reason did Mrs. Pearson give Cyril for not making tea?
17. What, according to Mrs. Pearson were her plans for the weekends?
18.What was the truth about Mr. George Pearson that hurt him the most?
19. What was Mrs. Fitzgerald’s advice to Mrs. Pearson after she had put back the family
members in their proper place?
20. What was the change that came over the Pearson family in the end?

Lesson-7 Birth
1. What does the author refer to as ‘a miracle’?
2.How did Andrew try to save the child?
3.How did Andrew save Susan Morgan?
4.How did Andrew feel at the end of the story?
5.How was Andrew feeling before the delivery?
6.Why was Joe Morgan waiting for Andrew even though it was nearly midnight?
7. What were Andrew’s thoughts as he waited for the childbirth?
8. What was Andrew’s view of marriage?
9. What dilemma did Andrew face when the child was born?

Lesson-8 The Tale of the Melon City

1.Why did the king order to build an arch?
2.What happened on that day when the king rode under the arch?
3.How did the work men escape themselves from being hanged?
4.What is called laissez faire?
5.Why did the king call the issue a strictly thing?
6.What did the workmen say in their defence when the king ordered them to be hanged?
7. Who did the chief of builders’ blame?
8. Who was the wisest man? What did he say?
9. Why were the people happy with their Melon King?
10. How was the new king chosen?

Q.12 Long Answer Type Questions from Prose Hornbill

1.What was the turning point in the friendship between the grandmother and the author?
2.Describe the author’s grandmother.
3.Explain three reasons why the author’s grandmother was disturbed when he started going
to a city school.
4.How did the grandmother celebrate the author’s arrival?
5.Does the title of the lesson The Portrait of a Lady’ justify the personality and character
sketch of grandmother?
6.Describe the way in which the sparrows expressed their sorrow when the author’s
grandmother died.
7.Describe the changing relationship between the author and his grandmother. Did their
feelings for each other change?
8.Would you agree that the author’s grandmother was a person strong in character? If yes,
give instances that show her strong character.
9.Discuss the first two sections of the events on the sea voyage.

21
10.Under the adverse conditions, children had exhibited exemplary courage. Please
elaborate the statement.
11. “Perseverance is the key to success.” Please explain in the context of the lesson ‘We are
not Afraid to Die’. If yes, give instances that show this. 12.What do you learn about Tut’s
dynasty from the lesson discovering Tut the Saga Continues?
13.Carter had to chisel away the solidified resins to raise the king’s remains. Give reasons.
14.Write a short note in about King Tut.
15. Why did professor Gaitonde convey his regrets to the or organisers of the seminar?
16.Describe the title of the story the “adventure”?
17.How did Rajendra Deshpande try to rationalize professor Gaitonde is experience fantastic
or catastrophic experience
18. Describe the difficulties and disillusionment faced by Nick Middleton during his journey
to Mount Kailash.
19. Why was the narrator disappointed to find no pilgrims at Darchen? Was his
disappointment dispelled?

Q.13 Long Answer Type Question from Poetry Hornbill

1.What are the three phases described in the poem ‘A Photograph’?
2.Describe the central idea of the poem ‘A Photograph’?
3.What is the central theme of the poem, ‘The Laburnum Top’?
4.What do you notice about the beginning and end of the poem ‘The Laburnum Top’?
5.Why is the image of the engine evoked by the poet?
6.What happens in the beginning and end of the poem ‘The Laburnum Top’?
7.What will happen if there is no rain?
8.How does the rain clean the earth?
9.What is the central idea of the poem, ‘The Voice of the Rain’?
10.When did the poet lose his childhood? How did he feel?
11.Write the summary or central idea of the poem Childhood.
12.Is independent thinking a step towards adulthood? If yes, then how? Explain with
reference to the poem childhood.
13.How is the father’s helplessness brought out in the poem, ‘Father to Son’.
Q.14 Long Answer Type Questions from Supp. Reader Snapshots
1. What makes the story ‘The Summer of the Beautiful White Horse’ interesting?
2. Did the boys return the horse because they were conscience-stricken or because they
were afraid?
3. The story ‘The Summer of the Beautiful White Horse’ begins in a mood of nostalgia. Can
you narrate some incident from your childhood that might make an interesting story?
4. ‘Have you come back?’ said the woman. ‘I thought that no one had come back.’ Does this
statement give some clue about the story? If yes, what is it?
5. The story ‘The Address’ is divided into pre-War and post-War times. What hardships do
you think the girl underwent during these times?
6.‘ The Address’ is a story of human predicament that follows war. Comment.
7. The play “Mother’s Day” is a humorous and satirical depiction of the status of the mother
in the family. What are the issues it raises? How does the play resolve the issues?
8. How does the play “Mother’s Day “end? Describe
9. “I have done something; oh, God! I’ve done something real at last.” Why does Andrew say
this? What does it mean?

22
10. There lies a great difference between textbook medicine and the world of a practising
physician. Discuss.
11. Narrate the tale of melon city in your own world?
12. What impression would you from of a state where the king was ‘just and ‘placid’?
13. How according to you, can peace and liberty be maintained in a state?

23
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC.SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAM
CLASS XI (2023-24)
GEOGRAPHY (CODE-029)
ONE WORD ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS:
1. In which part of Himalayas do we find the Karewa formation?
2. In which states is Loktak lake situated?
3. Which water bodies separates the Andaman from the Nicobar?
4. On which hill range is the ‘Dodabeta’ peak situated?
5. Which is the highest peak of western ghats?
6. Old alluvial soil is called:
7. New alluvial soil is called:
8. Lesser Himalayas is called by what name in Uttaranchal?
9. What is the east-west length of greater Himalayas?
10. Which rivers was known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’?
11. Which has the largest river basin in India?
12. Which rivers are included in ‘Panchnad’?
13. Which rivers flows in a rift valley?
14. In Which place of confluence of the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi?
15. What causes rainfall on the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in the beginning of winters?
16. What is the proportion of area of India which receives annual rainfall less than 75 cm?’
17. Which phenomenon happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the
southern hemisphere?.
18. Which is a gradational process?
19. Which materials is affected by hydration process?
20. Debris avalanche can be included in the category of:.
21. In which stages of landform development, downward cutting is dominated?
22. A deep valley characterised by steep step-like side slopes is known as
23. In which regions the chemical weathering process is more dominant than the mechanical
process?
24. What is the upper layer of mesosphere called?
25. Which layer of atmosphere has electronically charged particles?
26. Which is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere?
27. Which is the lowest layer of the earth?

Page 1 of 4
 28. The air is an integral part of the earth’s mass and 99 per cent of the total mass of the
atmosphere is confined to the height of how many km from the earth’s surface?
29. To what height carbon dioxide and water vapours are found in atmosphere?
30. To what height is ozone found?
31. Which of the following layer of atmosphere is most important for life?
32. What are causes behind increasing density of carbon dioxide?
33. Which one of the following gases constitutes the major portion of the atmosphere?
34. Which Atmospheric layer important for human beings is:
35. Sea salt, pollen, ash, smoke soot, fine soil these are associated with:
36. Oxygen gas is in negligible quantity at the height of atmosphere:
37. Which gas is transparent to incoming solar radiation and opaque to outgoing terrestrial
radiation?
38. The sun is directly overhead at noon on 21st June at:
39. In which one of the following cities, are the days the longest?
40. Make correct pairs from the following two columns.

(a) Insolation (i)The difference between the mean temperature of the

warmest and the coldest months

(b) Albedo (ii)The lines joining the places of equal temperature

(c) Isotherm (iii) The incoming solar radiation

(d) Annual range (iv) The percentage of visible light reflected by an object.

SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS:

41. If a person is to travel to Lakshadweep, from which coastal plain does he prefer and why?
42. Where in India will you find a cold desert? Name some important ranges of this region.
43. Why is the western coastal plain is devoid of any delta?
44. State the differences between the following.
River Basin and Watershed
Dendritic and Trellis drainage pattern

Page 2 of 4
45. What are the socio-economic advantages of inter-linking of rivers in India?
46. What are the three important factors which influence the mechanism of Indian weather?
47. What is meant by ‘bursting of monsoon’? Name the place of India which gets the highest rainfall.
48. Define ‘climatic region’? What are the bases of Koeppen’s classification?
49. It is weathering that is responsible for bio-diversity on the earth. How?
50. What are mass movements that are real rapid and perceptible? List
51. What are the various mobile and mighty exogenic geomorphic agents and what is the prime job they
perform?
52. Is weathering essential as a pre-requisite in the formation of soils? Why?
53. What do incised meanders in rocks and meanders in plains of alluvium indicate?
54. Explain the evolution of valley sinks or uvalas.
55. Underground flow of water is more common than surface run-off in limestone areas. Why?
56. Glacial valleys show up many linear depositional forms. Give their locations and names.
57. How does wind perform its task in desert areas? Is it the only agent responsible for the erosional
features in the deserts?
58. No, wind is not the only agent responsible for the erosional features in the deserts. Wind is one of
the two dominant agents in hot deserts. The other one is rain or sheet wash.
59. What do you understand by atmosphere?
60. What are the elements of weather and climate?
61. Describe the composition of atmosphere.
62Why is troposphere the most important of all the layers of the atmosphere?
63. How does the unequal distribution of heat over the planet earth in space and time cause variations
in weather and climate?
64. What are the factors that control temperature distribution on the surface of the earth?
65. In India, why is the day temperature maximum in May and why not after the summer solstice?
66. Why is the annual range of temperature high in the Siberian plains?
LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS
67. Make a comparison of the island groups of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
68. What are the important geomorphological features found in the river valley plains?
69. If you move from Badrinath to Sunderbans delta along the coarse of the river Ganga, what major
geomorphological features will you come across?
70. Does India need to have more than one standard time? If yes, why do you think so?
71. What are the implications of India having a long coastline?

Page 3 of 4
72. How is the latitudinal spread of India advantageous to her?
73. While the sun rises earlier in the east, say Nagaland and also sets earlier, how do the watches at
Kohima and New Delhi show the same time?
74. What are the important characteristic features of north Indian rivers? How are these different from
Peninsular rivers?
75. Suppose you are travelling from Haridwar to Siliguri along the foothills of the Himalayas. Name the
important rivers you will come across. Describe the characteristics of any one of them.
76. Which type(s) of cyclones cause rainfall in north-western India during winter? Where do they
originate?
77. Notwithstanding the broad climatic unity, the climate of India has many regional variations.
Elaborate this statement giving suitable examples.
78. How many distinct seasons are found in India as per the Indian Meteorological Department? Discuss
the weather conditions associated with any one season in detail.
79. Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils. When rocks undergo weathering, rocks
start to break up and take form of soil gradually.
80. “Our earth is a playfield for two opposing groups of geomorphic processes.” Discuss.
81. Exogenic geomorphic processes derive their ultimate energy from the sun’s heat. Explain.
82. Are physical and chemical weathering processes independent of each other? If not, why? Explain
with examples.
83. How do you distinguish between the process of soil formation and soil- forming factors? What is the
role of climate and biological activity as two important control factors in the formation of soils?
84. Describe the composition of the atmosphere.
85. Draw a suitable diagram for the structure of the atmosphere and label it and describe it.
86. How do the latitude and the tilt in the axis of rotation of the earth affect the amount of radiation
received at the earth’s surface?
87. Discuss the processes through which the earth-atmosphere system maintains heat balance.
88. Compare the global distribution of temperature in January over the northern and the southern
hemisphere of the earth.
MAP SKILLS
89. Major rivers of India.
90. India seasonal Rainfall.
91. India :Pressure and Surface Winds
92. India :Normal dates of onset of the South West Monsoon

Page 4 of 4
 ,atsYl ,dsMeh Lkhfu;j lsdM
sa jh Ldwy
Okkf’kZd प्रश्न कोश
कक्षा-11(2023-24)
विषय - व दिं ी
प्रश 1) प्रत्येक प्रश्न एक नंबर का है।
1) बायत का ऩहरा सभाचाय वाचक ककसे भाना जाता है ?

2) बायत भें जनसॊचाय का इततहास ककस कार भें मभर सकता है ?

3) प्राचीन कार भें सॊदेश ककस तयह ददए जाते थे?

4) बायतीम सॊचाय के रोक भाध्मभ फताइए।

5) रोकनाटकों के प्रकाय फताइए ।

6) जनसॊचाय भाध्मभ के प्रभुख प्रकाय फताइए।

7) भुद्रण की शुरुआत कहाॉ से हुई?

8) आधतु नक छाऩेखाने का आववष्काय ककसने ककमा?

9) बायत भें ऩहरा छाऩाखाना कफ, कहाॉ औय ककसने खोरा ?

10) वप्रॊट भीडडमा के प्रभुख भाध्मभ कौन से हैं?

11) जनसॊचाय भें वप्रॊट भीडडमा का क्मा भहत्व है ?

12) ऩत्रकारयता के ऩहरओ

ु ॊ के फाये भें फताइए ।

13) बायत भें छऩनेवारा ऩहरा अखफाय कौन-सा था?

14) दहॊदी का ऩहरा साप्तादहक ऩत्र कौन-सा था?

15) दहॊदी बाषा के प्रायॊ मबक दौय भें ककन ववद्वानों ने मोगदान ददमा?

16) स्वतॊत्रता सॊघषष के दौयान छऩनेवारे प्रभुख ऩत्र-ऩत्रत्रकाओॊ के नाभ फताइए।

प्रश 2) प्रत्येक प्रश्न दो नंबर का है ।

1) 'संचार जीवन की ननशानी है ।' स्ऩष्ट कीजजए।

2) सॊचाय के साधन कौन-कौन से हैं?

3) दतु नमा एक गाॉव भें फदर गई है ? स्ऩष्ट कीजजए।

Page 1 of 4
4) सॊचाय किसे िहते हैं?

5) सॊचाय भाध्मभ किसे िहते हैं?

6) सॊचाय िी प्रकिमा िे तत्व िौन-िौन से हैं?

7) सपर सॊचाय िे लरएक्मा आवश्मि है ?

8) 'डीकोडडॊग' का अथष फताइए।

9) 'पीडफैक' ककसे कहते हैं?

10) शोय क्मा है ?

11) सॊचाय िे प्रिाय फताइए।

12) अॊत् वैमक्क्ति सॊचाय किसे िहते हैं?

13) अॊतय वैमक्क्ति सॊचाय िा क्मा भहत्व है ?

14) सभह
ू सॊचाय िा उऩमोग िहाॉ होता है ?

15) 'जनसॊचाय' ककसे कहते हैं?

16) जनसॊचाय िी प्रभख

ु ववशेषताएॉ फताइए।

17) जनसॊचाय िी प्रभख

ु ववशेषताएॉ फताइए।

18) जनसॊचाय भाध्मभों भें द्वायऩारों िी बलू भिा क्मा है ?

19) िुई िी खुदाई किससे िी जाती है ?

20) िॊु ई िी खुदाई िे सभम ऊऩय ज़भीन ऩय खडे रोग क्मा ियते हैं?

21) खडडमा ऩत्थय िी ऩट्टी िहाॉ चरती है ?

22) खडडमा ऩत्थय िी ऩट्टी िा क्मा पामदा है ?

23) खडडमा ऩट्टी िे अरग-अरग नाभ क्मा हैं?

24) िुई िे लरए कितने यस्से िी जरूयत ऩडती है ?

25) ये जाणीऩानी िी क्मा ववशेषता है ? 'ये जा' शब्द िा प्रमोग किसलरए किमा जाता है ?

26) िुई से ऩानी िैसे ननिारा जाता है ?

27) गहयी िुई से ऩानी खीॊचने िा क्मा प्रफॊध किमा जाता है ?

28) गोधूलर िे सभम िॊु डमों ऩय िैसा वातावयण होता है ?

29) 'यजनी' ऩाठ का प्रततऩादम फताइए।

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30) गणणत िे टीचय िे णखराप अन्म फच्चों ने आवाज़ क्मों नहीॊ उठाई?

31) यजनी सॊऩादि से क्मा सहामता भाॊगती है ?

32) लशऺा फोडड औय प्राइवेट स्िूरों िे फीच क्मा सॊफध

ॊ होता है ?

33) सयिायी िामाडरमों िी व्मवस्था ऩय टटप्ऩणी िीक्जए।

34) सफसे खतयनाि शब्द िे फाय-फाय दोहयाए जाने से िववता भें क्मा असय ऩैदा हुआ?

35) िवव ने िववता भें िई फातों िो फयु ा है न िहिय फयु ा तो है िहा है तो िे प्रमोग से िय भें क्मा फदराव आमा

है , स्ऩष्ट िीक्जए।

36) 'भद
ु ाड शाॊनत से बय जाना' औय 'हभाये सऩनों िा भय जाना' इनिो सफसे खतयनाि भाना ग दृक्ष्ट भें इन फातों भें

ऩयस्ऩय क्मा सॊगनत है औय मे क्मों सफसे खतयनाि हैं?

37) सफसे खतयनाि वह घडी होती है आऩिी िराई ऩय चरती हुई बी जो आऩिी ननगा है । इन ऩॊक्क्तमों भें घडी

शब्द िी व्मॊजना से अवगत ियाइए।

38) वह चाॉद सफसे खतयनाि क्मों होता है , "जो हय हत्मािाॊड िे फाद / आऩिी आॉखों भें नहीॊ गडता है ?"

39) िवव ने भेहनत िी रट

ू सफसे खतयनाि नहीॊ होती. से िववता िा आयॊ ब ियिे कपय इसी से अॊत क्मों किमा

होगा?

40) िवव द्वाया उक्लरणखत फातों िे अनतरयक्त सभाज भें अन्म किन फातों िो आऩ खतयनाि भानते हैं?

41) अखफाय ककसी फात को व्माऩक कैसे फना दे ता है ?

42) ऩाठ यजनी के आधाय ऩय "क्मा खफ

ू यही" भैं तनदहत व्मॊग को स्ऩष्ट कीजजए

43) गरती से आने वारा गुना गुनहगाय कैसे होता है ?

44) अमभत की भाॊ ने गणणत का ट्मूशन रगाने से क्मों भना ककमा ?

45) सफसे खतयनाक शब्द को फाय-फाय क्मों प्रमोग ककमा है ?

46) िवव कैसे गीत को खतयनाक भानता है ? तथा क्मों ?

47) चाॊद ककसका प्रतीक है ? कई उसे खतयनाक क्मों भानता है ?

48)सऩनों के भय जाने का क्मा अथष है ?

प्रश-3) ननम्नलऱखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर ववस्तार से दीजजए । 3 x10 =30

1) गजर क्मा है उसका अथष मरणखए।

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 2) ऩहरे शहय भें चचयाग शब्द एक फाय फहुवचन भें आमा है औय दस
ू यी फाय एकवचन भें । अथष एवॊ काव्म-सौंदमष की

दृजष्ट से इसका क्मा भहत्व है ?

3) 'अऩना घय'से क्मा तात्ऩमड है ? इसे बर

ू ने िी फात क्मों िही गई है ?

4) कवतमत्री भनोववकायों को क्मों ववयोध कयती है ?

5) 'सफसे खतयनाक' कववता का अथड मरखकय स्ऩष्ट कीजजए ।

6) ये डडमो सभाचाय िी सॊयचना ऩय टटप्ऩणी िीक्जए ।

7) भटु ित भाध्मभ की ववशेषताएॊ एवॊ कमभमाॊ फताइए ।

8) 'ऩीत ऩत्रकारयता 'औय 'ऩेज़थ्री' ऩत्रकारयता के फाये भें मरणखए ।

9) ऩत्रकारयता के प्रकाय फताइए एवॊ 'खोज ऩत्रकारयता'के ववषम भें मरणखए ।

10) 'डेडराइन' किसे िहते हैं ? एवॊ न्मज़

ू ऩेग िा अथड फताइए ।

प्रश-4) ननम्नलऱखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए । 2 × 5 = 10

1) 'वे आॊखें' िववता भें किस िी ऩीडा के मरए किसे क्जम्भेदाय फतामा गमा है ?

2) किसान िे योदन को 'नीयव'क्मों कहा गमा है ?

3) घय िी माद िववता िा अथड लरणखए ।

4) िवव ने चॊऩा िी किन ववशेषताओॊ िा उलरेख किमा है ?

5) आऩिे ववचाय भें चॊऩा ने ऐसा क्मों िहा होगा कि 'भैं तो नहीॊ ऩढूॊगी'?

6) 'नभि िा दयोगा' ऩाठ िा अथड लरखिय इसिा उद्देश्म स्ऩष्ट कीजजए ।

7) वॊशीधय िे वऩता ने उसे िौन-िौन सी नसीहतें दी?

8) 'फ्रैश' मा 'ब्रेककॊग' न्मूज़ से क्मा आशम है ?

9) एॊकय ऩैकेज से क्मा आशम है ?

10) रोितॊत्र भें जनसॊचाय भाध्मभों का प्रबाव फताइए ।

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CLASS – XI (2023-24)
HISTORY (027)
1. What were the views of Francesco Petrarch?
2. Who was Martin Luther?
3. What was the term humanist referred to?
4. Why does Easter date keeps changing every year?
5. What do you understand by Labour rent?
6. What do you mean by “Black Death”?
7. How could European historians did detail work on the European history?
8. Who was Marc Bloch? How did he die?
9. How did term feudalism derive? What does it mean?
10. What does medieval era mean?
11. What does feudalism mean in economic sense?
12. How did France get its name?
13. Who conquered England in 11th Century?
14. Name the three orders present in European society. How were they divided?
15. What do you understand by “Tithe’?
16. Why does Easter date keeps changing every year?
17.How did Church’s records of births, marriages and deaths and inscriptions helps the historians?
18. Write two features of life of monasteries of medieval Europe?
19. Who were called Friars?
20. What kind of privileged status did the noble enjoy?
21. What did a manorial estate contain?
22. What role did ministrels play in 12th century France?
23. What do you understand by labour rent?
24. What do you mean by ‘Black Death’?
25. Name the different sources for European history in 14th century?
26. How did Italian coast and ports revive?
27. Why did many of the towns in Italy fell into ruin after the fall of Roman Empire?
28. What were the views of Francesco Petrarch?
29. What were the other ways through which humanists transmitted their ideas?
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30. Who were regarded as men of wisdom in Italian world?
31. Who was Ibn Rushd?
32. What did artists do to maintain perfection?
33. Who was Andreas Vesalius?
34. How did Popes become stronger by 15th century? What did they do after?
35. Who was Michelangelo Buonarroti?
36. What was the advantage of Printing Press during renaissance?
37. What was the term humanist referred to?
38. Why did Christians think earth was immobile?
39. Why Europeans were indebted to the Chinese for printing technology?
40. Why did Christians think earth was immobile?
41. Whom does “Renainssance Man’ refer to?
42. What do you understand by ‘Thithe’?
43. Write two features of life of monasteries of medieval Europe.
44. What do you mean by “Black Death”?
45. Where can we trace the feudalism roots? What kind of political and social aspects are covered by
feudalism?
46. Discuss the primitive methods used by European people initially.
47. “Religious and lay worlds of feudalism shared many customs and symbols”. Discuss.
48. Discuss about vassalage. How the kings of France were linked to the people by vassalage?
49. “Peasants did not bow quietly to oppression”. Look at the statement and discuss how did peasants
react to lord’s oppression.
50. How did humanist scholars divide the history of Europe from their perspective?
51. Discuss briefly on humanist culture and its effect o people in Europe.
52. What was the position of women in merchant and aristocrat families in Europe?
53. Enumerate the evil practices of the Catholic Church in Medieval Period that led to the movement
against them.
54. Discuss briefly about Copernicus.
55. State the main factors that helped in the growth of nation-states in Europe.
56. How did painting enrich during renaissance period?
57. Where can we trace the feudalism roots? What kind of political and social aspects are covered by
feudalism?
58. How did feudalism develop in England?
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59. Enumerate the evil practices of the Catholic Church in Medieval period that led to the movement
against them.
60. State the main factors that helped in the growth of nation-states in Europe.
61. “Peasants did not bow quietly to oppression”. Look at the statement and how did peasants react to
lord’s oppression.
62. How did feudalism develop in England?
63. Enumerate the evil practices of the Catholic Church in Medieval period that led to the movement
against them.
64. State the main factors that helped in the growth of nation-states in Europe.
65. What kind of changes humanist ideas had brought in the religious sphere?
66. What was the position of women during renaissance period?
67. What were the different views on European renaissance by different scholars? How Europe indebted
to other regions of the world?
68. Discuss in detail about the third order. Explain about life of peasants and serfs in the third order.
69. Discuss in detail about the life in the towns.
70. Discuss about the plague epidemic in Europe during 14 th century? How did this crisis affected the
economy and social conditions in Europe?
71. “The resistance of the aristocracies crumbled in the face of the firepower of the kings”. Look at the
statement and discuss about the political changes in 15th and 16th Centuries in Europe?
72. Why and how Industrial Revolution happened in England and North America?
73. Write a brief note on the Gold Rush and reasons for the growth of Industries in North America.
74. Discuss about the exploitation of natives in Austrlia.
75. Why government had termed Australia as the terra nullius? What were the two important decisions
were taken after the enquiries conducted against the atrocities committed against natives in
Australia?
76. How did anti slavery movement lead to Civil Liberties to Slaves in North America?
77. Discuss about the history, life style, languages and beliefs of native people of North America.
78. Discuss about the European imperialism in detail. How did they extend their colonies in different
continents.
79. “Multiculturalism became the official policy in Australia.” Discuss about the transformation of
Australian government from being exploitative and cruel to being apologetic to natives. What was the
role of different people and institutions in this transformation?

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80. Discuss the changes that were brought in the USA and Canada in order to provide legitimate rights to
the natives.
81. What were the different thoughts of scholars on learning new ideas from Europe? What did the slogan
‘Fukoku kyohei’ mean and what did Japanese needed to achieve this?
82. Discuss about the new school system in Japan.
83. Discuss about the beginning of the modern China.
84. What did Qing reformers do to introduce new ideas and institutions?
85. What were the outcomes of the Cultural Revolution?
86. What was the role of Meiji reform in modernizing the Japan’s economy? What were the demographic
changes that happened in Japan due to economic reforms and Japanese government’s reaction to it?
87. “The Guomindang despite its attempt to unite the country failed.” Look at the statement and discuss
about the role of Sun Yat-sen and Chiang Kai-shek. Why did Guomindang fail to unite the country?
88. Japan and China, the two industrial societies far from becoming like each other have found their own
paths to becoming modern.” Look at the statement and discuss in detail about the paths took by both
the countries to achieve modernistion.
89. What steps did Meiji government take to integrate the nation? What were the outcomes of those
steps or measures?
90. “Communists established themselves in power and the Guomindange was defeated”. Explain.

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK – ANNUAL EXAMINATION (2023-24)
SUBJECT: INFORMATICS PRACTICES (065)
CLASS: XI

1. Who has developed Python programming Language? In which year it was developed?
2. On what basis python has been named?
3. Explain any three merits of Python.
4. Explain any three demerits of Python.
5. Why Python is called a cross-platform language?
6. Give full form of Python’s IDLE.
7. What do you mean by IDE? Explain.
8. Name a few Python IDEs.
9. Why Python is called an interpreted language?
10. Does Python support UNICODE?
11. What are tokens? List all tokens in Python.
12. What are keywords? Explain. List a few keywords available in Python.
13. What do you mean by identifiers? Give any four rules to define an identifier.
14. What are literals? List all literals in Python.
15. How do you form string literals in Python?
16. Explain how you can use single line and multiline strings in Python.
17. What do you mean by complex literal? How will you write a complex value, explain with an example?
18. List Boolean literal?
19. What is “None”?
20. What do you mean by comments? How will you add inline, single line or multiline comments in Python?
21. What is a block in python? How is a block created in Python, explain with example?
22. How many spaces are used to define an indentation level?
23. Define variable in Python? How a variable does created?
24. What will happen if variable holding a value of integer type assigned another value of string type?
25. What do you mean by lvalue and rvalue? Give an example.
26. Give an example each of following:
i. Assigning same value to multiple variables.
ii. Assigning multiple values to multiple variables.
27. What is dynamic typing?
28. What is Database?
29. Why Database System is better than traditional file system. Give two reasons.
30. Write one similarity and one difference between UNIQUE and PRIMARY KEY constraints.
31. Write one similarity and one difference between CHAR and VARCHAR data types.
32. Write the UPDATE command to increase the commission (Column name : COMM) by 500 of all the Salesmen who
have achieved Sales (Column name : SALES) more than 200000. The table’s name is COMPANY.
33. Is it possible to have primary key and foreign key in one table? Justify your answer.
34. A table can have maximum how many primary keys and foreign keys?
35. Write two examples of DBMS software.
36. How is NULL value different from 0 (zero) value ?
37. Sharmila wants to make the database named ‘COMPANY’ active and display thenames of all the tables in it. Write
command for it.
38. Give two characteristics of Primary Key.
39. Explain the purpose of DDL and DML commands used in SQL.
40. What is the Purpose of Drop Table command in SQl?How is it different form Delete Command?
41. What is the use of UPDATE statement in SQL ? How is it different from ALTER statement ?
42. What is significance of Joins in Sql?

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43. What is EquiJoin ?
44. What is advantage of DBMS?
45. What is Relation in RDBMS?
46. What is Other name of ROW and Column in RDBMS?
47. What is Degree and Cardinality of a Relation in RDBMS.
48. Write syntax for create table in Sql.
49. Define the termsi) DDL ii) DML
50. Write short notes on relational model
51. Define tuple and attribute, relation, Domain.
52. What do you mean by keys? What are the various kinds of keys in a relational database? Explain them.
53. Consider the following tables MobileMaster and MobileStock and answer (bl) and (b2) parts of this question:

Write SQL commands for the following statements:

a) To create the table MobileMaster with the Primary key as M_Id.
b) To create the table MobileStock with Primary Key as S_Id and foreign key as M_Id referring to
MobileMaster(M_Id).
c) Insert the first row into Table MobileMaster.
d) Insert the first row into MobileStock.
e) To display all records of table MobileMaster
f) To display all records of table MobileStock.
g) To display Company name, mobile name, manufacturing date and supplier name from the tables.
h) To display name of the mobiles and their prices which are manufactured after “01-01-2015”.
i) To update the supplier name for the mobile “Unite3” as “New Horizon”.
j) To display all the details of mobile company in ascending order of their mobile manufacturing date.
k) Delete an entry from MobileMaster Table for items having price greater than 5000.
l) Delete an entry from MobileStock Table for supplier name “The Mobile”
m) Delete the table MobileMaster.
n) Delete the table MobileStock.
54. Explain the use of input() function with an example.
55. List some of the cloud-based services that you are using at present.
56. What do you understand by the Internet of Things? List some of its potential applications.
57. Write a short note on the following:
(a) Cloud computing
(b) Big data and its characteristics
58. Explain the following along with their applications.
(a) Artificial Intelligence
(b) Machine Learning

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59. Differentiate between cloud computing and grid computing with suitable examples.
60. Justify the following statement-
‘Storage of data is cost effective and time saving in cloud computing.’
61. What is on-demand service? How it is provided in cloud computing?
62. Write examples of the following:
(a) Government provided cloud computing platform
(b) Large scale private cloud service providers and the services they provide
63. A company interested in cloud computing is looking for a provider who offers a set of basic services such
as virtual server provisioning and on-demand storage that can be combined into a platform for deploying
and running customized applications. What type of cloud computing model fits these requirements?
(a) Platform as a Service
(b) Software as a Service
(c) Infrastructure as a Service
(d) Application as a Service
64. Which is not one of the features of IoT devices?
(a) Remotely controllable
(b) Programmable
(c) Can turn themselves off if necessary
(d) All of the above
65. If Government plans to make a smart school by applying IoT concepts, how can each of the following be
implemented in order to transform a school into IoT enabled smart school?
(a) e-textbooks
(b) Smart boards
(c) Online tests
(d) Wi-Fi sensors on classrooms doors
(e) Sensors in buses to monitor their location
(f) Wearables (watches or smart belts) for attendance monitoring
66. Five friends plan to try a start-up. However, they have a limited budget and limited computer
infrastructure. How can they avail the benefits of cloud services to launch their start-up?
67. Governments provide various scholarships to students of different classes. Prepare a report on how block
chain technology can be used to promote accountability, transparency and efficiency in distribution of
scholarships?
68. How IoT and WoT are related?
69. What type value is returned by input() function? If the integer or float values are to be input write an
example statement how will you use input() function?
70. Identify the types of following literals:
i. 23.789 ii. False iii. “True” iv. 34.71E-4 v. None vi. 4+3j 3 25
71. Identify valid or invalid identifiers:
i. True ii. Student-Name iii. IF iv. PRINT v. 1stAge vi. Number1
72. Find out the error in following code:
Salary= input(“Salary :”)
Bonus=10/100 * Salary
Print (“Bonus”, Bonus)
73. What is dictionary?
74. What will be output of the following code:
d1={1:2,3:4,5:6}
d2=d1.get(3,5)
print(d2)
75. Write the output of the code given below:
d = {"name": "Akash", "age": 16}
d['age'] = 27
d['city'] = "New Delhi"
print(d.items())
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76. How is clear() function different from del statement?
77. What will be the output of the following python dictionary operation?
data = {'A':2000, 'B':2500, 'C':3000, 'A':4000}
print(data)
78. What is a key-value pair with reference to Python dictionary?
79. Write the output of the code given below:

80. What are the characteristics of Python Dictionaries?

81. Write the two ways to construct an empty dictionary.
82. Write a Python program to input ‘n’ names and phone numbers to store it in a dictionary and to search
and print the phone number of that particular name.
83. Write a statement in Python to declare a dictionary whose keys are 1, 2, 3 and values are Jan, Feb and
Mar respectively.
84. Write the output of following code:

x = {1:10, 2:20, 3:30}

x[2]=25
print(x)
85. Write the output of following code:

x = {1:10, 2:20, 3:30}

x[4] = 20
print(x)
86. Write the output of following code:

d = {'x': 1, 'y': 2, 'z': 3}

for k in d:
print (k, '=', d[k])
87. Write the output of following code:

d = {'x': 1, 'y': 2, 'z': 3}

for k in d.keys():
print (k, '=', d[k])

88. Write a program to enter names of employees and their salaries as input and store them in a dictionary.
89. Write the output for the following codes.
A= (10:1000,20:2000,30:3000,40:4000, 50:5000}
print A.items()
print A.keys()
print A.values()
90. Write 3 methods to import a module with an example.
91. Predict the output:

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92. Write a program to read 6 numbers and create a dictionary having keys EVEN and ODD. Dictionary's value
should be stored in list. Your dictionary should be like:
{'EVEN':[8,10,64], 'ODD':[1,5,9]}

93. Write a program to input roll numbers and their names of students of your class and store them in the
dictionary as the key-value pair. Perform the following operations on the dictionary:
a) Display the Roll numbers and name for all students.
b) Add a new key-value pair in this dictionary and display the modified dictionary
c) Delete a particular student's record from the dictionary
d) Modify the name of an existing students.

94. Give the output of the following code:-

list=['p','r','o','b','l','e','m']
list[1:3]=[]
print(list)
list[2:5]=[]
print(list)

95. Give the output of the following code:-

l1=[13,18,11,16,13,18,13]
print(l1.index(18))
print(l1.count(18))
l1.append(l1.count(13))
print(l1)
96. WAP in python to create a list of natural numbers from 1 to 50 using for loop.
97. WAP in python to take two lists of same size and create a third list of same size with adding elements at
the same location of 1st & 2nd list. E.g. if A=[1,2,3], B= [4,5,6], then C[5,7,9].
98. WAP in Python to accept any ten numbers from the user in a list and display the maximum number along
with its position.
99. WAP in Python to calculate & display the factorial of an integer list.
100. Predict the output of the following code in python:
T1=(1,)*3
T1[0]=2
print(T1)
101. Predict the output of the following code in python:
TupleA=’m’,’n’
TupleB=(‘m’,’n’)
print(TupleA==TupleB)

102. WAP in Python to create a phone dictionary for your ten friends and then print them in format:
name of friend : mobile number
103. Predict the output of the following code in python:
Fruit ={ }
L=*‘Orange’,’Apple’,’Grapes’+
for index in L:
If index in Fruit:
Fruit[index]+=1
else:
Fruit[index]=1
print(len(Fruit))
print(Fruit)
104. WAP to display sum of even numbers up to number n entered by user.
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105. T1=(100,200,”global”,3,3.5,”exam”,*1,2+,(30,40),3,5,3))
Consider the above tuple T1 and answer the following question:
(a) t1[-8:-4] (b) 20 not in T1 (c) T1.index(5) (d)T1[2]*2 (e) T1[5:]
106. What is malware? Explain virus, worms and Trojans.
107.

(i) This email is an example of which cyber-crime?

(ii) What may happen if user will reply to email?
(iii) Is this mail is a spam?
(iv)What is cyber-crime?
(v)Give any one tip that help in preventing these type of attacks.

108. Differentiate between using example:

1) if / else 2) for / while 3) break /continue
109. What is the difference between compiler and interpreter?
110. What is the difference between mutable and immutable? Explain with example.
111. What is a cross-platform software?
112. Write the following operators according to the precedence rule : or, and, not, <>, *, **, ()
113. What will be the output produced by following code?
a = 5-4-3
b=3**2**3
print(a)
print(b)
114. Start with the list[8,9,10].
Do the following using list functions
(a) Set the second entry (index 1) to 17
(b) Add 4, 5 and 6 to the end of the list.
(c) Remove the first entry from the list.
(d) Sort the list.
(e) Double the list.
(f) Insert 25 at index 3
115. State the differences between Iteration and Recursion.

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS – XI (2023 - 24)
MATHEMATICS (041)
General Instructions:
1. This Question paper contain- five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory. However,
there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has MCQ’s questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has VSA -type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has Short Answer questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has Long Answer questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has source based / case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (4 marks
each) with sub-parts.
SECTION - A
1. The line segment joining the points (-3, -4), (1, -2) is divided by y-axis in the ratio
A)1:3 B) 3:1 C) 2:3 D) 3:2
2. The mean of first n natural numbers is
A) n(n+1)/2 B) n(n - 1)/2 C) (n + 1)/2 D) (n - 1)/2
3. For any set A, (A’)’ is equal to
A) A’ B) A C) A2 D) ∅
4. If v is the variance and 𝜎 is the standard deviation, then
A). v = 1/ 𝜎 B) v = 𝜎2 C) v = 1/ 𝜎2 D) v2 = 𝜎
5. The multiplicative inverse of 3 + 4i is
A). 3 - 4i B) (3 + 4i)/25 C) (3 - 4i)/25 D) - 3 + 4i
6. If the image of the point (-3 , k) in the line 2x + y - 2= 0 is the point (1, 5), then the value of k
is
A).2 B) 3 C) -3 D) 1
7. The two geometric means between 1 and 64 are
A) 1 and 64 B) 4 and 16 C) 2 and 16 D) 8 and 16
th th th
8. If 10 term of a G.P. is 9 and its 4 term is 4, then its 7 term is
A).6 B) 9/4 C) 4/9 D) 36
9. On real axis if A = [1, 5] and B = [3, 9], then A - B is
A).(5, 9) B) (1, 3) C) [5, 9) D) [1, 3)
10. For two sets, A U B = A if and only if
A).B ⊆ A B) A ⊆ B C) A ≠ B D) A = B
11. If the standard deviation of a data is 16, then the variance of the data is
A) 256 B) 4 C) 16 D) 8
12. Let A = {1, 2, 3}, then total number of the element in A X A is
A).3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12
13. If 𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏 = x + iy, then possible value of 𝑎 − 𝑖𝑏 is
A).x2 + y2 B) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 C) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 D) x - iy
14. If the 3 and 7 term of an A.P. are 11 and 27 respectively, then its 11th term is
rd th

A).42 B) 43 C) 44 D) 45
15. If R = { (x, y) : x, y 𝜖 N, x + 2y = 21}, then range of R is
Page 1 of 6
 A).{1,2,…,8} B) {1,2,…10} C) {1, 2,…19} D) { 1,2,…….15}
16. Which of the following is a finite set?
A).{ x : x = 2n, n 𝜖 N} B) ( x : x is a prime number}
C) { x : x 𝜖 N, x is a factor of 4 } D) { x : x 𝜖 I, x ≤ 7}
17. The variance of first 5 natural number is
A).1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
18. Two finite sets A and B are such that A ⊂ B, then which of the following is not correct?
A).A U B = B B) A ∩ B = A C) A - B = ∅ D) B - A = ∅
19. A ∩ B = ∅ then ,
A) A = ∅ or B = ∅ B) A = ∅ and B = ∅ C) A = ∅ and B ≠ ∅ D) None of these
20. If A = { 1, 2, 3} , B = { 1, 4, 6, 9} and R is a relation from A to B defined by x is greater than
y. the range of R is
A) {1, 4, 6, 9} B) {4, 6, 9} C) {1} D) none of these
th th th
21. The 4 , 7 and 10 terms of a G.P. are p, q and r respectively. Then
A).p2 = q2 + r2 B) p2 = qr C) q2 = pr D) r2 = p2 + q2
22. 22. Let R be a relation from a finite set A having m elements to a finite set B having n elements,
then the number of relations from A to B is
A).2mn B) mn C) nm D) 2mn
23. The distance of the point p(1, -3) from the line 2y - 3x = 4 is
A).13 B) 7 3 /13 C) 13 D) 7/13
24. The tangent of the angle between the lines joining the points (-1, 2),(3, -5) and (-2, 3) ,(5,0)
is
A) 37/49 B) 49/37 C) 23/47 D) 47/23
25. Let R be the relation in the set N given by R = {(a, b): a = b -2, b > 6}. Choose the correct
answer,
A).(2, 4) 𝜖 R B) (3, 8) 𝜖 R C) (6, 8) 𝜖 R D) (8, 7) 𝜖 R
26. In a city, 20% of the population travels by car, 50% travels by bus and 10% travels by both
car and bus. Then persons travelling by car or bus is
A).70% B) 80% C) 60% D) 40%
27. The values of m for which 2m + 4, m - 1, m - 5 are three consecutive terms of G.P. is are
A).3 B) 7 C) - 3 D) 7, -3
4 4
28. The value of (1 + i) + (1 - i) is
A).-4 B) 4 C) 8 D) -8
2
29. If a = 1 + i, then a equals
A).1 - i B) 2i C) i - 1 D) (1 + i) (1 - i)
30. The distance between the lines 5x + 3y - 7 = 0 and 15x + 9y + 14 = 0 is
A).35/ 34 B) 1/3 34 C) 35/3 34 D) 35/2 34
2
31. 31. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P. is 5n - 2n, then its second term is
A).3 B) 10 C) 13 D) 20
32. The angle between two lines x + 2y + 13 = 0 and 2x - y + 7 = 0
A).300 B) 900 C) 450 D) 600
33. The number of proper subsets of A = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is
A).120 B) 31 C) 30 D) 32
34. ( -2) ( -3) is equal to
A) 6 B) - 6 C) I 6 D) 6
Page 2 of 6
35. If a line joining the points (-2, 6) and (4, 8) is perpendicular to the line joining the points
(8, 12) and (x, 24), then the value of x is
A)3 B) 4 C) -4 D) 2
36. The equation of the line which cuts off intercept 4 on x axis and makes an angle of 60 0
with the positive direction of the x-axis is
A) y = 3 (x + 4) B) y = - 3 (x - 4) C) y = 3 (x - 4) D) y = - 3 (x + 4)
37. The small positive integer ‘n’ for which (1 + i) = (1 - i)2n is
2n

A) 4 B) 8 C)2 D) 12
38. If z is a complex number, then
A) |z2|> |z|2 B) |z|2> |z2| C) |z2|= |z|2 D) |z2| ≥ |z|2)
39. The modulus of ( 1 + 2i)( 3 – 4i) / ( 4 + 3i)(2 – 3i) is
5
A) B) 2 C) 1 D) -1
13
40. If z = x + iy satisfies | z + 1| = 1, then
A) x =0 B) (x - 1)2 + y2 = 1 C) y = 0 D) (x + 1)2 + y2 = 1
41. The mean deviation of the data 2, 7, 9, 11, 15, 16 from the median is
A).3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
42. The inclination of the line x - y + 3 = 0 with the positive direction of x-axis is
A).450 B) 1350 C) -450 D) -1350
43. If the sum of first n term of an A.P. is 4n2 + 3n, then its nth term is
A).8n - 1 B) 8n + 1 C) 7n + 8 D) 8n - 15
44. The domain of the function f(x) = 𝑥 − 1 + 3 − 𝑥 is
A) [1, ∞) B) ( -∞, 3) C) (1, 3) D) [1, 3]
45. The mean deviation of 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 from the mean is
A).0 B) 25 C) 5 D) 1.2
46. The nth term of a G.P. is 128 and the sum of its first n terms is 225. If its common ratio is 2,
then its first term is
A).4 B) 8 C) 3 D) 1
SECTION B
1. Find the angle between the x-axis and the line joining the points (3,1) and (4,2).
2. Point R (h,k) divides a line segment between the axes in the ratio 1:2 . Find the equation of the
line.
3. If 𝐴 and 𝐺 be A.M. and G.M. respectively between two positive numbers prove that the number
are 𝐴 ± 𝐴 + 𝐺 (𝐴 − 𝐺) .
4. Find equation of the line which is equidistance from parallel lines 9x + 6y – 7=0 and 3x + 2y +6
=0.
5. Find the sum of n terms of an A.P. whose kth term is 5k+1.
6. Find the sum of the sequence 7,77,777,7777……….. to n terms.
7. Find the equation of a line that cuts off equal intercepts on the coordinate axes and passes
through the point (2,3).
8. Find the image of the point (3 , 8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a
plane mirror.
9. Show that the equation of the line passing through the origin and making an angle 𝜃 with the line
𝑦 𝑚 ±tan 𝜃
y = mx +c is = .
𝑥 1 ∓𝑚 tan 𝜃

Page 3 of 6
10. The sum of two numbers is 6 times their geometric mean show that numbers are in the ratio
(3 + 2 2 ) : (3 - 2 2 ).
11. Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers, both of which are larger than 5, such that
their sum is less than 23.
12. Prove that sin2 6x - sin2 4x = sin 2x sin 10x.
1+𝑥 −1
13. Evaluate : lim𝑥→0 .
𝑥
14. If X and Y are two sets such that X has 40 elements X U Y has 60 elements and X ∩ Y has 10
elements ,how many elements does have ?
𝑓 1.1 − 𝑓(1)
15. If f(x) , find .
(1.1−1)
16. Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers both of which are smaller than 10 such that
their sum is more than 11.
17. If nc9 = nc8 , find nc17 .
18. Using Binomial Theorem , indicate which number is larger (1.1)10000 or 1000.
13
19. The sum of first three term of a G.P. is 12 and their product is -1 . Find the common ratio and the
terms.
20. Using section formula , prove that the three points ( -4 ,6 ,10) , (2,4,6) and (14,0,-2) are collinear.
21. Find the directrix and latus rectum of the parabola x2 = - 9y.
22. If a parabolic reflector is 20 cm in diameter and 5 cm deep, find the focus.
23. A beam is supported at its ends by supports which are 12 metres apart. Since the load is
concentrated at its centre, there is a deflection of 3 cm at the centre and the deflected beam is in
the shape of a parabola. How far from the centre is the deflection 1 cm?
1
𝑧 3 −1
24. Find the value lim𝑧 →1 1
𝑧 6 −1
SECTION- C
1. A collage awarded 38 medals for Honesty. 15 for Punctuality and 20 for Obedience. If these
medals were bagged by a total of 58 students and only 3 students got medals for all three values,
how many students received medals for exactly two of the three values?
2. Find the domain and the range:f(x) = 16 − 𝑥 2
3. Find the degree measure of the angle subtended at the centre of circle of radius 100 cm by an arc
of length 22 cm.
4. Find the equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of the lines 2x + y = 5 and x
+ 3y + 8 =0 and parallel to the line 3x + 4y = 7.
sin 𝑥
5. Find the derivatives 𝑐𝑜𝑥 𝑥
6. prove that cos 4x = 1 – 8sin2x cos2x .
𝜋 𝜋
7. Prove that cos (4 + 𝑥 ) + cos (4 − 𝑥 ) = 2 cosx
8. Find the fourth term in the expansion of ( x – 2y )12 .
9. Find the angle between the x axis and the line joining the points ( 3 -1) and (4 -2).
10. Find the equation for the ellipse whose vertices (± 5 0) foci ( ± 4 0).
11. A die is thrown describe the event A : a number less than 7 B : a number greater than 7.
Then find (i) A ∪ B (ii) A ∩ B .
12. Find the Derivatives of
(i) tan x from the first principle.

Page 4 of 6
 (ii) Sinn x
13. How many words with or without meaning can be formed using all the letters of the word
EQUATION using each letter exactly once ?
14. Find r if 5Pr = 2 6Pr - 1 .
15. In a survey of 60 people , it was found that 25 people read newspaper H , 26 read newspaper T,
26 read newspaper I ,9read both H and T , 8 read both T and I ,3 read all three newspapers. Find:
(i) The number of people who read at least one of the newspapers.
(ii) The number of people who read exactly one newspaper.
16. Solve sin 2x – sin 4x + sin 6x = 0.
17. Prove that 2.7n + 3.5n – 5 is divisible by 24, for all n ∈ N.
18. Find the multiplicative inverse of 5 + 3i .
19. How many litres of water will have to be added to 1125 liters of the 45% solution of acid so that
the resulting mixture will contain more than 25 % but less than 30% acid content?
20. If the different permutations of all the letter of the word EXAMINATION are listed as in a
dictionary, how many words are there in this list before the first word starting with E?
21. Find the mean deviation about the median :
X 5 7 9 10 12 15
F 8 6 2 2 2 6
22. Out of 100 students, two sections of 40 and 60 are formed. If you and your friend are among the
100 students , what is the probability that
(i) you both enter the same section ?
(ii) you both enter the different sections?
SECTION- D
1. Find the derivatives of the functions from the first principle cos 𝑥 .
2n n
2. Find the value of n if C3 : C3 = 11: 1 .
3. Find the equation of the line passing through the point of intersection of the lines 4x + 7y - 3 = 0
and 2x - 3y + 1 = 0 that has equal intercepts on the axes
𝑥2
4. Let f = {( 𝑥 , 1+ 𝑥 2 ) : 𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 } be a function from R into R . Determine the range of f.
1+7𝑖
5. Convert in the polar form.
(2−𝑖)2
6. The ratio of the A.M. and G.M. of two positive numbers a and b ism:n . Show that
a: b = ( m + 𝑚2 − 𝑛2 ) : ( m - 𝑚2 − 𝑛2 ).
7. Find the image of the point (3 , 8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a
plane mirror.
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 +cos 𝑥
8. (i) Find the derivative of the function 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 .
𝑥 15 −1
(ii) Evaluate : lim𝑥→1 .
𝑥 10 −1
9. In how many ways can the letters of the word ASSASSINATION be arranged so that all the S’s are
together ?
10. A rod of length 12 cm moves with its ends always touching the coordinate axes, Determinethe
equation of the locus of a point P on the rod, which is 3 cm from the end in contact with the x-
axis.
11. 4 cards are drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of obtaining 3
diamonds and one spade?

Page 5 of 6
12. An arch is in the form of a semi-ellipse. It is 8 m wide and 2 m high at the centre, Find the height
of the arch at a point 1.5 m from one end.
13. The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations are found to be 10 and 2, respectively. On
rechecking, it was found that an observation 8 was incorrect. Calculate the correct mean and
standard deviation in each of the following cases: (i) If wrong item is omitted. (ii) If it is replaced
by 12.
14. The cable of uniformly loaded suspension bridge hangs in the form of a parabola. The roadway
which is horizontal and 100 m long is supported by vertical wires attached to the cable, the
longest wire being 30m and the shortest being 6 m. find the length of a supporting wire attached
to the roadway 18 m from the middle.
SECTION - E
This section comprise of 3 case study/passage-based questions of with two sub parts. First two
case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The third case
study question has two sub two parts of 2 marks each.
15. Case - Study 1: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
A card is selected from a pack of 52 cards.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) How many points are there in the sample space?
(ii) Calculate the probability that the card is an ace of spades. ?
(iii) Calculate the probability that the card is (i) an ace (ii) black card.
16. Case - Study 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below
A line is a tangent to a circle, if the length of perpendicular drawn from centre of the circle to the
line is equal to the radius of the circle.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the equation of circle with centre C (-2, 3) and which touches the line x - y + 7 = 0.
(ii) Find the value of k , if the line y = 3 x + k touches the circle x2 + y2 = 16.
(iii) Find the equations of tangent to the circle x2 + y2 - 6x + 4y - 12 = 0 which is perpendicular
to the line 5x - 12y + 1 = 0.
17. Case - Study 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below
In a certain city all telephone numbers have seven digits. City is divide into 6 zones. Each zone is
allotted a specific non-zero digit which is to be used as first digit of all telephone numbers of that
zone.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) How many different telepone numbers are there in each zone if repetions of digit is
allowed?.
(ii) How many different telephone numbers are there in the city, if first two digit of different
zones are 12, 23, 34, 45, and 67?

Page 6 of 6
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CLASS – XI (2023-24)
PAINTING (049)
Duration: 2 Hours MM: 30
General Instructions:-
(i) SECTION - A: Attempt all questions. (Each question will carry 1 mark)
(ii) SECTION – B: Attempt all questions. (Each question will carry 2marks)
(iii) SECTION – C: Attempt any two questions.(Each question will carry 6 marks.)
SECTION – A
(Multiple choice questions)
Q1. Select the right answer from the given options: (1×8=8)
I. During which civilization or culture lost wax method discovered?
a) Mesopotamia Civilization
b) Indus Valley Civilization
c) Egyptian Civilization
d) Chinese Civilization
II. Which of the following is the earliest bronze sculpture that belongs to 2500 BCE?
a) Nataraja
b) Daimabad man
c) Kaliyadaman
d) Dancing Girl
III. Excavation at Daimabad is a bronze statue consisting of a chariot, a driver sculpture belong to ?
a) 1500 BCE
b) 1600 BCE
c) 1700 BCE
d) 1800 BCE
IV. Jain tirthankaras images that were discovered from Chausa Bihar was patronised by which
dynasty ?
a) Cholas
b) Kushanas
c) Pallavas
d) Satvahanas
V …………. is the shasanadevi of Adinath.
a) Ambika
b) Radhika
c) Chakreshvari
d) Padmavati
VI. Which deity is depicted in central face of Chaturanana or vaikunthaVishnu of Himachal and
Kashmir region ?
a) Narsimha
b) Vasudeva
c) varaha
d) Buddha
Page 1 of 3
 VII. Buddha images at Sultanganj Bihar is an example of which style ?
a) Amravati
b) Sarnath
c) Mathura
d) Kushan
VIII. Shiva seated in………… was developed in 8th century during Pallavas period.
a) Abhaya mudra
b) Bhujangatrasita
c) Ardhaparyankaasana
d) Dola hasta gesture
IX. Which theme is depicted in Kalyanasundaramurti that was evolved in Tanjavurregion of Tamil
Nadu ?
a) Panigrahanaceremony
b) Upanyana ceremony
c) Mundane ceremony
d) Nishkramana ceremony
X. Which demon was suppressed by Shiva with his right leg in the sculpture Nataraja ?
a) Danavas
b) Asuras
c) Apasmara
d) Mahishasura
XI. Which shrine of the temple had no pradokshinapatha ?
a) Sandhara type
b) Karundhara type
c) Nirandhara type
d) Sarvatobhara type
XII. It is the entrance to the temple and maybe a portico or colonnaded hall that incorporates space
for a large number of devotees. Which from of Hindu temple is referred here ?
a) Vahan
b) Garbhagriha
c) Shekhar
d) Mandalay
XIII. Indo Islamic architecture is a mix of shapes and surface decorations. It is also known as……
a) Indo European
b) indo Turkish
c) Indo timurid
d) indo Saracen
XIV. In the 7th and 8th century AD Islam came to India with….
a) merchants
b) holy men
c) conquerors
d) All of these

Page 2 of 3
 SECTION – B
( Short Answer Type questions )
( Answer for these questions is expected in around 100 words) (5×2=10)
Q2.What type of buildings were added in India in 13th century ?
Q3.Name four styles of indo-islamic architecture.
Q4. What decorative forms are used in indo Islamic architecture ?
Q5. What materials are used in construction of the monuments ?
Q6. What are the strategic devices used at Golgumbaj ?
Q7. What are minarsin indoIslamic architecture?
Q8. The architecture style of Jain temple of Mount abu which was constructed by vimal shah.
Q9. Write differents between the architecture style of Dravida and Nagara.
Q10. Write distinctive features of khajuraho’s temple.

SECTION - C
( Long answer type questions)
(Answer for these question is expected in around 200 words) (2×6=12)
Q11. Write a detailed essay on iconography ornamentation and sculptures of Indian temple.
Q12. Appreciate the beauty and visual aesthetics of Lakshmi Narayan sculpture of kandariya Mahadev
temple. Also briefly evaluate the medium and the period of sculpture along with the distinct
characteristics of the temple.
Q13. Elaborate the architecture style of the mahabalipuram.
Q14. Write a detailed on the method of bronze casting.
Q15 . Explain Taj mahal with features of architecture.

Page 3 of 3
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK
CLASS XI (2023-24)
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
UNIT 1 CHANGING TRENDS & CAREER IN PHYSICAL EDUCATION.
Q1. How many verticals are there in the Khelo India Programme?
a. Ten
b. Eleven
c. Twelve
d. Thirteen
Q2. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India launched the Khelo India
Programme in
a. 2013-2014
b. 2014-2015
c. 2016-2017
d. 2017-2018
Q3. The maximum duration of ‘Long Term Athlete Development Programme’ is
a. 4 Years
b. 6 Years
c. 8 Years
d. 12 Years
Q4. The scheme of ‘Sports for Peace & Development’ is exclusively for the state/UT
a. Jammu & Kashmir
b. Delhi and NCR
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Punjab
Q5. After competing D.P.Ed. you can teach Classes
a. I to VIII
b. I to V
c. VI to VIII
d. I to X
Q6. Which course of Physical Education is not recognised by NCTE?
a. D.P.Ed.
b. B.P.Ed.
c. M.P.Ed.
d. B.P.E.S
Q7. Which one is NOT a research-oriented course in Physical Education?
a. M.P.Ed.
b. M.Phil.
c. Ph.D. in Physical Education
d. P.D.F. in Physical Education

Page 1 of 18
Q8. Amongst the following, which one is the key process in Physical Education?
a. Evaluating performance
b. Checking competency
c. Making efforts
d. Developing skills
Q9. Amongst the following which one is NOT the aim of social development in Physical
Education?
a. Obeying of rules and regulations
b. Showing sportsmanship
c. Cooperation with peers
d. Playing for self
Q10. What is the Khelo India Programme?
Q11. What is the philosophy of the Khelo India Programme?
Q12. What is the vision and mission of Khelo India Programme?
Q13. What is the plan of the government under the vertical of ‘Promotion of Sports
Among Persons with Disabilities’?
Q14. What is the need of sports competition in school? Discuss in detail.
Q15. Will the increase in professional sports leagues bring any transformation in Indian
sporting culture? Justify your answer.
Q16. Do you think ‘Sports for Peace and Development’ will work for restoration of peace in
Jammu and Kashmir? Support your answer with evidence.
Q17. What is the full form of NCTE?
Q18. Apart from a professional degree in Physical Education, what other key skills are
required for opting for a career other than teaching?
Q19. What are the minimum eligibility criteria for getting admission in B.P.Ed. course?
Q20. If one is not a sportsperson, is he/she eligible for getting admission in M.P.Ed.? Why/
Why not?
Q21. How many different kinds of courses and career options in Physical Education are
available in India?
Q22. After completion of any professional course in Physical Education, how many career
options will you have?
Q23. Can a Physical Education graduate justify the job of sports administrator? Explain
with suitable examples.
Q24. What is the aim of Physical Education?
Q25. Suggest one activity which helps to develop interest in Physical Education.
Q26. How does participation in sports lead to better emotional development?
Q27. What are the objectives of Physical Education?
Q28. How does Physical Education contribute to an individual’s development?

UNIT 2 OLYMPIC VALUE EDUCATION.

Q1. The Ancient Olympic Games started in
a. 776 BCE
b. 394 AD
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c. 1896
d. 1986
Q2. The idea for reviving the Olympic Games came from
a. Eunice Kennedy Shriver.
b. Baron Pierre de Coubertin
c. Dion Nash
d. Ludwig Guttmann
Q3. The International Paralympic Committee was formed in
a. 1960
b. 1976
c. 1989
d. 2016
Q4. The first special Winter Olympic games started in
a. 1924
b. 1962
c. 1968
d. 1977
Q5. The IOA was established in
a. 1926
b. 1927
c. 1928
d. 1930
Q6. There are ________ Vice Presidents in the IOA.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 7
d. 9
Q7. The IOC Executive Board has _members.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 10
Q8. The First President of IOA was
a. Sir Dorabji Tata
b. Dr A.G. Noehren
c. Baron de Coubertin
d. Maharaja Bhupender Singh
Q9. The word “Altius” in the Olympic motto means
a. Faster
b. Higher
c. Heavier
d. Stronger

Page 3 of 18
Q10. The logo of Olympic Games was created by
a. Eunice Kennedy Shriver.
b. Deion Nash
c. Guttmann
d. Baron Coubertin
Q11. The first Olympic torch was litin
a. 1896, Athens, Greece
b. 1920, Antwerp, Belgium
c. 1924, Paris, France
d. 1928, Amsterdam, Netherlands
Q12. The Olympic flag was used for the first time
a. 1896, Athens, Greece
b. 1920, Antwerp, Belgium
c. 1924, Paris, France
d. 1928, Amsterdam, Netherlands
Q13. What is the motto of the Olympic Games? What does it mean?
Q14. Write a short note on the Olympic Flag..
Q15. List the range of disabilities of athletes for Paralympic Games.
Q16. Differentiate between Paralympic and Special Olympic Games.
Q17. Write down the eligibility conditions of a competitor in ancient Olympics.
Q18. Write a brief note on the origin and conduct of Ancient Olympics.
Q19. How did the Modern Olympic games originate?
Q20. Write a short note on the Special Olympics.

UNIT 3 YOGA.
Q1. The purpose of Yoga is to attain
a. Perfect health
b. peace of mind
c. stress relief
d. enlightenment or self-realization.
Q2. There are eight stages of training for a yogi to go through in order to reach “moksha”
(release). What is the final stage called?
a. Samadhi
b. Yama
c. Pranayama
d. Kaivalya
Q3. Yama and Niyama area part of
a. physical growth
b. charity
c. meditation
d. morality and ethics
Q4. Out of the following which one is NOT Ashtanga Yoga?
a. Yama
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b. Niyama
c. Dhauti
d. Pratyahar
Q5. To stabilize and focus the mind on one object, image, sound or idea is called
a. Dharana
b. Dhyana
c. Samadhi
d. Pratyahara
Q6. Which of the following Asana can be practiced immediately after food?
a. Siddhasana
b. Simhasana
c. Swastikasana
d. Vajrasana
Q7. Withdrawal of senses from the sensory objects is
a. Dharana
b. Dhyana
c. Pratyahara
d. Samadhi
Q8. Which of the following Asana is good for thyroid gland?
a. Dhanurasana
b. Paschimottanasana
c. Chakrasana
d. Sarvangasana
Q9. ____________ is a very good Kriya to get rid of nasal allergy?
a. Vastradhauti
b. Dandadhauti
c. Neti
d. Kapalbhati
Q10. Suryanamaskar is a well-devised combination of ………………. and breathing.
a. Pranayama
b. Dhyana
c. Bandha
d. Asana
Q11. Which of these is a Kriya?
a. Kapalbhati
b. Bhastrika
c. Ujjayi
d. Nadishodhana
Q12. Shoucha is the sub-discipline of
a.Yama
b.Asana
c.Pranayama
d.niyama
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Q13. Yoga-Nidrais performed.
a. Shavasana
b. Simhasana
c. Swastikasana
d. Vajrasana
Q14. Yoga-Nidra is a/an
a. Asana
b. Pranayama
c. Dhayan
d. Samadhi
Q15. Define yoga.
Q16. Who is known as Father of Yoga?
Q17. How can yoga contribute in enhancing personal power?
Q18. What is the role of yoga in reducing stress?
Q19. List the importance of yoga.
Q20. What is the modern concept of yoga?
Q21. How does yoga help in self-actualization?
Q22. How does yoga help in attitude formation?
Q23. List the components of Ashtanga Yoga.
Q24. What is Yama?
Q25. What is Niyama?
Q26. What are the purpose of Ashtanga Yoga?
Q27. How does yoga contribute to an individual’s personality development?
Q28. How do yogic asanas help in developing neuro-muscular coordination?
Q29. What is significance of Pranayama?
Q30. What is the effect of Kriyas on our body?
Q31. How does meditation help in relaxing the mind?
Q32. What is the role of yoga to produce an effective citizen for the country?
Q33. What is yoga-Nidra? Explain the benefits of yoga-Nidrain detail.
Q34. What is meditation?
UNIT 4 PHYSICAL EDUCATION & SPORTS FOR CWSN.
Q1. The Right to Education
a. makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14
b. provides special facilities to children with various types of disabilities
c. gives no special opportunities forchildren who are differently-abled
d. enforces Adapted Physical Education programmefor children with special needs
Q2. The aim of Adapted Physical Education is
a. to enhance the potential of differently-abled students in physical education and sports
b. to restrict the dangers and challenges faced by children with special needs on the field
c. to provide equal opportunity to differently-abled students in physical education and
sports
d. to design special equipment for the use of differently-abled students and infants

Page 6 of 18
Q3. Down syndrome is a condition that results in
a. Physical disability
b. Cognitive disability
c. Intellectual disability
d. Affective disorders
Q4. A child who has difficulty in following directions related to basic spatial movements
has
a. Physical disability
b. Cognitive disability
c. Intellectual disability
d. Affective disorders
Q5. According to WHO, a disability is a
a. health problem
b. activity limitation
c. interaction between individual and society.
d. participation restriction
Q6. To develop abilities of children with special needs, it is essential to have an
educational set up that is
a. inclusive
b. integrated
c. regular mainstream
d. special school
Q7. The first Integrated Physical education Programme started in
a. 1738
b. 1838
c. 1900
d. 1938
Q8. The reason Paralympic Games got their name was because
a. they were meant for athletes suffering from paraplegia.
b. they run alongside or parallel to the Olympic Games.
c. the athletes are paragons of their sports.
d. they are attended by a large number of paramedics.
Q9. Paralympic Games was a 1948 sporting competition held at Stoke Mandeville games
in
a. England
b. London
c. Germany
d. Greece
Q10. The founder of Special Olympics was
a. Eunice Kennedy Shriver
b. John F. Kennedy
c. Lyndon B. Johnson
d. Donald Trump
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Q11. The first Special Olympics Games were held in
a. Chicago
b. Paris
c. New York
d. Washington D.C.
Q12. The professional who works along with CWSN, parents, teachers, other school
personnel, and members of the community in helping them become effective members
of the community is
a. the Counsellor
b. the Physiotherapist
c. Occupational Therapist
d. Physical Education Teacher
Q13. The most important area catered to by Adapted Physical Education is
a. Physical health
b. Mental health
c. Social health
d. Emotional health
Q14. Exclusion from physical activity adds to lifestyle related challenges. The most
important is
a. Hyper activity
b. obesity
c. diabetes
d. All of the above
Q15. Define Adapted Physical Education?
Q16. Which diagnostic categories qualify a student for Adapted Physical Education?
Q17. How does Adaptive Physical Education provide CWSN the capacity to be functionally
active?
Q18. Why are safety issues important for CWSN during Physical Education?
Q19. How does Adaptive Physical Education build self-esteem in CWSN?
Q20. What are the chief objectives of Adaptive Physical Education?
Q21. Define disability.
Q22. What is the role of school in encouraging participation of CWSN in PE?.
Q23. When and where did Paralympics start? What was the purpose of these games?
Q24. What is the vision of the International Paralympic Committee?
Q25. What is the anthem of the Paralympics?
Q26. What do you understand by the term hypertonia?
Q27. Differentiate between Special Olympics and Paralympics.
Q28. What do you know about Deaflympics?
Q29. Write a short note on Special Olympics.
Q30. List the Programmes run by Special Olympics around the world.
Q31. What is the role of the School Counsellor in inclusive education?
Q32. Discuss the role of physiotherapist in integrated education.
Q33. Discuss the role of Speech Therapist in inclusive education.
Page 8 of 18
Q34. Describe the role of Special Educator in inclusive education.
UNIT 5PHYSICAL FITNESS, WELLNESS & LIFESTYLE.
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a component of Wellness
a. Physical
b. Cosmetic
c. Mental
d. Occupational
Q2. Occupational wellness is related with
a. fitness
b. meditation
c. environment
d. job
Q3. Physical activity can help with
a. increased stress levels
b. increased getting sleep
c. causing restless leg syndrome
d. helping your social life
Q4. Which is NOT a health related Physical Fitness component?
a. Muscular endurance
b. Cardio respiratory endurance
c. speed
d. flexibility
Q5. Which is a component of Skill related Fitness?
a. Agility
b. Balance
c. Coordination
d. All of the above
Q6. Which is a component of Skill related Fitness?
a. Muscular Strength
b. Power
c. Body Composition
d. Flexibility
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a technique to assess body fat?
a. body mass index
b. skin fold thickness
c. hydro static weighing
d. air displacement
Q8. Which is NOT a balance test?
a. Standing Balance Test
b. One Leg Stand
c. Plate Tapping
d. Flamingo Balance

Page 9 of 18
 Q9. Which is a gold standard measure of body composition?
a. Height and Weight
b. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis
c. Hydrostatic Weighing
d. Skin fold
Q10. Define wellness.
Q11. Define the physical wellness.
Q12. Define the spiritual component of wellness.
Q13. What is wellness? What is importance of wellness?
Q14. Describe the seven components of wellness.
Q15. Write a short note on health-related fitness.
Q16. What do you mean by skill related fitness?
Q17. What do you mean by Physical Fitness?
Q18. Define physical fitness component “Muscular Endurance”
Q19. What is the difference between Physical fitness component Speed and agility?
Q20. List the methods used to measure body composition.
Q21. Describe Health related fitness components?
Q22. Differentiate between skill-related and health-related components of physical
fitness.

UNIT 6 TEST, MEASUREMENT AND EVALUATION.

Q1. Zero degree temperature is an example of scale of measurement.
a. Nominal
b. Interval
c. Ordinal
d. Ratio
Q2. Mohan’s height is 3ft 11in. 3ft 11 in is an example of
a. test
b. measurement
c. evaluation
d. assessment
Q3. The term ‘placement’ refers to
a. giving all students the same training Programme
b. placing students into categories based on their skills
c. determining the strengths and weaknesses of individuals
d. predicting a student’s future success in a particular spor
Q4. Test and measurement scores are helpful in
a. determining the strengths, weaknesses and limitations of a student
b. discouraging the student from participating in a particular activity
c. helping a student pick up the sports activity of his/her choice
d. predicting the student’s future level of achievement
Q5. Skinfold technique is used to measure
a. weight
b. fat percentage
c. girth measurement
d. over fatness
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 Q6. WHR is calculate by
a. multiplying waist by hip measurement
b. adding hip by waist measurement
c. dividing hip by waist measurement
d. subtracting waist from hip measurement
Q7. What is a test?
Q8. What is measurement?
Q9. What is Evaluation?
Q10. What is the role test and measurement in Diagnosis?
Q11. What are the objectives of test and Measurement?
Q12. What is role of Test and measurement in Placement?
Q13. Distinguish between Test, Measurement and Evaluation.
Q14. Highlight their importance in Sports.
Q15. What is BMI?
Q16. What is WHR?
Q17. What is Overweight and obesity?
Q18. Vilas, a male person whose weighs is 90 kg and his height is 1.7 m. Calculate
his BMI. Also state the category in which he falls.

UNIT 7 FUNDAMENTALS OF ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY IN SPORTS.

Q1. Muscles are connected to bones by
a. ligaments
b. cartilage
c. tendons
d. None of the above
Q2. A flexor
a. decreases the angle at a joint
b. extends a limb
c. moves a limb towards the midline
d. None of the above
Q3. Shoulder and Hip Joints are an example of
a. ball and socket joint
b. hinge joint
c. saddle joint
d. None of the above
Q4. Histology refers to the study of the
a. cells of the body
b. history of anatomy
c. tissues of the body
d. Both a) and c)
Q5. The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the
a. pleura
b. pericardium
c. mucosa
d. None of the above
Q6. The short bones are generally
a. flat
b. cube-shaped

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c. curved
d. thin
Q7. One of the functions of the skeletal system includes haematopoiesis
which refers to
a. provision of support to the body
b. formation of blood cells
c. production of minerals
d. protection of delicate organs
Q8. A child has bones.
a. 206
b. 213
c. 225
d. 270
Q9. Bones serves as a store house for
a. potassium
b. calcium and phosphorus
c. calcium
d. nitrogen
Q10. According to the functional classification of joint which focuses on the
amount of the movement of the joint, synarthroses are also known as:
a. immovable joints
b. slightly movable joints
c. freely movable joints
d. combination of immovable and slightly movable joints
Q11. The sutures of the skull are the best examples of:
a. cartilaginous joints
b. synovial joints
c. fibrous joints
d. freely movable joints
Q12. The synovial joints in which angular movement is allowed in just one
plane is called
a. hinge joint
b. saddle joint
c. plane joint
d. pivot joint
Q13. How many types of muscle tissue are there?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Q14. Locomotion and facial expression are one of the important
responsibilities of
a. Cardiac muscles
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Smooth muscle
d. cardiac and skeletal muscles
Q15. The ability of a muscle to shorten forcefully is known as
a. extensibility
b. contractility
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 c. elasticity
d. excitability
Q16. The study of the larger structures of the body such as heart, lungs and
bones is known as
a. Systemic Anatomy
b. Regional Anatomy
c. Surface Anatomy
d. Microscopic Anatomy
Q17. The athlete who has a greater dominance of slow twitch muscle fibre is
a. a sprinter
b. a middle distance runner
c. a long distance runner
d. a long jumper
Q18. Differentiate between Anatomy and Physiology.
Q19. What is the difference between Gross Anatomy and Microscopic Anatomy?
20. Define Anatomy and Physiology. Elucidate the importance of Anatomy and
Physiology in the field of sports.
Q21. Name the longest and the shortest bones in the body.
Q22. List at least two functions of the skeletal system.
Q23. Name the four main classification of bones.
Q24. What are the two basic classifications of a joint?.
Q25. What is the major difference between a fibrous joint and a cartilaginous joint?
Q26. Name two ball and socket joints of the body.
Q27. What is a muscle? List the major types of muscles.
Q28. Enlist the four major functional characteristics of the skeletal muscles.
Q29. Write down the properties of cardiac muscle
Q30. How are smooth muscles different from cardiac muscles?
Q31. Where are smooth muscles found?
Q32. How do cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles?

UNIT 8 FUNDAMENTALS OF KINESIOLOGY AND BIOMECHANICS IN SPORTS.

Q1. The science that deals with the structural aspect of the human body is known
as ______
a. Physiology
b. Anatomy
c. Botany
d. Kinesiology
Q2. The scientific study about the human or non-human body movements it is
known as ______
a. Physiology
b. Anatomy
c. Biology
d. Kinesiology
Q3. Kinesiology is the scientific study of human
(a) motion
(b) fitness
(c) behavior
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(d) disease
Q4.A movement takes place in sagittal planes and decreases the angle between
two body parts is known as
(a) Extension
(b) Flexion
(c) Abduction
(d) Adduction
Q5. Movement that allows a feet to be turned towards mid-line is:
(a) Extension
(b) Flexion
(c) Supination
(d) inversion
Q6. The moment of the arm away from the body in the frontal plane is
(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Abduction
(d) Adduction
Q7. Movement of a ball in bowling is which type of motion?
(a) Sliding
(b) Rolling
(c) Static
(d) None
Q8. is the study of the systems and structures of biological organisms that how
they react to various forces and to external stimuli:
(a) Biomechanics
(b) Biodiversity
(c) Biology
(d) None of these
Q9. The movement resulting in a degree increase at a joint is
(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Rotation
(d) Inversion
Q10. The process in which limbs moving away from the body's mid-line in the
front plane.
(a) Adduction
(b) Rotation
(c) Abduction
(d) Flexion
Q11. Define Kinesiology.
Q12. List the importance of Kinesiology in sports.
Q13. List the main objectives of kinesiology.
Q14. What is Biomechanics in Sports.
Page 14 of 18
 Q15. What are the different principles of Biomechanics.
Q16. What is the difference between Axis and Planes.
Q17. What are the different types of Axes movement.
Q18. Describe in detail the types of body movements with examples: Flexion,
extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, supination and
pronation.
Q19. What is the principal concept of biomechanics?
Q20. What are axis and planes, its concepts and applications in body movements?
Q21. Explain in detail about the definition and importance of kinesiology and
biomechanics in sports.

UNIT 9PSYCHOLOGY AND SPORTS.

Q1. Psychology as study of behaviour was defined by
a. JB Watson
b. Plato
c. Skinner
d. Pavlov
Q2. Who known as father of experimental psychology?
a. Wilhelm Wundt
b. John B Watson
c. Richard H Cox
d. Sigmund Freud
Q3. Which of the following is an aspect of growth?
a. Intelligence
b. Emotion
c. Height
d. Leadership
Q4. Growth refers to
a. change in emotion
b. change in physiology
c. change in ability
d. change in maturity
Q5. Infancy stage is for the age group
a. 2-6 years
b. 6-11 years
c. 11-20 years
d. 0-2 years
Q6. Change in memory and perception are indicators of
a. social development
b. physical development

Page 15 of 18
 c. mental development
d. emotional development
Q7. Peer interaction and relationship reflects
a. group dynamics
b. physical growth
c. moral values
d. emotional development
Q8. Rajita regularly binges on large meals. She then makes herself vomit and
follows up with two hours of exercise. Rajita is most likely suffering from which
eating disorder?
a. Toxaemia
b. Obesity
c. Bulimia nervosa
d. Anorexia nervosa
Q9. Which of the following is the age group for Early Adolescence?
a. 6-9 yrs.
b. 10-14 yrs.
c. 14-17 yrs.
d. 17-19 yrs.
Q10. Define psychology?
Q11. Define sports psychology?
Q12. In what ways could knowledge of sports psychology benefit athletes?
Q13. Define Growth and Development?
Q14. Discuss the importance of Growth and Development in Sports?
Q15. Differentiate between Growth and Development?
Q16. Describe various elements of growth and development?
Q17. Which type of activities can be undertaken in early childhood? Why?
Q18. Discuss the developmental characteristics of early childhood and their impact
on learning.
Q19. Define Adolescence as per WHO?
Q20. Explain the different stages of adolescence?
Q21. List some of the problems of adolescence.
Q22. Describe various adolescence problems? How can they be managed?

UNIT 10 TRAINING AND DOPING IN SPORTS.

Q.1………………. is the basic form of preparation of a sportsman.
(a) sports training
(b) physical training
(c) body training
(d) None
Q2. Antically increasing the concentration of red blood cells in blood is known as
(a) Diuretics
(b) Gene doping
Page 16 of 18
(c) Peptide hormone therapy
(d) Blood doping
Q3 What is the full form of WADA?
(a) world anti-doping agency
(b) Warrior education development Act
(c) world education location development Act
(d) None
Q4 What is the name of method used in sport when athletes use prohibited
Substance or methods to unfairly improve their sporting performance?
(a) stimulates
(b) diuretic
(c) doping
(d) none
Q.5. When was WADA created?
(a) 2002
(b) 1993
(c) 1999
(d) 1998
Q.6. is defined by world Anti-doping agency as "the non -therapeutic use of cells,
genes, genetic, elements modulation of give expression etc.
(a) gene doping
(b) doping
(c) blood doping
(d) none
Q7. Acne, impair line’s function make pattern baldness etc. are the examples of
side effect of:
(a) sports food
(b) use of prohibited substance
(c) sports drinks
(d) None
Q.8. refer to use of banned performance enhancing drugs by athletic competitors.
(a) Doping
(b) Gene in doping
(c) blood doping
(d) None
Q.9. Anabolic steroids stimulate, narcotics, peptide hormone etc. are the
examples of:
(a) prohibited substance
(b) health supplements
(c) disease curing medicine
(d) none of these
Q10. is the process of adjustment to a specific stimulus.
(a) Adaptation
Page 17 of 18
(b) Recovery
(c) Load
(d) None
Q11. "Regaining what was lost" is
(a) Adaptation
(b) Recovery
(c) Load
(d) None
Q12. is a scientific and systematic process by which sports performance of an
athlete is improved by means of fitness.
(a) Recovery
(b) Load
(c) Training
(d) None

Q13.Anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) were first identified and synthesized in

the
(a) 1960's
(c) 1940's
(b) 1930's
(d) 1950s
Q14. What do you understand by Sports Training?
Q15. What do you know about World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)?
Q16. What do you mean by blood doping?
Q17. Explain in brief the genetic doping.
Q18. What is Manipulation of blood?
Q19. What are the disadvantages of doping?
Q20. Explain Doping control procedure.
Q21. Explain Limbering down.
Q22. Differentiate between active and passive warm-up.
Q23. Describe in detail about technique.
Q24. Discuss Tactics and Strategies in brief.
Q25. Explain Sports training and its various principles.
Q26. What are the meaning, definition and types of doping?
Q27. Explain the types of performance enhancing drugs.
Q28. Write an essay on prohibited substances and methods created by WADA.
Q29. What are the responsibilities of an athlete towards doping free sports?
Q30. Explain in detail the disadvantages of doping.
Q31. What do you mean by Limbering down and describe its importance?
Q32. Explain the 'Skill' in details. What are the types of skill?
Q33. Write short notes on Tactics and Strategies.

Page 18 of 18
 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CLASS – XI (2023-24)
PHYSICS (042)
SECTION A
1. One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is ℎ𝑐/ . The unit of this
expression is:
(a) kg2 (b) m3 (c) s-1 (d) m
2. Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures?
(a) 0.007 m2 (b) 2.64x1024 kg (c) 0.0006032m2 (d) 6.3200 J
2
3. If π = 3.14, then the value of π is
(a) 9.8596 (b) 9.860 (c) 9.86 (d) 9.9
4. Round of the following number 19.95 into three significant figures.
(a) 19.9 (b) 20.0 (c) 20.1 (d) 19.5
5. 1 AU is equal to:
a) 1.5x1011cm; b) 1.5x1011m; c) 9.46x1013m; d) 9.46x103km
6. Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length? Show with calculations:
a. A vernier calliperse with 20 divisions on the vernier scale
b. a screw gauge of pitch 1mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
c. an optical instrument that can measure wavelength up to 6000Ǻ
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimension?
(a) force and power (b) torque and energy
(c) torque and power (d) force and torque
8. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant h is
(a) [ML2T-1] (b) [ML2T-3] (c) [MLT-1] (d) [ML3T-3]
9. The velocity of a particle 𝑣 at an instant t is given by 𝑣 = at +bt2. The dimensions of b is
(a) [L] (b) [LT-1] (c) [LT-2] (d) [LT-3]
10. A car travels half the distance L with speed V1 and other half with speed V2. Its average speed is
a) (V1+V2)/2 ; b) (2V1+V2)/ (V1+V2) ;
c) 2V1V2/ (V1+V2) ; d) L(V1+V2)/V1V2
11. Constant acceleration means x-t graph will have:
a. Constant slope; b. will be curved;
c. will have negative slope; d. all of them
12. A particle moves in a circular path of radius 7m. The distance travelled by the particle when it
completes a semicircular path
a) 22m ; b) 24m ; c) 34m ; d) 21m
13. The displacement of a particle starting from rest at t = 0 is x=3t 2-t3. The time at which
acceleration is zero is
a) 2s ; b) 1s ; c) 3s ; d) 4s
14. The angle between A=i+j and B=i-j is
a) 45°; b) 90° ; c) -45° ; d) 180°
15. Two vectors having magnitude 3 unit and 4 unit are at an angle of 60 °. The magnitude of their
difference is
a) √13 ; b) √14 ; c) √18 ; d) √11

Page 1 of 4
16. When the sum of two vectors are maximum
a) both vectors are parallel ; b) both vectors are parallel ;
c) both vectors are perpendicular ; d) both a,b,c are correct
17. The angle between vector A and B is 60 °. The ratio of A.B and AXB is
a) 1/√2; b) 1/√5 ; c) 1/√3 ; d) 1/√7
18. Two bodies are projected at an angle of θ and 𝜋/2 to the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio
of their flight time is
a) sinθ ; b) tan θ ; c) cos θ ; d) cot θ
19. On an inclined plane the coefficient of static friction is given by
a) tan θ ; b) μktan θ ; c) mg tan θ ; d) mg μktan θ
20. The outer rail of a curved railway track is generally raised over the inner. Why?
21. A stone of mass m tied to end of the string revolves in a vertical circle of radius R. The net force at
the lowest point is
a) mg + T ; b) mg – T ; c) mg +T – mv2/R ; d) mg –T - mv2/R
22. Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood from
a) conservation of energy ; ) b) Newton first law only ;
c) Newton second law only d) both Newton second law and third law
23. Why the total energy of a satellite is always negative?
24. Define normal stress?
25. What is permanent set?
26. A uniform force of (2𝑖̂+ 𝑗̂)+ N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces from position (3𝑗̂+
𝑘̂) m to (5𝑖̂+ 3𝑗̂).The work done by the force on the particle is
(a) 9 J (b) 6 J (c) 10 J (d) 12 J
27. A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building whose height is 80 m.
After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
(a) √2 : 1 (b) 1 : √2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
28. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s-1. It momentarily comes to rest after
attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (Take g = 10ms-2)
a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 10 J
29. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon,
(a) position of particles (b) relative distance between particles
(c) masses of particles (d) force acting on particle
30. A couple produces,
(a) pure rotation (b) pure translation
(c) rotation and translation (d) no motion
31. A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to positive X-axis. The magnitude
of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is,
(a) zero (b) increasing with x (c) decreasing with x (d) remaining constant
32. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force 30
33. The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit is independent of.
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) The mass of the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit (d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
34. If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from its present value, the number
of days in a year would be
(a) 64.5 (b) 1032 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
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35. According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from the Sun sweeps out equal areas
in equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of
(a) conservation of linear momentum (b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy (d) conservation of kinetic energy
36. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth is
(a) always positive (b) always negative
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always zero
37. A distant star emits radiation with maximum intensity at 350 nm. The temperature of the star is
(a) 8280 K (b) 5000K (c) 7260 K (d) 9044 K
38. Identify the state variables given here?
(a) Q, T, W (b) P, T, U (c) Q, W (d) P, T, Q
39. When you exercise in the morning, by considering your body as thermodynamic system, which of
the following is true?
(a) ΔU > 0, W > 0 (b) ΔU < 0, W > 0 (c) ΔU < 0, W < 0 (d) ΔU = 0, W > 0
40. A hot cup of coffee is kept on the table. After some time, it attains a thermal equilibrium with the
surroundings. By considering the air molecules in the room as a thermodynamic system, which of
the following is true
(a) ΔU > 0, Q = 0 (b) ΔU > 0, W < 0 (c) ΔU > 0, Q > 0 (d) ΔU = 0, Q > 0
41. The displacement of a simple harmonic motion is given by y(t) = A sin (ωt + ϕ) where A is amplitude
of the oscillation, ω is the angular frequency and ϕ is the phase. Let the amplitude of the oscillation
be 8 cm and the time period of the oscillation is 24 s. If the displacement at initial time (t = 0 s) is 4
cm, then the displacement at t = 6 s is
(a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 4 √3 cm (d) 8 √3 cm
42. A simple pendulum has a time period T1. When its point of suspension is moved vertically upwards
according as y = k t2, where y is vertical distance covered and k = 1 ms−2, its time period becomes T2.
Then, 𝑇1 2/ 𝑇2 2 is (g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 5/ 6 (b) 11/ 10 (c) 6/ 5 (d) 5 /4
43. An ideal spring of spring constant k, is suspended from the ceiling of a room and a block of mass M
is fastened to its lower end. If the block is released when the spring is un-stretched, then the
maximum extension in the spring is
(a) 4 Mg/ k (b) Mg/ k (c) 2 Mg /k (d) Mg /2k
44. In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against displacement for one complete oscillation
will be
(a) an ellipse (b) a circle (c) a parabola (d) a straight line
45. A particle executing SHM crosses points A and B with the same velocity. Having taken 3 s in passing
from A to B, it returns to B after another 3 s. The time period is
(a) 15 s (b) 6 s (c) 12 s (d) 9 s
46. The length of a second’s pendulum on the surface of the Earth is 0.9 m. The length of the same
pendulum on surface of planet X such that the acceleration of the planet X is n times greater than
the Earth is
(a) 0.9n (b) 0.9/ 𝑛 (c) 0.9 n2 (d) 0.9/ 𝑛2
47. A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In medium A, the velocity of the
transverse wave is 500 ms-1 and the wavelength is 5 m. The frequency and the wavelength of the
wave in medium B when its velocity is 600 ms-1, respectively are
(a) 120 Hz and 5 m (b) 100 Hz and 5 m
(c) 120 Hz and 6 m (d) 100 Hz and 6 m
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48. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin(450t – 9x),
where distance and time are measured in SI units. The tension in the string is
(a) 5 N (b) 12.5 N (c) 7.5 N (d) 10 N
49. A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then hits the water surface. The ratio of
its wavelengths in water and air is
(a) 4.30 (b) 0.23 (c) 5.30 (d) 1.23
50. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x direction is given by 𝒚 = (𝟐𝐱𝟏𝟎− ) (𝟑𝟎𝟎𝒕 − 𝟐𝒙 + 𝝅 /𝟒)
where x and y are measured in metres and t in second. The speed of the wave is
(a) 150 ms-1 (b) 300 ms-1 (c) 450 ms-1 (d) 600 ms-1
SECTION B
51. Is the speed of the projectile zero at the highest point of its trajectory when thrown at some angle
to the horizontal? Explain?
52. Using principle of homogeneity check dimensional consistency T=2 𝜋 √l/√g.
53. What is principle of superposition? What are central forces?
54. A car of mass 1000kg is moving with a speed of 36km/h on a level road. Calculate the retarding force
required to stop the car in a distance of 50m?
55. A bullet fired at an angle of 30◦ with the horizontal hits the ground 3km away. By adjusting its angle
of projection, can one hope to hit a target 5km away? Assume the muzzle speed to be fixed.
56. If |AXB|=√3 (A.B), then find the angle between vectors A and B?
SECTION C
2
57. The position of an object is given by x=2t +3t. Find out whether its motion is uniform or non-
uniform?
58. A boy stands at 78.4m from a building and throws a ball which just enters a window 39.2m above
the ground. Calculate the velocity of projection of the ball?
59. Derive an expression for work done by a constant force. Can a body have energy without
momentum? If yes explain how they are related with each other?
60. Deduce an expression for gravitational potential of a unit mass at a distance r from point mass M? Is
gravitational potential always negative? Explain?

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAM
CLASS-XI (2023-24)
POLITICAL SCIENCE (028)
SECTION-A (2 MARKS EACH)
1. Who moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in Constituent Assembly?
2. What are the different forms of justice mentioned in the Preamble to the constitution of India?
3. Mention two features of Indian Secular State.
4. Write down the different forms of liberty mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution.
5. What do you mean by the term of fundamental rights?
6. What is meant by a Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Quo-warranto.
7. Mention the importance of Fundamental Rights.
8. Write a short note on Supreme Court as a protector of Fundamental Rights.
9. Why do we need elections?
10. Why electoral reforms are necessary in India?
11. What is the countermanding of election?
12. Give two advantages of Universal Adult Franchise.
13. Describe the composition of Election Commission.
14. Mention four advantages of single transferable vote system.
15. What is meant by Territorial Representation?
16. Mention various kinds of Executive.
17. Write down the legislative powers of the President.
18. Why it is said that the Prime Minister is at the head of the council of ministers?
19. Write down functions of Bureaucracy.
20. How is Rajya Sabha constituted?
21. What are the qualifications of the member of Lok Sabha?
22. Narrate the circumstances under which a joint session of Parliament is summoned.
23. Mention the special powers of the Rajya Sabha.
24. What is the meaning of Independence of Judiciary?
25. State the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
26. How are the judges of the High Court appointed?
27. Mention any two problems in the way of speedy justice.
28. Write four essential features of federation.
29. How many subjects are in the State list? Mention the names of two state subjects.
30. What do you understand by local self government?

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31. To what extend Panchayati Raj System has helped in strengthening the Indian Democracy at the grass-
root level?
32. Write two provisions of 73rd and 74th Amendment Act. Give any two compulsory and two optional
functions of Municipal Corporation.
33. Why Indian Constitution is called blend of rigidity and flexibility?
34. Why is Indian Constitution is called as a ‘Bag of Borrowings’?
35. Write down any two subjects included in the scope of Political Theory.
36. Mention the names of three great personalities who fought for their national freedom.
37. Mention any two pre-conditions which are essential for individual freedom.
38. Write two features of Equality?
39. Mention kinds of Equality?
40. Mention any two postulates of Justice.
41. Do you agree that majority of the people are denied social justice in India? Discuss.
42. Distinguish between rights and claims.
43. How are Rights and Duties interrelated? Give two examples.
44. Explain the role of education in the development of Human personality.

SECTION-B (4 MARKS EACH)

45. Why is Indian Constitution bulky?

46. Write a short note on Constituent Assembly of India.
47. Explain the composition of the Constituent Assembly of India.
48. What are the main difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
49. Explain the right to personal liberty.
50. Write a short note on Supreme Court as a protector of Fundamental Rights.
51. Distinguish between direct and indirect Democracy.
52. Explain the single transferable vote system.
53. How does the election commission ensures fair and free elections?
54. Describe any four functions of the Election Commission.
55. Mention any four drawbacks in Indian electoral system.
56. What is a Parliamentary form of government?
57. “The Prime Minister is the key-stone of the Cabinet arch”. Explain.
58. ‘The President is an essential part of the Parliament.’ Do you agree with this statement?
59. Explain in brief the composition of the Union Legislature or Parliament.
60. Write a short note on Parliament’s control over the Council of Ministers.
61. Mention the various stages through which the bill passes before becoming an Act.
62. In what way can Public Interest Litigation help the poor?

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63. Explain four functions of the Supreme Court.
64. What do you understand by the term Judicial Review?
65. What are the weakness in Indian Judicial System?
66. List four features of the Indian Constitution that give greater power to the Central government than the
State government.
67. Why we need a strong Centre? Give reasons.
68. Which values highlight Indian Constitution’s unitary feature?
69. Write any four problems of Panchayati Raj in India.
70. Explain the importance of the Panchayati Raj.
71. List any four functions of the Urban Local Self-Government.
72. Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution.
73. Describe the methods through which Indian Constitution can be amended.
74. What is the difference between the negative and positive conception of liberty?
75. What do you mean by Self-regarding and other-regarding activities?
76. Political liberty in the absence of economic equality is meaningless. Explain.
77. What do you mean by Equality.
78. Mention any two kinds of Equality.
79. Discuss the importance of social justice.
80. How will you distinguish between legal and moral justice?
81. Name any four economic rights of a citizen.
82. What do you understand by civil rights? Mention any two such rights.
83. Mention any four Political Rights of a citizen.
84. State the four main duties that a citizen must perform.

SECTION-C (6 MARKS EACH)

85. Describe in brief the salient features of Indian Constitution.

86. Mention the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 of Indian Constitution. Discuss any one of them.
87. Explain the election procedure prevalent in India.
88. How is the Prime Minister appointed? Discuss his powers and functions.
89. Discuss the powers and functions of Indian Parliament.
90. Describe the composition, jurisdiction and powers of the High Court.
91. What are the federal features of the Indian Constitution? Explain.
92. Discuss in brief the procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution.
93. Describe the composition, functions and source of income of Gram Panchayat.
94. Write the nature and scope of the political theory.
95. Describe the main safeguards for the maintenance of liberty.

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96. Discuss the kinds of Equality.
97. What measures have been taken in India to secure social justice to its citizens?
98. Discuss the Civil Rights enjoyed by a citizen in modern State.
_______________________________________

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 ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
QUESTION BANK FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION
CLASS – XI (2023-24)
YOGA (841)
Q1.Who is the writer of Patanjali yoga Sutra.
a. Vedyas c.BabaRamdev
b. Swami vivekanand d.Maharshipatanjali
Q2. The components of yoga are
a. Four b. two c. Six d. Eight
Q3. Which of the following is not a part of
a. Satyac. b. Aprigrh c. Asteyad d. santosh
Q4. The component s of pranayamare
a. Three b. Two c. Five d. seven
Q5. Which is the eight limbs of Astany
a. Dhyan b. Dharana c. Samadhi d. Pratyahara
Q6. Which of the following is not a body building Asanas
a. Dhanurasana b. Ekakrasana c. Mayurasana d. Savasana
Q7. The number of yogic kriyas are:
a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Three
Q8. Which of the following asanas is also called ‘here pose’?
a. Padmasana b. Tadasana c. Sashankasana d. Halasana
Q9. Complete stability of mind is known as
a. Samadhi b. Pratayahar c. Dharana d. Dhyan
Q10. Which of the following is helpful in increasing height?
a. Padmasana b. Tadasana c. Halasana d. Sukasana
Q11. Who compiled Yoga Sutra?
a. Ghrenda b. Patanjali c. Both a and b d. None of the above
Q12. According to Bhagavad Gita, yoga is
a. Yogaschittavrittinirodhah c. Yogaskarmasukoushalam
b. Mano prasamanaupayahYogah d. Yogenachittasyapadenavacham
Q13. Who introduced SukshamaVyana?
a. Swami Ramdev c. Swami DhirendraBramachari
b. Swami Vivekananda d. Mahesh yogi
Q14. Which of the following SthulaVyayama is helpful in loosening hip joints?
a. Katichakrasana c. Titive asana
b. Knee rotation d. Ankle rotation

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Q15. What is the fourth position of Surya namaskar?
a. Padhastasana c. AshwaSanchalanasana
b. Bhujangasana d. Parvatasana
Q16. Who is the writer of Patanjali yoga Sutra.
a. Vedyas c. Baba Ramdev
b. Swami vivekanand d. Maharshipatanjali
Q17. The components of yoga are
a. Four b. Six c. Eight d. two
Q18. Which of the following is not a part of
a. Satya b. Aprigrh c. Asteya d.santosh
Q19. The component s of pranayamare
a. Three b. Two c. Five d. seven
Q20. Which is the eight limbs of Astany
a. Dhyan b. Dharana c. Samadhi d. Pratyahara
Q21. Which of the following is not a body building Asanas
a. Dhanurasana b. Ekakrasana c. Mayurasana d. Savasana
Q22. The number of yogic kriyas are
a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Three
Q23. Which of the following asanas is also called ‘here pose’?
a. Padmasana b. Tadasana c. Sashankasana d. Halasana
Q24. Complete stability of mind is known as
a. Samadhi b. Pratayahar c. Dharana d. Dhyan
Q25. Which of the following is helpful in increasing height?
a. Padmasana b. Tadasana c. Halasana d. Sukasana
Q26. Who compiled Yoga Sutra?
a. Ghrenda b. Patanjali c. Both a and b d. None of the above
Q27.According to Bhagavad Gita, yoga is
a. Yogaschittavrittinirodhah c. Yogaskarmasukoushalam
b. Mano prasamanaupayahYogah d. Yogenachittasyapadenavacham
Q28. Who introduced SukshamaVyana?
a. Swami Ramdev c. Swami DhirendraBramachari
b. Swami Vivekananda d. Mahesh yogi
Q29. Which of the following SthulaVyayama is helpful in loosening hip joints?
a. Katichakrasana c. Titive asana
b. Knee rotation d. Ankle rotation

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Q30. What is the fourth position of Surya namaskar?
a. Padhastasana c. AshwaSanchalanasana
b. Bhujangasana d. Parvatasana
Q31. Karma yoga is a branch of yoga based on the teachings of which text?
a. Patanjali b. Bhagwat gita c.Hath pardipika d. Upnishads
Q32. Pranayama is cutting down the speed of
a. Mind b. Anger c. Jealousy d. Inhalation- Exhalation
Q33. Which of the following in not shat kirya
a. Kapalbhati b. Basti c. Nauli d. Murchha
Q34. What is the ultimate aim of Hath Yoga , according to Hath Pradipka?
a. Breath control c. Steadiness and flexibility
b. Raja yoga d. Mantra Siddhi
Q35. Shatkarma are the techniques used for
a. External cleansing
b. Cleansing of GIT
c. To remove the excessive doshas from all parts of the body
d. To clean the mind
Q36. Which is the final and eighteenth chapter of Bhagavat Gita?
a. Visvarupadarshana yoga c. Vibhutivistara yoga
b. Purusottama yoga d. Moksha sanyasa yoga
Q37. Which practice of hath yoga involves drawing of air through the mouth?
a. Ujjayi b. Sitkari c. Bhramari d. Suryabhedi
Q38. The fourth chapter of the Yoga Sutras is termed as
a. Moksha pada b. Phalapada c. Kaivalyapada d. Samadhi pada
Q39. How many kinds of Kapalbhati are said in ‘Gheranda Samhita’?
a. 01 b. 02 c. 03 d. 04
Q40. “Samatvam Yoga Uchyate” definition is given in:
a. Shrimadh Bhagavad Gita c. Gherandasamhita
b. Yoga Sutra d. Hath yoga Pradipika
Q41. According to Bhagavat Gita the main forms of Yoga are
a. Laya , Hath yoga, Raja c. Mantra , Tantra, Yantra
b. Karma , Ganaan , Bhakti d. None of the above
Q42.which of the following are important during the practice of asanas?
a. Stability b. Comfort c. Effortlessness d. All the above

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Q43. Blood becomes oxygenated in lungs through gas exchange into
a. Venules b. Capillaries c. Bronchioles d. Arterioles
Q44. A gland having endocrine as well as exocrine function
a. Pituitary gland b. Thyroid c. Pancreas d. Adrenal
Q45. Water from the undigested food is absorbed mainly in the
a. Stomach b. Food pipe c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
Q46. The hormone insulin is secreted by
a. Hypothalamus c. Thymus
b. Beta cell of islet of langerhance d. Pituitary
Q47. The harmones insulin in secreted by
a. hypothalamus c. thymus
b. beta cells of islet of langerhance d. pituitary
Q48. Which of the following carries blood to the lungs?
a. capillaries c. pulmonary arteries
b. pulmonary veins d. aorta
Q49. Which of the following vertebrae are found in Neck?
a. thoracic b. cervical c. lumber d. none
Q50.pituitary gland is situated in
a. the base of the heart c. the base of the brain
b. the neck d. the abdomen
Q51. During the process of respiration in human beings, the exchange of gasses take place in
a. bronchi b. alveoli c. bronchoils d. pleura
Q52. Which asana affects the digestive system?
a. vajarasana b. udarakarshana c. matyendrasana d. all of the above
Q53. Sattvic food include:
a. fresh fruits b. onions/ garlic c. honey d. milk and butter
Q54. Which endocrine glad is master gland in our body?
a. pancreas b. adrenal c. pituitary d. pineal
Q56. Which ritucharya is suitable for the samarga of kapha and vata?
a. sisra b. vasant c. greeshma d. varsha
Q57. Which of the following part of the brain control body temperature and hunger?
a. thalamus b. pons c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus
Q58. Mitahara is defined as
a. only agreeable c. only sweet food
b. agreeable and sweet food d. none of the above

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Carrying 2 marks each:
Q1. What is the hath yoga?
Q2. What is the meaning of yoga?
Q3. What is the meaning of asana?
Q4. Define Karma yoga?
Q5. How many kiryas are there which helps to cleanse various internal organs?
Q6. What is Samadhi pada?
Q7. Describe Aprigraha?
Q8. What are Mudras and Bandhas?
Q9. Write name of Shatkarma?
Q10. Define asana as per Gherandasamhita.
Q11. How many asanas are described in Hath Yoga Pradipika name any four them.
Q12. Name the seven chapter of Gheranda Samhita.
Q13. What is the muscular system?
Q14. List out the parts of the digestive system.
Q15. Define endocrine gland.
Q16. What is meaning of yogic diet?
Q17. Define endocrine gland?
Q18. What is the concept of mithara?
Carrying 3 marks each:
Q1. Explain the procedure of Padmasana.
Q2. Write the procedure, benefits and precautions of sukhasana.
Q3. Importance of yoga in daily life? Describe it?
Q4. Importance in meditation in daily life? Describe it?
Q5. Describe the misconception about yoga?
Q6. Describe the type of Asanas.
Q7. Importance of Yoga in daily life? Describe it?
Q8. Explain yoga and its aim and objective in detail.
Q9. Write the benefits of bhujangasana.
Q10. What are the eight limbs of Ashtang yoga?
Q11. Explain the technique of Halasana.
Q12. Explain Pre- patanjali period and Post-patanjali period.
Q13. Define yoga as per Bhagvat Gita.

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Q14. Define Hath Yoga Pradipika and write there names of chapters.
Q15. Write short note on KevalaKumbhaka.
Q16. Explain benefits of Sheetkari and Ujjayi Pranayama.
Q17. Describe the heart and explain its functions.
Q18. Explain skull and vertebrae.
Q19. Write short note on Samadhi.
Q20. Describe the heart and explain its functions.
Q21. Write a short note on thyroid gland.
Q22. Explain the steps for spiritual nutrition into practice.
Q23. Describe importance of fasting in yoga.
Carrying 5 marks each:
Q1. Explain types of school of yoga in details.
Q2. What is standing asana? Explain its techniques and benefits.
Q3. Explain the origin and development of yoga in details.
Q4. Explain Do’s and Don’ts in Yoga Sadhana while practicing yoga in detail.
Q5. Explain Niyamas and its type in details.
Q6. Describe Karma yoga in detail.
Q7. Write type of yoga as per Patanjali Yoga Sutra.
Q8. Explain shatkrama and name its technique.
Q9. Explain the sevenfold path of yoga as per Gheranda Samhita.
Q10. Explain type and structure of muscles.
Q11. Explain role of yoga in health promotion.
Q12. Define respiratory system in human beings.
Q13. Describe the digestive system with diagram.
Q14. Describe the endocrine system.
Q15. Explain the ritucharya in detail.
Q16. Explain diet and its types as per Shrimad bhagavatgeeta.
Q17. Describe holistic approach of yoga.

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