MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
Session 1 and 1950s; they are now widely used as
valuable genetic research tools.
1. It is used as a basic tool in molecular
biology to ensure that we have sufficient 8. Arthur Kornberg identified the key
DNA to carry out further techniques such as enzyme in the process, DNA polymerase,
genetic modification. and first produced DNA in vitro.
a. Blotting b. Ligation 9. In 1982, the FDA approved the first
recombination protein drug: insulin for the
c. FISH d. PCR
treatment of diabetes, developed by
2. The sequencing of the Human Genome Genentech.
was completed in the year?
Session 2
a. 1998 b. 2000
[Link] two parts of a nucleotide do not
c. 2023 d. 2005 change throughout the structure of DNA?
3. They published experimental results that a. Five-Carbon Sugar and Nitrogen Base
definitively confirmed DNA as a genetic
b. Phosphate Group and Nitrogen Base
carrier.
c. Five-Carbon Sugar and Phosphate Group
a. Chase and Hershey b. Crick and Watson
d. All components remain the same
c. Letsinger and Reese d. James and Davis
throughout the DNA structure
4. The process of cutting DNA up into
2. What is the name of the process in which
smaller fragments using enzymes which
DNA is copied into messenger RNA?
only act at a particular genetic sequence.
a. reverse transcriptase b. transcription
a. Cloning b. Restriction Digest
c. translation d. translocation
c. Ligation d. Blotting
3. What is the sugar in DNA?
5. Dolly the sheep was successfully created
by Cloning in the year_____. a. Deoxyglucose b. Deoxyribulose
a. 1998 b. 1997 c. Deoxyribose d. Ribulose
c. 1995 d. 1994 4. What does Cytosine pair up with?
6. 1997 saw two major milestones in a. Guanine b. Thymine
biotechnology: the cloning of Dolly the
c. Adenine d. Leucine
sheep (1), and the first tests of gene therapy
on human patients (2). 5. What bases are called purines?
7. Barbara McClintock was belatedly a. Adenine & Thymine
recognized with a Nobel award for her
b. Adenine & Guanine
discovery of transposons during the 1940s
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
c. Guanine & Cytosine d. Replication forks can start at multiple
origins on the strands
d. Thymine & Cytosine
5. Which of the following is not a function
Session 3
of the SS-DNA Binding Proteins?
1. All of the following are substrates that
a. Enhances the activity of helicases
required in DNA synthesis; Except:
b. Protect the DNA from helicases that
a. Deoxyadenosine triphosphate
cleave single-stranded DNA
b. Deoxyguanosine triphosphate
c. Block formation of intrastrand duplexes pf
c. Deoxycytidine triphosphate hairpins that can slow replication
d. Deoxycytosine triphosphate d. Prevents reannealing of the DNA in the
area of replication origin
2. Which of the following has 5’-3’
exonuclease activity? 6. It is the primary DNA polymerase in
cellular replication
a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II
- DNA polymerase III
c. DNA polymerase III d. DNA Gyrase
7. It is the type II topoisomerase in
3. Which of the following has the ability to
prokaryotes
proofread but doesn’t have DNA
polymerase activity - DNA gyrase
a. DNA polymerase I 8. It seals the single strand nick between the
nascent chain
b. DNA polymerase II alpha subunit
- DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase II beta subunit
9. Required for proper initiation of
d. DNA polymerase III epsilon subunit
replication at the origin.
e. NOTA
- DNA protein
4. All of the statements are correct, except:
10. Parental DNA strands remained
a. Replication is the unwinding or together in 1 of the daughter cells
separation of 2 strands
- Conservative
b. Most organisms can utilize both
Session 4
unidirectional and bidirectional replication
mechanisms 1. The reading of the parental nucleotide
sequence is done in:
c. Replication forks move away from the
origin a. 3’-5’ Direction b. 5’-3’ Direction
c. Can be done on both directions
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
d. Randomly by using an assembly of c. Multipotent Stem Cells
different primers
d. Unipotent Cells
2. All of the following statements are true,
7. Produced from the fusion of an egg and
Except:
sperm cell.
a. There is continuous synthesis in the
a. Totipotent Stem Cells
leading strand
b. Pluripotent Stem Cells
b. Both the leading strand and lagging strand
synthesis are catalyzed to Pol III c. Multipotent Stem Cells
c. DNA synthesis always happen in 5’-3’ d. Unipotent Cells
direction
8. Differentiate into cells derived from any
d. Small DNA fragments are being copied of the three germ layers.
during the synthesis of the leading strand.
a. Totipotent Stem Cells
3. It is the catalytic portion of the
b. Pluripotent Stem Cells
primosome that makes the RNA primer
needed to initiate synthesis of the okazaki c. Multipotent Stem Cells
fragments.
d. Unipotent Cells
a. Primerase b. Primosome
9. Produce only cells of a closely related
c. Primorase d. NOTA family of cells (hematopoietic stem cells
differentiate into red blood cells, white
4. Eukaryotes have a replication rate of?
blood cells, platelets)
a. 1000 base pair/second
a. Totipotent Stem Cells
b. 10000 base pairs/second
b. Pluripotent Stem Cells
c. 100 base pairs/second
c. Multipotent Stem Cells
d. 10 base pairs/second
d. Unipotent Cells
5. Enzyme responsible for catalyzing DNA
Session 5
chain elongation.
1. 23S rRNA contains how many
a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase II
nucleotides?
c. DNA polymerase III d. DNA primase
a. 1541 b. 2904
6. Produce only one cell type.
c. 120 d. 294
a. Totipotent Stem Cells
e. 1542
b. Pluripotent Stem Cells
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
2. Which of the following types of 9. It is considered the most heterogenous
Eukaryotic rRNA is a transcription product type of RNA in terms of size.
of another gene?
a. mRNA b. rRNA
a. 23S b. 18S
c. tRNA d. snRNA
c. 55S d. 16S
10. Arrange the following from the 5’ end to
e. 5S the 3’ end:
3. It is considered the smallest type of RNA. 1) Cap 2) Leader sequence 3)3’UTR
a. mRNA b. rRNA 4) Poly-A tail 5) Coding region
c. tRNA d. dRNA a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 5,1,2,3,4
4. It is the most abundant type of RNA in the c. 1,2,5,3,4 d. 1,3,5,2,4
body.
e. 1,2,3,5,4
a. mRNA b. rRNA
Session 6
c. tRNA d. dRNA
1. Transcription, or the synthesis of RNA
5. They are needed in the splicing reaction from DNA template, needs to start
needed to process hnRNA to mRNA. somewhere. There exist certain segments
of DNA that contain the necessary base-pair
a. scRNAs b. snRNPs
sequence to initiate RNA synthesis. What
c. TRNA d. 5S rRNA are these sites called?
6. They are long adenylate residues (200- a. active sites b. upstream sites
300) – on the 3’-end of the RNA chain.
c. catalytic sites d. promoter sites
a. Poly-A tails b. Cap
2. RNA synthesis is catalyzed by the large
c. A-Form Helix d. A and B enzyme RNA polymerase, the holoenzyme
of which consists of four subunits. Which of
7. All of the following are used in the
the four subunits is responsible for
translation process, Except:
recognition of promoter sites?
a. mRNA b. rRNA
a. sigma b. bet
c. tRNA d. snRNA
c. alpha d. beta-prime
8. All of the following have relatively long
3. Splicosome comprises of _________
lifespans, Except for one:
a. Only proteins b. Only RNA
a. mRNA b. rRNA
c. RNA and protein d. RNA and lipoprotein
c. tRNA d. snRNA
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
4. Which of the following RNA polymerases diagnosed with an acute pain crisis
are responsible for the production of 5S secondary to microvascular occlusion from
rRNA? sickled erythrocytes. Sickle cell anemia is
caused by a mutation that results in one
a. RNA polymerase I B. RNA polymerase II
amino acid being replaced by another,
c. RNA polymerase III D. RNA polymerase IV which results from which of the following?
5. Which subunit of the RNA polymerase a. A missense point mutation
holoenzyme is not present during most of
b. A nonsense point mutation
elongation?
c. An insertion
a. alpha b. sigma
d. A deletion
c. beta d. beta-prime
e. A frameshift mutation
6. 3 types of bacterial RNA polymerases:
3. These are class of antibiotics that bind to
1. RNA polymerase I 2. RNA polymerase II
the 30S ribosomal subunit.
3. RNA polymerase III
a. Aminoglycoside b. Tetracyclines
7. Examples of post-transcriptional
c. Chloramfecins d. All of the above
modification
4. This antibiotic is an analog of aminoacyl-
1. pseudouridine (Y) 2. ribothymidine (T)
tRNA.
3. dihydrouridine (D)
a. Chloramphenicol b. Amikacin
8. rRNA subunits that from the 60s
c. Puromycin d. Clindamycin
ribosomal unit.
5. All of the following statements are true,
1. 28S rRNAs 2. 5.8S rRNAs
Except;
3. 5S rRNAs
a. Genetic code always begins near the 3’end
Session 7 of the mRNA
1. All of the following are stop codons, b. It begins usually with the start codon AUG
Except:
c. Methionine is the equivalent AA of the
a. UGA b. UAG start codon
c. UAA d. UGG d. It ends with the termination codons UAG,
UAA, UGA.
2. A 14-year old African American girl with
sickle cell anemia presents with extreme 6. Genetic Codon translation. Give the
pain in her chest and legs. A peripheral protein that will be produced from the ff.
smear shows sickling of her red blood cells, codons.
and her reticulocyte count is 6.7%. She is
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY & DIAGNOSTICS
1. AUG – Methionine c. iii and iv d. i,ii,iii, and iv
2. UGA – Stop Codon 5. Operons are ________
3. GGA – Glycine a. Of approximately uniform size
4. GGG – Glycine b. Found in some eukaryotes
5. AUC – Isoleucine c. Not able to bind proteins
Session 8 d. Smaller in lower eukaryotes and longer in
higher eukaryotes
1. The site where repressor binds the DNA
is the ________ 6. It occurs by a mechanism by which rapid
translation of the nascent transcript causes
a. Promoter b. Terminator
termination of transcription.
c. Operator d. ORF
- Attenuation
2. Recruitment of RNA polymerase to the
7. It involves the alteration (“editing”) of
promoter is a ________
baes in mRNA after transcription
a. Covalent Binding
- RNA editing
b. Cooperative Binding
8. It is the process whereby an inducer (a
c. Protein-protein interaction small molecule) stimulates transcription of
an operon.
d. Van der Waals forces
- Induction
3. The proteins of which of the following
genes are regularly needed for cellular 9. It is a set of genes that are adjacent to
activity? one another in the genome and are
coordinately controlled; that is, the genes
a. Regular genes b. Smart genes
are either all turned on or all turned off.
c. Structural gene d. Housekeeping genes
- Operon
4. Which of the following are the products
10. A _________ is transcribed from an
of the constitutive gene?
operon. This single mRNA codes for all the
i. involved in the synthesis of structural proteins of the operon.
elements of the cell
- single polycistronic mRNA
ii. involved in catabolic pathway
iii. involved in anabolic pathway
iv. synthesized continuously
a. i and ii b. ii and iii
