MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

1. What is the average size of the HEPA filters used in biosafety cabinets level II?
a. 0.03um c. 0.03mm
b. 0.3mm d. 0.3um
2. Who was the first person to introduce handwashing routine as means to prevent the
spread of diseases? He was also considered as an important pioneer od asepsis.
a. Joseph Lister c. Louis Pasteur
b. Ignatz Semmelweis d. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
3. As a medical laboratory scientist, where are you going to process sample that are
suspected to contain Hepatitis B and Human Immunodeficiency Virus?
a. BSL Level 1 c. BSL Level 3
b. BSL Level 2 d. BSL Level 4
4. What is the color of the biohazard symbol?

r Sentinel
a. Yellow c. Black
b. Red d. Orange
5. The primary role of this laboratory is to recognize possible bioterrorism agents and to
perform basic testing to rule out these agents and refer suspicious specimens and
isolates.
a. Reference laboratories c. National laboratories
b. Sentinel laboratories d. Response laboratories
6. The CLSI provides guidelines for the control of susceptibility testing. The recommended
control organisms to be used are ATCC strains. What does ATCC means?
a. American Types and Culture Collection
b. American Typical Culture Collection
c. American Type Culture Collection
d. American Typological Culture Collection
7. According to the practice of test validation, lot numbers and expiration dates should be
kept documented for all reagents and materials used in the validation process. How long
should these records be kept?
a. 1-year c. 18 months
b. 2-years or d. 36 months
8. The identification of the growth requirements of a specific species of bacteria allows the
microbiologist to:
a. Determine the staining characteristics of the bacteria
b. Determine the growth characteristics of the bacteria
-
c. Choose the most appropriate medium for primary culture
d. Identify the storage temperature and gas requirements
9.
"
phagocytic activities?
slim
"

a. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - surface

b. Bacillus subtilis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
10. National Standard Reporting Scale (DOH 2014) - +n:
a. No AFB seen in 300 visual fields c. 10 to 99 AFB/100 visual fields
b. 1 to 9 AFB/100 visual fields d. 1 to 10 AFB/OIF in at least 50 visuals
-
t n
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

11. Upon Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing (AST), it was observed that the Mycobacterium
tuberculosis infecting a 60-year-old female was resistant to isoniazid. What is the best
alternative antibiotic for this case?
a. Pyrazinamide c. Ethambutol
b. Streptomycin d. Ciprofloxacin -
12. In systemic tuberculosis, what is the most appropriate urine sample for the isolation of
tubercle bacilli?
-

a. Random specimen c. Suprapubic aspirate

b. First morning specimen d. Catheterized specimen
13. In individuals with disseminated mycobacterial disease due to Mycobacterium avium - stud
complex that are AFB smear negative are best diagnosed using what sample?
a. Blood b. Stool. c. Urine d. Sputum
14. If the highest number of colonies in the Heterotrophic count is 29, what is the final report?
a. <40 ECFU b. <60 ECFU
• c. <30 ECFU
15. Compute for the HPC results, using the box below.
d. <50 ECFU

1 .1 .01 .001
TNTC TNCT 89 colonies 129 colonies

a. 129,000 CFU b. 0.129 CFU c. 890 CFU d. 8,900 CFU

16. Nasopharyngeal swab is used to determine the carrier state of all following bacterial,
except:
a. Hemophilus influenzae c. Bordetella pertussis -
b. Neisseria meningitidis = d. Streptococcus pyogenes ✗
17. This is the most common bacterial cause of neonatal meningitis.
a. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Neisseria meningitidis d. Listeria monocytogenes
Chromium
18. Decarboxylase test : Moeller Medium & Urease Test : ___________
a. c. Mueller Hinton Agar
b. d. SDA
19. What enzyme is used in the MUG test?
a. Cytochrome C-oxidase c. Beta-glucuronidase - NW6 test
b. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase d. Beta-galactosidase
20. All of the following are commercially available automated system for the microbial ID
except:
a. VITEK 2 System c. BD Phoenix
b. Microscan (TouchScan) d. Sherlock MIS
21. The majority of Hemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following
capsular serotypes?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
22. Which of the following organisms will display lipase activity of egg yolk agar?
a. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium noyvi
b. Clostridium sporogenes d. All of the choices
23. Which media is recommended for recovery of Brucella spp. From blood and bone marrow
specimens?
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

a. Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth

kwacha
b. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
c. Bordet-Gengou Agar plates and thioglycolate broth
d. Blood culture bottles with thioglycolate broth
24. If you will have a TSI reaction of Alkaline/Alkaline (K/K) what would be your Lysine
Decarboxylase reaction in LIA?
a. Purple; decarboxylase positive
b. Purple; decarboxylase negative
c. Yellow; decarboxylase positive
d. Yellow, decarboxylase negative UROGENITAL SWAB
25. Which of the following specimens should not be refrigerated?
a. Urine -

b. Urogenital swab =L
c. Throat swab
d. Sputum
di
prude i
nf
26. The presence of an infectious disease process can be assessed on a direct smear based
on which of the following?
a. The presence of numerous inflammatory cells
b. Morphology of the bacteria present
c. Types of bacteria present
d. The presence of numerous epithelial cells
27. Which of the listed antimicrobials act on cell wall biosynthesis?
a. Beta-lactams and glycopeptides
b. Tetracycline and Streptomycin
c. Macrolides and phenicols
d. Fluoroquinolone and sulfamethoxazole
28. Optimum growth of Campylobacter jejuni is obtained on suitable media incubated at 42C
in an atmosphere containing:
a. 6% O2, 10 to 15% CO2, 85 to 90% N2
b. 10% H2, 5% CO2, 85 to 90% N2
c. 10% H2, 10% CO2, 80% N2
d. 25% O2, 5% CO2, 70% N2
29. Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen source and primary media
battery?
a. Legionella species Mueller Hinton
b. Clostridium defficile Phenylethyl Alcohol
c. Campylobacter species Charcoal Yeats Extract
d. Yersinia enterocolitica Cefsulodin Irgasan Novobiocin (CIN)
30. Which statement correctly describes the antigens of Enterobacteriaceae?
a. O antigen is heat labile
b. O antigen is located on the cell wall
c. Vi antigen is an example of flagellar antigen
d. K antigen is also known as somatic antigen
31. Guarneri bodies : _________ & Negri bodies : Rabie virus
a. HSV b. Smallpox c. Hepadnavirus d. Parvovirus
32. Virial agents of gastroenteritis include:

Guarneri bobs
Smallpox
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

-
a. CMV, Rotavirus, EBV c. Rotavirus, Calicivirus, Norwalk virus
b. HSV, HIV, Enterovirus d. Parvovirus, Rhinovirus, Echovirus
33. When specimen delay is anticipated, virology specimens are optimally maintained:
a. At room temperature c. Incubated at 35C
b. Frozen immediately at -20C d. Held at 4C and snap frozen to -70C
34. Which of the following viral families are associated with reactivation of latent infection:
a. Hepatitis virus d. Herpes virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Parvovirus
e. JC virus-

reactivation of talent
35. Prevention of contamination of PCR reaction is best accomplished by:
infection
a. Processing of specimens and amplifications of nucleic acid in separate rooms
b. Washing the benches with bleach
c. Use of a biosafety level II containment facility
d. Universal precaution
36. If a Quellung test was done on the following bacterial isolates, which one would you expect
to be negative?
a. Hemophilus influenzae d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Quell
ought
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Corynebacterium diphtheriae -

c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
37. A burn patient develops a wound infection, which is cultures and sent to the laboratory for
identification. Pink colonies are found on MacConkey Agar medium, and abundant gray
colonies are observed on blood agar. The following results are obtained:
TSI A/A; H2S negative
IMViC neg, neg, pos, pos
ODC pos
LDC neg
ADH pos
Urease neg
Motile
a. Escherichia coli c. Enterobacter cloacae
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Enterobacter aerogenes
38. A catheterized urine specimen collected from the female patient who is residing in nursing
home reveals the following:
TSI K/A, H2S positive
MAC clear colonies
Indole pos
Citrate pos
Motile
Urease neg
Deaminase pos
a. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Proteus mirabilis d. Providencia stuartii
39. The broth culture suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk
diffusion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a:
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

a. 2.0 McFarland Standard c. 0.5 McFarland Standard

b. 2.5 McFarland Standard d. 1.5 McFarland Standard
40. Which of the following plates should be used in order to identify Hemophilus hemolyticus
and Hemophilus parahemolyticus?
a. Sheep blood agar and chocolate agar
b. Horse blood agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X and V strips
c. Brain-heart infusion agar with sheep red cells added
d. Chocolate agar ad Mueller-Hinton Agar with X factor added
41. A throat swab is submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be;
a. Set up immediately
b. Rejected
c. Inoculated into thioglycolate broth
d. Sent to a reference laboratory
42. The sporogony of the Plasmodium leads to the formation of:
a. Sporozoites which occurs in the vertebrate phase
b. Sporozoites which occurs in the invertebrate phase
c. Merozoites which occurs in the vertebrate phase
d. Merozoites which occurs in the invertebrate phase
e. None of the above
43. Droplet infection through contact with infectious respiratory secretions may be described
as:
a. Inhalation of infectious aerosol during laboratory procedures
b. Transmission of rhinovirus through failing to wash hands
c. Spread of respiratory viruses and S. pyogenes through coughing or sneezing
d. Inhalation of bacteria or viruses that have dried on bedding or clothing
e. None of the above
44. A spinal fluid specimen is submitted for gram stain and culture during an afternoon shift.
The physician also requests that an aliquot be saved for possible serological studies,
which are only performed on day shift. The most correct action is:
a. Inoculate culture, perform gram stain, and refrigerate remaining spinal fluid
b. Inoculate culture, perform gram stain, and incubate remaining spinal fluid at 35C
to 37C
c. Incubate entire specimen at 35C to 37C and perform culture and gram stain the
next day
d. Refrigerate the entire specimen and perform culture and gram stain the next day
e. None of the above
45. In the floatation method for concentration of stool specimens;
a. Parasitic forms float to the top of the solution
b. Fecal debris floats to the top of the solution
c. All protozoan eggs and larvae are concentrated in the sediments of the tube
d. Additional fecal debris may distort the clarity of the smear
46. From the dimorphic fungi and major identifying morphologic features listed, select the
species whose major characteristics are not described correctly:
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis thick walled yeast cells with single, broad-based-buds

at 37C
b. Coccidiodes immitis barrel-shaped arthrospores at 25C
c. Histoplasma capsulatum spherical, tuberculated macroaleuriospores at 25C
d. None of the above
47. Enterobacter cloacae and Enterobacter
- - aerogenes may be differentiated by:
a. ODC Test d. LDC Test
b. ONPG Test e. PYR Test

:
c. Citrate Test
48. Proteus mirabilis can be differentiated from Proteus vulgaris by using:
a. Oxidase test d. Indole test
b. PAD test e. All of these
c. Lactose fermentation test
49. Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile rash and produces disease on
immunocompetent children, has been associated with transient Aplastic crisis in persons
with Sickle cell disease?
a. Rubeola b. Varicella zoster c. Rubella d. Parvovirus
50. Calcium and Magnesium ion concentration in MH agar for measurement of
aminoglycoside susceptibility is important when testing:
a. Proteus vulgaris d. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Hemophilus influenzae e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

:
c. Enterococci
51. A gram-negative bacillus grows on BCYE medium. It is positive for gelatinase and beta
lactamase and weakly positive for catalase and oxidase. The organism isolated is:
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Mycobacterium pneumoniae
b. Bordetella pertussis d. Legionella pneumophila
52. Cerebrospinal fluid from a 24-year-old man reveals a high number of mononuclear cells
and a negative culture for bacteria. Spinal fluid, glucose, and protein values are normal.
In addition, the patient has vascular genital lesions. The most likely etiologic agent is
a. Neisseria meningitidis c. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Herpes Simplex Virus
53. The medium used to determine whether an organism is oxidative or fermentative with
respect to its metabolic activities is:

:
a. O-F medium b. HE medium c. CTA medium d. XLD medium
54. Which of the following systems is used to remove antibiotics from body fluids that have
been sent to the laboratory for bacteriologic culture?
a. ARD system c. Port-A-Cult system
b. Roll tube system d. Isolator system
55. Intranuclear inclusions were found in epithelial cells from the urine of an infant who was
admitted with symptoms of low birth weight, jaundice and neurologic defects. The most
likely diagnosis in this case would be:
a. Herpes simplex virus infection
b. Rubella virus infection
c. Cytomegalovirus infection ✓
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

d. Epstein Barr virus infection

56. Egg yolk showing a precipitate in the medium surrounding the colony is positive for:
a. Lipase production c. Lecithinase production
b. Protease activity d. None of these
57. Which of the following is not appropriate when discussing cultures of blood for the recovery
of bacteria?
a. Cultures incubated aerobically and aerobically
b. Collection 5mL of blood for optimal recovery of pathogens
c. No more than three cultures should be drawn in one day
d. Should be drawn before the expected fever spike
58. Which are the best two tests to differentiate Aeromonas hydrophilia from Plesiomonas
shigelloides?
a. Oxidase and motility c. Indole and LDC
b. DNAse and VP d. Growth on MacConkey and BAP
59. Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch
on blood and chocolate agar but fail to grow on MacConkey Agar. The organisms are
gram-negative pleomorphic rods that are both catalase and oxidase positive and strongly
indole positive. The most likely organism is:
a. Capnocytophaga spp. c. Proteus spp.
b. Pasteurella spp. d. Pseudomonas spp.
60. Escherichia coli causes disease by a variety of different methods. Which one of the
following E. coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-
stable) proteins?
a. Enterotoxigenic
b. Enterohemorrhagic
c. Enteroinvasive
d. Enterohemolytic
61. Neisseria meningitidis can be carried _____, which serves as reservoir for infection.
a. in the nasopharynx
b. in the blood
c. in the oral cavity
d. on the skin
62. Salmonella has been isolated as the source of contamination in an outbreak of
gastroenteritis associated with eggs. Which of the following reactions is correct for this
genus?
H2S Urease Motility ONPG LDC KCN
a. + - - + - +
b. + - + - + -
c. - + + + + -
d. + - - - - +

63. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a newsworthy microorganism that has been isolated from
foods (meat) and beverages (cider) with increasing frequency. Its characteristic biology is
best described by which of the following statements?
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

a. It produces toxin that blocks protein synthesis in an infected cell nd carries a lytic
bacteriophage that produces the genetic information for toxin production
b. It produces at least one protein toxin consisting of two subunits, A and B, that
cause severe spasmodic cough usually in children
c. It requires cysteine growth
d. It secrets erythrogenic toxin that causes the characteristic signs of scarlet fever
e. -
is mediated by specific attachment to mucosal membrane
64. Universal precautions state that:
a. Personal protective equipment is required only for direct patient contact
b. dy
fluid specimens
c. Handle only known HBV-positive for HIV-positive specimens as infectious
d. Infectious specimens must be labeled with the biohazard symbol
65. Sputum samples may contain normal flora and other contaminating microorganisms, so
samples must be:
a. Decontaminated with 2% NaOH c. Digested with n-acetyl-L-cysteine
b. Digested with trisodium phosphate d. Decontaminated with dithiothreitol
66. Anti-HbcAg:
a. Marker of infectivity and persistence usually indicate chronic liver disease
b. Total antibody to hepatitis B core antigen appears between HbaAg and anti-HbsAg
c. Recent acute infection is indicated
d. Total antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen is associated with immunity or
recovery
e. First serologic marker to appear; persistence may indicate chronic infection
67. Each of the following groups of viruses may be associated with aseptic meningitis, except:
a. Echovirus c. Influenza Virus
b. Varicella Zoster d. Enterovirus
68. Thick-walled, large-called, single budding yeast cells at 37C and pyriform conidia attached
to septate hyphae at 25C:
a. Sporothrix schenckii
b. Coccidiodes immitis
c. Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
69. An organism culture from a case of Tinae capitis in a 5-year-old child produced woolly
colonies with a bright yellow rim and reverse side. Macroconidia predominated and
appeared spindle-shaped and multi-septate, with thick walls, warty projections and curved
tips. The most likely identification is:
a. Epidermophyton floccosum
b. Microsporum canis
c. Trichophyton tonsurans
d. Microsporum gyseum
70. Diagnosis of African sleeping sickness is based on the observation of:
a. Trypomastigotes in peripheral blood
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

b. A marked increase in serum IgG

c. The amastigote form in reticuloendothelial cells
d. Xenodiagnosis
71. An entamoeba histolytica trophozoite is usually characterized by the following:
a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs. Clear pseudopodia
b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane
c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested WBCs, granular pseudopods
72. Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani
b. Opisthorchis sinensis and Fasciolopsis buski
c. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana
d. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichostrongylus
73. Which microfilariae are usually not found circulating in the peripheral blood?
a. Brugia malayi c. Onchocera volvulus
b. Wuchereria bancrofti d. Loa loa
74. The use of the bronchoalveolar lavage specimen has become much more widely used in:
a. Any suspect patient with both toxoplasmosis and cryptosporidiosis
b. Pediatric patients with pulmonary paragonimiasis
c. AIDS patients with suspected Pneumocystis pneumonia
d. Immunocompromised patients with disseminated strongyloidiasis
75. The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is:
a. Chilomastix masnili
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Hymenolepis nana and straited shell
d. Wuchereria bancrofti and sheathed microfilariae
76. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is a form of larva migrants, causing fever, headache,
stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid. It is generally a mild and self0limited
infection and is caused by:
a. Necator americanus c. Ancylostoma braziliense
b. Angiostrongylus cantonensis d. Strongyloides stercoralis
77. A low minimum inhibitory concentration can be correlated to what Kirby-Bauer disk
diffusion result?
a. Large zone of inhibition
b. Small zone of inhibition
c. Overlapping zone of inhibition
d. No zone of inhibition
78. Which of the following tests may be used distinguish Vibrio cholerae of classical biotype
from the El Tor biotype?
1-Hemagglunitation test
2-Phage IV susceptibility test
3-Polymyxin B susceptibility test
4-Cholera red test
a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 4 d. 4 e. 1, 2, 3, 4
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

79. Influenza A virus can be detected in cell cultures by hemadsorption assay. Influenza A
virus can be detected in cell cultures by complement fixation test.
a. Only first statement is true
b. Only second statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
80. What specimen/s should be collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral
meningitis?
1-Stool 2-Throat swab 3-CSF 4-Tissue
a. 3 only b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3
81. Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory personnel?
a. Coccidiodes immitis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
82. Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has:
1-Different size 2-Different shape 3-Central Nuclear Material
a. 1, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 3 d. 1, 2, 3
83. Cryptococcus neoformans has the following biochemical reaction
a. Urease Negative
b. Inositol Negative
c. Nitrate Positive
d. None of the above
84. Causative agent of Erysipelas:
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c. Group A Streptococcus
b. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae
85. Causative agent of Erysipeloid:
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c. Group A Streptococcus
b. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae
86. Nagler agar is a selective medium for
a. Bacteroides b. Propionibacterium c. Clostridium d. Nocardia
87. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of what organism
a. Mycobacterium
b. Actinomyces
c. Corynebacterium
d. Nocardia
88. Wakana Disease a. Schistosoma japonicum
89. Katayama Disease b. Ancylostoma braziliensis
90. Creeping Eruption c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
e. Mansonella spp.

91. Vietnamese Diarrhea a. Burkholderia pseudomallei

92. Eosinophilic Meningitis b. Burkholderia mallei
93. Iron Deficiency Anemia c. Ancylostoma duodenale
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

d. Strongyloides stercoralis
e. Parastrongylus cantonensis

94. CoTox a. Toxocara canis

95. Infantile Diarrhea b. EPEC
c. EHEC
d. ETEC
e. Toxoplasma gondii

96. Parastrongylus cantonensis a. X. cheopsis

97. Ascaris lumbricoides b. B. germanica
98. Yersinia pestis c. A. fulica
d. Aquatic crustaceans
e. M. uniformis

99. Oriental Blood Fluke a. O. quadrasi

100. Oriental Lung Fluke b. Fresh water crustaceans
c. A. fulica
d. Bagsit
MICROBIOLOGY LONG EXAMINATION

ANSWER KEY
1 D 26 A 51 D 76 B
2 B 27 A 52 D 77 A
3 B 28 A 53 A 78 A
4 C 29 D 54 A 79 A
5 B 30 B 55 C 80 D
6 C 31 B 56 C 81 A
7 B 32 C 57 B 82 C
8 C 33 D 58 B 83 D
9 C 34 E 59 B 84 C
10 B 35 A 60 A 85 A
11 D 36 E 61 A 86 C
12 B 37 C 62 B 87 C
13 B 38 D 63 E 88 D
14 C 39 C 64 B 89 A
15 A 40 B 65 A 90 B
16 D 41 B 66 B 91 D
17 A 42 A 67 C 92 E
18 B 43 C 68 D 93 C
19 C 44 B 69 B 94 A
20 B 45 A 70 A 95 B
21 B 46 D 71 A 96 A
22 D 47 D 72 A 97 B
23 A 48 D 73 C 98 A
24 B 49 D 74 C 99 A
25 B 50 E 75 C 100 B