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Earth Science Concepts Exam 2018-2019

1. When ice floating in the ocean melts, the level of the ocean increases. This is because ice displaces less volume than the same mass of water. 2. Continental-continental plate boundaries are associated with mountain ranges. 3. The five factors that determine soil development are parent material, climate, vegetation, landscape, and time.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

164 views1,260 pages

Earth Science Concepts Exam 2018-2019

Uploaded by

hana215mohamed

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Earth Science Released Test of Concepts (TOC) Exam

2018 / 2019
1.
When huge bodies of ice floating in the ocean and melt completely, what
happens to the level of the ocean (neglect thermal expansion or contraction of
sea water)?
A. The level of the ocean increases.
B. The level of the ocean decreases.
C. The level of the ocean remains the same.
D. You cannot say what happens unless you know the density of the sea water and
the ice.
2.
Which feature is associated with a continental-continental plate boundary?
A. a subduction zone
B. a mountain range
C. a deep-sea trench
D. a volcano
3. The five factors that determine how soils develop are:
A. parent material, climate, vegetation, landscape, and time
B. animals, humus, weather, leaching, and volcanoes
C. sun, animals, humus, leaching, and earthquakes
D. metamorphism, cementation, evaporation, condensation, porosity
4.
Halite has three cleavage directions at 90º to each other.
Which model of the following best represents the shape of a broken sample of

halite?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D.
5
Which rock of the following cooled the slowest?
A. glassy
B. fine-grained
C. porphyritic
D. coarse-grained
6.
Investigate the following figure, and answer the question
Write the Geologic history of the area

A. Deposition of the lower series – faulting –– folding - deposition of the upper

series.
B. Deposition of the lower series – faulting – folding - uplift and formation of
unconformity.
C. Deposition of the lower series – faulting - uplift and formation of unconformity
– folding – deposition of the upper series.
D. Deposition of the lower series – folding - uplift and formation of unconformity -
deposition of the upper series – faulting.
7.
……. is considered by most scientists as an evidence of extraterrestrial
impacts to the Earth at K-T boundary.
A. Mass extinction of most organisms
B. Shower of meteorites impacts rich of iridium.
C. Occurrence of peridotite
D. First appearance of mammals
8. Two bodies made up of same material with different dimensions have……
A. same resistances and resistivities
B. same resistivities but different resistances
C. same resistances but different resistivities
D. different resistances and resistivities

9.
How is surface area related to chemical weathering?
A. Increased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with plants and
animals.
B. Increased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with water and
oxygen
C. Decreased surface area allows for more ice wedging.
D. Decreased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with water and
oxygen.
10. What is the difference in elevation between point X and point Z ?

12. Four rock outcrops, labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4, found within the same plateau, are
represented below. Index fossils found in some of the rock layers are shown. The
rock layers have not been overturned. Which rock layer is the youngest?

A. 3 in outcrop 1
B. A in outcrop 2
C. B in outcrop 3
D. C in outcrop 4
13.
What type of lava tends to trap water vapor and other gases and can become
explosive? A. lava rich in iron or magnesium.
B. lava that is silica-rich
C. pyroclastic lava.
D. basaltic lava.
14.
Scientists use the term faulting to refer to the formation of faults. Depending
on the situation, faulting can act as a constructive or a destructive force.
Which of the following best shows how faulting can act as a constructive
force? A. Rock moves sideways along a fault with no change in elevation.
B. Rock moves upward along faults to form a mountain range.
C. Faulting produces an earthquake that causes a local bridge to collapse.
D. Rocks are worn down as they grind past each other along a fault.
15.
Actinium 226 has a half – life of 29 hours. If 100 mg of Actinium -226
disintegrates over a period of 58 hours. How many mg of actinium-226 will
remain?
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25
16.
A kind of seismic wave creates on Up –and – Down rolling motion of the ground like
a wave on a water surface responsible by :
A. Primary waves.
B. Secondary waves.
C. Surface waves.
D. Body waves.
17.
Use the sketch map below which shows the out crops of geological structures

to answer this question :

The youngest bed in the ………………
A. center of upper surface of the map
B. lower surface of the beds of the map.
C. the left side of the map
D. the right side of the map.
18.
Use the figure below to answer the following question:
If granite is an intrusive igneous rock that forms INSIDE the earth, how come
we see such huge granitic walls when we drive up to Upper Egypt and Eastern

Desert?
A. Granite deep inside the earth was exposed on the surface during the uplifting
processes that happened in the formation of Red Sea Mountains.
B. The granite walls are remnants of ancient volcanoes;
C. Not all granite forms inside the earth.
D. The granite was deposited on previous layers of sedimentary rocks, thus
forming higher ground.
19. In electromagnetic (EM) sounding, the depth of investigation ___________
with increasing frequency.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. varies randomly
20.
Quartz, calcite and halite are minerals that a student find during a field trip.
Can you help him to differentiate between them by choosing the most proper
method?
A. Adding drops of dilute HCl on them.
B. Hammering them very gently.
C. Scratching with rough surface.
D. Scratching with a piece of glass.
21.
Metamorphic rocks may generally be distinguished from igneous rocks
because:
A. the grains of igneous rock are interlocking, whereas they are not interlocking in
a metamorphic rock.
B. metamorphic rocks are foliated, whereas igneous rocks are not.
C. their mineral assemblages are different.
D. they are generally finer grained.
22.
Use the topographic map for the next question.

If lava erupted at point A, in which compass direction would the lava NOT BE
ABLE to flow?
A. South
B. West
C. North
D. East
23.
Use these diagrams of the plate motion below to answer the following
questions.

Continental crust is black and white dots.

Ocean crust is dark gray with no dots.
Which diagram shows the plate motion that is the cause of mid oceanic ridge?
A. ( A )
B. ( B )
C. ( C )
D. ( D )
24.
The best way to explore for oil is ……. Because ……
A. gravitational method – it is cheap.
B. magnetic method – it measures magnetic characters of subsurface rock
succession and their anomalies.
C. GPS – easy to handle
D. seismic method – it gives an overall picture to the subsurface succession and
structures.
25.
The world faces an energy crisis because …………
A. world demand for energy will decrease.
B. world oil production will peak and begin to rise.
C. world oil production will increase gradually.
D. shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the economic and
political order.
26.
The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation produced with a specific
wave length to illuminate a target on the terrain for studying its scattered
radiance, is called:
A. passive remote sensing
B. active remote sensing
C. neutral remote sensing
D. none of these
27.
A metamorphic rock is a result of a transformation of a pre-existing rock
(protolith or parent rock). The original rock is subjected to very high heat and
pressure, which cause obvious physical and/or chemical changes.
Using the previous table, which of the following correctly orders the rocks
from the lowest metamorphic grade to the highest?

A. slate, schist, gneiss

B. B. gneiss, schist, slate
C. C. schist, slate, gneiss
D. D. gneiss, slate, schist

28. Which phrase below would best describe the plate movements that cause
an earthquake? A. friction between two sliding plates, releasing energy. B.
smooth sliding between two plates, a gradual movement. C. smooth pulling apart
of two plates, a gradual movement. D. friction being released as two plates move
apart.
29.
Investigate the following figure of a part of the Earth’ crust and answer the

questions

Location 3 and Location 4 are subjected to ………… respectively.

A. Shear and tensile forces.
B. Tensile and Compressional forces.
C. Compressional and Shear forces.
D. Compressional and tensile forces.
30.
Use the figure above to answer the following question:
Predict the configuration of the graphical area in the future.

A. syncrude
B. oil
C. water
D. natural gas
32.
In GPS, receivers used are ;
A. electronic clocks
B. atomic clocks
C. quartz clocks
D. mechanical clocks
33.
Study the topographic contour map and answer the following question:
If this area stroke by torrent, what is the best place for water harvesting?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
34.
For remote sensing studies, the refractive index of the ocean water:
A. increases with salinity
B. increases with temperature
C. decreases with salinity
D. decreases with temperature
35.
How does an absolute date differ from a relative date?
A. Relative dates are typically younger.
B. Relative dates have number values.
C. Absolute dates are expressed as “younger” or “older” than something.
D. Absolute dates are expressed in years before present.
36.
Elements are good for finding the ages of very old rocks that which have ….
A. a very short half-life with very slow rates of decay
B. a very short half-life with very fast rates of decay
C. a very long half-life with very slow rates of decay
D. a very long half-life with very fast rates of decay
HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

2000
GEOLOGY
2 UNIT
Time allowed—Three hours
(Plus 5 minutes reading time)

DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Board-approved calculators may be used.
Section I—Core
• Attempt ALL questions.
• Part A 15 multiple-choice questions, each worth 1 mark.
Complete your answers in either blue or black pen on the Answer Sheet provided.
• Part B 10 questions, each worth 3 marks.
Answer this Part in the Part B Answer Book.
• Part C 6 questions, each worth 5 marks.
Answer this Part in the Part C Answer Book.
• Write your Student Number and Centre Number on the cover of each Answer Book.
• You may keep this Question Book. Anything written in the Question Book will NOT be
marked.
Section II—Electives
• Attempt ONE question.
• Each question is worth 25 marks.
• Answer the question in a SEPARATE Elective Answer Book.
• Write your Student Number and Centre Number on the cover of the Elective Answer Book.
• Write the Course, Elective Name, and Question Number on the cover of the Elective Answer
Book.
• You may ask for extra Elective Answer Books if you need them.
341
2

SECTION I—CORE
(75 Marks)
Attempt ALL questions.

PART A
Questions 1–15 are worth 1 mark each.

Instructions for answering multiple-choice questions

• Complete your answers in either blue or black pen.

• Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response
oval completely.

Sample: 2+4= (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

A B C D

If you think you have made a mistake, put a cross through the incorrect answer and fill in
the new answer.
A B C D

If you change your mind and have crossed out what you consider to be the correct answer,
then indicate the correct answer by writing the word correct and drawing an arrow as
follows.
correct

A B C D
3

1 What is the asthenosphere?

(A) A mobile zone in the upper mantle

(B) A mobile zone immediately below the crust
(C) A rigid zone in the upper mantle
(D) A zone that does not transmit S waves

2 A rich gold-bearing ore body is being mined by open-cut methods. Which factor is
LEAST likely to affect the economic viability of the mine?

(A) Age of the mineralisation

(B) Type of host rock
(C) Tonnage of the ore body
(D) Number of rainy days per year

3 The diagram shows a situation in which two lithospheric plates, P and Q, are colliding.

R T U

Plate Q
Plate P

Zone SS
V
ne
Zo

Minfact 64, August 1996, fig 1.

Which of the following correctly summarises the situation?

(A) P is an oceanic plate, Q is a continental plate, and an island arc is located

below T.
(B) P is an oceanic plate, a Benioff zone is located at Zone S, and a trench is located at
U.
(C) Q is an oceanic plate, P is a continental plate, and a trench is located at R.
(D) A Benioff zone is located at Zone V, a trench is located at R, and an island arc is
located at T.
4

4 The diagrams in the table are all drawn to the same scale.

Composition Type of Typical plate

Volcano shape and size of lava eruption tectonic setting

A Convergent
Basalt Explosive
margin

B Continental
Rhyolite Quiet hot spot

C Divergent
Andesite Quiet margin

D Convergent
Andesite Explosive margin

km
4
Scale
0
0 4 km

Only one row of information is correct. Which row is correct?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

5 The mullock (waste rock) from a uranium mine commonly contains small amounts of
radioactive material that can leach into the environment. What is the best method to
prevent this material from contaminating the environment outside the mine site?

(A) Screen the mine site, thus preventing access by animals that could move the
mullock.
(B) Crush the mullock and use it for road construction.
(C) Plant vegetation on the mullock to stabilise it and prevent wind erosion.
(D) Store the mullock in a covered pit with an impermeable lining.
5

6 The cross-sections show the formation of a large-scale feature of the Earth’s surface.

(I) KEY
Force direction
Movement direction
Moho Brittle upper crust
Ductile lower crust
(II) Upper mantle

15
Sediments km
(III) 0

Tectonophysics, Vol 73, 1981, Bott, M H P,

'Crustal doming and the mechanism of continental rifting',
pp1-8, (c) 1981, with permission from Elsevier Science.

What feature is shown?

(A) A rift valley, an example of which could be found in eastern Africa

(B) A mid-ocean ridge, an example of which could be found in the Atlantic Ocean
(C) A transform fault, an example of which could be found in western USA
(D) A trench, an example of which could be found in the Pacific Ocean

7 Which of the following rock types is most likely to be the best petroleum reservoir rock?

(A) Granite
(B) Quartzite
(C) Sandstone
(D) Shale
6

8 The map shows some of the major mountain ranges of the world.

Ural Mountains
Alps
Himalaya
Rocky Mountains
Mountains Appalachian
Mountains Zagros Owen
Mountains Stanley
Range

Andes
Mountains

Southern
Mid-Atlantic Ridge Alps
Weyman, D, Tectonic Processes, George Allen & Unwin, London, 1981.

Which of the following is a mountain range formed as a result of ancient, rather than
current plate interactions?

(A) Andes Mountains

(B) Himalaya Mountains
(C) Rocky Mountains
(D) Ural Mountains

9 Over what time span do fold mountain ranges generally form?

(A) Tens of thousands of years (104 years)

(B) Hundreds of thousands of years (105 years)
(C) Tens of millions of years (107 years)
(D) Thousands of millions of years (109 years)
7

10 The diagram shows the pattern of magnetic reversals recorded in basaltic rocks in part of
an ocean.

What is the dominant spreading direction for this pattern to form?

(A) (B)

11 The map shows the distribution of currently active volcanoes in Java and adjacent islands.

500 km

KEY
Volcano

To which feature are the volcanoes most likely related?

(A) Continental rift zone

(B) Convergent margin
(C) Hot spot
(D) Mid-ocean ridge
8

12 The diagram shows rock structures observed in a block of the Earth’s crust.

0
Hamblin, W K & Howard, J D, Exercises in Physical Geology, Burgess Publishing Minnesota, 1975, 4th ed, p 57, fig 110.

Where would the structures shown in the diagram have formed?

(A) At a mid-ocean ridge

(B) At a continental rift zone
(C) At an ocean-continent convergent zone
(D) At a continental hot-spot volcano

13 The diagram shows a sketch of a section through a magnesite (magnesium carbonate)

deposit. Magnesium carbonate is an insoluble substance. These deposits form in hot wet
climates.

Thin or absent humus

Thick irregular
masses of magnesite

Iron and magnesium clays

and aluminium hydroxides

Ultramafic rock
McLeish A, Geological Science, Blackie & Son, Glasgow, 1986, p 277.

How would this magnesite deposit have formed?

(A) As a placer deposit

(B) As a residual deposit
(C) By hydrothermal activity
(D) By igneous activity
9

14 The map shows the proposed position of a major gas pipeline from Christchurch to
Nelson in the South Island of New Zealand. The pipeline will cross the Alpine Fault.

The Alpine Fault is a major transform fault.

168°E 172°E
Nelson

Christchurch
lt
au
eF
pin
Al
44°S 44°S

168°E 172°E
KEY
Proposed natural gas pipeline
New Zealand Journal of Geology and Geophysics 33, 2, 1990 p 202 (c) SIR Publishing, the Royal Society of New Zealand

What is the dominant movement that the pipeline must be designed to withstand?

(A) Compressional movement

(B) Horizontal shear movement
(C) Tensional movement
(D) Vertical shear movement
10

15 The map shows a mid-ocean ridge that separates two continental masses that were
previously joined. The ridge has been active over the last five million years.

Oc
ea
n

Oc
ean
KEY
Active mid-ocean ridge Early Tertiary
and transform faults sedimentary basin

Precambrian fold belt Mesozoic

sedimentary basin
Early Palaeozoic fold belt Allosaurus fossil

Which piece of land-based evidence is INCONSISTENT with the continental drift and
plate tectonic hypotheses?

(A) The locations of the Allosaurus fossils

(B) The locations of the Mesozoic sedimentary basin
(C) The locations of the early Tertiary sedimentary basin
(D) The locations of the Precambrian fold belt
11

PART B

Questions 16–25 are worth 3 marks each.

Answer this Part in the Part B Answer Book.

16 The graph shows the weight percentage of carbon in coals of increasing rank.

Anthracite

Bituminous coal

Lignite McLeish, A, Geological Science,

Blackie & Son, Glasgow, 1986, p 282.

Peat

50 60 70 80 90 100
Carbon (%)

(a) Describe the trend shown in the graph.

(b) Explain the trend shown in the graph.

(c) How does anthracite differ in appearance from peat?

17 The diagram shows a section through an igneous intrusion with associated hydrothermal
veins. The intrusion contains 0·01% copper, whereas the veins contain 5% copper.

Limestone
Hydrothermal
veins Shale

Igneous intrusion

Montgomery, C W, Fundamentals of Geology, 3rd ed, Wm C Brown, Dubuque, Iowa, 1997, p 53.
Reproduced with permission of The McGraw-Hill Companies.

(a) Explain how the copper became concentrated in the veins.

(b) Name TWO other metals that could be concentrated in a similar way.
12

18 (a) (i) Name ONE physical property of the asthenosphere that is different in the
lithosphere.

(ii) Briefly describe how it is different.

(b) Outline how our knowledge of the asthenosphere allows us to explain plate motion.

19 The diagram shows the plate boundaries in the Pacific Ocean region.

North American
Plate
Eurasian Plate

Pacific Plate

100
60

70 60
Australian
Plate
80

4
Antarctic Plate
KEY

Divergent boundary

Convergent boundary

Conservative boundary

40 Plate velocity (mm per year)

Montgomery, C W, Fundamentals of Geology, 3rd ed, Wm C Brown, Dubuque, Iowa, 1997, fig 9.5.
Reproduced with permission of The McGraw-Hill Companies.

(a) Name the type of boundary that would form if the directions of movement were
reversed along the Australian Plate–Antarctic Plate boundary.

(b) Describe TWO features characteristic of the type of plate boundary you named in
part (a).
13

20 In 1900, it was believed that the Southern Atlantic Ocean was ancient and unchanging. It
is now known that the Southern Atlantic Ocean is widening, and that South America and
Africa are moving apart.

Describe THREE pieces of ocean-based evidence that support this present view of the
Southern Atlantic Ocean.

21 (a) State TWO distinctive characteristics of a shield area.

(b) Describe the process by which a shield area forms.

22 The diagram shows a schematic cross-section through an oceanic plate, the position of
five volcanic islands, and their ages.

1·3–1·8 Ma 0–0·7 Ma
3·8–5·6 Ma 2·3–3·3 Ma 0–1·3 Ma

Sea level

(a) On the diagram in the Part B Answer Book, draw an arrow to indicate the direction
of plate movement.

(b) (i) For this type of volcanic island chain, state the composition of the lava
erupted.

(ii) Sketch the shape of a typical volcano formed in this setting. Relate this
shape to the characteristics of the eruptions that produced it.
14

23 A major engineering project recently completed in Sydney was the Airport Rail Link.
This was constructed as an underground tunnel through rock and soft, waterlogged
sediments.

A section of the tunnel and surrounding geology is shown.

N S
SYDNEY
AIRPORT

TUNNEL 30 m

KEY

Sand, silt, peat — Quaternary

Shale — Triassic 2 km
Bedded sandstone — Triassic

Jointing in sandstone

Water table

Describe THREE different geological problems that needed to be overcome in

constructing this tunnel.
15

24 The diagram shows a geological cross-section of a region that has the potential to
produce oil and gas.

W E

KEY 0 1 2 km
Conglomerate Sandstone

Shale Limestone

(a) On the diagram in the Part B Answer Book, draw a line to represent a drill hole that
would most likely strike oil and/or gas.

(b) Give TWO reasons why you chose this site.

25 The elevation of the Himalaya Mountains is maintained by two processes, plate

convergence and isostasy.

Explain the role of isostasy in maintaining the elevation of the Himalaya Mountains.
16

PART C

Questions 26–31 are worth 5 marks each.

Answer this Part in the Part C Answer Book.

26 The diagram shows several vents in the Tongariro volcanic zone, New Zealand, and
isopachs for two ash units, OK2 and OK3. Isopachs are lines of equal ash thickness. The
Tongariro volcanic zone is related to a subduction zone.

Lake Taupo
0 5 10 Kakaramea
kilometres Turangi
Tihia

100
Pihanga
Lake
Rotoaria
200

300
Mt Tongariro

National
Park Mt Ngauruhoe

100
200 150

Mt Ruapehu N

KEY
Volcanic OK2 OK3
vent ash isopach ash isopach
with ash thickness with ash thickness
in millimetres in millimetres
New Zealand Journal of Geology and Geophysics 16, pp 397-423.

(a) State the composition of the volcanic material erupted from these volcanic vents.

(b) Sketch and label a diagram to show the internal structure of this type of volcano.

27 The diagram shows a faulted, shallow, copper ore body dipping at 20° to the east and
being mined by open cut methods. The present cut-off grade of the ore body is
3% copper. Maximum mining depth by open cut methods is 200 m. The mine is located
300 km from the nearest town.

W E

100
Depth (m)

200

F F

KEY: Grade
Fault 4% Cu
F
3% Cu
Outline of current
open cut mine 2% Cu

1% Cu

(a) Define the term grade.

(b) Explain what is likely to happen to future mining operations if the price of copper
increases.

(d) The deeper part of the ore body will be mined as an underground operation.
Describe ONE new environmental factor that has to be considered.
18

28 Diagram A is a map that shows three magnetic anomaly profiles and contour lines on an
ocean floor. Diagram B is a cross-section through A, B and C. Beneath Diagram B are the
core logs for drill holes A, B and C.
DIAGRAM A
4500 m X

4000 m

2000 m

1000 m

2000 m

4000 m

4500 m
+
Line 1 Magnetic
Polarisation
−
A B C

+
Line 2
−

+
Line 3
−

SCALE
(km)
0 100 200 300
Y

DIAGRAM B
C 0
2000
B m
A 4000
6000

Core logs
KEY
A B C
0
Siliceous MF1 Globigerina pearl
C1 mud 12·5 million years
100
MF2 Calcareous MF2 Globigerina rufus
MF2 mud 6·0 million years
200
Radiometric ages
m B1 Basalt
MF1 A1 15 million years
300
Dolerite B1 8 million years
400 C1 1 million years
A1
Gabbro
500
19

QUESTION 28 (Continued)

(a) Name the large-scale geological feature present in the region depicted in the
diagrams.

(b) Calculate the average rate of motion, in kilometres per million years, experienced
by the rocks and sediment located at site A.

(d) Explain why the magnetic signatures on Lines 1, 2, and 3 are approximately
symmetrical about the line XY.

Please turn over

29 The map shows a granite body that intruded a sequence of regionally metamorphosed
mudstone, greywacke and intermediate volcanic rocks. Both the granite and the
metamorphic rocks have a distinct foliation that strikes approximately north-south.

2 km
Metamorphosed
Granite
andesite + intermediate tuff

Metamorphosed Regional foliation

greywacke and mudstone
Strike and dip
Quarry
of strata

Overturned bedding

Question 29 continues on page 21

QUESTION 29 (Continued)

(a) Name a plate tectonic setting in which these rocks and structures could have
developed.

(b) Describe how foliation develops in rocks in such a setting.

(c) List the following events in order from oldest to youngest:

• the formation of the foliation

• the emplacement of the granite

• the formation of the mudstone/greywacke/volcanic sequence.

40
(d) Analysis of the granite revealed that it retains 70% of its original K. Use the
radioactive decay curve to determine the age of the granite.

100
90
Percentage of parent isotope remaining

80
70
60
50 40
K
40
30
20
10
0
0 1000 2000 3000 4000 5000
Time (millions of years)
22

30 Fold mountains are composed of rocks representing all the major rock groups—volcanic,
plutonic, regional metamorphic, contact metamorphic, and sedimentary.

Name ONE rock type from each of the five groups above that you would expect to find
in a fold mountain range. For EACH of these rock types, briefly explain how it becomes
part of a fold mountain range.

31 The diagram shows the apparent polar wandering curves for the African Plate (solid line)
and Arabian Plate (dashed line).
N
KEY:

Apparent polar
wandering curves
African Plate
Arabian Plate

Dates of apparent
pole positions (approx.)

0 0 600 million years ago

300 million years ago
250 million years ago
150 million years ago
Present

Arabian Plate

S
Montgomery, C W, Fundamentals of Geology, Wm C Brown, Dubuque, Iowa, 3rd ed 1997, p 144.
Reproduced with the permission of The McGraw-Hill Companies.

(a) What is an apparent polar wandering curve?

(b) Using the apparent polar wandering curves, describe the motion of the African
Plate and Arabian Plate relative to each other over the past 600 million years.

(c) Describe the data that you would need if you were required to construct a polar
wandering curve for the Australian Plate for the past 200 million years.
23

SECTION II—ELECTIVES
(25 Marks)

Attempt ONE question.

Answer the question in a SEPARATE Elective Answer Book.

Pages
QUESTION 32 Contemporary Sedimentary Processes .................. 24–27
QUESTION 33 Igneous Rocks ....................................................... 28–31
QUESTION 34 Economic Geology ................................................ 32–33
QUESTION 35 Regional Geology .................................................. 34–35
QUESTION 36 Palaeontology ........................................................ 36–41
24

QUESTION 32 Contemporary Sedimentary Processes Marks

In this elective you have studied the sedimentary processes that are occurring in a
present-day depositional environment. You will have undertaken some field work and
laboratory investigations in order to study the environment and produce a report.

(a) Name the depositional environment you studied, and state its location.

(b) Draw and label a full-page sketch map of the area you studied. The map should 3
include:

(i) sampling locations;

(ii) direction(s) of sediment transport;

(iii) locations of features of particular interest, such as sedimentary

structures, sediment sources, and locations of human influence on
sedimentary processes.

(c) Describe, in detail, the methods that were used to: 5

(i) determine the composition, grain size, distribution and shape of the
sediment grains;

(ii) measure the velocity of the transporting medium;

(iii) determine the source of the sediment.

(d) (i) Use labelled diagrams to illustrate TWO sedimentary structures that 3
were characteristic of the environment.

(ii) Describe the composition and average grain size of the sediment found
in one of these structures.

Question 32 continues on page 25

QUESTION 32 (Continued) Marks

(e) List THREE organisms, excluding humans, found in the environment. Discuss 3
how these organisms interacted with the environment, and how they affected the
sedimentary processes you observed.

(f) Describe, in detail, ONE significant effect that human activity has had on the 2
sedimentary processes that you observed in your study area. Assess its influence
in changing the natural processes.

(g) You are on a field trip to another region and you find an exposure of sedimentary 4
rocks in a cliff face. This exposure contains some, but not all, of the structures
you observed in the present-day depositional environment you studied.

(i) Briefly describe the field and laboratory methods you would use to
interpret the environment in which the sedimentary rocks in the cliff face
formed.

(ii) Explain how you would support an hypothesis that the rocks in the cliff
face might have formed in a different depositional environment from the
one you studied.

Question 32 continues on page 26

QUESTION 32 (Continued) Marks

(h) Diagram A shows four frequency histograms, A, B, C, and D that show the grain 5
size distributions of four different sediments.
DIAGRAM A

A B
50 50

25 25
Weight per cent

0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 4 8 16 32 64 128 4 8 16 32 64 128 256

C D
50 50

25 25

0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
4 2 1
2 4 8 16 16 32 64 128 256 512 1024

Grain size (mm)

Blatt, H, Middleton G, and Murray, R, Origin of Sedimentary Rocks, Prentice-Hall, Ebglewood Cliffs, NJ, 1972, p 35.

Diagram B shows cumulative frequency curves labelled I, II, III and IV, for the
SAME four sediment samples shown in Diagram A. They are in no particular order.

DIAGRAM B
I II III
100

IV
80
Cumulative per cent

0
1 1 1 1 1
1
4 16 64 256 1024
Grain size (mm)

Question 32 continues on page 27

QUESTION 32 (Continued) Marks

(i) Match each frequency histogram (A, B, C and D) with the correct
cumulative frequency curve (I, II, III or IV).

(ii) From the cumulative frequency curve, give:

1 the MEDIAN (50%) grain size of the finest sediment sample;

2 the sediment sample that displays the best sorting.

(iii) The four sediment samples were obtained from a river, a desert sand
dune, a deposit of wind-blown silt, and a deep marine clay.

Match each of the histograms with its correct source, giving reasons for
your choices.

End of question
28

QUESTION 33 Igneous Rocks Marks

(a) This question relates to the diagrams and table shown. 11

The four photomicrographs (I, II, III, and IV) show a sequence of four
consecutive stages in the cooling of a 30 m thick lava flow. The samples were
taken from the centre of the flow at five-year intervals. The temperature of each
sample is given at the top left-hand corner of the photomicrograph. The samples
were instantly cooled to room temperature.

1250°C 1170°C
0 2
mm

I II

A
gas bubble
1130°C 1025°C

III IV

B Ilmenite C

The table shows the major element composition of the lava, as weight per cent
of oxides.

Oxide Weight per cent

SiO2 47·52
TiO2 3·29
Al2O3 15·95
Fe2O3 3·16
FeO 8·91
MnO 0·19
MgO 5·18
CaO 8·96
Na2O 3·96
K2O 1·09
P2O5 0·64
H2O 1·36
Total 99·85

Question 33 continues on page 29

QUESTION 33 (Continued) Marks

(i) Determine a name for the lava, using its major element composition.

(ii) Name the minerals labelled A, B, and C.

(iii) Describe the cooling history of the lava flow, and give an order of
crystallisation for the minerals present.

(iv) 1 Name the texture shown in photomicrograph I.

2 Explain why samples taken from the base of the lava flow have the
same texture as that shown in photomicrograph I.

(v) Name the texture shown in photomicrograph II.

(vi) 1 Name the rock type that is the plutonic equivalent of this lava.

2 Draw and label a sketch that shows the texture of the rock type you
named in part (vi) 1.

(vii) The rock type shown in photomicrograph IV is composed mostly of

crystals. Compare the texture shown in photomicrograph IV with the
texture shown in the sketch you drew for part (vi) 2. Explain any
differences.

(viii) Name the type of volcano that would be entirely composed of this lava
type, and indicate a typical plate tectonic setting for this volcano.

Question 33 continues on page 30

QUESTION 33 (Continued) Marks

(b) This question relates to the sketch and the geological map that show the igneous 9
landforms called Pilgrim’s Hat and Propeller Rock.

View looking north

N
North Blade

West Blade

Propeller Rock

South
Blade
Pilgrim’s
Hat km
0 1

KEY
Microgranite, age 15·5 ± 0·3 million years
Microdiorite, age 15·6 ± 0·3 million years
Mudstone, age 155 million years

Question 33 continues on page 31

QUESTION 33 (Continued) Marks

(i) What type of igneous structure is Pilgrim’s Hat?

(ii) What type of igneous structure is North Blade?

(iii) The land surface around Propeller Rock and Pilgrim’s Hat formed about
5 million years ago. Use a series of labelled diagrams to show how
Pilgrim’s Hat, Propeller Rock, and the Blades formed.

(iv) Chemical analysis of the microdiorite and the microgranite that form
Propeller Rock and Pilgrim’s Hat indicates that these two rock types
formed from the same parent magma.

1 Name a possible parent magma.

2 Explain, in detail, how the microdiorite and the microgranite formed

from the parent magma.

(c) (i) Name TWO types of economic deposits, other than hydrothermal vein 5
deposits, commonly associated with intrusive igneous rocks.

(ii) Briefly describe how EACH type of economic deposit you named in
part (c) (i) forms.

End of question
32

QUESTION 34 Economic Geology Marks

In this elective, you studied TWO of the following:

• an economic deposit formed by igneous and/or metamorphic processes;

• an economic deposit formed or concentrated by weathering or sedimentary processes;
• an engineering project.

(a) For an economic deposit you studied, answer the following questions. 10

(i) Name the economic deposit.

(ii) Describe the resource, the final product or products, and its/their
eventual use or uses.

(iii) Draw and label a cross-section of the deposit. Show both the economic
deposit and the surrounding geology.

(iv) Describe in detail the geological processes that were responsible for
forming and concentrating the deposit.

(b) For EITHER a second economic deposit, OR an engineering project you 10

studied:

(i) Name the deposit or project.

(ii) Name one exploration or testing method used in this deposit or project.
For this method, describe:

1 why it was used;

2 the procedures used;

3 the results obtained.

(iii) 1 Describe TWO environmental factors that influenced the

development or operation of the deposit or project.

2 Choose ONE environmental factor described in part (b) (iii) 1.

Explain the effect it had on the operation or maintenance of the
deposit or project.

(iv) Explain how the geology of the site influenced EITHER the design and
construction of the project, OR the extraction method used in the project.

Question 34 continues on page 33

QUESTION 34 (Continued) Marks

(c) The diagram shows one scheme that can be used to categorise reserves and 5
resources to indicate areas of immediate economic interest.

Total resources

Identified Undiscovered

Measured Hypothetical Speculative

Inferred (In
(in known (In
(in undiscovered
Proved Indicated districts) districts)
Economic

R e s e r v e s

of economic feasibility
Increasing degree
Zone of economic
uncertainty
Sub-economic

R e s o u r c e s

Increasing degree of geological assurance

Evans A M, Ore Geology & Industrial Minerals: An Introduction, Blackwell Scientific Publications, Boston, 1993, p 24.

(i) With reference to the diagram, state the difference between the terms
indicated, inferred, and proved reserves.

(ii) Name and briefly describe TWO factors that could move an ore body
into or out of the ‘Zone of economic uncertainty’.

(iii) With reference to the diagram, distinguish between Reserves and

Resources.

End of question
34

QUESTION 35 Regional Geology Marks

In this elective, you studied one of the following regions:

• North-western Fold Belt

• Central and Southern Fold Belt (northern areas)
• Central and Southern Fold Belt (southern areas)
• New England Fold Belt
• Sydney Basin.

Name the region you studied.

(a) (i) Draw a stratigraphic column for the region you studied. On the column, 4
show the major lithological units and unconformities, using appropriate
symbols. Do NOT include intrusive igneous rocks.

(ii) Label each unit on the right-hand side of the column. Include the name
of the unit and the names of the major rock types.

(iii) Explain why a stratigraphic column is a useful tool for understanding the
geological evolution of the region.

(b) The geomorphology, land use, and vegetation of an area are controlled by the 4
underlying lithology. Choose TWO of the major lithological units from your
region, and describe how these units have influenced the geomorphology and
EITHER land use OR vegetation.

(c) (i) Name and draw a diagram of a major structural feature in the region you 3
studied. Label the lithological unit(s) in which the feature occurs.

(ii) Describe the significance of this structural feature in terms of the

geological development of the region.

(d) The region includes an economic deposit or mine. 3

(i) Name the deposit or mine.

(ii) Name the economic commodity in this deposit.

(iii) Describe the formation of the deposit.

Question 35 continues on page 35

QUESTION 35 (Continued) Marks

(e) The region contains a feature of special geological interest. 3

(i) Name the feature.

(ii) Describe, in detail, the formation, construction or development of this

feature.

(f) (i) Name the types of boundaries between the region you studied and TWO 3
adjacent regions.

(ii) Describe the significance of each of the boundaries named in part (f) (i),
in terms of the geological development of the region.

(g) You will have used a number of methods to investigate the region you chose. 5

(i) Maps and air photos are sources of information. For each, describe the
type of geological information you can obtain.

(ii) Explain the meaning of a scale of 1 : 100 000 when given on a map or air
photo.

(iii) Name TWO other sources of information you used during your
investigation of the region you chose. Evaluate these sources in terms of
their usefulness.

End of question
36

QUESTION 36 Palaeontology Marks

(a) The diagram shows the number of genera of animal groups since the Triassic. 5
120
Triassic Jurassic Cretaceous Pal. Eoc. Olig. Mio. Pl. Q.

100
Dinosaurs Living reef corals
Reef corals
80
Number of genera

60 Reef corals

40 Solitary corals

Globigerines
0
225 200 175 150 125 100 75 50 25 0
Millions of years before the present
Berggren, W A & Van Couvering, J A (eds), Catastrophes and Earth History:
The New Uniformitarianism, Princeton NJ, Princeton University Press, 1984.

(i) What was the maximum number of dinosaur genera?

(ii) When did the first reef corals evolve?
(iii) Suggest ONE reason why the number of dinosaur genera increased
during the Jurassic.
(iv) State the maximum number of reef coral genera, and when this number
was achieved.
(v) Compare the trend in the number of dinosaur genera with the trend in the
number of solitary coral genera and Globigerines during the Cretaceous.

(b) Discuss, in detail, ONE probable cause for the changes in the number of genera 3
across the Cretaceous–Palaeocene boundary.

(c) (i) What is a missing link? 2

(ii) Explain why many animal groups have missing links in their fossil
record.

Question 36 continues on page 37

QUESTION 36 (Continued) Marks

(d) The diagrams show three fossils A, B, and C. 7

McDonnell, Massey et al, Enquiring into the Earth,

Branagan D, Beneath the Scenery:
Longmans 1968, pp 136-137.
Geology for senior students,
Reprinted with permission of Pearson
Science Press, Marrickville, NSW, 1971, p53.
Education Australia, [Link].
(i) To which group does each of the fossils A, B, and C belong?

(ii) Select ONE of these groups.

1 Name the group.

2 When did this group first appear?

3 When did this group become extinct?

4 Describe the environment in which this group lived.

5 Describe the major morphological changes that occurred in this

group as it evolved.

(iii) For ONE of the above groups, OTHER than the one you selected in
part (ii), discuss why it is difficult to classify members of this group to
species level.

(e) (i) What is evolution? 3

(ii) How is the fossil record useful for demonstrating evolution? In your
answer, use examples from ONE fossil group, but not the same group
selected in part (d) (ii).

Question 36 continues on page 38

QUESTION 36 (Continued) Marks

(f) Answer EITHER (i) OR (ii) OR (iii). 5

EITHER

(i) Select TWO fossil assemblages from different palaeo-environments.

1 Discuss how the fossils in each assemblage might be used to

interpret the palaeo-ecology of the assemblages.

2 Discuss evidence, other than fossils, that you might use to interpret
the palaeo-ecology of each assemblage you selected.

Question 36 continues on page 39

QUESTION 36 (Continued) Marks

(ii) The diagrams show an artist’s impression of Australopithecus and

Neanderthal man.

Simpson, Pittendrigh & Tiffany, Life: An Introduction to Biology, Routledge & Kegan Paul, 1958, fig 32.16

Australopithecus Neanderthal man

1 Which of the two is more closely related to modern people? Justify

your answer.

Diagram A shows a cross-section through the Keilor Terrace,

Maribyrnong River, Victoria. Diagram B shows an Aborigine’s tool
found at the level marked by X.
DIAGRAM A
KEY

Radiocarbon
date (years)
Keilor Terrace 26 000 Inferred
minimum
Sand X Clay age (years)
15 000
18 000
36 000
3
2
m
Bedrock 1
0
Continent of Hunter-gatherers: new perspectives in Australian prehistory, Cambridge Uni Press, Melbourne, Vic, 1997. Reprinted with the permission of Cambridge Uni Press.
DIAGRAM B

Side view
Top view

2 What is the age of the Aborigine’s tool?

3 How might you verify the age of the tool?
4 What evidence would you look for to determine the lifestyle of the
owner of the tool?
OR
Question 36 continues on page 40
40

QUESTION 36 (Continued) Marks

(iii) Diagram C shows the age range of micro-fossils recovered from Deep
Sea Drilling Project (DSDP) drill holes.

DIAGRAM C
GEOLOGIC FOSSILS FROM SEDIMENT ABOVE
EPOCHS BASALT IN DSDP DRILL HOLES (Range
AND AGES of each fossil shown by a vertical line)
0 Pleistocene
Pliocene 36×
10 82×
Miocene
20 Orbulina
Globorotalia 32×
Radiometric time scale (millions of years)

30 Oligocene

40 Uvigerina
Eocene
50

60 Palaeocene 42×
25×
Late Cretaceous

42×
70
Globigerina
80
Globotruncana
Globotruncana maya. forn.
90
42× 25×
100
Early Cretaceous

110 Retalipora Hedbergella

25×
120

130 Lenticulina

140 35×
25× 4×
150
Bairdia
160
Brotzenia Saccocoma

Brice, J, Levin, H & Smith, M, Laboratory Studies in Earth History, 6th ed 1997, Wm C Brown Publishers, Dubuque, Iowa, pp51-53.

Question 36 continues on page 41

QUESTION 36 (Continued) Marks

Diagram D shows the location of four DSDP drill holes and the micro-fossils
recognised in each hole.

DIAGRAM D 75° 60° 45° 30° 15°

ca
40° ..... Canary Is. ...
e ri
. .... . .
....... A t lantic Ocean ......
.......... .......
Am
.............. .. .. .. ..
10 ...................................................

Afri
..... 20°
.....
105 11
rth

...... 137
No
...... .
......Bermuda .......
0m
2000 m

ca
........
.......... .. .. .. .. .. ........
30° ................... ....
20

.........................................

Cape Verde Is.

20°
KEY: • 105 — DSDP Hole 105
DSDP hole 137
Water depth 5361 m
Clay Hole depth 400 m
DSDP hole 11
Water depth 3571 m
Marl Chalk
ooze ooze Hole depth 284 m

Basalt Basalt

Silty DSDP hole 105

DSDP hole 10 clay
Water depth 5231 m
Water depth 4712 m Hole depth 633 m
Chalk Hole depth 459 m Clay
ooze Dark
clay
Lime-
stone
Basalt Basalt

1 From the data given in Diagram C, name ONE micro-fossil that

could be a good index fossil. What other characteristic must the
fossil have to be a good index fossil?

2 What is the radiometric age range of the fossil assemblage in

DSDP hole 11?

3 What is the minimum age of the basalt in DSDP hole 105?

4 Discuss how micro-fossils are used as stratigraphic tools in the

petroleum industry.

End of paper
42

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© Board of Studies NSW 2000

STUDENT NUMBER

CENTRE NUMBER

HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

2000
GEOLOGY
2 UNIT
PART B ANSWER BOOK

DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your Student Number and Centre Number at the
top right-hand corner of this page.
• You should receive this Answer Book with a Part A
MARKER’S USE ONLY
Answer Sheet, a Part C Answer Book, and an Elective
Answer Book. PART Mark Marker Check

• Answer Questions 16 to 25 in this Answer Book. B

• Each question is worth 3 marks.

342
2

PART B MARKER’S
USE ONLY

Each question is worth 3 marks.

Answer the questions in the spaces provided.

16 (a) ......................................................................................................................

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22 (a)
1·3–1·8 Ma 0–0·7 Ma
3·8–5·6 Ma 2·3–3·3 Ma 0–1·3 Ma

Sea level

(b) (i) ..........................................................................................................

(ii)

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KEY 0 1 2 km
Conglomerate Sandstone

Shale Limestone

(b) Reason 1 ......................................................................................................

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Reason 2 ......................................................................................................

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Please turn over

MARKER’S
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25 ...............................................................................................................................

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© Board of Studies NSW 2000

STUDENT NUMBER

CENTRE NUMBER

HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

2000
GEOLOGY
UNIT
PART C ANSWER BOOK

DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your Student Number and Centre Number at the
top right-hand corner of this page.
• You should receive this Answer Book with a Part A
MARKER’S USE ONLY
Answer Sheet, a Part B Answer Book, and an Elective
Answer Book. PART Mark Marker Check

• Answer Questions 26 to 31 in this Answer Book. C

• Each question is worth 5 marks.

343
2

PART C MARKER’S
USE ONLY

Each question is worth 5 marks.

Answer the questions in the spaces provided.

26 (a) ......................................................................................................................

(b)

(c) ......................................................................................................................

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3

MARKER’S
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Problem 2 ....................................................................................................

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1
‫والتعليم التربية وزارة‬
‫العلوم مادة لتنمية العامة اإلدارة‬
‫األرض علوم بالجامعات القبول اإلستعداد إمتحان‬
‫ ) والتكنولوجيا العلوم في المتفوقين بمدارس‬STEM ( ‫ الدراسي للعام‬2018 / 2019 University
Readiness Test (Science II - URT) Exam 2019 Earth
Science Gr 12 (URT)
Passage I
Geologists have identified more than two thousands of minerals. Geologists use
many properties to identify specific minerals. Geologists can either look at a
mineral to observe some of the properties or conduct certain tests on a mineral.
Streak, color, luster, transparency, hardness, cleavage, crystal systems, density and
fracture are some of the tests used to identify minerals.
The German mineralogist Frederich Mohs (1773-1839), devised in 1812 the Mohs
scale of mineral hardness. He selected the ten minerals (talc, gypsum, calcite,
fluorite, apatite, orthoclase, quartz, topaz, corundum and diamond) because they
were common or readily available. The scale is not a linear scale but somewhat
arbitrary.
Table 1

Mohs Scale of Mineral Hardness

2
Questions 1 to 5 belong to passage I
1. A mineral can scratch any mineral that is softer but can be scratched if a mineral
is harder. A copper penny has a hardness of 3. According to Figure 1, what
minerals can a copper penny scratch?
A. Quartz and talc
B. Gypsum and talc
C. Talc and feldspar
D. Gypsum and topaz
2. Apatite is a mineral with hardness 5. Apatite can scratch azurite, another
mineral. To determine the hardness of azurite, you try to scratch it with talc,
gypsum, and calcite. If none of these minerals scratches azurite, what is the
hardness of azurite?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
3. According to the Rosiwal Scale of Hardness, how many more times harder is a
diamond than corundum?
A. 1,400
B. 4,000
C. 14,000
D. 140,000

4. Several lunar missions have collected rocks from the Moon. When scientists
analyze Moon rocks, which of the following is not necessarily true about the
minerals they contain?
A. They are solid.
B. They have a definite chemical composition.
C. They are naturally occurring.
D. They are made of two or more elements.
5. According to tables, which mineral is eight times as hard as topaz referred to
Mohs scale of hardness?
1. Orthoclase
2. Quartz
3. Corundum
4. Diamond
4
Passage II Earthquakes are any sudden shaking of the ground caused by the
passage of seismic waves through Earth’s rocks. Seismic waves are produced when
some form of energy stored in Earth’s crust is suddenly released, usually when
masses of rock straining against one another suddenly fracture and slip.

There are several reasons explained the occurrence of such seismic waves, the
most widely accepted reason is that there is a lot of friction along the fault plane,
because the rock surfaces are rough and are pressed together by the great pressure
deep in Earth. Earthquakes occur mostly often along geologic faults, narrow zones
where rock masses move in relation in opposite sides to one another. The major
fault lines of the world are located at the fringes of the huge tectonic plates that
make up Earth’s crust. When an earthquake occurs by rupture along a fault, the
elastic energy of bending is released. The energy spreads out as seismic waves
from the focus. Earthquake magnitude is a measure of the amplitude of the seismic
waves recorded on a seismogram.
Earthquakes produce several kinds of seismic waves which spread out as seismic
waves from the focus. Compressional waves are the first to reach a location away
from the focus. They are called primary waves, or just P waves. They can move
through solids, liquids, and gases. Shear waves which are called secondary waves,
or just S waves arrive at a location after compressional waves. S waves can travel
only through solids, not through fluids. Surface waves, which travel along Earth’s
surface, are the last to arrive at a location. They travel slower than S waves.
5
Questions 6 to 10 belong to passage II

6. According to figure 1 , the following figure

represents a block diagram of the different
elements of an earthquake. The letters A to E
represent respectively:
A. seismic waves, fault line underground,
surface fault line, , epicenter, focus
B. seismic waves, surface fault line, fault line
underground, epicenter, focus
C. epicenter, fault line underground, surface
fault line, focus, seismic waves.
D. focus, fault line underground, surface fault line, epicenter, seismic waves.
7. The amount of energy released by an earthquake is measured by its ……..
A. speed
B. magnitude
C. focus
D. intensity
8. Which phrase below would best describe the plate movements that cause
an earthquake?
A. friction between two sliding plates, releasing energy
B. smooth sliding between two plates, a gradual movement
C. smooth pulling apart of two plates, a gradual movement
D. friction being released as two plates move apart
9. Which of the following describes primary waves created by an
earthquake?
A. they cause damage on the surface
B. they cause up-and-down movement in the rock
C. they are the fastest-moving waves
D. they are the slowest-moving waves
6
10. In the following figure,

if (A) is an earthquake
epicenter and (X) is the site where the seismograph is
located. The seismograph at (X) will …….
A. receive P seismic waves only because the inner core
of the earth is solid.
B. receive S seismic waves only because the outer core
of the earth is solid.
C. receive P seismic waves only because the outer core
of the earth is molten.
D. receive S seismic waves only because the outer core
of the earth is molten.
Passage III
About 300 million years ago, Earth didn't have seven continents, but instead one
massive supercontinent called Pangaea (Figure 1),

which was surrounded by a

single ocean called Panthalassa. Alfred Wegener a German Meteorologist, who
introduce his theory in (1922) which claims that Pangaea started by Mesozoic
era (since 220 million years ago) to split into pieces far apart from each other
and they achieved their present position as our modern continents during the
late Cenozoic era. The explanation for Pangaea's formation ushered in the
modern theory of plate tectonics, which proposed by Dr. Bryan Isaack, Dr. Jack
Oliver and Dr. Lynn Sykes in 1968
Plate tectonics theory posits that the Earth's outer shell
is broken up into several plates that slide over Earth's
rocky shell, the mantle. Over the course of the planet's
3.5 billion-year history, several supercontinents have
formed and broken up, a result of churning and
circulation in the Earth's mantle, which makes up most
of planet's volume. This breakup and formation of
supercontinents has dramatically altered the planet’s
history.
7
Figure 2. Shows the continental drift fossil evidence. As noted by Snider-
Pellegrini and Alfred Wegener, the locations of certain fossil of plants and
animals on present-day, widely separated continents would form definite
patterns (shown by the bands of colors), if the continents are rejoined. These
fossils which called index fossil, have narrow age range can be used to date

rocks.

Plate tectonics is the theory that the outer rigid layer of the earth
(the lithosphere) is divided into a couple of dozen "plates" that move around
across the earth's surface relative to each other, like slabs of ice on a lake. The
lines where they meet are called plate boundaries. There are three main types
of plate boundary: divergent, convergent and transform (Sliding) boundary.

8
Questions 11 to 15 belong to passage III 11. The originator of the theory of
continental drift is ------------------- A. Jack Oliver B. Snider-Pellegrini
C. Lynn Sykes
D. Alfred Wegener
12. Pangaea is broke apart during -------------- A. Pre-Cambrian Eon B. Paleozoic
Era
C. Mesozoic Era D. Cenozoic Era
13. From Figure 3. which type of plate boundaries have been exist between south
America And Africa
A. Sliding boundary
B. Convergent boundary
C. Divergent boundary
D. Transform boundary
14. Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of an index fossil
species?
A. a large population
B. a wide distribution
C. a long age range
D. easy to identify
15. Which of the following statements is true about fossils?
I) The fossil record contains evidence of Earth’s oldest species.
II) Fossilization favors the preservation of the hard parts of organisms.
III) Fossils can form in any kind of rock.
IV) Fossils are used to correlate rock layers in different locations.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
9
Passage IV
When the Voyager probes (Voyager 1 and 2) were launched in 1977, their mission
was to explore the Jovian planets. Scientists could not begin to anticipate the
discoveries they would make as they traveled through the solar system. As
Voyager 2 approached Jupiter in the summer of 1979, images of Jupiter’s moon,
Io, revealed what appeared to be an erupting volcano on a celestial body otherwise
devoid of an atmosphere or any form of liquid. This was a spectacular discovery
since the photo revealed the only known active volcano beyond earth. Additional
photos revealed Io to be an incredibly geologically active world with extensive

sulfur deposits on its surface.

After the Voyager encounters of Io, a scientific debate ensued regarding the nature
of the volcanoes observed on Io’s surface. Two competing viewpoints are
presented below.
Scientist 1
Io is Jupiter’s innermost Galilean moon. It was large enough to be one of the four
moons visible to Galileo through his early telescope. It is, however, a relatively
small body, with a diameter approximately one-quarter that of Earth’s. Despite its
small size, it has become quite a geologic phenomenon. As a consequence of its
proximity to Jupiter, it is caught in a gravitational “tug of war” between Jupiter and
the outer “Galilean” moons. This gravitational action is the core of Io’s extreme
volcanic activity. This volcanic activity, characterized by extensive flows of
molten sulfur on Io’s surface and likely a wide range of compounds containing
sulfur, makes Io’s volcanic activity quite different from volcanic activity observed
here on Earth. To further support their position, this scientist argues for sulfur
flows as sulfur melts at a much lower temperature than that required by the lava
flows observed here on Earth.
Scientist 2
An alternate theory suggests that the volcanoes on Io are, in fact, similar to those
found on Earth. Based only upon the Voyager photos, this scientist argues the
existence of 10 km (6.2 miles) tall volcanic mountains composed primarily of
sulfur. Tall mountains require the presence of silicate rocks, and therefore these
volcanoes must be similar in composition to those found on earth.
10
The Jovian planets are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. They orbit far from
the sun. These planets have no solid surfaces and are essentially large balls of gas
composed primarily of hydrogen and helium.
Questions 16 to 20 belong to passage IV
16. According to the information provided, both scientists would likely agree upon
the
A. temperature of the lava flows on Io’s surface.
?B. root causes for Io’s extreme volcanic activity.
C. chemical composition of lava on Io’s surface.
D. chemical composition of magma within Io’s interior.
17. Scientist 2 would likely argue that tall silicate mountains are more common on
Io than tall sulfur-rich volcanoes because
?A. Sulfur is too soft a material, and silicates are much harder. As such, tall
mountains composed of silicate materials can form where tall mountains composed
of sulfur cannot form to such heights.
B. Silicate is too soft a material, and sulfur compounds are much harder. As such,
tall mountains composed of sulfur compounds can form where tall mountains
composed of silicates cannot form to such heights.
C. Sulfur-rich mountains once did form on Io, but they were reduced in size due to
the forces of weathering and erosion caused by Io’s atmosphere and flowing water.
D. Silicate-rich mountains once did form on Io, but they were reduced in size due
to the forces of weathering and erosion caused by Io’s atmosphere and flowing
water.
18. The active volcanism on Io in both scientists’ views is likely the result of
?A. tectonic plate motions along with convective activity within the moon’s
mantle.
B. Jupiter’s extreme gravity causing the volcanoes to grow.
C. gravitational stress created due to Io’s orbital position.
D. friction created by movement along Io’s surface.
11
19. If Scientist 1 is correct and Io’s razor thin atmosphere could be tested, traces of
which gas might be found?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Water vapor
20. Many scientists believe earth’s early atmosphere originated from out-gassing
from the planet’s interior. Essentially, volcanic activity helped to produce earth’s
early atmosphere. When compared to earth’s atmosphere, Io’s atmosphere is razor
thin. The best explanation for this is
A. Io is much smaller than Earth and, as such, has a smaller gravitational field.
Thus, it lost any atmosphere produced from the out-gassing.
B. Jupiter’s great gravitational field removed Io’s atmosphere.
?C. Io’s volcanoes erupt with such force they eject the gases into space before Io
can capture these gases to form an atmosphere.
D. Io’s volcanoes do not emit any gases.
12
Passage V
Rock types can often be differentiated by the rare earth elements (REEs) they
contain. Table 1 shows the average concentration of 2 REEs, neodymium and
samarium, in 4 igneous rock types (oceanic basalt, continental basalt, andesite, and
granite) and also in 3 sedimentary rock types (shale, sandstone, and dolomite).
TABLE (1)
Rock Types
Average Concentration (ppm*) of :
* ppm : part per million
Neodymium
Samarium
Igneous Rocks
Oceanic Basalt
10
3
Continental Basalt
50
8
Andesite
30
7
Granite
50
9
Sedimentary Rocks
Shale
30
6
Sandstone
15
3
Dolomite
1
0.2

Figure adapted from S. Ross Taylor and Scott McLennan, “The Evolution of
Continental Crust.” ©1996 by Scientific American, Inc.
Figure 1 shows the relative concentration of REEs in various igneous rock types
and in sedimentary rocks taken as a group. Relative concentration is calculated
using the following formula:
13
Meteorites, taken as a group, are used to calculate the relative concentration
because their composition is distinctly different from any Earth rock.
. Questions 21 to 25 belong to passage V
21. According to Figure 1, oceanic basalt and continental basalt differ the most in
their relative concentrations of which of the following REEs ?
A. Cerium
B. Samarium
C. Holmium
D. Lutetium
22. A chemical analysis of another group of
samples of one of the igneous rock types listed in
Figure 1 revealed the following relative
concentrations for 3 of its REEs:
According to Figure 1

, to which rock types do these samples most likely belong?

F. Oceanic basalt
G. Andesite
H. Granite
J. Sodium granite
23. Which of the following statements comparing the average concentrations of
neodymium and samarium in the rock types listed in Table 1 is true?
A. In each rock type, the average neodymium concentration is lower than the
average samarium concentration.
B. In each rock type, the average neodymium concentration is higher than the
average samarium concentration.
C. In some rock types, the average neodymium concentration is lower than the
average samarium concentration; in other rock types, the average neodymium
concentration is equal to the average samarium concentration.
D. In some rock types, the average neodymium concentration is higher than the
average samarium concentration; in other rock types, the average neodymium
concentration is equal to the average samarium concentration.
14
24. Based on Figure 1, the relative concentration of terbium for limestone, another
rock type, would most likely be:
F. less than 10.
G. between 10 and 14.
H. between 15 and 20.
J. greater than 20.
25. In Figure 1, the plot of relative concentration versus atomic number covers the
smallest range of relative concentrations for which of the following rock types?
A. Oceanic basalt
B. Continental basalt
C. Sodium granite
D. Sedimentary rocks.
6th October STEM School
Trial Final Exam 2018 (No1)
1- The diagram shows a tectonic plate boundary. It
represents
(a) subduction at a divergent plate boundary
(b) subduction at a convergent plate boundary
(c) rifting at a convergent plate boundary
(d) rifting at a transform plate boundary

2- Arrows in the block diagram below show the

relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.
Between which two tectonic plates does this type of
plate boundary exist?
(a) Transitional movement and formation of Red sea
(b) Transitional movement and formation of San
Andres Fault
(c) Transitional movement and formation of Aqaba
Gulf fault
(d) Both (b) and (C
3- The opposite diagram represent
(a) Seismogram
(b)Seismic wave
(c) Seismograph
(d) Seismofaulting

4- The diagram shows a cross-section view of Earth’s

surface, interior and their associated movements. What
most likely created the deep ocean trench along the
west coast of South America?
(a) The oceanic crust sinking beneath the
continental crust
(b) The convection currents make the ocean basin
narrower
(c) The oceanic crust uplifting over the continental
crust
(d) The oceanic crust sinking at the Mid-Atlantic
ridge
5- Which is NOT a role that volcanoes play in the water cycle and atmosphere?
a. Groundwater circulates within volcanoes, becomes heated and is released as steam.
b. All of the oxygen in the air we breathe originally came from a volcano.
c. Mudflows associated with volcanoes contain water from the surface of Earth.
d. Volcanoes emit water vapor into the atmosphere.
6- Which would increase the speed of the flow of magma?
(a) an increase in the magma’s silica content (b) an increase in the magma’s temperature
(c) a decrease in slope (d) an increase in the magma’s viscosity
7- Which is the correct order from FASTEST to LOWEST travel speed of earthquake waves?
(a) surface, secondary, primary (b) primary, secondary, surface
(c) primary, surface, secondary (d) surface, primary, secondary
9- The presence of sedimentary rock covering 6th October surface area is an evidence of ……
(a) Folding (b) Faulting (c) tectonic movement (a) all answers right
10- What type of instrument creates the picture to the right?
A. an accelerometer
B. a seismogram
C. a seismograph
D. a magnetometer

11- What is the typical depth of the epicenter of an earthquake?

A. a few km
B. up to 700 km
C. the same depth as the focus
D. zero (at the surface)
12- Which of the following types of waves is unable to pass through any liquid?
A. P-waves B. sound waves C. water waves E. S-waves
13. The Modified Mercalli scale is used to measure:
A. the Richter magnitude of an earthquake
B. the moment magnitude of an earthquake
C. the intensity of an earthquake
D. the amount of energy released during an earthquake
14. Which of the following is an accurate definition of the term tsunami?
A. it is a type of earthquake that occurs under the ocean
B. it is a type of seismic wave that causes a lot of damage to tall buildings
C. it is a water wave generated in the ocean as a result of an earthquake
D. it is a type of landslide triggered in a mountainous region during an earthquake
E. it is an ancient Japanese method of studying earthquakes
15. As a result of seismic waves interacting with the liquid layer mentioned in the previous question, within
what region do seismographs show no record of the earthquake ever having occurred?
A. the S-wave shadow zone B. the P-wave shadow zone
C. the epicenter
D. the opposite side of the earth to the earthquake
16. The Earth has a magnetic field because:
A. magnetic minerals are common at temperatures above the Curie point
B. it has a magnetic iron-nickel core
C. the liquid outer core creates an electric current which induces a magnetic field
D. all planets have magnetic fields when they form
17- Below is a topographic map with points A, B, C, X and Y. Which is the elevation of point A on
the topographic map?
(a) 1550 feet
(b) 1600 feet
(c)1650 feet
(d) 1700 feet

Use the topographic map for the next three

questions.
18- What is the contour interval?
(a) 20 feet (c) 40 feet
(b) 60 feet (d) 80 feet

19- If lava erupted at point A, in which compass

direction would the lava NOT BE ABLE to flow?
A. South c. West
B. North d. East
20- Which compass direction of this map has the steepest slope?
a. South c. West
b. North d. East
21- Earthquake intensity is a measure of the
a. depth of the earthquake below the surface.
b. effects of an earthquake on communities
c. arrival time of an earthquake at a location
d. size of the earthquake wave.
22- This topographic map has points X, Y and Z. In which direction does Mill River generally flow?
a. Southwest
b. Southeast
c. Northwest
d. Northeast

23- The map below show the northern

section of the Arabian plate and
the African plate.
Which type of plate boundary
is located at the Jordan Fault
(a) Divergent (b) Convergent
(c) Subduction (d) Transform
24- According to this figure the faults
are
(a) 1- Reverse 2- Grabben 3- Horst
(b) 1- Normal 2- Grabben 3- Horst
(c) 1- Normal 2- Horst 3-
Grabben
(d) 1- Thrust 2- Horst 3-
Grabben

25- This figure represent ……… faults

(a) (1) strike slip (2) reverse (3) normal
(b) (1) Thrust (2) reverse (3) normal
(c) (1) Thrust (2) Normal (3) reverse
(d) (1) normal (2) reverse (3) thrust

26- This figure represent ………

(a) (1) Anticline fold (2) Syncline fold
(3) Angular unconformity
(b) (1) Anticline fold (2) Syncline fold
(3) Disconformity
(c) (1) Anticline fold (2) Syncline fold
(3) Nonconformity
(d) (1) Syncline fold (2) Anticline fold
(3) Angular unconformity
27- All the following are structure of sedimentary rocks except …….
(a) Folds (b) Faults (c) Volcanic eruptions (d) Joints
28- From the primary geological structure …………….
(a) Folds (b) Faults (c) Ripple marks and Mud cracks (d) Joints
29- The geological structures that formed due to climatic and environmental factors are
called … (a) Faults (b) Joints (c) Primary geological structures
(d) Secondary geological structures
30- The geological tectonic structures are …………….
(a) secondary structures (b) primary structures (c) unconformity (d) all answers are right
31- The fractures of rocks beds that takes place with displacement of parts of these beds
are ……………….
(a) Faults (b) Folds (c) Joints (d) Unconformity
32- The reverse fault takes place as a result of force ………………
(a) pressure and tension of beds at the same time (b) affected pressure
(c) external factors on the earth’s surface (d) tension force
(Thrust – Grabben – Horst – Reverse)
24- The Thrust fault is called ……………….. fault
(Creeping – Strike slip – Horst – Grabben)
25- The fault due to movement of rock mass horizontally in the same plane without
vertical displacement is called ……………….
(Thrust – Strike slip – Horst – Grabben)
25- The fault that’s a type of reverse faults and it’s fault plane is almost horizontal with
low angle of dip and the broken rocks almost creep horizontally for a certain distance on
the fault plane is called ……………….
(Thrust – Strike slip – Horst – Grabben)
26- The sedimentary rocks appear as layers due to variation of rocks from each other in
……………….
(color – fossils content – chemical structure – all answers are right)
27- Faults and folds are very clear in …………… rocks
(igneous – metamorphic – sedimentary – all answers)
28- The distance between every joint and other depend on all the following except
(tectonic force – rock type – rock color – rock thickness)
29- The are different types of unconformities ……………
(Non-conformity – Angular unconformity – Disconformity – all answer are right)
30- If you find in a sedimentary strata a group of inclined beds covered by horizontal
beds, so this structure is called ……………….
(disconformity – angular unconformity – nonconformity – anticline fold)
31- If you find igneous or metamorphic rocks are covered by a sedimentary rock, so this
structure is called ……………….
(disconformity – angular unconformity – nonconformity – anticline fold)
32- If you find in a sedimentary strata two groups of parallel sedimentary layers and you
can distinguish the surface of the unconformity according to fossils contents only , so
this structure is called ……………….
(disconformity – angular unconformity – nonconformity – anticline fold)
33- The unconformity surface is formed due to ……………..
(erosion and pressure – erosion and interruption of sedimentation - interruption of
sedimentation and tension – tension and pressure force)

34. During an earthquake, where would be the safest place to stop your car?

a. Location A b. Location B c. Location C d. Location D

35-
The diagrams show the Earth’s continental lithosphere over four distinct time periods. Use the
diagrams to answer the next two questions.

A B C D

36. Which diagram represents the OLDEST map of the Earth’s landforms?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

37. Which diagram of the Earth’s landform is MOST SIMILAR to the present day landform?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

Use these diagrams of the plate motion below to answer the following questions.
Continental crust is black and white dots.
Ocean crust is dark gray with no dots.

A
B C D

38. Which diagram above shows the plate motion that is the cause of rift valleys found at mid-
ocean ridges?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

39. Which diagram above best shows the plate motion at a convergent boundary which forms the
volcanoes in Washington state like Mt St Helens?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

40. Which diagram above best shows the plate motion of the Aqab Gulf fault in Egypt?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

41. Which is the name of the supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago?
a. Laurasia b. Gondwanaland c. Pangaea d. North America
42. Coarse grains in a sample of granite suggest that it formed…
a. from rapid cooling at the Earth’s surface.
b. from slow cooling below the Earth’s surface.
c. by deposition of sediment in a high-energy environment, such as a fast-flowing stream.
d. by deposition of sediment in a low-energy environment, such as a lagoon.
43. Identify the rock type that fossils can be located in.
a. Metamorphic b. Sedimentary c. Igneous d. any rock type

44. Igneous rocks are generally classified on the basis of

a. only texture.
b. only color.
c. both texture and color
d. neither texture nor color.

45. The block diagram below represents the present ocean floor. The white arrows show the
movement of the ocean floor and the black arrows show the movement of the asthenosphere. Some
rock sections found on the ocean floor exhibit a symmetric alternating pattern. What is the primary
cause of the pattern?

a. Changes in Earth’s global temperature

b. Changes in Earth’s magnetic field strength and direction
c. Changes in the asthenosphere’s temperature
d. Changes in the asthenosphere’s pressure
Dynamic Crust Review

1. The diagram below shows a cross section of sedimentary rock layers.

Which of the following statements about the deposition of the sediments best explains why these layers have
been folded?
(A) Sediments were deposited on an uneven curving seafloor.
(B) Sediments were deposited after widespread volcanic eruptions.
(C) Sediments were disturbed by crustal activity after deposition.
(D) Sediments were deposited between two diverging oceanic plates.

2. The diagram below represents a cross section of a portion of the Earth's crust.

Which past activity in this region is suggested by the shape of these sedimentary rock layers?
(A) crustal movements (C) horizontal sorting
(B) widespread volcanic activity (D) glacial deposition

3. The diagram below shows a portion of the Earth's crust.

The movements indicated by the arrows represent the process of

(A) faulting (B) metamorphism (C) folding (D) volcanism

4. Evidence of crustal subsidence (sinking) is provided by

(A) zones of igneous activity at mid-ocean ridges (C) shallow-water fossils beneath the deep ocean
(B) heat-flow measurements on coastal plains (D) marine fossiIs on mountaintops
Dynamic Crust Review
5. The diagram below represents a section of the Earth's bedrock. The arrows show the direction of forces that are
gradually compressing this section.

Which diagram represents the most probable result of these forces?

(A) (D)
(B) (C)

6. The block diagram below represents a geologic cross section of a mountain range.

What action most likely formed this mountain range?

(A) contact metamorphism (C) volcanic eruptions
(B) earthquake faulting (D) glacial erosion

7. Fossils of organisms that lived in shallow water can be found in horizontal sedimentary rock layers at great
ocean depths. This fact is generally interpreted by most Earth scientists as evidence that
(A) the cold water deep in the ocean kills shallow-water organisms
(B) sunlight once penetrated to the deepest parts of the ocean
(C) sections of the Earth's crust have changed their elevations relative to sea level
(D) organisms that live in deep water evolved from species that once lived in shallow water

8. Fossils of marine plants and animals are found in the bedrock of mountains many thousands of feet above sea
level. The most likely reason for this observation is that
(A) forces within the Earth caused uplift
(B) the ocean level has dropped several thousand feet
(C) the mountains were part of a mid-ocean ridge
(D) transported materials were deposited at high elevations

9. Which observed feature would provide the best evidence of crustal stability?
(A) folded, faulted, and tilted rock strata (C) marine fossils at elevations high above sea level
(B) changed benchmark elevations (D) horizontal sedimentary layers
Dynamic Crust Review
10. An observer discovers shallow-water marine fossils in rock strata at an elevation of 5,000 meters. What is the
best explanation for this observation?
(A) The level of the ocean was once 5,000 meters higher.
(B) Crustal uplift has occurred in this area.
(C) Violent earthquakes caused crustal subsidence.
(D) Marine organisms have evolved into land organisms.

11. The diagram below shows land features that have been disrupted by an earthquake.

Which type of crustal movement most likely caused the displacement of features in this area?
(A) down-warping of the crust (C) folding of surface rock
(B) vertical lifting of surface rock (D) movement along a transform fault

12. Base your answer to the following question on the map below, which shows crustal plate boundaries located
along the Pacific coastline of the United States. The arrows show the general directions in which some of the
plates appear to be moving slowly.

The best way to find the direction of crustal movement along the San Andreas fault is to
(A) observe erosion along the continental coastline
(B) measure gravitational strength on opposite sides of the fault
(C) study the Earth's present magnetic field
(D) match displaced rock types from opposite sides of the fault

13. A huge undersea earthquake off the Alaskan coastline could produce a
(A) cyclone (B) thunderstorm (C) hurricane (D) tsunami
Dynamic Crust Review
14. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams below of geologic cross sections of the upper
mantle and crust at four different Earth locations, A, B, C, and D. Movement of the crustal sections (plates) is
indicated by arrows, and the locations of frequent earthquakes are indicated by !. Diagrams are not drawn to
scale.

Which diagram represents plate movement associated with transform faults such as those causing California
earthquakes?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

15. Which event provides direct evidence of crustal movement?

(A) the erosion of the outside of a river curve
(B) the displacement of rock strata during an earthquake
(C) the deposition of sediments in the ocean
(D) the weathering of rock to form a residual soil

16. The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

(A) tidal motions in the hydrosphere (C) density differences in the troposphere
(B) solidification in the lithosphere (D) convection currents in the asthenosphere
Dynamic Crust Review
Base your answers to questions 17 and 18 on the map below, which shows the risk of damage from seismic activity in
the United States.

17. Which New York State location has the greatest risk of earthquake damage?
(A) Buffalo (B) Binghamton (C) Elmira (D) Plattsburgh

18. In the United States, most of the major damage expected from a future earthquake is predicted to occur near a
(A) mid-ocean ridge and a divergent plate boundary (C) divergent plate boundary, only
(B) convergent plate boundary, only (D) transform plate boundary and a hot spot

19. According to tectonic plate maps, New York State is presently located
(A) above a mantle hot spot (C) near the center of a large plate
(B) above a mid-ocean ridge (D) at a convergent plate boundary

20. Which two tectonic plates are separated by a mid-ocean ridge?

(A) Indian-Australian and Eurasian (C) North American and Eurasian
(B) Indian-Australian and Pacific (D) North American and South American

21. In which Earth layer are most convection currents that cause seafloor spreading thought to be located?
(A) outer core (B) inner core (C) crust (D) asthenosphere

22. The two most abundant elements by mass in Earth’s crust are oxygen and
(A) silicon (B) nitrogen (C) hydrogen (D) potassium
Dynamic Crust Review
23. Arrows in the block diagram below show the relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.

Between which two tectonic plates does this type of plate boundary exist?
(A) Nazca Plate and South American Plate (C) North American Plate and Eurasian Plate
(B) Eurasian Plate and Indian-Australian Plate (D) Pacific Plate and North American Plate
Dynamic Crust Review
Base your answers to questions 24 and 25 on the information, map, and cross section below.

The map represents a portion of Earth's surface in the Pacific Ocean. The positions of islands, earthquake
epicenters, active volcanoes, and the Tonga Trench are shown. Lines of latitude and longitude have been
included.
The cross section shows earthquakes that occurred beneath line XY on the map. Depth beneath Earths
surface is indicated by the scale along the left side of the cross section, as are the range of depths for shallow,
intermediate, and deep earthquakes. Distance from the trench is indicated by the scale along the bottom of the
cross section.

24. The greatest number of earthquakes shown in the cross section occurred
(A) at sea level (C) at a depth between 100 and 300 km
(B) between sea level and a depth of 100 km (D) at a depth between 300 and 600 km

25. The Tonga Trench is located at the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the
(A) Philippine Plate (C) Nazca Plate
(B) Antarctic Plate (D) Indian-Australian Plate

26. Convection currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the
(A) Canary Islands Hot Spot (C) Mariana Trench
(B) Peru-Chile Trench (D) Iceland Hot Spot

27. Based on the theory of plate tectonics, it is inferred that over the past 250 million years North America has
moved toward the
(A) southwest (B) northwest (C) southeast (D) northeast

28. Compared to continental crust, oceanic crust is

(A) less dense, more mafic, and thinner (C) less dense, more felsic, and thicker
(B) more dense, more felsic, and thicker (D) more dense, more mafic, and thinner
Dynamic Crust Review
29. The diagram below shows the interaction of two tectonic plates.

The type of plate boundary represented in the diagram most likely exists between the
(A) Antarctic Plate and the African Plate (C) South American Plate and the African Plate
(B) South American Plate and the Nazca Plate (D) Antarctic Plate and the Indian-Australian Plate

30. The diagrams below show four major types of fault motion occurring in Earth’s crust. Which type of fault
motion best matches the general pattern of crustal movement at California’s San Andreas fault?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)
Dynamic Crust Review
31. The diagram below shows some features of Earth’s crust and upper mantle.

Which model most accurately shows the movements (arrows) associated with the surface features shown in the
diagram?

(A) (C)

(D)
(B)

32. Which evidence causes most scientists to believe that seafloor spreading occurs at the mid-Atlantic Ridge?
(A) Large sedimentary folds exist in the mantle near the ridge.
(B) Oceanic crust on both sides of the ridge shows matching patterns of reversed and normal magnetic polarity.
(C) Oceanic crust is oldest at the ridge.
(D) Oceanic crust on both sides of the ridge is less dense than continental crust.

33. Beneath which surface location is Earth's crust the thinnest?

(A) Old Forge, New York (C) San Andreas Fault
(B) East Pacific Ridge (D) the center of South America
Dynamic Crust Review
34. On the map below, line AB is drawn across several of Earth’s tectonic plates in the South Atlantic Ocean.

Which cross section best represents the plate boundaries and mantle movement beneath line AB?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)
Dynamic Crust Review
Base your answers to questions 35 and 36 on the diagram below, which shows details of a section of a rift valley in
the center of a mid-ocean ridge. The vertical lines in the diagram represent faults and fractures within the ocean floor
bedrock.

35. The dark-colored lava flows shown in the diagram were pushed from the magma chamber onto the surface of the
ocean floor. Which characteristics are present in the solid rock that formed when the lava flows cooled?
(A) generally large grain size and mafic composition (C) generally large grain size and felsic composition
(B) generally small grain size and felsic composition (D) generally small grain size and mafic composition

36. What will be the primary result of the continuation of the geologic processes indicated at this location?
(A) Continental crust will be forced downward. (C) New oceanic crust will form.
(B) Earths circumference will increase. (D) Earths magnetic field will reverse direction.

37. Which inference is supported by a study of the Earth's magnetic rock record?
(A) The Earth's magnetic poles appear to have changed location over time.
(B) The Earth's magnetic field is 50 times stronger now than in the past.
(C) The Earth's magnetic poles are usually located at 0 latitude.
(D) The Earth's magnetic field is only 2 million years old.

38. Compared to Earth's oceanic crust, Earth's continental crust is

(A) thinner and composed of basalt (C) thinner and composed of granite
(B) thicker and composed of granite (D) thicker and composed of basalt
Dynamic Crust Review
39. The diagram below shows a tectonic plate boundary.

Which mantle hot spot is at a plate boundary like the one shown in this diagram?
(A) Hawaii Hot Spot (B) Galapagos Hot Spot (C) Yellowstone Hot Spot (D) Canary Hot Spot

40. Which diagram correctly shows how mantle convection currents are most likely moving beneath colliding
lithospheric plates?

(B) (C) (D)

(A)

41. Which evidence supports the theory of ocean floor spreading?

(A) The pattern of magnetic orientation of rocks is similar on both sides of the mid-ocean ridge.
(B) The density of oceanic crust is greater than the density of continental crust.
(C) The rocks of the ocean floor and the continents have similar origins.
(D) In the ocean floor, rocks near the mid-ocean ridge are cooler than rocks near the continents.

42. The study of how seismic waves change as they travel through Earth has revealed that
(A) Earth’s outer core is liquid because S-waves are not transmitted through this layer
(B) P-waves travel more slowly than S-waves through Earth’s crust
(C) seismic waves travel more slowly through the mantle because it is very dense
(D) Earth’s outer core is solid because P-waves are not transmitted through this layer

43. Which statement most accurately compares Earth’s crust and Earth’s mantle?
(A) The crust is thicker and more dense than the mantle.
(B) The crust is thinner and less dense than the mantle.
(C) The crust is thicker and less dense than the mantle.
(D) The crust is thinner and more dense than the mantle.
Dynamic Crust Review
44. Which cross section below best represents the crustal plate motion that is the primary cause of the volcanoes and
deep rift valleys found at mid-ocean ridges?

(B) (C) (D)

(A)

45. The map below shows the present-day locations of South America and Africa. Remains of Mesosaurus, an
extinct freshwater reptile, have been found in similarly aged bedrock formed from lake sediments at locations X
and Y.

Which statement represents the most logical conclusion to draw from this evidence?
(A) Mesosaurus came into existence on several widely separated continents at different times.
(B) The present climates at locations X and Y are similar.
(C) Mesosaurus migrated across the ocean from location X to location Y.
(D) The continents of South America and Africa were joined when Mesosaurus lived.

46. Which difference between gabbro bedrock and granite bedrock causes seismic waves to travel faster in gabbro
than in granite?
(A) Gabbro has greater permeability than granite.
(B) Gabbro has a darker color than granite.
(C) Gabbro is made of smaller mineral grains than granite.
(D) Gabbro is more dense than granite.
Dynamic Crust Review
47. The diagram below represents the pattern of normal and reversed magnetic polarity and the relative age of the
igneous bedrock composing the ocean floor on the east side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The magnetic polarity of
the bedrock on the west side of the ridge has been deliberately left blank.

Which diagram best shows the magnetic pattern and relative age of the igneous bedrock on the west side of the
ridge?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

48. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which shows models of two types of
earthquake waves.

Model A best represents the motion of earthquake waves called

(A) S-waves (shear waves) that travel slower than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B
(B) S-waves (shear waves) that travel faster than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B
(C) P-waves (compressional waves) that travel faster than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
(D) P-waves (compressional waves) that travel slower than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
Dynamic Crust Review
49. Base your answer to the following question on the cross-sectional view of Earth below, which shows seismic
waves traveling from the focus of an earthquake. Points A and B are locations on Earth’s surface.

Which statement best explains why only one type of seismic wave was recorded at location B?
(A) S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core.
(B) P-waves cannot travel through the solid inner core.
(C) S-waves cannot travel through the liquid inner core.
(D) P-waves cannot travel through the solid outer core.

50. When a continental crustal plate collides with an oceanic crustal plate, the continental crust is forced to move
over the oceanic crust. What is the primary reason that the continental crust stays on top of the oceanic crust?
(A) Continental crust contains more mafic minerals. (C) Continental crust is less dense.
(B) Continental crust melts at higher temperatures. (D) Continental crust deforms less easily.

51. The observed difference in density between continental crust and oceanic crust is most likely due to differences
in their
(A) rate of cooling (B) thickness (C) porosity (D) composition

52. What is Earth’s inferred interior pressure, in millions of atmospheres, at a depth of 3500 kilometers?
(A) 1.9 (B) 2.8 (C) 5500 (D) 6500

53. What is the origin of fine-grained igneous rock?

(A) silt that settled quickly in ocean water (C) lava that cooled slowly on Earth’s surface
(B) lava that cooled quickly on Earth’s surface (D) silt that settled slowly in ocean water

54. What is the inferred temperature at the boundary between Earth’s stiffer mantle and outer core?
(A) 2,500°C (B) 4,500°C (C) 5,000°C (D) 6,200°C
Dynamic Crust Review
55. Base your answer to the following question on the map below which shows the locations of deep-sea core
drilling sites numbered 1 through 4. The approximate location of the East Pacific Ridge is shown by a dashed
line. Point A is located on the East Pacific Ridge.

Compared to the thickness and density of the continental crust of South America, the oceanic crust of the Pacific
floor is
(A) thicker and less dense (C) thicker and more dense
(B) thinner and more dense (D) thinner and less dense

56. Base your answer to the following question on the cross section below, which shows a portion of Earth’s crust
and upper mantle near a mid-ocean ridge.

If crust 2 represents basalt with normal magnetic polarity, what does crust 3 most likely represent?
(A) sedimentary rock with normal magnetic polarity (C) igneous rock with normal magnetic polarity
(B) sedimentary rock with reversed magnetic polarity (D) igneous rock with reversed magnetic polarity

57. Which conditions normally can be found in Earths asthenosphere, producing a partial melting of ultramafic rock?
(A) temperature = l,000°C; pressure = 10 million atmospheres
(B) temperature = 2,000°C; pressure = 0.1 million atmospheres
(C) temperature = 3,500°C; pressure = 0.5 million atmospheres
(D) temperature = 6,000°C; pressure = 4 million atmospheres
Dynamic Crust Review
58. Base your answer to the following question on the map below. The map shows the continents of Africa and
South America, the ocean between them, and the ocean ridge and transform faults. Locations A and D are on the
continents. Locations B and C are on the ocean floor.

Which table best shows the relative densities of the crustal bedrock at locations A, B, C, and D?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)

59. In which layer of Earth’s interior is the pressure inferred to be 1.0 million atmospheres?
(A) outer core (B) inner core (C) rigid mantle (D) stiffer mantle

60. Most inferences about the characteristics of Earth’s mantle and core are based on
(A) well drillings from Earth’s mantle and core
(B) the behavior of seismic waves in Earth’s interior
(C) chemical changes in exposed and weathered metamorphic rocks
(D) comparisons between Moon rocks and Earth rocks
Dynamic Crust Review
61. Which graph best shows the inferred density of Earth’s interior as depth increases from the upper mantle to the
lower mantle?

(A) (C)

(B)
(D)

62. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which shows a portion of Earth’s interior.
Point A is a location on the interface between layers.

The temperature of rock at location A is approximately

(A) 600°C (B) 1,000°C (C) 2,600°C (D) 3,000°C
Dynamic Crust Review
63. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which shows a cutaway view of Earth in
which the interior layers are visible. The paths of earthquake waves generated at point X are shown. A, B, C, and
D are locations of seismic stations on Earth's surface, and point E is located in Earth's interior.

The actual rock temperature at point E is inferred to be approximately

(A) 1,500ºC (B) 2,900ºC (C) 5,000ºC (D) 6,200ºC

64. The pressure at the interface between the mantle and the outer core of Earth is inferred to be approximately
(A) 1.0 million atomspheres (C) 3.0 million atmospheres
(B) 1.4 million atmospheres (D) 3.4 million atmospheres

65. Earth’s outer core and inner core are both inferred to be
(A) solid (C) composed of a high percentage of iron
(B) liquid (D) under the same pressure

66. Andrija Mohorovicic discovered the interface between the crust and the mantle that is now named for him. His
discovery of the “Moho” was based on analysis of
(A) seismic waves (B) continental coastlines (C) landscape boundaries (D) erosional surfaces

67. Geologists have used information about the composition of meteorites to make inferences about Earth’s
(A) atmospheric structure (C) asthenosphere location
(B) core properties (D) continental-crust thickness

68. The rock between 2,900 kilometers and 5,200 kilometers below the Earth's surface is inferred to be
(A) an iron-rich liquid (B) a silicate-rich solid (C) a silicate-rich liquid (D) an iron-rich solid
Dynamic Crust Review
69. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below which represents Earth's interior zones.

The composition of Earth's core is thought to be the same as the composition of many
(A) volcanic ashes (B) basalts (C) meteorites (D) granites

Base your answers to questions 70 and 71 on the block diagram below. The diagram shows the tectonic plate
boundary between Africa and North America 300 million years ago, as these two continents united into a single
landmass. The arrows at letters A, B, C, and D represent relative crustal movements. Letter X shows the eruption of a
volcano at that time.

70. Identify the type of tectonic motion represented by the arrows shown at A, B, and C.

71. Identify the type of tectonic plate motion represented by the arrow shown at D.
Dynamic Crust Review
Base your answers to questions 72 through 75 on the map and block diagram below. The map shows the location of
North Island in New Zealand. The block diagram shows a portion of North Island. The Hikurangi Trench is shown
forming at the edge of the Pacific Plate. Point X is at the boundary between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere.

72. Describe one action that people on North Island should take if a tsunami warning is issued.

73. Describe the type of tectonic plate motion that formed the Hikurangi Trench.

74. On what tectonic plate are both North Island and White Island located?

75. State the approximate temperature at point X.

______________ ºC
Dynamic Crust Review
Answer Key

1. C 26. D 51. D 73. Examples: —

subduction —
2. A 27. B 52. A convergence — plate
collision
3. A 28. D 53. B
74. Indian-Australian Plate.
4. C 29. B 54. C
75. Any value from 500°C
5. B 30. D 55. B to 1200°C.

6. B 31. C 56. D

7. C 32. B 57. B

8. A 33. B 58. D

9. D 34. B 59. D

10. B 35. D 60. B

11. D 36. C 61. B

12. D 37. A 62. C

13. D 38. B 63. C

14. D 39. B 64. B

15. B 40. B 65. C

16. D 41. A 66. A

17. D 42. A 67. B

18. D 43. B 68. A

19. C 44. B 69. C

20. C 45. D 70. Examples: –transform

movement –faulting –The
21. D 46. D plates slide past each
other.
22. A 47. A
71. Examples: –subduction
23. D 48. C –convergence

24. D 49. A 72. Examples: — move to

higher ground — evacuate
25. D 50. C — move inland
Topographic Maps Quiz 3/13/12 12:23 PM

Topographic Maps Quiz

1. (IIIB 3l) If a topographic map has a contour interval of 10 m and the map has five contour lines
with the lowest elevation shown as 15 m, the elevation of the highest line is _____

A. 10 m
B. 5 m
C. 15 m
D. 55 m

2.(IIIB 3l) Areas of equal elevation are connected by _____ lines on a topographic map.

A. meridian
B. longitude
C. contour
D. latitude

3. Use the topographic map below to answer the following two questions:

(IIIB3l) What is the contour interval of the map?

A. 50 meters
B. 30 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters

4. (IIIB3l) Which two points have the same elevation?

A. points C and D
B. points E and F
C. points A and B
D. points G and H

[Link] Page 1 of 3
Topographic Maps Quiz 3/13/12 12:23 PM

5. (IIIB 3l) If one cm on a map represents 80,000 cm on Earth's surface, the scale of the topographic
map is expressed as _____.

A. 80,000:80,000
B. 1:40,000
C. 1:160,000
D. 1:80,000

6. (IIIB3l) Rachel hiked directly from point Y to point Z. Using the map on the right, tell which
phrase below describes her hike best?

A. Rachel hiked uphill for 10 and downhill for 20 meters.

B. Rachel hiked uphill 20 meters and downhill 10 meters.
C. Rachel hiked downhill 30 meters.
D. Rachel hiked uphill 30 meters.

7. IIIB3l) The river in the picture on the right flows ___.

A. west.
B. north.
C. east.
D. south.

8. (IIIB3l) If you were going to climb the mountain shown in the diagram on the right, from which
direction would you have the steepest climb?

[Link] Page 2 of 3
Topographic Maps Quiz 3/13/12 12:23 PM

A. South
B. North
C. West
D. East

9. (IIIB3l) What is the contour interval of this map?

A. 5 ft
B. 20 ft
C. 25 ft
D. 10 ft

[Link] Page 3 of 3
Trial exam no.3 Inventory exam
L.O. 2.05
(1) Why is building houses on hills in landslide danger zones not a good idea?
(a) The houses’ added weight can cause landslides.
(b) The houses’ noise can cause landslides
(c) The animals like dog’s can dig holes in the ground that can cause
landslides.
(d) All of the above.
(2) What type of mass movement would be caused by ice melting on a
volcano after an eruption ?
(a) Creeps (b) Slumps (c) Lahars (d) Muds flow
(3) Which type of mass movement moves the slowest ?
(a) Creeps (b) Slumps (c) Rocks fall (d) Muds flow
(4) Rock tumbling down a steep slope would be an example of ….
(a) Creeps (b) Slumps (c) Rocks fall (d) Muds flow
(5) What is mass movement ?
(a) when rain causes the land to become very muddy and flow across the
land.
(b) when rivers carry pieces of dirt and sediment
(c) when gravity causes material to move uphill.
(d) when gravity causes material to move downhill.
(6) A fast moving mix of water, soil and rocks would be ….
(a) Creeps (b) Slumps (c) Rocks fall (d) Muds flow
(7) What causes all mass movement ?
(a) Rain (b) Snow (c) Gravity (d) Deforestation
(8) What’s the angle of repose ?
(a) The angle at which material flows up hill
(b) The steepest slope at which material no longer moves downhill
(c) The angle of a volcano’s slope that can help trigger an eruption.
(d) The angle at which material falls down
(9) Bug chunks of land falling down a curved slope all at once would be an
example of ……………….
(a) Creeps (b) Slumps (c) Rocks fall (d) Muds flow
L.O. 2.06
Base your answers to questions 1 through 4 on the diagram below, which
represents the landscape features associated with a meandering river. Letters
W, X, Y, Z represent locations on the floodplain.

1- The choices below represent stages in the formation of a meandering river.

Which sequence best represents the usual changes over time ?

2- Which change would most likely increase the velocity of the river ?
(a) A decrease in the slope of the river.
(b) A decrease in the temperature of the river.
(c) An increase in the river’s discharge
(d) An increase in the width of the river.
3- During transport by this river, a sediment particle will most likely become
(a) more dense (b) more rounded (c) heavier (d) larger
4- At which location is erosion greatest ?
(a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

5- The map at right side shows a

meandering river. A – A` is the
location of a cross section. The
arrows show the direction of river
flow.
Which cross section best represents
the shape of the river bottom at A-A`

C) D)
6- What change will a pebble usually undergo when it is transported a great
distance by streams ?
(a) it will become jagged and its mass will decrease.
(b) it will become jagged and its volume will increase
(c) it will become rounded and its mass will increase
(d) it will become rounded and its volume will decrease
7- The right diagram shows a section of
a meander in a stream. The arrows
show the direction of stream flow.
The stream bank on the outside of this
meander is steeper than stream bank
on the inside of this meander because
the water on the outside of this
meander is moving

(a) Slower, causing deposition (b) Faster, causing deposition

(c) Slower, causing erosion (d) Faster, causing erosion
Base your answers to questions 8 through 10 on the information and diagrams
below : A mixture of colloids, clay, silt , sand, pebbles and cobbles is put into
stream I at point (A). The water velocity at point (A) is 400 centimeters per second.
A similar mixture of particles is put into stream II at point (A) . The water velocity in
Stream II at point (A) is 80 centimeters per second.

8- Which statement best describes what happens when the particles are placed in
the streams ?
(a) Stream (I) will move all particles that are added at point (A)
(b) Stream (II) will move all particles that are added a point (A)
(c) Stream (I) can not move sand.
(d) Stream (II) can not move sand.
9- Which statement is the most accurate description of conditions in both streams
?
(a) The greatest deposition occurs at point (B).
(b) Particles are carried in suspension and by bouncing along the bottom.
(c) The particles will have a greater velocity than the water in the stream.
(d) The velocity of the stream is the same at point (B) as at point (C)
10- If a sudden rainstorm occurs at both streams above point (A), the erosion rate
will ………………….
(a) increase for stream (I), but not for stream (II)
(b) Increase for stream (II), but not for stream (I)
(c) Increase for both streams.
(d) Not change for either stream
11- The diagram below shows the cross section of a stream channel and the
height of the stream surface on various dates of the year.
The stream’s velocity from June 19 to July 20 at this section of the stream most likely
(a) Decreased only
(b) Decreased then increased
(c) Increased only
(d) Remained constant
12- The map below shows a meandering stream as it enter a lake. The arrow
shows the direction of stream flow. Point (A) through (D) represent locations
on the surface of the stream.
The greatest stream velocities are
found closest to points …….
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) D and A

13- The model shown below illustrates stream erosion between locations (A)
and (B) in the stream.
Placing a second block under location (A) will cause the stream’s velocity to
(a) Decrease and the rate of erosion decrease
(b) Decrease and the rate of erosion increase
(c) Increase and the rate of erosion decrease
(d) Increase and the rate of erosion increase

L.O 2.07 Ch4Sec9

1- Process of scrapping away something is known as
(a) Deflation (b) suspension (c) saltation (d) abrasion
2- Condition of being suspended is known as …..
(a) saltation
(b)abrasion
(c) suspension
(d)deflation
3- A type of weathering when lose rock falls out and leave surface uneven typically
known as
(a) rock disintegration
(b)mountain disintegration
(c) block disintegration
(d)granular disintegration
4- Imperceptible or noticeable movement downhill …….
(a) Creep
(b)Landslide
(c) Mudflow
(d)Erosion

5- Landslip or Mudslide is also known as

(a) land slide
(b)sand slide
(c) water slide
(d)snow slide
6- Deposit of similar size, shape and density ………
(a) sorted sediments (b) delta (c) suspension (d) solution
7- Dissolved minerals in water …………..
(a) solution (b) suspension (c) abrasion (d) sorted sediments

L.O 2.08 Ch4 Sec 7

(1) The distribution of size of sediments grains from gravel, sand, silt and clay is called
………..
(a) mineralogical composition (b) texture (c) hardness (d) luster
(2) Which of the following controlling the properties of soil ?
(a) mineralogical composition (b) texture (c) hardness (d) luster
(3) The soil that contains equal parts of sand, silt and clay is called …….
(a) solid soil (b) loam soil (c) fragmented soil (d) soft soil
(4) Soil is made up of four main ingredients. Choose the correct list of ingredients.
A: Tiny pieces of rock, humus, air and sand
B: Humus, or dead plant material, clay, water, and salts
C: Tiny pieces of rock, air, water, and humus or dead plant material
D: Air, water, tiny pieces of rock, and manure
(5) This type of soil dries out quickly after a rainstorm.
(a) gravel (b) sand (c) silt (d) clay
(6) The fertile, permeable soil composed of roughly equal
portions of clay, silt , sand and organic matter

(a) sandy soil (b) mud soil (c) loam soil (d) volcanic soil
(7) This type of soil can become as hard as stone when it dries out.
(a) clay (b) sand (c) silt (d) loam
(8) What is a soil horizon?
a) A factor influencing how soil is formed
b) A layer of soil
c) An organism found within the soil
(d) A technique used to map soils
(9) Which three layers form the soil profile?
a) Air. water and soil
b) Minerals, organic matter and living organisms
c) Clay, silt and sand
d) The topsoil, subsoil and parent material
8) Which of the following is NOT a threat commonly faced by soils?
(a) Soil erosion
b) Percolation
c) Deforestation
d) Climate change
(9) What effect can soil have on health if eaten or inhaled?
a) Nothing - it is perfectly safe
b) It can be good for your health
c) It can have serious health implications such as cancer
(d) all answers are right
(10) What is soil erosion?
a) It is the process by which soil is formed
b) A process that involves the removal and transport of soil by wind and water
c) A natural method of filtering harmful pollutants
d) A process often referred to as the 'greenhouse' effect
‫وزارة التربية والتعليم‬
‫مكتب تنمية مواد العلوم‬
Earth Science Released Test of Concepts (TOC) Exam
2018 / 2019
1. When huge bodies of ice floating in the ocean and melt completely, what
happens to the level of the ocean (neglect thermal expansion or contraction
of sea water)?
A. The level of the ocean increases.
B. The level of the ocean decreases.
C. The level of the ocean remains the same.
D. You cannot say what happens unless you know the density of the sea water
and the ice.
2. Which feature is associated with a continental-continental plate boundary?
A. a subduction zone
B. a mountain range
C. a deep-sea trench
D. a volcano
3. The five factors that determine how soils develop are:
A. parent material, climate, vegetation, landscape, and time
B. animals, humus, weather, leaching, and volcanoes
C. sun, animals, humus, leaching, and earthquakes
D. metamorphism, cementation, evaporation, condensation, porosity
4. Halite has three cleavage directions at 90º to each other.
Which model of the following best represents the shape of a broken sample
of halite?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. Which rock of the following cooled the slowest?
A. glassy
B. fine-grained
C. porphyritic
D. coarse-grained
6. Investigate the following figure,
and answer the question

Write the Geologic history of the area

A. Deposition of the lower series – faulting –– folding - deposition of the upper
series.
B. Deposition of the lower series – faulting – folding - uplift and formation of
unconformity.
C. Deposition of the lower series – faulting - uplift and formation of
unconformity – folding – deposition of the upper series.
D. Deposition of the lower series – folding - uplift and formation of
unconformity - deposition of the upper series – faulting.
7. ……. is considered by most scientists as an evidence of extraterrestrial
impacts to the Earth at K-T boundary.
A. Mass extinction of most organisms
B. Shower of meteorites impacts rich of iridium.
C. Occurrence of peridotite
D. First appearance of mammals
8. Two bodies made up of same material with different dimensions have……
A. same resistances and resistivities
B. same resistivities but different resistances
C. same resistances but different resistivities
D. different resistances and resistivities
9. How is surface area related to chemical weathering?
A. Increased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with plants and
animals.
B. Increased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with water and
oxygen
C. Decreased surface area allows for more ice wedging.
D. Decreased surface area allows for more interactions of rocks with water and
oxygen.
10. What is the difference in
elevation between point X and
point Z ?

A. 90 meters
B. 140 meters
C. 170 meters
D. 190 meters
11. Why is the equator hotter than the poles?
A. The shape of the earth means that rays of the sun must travel farther to reach
the poles and thus deliver less energy.
B. The shape of the earth means that equal portions of the sun’s energy are
spread over more land at the poles and thus deliver less concentrated energy.
C. High levels of carbon dioxide from deforestation cause heating along the
equator.
D. The rays of the sun travel more indirect paths to reach the poles, thus
delivering less energy.
12. Four rock outcrops, labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4, found within the same plateau, are
represented below. Index fossils found in some of the rock layers are shown.
The rock layers have not been
overturned.
Which rock layer is the
youngest?
A. 3 in outcrop 1
B. A in outcrop 2
C. B in outcrop 3
D. C in outcrop 4
13. What type of lava tends to trap water vapor and other gases and can
become explosive?
A. lava rich in iron or magnesium.
B. lava that is silica-rich
C. pyroclastic lava.
D. basaltic lava.
14. Scientists use the term faulting to refer to the formation of faults.
Depending on the situation, faulting can act as a constructive or a
destructive force. Which of the following best shows how faulting can act as
a constructive force?
A. Rock moves sideways along a fault with no change in elevation.
B. Rock moves upward along faults to form a mountain range.
C. Faulting produces an earthquake that causes a local bridge to collapse.
D. Rocks are worn down as they grind past each other along a fault.
15. Actinium 226 has a half – life of 29 hours. If 100 mg of Actinium -226
disintegrates over a period of 58 hours. How many mg of actinium-226 will
remain?
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25
16. A kind of seismic wave creates on Up –and – Down rolling motion of the
ground like a wave on a water surface responsible by :
A. Primary waves.
B. Secondary waves.
C. Surface waves.
D. Body waves.

17. Use the sketch map below which

shows the out crops of geological
structures to answer this question :
The youngest bed in the ………………
A. center of upper surface of the map
B. lower surface of the beds of the map.
C. the left side of the map
D. the right side of the map.
18. Use the figure below to answer the following question:

If granite is an intrusive igneous rock that forms INSIDE the earth, how
come we see such huge granitic walls when we drive up to Upper Egypt and
Eastern Desert?
A. Granite deep inside the earth was exposed on the surface during the uplifting
processes that happened in the formation of Red Sea Mountains.
B. The granite walls are remnants of ancient volcanoes;
C. Not all granite forms inside the earth.
D. The granite was deposited on previous layers of sedimentary rocks, thus
forming higher ground.
19. In electromagnetic (EM) sounding, the depth of investigation ___________
with increasing frequency.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. varies randomly
20. Quartz, calcite and halite are minerals that a student find during a field
trip. Can you help him to differentiate between them by choosing the most
proper method?
A. Adding drops of dilute HCl on them.
B. Hammering them very gently.
C. Scratching with rough surface.
D. Scratching with a piece of glass.
21. Metamorphic rocks may generally be distinguished from igneous rocks
because:
A. the grains of igneous rock are interlocking, whereas they are not interlocking
in a metamorphic rock.
B. metamorphic rocks are foliated, whereas igneous rocks are not.
C. their mineral assemblages are different.
D. they are generally finer grained.
22. Use the topographic map for the
next question.
If lava erupted at point A, in which
compass direction would the lava
NOT BE ABLE to flow?
A. South
B. West
C. North
D. East
23. Use these diagrams of the plate motion below to answer the following
questions.
Continental crust is black and white dots.
Ocean crust is dark gray with no dots.
Which diagram shows the plate motion that is the cause of mid oceanic
ridge?
A. ( A )
B. ( B )
C. ( C )
D. ( D )

24. The best way to explore for oil is ……. Because ……

A. gravitational method – it is cheap.
B. magnetic method – it measures magnetic characters of subsurface rock
succession and their anomalies.
C. GPS – easy to handle
D. seismic method – it gives an overall picture to the subsurface succession and
structures.
25. The world faces an energy crisis because …………
A. world demand for energy will decrease.
B. world oil production will peak and begin to rise.
C. world oil production will increase gradually.
D. shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the economic and
political order.
26. The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation produced with a specific
wave length to illuminate a target on the terrain for studying its scattered
radiance, is called:
A. passive remote sensing
B. active remote sensing
C. neutral remote sensing
D. none of these
27. A metamorphic rock is a result of a transformation of a pre-existing rock
(protolith or parent rock). The original rock is subjected to very high heat
and pressure, which cause obvious physical and/or chemical changes.

Using the previous table, which of the following correctly orders the rocks
from the lowest metamorphic grade to the highest?
A. slate, schist, gneiss
B. gneiss, schist, slate
C. schist, slate, gneiss
D. gneiss, slate, schist
28. Which phrase below would best describe the plate movements that cause an
earthquake?
A. friction between two sliding plates, releasing energy.
B. smooth sliding between two plates, a gradual movement.
C. smooth pulling apart of two plates, a gradual movement.
D. friction being released as two plates move apart.
29. Investigate the following figure of a part of the Earth’ crust and answer
the questions

Location 3 and Location 4 are subjected to ………… respectively.

A. Shear and tensile forces.
B. Tensile and Compressional forces.
C. Compressional and Shear forces.
D. Compressional and tensile forces.
30. Use the figure above to answer the following question:
Predict the configuration of the graphical area in the future.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
31. Use the graph below to answer the following question :
The graph represents cross section
of an oil trap. X, Y, and Z represent
three distinct fluid layers within the
permeable reservoir rock.
Layer Z is most likely to be
reservoir rock containing …… in
the pore space.
A. syncrude
B. oil
C. water
D. natural gas
32. In GPS, receivers used are ;
A. electronic clocks
B. atomic clocks
C. quartz clocks
D. mechanical clocks
33. Study the topographic contour map and answer the following question:

If this area stroke by torrent, what is the best place for water harvesting?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
34. For remote sensing studies, the refractive index of the ocean water:
A. increases with salinity
B. increases with temperature
C. decreases with salinity
D. decreases with temperature
35. How does an absolute date differ from a relative date?
A. Relative dates are typically younger.
B. Relative dates have number values.
C. Absolute dates are expressed as “younger” or “older” than something.
D. Absolute dates are expressed in years before present.
36. Elements are good for finding the ages of very old rocks that which have ….
A. a very short half-life with very slow rates of decay
B. a very short half-life with very fast rates of decay
C. a very long half-life with very slow rates of decay
D. a very long half-life with very fast rates of decay
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Quiz

1- The study of Earth’s solid material and structures, and the processes that create them.

a) Oceanography

b) Meteorology

c) Geology

d) Astronomy

2- The study of everything in 70% of Earth’s surface.

a) Astronomy

b) Meteorology

c) Geology

d) Oceanography

3- Weather predictions have become much more accurate in recent years due to radar and
satellites.

a) True

b) False

4- The study of the effects of people on the environment.

a) Meteorology

b) Environmental science

c) Geology

d) Astronomy

5- Included in the science of __________ is how weather affects the ocean; included in the
science of __________ is how the ocean affects climate.

a) Climatology; Meteorology

b) Meteorology; Meteorology

c) Climatology; Climatology

d) Meteorology; Climatology
6- If you were to study the rocks that are found at the bottom of the ocean basins, you would be
studying this.

a) Geological Oceanography

b) Oceanography

c) Meteorology

d) Geology

7- _________________ are scientists that study space and everything in it.

8- What instruments or devices do astronomers use to study space?

a) Telescopes

b) Spacecraft

c) Satellites

d) All of the above

9- Earth Science is known as a combined science because it applies principles from chemistry,
physics and biology to the study of Earth.

a) True

b) False

10- Geologists search for natural resources, such as minerals and fuels.

a) True

b) False

11- A mineral is a ________ material that forms by a natural process.

12- A mineral …
a) can be made of an element.
b) is always made of more than one compound.
c) can be a liquid.
d) none of the above
13- Which of the following properties are used to describe minerals?
a) color
b) hardness
c) crystal structure
d) all of the above
14- The atoms of a crystal are always arranged in a __________ __________ pattern.
15- Water is not a mineral, but ice is a mineral.
a) true
b) false
16- All minerals have unique chemical compositions.
a) true
b) false
17- Which of the following are minerals?
a) salt
b) obsidian
c) glass
d) none of the above
18- What is the chemical composition of a diamond?
a) C
b) C7H16
c) Fe2O3
d) Ag(SO4)
19- The crystalline structures of two specimens of the same mineral are ___________.
20- Minerals can be formed…
a) By the cooling of a liquid material.
b) By material precipitating out of water.
c) By molecules being exposed to high temperatures and pressures.
d) all of the above

21- Minerals must possess which of the following qualities:

e) Must be a solid

f) Naturally occurring

g) Inorganic

h) All of the above

22- Which of these characteristics is not usually very useful for identifying minerals?

a) Color

b) Solid

c) Shininess

d) Hardness

23- A crystal is a solid in which atoms are arranged in a regular, repeating pattern.

a) True

b) False

24- Organic minerals are made by a natural process.

a) True

b) False
25- Four substances are described correctly, but only one is a mineral. Which one is the mineral?

a) Steel because people make it by mixing the metal minerals like iron.

b) Volcanic glass because it is a naturally occurring random assemblage of molecules.

c) Table salt because it has a definite crystal structure of sodium and chlorine ions.

d) A crystallized fossil bone because it is made of minerals.

26- Fracture describes the way a mineral breaks along planes of weakness.

a) True

b) False

27 - Which of these minerals is not a mineral, but is a rock, and why?

a) Coal is not a mineral because it is organic, but it is a rock.

b) Diamond is not a mineral because it is just carbon, but it is a gemstone and rock.

c) Gold is not a mineral because it is a precious metal, but it is a rock.

d) Manmade glass is not a mineral but it is a rock, because it is not naturally occurring.

28- Mass per volume is

a) Fracture

b) Density

c) Luster

d) Streak

29- Nearly all of the minerals in Earth’s crust are composed of only eight elements.

a) True

b) False

30- Each mineral has an exact chemical formula that never varies.

a) True

b) False

31- Halite breaks into cubes because

i) It fractures along perpendicular planes.

j) This is the way the weaker chemical bonds break.

k) Its fibers are perpendicular to each other and that is how it breaks.

l) None of these.

32- A measure of whether a mineral can scratch another mineral or be scratched by another
mineral.

c) Appearance

d) Luster

e) Cleavage

f) Moh’s Hardness Scale

33- Mica fractures in one direction and forms sheets.

c) True

d) False

34- Apatite has a hardness of 5 and topaz has a hardness of 8. If a mineral can scratch apatite
but is scratched by topaz, it has a hardness of

a) Less than 5 or more than 8.

b) 5 or 8

c) Between 5 and 8.

d) 7

35- Radioactivity describes how much matter is in a certain amount of space.

e) True

f) False

36- The way light reflects off of a mineral’s surface is its

c) cleavage

d) streak

e) luster

f) color

37- Vitreous means

e) Glassy

f) Soft-looking with long fibers

g) Sparkly
h) Pearl-like

38- The main mineral that bubbles when a weak acid is put on it is

e) Magnetite

f) Calcite

g) Quartz

h) Gold

39- Diamond is the hardest mineral.

c) True

d) False

40- Which of these descriptions does not identify gold?

c) High density

d) Shiny surfaces

e) Reacts with acid

f) Distinctive color

41- Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Minerals are naturally occurring, inorganic substances.

B. A mineral has a definite chemical composition.

C. Physical properties are an aid in mineral identification.

D. A mineral is always a crystalline solid.

E. Minerals always develop their characteristic external crystal form.

42- A naturally occurring, inorganic, crystalline solid with a definite chemical composition is

A. an element

B. a mineral

C. an atom

D. a rock

43- Which of the following examples does not agree with the definition of a mineral?

A. diamond

B. calcite
C. ice

D. coal

44- As a physical property of minerals, streak refers to

A. the color of the mineral

B. the way the mineral reflects light

C. the color of the powder of the mineral

D. the ease or difficulty of scratching the mineral

45- As a physical property of minerals, luster refers to

A. the color of the mineral

B. the way the mineral reflects light

C. the color of the powder of the mineral

D. how easy it is to polish the mineral

46- Mineral cleavage causes specimens to have

A. smooth, flat surfaces also known as crystal faces

B. irregular breaks that leave ragged surfaces on the mineral

C. curved surfaces similar to the breakage pattern seen on large chunks of glass

D. a preferred direction of breakage due to bonding weaknesses in the crystal structure

47- Micas can be easily split apart in sheets because of weak bonding.

True

False

48- Mohs' scale of hardness is used to compare crystal faces.

True

False

49- Quartz usually has an irregular fracture but lacks cleavage.

True

False
49- The mineral halite is composed of equal numbers of sodium and olivine atoms.

True

False

50- An example of combined elements mineral is …………………………………….

A-Silver.

b- Diamond.

c- Sulphur.

D-quartz.

51- A regular three dimensional arrangement of atoms in mineral is called ………………………………

A-mineral

B-Rock.

C - Element.

D-Crystal structure.

52- Calcite is used to make …………………………

a- Cement
b- Porcelain.
c- Plaster and wallboard.
d- Steel.

53- Mineral has a cleavage in one direction is……………………………

a- Mica.
b- Feldspar.
c- Halite.
d- Calcite.

54- The crystal is ……………………………………….

a- A semi solid material whose atoms and ions not arranged in repeated pattern.
b- A liquid material whose atoms and ions are arranged in repeated pattern.
c- The structure unit of rock.
d- A solid material whose atoms and ions are arranged imn repeated pattern.

55- the fluorite mineral can scratch.

a- Orthoclase.
b- Diamond.
c- Gypsum.
d- Topaz.

56-feldespar is used in making ……………………………..

a- Cement
b- Porcelain.
c- Plaster and wallboard.
d- Steel.

57- Streak is …………………………..

a- The reflection of light from the surface of mineral.

b- The resistance of mineral to scratching.
c- The color of powdered mineral.
d- Breakdown of mineral along regularly oriented plane of weakness.

58- A mineral can be scratched by steel file but can’t be scratched by iron nail
is…………………………

a- Apatite
b- Talc
c- Topaz
d- Gypsum.

59- A good example of native element mineral is …………………………..

a- Gold
b- quartz
c- Calcite.
d- Gypsum.
Week-4: Introduction to Remote Sensing
Assignment-4

Time: 1hr Max. Marks: 30

Note: Attempt all questions.

1. Which of the following types of sensors uses a highly focused beam of light?
(a) Sonar
(b) Lidar
(c) Ground penetrating radar
(d) Side-looking radar

2. Which of the following is not a type of radiometric correction used in image

processing when there is interference with the radiance measured by an
instrument?
(a) Noise removal
(b) Ozone depletion correction
(c) Haze correction
(d) Sun angle correction

3. What is meant by the term 'spatial filtering' in remote sensing?

(a) Changing the position of pixels in an image because of inconsistencies in
the relationship between sensor and surface during data collection
(b) Making parts of the image at a different scale to another part of the image
(c) Separating a scene into separate constituent parts and focusing on a
smaller section to increase the resolution
(d) Selectively preserving certain pixel frequencies in an image to
enhance particular features or edges of objects

4. In the process of image classification, which of the following methods results in a

greater accuracy of classes within an image actually matching land use patterns
on the ground?

(a) Manual/supervised by a user

(b) Robotic classification
(c) Fully automated
(d) Unprocessed image interpretation

5. Which is first step in digital image processing:

(a) Spatial filtering

(b) Image acquisition
(c) Image enhancement
(d) Image restoration

6. Which colour is having largest wavelength in visible spectrum

(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Yellow
7. A 512 x 512 image of 8 bits would require computer memory to store:

(a) 512 MB
(b) 1.44 MB
(c) 2.1 MB
(d) 8 MB

8. For edge detection which spatial filter would be most suitable?

(a) Gaussian
(b) Laplacian
(c) Low-pass
(d) None of the above

9. Filter that replaces pixel value with medians of intensity levels is

(a) Arithmetic mean filter
(b) Geometric mean filter
(c) Median filter
(d) Sequence mean filter

10. Base of image pyramid contains:

(a) Low resolution
(b) High resolution
(c) Intensity
(d) Blurred portion

11. Compressed image can be recovered back by

(a) Image enhancement
(b) Image decompression
(c) Image contrast
(d) Image equalization

12. High pass filters highlight:

(a) Low intensity components
(b) Mid intensity components
(c) High intensity components
(d) All components

13. In Hyperspectral remote sensing the EM Spectrum is:

(a) Continuous
(b) Discontinuous
(c) Discrete
(d) None of the above

14. In Hyperspectral remote sensing, generally bands are relatively …….. as

compared to Multispectral remote sensing:

(a) Narrow
(b) Wide
(c) Broad
(d) Thick

15. ‘No data’ is a:

(a) Zero
(b) Always equal to 1
(c) Value
(d) Nothing

16. The process of turning remote sensing image into meaningful categories
representing surface conditions or classes is called?

(a) Geoprocessing
(b) Georeferencing
(c) Classification
(d) Spatial filtering

17. An image enhancement technique that attempts to improve the contrast in an

image by `stretching' the range of intensity values it contains to span a desired
range of values is called?

(a) Non-histogram Equalization

(b) Non-linear contrast stretching
(c) Histogram Equalization
(d) Linear contrast stretching

18. A pre-processing method to reconstruct physically calibrated values by

correcting the spectral errors and distortions caused by sensors is called:

(a) Geometric correction

(b) Radiometric correction
(c) Spatial correction
(d) Geographic correction

19. Global Positioning Service (GPS) uses 24 satellites in:

(a) 9 Orbits
(b) 8 Orbits
(c) 7 Orbits
(d) 6 Orbits

20. Global Positioning Service (GPS) is based on a principle called:

(a) Transmission
(b) Trilateration
(c) Obliteration
(d) Globalization
Test Bank
Geology
By: Abdel-Rahman Hisham
Member at geology team: IDK

Page |1
L.O8: Mineral Resources

1. Which of the following is an example of a nonmetal mineral resources?

A. Gold
B. Quartz
C. Aluminum
D. Copper
ANS: B
2. Nonmetals are identified by there:

A. Ability to conduct heat

B. Shiny surfaces
C. Ability to conduct electricity
D. Dull surfaces
ANS: D
3. A mineral deposit called a lode is formed by:

A. Metal fragments deposited in stream beds

B. Layers accumulating in cooling magma
C. Hot mineral solutions in the cracks of rocks
D. Precipitation of mineral from seawater
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resources:

A. Natural gas
B. Sunlight
C. Falling water
D. Wind
ANS: A
5. A material from which mineral resources can be mined profitably is:

A. Gemstone
B. Ore
C. Nodule
D. Renewable resources

Page |2
ANS: B
6. Which of the following statement is TRUE:

A. Fossil fuel formation is ongoing, and current remains may become

petroleum in the future
B. Fossil fuel formation happened millions of years ago and no longer takes
place today
C. Current petroleum are found only beneath the ocean
D. Permeable rocks are a good place to find other fossil fuel as coal
ANS: A
7. What process causes organic remains to turn into fossil fuel?

A. Pressure caused by overlying rocks and sediments

B. The constant layering from microscopic sea life
C. Millions of years of physical and chemical change
D. The movement of fluids through layers of permeable rocks
ANS: C
8. Which of the following is the main reason that coal became a more widely used
energy source than wood in the mid-1800s?

A. Coal burns easier than wood does

B. Coal is a renewable resource, unlike wood
C. Coal is more efficient energy producer than wood
D. Coal produces fewer byproducts and waste than wood does
ANS: C
9. Plastics, synthetic fabrics and synthetic rubber are composed of chemicals that
are derived from:

A. Anthracite
B. Petroleum
C. Peat
D. Minerals
ANS: B
10. Impermeable rock that occurs at the top of an oil reservoir is called:

A. Coal
B. Peat
C. Cap rock

Page |3
D. Water
ANS: C
11. The green mineral, (1) ________ can be mined to produce (2)
__________.

A. (1) magnetite, (2) silver

B. (1) galena, (2) lead
C. (1) magnetite, (2) gold
D. (1) malachite, (2) copper
ANS: D
12. Which type of mineral deposit forms as a result of deposition by water flowing on
the Earth's surface?

A. Magmatic
B. Residual
C. Hydrothermal
D. Placer
ANS: D
13. Mineral deposits where heavy minerals are concentrated by stream or wave
action are called:

A. Placer
B. Residual
C. hydraulic
D. Stratiform
ANS: A
14. Diamonds can be a type of magmatic mineral deposit that forms inside a rock
type called:

A. Basalt
B. Sandstone
C. Kimberlite
D. Chromite
ANS: C
15. What type of mineral deposits form as a result of weathering of existing deposits?

A. Residual
B. Hydrothermal

Page |4
C. Placer
D. Metamorphic
ANS: A
16. Which one among the following is a solid lubricant?

A. Indium
B. Germanium
C. Sulphur
D. Graphite
ANS: D
17. Which of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a
residual mass of weathered material?

A. Coal
B. Bauxite
C. Gold
D. Zinc
ANS: B
18. Which of the following minerals is NOT obtained from the veins and lodes:

A. Tin
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Gypsum
ANS: D
19. Which mineral belongs to category of non-ferrous metals?

A. Iron ore
B. Copper
C. Manganese
D. Cobalt
ANS: B
20. Which one of the following minerals is a fossil fuel?

A. Coal
B. Zircon
C. Uranium
D. Barium

Page |5
ANS: A
21. Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral?

A. Lead
B. Tin
C. Limestone
D. Copper
ANS: C

22. Koderma, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following
minerals?

A. Bauxite
B. Mica
C. Iron ore
D. Copper
ANS: B
23. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following
rocks?

A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Metamorphic rocks
C. Igneous rocks
D. None of the above
ANS: A
24. Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand?

A. Oil
B. Uranium
C. Thorium
D. Coal
ANS: C
25. Limestone is associated with which of the following rocks?

A. Sedimentary rock
B. Igneous rock
C. Metamorphic rock
D. Tertiary rock

Page |6
ANS: A
26. Which is CORRECT about Magnetite iron ore?

A. Magnetite is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of quantity

used
B. Magnetite has the inferior magnetic qualities which is not valuable in the
electric industry
C. It is the finest iron ore with very high content of iron up to 70%
D. It has a slightly lower iron content than hematite (50-60%)
ANS: C
27. One who studies minerals as part of earth's crust for a better understanding of
landforms is called:

A. Scientists
B. Geographers
C. Geologists
D. Ecologists
ANS: C
28. Small occurrences of minerals in rocks are known as:

A. Lodes
B. Veins
C. Ores
D. Crevices
ANS: B
29. Khetri mines are famous for:

A. Coal
B. Gold
C. Copper
D. Iron
ANS: C
30. The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:

A. Veins
B. Lodes
C. Beds
D. Layers

Page |7
ANS: B
31. Rat-hole mining is found in:

A. Jharkhand
B. Orissa
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Meghalaya
ANS: D
32. Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from Ocean Waters?

A. Bromine
B. Silver
C. Platinum
D. Bauxite
ANS: A
33. Which one of the following is largely derived from ocean water?

A. Bauxite
B. Magnesium
C. Gold
D. Mica
ANS: B
34. Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from 'placer deposits’?

A. Magnesium
B. Iron ore
C. Gold
D. Bromine
ANS: C
35. Which of the following is the finest quality of iron ore?

A. Limonite
B. Magnetite
C. Siderite
D. Hematite
ANS: B
36. Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral?

Page |8
A. Manganese
B. Petroleum
C. Aluminum
D. Iron
ANS: C
37. Which one of the following fuels is considered as environment-friendly?

A. Natural gas
B. Petroleum
C. Coal
D. Firewood
ANS: A
38. Which of the following minerals is obtained through veins and lodes?

A. Coal
B. Bauxite
C. Tin
D. Lead
ANS: D
39. Metals like gold, silver and platinum are known as which of the following?

A. Ferrous minerals
B. Non-ferrous minerals
C. Non-metallic minerals
D. Precious minerals
ANS: D
40. Minerals formed from solidification of molten matter in the crack, crevices, faults
or joints are found in which types of rocks?

A. Stratified rocks
B. Igneous and metamorphic rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks
D. None of the above
ANS: B
41. Which of the following regions of India contain most of the reserves of coal,
metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals?

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A. The Himalayas
B. Alluvial plains of North India
C. Rock system of peninsula in Rajasthan
D. Peninsular plateau region
ANS: D
42. Due to which of the following reasons is the Bailadila range in the Bastar district
of Chhattisgarh famous?

A. It is the highest range in Central India

B. Very high grade hematite variety of iron ore is found here
C. Very high grade coal deposits are found here
D. It is the largest iron ore deposit in the world
ANS: B
43. Which of the following minerals is an important raw material in the iron and steel
industry apart from iron?

A. Mica
B. Aluminum
C. Gypsum
D. Manganese
ANS: D
44. India's reserves and production of which of the following types of minerals is not
very satisfactory?
A. Ferrous Minerals
B. Non-Ferrous Minerals
C. Energy Minerals
D. None of the above
ANS: B
45. Which of the following minerals is indispensable for electric and electronic
industries?

A. Iron
B. Nickel
C. Manganese
D. Mica
ANS: D
46. Which of the following is a non- commercial source of energy widely used in rural
areas?

P a g e | 10
A. Coal
B. Firewood
C. Natural gas
D. Electricity
ANS: B
47. Which of the following energy sources are not the conventional sources of
energy?

A. Firewood, cattle dung cake

B. Atomic energy, biogas, solar energy
C. Coal, petroleum, natural gas
D. Hydro and thermal electricity
ANS: B
48. Which of the following is a fuel mineral?

A. Hydro-electricity
B. Solar power
C. Thorium
D. Biogas
ANS: C
49. Which of the following energy sources is also termed as mineral oil or crude oil?

A. Coal
B. Petroleum
C. Biogas
D. Natural gas
ANS: B
50. Which of the following industries are the key users of natural gas?

A. Cotton and jute textiles

B. The power and fertilizer industries
C. Iron and steel industry
D. All the above
ANS: B
51. Which of the following includes non-ferrous metals?

A. Iron and manganese

P a g e | 11
B. Steel and iron ore
C. Hematite and magnetite
D. Copper and bauxite
ANS: D
52. Which one of the following minerals belongs to the category of ferrous minerals?

A. Mica
B. Silver
C. Bauxite
D. Manganese
ANS: D
53. Which one of the following features is NOT TRUE about copper?

A. India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper

B. It is malleable, ductile and a good conductor
C. It is a ferrous ore
D. It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods
ANS: C
54. Which one of the following minerals belongs to a category which is different from
others?

A. Mica
B. Gold
C. Copper
D. Iron
ANS: B
55. Most ore minerals belong to the following groups:

A. Sulfates and elements

B. Elements and oxides
C. Sulfates and carbonates
D. Sulfides and oxides
ANS: D
56. Calcite and dolomite are:

A. Oxide minerals of great value

B. Ferromagnesian silicates possessing a sheet structure
C. Carbonate minerals

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D. Sulfates found in evaporate deposits
ANS: C
57. This mineral suite includes many major ores:

A. Halides
B. Sulfides
C. Sulfates
D. Carbonates
ANS: B
58. Gold, diamonds and graphite are examples:

A. Native elements
B. Carbonates
C. Oxides
D. Sulfates
ANS: A
59. Nonmetallic mineral resources include all of the following except:

A. Phosphate
B. Iron
C. Gypsum
D. Sulfate
ANS: B
60. Waste soil and rock removed during surface mining is called:

A. Hazardous waste
B. Gangue
C. Spoil
D. Tailings
ANS: C
61. The portion of ore that does not contain the desired mineral is called:

A. Hazardous waste
B. Gangue
C. Spoil
D. Tailings
ANS: B

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62. Which of the following is associated more with surface mining than
subsurface mining?

A. It is more dangerous
B. It is more expensive
C. It produces less waste material
D. It disturbs more land
ANS: D
63. Which of the following is not one of the important, but scarce, mineral resources?

A. Manganese
B. Copper
C. Chromium
D. Cobalt
ANS: B
64. The United States, Germany, and Russia, with only 8% of the world’s population,
consume about _____ of the world’s most widely used metals.

A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 67%
D. 75%
ANS: D
65. Which of the following mineral deposit is formed exclusively by surface geological
processes?

A. Wollastonite
B. Asbestos
C. Corundum
D. Bauxite
ANS: D
66. Which of the following is NOT a process involved in the formation of mineral
deposits?

A. Secondary enrichment associated with ground water movement

B. Crystal settling of higher density minerals containing metals in a magma
C. Hydrothermal deposits associated with regions where there are significant
changes in pressure/temperature causing minerals to precipitate out of
water

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D. Shear stresses along a transform boundary
ANS: D

67. hydrolysis of orthoclase results in the formation of:

A. Shale
B. kaolin
C. Lime
D. Hydrochloric acid
ANS: B
68. Secondary enrichment makes low-grade ores into richer ores by:

A. Weathering
B. Metamorphism
C. Deformation
D. Igneous activity
ANS: A
69. Which is not a major type of ore-forming environment?

A. Hydrothermal
B. Sedimentary
C. Placer
D. Metamorphic
ANS: D

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L.O9: Resources of energy

1. Energy experts have harnessed geothermal energy by:

A. Building dams
B. Building wind generators
C. Drilling wells
D. Burning coal
ANS: C
2. An example of a renewable resource is:

A. Ground
B. Water
C. Oil
D. Wind
ANS: D
3. Which of the following resources is NOT a fossil fuel?

A. Oil shale
B. Uranium-235
C. Coal
D. Tar sand
ANS: B
4. Which of the following shows the correct order for the products of ongoing
coalification?

A. Bituminous coal - lignite - anthracite – peat

B. Peat - lignite - bituminous coal – anthracite
C. Anthracite - lignite - bituminous coal – peat
D. Lignite - peat - bituminous coal - anthracite
ANS: B
5. Most of our coal formed from plants that decayed in peat swamps that existed
during the:

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A. Carboniferous and Permian Periods
B. Precambrian
C. Devonian and Carboniferous Periods
D. Industrial Revolution
ANS: A
6. Which of the following sources of energy is currently the most effective for
supplying the energy needs of society?

A. Hydroelectric energy
B. Tidal energy
C. Solar energy
D. Geothermal energy
ANS: A
7. Which of the following statements about nuclear power is incorrect?

A. Nuclear power is far more efficient than oil for generating energy
B. Nuclear power plants produce fusion reactions to generate power
C. The radioactive decay of uranium-235 is the basis for producing nuclear
energy
D. Nuclear power supplies about 17% of the world's energy needs
ANS: B
8. Modern day northern hemisphere continents have a lot of coal that is
Carboniferous in age. Keeping this in mind, which of the following statements is
FALSE?

A. There were a lot of swampy areas during the Carboniferous

B. The northern hemisphere continents were closer to the equator in the
Carboniferous
C. The coal could have formed with the continents at their current latitudes
D. Laurasia and Gondwana had very different climates during the
Carboniferous
ANS: C
9. How much of the world’s energy is obtained using nonrenewable resources?

A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%

P a g e | 17
ANS: D
10. The type of fossil fuel that forms in a
marine environment is a:

A. Coal
B. Peat
C. Biomass
D. Hydrocarbon
ANS: D
11. Which of the following is NOT a type of hydrocarbon?

A. Coal
B. Natural gas
C. Tar sands
D. Oil
ANS: A
12. The most viable source of energy that is an alternative to fossil fuels is:

A. Solar energy
B. Nuclear energy
C. Biomass energy
D. Hydroelectric energy
ANS: B
13. Which of the following forms of harnessing energy does NOT involve driving a
turbine?

A. Nuclear power stations

B. Geothermal power stations
C. Tidal dam power plants
D. Photovoltaic power technology
ANS: D
14. What type of energy can be harnessed using photovoltaic cells?

A. Solar
B. Wind
C. Tidal
D. Hydroelectric
ANS: A

P a g e | 18
15. Which of the following statements
about nuclear power is TRUE?

A. Nuclear power is less efficient than oil for generating energy

B. Nuclear power plants utilize uranium fission reactions to generate power
C. Nuclear power supplies about 50% of the world's energy needs
D. Nuclear power is great because there are no environmental concerns
ANS: B
16. Electricity generated by burning fossil- fuels is called :

A. Hydro-electricity
B. Tidal electricity
C. Thermal electricity
D. Nuclear energy
ANS: C
17. The commercial sources of energy are:

A. Solar, wind and biomass

B. Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
C. Wood, animal wastes and agricultural waste
D. None of the above
ANS: B
18. The prober indication of incomplete combustion is:

A. High CO content in flue gases at exit

B. High CO2 content in flue gases at exit
C. High temperature of flue gases
D. The smoking exhaust from chimney
ANS: A
19. The main source of production of biogas is:

A. Human waste
B. Wet cow dung
C. Wet livestock waste
D. All above
ANS: D
20. In fuel energy, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.

P a g e | 19
A. Mechanical
B. Chemical
C. Heat
D. Sound
ANS: B
21. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by:

[Link] focus collector or heliostates

[Link] flat plate collectors
[Link] a solar pond
[Link] the above
ANS: D
22. The energy radiated by the sun on a bright sunny day is approximately

A. 700 W/m2
B. 800 W/m2
C. 1 KW/m2
D. 2 KW/m2
ANS: C
23. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of:

A. 15 to 20 %
B. 34 to 45 %
C. 70 to 80 %
D. 90 to 95 %
ANS: B
24. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant:

A. Improves in summer
B. Improves in winter
C. Is unaffected by climatic condition
D. None of the above
ANS: B
25. A steam power station requires space:

A. Equal to diesel power station

B. More than diesel power station
C. Less than diesel power station

P a g e | 20
ANS: B
26. The largest source of electricity
generation in Pakistan is __________?

A. Thermal
B. Hydro
C. Wind
D. Solar
ANS: A
27. Fossil fuel that is formed underground from remains of partially decomposed
plant material is known as:

A. Petrol
B. Natural gas
C. Coal
D. Uranium
ANS: C
28. Forms in which fossil fuels exist are:

A. Solid and gas

B. Solid and liquid
C. Solid, liquid and gas
D. Solid, gel(semi-solid), liquid and gas
ANS: C
29. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:

A. Helium
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. None of the above
ANS: C
30. Which of the following resources is NOT a fossil fuel?

A. Peat
B. Coal
C. Oil
D. Carbon dioxide
ANS: D

P a g e | 21
31. Which of the renewable energy
resources listed below ultimately involves driving a turbine to generate
electricity:

A. Geothermal
B. Tidal
C. Hydroelectric
D. All of the above
ANS: D
32. Which of the following states is not one of the states that collectively contain 66%
of all the oil shales on Earth?

A. Montana
B. Colorado
C. Utah
D. Wyoming
ANS: A
33. The most viable source of energy in mankind’s future, which involves utilizing
fission, is:

A. Geothermal energy
B. Solar energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. Tidal energy
ANS: C
34. Which of the following energy sources does NOT originally come from the Sun?

A. Wind
B. Ocean thermal energy conversion
C. Geothermal
D. Hydroelectric
ANS: C
35. One category of fossil fuel forms from the remains of marine organisms and is
called a hydrocarbon. Which of the following is NOT a hydrocarbon?

A. Peat
B. Crude oil
C. Natural gas
D. Tar

P a g e | 22
ANS: A
36. Geothermal energy is commonly
affected by all of the following problems except:

A. Low efficiency
B. Mineral deposits clogging pipes
C. Depletion of steam
D. Corrosion
ANS: D
37. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

A. Solar energy
B. Biomass energy
C. Hydro-power
D. Geothermal energy
ANS: B
38. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy
sources?

A. Highly polluting
B. High waste disposal cost
C. Unreliable supply
D. High running cost
ANS: C
39. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

A. Chemical energy
B. Biogas
C. Electricity
D. Geothermal energy
ANS: C
40. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the types of:

A. Nuclear reactor
B. Wind mills
C. Biogas reactor
D. Solar cell
ANS: B

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41. Which among the following is not an
adverse environmental impact of tidal power generation?

A. Interference with spawing and migration of fish

B. Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of
polluted water into the sea
C. Navigational hazard
D. None of the above
ANS: D
42. Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing:

A. Coal
B. Biogas
C. Hydrogen
D. Natural gas
ANS: C
43. Fuel cells are:

A. Carbon cell
B. Hydrogen battery
C. Nuclear cell
D. Chromium cell
ANS: B
44. Both power and manure is provided by:

A. Nuclear plants
B. Thermal plants
C. Biogas plants
D. Hydroelectric plant
ANS: C
45. Common energy source in Indian villages is:

A. Electricity
B. Coal
C. Sun
D. Wood and animal dung
ANS: D
46. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:

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A. Were originally formed in marine environment
B. Contain carbon
C. Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their
formation
D. Represent the remains of one living organisms
ANS: B
47. Crude oil is:

A. Colorless
B. Odorless
C. Smelly yellow to black liquid
D. Odorless yellow to black liquid
ANS: C
48. BTU is measurement of:

A. Volume
B. Area
C. Heat content
D. Temperature
ANS: C
49. The first controlled fission of an atom was carried out in Germany in:

A. 1920
B. 1928
C. 1925
D. 1938
ANS: D
50. Boiling water reactor and pressurized water reactors are:

A. Nuclear reactor
B. Solar reactor
C. OTEC
D. Biogas reactor
ANS: A

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L.O. 10: Insolation

1. On a given day, which factors have the most effect on the amount of insolation
received at a location on the Earth's surface?

A. Latitude and elevation

B. Longitude and time of day
C. Longitude and elevation
D. Latitude and time of day
ANS: D
2. Earth received heat from the sun is known as:

A. Thermal radiation
B. Insolation
C. Infrared heat
D. Solar radiation
ANS: B
3. The radiant energy emitted from the Sun is termed:

A. Long wave radiation

B. Convection
C. Insolation
D. Transmission
ANS: C
4. The proportion of solar energy reflected from the Earth back into space is the
Earth’s:
A. Reflection ratio
B. Albedo
C. Energy loss
D. Energy balance
ANS: B

P a g e | 26
5. Cairo at latitude 30 degree, we must adjust angle of a PANEL CELL in
summer at:

A. 15 degree
B. 45 degree
C. 90 degree
D. 60 degree
ANS: A
6. The average solar power incident on the Earth's surface is about:

A. 1000 mW cm-2
B. 1 kW m-2
C. 100 W cm-2
D. 1000 W cm-2
ANS: B
7. The capacity factor of a solar PV farm is approximately:

A. 5-10%
B. 10-20%
C. 20-30%
D. 40- 60 %
ANS: C
8. The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization:

A. Wind energy
B. Biomass energy
C. Wave energy
D. All of the above
ANS: D
9. If the grid of a solar panel is 20 time 100, we give ______ VOLT from it:

A. 10 V
B. 200 v
C. 1000 v
D. 6000 v
ANS: C

To be continued after the midterm

P a g e | 27
Earth’s Crust Test Prep
[Link] to the plate tectonics theory, the Peru-Chile Trench and the Andes Mountains formed along the
west coast of South America because the South American Plate
1 collided with the Nazca Plate

2 collided with the North American Plate

3 slid away from the Nazca Plate
4 slid away from the North American Plate

Base your answers to the following two questions on the cross section below, which shows a portion of
Earth’s crust and upper mantle near a mid-ocean ridge.
[Link] the crust symbol represents basalt with normal magnetic polarity, what does the crust symbol
most likely represent?
1 igneous rock with normal magnetic polarity
2 igneous rock with reversed magnetic polarity
3 sedimentary rock with normal magnetic polarity
4 sedimentary rock with reversed magnetic polarity

[Link] geological features of the ocean floor in this region resulted from
1 colliding plates in the lithosphere
2 sinking iron and magnesium in the lithosphere
3 cooler temperatures in the mantle
4 rising convection currents in the mantle

1 of 144
Base your answers to the following two questions on the diagram below, which represents seismic stations A,
B, and C. The distance from each station to an earthquake’s epicenter is plotted.

!
[Link] P-wave of an earthquake originating 2,600 kilometers from seismic station A arrived at [Link] a.m.
What was the arrival time of the S-wave from the same earthquake?
(1) [Link] a.m.
(2) [Link] a.m.
(3) [Link] a.m.
(4) [Link] a.m.

[Link] epicenter is closest to point

(1) D
(2) E
(3) F
(4) G

[Link] landscape region probably resulted from the erosion of faulted rock layers?

2 of 144
Base your answers to the following question using the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map below, and
your knowledge of Earth science. Letters A through F are locations on Earth’s surface.

!
[Link] location is closest to a divergent plate boundary at an oceanic ridge?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E

3 of 144
Base your answers to the following 5 questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map below, and
your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows part of the earthquake damage field that resulted from the
earthquake that occurred in Northridge, in southern California, in January 1994. Several sites associated with
the earthquake and earthquake damage are shown.

!
[Link] surface location had the least damage?
(1) R
(2) B
(3) E
(4) F

[Link] earthquake provides evidence for the existence of

1 Earth’s solid outer core
2 convection cells in Earth’s outer core
3 faulting of bedrock at Northridge
4 magnetic field reversals at Northridge

4 of 144
[Link] information would have been most useful for locating the earthquake epicenter?
1 the difference between the arrival times of the P-wave and the S-wave
2 the arrival time of the S-wave
3 the velocity of the P-wave
4 the location of damage from the earthquake

[Link] greatest surface damage occurred in zone IX because

1 the regional seismograph stations were closest to zone IX
2 of local conditions at zone IX
3 zone IX was reached first by earthquake waves
4 zone IX was at the epicenter of the earthquake

[Link] crustal plate boundary is most closely associated with this earthquake?
1 Cocos Plate — Pacific Plate
2 Cocos Plate — Nazca Plate
3 North American Plate — Nazca Plate
4 North American Plate — Pacific Plate

[Link] statement most accurately compares Earth’s crust and Earth’s mantle?
1 The crust is thinner and less dense than the mantle.
2 The crust is thinner and more dense than the mantle.
3 The crust is thicker and less dense than the mantle.
4 The crust is thicker and more dense than the mantle.

[Link] on the theory of plate tectonics, it is inferred that over the past 250 million years North America
has moved toward the
(1) northwest
(2) southwest
(3) southeast
(4) northeast

[Link] to tectonic plate maps, New York State is presently located

(1) at a convergent plate boundary
(2) above a mantle hot spot
(3) above a mid-ocean ridge
(4) near the center of a large plate

5 of 144
Base your answers to the following two questions on the cross-sectional view of Earth below, which shows
seismic waves traveling from the focus of an earthquake. Points A and B are locations on Earth’s surface.

[Link] statement best explains why only one type of seismic wave was recorded at location B?
(1) S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core.
(2) S-waves cannot travel through the liquid inner core.
(3) P-waves cannot travel through the solid outer core.
(4) P-waves cannot travel through the solid inner core.

17.A seismic station located at point A is 5400 kilometers away from the epicenter of the earthquake. If the
arrival time for the P-wave at point A was 2:00 p.m., the arrival time for the S-wave at point A was
approximately
(1) 1:53 p.m.
(2) 2:07 p.m.
(3) 2:09 p.m.
(4) 2:16 p.m.

6 of 144
The cross section below shows a drill rig used to collect rock samples from below Earth’s surface.

[Link] rock samples collected from the bottom of the drill hole came from which Earth layer?
(1) lithosphere
(2) hydrosphere
(3) asthenosphere
(4) stiffer mantle

Base your answers to the following 4 questions on the world map below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The map shows major earthquakes and volcanic activity occurring from 1996 through 2000. Letter A
represents a volcano on a crustal plate boundary.

[Link] the map above, place an X on the map to show the location of the Nazca Plate.
7 of 144
[Link] why most major earthquakes are found in specific zones instead of being randomly scattered
across Earth’s surface.
_______________________________________________________________________
-
_______________________________________________________________________

[Link] the source of the magma for the volcanic activity in Hawaii.

_______________________________________________________________________
-
_______________________________________________________________________

[Link] the type of plate movement responsible for the presence of the volcano at location A.

_______________________________________________________________________

[Link] which Earth layer are most convection currents that cause seafloor spreading thought to be located?
(1) crust
(2) asthenosphere
(3) outer core
(4) inner core

[Link] earthquake’s magnitude can be determined by

(1) analyzing the seismic waves recorded by a seismograph
(2) calculating the depth of the earthquake faulting
(3) calculating the time the earthquake occurred
(4) comparing the speed of P-waves and S-waves

25.A seismic station is recording the seismic waves produced by an earthquake that occurred 4200
kilometers away. Approximately how long after the arrival of the first P-wave will the first S-wave arrive?
(1) 1 min 05 sec
(2) 5 min 50 sec
(3) 7 min 20 sec
(4) 13 min 10 sec

[Link] graph best shows the inferred density of Earth’s interior as depth increases from the upper mantle
to the lower mantle?

8 of 144

The block diagram below shows a tectonic plate boundary. Points A and B represent locations on Earth’s
surface.

!
[Link] graph best shows the depths of most major earthquakes whose epicenters lie between A and B?

9 of 144

Base your answers to the following 3 questions on the map below. The ▲ represents Mt. Hekla, a volcano in
Iceland. The isolines represent the thickness of ash, in centimeters, that settled on Earth’s surface after a
volcanic eruption of Mt. Hekla on March 29, 1947. Point X is a location on the surface of the ash.

10 of 144

[Link] the time of the eruption, the wind direction was primarily from the
(1) east
(2) west
(3) north
(4) south

[Link] many centimeters thick was the ash beneath point X?

(1) 0
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25

[Link] addition to the ash, solid rock formed on Mt. Hekla from the lava extruded during this eruption. This
rock is most likely
(1) light-colored metamorphic
(2) dark-colored metamorphic
(3) fine-grained igneous
(4) coarse-grained igneous

Base your answers to the following 4 questions on the map and block diagram below. The map shows the
location of North Island in New Zealand. The block diagram shows a portion of North Island. The Hikurangi
11 of 144
Trench is shown forming at the edge of the Pacific Plate. Point X is at the boundary between the lithosphere
and the asthenosphere.

[Link] the approximate temperature at point X.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] what tectonic plate are both North Island and White Island located?

____________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] the type of tectonic plate motion that formed the Hikurangi Trench.

___________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] one action that people on North Island should take if a tsunami warning is issued.

___________________________________________________________________________________

35.A seismic station recorded the arrival of a P-wave at [Link] a.m. The S-wave arrival was recorded at
[Link] a.m. What is the approximate distance between the earthquake epicenter and the seismic station?
(1) 1.1 x 103 km
(2) 2.2 x 103 km
(3) 2.9 x 103 km
(4) 7.2 x 103 km

12 of 144
[Link] which materials can P-waves travel?
1 solid rock, only
2 magma and water, only
3 magma, water, and natural gas, only
4 solid rock, magma, water, and natural gas

[Link] observed feature would provide the best evidence of crustal stability?
1 horizontal sedimentary layers
2 changed benchmark elevations
3 folded, faulted, and tilted rock strata
4 marine fossils at elevations high above sea level

[Link] cross-sectional diagram of a portion of the crust and mantle best shows the pattern of mantle
convection currents that are believed to cause the formation of a mid-ocean ridge?

13 of 144
The diagram below shows a cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust. Altitude is shown in meters above sea
level.

[Link] landscape region is best classified as an eroded
1 plain
2 plateau
3 domed mountain
4 folded lowland

Base your answers to the following 5 questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the diagram below,
and your knowledge of Earth science. The diagram represents Earth’s interior zones.

[Link] thinnest section of Earth’s crust is found beneath
1 oceans
2 desert regions
3 coastal plains
4 mountain regions

[Link] which layer of Earth’s interior is the inferred temperature 6,000°C?

1 crust
2 mantle
3 outer core
4 inner core

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[Link] have classified Earth’s interior into the zones shown based primarily on evidence gained by
studying
1 deep drill cores
2 volcanic eruptions
3 gravity measurements
4 earthquake seismic waves

[Link] composition of Earth’s core is thought to be the same as the composition of many
1 meteorites
2 volcanic ashes
3 granites
4 basalts

[Link] graph best represents the relationship between depth below Earth’s surface and density?

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The diagram below shows the interaction of two tectonic plates.

[Link] type of plate boundary represented in the diagram most likely exists between the
(1) Antarctic Plate and the African Plate
(2) Antarctic Plate and the Indian-Australian Plate
(3) South American Plate and the Nazca Plate
(4) South American Plate and the African Plate

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Base your answers to the following 4 questions on the map below and on your knowledge of Earth science.
The map shows the location of the epicenter, X , of an earthquake that occurred on April 20, 2002, about 29
kilometers southwest of Plattsburgh, New York.

!
[Link] the latitude and longitude of this earthquake epicenter. Express your answers to the nearest tenth of
a degree and include the compass directions.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] is the minimum number of seismographic stations needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

_____________________________________________________________________________________

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[Link] why this earthquake was most likely felt with greater intensity by people in Peru, New York, than
by people in Lake Placid, New York.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

49.A seismic station located 1,800 kilometers from the epicenter recorded the P-wave and S-wave arrival
times or this earthquake. What was the difference in the arrival time of the first P-wave and the first S-wave?

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Base your answers to the following 4 questions on the world map shown below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. Letters A through H represent locations on Earth’s surface.

[Link] why most earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location B are shallower than most
earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location C.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] why location A has a greater probability of experiencing a major earthquake than location D.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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[Link] why a volcanic eruption is more likely to occur at location E than at location F.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] why the geologic age of the oceanic bedrock increases from location G to location H.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] coastal area is most likely to experience a severe earthquake?

(1) east coast of North America
(2) east coast of Australia
(3) west coast of Africa
(4) west coast of South America

55.A seismic station 4000 kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake records the arrival time of the first
P-wave at [Link]. At what time did the first S-wave arrive at this station?
(1) [Link]
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]

[Link] statement correctly describes the density of Earth’s mantle compared to the density of Earth’s core
and crust?
(1) The mantle is less dense than the core but more dense than the crust.
(2) The mantle is less dense than both the core and the crust.
(3) The mantle is more dense than the core but less dense than the crust.
(4) The mantle is more dense than both the core and the crust.

[Link] currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the
(1) Peru-Chile Trench
(2) Mariana Trench
(3) Canary Islands Hot Spot
(4) Iceland Hot Spot

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Arrows in the block diagram below show the relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.

!
[Link] which two tectonic plates does this type of plate boundary exist?
(1) Nazca Plate and South American Plate
(2) Eurasian Plate and Indian-Australian Plate
(3) North American Plate and Eurasian Plate
(4) Pacific Plate and North American Plate

Base your answers to the following 3 questions on the passage below and on your knowledge of Earth
science.
A New Oregon Volcano?
The Three Sisters are 10,000-foot volcanic mountain peaks in Oregon. Volcanic eruptions began
building the Three Sisters from andesitic lava and cinders 700,000 years ago. The last major eruption
occurred 2000 years ago.
West of the Three Sisters peaks, geologists have recently discovered that Earth’s surface is bulging
upward in a bull’s-eye pattern 10 miles wide. There is a 4-inch rise at its center, which geologists believe
could be the beginning of another volcano. The uplift was found by comparing satellite images. This uplift in
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Oregon may allow the tracking of a volcanic eruption from its beginning, long before the smoke and
explosions begin.
This uplift is most likely caused by an upflow of molten rock from more than four miles below the surface.
Rock melts within Earth’s interior and then moves upward in cracks in Earth’s crust, where it forms large
underground pools called magma chambers. Magma upwelling often produces signs that help scientists
predict eruptions and protect humans. When the pressure of rising magma becomes forceful enough to crack
bedrock, swarms of small earthquakes occur. Rising magma releases carbon dioxide and other gases that can
be detected at the surface.

[Link] one of the minerals found in the andesite rock of the Three Sisters volcanoes.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

The cross section below represents Earth’s interior beneath the Three Sisters. Place a triangle, ▲, on the cross
section to indicate the location where the new volcano will most likely form.

[Link] the same cross section above, place arrows through each point, X, Y, and Z, to indicate the relative
motion of each of these sections of the lithosphere.

[Link] photograph below represents a mountainous area in the Pacific Northwest.

[Link] believe that sedimentary rocks like those represent evidence of crustal change because these
rocks were
1 formed by igneous intrusion

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2 faulted during deposition
3 originally deposited in horizontal layers
4 changed from metamorphic rocks

[Link] far from an earthquake epicenter is a city where the difference between the P-wave and S-wave
arrival times is 6 minutes and 20 seconds?
(1) 1.7 x 103 km
(2) 9.9 x 103 km
(3) 3.5 x 103 km
(4) 4.7 x 103 km

The photograph below shows a large crater located in the southwestern United States.

[Link] fragments taken from the site have a nickel-iron composition. This evidence indicates that the crater
probably was formed by
1 the impact of a meteorite from space
2 the collapse of a cavern roof
3 an eruption of a volcano
4 an underwater explosion of steam

[Link] map best represents the general pattern of magnetism in the oceanic bedrock near the mid-Atlantic
Ridge?

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[Link] features are commonly formed at the plate boundaries where continental crust converges with
oceanic crust?
1 large volcanic mountain ranges parallel to the coast at the center of the continents
2 a deep ocean trench and a continental volcanic mountain range near the coast
3 an underwater volcanic mountain range and rift valley on the ocean ridge near the coast
4 long chains of mid-ocean volcanic islands perpendicular to the coast

Base your answers to the following 3 questions on the map below, which shows an area of the northwestern
United States affected by a major volcanic eruption at Crater Lake during the Holocene Epoch.

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[Link] pattern of distribution of the ash from the volcano was most likely caused by the direction of the
1 magnetic field
2 force of the volcanic eruption
3 flow of surface water
4 atmospheric air movements

[Link] age of this volcanic eruption was most accurately determined to be Holocene by measuring the
radioactive
1 potassium in the fine-grained volcanic rock
2 carbon in trees buried by the ash
3 uranium in the volcanic ash
4 rubidium in the igneous glass

[Link] volcanic eruption is most useful to scientists today as a relative time marker in the geologic record of
this map region because the
1 lava cooled quickly at the surface
2 lava contained radioactive rubidium-87
3 volcanic ash spread quickly over a large area
4 volcanic ash fell to Earth more quickly near the volcano than far from the volcano

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Base your answers to the following 5 questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map below, and
your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows a portion of California along the San Andreas Fault zone.
The map shows the probability (percentage chance) that an earthquake strong enough to damage buildings
and other structures will occur between now and the year 2024.

[Link] city has the greatest danger of damage from an earthquake?

1 Barstow
2 Parkfield
3 Oceanside
4 San Bernardino

[Link] fault zone is located along the boundary between which two crustal plates?
1 Cocos plate and Pacific plate
2 North American plate and Pacific plate
3 Nazca plate and Cocos plate
4 North American plate and South American plate

[Link] a large earthquake were to occur at San Diego, the earliest indication at another California location of
the occurrence of that earthquake would be the arrival of the
(1) S-waves at Oceanside
(2) S-waves at San Bernardino
(3) P-waves at Oceanside

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(4) P-waves at San Bernardino

[Link] diagram best represents the relative movements of the crustal plates along the San Andreas Fault in
the map area?

[Link] map best represents the location of the primary San Andreas Fault line?

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The drawing below shows the effects of an earthquake on a small part of Earth’s surface. Letters A and B
indicate land on opposite sides of a cliff that formed along a fault during the earthquake.

[Link] relation to the position of side B, the movement of side A was
1 eastward and downward
2 eastward and upward
3 westward and downward
4 westward and upward

A student set up the activity shown in the diagram below to demonstrate how convection cells in Earth’s
mantle could cause crustal plates to converge.

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[Link] diagram shows the bet placement of heat sources to cause the blocks to converge?

77.A seismograph records the arrival of a P-wave at 11:13 a.m. If the earthquake occurred 4,000 kilometers
from the recording station, when did the earthquake occur?
(1) 11:06 a.m.
(2) 11:11 a.m.
(3) 11:13 a.m.
(4) 11:20 a.m.

[Link] which depth below Earth’s surface is the density most likely 9.5 grams per cubic centimeter?
(1) 1,500 km
(2) 2,000 km
(3) 3,500 km
(4) 6,000 km

The block diagram below represents a portion of the surface of Earth’s crust.

[Link] letter is located on the boundary between two landscape regions?
(1) A

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(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

[Link] happens to P-waves and S-waves from a crustal earthquake when the waves reach Earth’s outer
core?
(1) S-waves are transmitted through the outer core, but P-waves are not transmitted.
(2) P-waves are transmitted through the outer core, but S-waves are not transmitted.
(3) Both P-waves and S-waves are transmitted through the outer core.
(4) Neither P-waves nor S-waves are transmitted through the outer core.

Base your answers to the following five questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map below, and
your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows the island of Hawaii (approximately 20° N 157° W) and
the locations of recent volcanic eruptions and earthquake epicenters. The volcanic eruptions are inferred to
be caused by the movement of the lithospheric plate over a hot spot in the mantle below.

[Link] are earthquakes on and around Hawaii located?

1 along shorelines, only
2 in the ocean, only
3 in older rocks, only
4 scattered across the area

[Link] collected from the side of Kilauea Volcano has the following mineral composition: 5% plagioclase
feldspar, 68% pyroxene, 25% olivine, and 2% hornblende. What type of rock is this?
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1 andesite
2 scoria
3 rhyolite
4 peridotite

[Link] inference concerning the distribution of earthquakes and recent volcanic eruptions on this island is
most accurate?
1 Earthquakes and recent volcanic eruptions are located mainly along the boundary between the older rocks
and the younger rocks.
2 Recent volcanic eruptions are more common than earthquakes.
3 Many earthquakes occur near recent volcanic eruptions.
4 Earthquakes and recent volcanic eruptions rarely occur in the same areas.

84.A scientist wants to film underwater volcanic activity that is forming a new island in the Hawaiian Island
chain. In which direction from Hawaii should she concentrate her efforts?
1 northeast
2 northwest
3 southeast
4 southwest

[Link] is located near the middle of which tectonic plate?

1 Philippine plate
2 Nazca plate
3 North American plate
4 Pacific plate

[Link] is the primary method of heat transfer through solid rock during contact metamorphism?
1 advection
2 convection
3 absorption
4 conduction

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Base your answers to the following five questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map and table
of the Modified Mercalli Scale below, and your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows the intensities
of the earthquake that occurred slightly southwest of New Madrid, Missouri, on December 16, 1811. The
numbered areas on the map were determined from the Modified Mercalli Scale according to the observed
effects of the earthquake.

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[Link] is the approximate location of the earthquake’s epicenter?
(1) 36° N, 90° W
(2) 90° N, 36° W
(3) 36° N, 90° E
(4) 90° N, 36° E

[Link] was the approximate travel time for the earthquake’s P-wave from the epicenter to Syracuse, New
York?
(1) 1 min
(2) 5 min
(3) 3 min

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(4) 10 min

[Link] city would have issued the report: “Heavy furniture moved, everyone felt the earthquake, and
many people were frightened and ran outdoors”?
1 Cincinnati
2 Pittsburgh
3 Syracuse
4 Boston

[Link] statement best describes the earthquake waves recorded at Louisville?

(1) S-waves arrived ahead of P-waves.
(2) P-waves arrived ahead of S-waves.
(3) S-waves arrived but P-waves did not arrive.
(4) Neither S-waves nor P-waves arrived.

[Link] which city was the difference in arrival times between P-waves and S-waves greatest?
1 Nashville
2 Pittsburgh
3 Syracuse
4 Boston

The diagram below represents a geologic cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust.

[Link] and erosion occurred after the formation of the
(1) Gayle shale
(2) Freeport sandstone
(3) Erie coal, but before formation of Freeport sandstone
(4) Dunbar limestone, but before formation of Erie coal

[Link] which surface location is Earth’s crust the thinnest?

(1) East Pacific Ridge
(2) the center of South America
(3) Old Forge, New York
(4) San Andreas Fault

The graph below shows the different velocities of P-waves and S-waves through Earth’s interior.

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[Link] cross section best shows the inferred thickness of Earth’s interior layers that cause these different
velocities?

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The diagram below represents the pattern of normal and reversed magnetic polarity and the relative age of
the igneous bedrock composing the ocean floor on the east side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The magnetic
polarity of the bedrock on the west side of the ridge has been deliberately left blank.

[Link] diagram best shows the magnetic pattern and relative age of the igneous bedrock on the west side
of the ridge?

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Base your answers to the following four questions on the information, map, and cross section below.

The map represents a portion of Earth’s surface in the Pacific Ocean. The positions of islands, earthquake
epicenters, active volcanoes, and the Tonga Trench are shown. Lines of latitude and longitude have been
included. The cross section shows earthquakes that occurred beneath line XY on the map. Depth beneath
Earth’s surface is indicated by the scale along the left side of the cross section, as are the range of depths for
shallow, intermediate, and deep earthquakes. Distance from the trench is indicated by the scale along the
bottom of the cross section.

[Link] Tonga Trench is located at the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the
(1) Antarctic Plate
(2) Philippine Plate
(3) Indian-Australian Plate
(4) Nazca Plate

[Link] greatest number of earthquakes shown in the cross section occurred

(1) at sea level
(2) between sea level and a depth of 100 km
(3) at a depth between 100 and 300 km
(4) at a depth between 300 and 600 km

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[Link] cross section has arrows that best represent the relative motion of the crustal plates along the
Wadati-Benioff zone beneath the Tonga Trench?

[Link] latitude and longitude of the center of Vanau Leva is closest to

(1) 17° N 179° W
(2) 17° N 181° W
(3) 17° S 179° E
(4) 17° S 181° E

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the diagram below, which shows two seismogram
tracings, at stations A and B, for the same earthquake. The arrival times of the P-waves and S-waves are
indicated on each tracing.

[Link] how the seismic tracings recorded at station A and station B indicate that station A is farther
from the earthquake epicenter than station B.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] station A is located 5,400 kilometers from the epicenter of the earthquake.
How much time would it take for the first S-wave produced by this earthquake to reach seismic station A?

Base your answers to the following three questions on the passage below and on your knowledge of Earth
science.
Great Balls of Fire
The Earth’s predicted near-miss with asteroid XF11 in the year 2028 has once again focused attention
on the fear that a large asteroid or comet hitting our planet could trigger a global catastrophe.
To back this up, every article and television program about XF11 boldly asserted that the dinosaur
extinction was caused by a giant asteroid impacting into the Earth 65 million years ago. This has typically
been accompanied by a picture of frightened dinosaurs looking skyward at a huge flaming meteorite

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streaking across the horizon. This scenario is so widely accepted that few commentators bother to question it
any more. There is, however, much evidence to suggest that an asteroid may not have hit the Earth 65 million
years ago and that, even if it did, it did not cause the mass extinction of life attributed to it. There is also the
possibility that dinosaurs may not have been around to witness it!
by Paul Chambers
[Link] (6/98)

[Link] an asteroid struck Earth 65 million years ago, what surface feature was most likely created by this
asteroid impact?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] one geologic process occurring on Earth that could have hidden or even destroyed this inferred
impact feature.

______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] how an asteroid impact may have been able to cause a worldwide mass extinction of dinosaurs.

______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] volcanic eruptions send dust and ash into the stratosphere. Weeks after such great eruptions, air
temperatures are often
(1) cooler than normal because the atmosphere is less transparent
(2) cooler than normal because the atmosphere is more transparent
(3) warmer than normal because the atmosphere is less transparent
(4) warmer than normal because the atmosphere is more transparent

106.A P-wave takes 8 minutes and 20 seconds to travel from the epicenter of an earthquake to a seismic
station. Approximately how long will an S-wave take to travel from the epicenter of the same earthquake to
this seismic station?
(1) 6 min 40 sec
(2) 9 min 40 sec
(3) 15 min 00 sec
(4) 19 min 00 sec

The cross section below shows the direction of movement of an oceanic plate over a mantle hot spot,
resulting in the formation of a chain of volcanoes labeled A, B, C, and D. The geologic age of volcano C is
shown.

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[Link] are the most likely geologic ages of volcanoes B and D?

(1) B is 5 million years old and D is 12 million years old.
(2) B is 2 million years old and D is 6 million years old.
(3) B is 9 million years old and D is 9 million years old.
(4) B is 10 million years old and D is 4 million years old.

Base your answers to the following three questions on the cross section below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. The cross section shows a portion of Earth’s interior. Layer X is part of Earth’s interior.

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[Link] the texture and relative density of the granitic bedrock of the continental crust and the basaltic
bedrock of the oceanic crust.

[Link] minerals biotite and amphibole may be found in igneous bedrock of both the oceanic crust and the
continental crust. Identify two other minerals commonly found in the basaltic oceanic crust.

[Link] the part of Earth’s lithosphere represented by layer X.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

Base your answers to the following three questions on the cross section below, which shows the major
surface features of Earth along 25° S latitude between 75° W and 15° E longitude. Points A, B, and C
represent locations on Earth’s crust.

[Link] the crustal feature located at point A.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

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[Link] the tectonic plate motion that is causing an increase in the distance between South America and
Africa.

______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] samples were taken at the mid-ocean ridge and points B and C. On the grid below, draw a line
to show the relative age of the bedrock samples between these locations.

The map below shows the location of an earthquake epicenter in New York State. Seismic stations A, B, and
C received the data used to locate the earthquake epicenter.

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[Link] seismogram recorded at station A would show the
(1) arrival of P-waves, only
(2) earliest arrival time of P-waves
(3) greatest difference in the arrival times of P-waves and S-waves
(4) arrival of S-waves before the arrival of P-waves

[Link] earthquake’s first P-wave arrives at a seismic station at [Link]. This P-wave has traveled 6000
kilometers from the epicenter. At what time will the first S-wave from the same earthquake arrive at the
seismic station?
(1) [Link]
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]

[Link] movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

(1) tidal motions in the hydrosphere
(2) density differences in the troposphere
(3) convection currents in the asthenosphere
(4) solidification in the lithosphere

[Link] two tectonic plates are separated by a mid-ocean ridge?

(1) Indian-Australian and Eurasian
(2) Indian-Australian and Pacific
(3) North American and South American
(4) North American and Eurasian

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the block diagram below. The diagram shows the
tectonic plate boundary between Africa and North America 300 million years ago, as these two continents
united into a single landmass. The arrows at letters A, B, C, and D represent relative crustal movements.
Letter X shows the eruption of a volcano at that time.

[Link] the type of tectonic plate motion represented by the arrow shown at D.

______________________________________________________

[Link] the type of tectonic motion represented by the arrows shown at A, B, and C.

______________________________________________________

The graph below shows the percent by mass of the elements of Earth’s crust. Each letter on the graph
represents an element.

[Link] elements are represented by the letters a and b, respectively?
1 aluminum and iron
2 calcium and nitrogen
3 potassium and sodium
4 oxygen and silicon

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[Link] to the continental crust, the oceanic crust is
1 thicker
2 more dense
3 more granitic
4 more felsic

An earthquake recorded by seismic stations around the world created the pattern of seismic wave recordings
shown in the diagram below.

[Link] statement best explains this pattern of wave recordings?
(1) Some seismic waves cannot travel through oceans to reach every location on Earth.
(2) S-waves are too weak to travel very far from the earthquake focus.
(3) Mountain ranges and tectonic plate boundaries absorb or bend seismic waves.
(4) Layers with different properties inside Earth absorb or bend seismic waves.

The diagram below shows the collision of an oceanic plate and a continental plate.

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[Link] between oceanic plates and continental plates are thought to result primarily from
1 hot liquid magma in the inner core
2 convection currents in the mantle
3 volcanic eruptions along coastlines
4 meteor impacts in the ocean basins

[Link] information indicates that new seafloor rock is forming along a mid-ocean ridge and then moving
horizontally away from the ridge?
1 Most volcanoes are located under ocean water.
2 Seafloor rock is older than continental rock.
3 Fossils of marine organisms can be found at high elevations on continents.
4 The age of seafloor rock increases as the distance from the mid-ocean ridge increases.

[Link] earthquake shear wave generally travels faster as the wave moves deeper into Earth’s interior
because greater depths have
1 less confining pressure
2 lower melting points
3 greater rock density
4 greater rock temperatures

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Base your answers to the following five questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map and
seismograms below, and your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows seismic stations in Chicago,
Denver, Oklahoma City, and Tampa that record data from an earthquake. Seismograms A, B, C, and D show,
in Greenwich time, the arrival times of the earthquake waves at the four stations.

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[Link] location on the map below is closest to the epicenter of this earthquake?

(1) W
(2) X
(3) Y
(4) Z

[Link] seismogram was recorded at Tampa?

1 seismogram A
2 seismogram B
3 seismogram C
4 seismogram D

[Link] was the origin time of this earthquake?

(1) [Link] a.m.
(2) [Link] a.m.
(3) [Link] a.m.
(4) [Link] a.m.

[Link] P-wave generated by this earthquake took 2 minutes and 40 seconds to reach one of the seismic
stations. Approximately how long did the S-wave take to reach the same seismic station?
(1) 1 minute 20 seconds
(2) 2 minutes 40 seconds
(3) 3 minutes 30 seconds
(4) 4 minutes 50 seconds

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[Link] is the minimum number of seismic stations needed to locate most earthquake epicenters?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

The geologic cross section below shows limestone that was intruded. Part of the limestone (zone A) was
heated intensely but was not melted.

[Link] type of rock most likely formed in zone A?
1 gneiss
2 slate
3 marble
4 obsidian

Base your answers to the following two questions on the geologic cross sections below, which represent
bedrock from different areas on Earth.

[Link] the cross sections most likely represent areas of
1 crustal stability
2 mountain building
3 seashore erosion
4 plateau development

[Link] information in a meaningful way, such as grouping these cross sections, is an example of
1 prediction

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2 measurement
3 observation
4 classification

134.A seismic station received the P-waves generated by an earthquake but did not receive the S-waves.
Which statement best explains the absence of the S-waves?
1 The earthquake was too weak to produce S-waves.
2 The earthquake’s epicenter and focus were at the same location.
3 The S-waves were absorbed by a liquid layer as they traveled toward the seismic station.
4 The s-Waves were reflected away from the seismic station when they reached the Moho interface.

[Link] difference between gabbro bedrock and granite bedrock causes seismic waves to travel faster in
gabbro than in granite?
1 Gabbro is more dense than granite.
2 Gabbro has greater permeability than granite.
3 Gabbro has a darker color than granite.
4 Gabbro is made of smaller mineral grains than granite.

The diagram below shows a cross section of a portion of Earth. The inferred motions of crustal plates are
shown. Letters A through D represent locations at Earth’s surface.

[Link] letter represents the location of the mid-Atlantic Ridge?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

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Base your answers to the following five questions on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the map below, and
your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows seismic stations X, Y and Z that have recorded seismic
waves from the same earthquake. The distances from seismic stations X and Y to the earthquake epicenter
have been drawn on the map. Locations A, B, C, and D represent possible earthquake epicenters. The
distance from seismic station Z to the earthquake epicenter has been deliberately omitted.

[Link] far is station X from the earthquake epicenter?
(1) 5,200 km
(2) 2,400 km
(3) 3,000 km
(4) 4,000 km

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[Link] long did the P-wave take to travel from the earthquake epicenter to station Y?
(1) 2 min 10 sec
(2) 3 min 40 sec
(3) 4 min 0 sec
(4) 5 min 40 sec

[Link] the earthquake’s focus was 2 kilometers below Earth’s surface, the earthquake occurred in the
1 lithosphere
2 asthenosphere
3 stiffer mantle
4 outer core

[Link] to the speed of S-waves in a given Earth material, the speed of P-waves is
1 always slower
2 always faster
3 always identical
4 sometimes slower and sometimes faster

[Link] Z recorded a time difference of 6 minutes 40 seconds between the arrival of the P-waves and the
arrival of the S-waves. The earthquake epicenter was located closest to location
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

[Link] two elements that make up the largest percentage by mass of Earth’s crust are oxygen and
(1) silicon
(2) potassium
(3) hydrogen
(4) nitrogen

[Link] processes most likely formed the shale bedrock found near Ithaca, New York?
(1) uplift and solidification
(2) burial and compaction
(3) heat and pressure
(4) melting and recrystallization

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the map below, which shows the risk of damage from
seismic activity in the United States.

[Link] the United States, most of the major damage expected from a future earthquake is predicted to occur
near a
(1) divergent plate boundary, only
(2) convergent plate boundary, only
(3) mid-ocean ridge and a divergent plate boundary
(4) transform plate boundary and a hot spot

[Link] New York State location has the greatest risk of earthquake damage?
(1) Binghamton
(2) Buffalo
(3) Plattsburgh
(4) Elmira
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Base your answers to the following three questions on the example of a seismogram and set of instructions
for determining the Richter magnitude of an earthquake below. The example shows the Richter magnitude of
an earthquake 210 kilometers from a seismic station.

Instructions for determining Richter magnitude:
• Determine the distance to the epicenter of the earthquake. (The distance in the example is 210 kilometers.)
• Measure the maximum wave height of the S-wave recorded on the seismogram. (The height in the example
is 23 millimeters.)

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• Place a straightedge between the distance to the epicenter (210 kilometers) and the height of the largest S-
wave (23 millimeters) on the appropriate scales. Draw a line connecting these two points. The magnitude of
the earthquake is determined by where the line intersects the Richter magnitude scale. (The magnitude of this
example is 5.0.)

[Link] the set of instructions above and the seismogram and scales below, determine the Richter
magnitude of an earthquake that was located 500 kilometers from this seismic station. Record your answer
below.

[Link] the information shown on the seismogram that was used to determine that the distance to the
epicenter was 500 kilometers.

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______________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] long did it take the first S-wave to travel 500 kilometers to reach this seismic station?

Base your answers to the following five questions on the passage below and on the map in your answer
booklet. The passage describes the Gakkel Ridge found at the bottom of the Arctic Ocean. The map shows
the location of the Gakkel Ridge.
The Gakkel Ridge
In the summer of 2001, scientists aboard the U.S. Coast Guard icebreaker
Healy visited one of the least explored places on Earth. The scientists studied the
1800-kilometer-long Gakkel Ridge at the bottom of the Arctic Ocean near the
North Pole. The Gakkel Ridge is a section of the Arctic Mid-Ocean Ridge and
extends from the northern end of Greenland across the Arctic Ocean floor toward
Russia. At a depth of about 5 kilometers below the ocean surface, the Gakkel
Ridge is one of the deepest mid-ocean ridges in the world. The ridge is believed
to extend down to Earth’s mantle, and the new seafloor being formed at the ridge
is most likely composed of huge slabs of mantle rock. Bedrock samples taken from
the seafloor at the ridge were determined to be the igneous rock peridotite.
The Gakkel Ridge is also the slowest moving mid-ocean ridge. Some ridge
systems, like the East Pacific Ridge, are rifting at a rate of about 20 centimeters
per year. The Gakkel Ridge is rifting at an average rate of less than 1 centimeter
per year. This slow rate of movement means that there is less volcanic activity
along the Gakkel Ridge than along other ridge systems. However, heat from the
underground magma slowly seeps up through cracks in the rocks of the ridge at
structures scientists call hydrothermal (hot water) vents. During the 2001 cruise,
a major hydrothermal vent was discovered at 87° N latitude 45° E longitude.

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[Link] the map below, place an X on the location of the major hydrothermal vent described in the passage.

[Link] the relative motion of the two tectonic plates on either side of the Gakkel Ridge.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] Gakkel Ridge is a boundary between which two tectonic plates?

[Link] one feature, other than hydrothermal vents, often found at mid-ocean ridges like the Gakkel
Ridge that indicates heat from Earth’s interior is escaping.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] the two minerals that were most likely found in the igneous bedrock samples collected at the
Gakkel Ridge.

[Link] long would it take for the first S-wave to arrive at a seismic station 4,000 kilometers away from the
epicenter of an earthquake?
(1) 5 min 40 sec
(2) 7 min 0 sec
(3) 12 min 40 sec
(4) 13 min 20 sec

The photograph below shows an escarpment (cliff) located in the western United States. The directions for
north and south are indicated by arrows. A fault in the sedimentary rocks is shown on the front of the
escarpment.
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[Link] photograph shows that the fault most likely formed
(1) after the rock layers were deposited, when the north side moved downward
(2) after the rock layers were deposited, when the north side moved upward
(3) before the rock layers were deposited, when the south side moved downward
(4) before the rock layers were deposited, when the south side moved upward

[Link] mountain range resulted from the collision of North America and Africa, as parts of Pangea
joined together in the late Pennsylvanian Period?
(1) Appalachian Mountains
(2) Acadian Mountains
(3) Taconic Mountains
(4) Grenville Mountains

[Link] two most abundant elements by mass in Earth’s crust are oxygen and
(1) potassium
(2) hydrogen
(3) nitrogen
(4) silicon

On the map below, line AB is drawn across several of Earth’s tectonic plates in the South Atlantic Ocean.

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[Link] cross section best represents the plate boundaries and mantle movement beneath line AB?

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[Link] diagrams below show four major types of fault motion occurring in Earth’s crust. Which type of
fault motion best matches the general pattern of crustal movement at California’s San Andreas fault?

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the map and table below. The map shows the name and
location of the volcanic peaks in the Cascade Mountain Range of the northwestern United States west of the
Yellowstone Hot Spot. The table shows the major eruptions of each peak over the past 4,000 years.

[Link] which geologic epoch did the volcanic activity shown on the table occur?

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163. On the cross section provided below, place an arrow in the continental crust and an arrow in the oceanic
crust to show the relative directions of plate movement.

[Link] layer of Earth is composed of both the crust and the rigid mantle?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

Base your answers to the following two questions on the map and data table shown below. The map shows
some tectonic plates and the boundaries between them. Letters A and B are locations on Earth’s surface. The
data table shows the depth below Earth’s surface of five earthquakes measured from location A toward
location B.

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[Link] the grid provided below, plot the depths of the five earthquakes from location A toward location B.

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[Link] the type of plate boundary or geologic feature found at location B.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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The diagram below represents three seismograms showing the same earthquake as it was recorded at three
different seismic stations, A, B, and C.

[Link] statement correctly describes the distance between the earthquake epicenter and these seismic
stations?
(1) A is closest to the epicenter, and C is farthest from the epicenter.
(2) B is closest to the epicenter, and C is farthest from the epicenter.
(3) C is closest to the epicenter, and A is farthest from the epicenter.
(4) A is closest to the epicenter, and B is farthest from the epicenter.

[Link] a continental crustal plate collides with an oceanic crustal plate, the continental crust is forced to
move over the oceanic crust. What is the primary reason that the continental crust stays on top of the oceanic
crust?
(1) Continental crust is less dense.
(2) Continental crust deforms less easily.
(3) Continental crust melts at higher temperatures.
(4) Continental crust contains more mafic minerals.

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the diagram below, which shows details of a section of
a rift valley in the center of a mid-ocean ridge. The vertical lines in the diagram represent faults and fractures
within the ocean floor bedrock.

[Link] will be the primary result of the continuation of the geologic processes indicated at this location?
(1) Earth’s magnetic field will reverse direction.
(2) Continental crust will be forced downward.
(3) Earth’s circumference will increase.
(4) New oceanic crust will form.

170..Which type of crustal plate boundary is shown in this diagram?

(1) divergent
(2) convergent
(3) universal
(4) transform

[Link] dark-colored lava flows shown in the diagram were pushed from the magma chamber onto the
surface of the ocean floor. Which characteristics are present in the solid rock that formed when the lava flows
cooled?
(1) generally small grain size and mafic composition
(2) generally small grain size and felsic composition
(3) generally large grain size and mafic composition
(4) generally large grain size and felsic composition
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Base your answers to the following four questions on the information below and on your knowledge of Earth
science.

In the 1930s, most scientists believed that Earth’s crust and interior were solid and motionless. A
small group of scientists were talking about “continental drift,” which is the idea that Earth’s crust is not
stationary, but is constantly shifting and moving.
From seismic data, geophysical evidence, and laboratory experiments, scientists now generally agree
that lithospheric plates move at the surface. Both Earth’s surface and interior are in motion. Solid rock in the
mantle can be softened and shaped when subjected to the heat and pressure within Earth’s interior over
millions of years.
Subduction processes are believed by many scientists to be the driving force of plate tectonics. At
present, this theory cannot be directly observed and confirmed. The lithospheric plates have moved in the
past and are still moving today. The details of why and how they move will continue to challenge scientists.

[Link]’s crust is described as “constantly shifting and moving.” Give one example of geologic evidence
that supports the conclusion that continents have drifted apart.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] information given suggests that “subduction processes are the driving force of plate tectonics.”
Identify a specific location of a subduction zone on Earth.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] to the Earth Science Reference Tables, at what inferred depth is mantle rock partially melted
and slowly moving below the lithospheric plates?

[Link] to the geologic record, during which geologic time period did the lithospheric plates that
made up Pangea begin to break up?

[Link] study of how seismic waves change as they travel through Earth has revealed that
(1) P-waves travel more slowly than S-waves through Earth’s crust
(2) seismic waves travel more slowly through the mantle because it is very dense
(3) Earth’s outer core is solid because P-waves are not transmitted through this layer
(4) Earth’s outer core is liquid because S-waves are not transmitted through this layer

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the earthquake seismogram below.

[Link] did the first P-waves arrive at this seismic station?
(1) 3 minutes after an earthquake occurred 2,600 km away
(2) 5 minutes after an earthquake occurred 2,600 km away
(3) 9 minutes after an earthquake occurred 3,500 km away
(4) 11 minutes after an earthquake occurred 3,500 km away

[Link] many additional seismic stations must report seismogram information in order to locate
this earthquake?
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

The diagram below shows some features of Earth’s crust and upper mantle.

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[Link] model most accurately shows the movements (arrows) associated with the surface features shown
in the diagram?

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the map below. The map shows the continents of
Africa and South America, the ocean between them, and the ocean ridge and transform faults. Locations A
and D are on the continents. Locations B and C are on the ocean floor.

[Link] hottest crustal temperature measurements would most likely be found at location
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

[Link] table best shows the relative densities of the crustal bedrock at locations A, B, C, and D?

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[Link] graph best shows the relative age of the ocean-floor bedrock from location B to location C?

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Base your answers to the following four questions on the diagram and map below. The diagram shows three
seismograms of the same earthquake recorded at three different seismic stations, X, Y, and Z. The distances
from each seismic station to the earthquake epicenter have been drawn on the map. A coordinate system has
been placed on the map to describe locations. The map scale has not been included.

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[Link] how far away from station Y is the epicenter?
(1) 1,300 km
(2) 2,600 km
(3) 3,900 km
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(4) 5,200 km

[Link] S-waves from this earthquake that travel toward Earth’s center will
(1) be deflected by Earth’s magnetic field
(2) be totally reflected off the crust-mantle interface
(3) be absorbed by the liquid outer core
(4) reach the other side of Earth faster than those that travel around Earth in the crust

[Link] station Z is 1,700 kilometers from the epicenter. Approximately how long did it take the P-wave
to travel to station Z?
(1) 1 min 50 sec
(2) 2 min 50 sec
(3) 3 min 30 sec
(4) 6 min 30 sec

[Link] the map, which location is closest to the epicenter of the earthquake?
(1) E–5
(2) G–1
(3) H–3
(4) H–8

Base your answers to the following three questions on the diagram below. The diagram shows a model of the
relationship between Earth’s surface and its interior.

[Link]-ocean ridges (rifts) normally form where tectonic plates are

(1) converging

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(2) diverging
(3) stationary
(4) sliding past each other

[Link] motion of the convection currents in the mantle beneath the Atlantic Ocean appears to be mainly
making this ocean basin
(1) deeper
(2) shallower
(3) wider
(4) narrower

[Link] to the diagram, the deep trench along the west coast of South America is caused by
movement of the oceanic crust that is
(1) sinking beneath the continental crust
(2) uplifting over the continental crust
(3) sinking at the Mid-Atlantic ridge
(4) colliding with the Atlantic oceanic crust

[Link] photograph below shows an impact crater approximately 1 mile wide located in Diablo Canyon,
Arizona. Describe the event that produced this crater.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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191..Which cross section below best represents the crustal plate motion that is the primary cause of the
volcanoes and deep rift valleys found at mid-ocean ridges?

[Link] inferences about the characteristics of Earth’s mantle and core are based on
(1) the behavior of seismic waves in Earth’s interior
(2) well drillings from Earth’s mantle and core
(3) chemical changes in exposed and weathered metamorphic rocks
(4) comparisons between Moon rocks and Earth rocks

The seismogram below shows P-wave and S-wave arrival times at a seismic station following an earthquake.

[Link] distance from this seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake is approximately
(1) 1,600 km
(2) 3,200 km
(3) 4,400 km
(4) 5,600 km

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the reading passage and map of the western United
States below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The states of Washington and Oregon have been
labeled on the map. The plate boundary shown on the map is the source area for high-magnitude earthquakes
in Washington and Oregon. Two hazardous zones associated with these earthquakes are also shown.

Washington and Oregon Earthquakes

Large-magnitude earthquakes have occurred in Washington and Oregon as a result of
crustal movement along thrust faults bordering the coasts of these states. Thrust faults
occur when one section of Earth’s crust slides over another section. Associated with the sudden
movement of these thrust faults, coastlines can drop several feet, flooding forests with
saltwater. Geologists have discovered evidence from various geologic ages of flooded coastal
forests in the bedrock layers of Washington and Oregon. They have also found layers of
sandstone thought to have been derived from sand deposits left by tsunamis. Using the rock
record, scientists conclude that very large magnitude earthquakes occur every 300 to 500
years with the most recent large quake occurring about 200 years ago.

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194.a What is a tsunami?
b State how tsunamis can affect coastal regions.

195.a Identify the tectonic plates on both sides of the plate boundary shown on the map.
b Identify the type of tectonic plate boundary shown on the map that is responsible for the thrust faults along
the Washington and Oregon coastline.

The cross section below shows rock layers that underwent crustal movement during an igneous intrusion in
the Cretaceous Period.

[Link] statement best describes the cause of the ridges shown?
(1) The rock layers were evenly weathered.
(2) Some rock layers were more resistant to weathering and erosion.
(3) The igneous intrusion flowed over the surface.
(4) More deposition occurred at the ridge sites after uplift.

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The photograph below shows deformed rock structure found on Earth’s surface.

[Link] rock structure like this is most often caused by
(1) crustal plate collisions
(2) deposition of sediments
(3) extrusion of magma
(4) glacial movement

The seismogram below shows the time that an earthquake P-wave arrived at a seismic station in Albany,
New York.

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[Link] the earthquake occurred at exactly 10:00 p.m., approximately how far from the earthquake epicenter
was Albany, New York?
(1) 1,900 km
(2) 3,200 km
(3) 4,000 km
(4) 5,200 km

[Link] seismogram was recorded approximately 4,000 kilometers from an earthquake epicenter?

The diagram below shows a tectonic plate boundary.

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[Link] mantle hot spot is at a plate boundary like the one shown in this diagram?
(1) Hawaii Hot Spot
(2) Yellowstone Hot Spot
(3) Galapagos Hot Spot
(4) Canary Hot Spot

Base your answers to the following six questions on the reading passage and maps below and on your
knowledge of Earth science. The enlarged map shows the location of volcanoes in Colombia, South America.

Fire and Ice — and Sluggish Magma

On the night of November 13, 1985, Nevado del Ruiz, a 16,200-foot (4,938 meter)
snowcapped volcano in northwestern Colombia, erupted. Snow melted, sending a wall of mud and
water raging through towns as far as 50 kilometers away, and killing 25,000 people.
Long before disaster struck, Nevado del Ruiz was marked as a trouble spot. Like
Mexico City, where an earthquake killed at least 7,000 people in October 1985, Nevado del
Ruiz is located along the Ring of Fire. This ring of islands and the coastal lands along the
edge of the Pacific Ocean are prone to volcanic eruptions and crustal movements.
The ring gets its turbulent characteristics from the motion of the tectonic plates under
it. The perimeter of the Pacific, unlike that of the Atlantic, is located above active tectonic
plates. Nevado del Ruiz happens to be located near the junction of four plate boundaries.
In this area an enormous amount of heat is created, which melts the rock 100 to 200 kilometers
below Earth’s surface and creates magma.
Nevado del Ruiz hadn’t had a major eruption for 400 years before this tragedy. The
reason: sluggish magma. Unlike the runny, mafic magma that makes up the lava flows of
oceanic volcanoes such as those in Hawaii, the magma at this type of subduction plate
boundary tends to be sticky and slow moving, forming the rock andesite when it cools. This
andesitic magma tends to plug up the opening of the volcano. It sits in a magma chamber
underground with pressure continually building up. Suddenly, tiny cracks develop in Earth’s
crust, causing the pressure to drop. This causes the steam and other gases dissolved in the
magma to violently expand, blowing the magma plug free. Huge amounts of ash and debris
are sent flying, creating what is called an explosive eruption.
Oddly enough, the actual eruption of Nevado del Ruiz didn’t cause most of the destruction.
It was caused not by lava but by the towering walls of sliding mud created when large
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chunks of hot ash and pumice mixed with melted snow.

[Link] are the names of the four tectonic plates located near the Nevado del Ruiz volcano?

[Link] caused most of the destruction associated with the eruption of Nevado del Ruiz?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] caused the magma to expand, blowing the magma plug free?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] texture is very common in igneous rocks formed during andesitic eruptions.
Explain how this texture is formed.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] are eruptions of Nevado del Ruiz generally more explosive than most Hawaiian volcanic
eruptions?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] one emergency preparation that may reduce the loss of life from a future eruption of the
Nevado del Ruiz volcano.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] how long does an earthquake P-wave take to travel the first 6500 kilometers after the
earthquake occurs?
(1) 6.5 min
(2) 8.0 min
(3) 10.0 min
(4) 18.5 min

[Link] are the two most abundant elements by mass found in Earth’s crust?
(1) aluminum and iron
(2) sodium and chlorine
(3) calcium and carbon
(4) oxygen and silicon

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the map below. The map shows the locations of deep-
sea core drilling sites numbered 1 through 4. The approximate location of the East Pacific Ridge is shown by
a dashed line. Point A is located on the East Pacific Ridge.

[Link] point A, the East Pacific Ridge is the boundary between the
(1) Cocos Plate and the North American Plate
(2) South American Plate and the Nazca Plate
(3) Pacific Plate and the South American Plate
(4) Pacific Plate and the Nazca Plate

[Link] which drilling site would the oldest igneous bedrock most likely be found?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

[Link] to the thickness and density of the continental crust of South America, the oceanic crust of the
Pacific floor is
(1) thinner and less dense
(2) thinner and more dense
(3) thicker and less dense
(4) thicker and more dense

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the map below. Seismic stations are located at the four
cities shown on the map. Letter X represents the epicenter of an earthquake determined from seismic waves
recorded at all four cities.

[Link] which city is there a difference of approximately 3 minutes and 20 seconds between the arrival times
of the P-waves and the S-waves?
(1) New Orleans
(2) Louisville
(3) Pittsburgh
(4) New York City

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[Link] map correctly shows how the location of the epicenter was determined?

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The block diagram below shows the bedrock age as measured by radioactive dating and the present location
of part of the Hawaiian Island chain. These volcanic islands may have formed as the Pacific Plate
moved over a mantle hot spot.

[Link] diagram provides evidence that the Pacific Crustal Plate was moving toward the
(1) south
(2) east
(3) southwest
(4) northwest

Base your answers to the following two questions on the diagram below, which shows a portion of Earth’s
interior. Point A is a location on the interface between layers.

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[Link] arrows shown in the asthenosphere represent the inferred slow circulation of the plastic mantle by a
process called
(1) insolation
(2) convection
(3) conduction
(4) radiation

[Link] temperature of rock at location A is approximately

(1) 600°C
(2) 1,000°C
(3) 2,600°C
(4) 3,000°C

The diagram below shows the bedrock structure beneath a series of hills.

[Link] process was primarily responsible for forming the hills?

(1) folding
(2) faulting
(3) deposition
(4) vulcanism

The map below shows the Atlantic Ocean divided into zones A, B, C, and D. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is
located between zones B and C.

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[Link] graph best represents the geologic age of the surface bedrock on the ocean bottom?

[Link] plate boundaries may be classified as divergent, convergent, or transform. For each location
listed in the data table below, place an X in the proper column to indicate the type of plate boundary at that
location.

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220.A seismic station in Massena, New York, recorded the arrival of the first P-wave at [Link] (1 hour, 30
minutes, 00 seconds) and the first S-wave from the same earthquake at [Link].
a Determine the distance, in kilometers, from Massena to the epicenter of this earthquake.
b State what additional information is needed to determine the location of the epicenter of this earthquake.

Base your answers to the following four questions on the maps below, which show the spread of a volcanic
ash cloud from the 1982 eruption of El Chichón in Mexico, as seen from weather satellites.

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[Link] the direction toward which the ash cloud spread from April 5 to April 25.

______________________________________

[Link] what caused the main ash cloud to spread in the pattern shown on the map of April 25, 1982.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] the most likely effect of the ash cloud on the temperature of areas under the cloud on April 25,
1982.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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[Link] to the graph, what is the approximate number of days each year that thunderstorms occur at
locations along the 40° N parallel of latitude?
(1) 8 days
(2) 18 days
(3) 24 days
(4) 32 days

[Link] Mohorovičic´ discovered the interface between the crust and the mantle that is now named for
him. His discovery of the “Moho” was based on analysis of
(1) landscape boundaries
(2) continental coastlines
(3) erosional surfaces
(4) seismic waves

[Link] observed difference in density between continental crust and oceanic crust is most likely due to
differences in their
(1) composition
(2) thickness
(3) porosity
(4) rate of cooling

[Link] diagram correctly shows how mantle convection currents are most likely moving beneath
colliding lithospheric plates?
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Base your answers to the following two questions on the diagram below, which shows models of two types
of earthquake waves.

[Link] A best represents the motion of earthquake waves called
(1) P-waves (compressional waves) that travel faster than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
(2) P-waves (compressional waves) that travel slower than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B
(3) S-waves (shear waves) that travel faster than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B
(4) S-waves (shear waves) that travel slower than P-waves (compressional waves) shown in model B

[Link] difference in seismic station arrival times of the two waves represented by the models helps
scientists determine the
(1) amount of damage caused by an earthquake
(2) intensity of an earthquake
(3) distance to the epicenter of an earthquake
(4) time of occurrence of the next earthquake

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the map below, which shows the depths of selected
earthquakes along the crustal plate boundary near the west coast of South America. Letters A, B, C, and D are
epicenter locations along a west-to-east line at the surface. The relative depth of each earthquake is indicated.

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[Link] graph best shows the depth of earthquakes beneath epicenters A, B, C, and D?

[Link] earthquake beneath epicenter D occurred in which part of Earth’s interior?

(1) crust
(2) rigid mantle
(3) asthenosphere
(4) stiffer mantle

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Base your answers to the following two questions on the diagram below, which shows an incomplete concept
map identifying the types of plate boundaries. Information in the boxes labeled A, B, C, D, and E has been
deliberately omitted.

[Link] the chart provided below, write the information that should be placed in the boxes labeled A, B, and
C that will correctly complete those portions of the concept map.

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[Link] the geographic map provided below, write the letters D and E on the plate boundary locations where
the indicated movements are occurring. Write the letters approximately the same size as shown on the
concept map and locate the letters directly on the plate boundary.

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the map below, which shows the location of the Peru-
Chile Trench.

[Link] Peru-Chile Trench marks the boundary between the
(1) Pacific Plate and the Antarctic Plate
(2) Nazca Plate and the South American Plate
(3) North American Plate and the Cocos Plate
(4) Caribbean Plate and the Scotia Plate

[Link] which diagram do the arrows best represent the motions of Earth’s crust at the Peru-Chile Trench?

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[Link] observation provides the best evidence of the pattern of crustal movement at the Peru-Chile
Trench?
(1) the direction of flow of warm ocean currents
(2) the mineral composition of samples of mafic mantle rock
(3) comparison of the rates of sediment deposition
(4) the locations of shallow-focus and deep-focus earthquakes

Base your answers to the following three questions on the map and data table below. The map shows the
locations of volcanic islands and seamounts that erupted on the seafloor of the Pacific Plate as it moved
northwest over a stationary mantle hotspot beneath the lithosphere. The hotspot is currently under Kilauea.
Island size is not drawn to scale. Locations X, Y, and Z are on Earth’s surface.

!
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!

[Link] how far has location X moved from its original location over the hotspot?
(1) 3,600 km
(2) 2,500 km
(3) 1,800 km
(4) 20 km

[Link] to the data table, what is the approximate speed at which the island of Kauai has been moving
away from the mantle hotspot, in kilometers per million years?
(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 1,000

[Link] lithospheric plate boundary features are located at Y and Z?

(1) trenches created by the subduction of the Pacific Plate
(2) rift valleys created by seafloor spreading of the Pacific Plate
(3) secondary plates created by volcanic activity within the Pacific Plate
(4) mid-ocean ridges created by faulting below the Pacific Plate

The diagram below shows land features that have been disrupted by an earthquake.

[Link] type of crustal movement most likely caused the displacement of features in this area?
(1) vertical lifting of surface rock
(2) folding of surface rock

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(3) down-warping of the crust
(4) movement along a transform fault

Base your answers to the following two questions on the photograph below, which shows an outcrop of
sedimentary rock layers that have been tilted and slightly metamorphosed.

[Link] tilted rock structure shown in the photograph is most likely the result of the
(1) deposition of rock fragments on a mountain slope

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(2) reversal of past magnetic poles
(3) passage of seismic waves
(4) collision of crustal plates

[Link], slightly metamorphosed rock layers such as these are typically found in which New York State
landscape region?
(1) Taconic Mountains
(2) Atlantic Coastal Plain
(3) Tug Hill Plateau
(4) Erie-Ontario Lowlands

The diagram below is a seismogram of the famous San Francisco earthquake of 1906, recorded at a seismic
station located 6,400 kilometers from San Francisco.

[Link] time scale best represents the arrival-time difference between P-waves and S-waves at this
station?

Base your answers to the following two questions in part on the news article and map below. Points A and B
on the map are reference points.
Huge Quake Possible in Oregon Valley
Scientists have warned for years that a magnitude 8 or 9 earthquake could strike about
30 miles off the Oregon coast, causing huge tsunamis (large ocean waves) and tremendous

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damage.
Now scientists say these earthquakes could be centered much farther inland and cause
severe damage to a larger area, including cities in Oregon such as Portland, Salem, and
Eugene.
Geologic evidence suggests that strong quakes in this area occur about every 400 years,
plus or minus 200 years. The last one, believed to be a magnitude 9, occurred 300 years ago.
A magnitude 8 quake can cause tremendous damage. The San Francisco quake of 1906
has been estimated at 7.9. The Mexico City quake of 1985 that left thousands dead was
measured at 8.1.

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d How does the average earthquake depth beneath the Oregon coastline compare to the average earthquake
depth beneath Mt. Hood?

247.A huge undersea earthquake off the Alaskan coastline could produce a
(1) tsunami
(2) cyclone
(3) hurricane
(4) thunderstorm

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the data table below, which gives information
collected at seismic stations A, B, C, and D for the same earthquake. Some of the data has been deliberately
omitted.

[Link] is the most probable reason for the absence of S-waves at station A?
(1) S-waves cannot travel through liquids.
(2) S-waves were not generated at the epicenter.
(3) Station A was located on solid bedrock.
(4) Station A was located too close to the epicenter.

[Link] is the approximate distance from station C to the earthquake epicenter?

(1) 3,200 km
(2) 2,400 km
(3) 1,600 km
(4) 1,000 km

[Link] long did it take the P-wave to travel from the epicenter of the earthquake to seismic station D?
(1) [Link]
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]

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Base your answers to the following three questions on the map below, which shows the location of mid-
ocean ridges and the age of some oceanic bedrock near these ridges. Letters A through D are locations on the
surface of the ocean floor.

[Link] is the most probable age, in millions of years, of the bedrock at location B?
(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 48
(4) 62

[Link] convection currents in the asthenosphere would most likely be under location
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

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[Link] age of oceanic bedrock on either side of a mid-ocean ridge is supporting evidence that at the ridges,
tectonic plates are
(1) diverging
(2) converging
(3) locked in place
(4) being subducted

Base your answers to the following four questions on the passage and map below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. The passage provides some information about the sediments under Portland, Oregon, and the
map shows where Portland is located.

Bad seismic combination under Portland: Earthquake faults and jiggly sediment
Using a technique called seismic profiling, researchers have found evidence of ancient
earthquake faults under Portland, Oregon. The faults may still be active, a USGS [United
States Geological Survey] seismologist will announce tomorrow.
The research also turned up a 250-foot deep layer of silt and mud, deep under the city,
which may have been caused by a catastrophic ice dam break some 15,000 years ago.
The two findings could together mean bad news, as soft sediment is known to amplify
ground shaking during strong earthquakes. In the 1989 San Francisco earthquake, much of
the damage to buildings was caused by liquefaction, a shaking and sinking of sandy, water-saturated
soil along waterways. . . .
— Robert Roy Britt
excerpted from
“Bad seismic combination under Portland:
Earthquake faults and jiggly sediment”
[Link] 05/03/99

[Link] why Portland is likely to experience a major earthquake.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] is the presence of a layer of silt and mud deep under the city a danger to Portland?

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] one precaution that can be taken to prevent or reduce property damage in preparation for a
future earthquake in Portland.

_______________________________________________________________________________________

[Link] type of tectonic plate boundary is shown at the San Andreas Fault?

__________________________________________________

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Earth’s Crust Test Prep
Teacher Answer Key – Guide

[Link] to the plate tectonics theory, the Peru-Chile Trench and the Andes Mountains formed along the
west coast of South America because the South American Plate
1 collided with the Nazca Plate

[Link] the crust symbol represents basalt with normal magnetic polarity, what does the crust symbol
most likely represent?
2 igneous rock with reversed magnetic polarity

[Link] geological features of the ocean floor in this region resulted from
4 rising convection currents in the mantle

[Link] P-wave of an earthquake originating 2,600 kilometers from seismic station A arrived at [Link] a.m.
What was the arrival time of the S-wave from the same earthquake?
(3) [Link] a.m.

[Link] epicenter is closest to point

(1) D

[Link] landscape region probably resulted from the erosion of faulted rock layers?

[Link] location is closest to a divergent plate boundary at an oceanic ridge?

(1) A

[Link] surface location had the least damage?

(3) E

[Link] earthquake provides evidence for the existence of

3 faulting of bedrock at Northridge

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[Link] information would have been most useful for locating the earthquake epicenter?
1 the difference between the arrival times of the P-wave and the S-wave

[Link] greatest surface damage occurred in zone IX because

2 of local conditions at zone IX

[Link] crustal plate boundary is most closely associated with this earthquake?
4 North American Plate — Pacific Plate

[Link] statement most accurately compares Earth’s crust and Earth’s mantle?
1 The crust is thinner and less dense than the mantle.

[Link] on the theory of plate tectonics, it is inferred that over the past 250 million years North America
has moved toward the
(1) northwest

[Link] to tectonic plate maps, New York State is presently located

(4) near the center of a large plate

[Link] statement best explains why only one type of seismic wave was recorded at location B?
(1) S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core.

[Link] cross section below shows a drill rig used to collect rock samples from below Earth’s surface. The
rock samples collected from the bottom of the drill hole came from which Earth layer?
(1) lithosphere

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[Link] the map above, place an X on the map to show the location of the Nazca Plate.
The center of the student-drawn X is located somewhere on the Nazca Plate shaded below.

[Link] why most major earthquakes are found in specific zones instead of being randomly scattered
across Earth’s surface.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— Most major earthquakes occur at tectonic plate boundaries.
— Most earthquakes occur at the location of major fault zones.
— Crustal movement at plate boundaries causes frequent earthquake activity.

[Link] the source of the magma for the volcanic activity in Hawaii.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— a hot spot
— a magma plume
— the mantle

[Link] the type of plate movement responsible for the presence of the volcano at location A.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— divergent
— diverging lithospheric plates
— seafloor spreading
— rifting

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[Link] which Earth layer are most convection currents that cause seafloor spreading thought to be located?
(2) asthenosphere

[Link] earthquake’s magnitude can be determined by

(1) analyzing the seismic waves recorded by a seismograph

[Link] graph best shows the inferred density of Earth’s interior as depth increases from the upper mantle
to the lower mantle?

[Link] block diagram below shows a tectonic plate boundary. Points A and B represent locations on Earth’s
surface. Which graph best shows the depths of most major earthquakes whose epicenters lie between A and
B?

[Link] the time of the eruption, the wind direction was primarily from the
(3) north

[Link] many centimeters thick was the ash beneath point X?

(2) 15

[Link] addition to the ash, solid rock formed on Mt. Hekla from the lava extruded during this eruption. This
rock is most likely
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(3) fine-grained igneous

[Link] the approximate temperature at point X.

Any value from 500°C to 1200°C

[Link] what tectonic plate are both North Island and White Island located?
Indian-Australian Plate

[Link] the type of tectonic plate motion that formed the Hikurangi Trench.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— subduction
— convergence
— plate collision

[Link] one action that people on North Island should take if a tsunami warning is issued.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— move to higher ground
— evacuate
— move inland

[Link] which materials can P-waves travel?

4 solid rock, magma, water, and natural gas

[Link] observed feature would provide the best evidence of crustal stability?
1 horizontal sedimentary layers

[Link] cross-sectional diagram of a portion of the crust and mantle best shows the pattern of mantle
convection currents that are believed to cause the formation of a mid-ocean ridge?

[Link] diagram below shows a cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust. Altitude is shown in meters above
sea level. This landscape region is best classified as an eroded
2 plateau

[Link] thinnest section of Earth’s crust is found beneath

1 oceans

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[Link] which layer of Earth’s interior is the inferred temperature 6,000°C?
3 outer core

[Link] have classified Earth’s interior into the zones shown based primarily on evidence gained by
studying
4 earthquake seismic waves

[Link] composition of Earth’s core is thought to be the same as the composition of many
1 meteorites

[Link] graph best represents the relationship between depth below Earth’s surface and density?

[Link] diagram below shows the interaction of two tectonic plates. The type of plate boundary represented
in the diagram most likely exists between the
(3) South American Plate and the Nazca Plate

[Link] the latitude and longitude of this earthquake epicenter. Express your answers to the nearest tenth of
a degree and include the compass directions.
44.5° N (latitude) and 73.7° W (longitude) - The correct compass directions and degrees must be
included for both latitude and longitude.

[Link] is the minimum number of seismographic stations needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
3 or three

[Link] why this earthquake was most likely felt with greater intensity by people in Peru, New York, than
by people in Lake Placid, New York.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
Peru is closer to the epicenter.

[Link] why most earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location B are shallower than most
earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location C.
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Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
Location B is at a transform fault, and location C is at a subduction boundary.
Location B has horizontal plate movement, but location C has vertical plate movement.
There is a transform plate boundary at B.
There is a subducting plate at C.

[Link] why location A has a greater probability of experiencing a major earthquake than location D.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
A is located at a plate boundary, and D is not located at a plate boundary.
Crustal plates are colliding at A, and no plate collision is occurring at D.
Location A is on the Pacific Ring of Fire.

[Link] why a volcanic eruption is more likely to occur at location E than at location F.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
E is located above a mantle hot spot.
E is the Canary Islands Hot Spot.
F is near the center of a tectonic plate.

[Link] why the geologic age of the oceanic bedrock increases from location G to location H.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
Location G is at the ridge and is presently forming, while H was at the ridge in the past.
Location H is moving away from the new crust forming in the region at G.
The youngest ocean-floor bedrock is at the mid-ocean ridge.
The plates are diverging at the Southeast Indian Ridge.

[Link] coastal area is most likely to experience a severe earthquake?

(4) west coast of South America

55.A seismic station 4000 kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake records the arrival time of the first
P-wave at [Link]. At what time did the first S-wave arrive at this station?
(2) [Link]

[Link] statement correctly describes the density of Earth’s mantle compared to the density of Earth’s core
and crust?
(1) The mantle is less dense than the core but more dense than the crust.

[Link] currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the
(4) Iceland Hot Spot

[Link] in the block diagram below show the relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.
Between which two tectonic plates does this type of plate boundary exist?
(4) Pacific Plate and North American Plate

[Link] one of the minerals found in the andesite rock of the Three Sisters volcanoes.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— quartz
— plagioclase feldspar
— biotite
— amphibole (hornblende)
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— pyroxene
Note: Do not accept feldspar only.

[Link] cross section below represents Earth’s interior beneath the Three Sisters. Place a triangle, ▲, on the
cross section to indicate the location where the new volcano will most likely form.
A ▲ should be placed on Earth’s surface above the magma chamber. Also allow credit if a symbol
other than a ▲ is used.

[Link] the same cross section above, place arrows through each point, X, Y, and Z, to indicate the relative
motion of each of these sections of the lithosphere.
Three arrows should show the correct directions, even if the arrows do not pass through the dots.

Example of a correct response for the previous 2 questions:

[Link] photograph below represents a mountainous area in the Pacific Northwest. Scientists believe that
sedimentary rocks like those represent evidence of crustal change because these rocks were
3 originally deposited in horizontal layers

[Link] far from an earthquake epicenter is a city where the difference between the P-wave and S-wave
arrival times is 6 minutes and 20 seconds?
(4) 4.7 x 103 km

[Link] photograph below shows a large crater located in the southwestern United States. Some fragments
taken from the site have a nickel-iron composition. This evidence indicates that the crater probably was
formed by
1 the impact of a meteorite from space

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[Link] map best represents the general pattern of magnetism in the oceanic bedrock near the mid-
Atlantic Ridge?

[Link] features are commonly formed at the plate boundaries where continental crust converges with
oceanic crust?
2 a deep ocean trench and a continental volcanic mountain range near the coast

[Link] pattern of distribution of the ash from the volcano was most likely caused by the direction of the
4 atmospheric air movements

[Link] age of this volcanic eruption was most accurately determined to be Holocene by measuring the
radioactive
2 carbon in trees buried by the ash

[Link] volcanic eruption is most useful to scientists today as a relative time marker in the geologic record of
this map region because the
3 volcanic ash spread quickly over a large area

[Link] city has the greatest danger of damage from an earthquake?

2 Parkfield

[Link] fault zone is located along the boundary between which two crustal plates?
2 North American plate and Pacific plate

[Link] a large earthquake were to occur at San Diego, the earliest indication at another California location of
the occurrence of that earthquake would be the arrival of the
(3) P-waves at Oceanside

[Link] diagram best represents the relative movements of the crustal plates along the San Andreas Fault in
the map area?

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[Link] map best represents the location of the primary San Andreas Fault line?

The drawing below shows the effects of an earthquake on a small part of Earth’s surface. Letters A and B
indicate land on opposite sides of a cliff that formed along a fault during the earthquake.
[Link] relation to the position of side B, the movement of side A was
4 westward and upward

76.A student set up the activity shown in the diagram below to demonstrate how convection cells in Earth’s
mantle could cause crustal plates to converge. Which diagram shows the bet placement of heat sources to
cause the blocks to converge?

77.A seismograph records the arrival of a P-wave at 11:13 a.m. If the earthquake occurred 4,000 kilometers
from the recording station, when did the earthquake occur?
(1) 11:06 a.m.

[Link] which depth below Earth’s surface is the density most likely 9.5 grams per cubic centimeter?
(3) 3,500 km

[Link] letter is located on the boundary between two landscape regions?

(2) B

[Link] happens to P-waves and S-waves from a crustal earthquake when the waves reach Earth’s outer
core?
(2) P-waves are transmitted through the outer core, but S-waves are not transmitted.

[Link] are earthquakes on and around Hawaii located?

4 scattered across the area

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[Link] collected from the side of Kilauea Volcano has the following mineral composition: 5% plagioclase
feldspar, 68% pyroxene, 25% olivine, and 2% hornblende. What type of rock is this?
2 scoria

[Link] inference concerning the distribution of earthquakes and recent volcanic eruptions on this island is
most accurate?
3 Many earthquakes occur near recent volcanic eruptions.

84.A scientist wants to film underwater volcanic activity that is forming a new island in the Hawaiian Island
chain. In which direction from Hawaii should she concentrate her efforts?
3 southeast

[Link] is located near the middle of which tectonic plate?

4 Pacific plate

[Link] is the primary method of heat transfer through solid rock during contact metamorphism?
4 conduction

[Link] is the approximate location of the earthquake’s epicenter?

(1) 36° N, 90° W

[Link] was the approximate travel time for the earthquake’s P-wave from the epicenter to Syracuse, New
York?
(3) 3 min

[Link] city would have issued the report: “Heavy furniture moved, everyone felt the earthquake, and
many people were frightened and ran outdoors”?
1 Cincinnati

[Link] statement best describes the earthquake waves recorded at Louisville?

(2) P-waves arrived ahead of S-waves.

[Link] which city was the difference in arrival times between P-waves and S-waves greatest?
4 Boston

[Link] and erosion occurred after the formation of the

(3) Erie coal, but before formation of Freeport sandstone

[Link] which surface location is Earth’s crust the thinnest?

(1) East Pacific Ridge

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94. Which cross section best shows the inferred thickness of Earth’s interior layers that cause these different
velocities?

[Link] diagram best shows the magnetic pattern and relative age of the igneous bedrock on the west side
of the ridge?

[Link] Tonga Trench is located at the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the
(3) Indian-Australian Plate

[Link] greatest number of earthquakes shown in the cross section occurred

(4) at a depth between 300 and 600 km

[Link] cross section has arrows that best represent the relative motion of the crustal plates along the
Wadati-Benioff zone beneath the Tonga Trench?

[Link] latitude and longitude of the center of Vanau Leva is closest to

(3) 17° S 179° E
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[Link] how the seismic tracings recorded at station A and station B indicate that station A is farther
from the earthquake epicenter than station B.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— The arrival time of the P-wave at station A is later than the arrival time
of the P-wave at station B.
— The arrival time difference between the P-wave and S-wave is greater at station A.
— The amplitudes of the P-wave and S-wave tracings are greater on the seismogram at
station B.

[Link] station A is located 5,400 kilometers from the epicenter of the earthquake.
How much time would it take for the first S-wave produced by this earthquake to reach seismic station A?
15 minutes 50 seconds (±10 seconds)

[Link] an asteroid struck Earth 65 million years ago, what surface feature was most likely created by this
asteroid impact?
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— crater
— impact crater
— large hole

[Link] one geologic process occurring on Earth that could have hidden or even destroyed this inferred
impact feature.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— deposition of sediment
— erosion
— subduction
— volcanic lava flow
— weathering

[Link] how an asteroid impact may have been able to cause a worldwide mass extinction of dinosaurs.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— Dust that was thrown into Earth’s atmosphere caused a change in Earth’s climate.
— The impact caused fires that killed plants and animals.
— Dust from the impact blocked sunlight that cooled Earth and caused many green plants to
die.

[Link] volcanic eruptions send dust and ash into the stratosphere. Weeks after such great eruptions, air
temperatures are often
(1) cooler than normal because the atmosphere is less transparent

[Link] are the most likely geologic ages of volcanoes B and D?

(1) B is 5 million years old and D is 12 million years old.

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[Link] the texture and relative density of the granitic bedrock of the continental crust and the basaltic
bedrock of the oceanic crust.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
Granitic bedrock
Texture: Density:
— coarse — low density
— nonvesicular — 2.7 g/cm3

Basaltic bedrock
Texture: Density :
— fine — high density
— vesicular or nonvesicular — 3.0 g/cm3

[Link] minerals biotite and amphibole may be found in igneous bedrock of both the oceanic crust and the
continental crust. Identify two other minerals commonly found in the basaltic oceanic crust.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— olivine
— pyroxene or augite
— plagioclase or plagioclase feldspar
Note: Do not accept “feldspar” only.

[Link] the part of Earth’s lithosphere represented by layer X.

Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— rigid mantle
— uppermost part of the mantle

[Link] the crustal feature located at point A.

Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— trench
— Peru-Chile trench
— a subduction zone
— a convergent boundary
— a fault

[Link] the tectonic plate motion that is causing an increase in the distance between South America and
Africa.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— divergence
— seafloor spreading

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[Link] samples were taken at the mid-ocean ridge and points B and C. On the grid below, draw a line
to show the relative age of the bedrock samples between these locations.
Example response:
The line may be curved or straight and the lowest point should be at the mid-ocean ridge.

[Link] seismogram recorded at station A would show the

(2) earliest arrival time of P-waves

[Link] movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

(3) convection currents in the asthenosphere

[Link] two tectonic plates are separated by a mid-ocean ridge?

(4) North American and Eurasian

[Link] the type of tectonic plate motion represented by the arrow shown at D.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— subduction
— convergence

[Link] the type of tectonic motion represented by the arrows shown at A, B, and C.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— transform movement
— faulting
— The plates slide past each other.

[Link] elements are represented by the letters a and b, respectively?

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4 oxygen and silicon

[Link] to the continental crust, the oceanic crust is

2 more dense

122. Which statement best explains this pattern of wave recordings?

(4) Layers with different properties inside Earth absorb or bend seismic waves.

[Link] between oceanic plates and continental plates are thought to result primarily from
2 convection currents in the mantle

[Link] information indicates that new seafloor rock is forming along a mid-ocean ridge and then moving
horizontally away from the ridge?
4 The age of seafloor rock increases as the distance from the mid-ocean ridge increases.

[Link] earthquake shear wave generally travels faster as the wave moves deeper into Earth’s interior
because greater depths have
3 greater rock density

[Link] location on the map below is closest to the epicenter of this earthquake?
(3) Y

[Link] seismogram was recorded at Tampa?

3 seismogram C

[Link] was the origin time of this earthquake?

(1) [Link] a.m.

[Link] is the minimum number of seismic stations needed to locate most earthquake epicenters?
(3) 3

[Link] type of rock most likely formed in zone A?

3 marble

[Link] the cross sections most likely represent areas of

2 mountain building

[Link] information in a meaningful way, such as grouping these cross sections, is an example of
4 classification

134.A seismic station received the P-waves generated by an earthquake but did not receive the S-waves.
Which statement best explains the absence of the S-waves?
3 The S-waves were absorbed by a liquid layer as they traveled toward the seismic station.

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[Link] difference between gabbro bedrock and granite bedrock causes seismic waves to travel faster in
gabbro than in granite?
1 Gabbro is more dense than granite.
.
[Link] letter represents the location of the mid-Atlantic Ridge?
(3) C

[Link] far is station X from the earthquake epicenter?

(4) 4,000 km

[Link] long did the P-wave take to travel from the earthquake epicenter to station Y?
(4) 5 min 40 sec

[Link] the earthquake’s focus was 2 kilometers below Earth’s surface, the earthquake occurred in the
1 lithosphere

[Link] to the speed of S-waves in a given Earth material, the speed of P-waves is
2 always faster

[Link] Z recorded a time difference of 6 minutes 40 seconds between the arrival of the P-waves and the
arrival of the S-waves. The earthquake epicenter was located closest to location
(2) B

[Link] two elements that make up the largest percentage by mass of Earth’s crust are oxygen and
(1) silicon

[Link] processes most likely formed the shale bedrock found near Ithaca, New York?
(4) melting and recrystallization

[Link] processes most likely formed the shale bedrock found near Ithaca, New York?
(2) burial and compaction

[Link] the United States, most of the major damage expected from a future earthquake is predicted to occur
near a
(4) transform plate boundary and a hot spot

[Link] New York State location has the greatest risk of earthquake damage?
(3) Plattsburgh

[Link] the information shown on the seismogram that was used to determine that the distance to the
epicenter was 500 kilometers.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— the lag time between the P-wave arrival and the S-wave arrival
— the difference in arrival time for the P-wave and S-wave
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— the P-wave and S-wave arrival times
— 61 seconds

[Link] long did it take the first S-wave to travel 500 kilometers to reach this seismic station?
Allow credit for any answer from 2 minutes 0 seconds to 2 minutes 20 seconds.

[Link] the map below, place an X on the location of the major hydrothermal vent described in the passage.
Allow credit if the center of the X falls within the circle shown.

[Link] the relative motion of the two tectonic plates on either side of the Gakkel Ridge.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— The plates are moving apart or spreading.
— The tectonic plates are moving away from each other.
— The ridge is a diverging plate boundary.
— rifting

[Link] Gakkel Ridge is a boundary between which two tectonic plates?

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Allow credit for both North American Plate and Eurasian Plate.

[Link] one feature, other than hydrothermal vents, often found at mid-ocean ridges like the Gakkel
Ridge that indicates heat from Earth’s interior is escaping.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
— magma/lava
— volcanoes
— smoker vents

[Link] the two minerals that were most likely found in the igneous bedrock samples collected at the
Gakkel Ridge.
Allow credit for both pyroxene (augite) and olivine.

[Link] diagram below shows a view of the ground from directly above a flagpole in New York State at
solar noon on a particular day of the year. The flagpole’s shadow at solar noon is shown. Draw the position
and relative length of the shadow that would be cast by this flagpole three hours later.
• Allow 1 credit if the shadow three hours later is drawn within the dashed lines shown below.
• Allow 1 credit if the length of the shadow after three hours is longer than the solar noon shadow.
Allow this credit even if the direction of the shadow is incorrectly drawn.

[Link] long would it take for the first S-wave to arrive at a seismic station 4,000 kilometers away from
the epicenter of an earthquake?
(3) 12 min 40 sec

[Link] photograph shows that the fault most likely formed

(1) after the rock layers were deposited, when the north side moved downward

[Link] mountain range resulted from the collision of North America and Africa, as parts of Pangea
joined together in the late Pennsylvanian Period?
(1) Appalachian Mountains

[Link] two most abundant elements by mass in Earth’s crust are oxygen and
(4) silicon

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[Link] cross section best represents the plate boundaries and mantle movement beneath line AB?

[Link] diagrams below show four major types of fault motion occurring in Earth’s crust. Which type of
fault motion best matches the general pattern of crustal movement at California’s San Andreas fault?

[Link] which geologic epoch did the volcanic activity shown on the table occur?
Allow credit for Holocene Epoch.

[Link] the cross section provided below, place an arrow in the continental crust and an arrow in the oceanic
crust to show the relative directions of plate movement.
Allow credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:

[Link] layer of Earth is composed of both the crust and the rigid mantle?
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Allow credit for lithosphere.

[Link] the grid provided below, plot the depths of the five earthquakes from location A toward location B.
Allow credit if four or five points are correctly plotted (±10 km). Acceptable responses include, but are

not limited to, this example:

[Link] the type of plate boundary or geologic feature found at location B.

Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Mariana Trench
trench

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subduction zone
overriding plate
subduction plate

[Link] statement correctly describes the distance between the earthquake epicenter and these seismic
stations?
(3) C is closest to the epicenter, and A is farthest from the epicenter.

[Link] will be the primary result of the continuation of the geologic processes indicated at this location?
(4) New oceanic crust will form.

[Link] type of crustal plate boundary is shown in this diagram?

(1) divergent

[Link]’s crust is described as “constantly shifting and moving.” Give one example of geologic evidence
that supports the conclusion that continents have drifted apart.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Continent shapes fit together like puzzle parts.
Sea-floor spreading occurs at mid-ocean ridges.
Bedrock can be correlated on the opposite sides of some oceans.
Fossil evidence is found in the matching bedrock of South America and Africa.
matching mountain ranges between continents

[Link] information given suggests that “subduction processes are the driving force of plate tectonics.”
Identify a specific location of a subduction zone on Earth.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
west coast of South America
Aleutian Trench
boundary of Juan de Fuca Plate and North American Plate

[Link] to the Earth Science Reference Tables, at what inferred depth is mantle rock partially melted
and slowly moving below the lithospheric plates?
Any response from 70 to 700 kilometers.

[Link] to the geologic record, during which geologic time period did the lithospheric plates that
made up Pangea begin to break up?
Triassic Period

[Link] study of how seismic waves change as they travel through Earth has revealed that
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(4) Earth’s outer core is liquid because S-waves are not transmitted through this layer

[Link] did the first P-waves arrive at this seismic station?

(2) 5 minutes after an earthquake occurred 2,600 km away

[Link] many additional seismic stations must report seismogram information in order to locate
this earthquake?
(2) two

[Link] model most accurately shows the movements (arrows) associated with the surface features shown
in the diagram?

[Link] hottest crustal temperature measurements would most likely be found at location
(3) C

[Link] table best shows the relative densities of the crustal bedrock at locations A, B, C, and D?

133 of 144
[Link] graph best shows the relative age of the ocean-floor bedrock from location B to location C?

[Link] how far away from station Y is the epicenter?

(2) 2,600 km

[Link] S-waves from this earthquake that travel toward Earth’s center will
(3) be absorbed by the liquid outer core

[Link] station Z is 1,700 kilometers from the epicenter. Approximately how long did it take the P-wave
to travel to station Z?
(3) 3 min 30 sec

[Link] the map, which location is closest to the epicenter of the earthquake?
(3) H–3

[Link]-ocean ridges (rifts) normally form where tectonic plates are

(2) diverging

[Link] motion of the convection currents in the mantle beneath the Atlantic Ocean appears to be mainly
making this ocean basin
(3) wider

[Link] to the diagram, the deep trench along the west coast of South America is caused by
movement of the oceanic crust that is
(1) sinking beneath the continental crust

[Link] photograph below shows an impact crater approximately 1 mile wide located in Diablo Canyon,
Arizona. Describe the event that produced this crater.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:
Barringer Crater was caused by the impact of a meteorite (or meteor or comet or asteroid).

[Link] cross section below best represents the crustal plate motion that is the primary cause of the
volcanoes and deep rift valleys found at mid-ocean ridges?

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[Link] inferences about the characteristics of Earth’s mantle and core are based on
(1) the behavior of seismic waves in Earth’s interior

[Link] distance from this seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake is approximately
(3) 4,400 km

194.a What is a tsunami?

b State how tsunamis can affect coastal regions.
a Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
large ocean wave or series of ocean waves generated by an earthquake
wave caused by an earthquake
Note: Accept the commonly used term tidal wave, but do not accept the response that tsunamis are
caused by tides.

b Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
flooding
bringing in sand deposits
destruction of coastal property

a Allow credit for Juan de Fuca Plate and North American Plate.
b Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
subduction zone
convergent plate boundary
or
Allow credit for a response that is consistent with the student’s answer for a.
Note: Do not allow credit for thrust faults.

[Link] statement best describes the cause of the ridges shown?

(2) Some rock layers were more resistant to weathering and erosion.

[Link] rock structure like this is most often caused by

(1) crustal plate collisions

[Link] the earthquake occurred at exactly 10:00 p.m., approximately how far from the earthquake epicenter
was Albany, New York?
(3) 4,000 km

135 of 144
[Link] seismogram was recorded approximately 4,000 kilometers from an earthquake epicenter?

[Link] mantle hot spot is at a plate boundary like the one shown in this diagram?
(3) Galapagos Hot Spot

[Link] are the names of the four tectonic plates located near the Nevado del Ruiz volcano?
Allow credit if all four plates are correctly named. The correct responses are shown below.
(1) South American Plate
(2) Cocos Plate
(3) Caribbean Plate
(4) Nazca Plate

[Link] caused most of the destruction associated with the eruption of Nevado del Ruiz?
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
mass movement of mud down the mountain
a mud avalanche
It melted snow, causing mudslides.
Hot ash and pumice melted snow, creating landslides.

[Link] caused the magma to expand, blowing the magma plug free?
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
a drop in pressure on the magma
Steam and gases that were dissolved in the magma violently expanded.
Cracks in Earth’s crust lowered pressure on the magma.
Magma pressure cracked the overlying rocks, releasing the gases.

[Link] texture is very common in igneous rocks formed during andesitic eruptions.
Explain how this texture is formed.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Escaping gas bubbles are trapped in the rapidly cooling magma.
Gas/air pockets form in the rock as it cools.

136 of 144
[Link] are eruptions of Nevado del Ruiz generally more explosive than most Hawaiian volcanic
eruptions?
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Hawaiian magma is mafic and the magma of the Nevado del Ruiz volcano is andesitic.
Hawaiian magma is runny and the magma of Nevado del Ruiz is thick and slow moving.
Hawaii is located at a hot spot in the center of the Pacific Plate. Nevado del Ruiz is near a
subduction plate boundary.

[Link] one emergency preparation that may reduce the loss of life from a future eruption of the
Nevado del Ruiz volcano.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Geologists should monitor conditions and provide early warning.
People should leave their houses when early warning of an eruption is given.
Avoid building homes in valleys.
People should be discouraged from building near the volcano.
Evacuation routes should be publicized.
Predicted mudslide routes should be identified.

[Link] how long does an earthquake P-wave take to travel the first 6500 kilometers after the
earthquake occurs?
(3) 10.0 min

[Link] are the two most abundant elements by mass found in Earth’s crust?
(4) oxygen and silicon

[Link] point A, the East Pacific Ridge is the boundary between the
(4) Pacific Plate and the Nazca Plate

[Link] which drilling site would the oldest igneous bedrock most likely be found?
(1) 1

[Link] to the thickness and density of the continental crust of South America, the oceanic crust of the
Pacific floor is
(2) thinner and more dense

[Link] which city is there a difference of approximately 3 minutes and 20 seconds between the arrival times
of the P-waves and the S-waves?
(1) New Orleans

[Link] map correctly shows how the location of the epicenter was determined?

137 of 144
[Link] diagram provides evidence that the Pacific Crustal Plate was moving toward the
(4) northwest

[Link] arrows shown in the asthenosphere represent the inferred slow circulation of the plastic mantle by a
process called
(2) convection

[Link] temperature of rock at location A is approximately

(3) 2,600°C

[Link] process was primarily responsible for forming the hills?

(2) faulting

[Link] graph best represents the geologic age of the surface bedrock on the ocean bottom?

138 of 144
220.A seismic station in Massena, New York, recorded the arrival of the first P-wave at [Link] (1 hour, 30
minutes, 00 seconds) and the first S-wave from the same earthquake at [Link].
a Determine the distance, in kilometers, from Massena to the epicenter of this earthquake.
b State what additional information is needed to determine the location of the epicenter of this earthquake.
a Allow credit for 3,000 km (±200 km).
b Allow credit for data from two additional seismic stations.

[Link] the direction toward which the ash cloud spread from April 5 to April 25.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
toward Asia (Africa)
westward across the Pacific Ocean

[Link] what caused the main ash cloud to spread in the pattern shown on the map of April 25, 1982.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
prevailing or planetary winds
the spin of Earth and the Coriolis effect on wind direction

[Link] the most likely effect of the ash cloud on the temperature of areas under the cloud on April 25,
1982.
temperatures decreased

[Link] the ash cloud moved away from El Chichón, some ash particles fell back to Earth.
a Describe how the size of the particles affected the pattern of deposition.
b Describe how the density of the particles affected the pattern of deposition.
a Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:
Larger particles fell closer to the volcano.
b Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:
More dense particles fell closer to the volcano.

[Link] to the graph, what is the approximate number of days each year that thunderstorms occur at
locations along the 40° N parallel of latitude?
(1) 8 days

[Link] Mohorovičic´ discovered the interface between the crust and the mantle that is now named for
him. His discovery of the “Moho” was based on analysis of

139 of 144
(4) seismic waves

[Link] observed difference in density between continental crust and oceanic crust is most likely due to
differences in their
(1) composition

[Link] diagram correctly shows how mantle convection currents are most likely moving beneath
colliding lithospheric plates?

[Link] A best represents the motion of earthquake waves called

(1) P-waves (compressional waves) that travel faster than S-waves (shear waves) shown in model B

[Link] difference in seismic station arrival times of the two waves represented by the models helps
scientists determine the
(3) distance to the epicenter of an earthquake

[Link] graph best shows the depth of earthquakes beneath epicenters A, B, C, and D?

[Link] earthquake beneath epicenter D occurred in which part of Earth’s interior?

(3) asthenosphere

[Link] the chart provided below, write the information that should be placed in the boxes labeled A, B, and
C that will correctly complete those portions of the concept map.
Allow credit if all three answers are correct.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:

140 of 144
[Link] the geographic map provided below, write the letters D and E on the plate boundary locations where
the indicated movements are occurring. Write the letters approximately the same size as shown on the
concept map and locate the letters directly on the plate boundary.
Allow credit for writing the letter D on any transform plate boundary. Student answers locating D
over major transform ocean-ridge faults should also be accepted for credit and for writing the letter E
on any subduction plate boundary between an oceanic plate and a continental plate.
The diagram below shows examples of locations where the letters D and E could be placed.

[Link] Peru-Chile Trench marks the boundary between the

(2) Nazca Plate and the South American Plate

[Link] which diagram do the arrows best represent the motions of Earth’s crust at the Peru-Chile Trench?

[Link] observation provides the best evidence of the pattern of crustal movement at the Peru-Chile
Trench?
(4) the locations of shallow-focus and deep-focus earthquakes

141 of 144
[Link] how far has location X moved from its original location over the hotspot?
(3) 1,800 km

[Link] to the data table, what is the approximate speed at which the island of Kauai has been moving
away from the mantle hotspot, in kilometers per million years?
(3) 100

[Link] lithospheric plate boundary features are located at Y and Z?

(1) trenches created by the subduction of the Pacific Plate

[Link] type of crustal movement most likely caused the displacement of features in this area?
(4) movement along a transform fault

[Link] tilted rock structure shown in the photograph is most likely the result of the
(4) collision of crustal plates

[Link], slightly metamorphosed rock layers such as these are typically found in which New York State
landscape region?
(1) Taconic Mountains

[Link] time scale best represents the arrival-time difference between P-waves and S-waves at this

station?

[Link] cross section below shows the lithosphere and asthenosphere between points A and B on the map.
a On the cross section provided below, draw an arrow in the Juan de Fuca Plate to indicate the direction of
the relative movement of the plate.
b Identify the type of tectonic plate boundary that exists at the Juan de Fuca Ridge.
c Identify the name of the plate in the cross section labeled x.
d How does the average earthquake depth beneath the Oregon coastline compare to the average earthquake
depth beneath Mt. Hood?
a Allow credit for correctly drawing an arrow in the direction of the relative movement in the Juan de
Fuca Plate. Student answers should appear generally like the diagram.

142 of 144
b divergent or mid-ocean ridge plate boundary.
c Pacific Plate.
d Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:
Earthquakes along the Oregon coastline are not as deep as earthquakes that occur beneath Mt. Hood.

[Link] emergency management specialist in Portland, Oregon, is developing a plan that would help save
lives or prevent property damage in the event of a future earthquake. Describe two actions or ideas that
should be included in the plan.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
plan evacuation routes
identifying relative earthquake hazard zones or areas that are subject to damage during an
earthquake
plan emergency communication procedures (radio broadcast)
developing emergency information brochures
store food, supplies, and fresh water
build earthquake-proof structures
practice emergency rescue drills
identify shelter locations

247.A huge undersea earthquake off the Alaskan coastline could produce a
(1) tsunami

[Link] is the most probable reason for the absence of S-waves at station A?
(1) S-waves cannot travel through liquids.

[Link] is the approximate distance from station C to the earthquake epicenter?

(3) 1,600 km

[Link] long did it take the P-wave to travel from the epicenter of the earthquake to seismic station D?
(4) [Link]

[Link] is the most probable age, in millions of years, of the bedrock at location B?
(3) 48

[Link] convection currents in the asthenosphere would most likely be under location
143 of 144
(3) C

[Link] age of oceanic bedrock on either side of a mid-ocean ridge is supporting evidence that at the ridges,
tectonic plates are
(1) diverging

[Link] why Portland is likely to experience a major earthquake.

Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Tectonic plates are shifting in this region.
The ancient faults detected under Portland may still be active.
Soft sediment causes minor earthquakes to become major earthquakes.
Portland is located near a plate boundary.
Note: Do not allow credit for hot spot.

[Link] is the presence of a layer of silt and mud deep under the city a danger to Portland?
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Soft sediment can amplify earthquake ground movement.
Buildings can be damaged by liquefaction within those sediments during the earthquakes.
Structures can collapse, tilt, or sink during an earthquake.

[Link] one precaution that can be taken to prevent or reduce property damage in preparation for a
future earthquake in Portland.
Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Reinforce buildings to provide greater stability.
Make buildings more flexible.
Redesign or reconstruct highway overpasses.
Rewrite or enforce strict building codes.
Restrict building in surface areas identified as more susceptible to earthquake damage.

[Link] type of tectonic plate boundary is shown at the San Andreas Fault?
transform plate boundary or transform fault or transform.
Note: Do not allow credit for faulting, fault, or hot spot.

144 of 144
Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematic Schools
Second Term Final Exam
2015– 2016

Subject: Earth science Grade 10

Time: 120 minutes

Instructions
 Use Blue ink, ballpoint pen or pencil.
 Answer all questions.
 Answer the questions in the spaces provided – there may be more space
than you need.

Information
 You can use the BLANK PAGE at the end of the questions as draft
papers.
 Candidates may use a scientific calculator.

Advice
 Read each question carefully before you start to answer it.
 Keep an eye on the time. Try to answer every question.
 If you do not know the answer to a question, go on to the next question.
You may come back to the skipped question later if you have time.
 Check your answers if you have time at the end.
1 LO1.06
The diagram below shows a subduction zone. Which location is most likely to
contain minerals that are stable at high pressures and low temperatures?

A- Location A
B- Location B
C- Location C
D- Location D

2 LO1.06
What would you expect to find in rocks formed through contact
metamorphism?
A- Rock that has experienced only low-grade metamorphism throughout
Rock over widespread areas that has experienced similar degrees of
B-
metamorphism
C- Minerals that are stable at high temperatures and low pressures
D- Minerals that is stable at low temperatures and high pressures

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 2 of 15

3 LO1.06
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the process of hydrothermal
alteration?
A- It is common around igneous intrusions.
During this process chemical reactions occur between a hot fluid and
B-
preexisting country rock
C- It rarely changes the composition of the preexisting country rock.
D- Many types of metallic ore deposits are formed by this process.
4 LO1.06
Metamorphic rocks are often found in association with what geologic event?
A- Volcanic eruptions
B- Earthquakes
C- Mountain building
D- Weathering and erosion

5 LO1.06
Ore bodies at divergent plate margins can be formed by…….
A- contact metamorphism
B- regional metamorphism
C- hydrothermal processes
D- none of these.
6 LO1.07
The following figure represent the rock cycle in nature. Study the fig. and
answer the following
question :
The rock name (4) if the
rock (1) composed mainly
of sand is

A- Diorite
B- Marble
C- Quartzite
D- Granite

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 3 of 15

7 LO1.07
According to the first rock cycle , arrange these rocks correctly:
A- Granite – sand – sandstone - Quartzite
B- Quartzite - sand – sandstone- Granite
C- Granite - sandstone- Quartzite – sand
D- Sandstone- Granite - sandstone- Quartzite

8 LO1.07
Sedimentary rock transforms to igneous rock by ________
A- cementation and compaction
B- heat and pressure
C- weathering and erosion
D- melting and cooling

9 LO1.07
What process in the rock in the rock cycle are you performing if you pack a
snowball so tightly it becomes an ice ball?
A- Melting
B- deformation ,recrystallization
C- weathering, sedimentation
D- none of the above

10 LO1.07
When metamorphic rocks are formed ?
A- Rock is put under great heat and pressure.
B- Rocks melt and then cool again
C- An earthquake occurs
D- Sediments are compacted and cemented together

11 LO1.07
What evidence can you find on a rock that it is a sedimentary rock?
A- You can see large crystals in it.
B- It has visible layers.
C- It is smooth and glassy
D- It has folds and bendsther lava or magma

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 4 of 15

12 LO1.07
What process in the rock in the rock cycle are you performing if you pack a
snowball so tightly it becomes an ice ball?
A- Melting
B- deformation ,recrystallization
C- weathering, sedimentation
D- none of the above

13 LO1.08
A mineral company is flying a plane with a magnetometer over an area to
detect mineral deposits. Which element is this method most likely to detect?
A- Iron
B- Sulfur
C- Silicon
D- Carbon

14 LO1.08
A mineral resources company decides to conduct a gravity survey of a region.
Why would this be a useful method of prospecting?
A- Many ore bodies are denser than the surrounding rock.
B- Many ore bodies are located close to gravitational nodes.
C- Ores generate a smaller gravitational field than the surrounding rock
Ores produce cracks in the surrounding rock that generate inverse
D-
gravitational fields.

15 LO1.08
Why do we not actively extract valuable elements? Such as gold, from ocean
waters?
A- Ocean water do not contain large amounts of gold
B- The extraction of gold from ocean water is not profitable
C- Gold is located at too great a depth to bring to the surface
D- We do not have the technology to remove gold from ocean.

16 LO1.08
Secondary enrichment makes low-grade ores into richer ores by:
A- Weathering
B- Deformation
C- Igneous activity
D- Evaporation

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 5 of 15

17 LO1.08
This mineral is the same as ordinary rust and is the principal ore of iron:
A- Sphalerite
B- Quartz
C- Hematite
D- Bauxite
18 LO1.08
Which is NOT a major limitation in predicting future mineral resource costs
and availability
Inability to predict new discoveries of major mineral resources and
A-
reserves.
Inability to predict what technology will be available in the future for
B-
extracting minerals
Lack of basic knowledge of the types of rocks and geologic
C-
environments that mineral resources are found in.
D- None of the above.
19 LO1.08
Sratiform deposits generally result from a combination of……
A- Igneous processes and metamorphic processes
B- Igneous processes and sedimentary processes
C- Metamorphic processes and sedimentary processes
D- Igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary processes
20 LO1.09
There are many areas in Egypt famous for volcanic activity like
HamamPharons. A green energy company is investigating locations for a new
geothermal power facility. Which location is most likely to be viable,
geologically speaking?
A- Near Alexandria city
B- West Coast Gulf of Suez
C- Western Desert area
D- None of the above

21 LO1.09
How is the nuclear fission reaction in a power plant controlled ?
A- By increasing the turbine rotation rate
B- By inserting neutron-absorbing control rods
C- By circulating cold water around the fuel rods
D- By removing circulating water from the reactor

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 6 of 15

22 LO1.09
The primary barrier to using solar energy in Egypt is that _______
A- solar power is not technically feasible
B- solar power causes major pollution problems
C- solar power is not economically competitive with other energy sources
D- all of these
23 LO1.09
The world faces an energy crisis because _________.
A- world demand for energy will increase
B- world oil production will peak and begin to decline
shortages and the resulting escalation of prices can shock the
C-
economic and political order
D- all of the above
24 LO1.09
Which of the following statements regarding the nuclear accident at
Chernobyl in the Ukraine in 1986 is false?
A- radioactive debris was blown into Scandinavia and western Europe
hundreds of square miles of land surrounding Chernobyl was
B-
contaminated and made uninhabitable
food supplies in many countries had to be purified in order to be
C-
consumed
excess deaths from cancer may be in the thousands over the next 40
D-
years
25 LO1.09
A nuclear power company claims that it provides “clean” energy. Which
statement supporting this claim is true?
A- It produces no carbon dioxide
B- It uses renewable fuel
C- It produces no harmful byproducts
D- It uses no inputs of energy.
26 LO1.09
How are solar thermal devices different from photovoltaic devices
Solar thermal devices require large amounts of space, but photovoltaic
A-
devices are much smaller .
Solar thermal devices make direct use of sunlight, but photovoltaic
B-
devices use sunlight indirectly .
Solar thermal devices use heat generated by the sun, but photovoltaic
C-
devices convert light into electricity .
Solar thermal devices can work only in sunny areas, but photovoltaic
D-
devices can work even in areas that get little sunlight
Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 7 of 15
27 LO1.10
Which answer best describes electric power?
A- The rate at which electricity does work, measured at a given time
B- The amount of work that can be done by electricity
The energy associated with that direct conversion of solar radiation to
C-
electricity
D- The overall efficiency of an electricity generation system

28 LO1.10
Designing a home to allow maximum sunlight in winter and trapping the heat
inside is an example of which kind of solar system?
A- solar water heating
B- passive solar heating
C- photovoltaic solar
D- active solar heating

29 LO1.10
Transforming light energy directly in to electricity is known as
A- photovoltaic conversion
B- passive solar conversion
C- solar thermal collecting
D- flat plate collecting

30 LO1.10
What country has the most solar PV power, as of 2013?
A- The United States
B- China
C- Germany
D- Spain

31 LO1.10
Concentrating solar power plants don't need photovoltaic cells. What do they
need?
A- Large land area
B- Water
C- Reflectors
D- All of the above

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 8 of 15

32 LO1.10
A green energy company is considering whether it makes sense to pursue tidal
power. Which is NOT a valid concern?
A- Tidal power is viable only in coastal areas with a large tidal range .
B- Tidal energy generating stations are expensive to build .
C- Tidal power pollutes the ocean water near the generating stations .
Tidal energy generating stations can interfere with tidal flow and harm
D- marine life .

33 LO1.10
How is the nuclear fission reaction in a power plant controlled ?
A- By increasing the turbine rotation rate
B- By inserting neutron-absorbing control rods
C- By circulating cold water around the fuel rods
D- By removing circulating water from the reactor

34 LO1.10
An engineering firm is researching the potential for new sources of nuclear
energy. Which characteristic does an isotope NOT have to possess for it to be
viable as a fuel for generating nuclear energy?
A- It must be unstable .
B- It must be radioactive .
C- Its electrons must be in the highest possible energy level .
D- Its nucleus must be able to be split by neutron bombardment

35 LO1.10
How is electricity produced in a steam turbine?
Steam causes atoms to split into parts, with conversation of a small
A-
part of the matter into electricity.
Steam is captured and converted to electricity through a falling-water
B-
system.
Stream turns turbine blades that turn the shaft of a generator to
C-
produce electricity.
Steam is cooled and the resulting condensation releases heat energy in
D-
the form of electricity.

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 9 of 15

36 LO1.11

Layer Y is _________.
A- anthracite
B- bituminous
C- lignite
D- tar

37 LO1.11
A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part
of our __________
A- coal reserves
B- coal resources
C- coal reservoirs
D- none of these

38 LO1.11
When sediment turns into a rock, decay is turned into gas and petroleum after
a …….
A- million years
B- century
C- millennium
D- decade

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 10 of 15

39 LO1.11
The correct sequence of events during the process of coalification is:
A- peat - bituminous coal - lignite - anthracite
B- anthracite - lignite - bituminous coal - peat
C- lignite - peat - bituminous coal - anthracite
D- peat - lignite - bituminous coal - anthracite

40 LO1.11
Which of the following factors affects the type of coal that forms?
A- Composition of the original plant material
Impurities that were deposited at the same time as the original plant
B-
material
C- The depth of burial of original plant material
D- All of the above.

41 LO1.11
Which of the following happens in carbonization?
A- Carbon is formed from coal
B- Dead vegetation is converted to coal
C- Carbon is formed from nature
D- Carbon gets liberated into nature

42 LO1.11
The most type of coal rich in rank
A- Lignite
B- Anthracite
C- Graphite
D- Bituminous

43 LO1.11
Which of the following describe the Ash produced from burning of coal?
A- by increasing the percentage of carbon the Ash produced increases
B- by increasing the percentage of impurities the Ash produced increases
C- Coal produce more energy produce more Ash
D- coal buried in the highest depth produce more Ash

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 11 of 15

44 LO1.12
This diagram shows:

A- Pinch out
B- Salt dome
C- Structural oil trap
D- Stratigraphic oil trap

45 LO1.12
A petroleum engineer advises an oil company not to use traditional petroleum
wells to produce petroleum from oil shales and tar sands. Why?
A- Petroleum cannot be extracted from sandstone or shale.
B- Petroleum does not flow naturally through oil shales and tar sands.
Oil shales and tar sands contain hydrocarbons that are denser than the
C-
rocks in which they are contained.
Oil shales and tar sands are not as easily detectable with gravity
D-
surveys as conventional petroleum reserves

46 LO1.12
Which condition is required for the formation of petroleum in source rocks?
A- Lack of oxygen
B- Abundant sunlight
C- Rapid circulation of water
D- Slow accumulation of sediment

47 LO1.12
Which of the following rock types would most likely be the best oil reservoir?
A- Granite
B- Shale
C- Sandstone
D- Salt

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 12 of 15

48 LO1.12

Cross section of an oil trap. X, Y, and Z represent three distinct fluid layers
within the permeable The 4-oil trap shown here is an anticline.
Layer X is most likely to be reservoir rock containing _______ in the pore
space.
A- Oil shale
B- Natural gas
C- Water
D- Oil

49 LO1.12
Which condition is required for the formation of petroleum in source rocks?
A- Lack of oxygen
B- Abundant sunlight
C- Rapid circulation of water
D- Slow accumulation of sediment

50 LO1.12
What is the principal environmental concern related to the use of fossil fuels for
energy?
A- Mining fossil fuels leads to pollution of groundwater.
B- Mining fossil fuels uses more energy than it generates.
Burning fossil fuels increases atmospheric carbon dioxide
C-
concentrations.
Burning fossil fuels produces CFCs, which destroy the ozone
D-
layer.

51 LO1.12
Which of the following is Not true about petroleum and natural gas?
The raw material for the generation of petroleum and natural gas is
A-
organic matter.
B- They are less dense than water
C- They are produced in sediments and sedimentary rocks
D- They are renewable resources
Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 13 of 15
52 LO1.13
Regular, annual fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations occur
because……….
A- Photosynthesis stops at night while respiration continues
B- Humans influence the carbon dioxide concentrations.
C- Carbon dioxide emissions increase in the winter
Plants in the northern hemisphere lose their leaves during the
D-
winter.

53 LO1.13
The orange color of some of the oil a cause for worry due to…
A- The color signals that deep plumes are floating beneath the surface.
B- The oil has emulsified with water and increased in volume.
C- The oil particles have combined with the chemical dispersant.
The oil scatters light and produces the color as it moves close to
D-
shore.

54 LO1.13
Which of the following processes DOES NOT add carbon to the atmosphere?
A- Volcanic eruptions
B- Respiration
C- Weathering of limestone
D- Subduction

55 LO1.13
Which biosphere process(s) is responsible for moving 450 Gt of carbon per year
from the atmosphere into the vegetation and land?
A- respiration
B- ingestion
C- combustion
D- photosynthesis

56 LO1.13
The greater part of the carbon in the biosphere
A- becomes stored as a carbon compound in coal.
B- becomes stored as a hydrocarbon compound in oil and natural gas.
C- gets buried as organic carbon compounds in sediments.
D- is soon returned to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 14 of 15

57 LO1.13
Which of the following neutralizes acid rain
A- Soil or bedrock with a low pH.
B- Soil or bedrock that is slightly more acidic than the acid rainwater.
C- Soil or bedrock that is rich in granite.
D- Soil rich in lime or bedrock

58 LO1.13
What are the benefits of using solar water heating over fossil fuel for water
heating?
Reducing the use of fossil fuel for water heating saves stocks of
A-
the fossil fuels.
B- Solar water heating eliminates air pollution.
C- Solar water heating eliminates climate change gas emissions.
D- All of the above.

59 LO1.13
What is the principal environmental concern related to the use of fossil fuels for
energy?
A- Mining fossil fuels leads to pollution of groundwater .
B- Mining fossil fuels uses more energy than it generates .
Burning fossil fuels produces CFCs, which destroy the ozone
C-
layer .
Burning fossil fuels increases atmospheric carbon dioxide
D-
concentrations

60 LO1.13
Natural gas emits about of............................. the carbon dioxide produced by
coal
A- half
B- Third
C- Quarter
D- two thirds

Subject : Earth Sciences Grade : 10 Page 15 of 15

Dynamic Crust Review

1. The diagram below shows a cross section of sedimentary rock layers.

2. The diagram below represents a cross section of a portion of the Earth's crust.

Which past activity in this region is suggested by the shape of these sedimentary rock layers?
(A) crustal movements (C) horizontal sorting
(B) widespread volcanic activity (D) glacial deposition

3. The diagram below shows a portion of the Earth's crust.

The movements indicated by the arrows represent the process of

(A) faulting (B) metamorphism (C) folding (D) volcanism

4. Evidence of crustal subsidence (sinking) is provided by

Which diagram represents the most probable result of these forces?

(A) (D)
(B) (C)

6. The block diagram below represents a geologic cross section of a mountain range.

What action most likely formed this mountain range?

(A) contact metamorphism (C) volcanic eruptions
(B) earthquake faulting (D) glacial erosion

11. The diagram below shows land features that have been disrupted by an earthquake.

Which diagram represents plate movement associated with transform faults such as those causing California
earthquakes?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

15. Which event provides direct evidence of crustal movement?

16. The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

17. Which New York State location has the greatest risk of earthquake damage?
(A) Buffalo (B) Binghamton (C) Elmira (D) Plattsburgh

20. Which two tectonic plates are separated by a mid-ocean ridge?

(A) Indian-Australian and Eurasian (C) North American and Eurasian
(B) Indian-Australian and Pacific (D) North American and South American

21. In which Earth layer are most convection currents that cause seafloor spreading thought to be located?
(A) outer core (B) inner core (C) crust (D) asthenosphere

25. The Tonga Trench is located at the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the
(A) Philippine Plate (C) Nazca Plate
(B) Antarctic Plate (D) Indian-Australian Plate

26. Convection currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the
(A) Canary Islands Hot Spot (C) Mariana Trench
(B) Peru-Chile Trench (D) Iceland Hot Spot

27. Based on the theory of plate tectonics, it is inferred that over the past 250 million years North America has
moved toward the
(A) southwest (B) northwest (C) southeast (D) northeast

28. Compared to continental crust, oceanic crust is

(A) (C)

(B) (D)
Dynamic Crust Review
31. The diagram below shows some features of Earth’s crust and upper mantle.

Which model most accurately shows the movements (arrows) associated with the surface features shown in the
diagram?

(A) (C)

(D)
(B)

33. Beneath which surface location is Earth's crust the thinnest?

Which cross section best represents the plate boundaries and mantle movement beneath line AB?

(A) (C)

38. Compared to Earth's oceanic crust, Earth's continental crust is

Which mantle hot spot is at a plate boundary like the one shown in this diagram?
(A) Hawaii Hot Spot (B) Galapagos Hot Spot (C) Yellowstone Hot Spot (D) Canary Hot Spot

40. Which diagram correctly shows how mantle convection currents are most likely moving beneath colliding
lithospheric plates?

(B) (C) (D)

(A)

41. Which evidence supports the theory of ocean floor spreading?

(B) (C) (D)

(A)

Which diagram best shows the magnetic pattern and relative age of the igneous bedrock on the west side of the
ridge?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

48. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which shows models of two types of
earthquake waves.

Model A best represents the motion of earthquake waves called

51. The observed difference in density between continental crust and oceanic crust is most likely due to differences
in their
(A) rate of cooling (B) thickness (C) porosity (D) composition

52. What is Earth’s inferred interior pressure, in millions of atmospheres, at a depth of 3500 kilometers?
(A) 1.9 (B) 2.8 (C) 5500 (D) 6500

53. What is the origin of fine-grained igneous rock?

(A) silt that settled quickly in ocean water (C) lava that cooled slowly on Earth’s surface
(B) lava that cooled quickly on Earth’s surface (D) silt that settled slowly in ocean water

56. Base your answer to the following question on the cross section below, which shows a portion of Earth’s crust
and upper mantle near a mid-ocean ridge.

Which table best shows the relative densities of the crustal bedrock at locations A, B, C, and D?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)

59. In which layer of Earth’s interior is the pressure inferred to be 1.0 million atmospheres?
(A) outer core (B) inner core (C) rigid mantle (D) stiffer mantle

(A) (C)

(B)
(D)

62. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which shows a portion of Earth’s interior.
Point A is a location on the interface between layers.

The temperature of rock at location A is approximately

The actual rock temperature at point E is inferred to be approximately

(A) 1,500ºC (B) 2,900ºC (C) 5,000ºC (D) 6,200ºC

65. Earth’s outer core and inner core are both inferred to be
(A) solid (C) composed of a high percentage of iron
(B) liquid (D) under the same pressure

The composition of Earth's core is thought to be the same as the composition of many
(A) volcanic ashes (B) basalts (C) meteorites (D) granites

70. Identify the type of tectonic motion represented by the arrows shown at A, B, and C.

72. Describe one action that people on North Island should take if a tsunami warning is issued.

73. Describe the type of tectonic plate motion that formed the Hikurangi Trench.

74. On what tectonic plate are both North Island and White Island located?

75. State the approximate temperature at point X.

______________ ºC
Dynamic Crust Review
Answer Key

1. C 26. D 51. D 73. Examples: —

subduction —
2. A 27. B 52. A convergence — plate
collision
3. A 28. D 53. B
74. Indian-Australian Plate.
4. C 29. B 54. C
75. Any value from 500°C
5. B 30. D 55. B to 1200°C.

6. B 31. C 56. D

7. C 32. B 57. B

8. A 33. B 58. D

9. D 34. B 59. D

10. B 35. D 60. B

11. D 36. C 61. B

12. D 37. A 62. C

13. D 38. B 63. C

14. D 39. B 64. B

15. B 40. B 65. C

16. D 41. A 66. A

17. D 42. A 67. B

18. D 43. B 68. A

19. C 44. B 69. C

20. C 45. D 70. Examples: –transform

movement –faulting –The
21. D 46. D plates slide past each
other.
22. A 47. A
71. Examples: –subduction
23. D 48. C –convergence

24. D 49. A 72. Examples: — move to

higher ground — evacuate
25. D 50. C — move inland
NB: The numbers in parentheses indicate the chronological order of the geological structures

Q1 (4) dike, (7) soil, (2) fault, (3) pluton, (1) folded carbonate sequence, (6) undisturbed
siliclastic sequence, (5) unconformity.

Soil

Unconformity

Dike

Fault

Pluton

Undisturbed siliciclastic sequence

Folded carbonate sequence

Q2 (4) fault ゆ, (2) fault よ, (4-5*) sand, (3) siltstone, (1) carbonate sequence.

*If part of the unconsolidated sand is offset by fault ゆ, it can be concluded that the
fault formed during the deposition of the sand.

Carbonate sequence

Siltstone Sand

1/3
Q3 ( 5? timing uncertain ) vein ** , (2) dike, (1) gneiss, (6) continental sedimentary rocks, (9)
marine sedime ntary rocks, (4) faults ゆ*, (7) fault よ, and the unconformities (8) の
and (3) に.

*The two faults ゆ formed at the same time.

**Since the extremity of the vein does not cut the continental sedimentary rocks, the
vein may have formed at any time after the formation of fault ゆ.

Unconformity の

Fault よ
Fault ゆ
Fault ゆ
Unconformity に

Dike

Vein

Gneiss Continental and marine Marine

sedimentary rocks sedimentary rocks

Q4 (1) gneiss, (7) sedimentary rocks, (4) vein, the dikes (2) ゆ, (3) よ, (5) や, and (6) the
unconformity.

Dike や

Dike ゆ

Dike よ

Vein

Gneiss Sedimentary rocks

2/3
Q5 The figure below represents a detail of a geological map. It is a bird’s-eye view of a flat,
horizontal surface (the ground) on which is drawn the outline of geological structures
(rock layers). Knowing the chronology of the rock layers, draw a rough sketch of the
vertical cross section along the line AB.

ANTICLINE SYNCLINE
A B

Older Younger

Q6 The figure below shows a borehole with a sequence of Carboniferous rocks

(360-300 Myr old). Relative ages seem to contradict the principle of super-
position. How can you explain the age distribution in this borehole?

3/3
Anticline Syncline

Horizontal fold
(the axis of the fold is horizontal)
Axial plane

Limb
Axis

Horizontal

Plunging fold
(the axis of the fold is not horizontal)

A. Symmetrical fold B. Asymmetrical fold

C. Overturned fold D. Recumbent fold

Abdulrahman Hussam class 1-2 Giology Questions

Question #1
The parent material for all rocks is

A. silica
B. quartz
C. granite
D. magma

Question #2
Which of the following types of rock is produced by magma that cools deep below
the earth's crust?

A. extrusive igneous
B. intrusive igneous
C. foliated metamorphic
D. chemical sedimentary

Question #3
Which of the following is an igneous rock?

A. limestone
B. gypsum
C. gneiss
D. basalt

Question #4
The size and arrangement of crystal grains in igneous rocks is called

A. density
B. texture
C. hardness
D. luster
Question #5
An igneous rock with a mixture of large and small grians is

A. a porphyry
B. an intrusion
C. an extrusion
D. a breccia

Question #6
Magma that cools deep below the earth's crust forms what type of rock?

A. clastic
B. intrusive
C. stratified
D. extrusive

Question #7
The texture of igneous rock is determined by the rate at which magma

A. flows from a volcano

B. cools
C. melts
D. compresses

Question #8
A black, glass-like igneous rock which cools quickly preventing crystals to form is

A. basalt
B. granite
C. obsidian
D. slate

Question #9
The term "igneous " means

A. fire-formed
B. to change
C. to become layered
D. dark colored

Question #10
An example of an igneous rock which floats on water is

A. scoria
B. pumice
C. gabbro
D. basalt

Question #11
The processes responsible for changing sediments into sedimentary rock are
compaction and

A. foliation
B. cementation
C. intrusion
D. stratification

Question 12
Which of the following is an organic sedimentary rock?
A. basalt
B. coal
C. conglomerate
D. sandstone

Question #13
Chalk is a type of

A. coal
B. quartzite
C. limestone
D. shale

Question #14
A rock composed of cemented, rounded pebbles is a

A. porphyry
B. shale
C. breccia
D. conglomerate

Question #15
Ripple marks in rocks are formed by

A. moving wind or water

B. heating and cooling
C. drying and shrinking
D. contact with magma
Question #16
Remains or traces of ancient plants and animals that are preserved in rock are
called

A. elements
B. concretions
C. fossils
D. geodes

Question #17
To which of the following groups does breccia belong?

A. foliated metamorphic
B. unfoliated metamorphic
C. clastic sedimentary
D. chemical sedimentary

Question #18
The layering of sedimentary rock with coarse grains at the bottom and fine grains
at the top is

A. foliation
B. concretion
C. graded bedding
D. cross-bedding

Question #19
A sedimentary rock that contains quartz or calcite crystals in a hollow core is a(n)

A. geode
B. concretion
C. fossil
D. foliated rock

Question #20
The testing of sedimentary rocks for the presence of the mineral calcite can be
done by using what test?

A. the rock will glow in the dark

B. hydrochloric acid will cause the calcite to fizz
C. the rock will break to form smooth surfaces
D. the rock will taste salty

Question #21
Metamorphism can best be defined as

A. compaction and cementation of rock fragments

B. precipitation of minerals dissolved in water
C. solidification of magma by cooling
D. changing of a rock by heat and pressure

Question #22
Where does most metamorphic rock form?

A. deep below the earth's surface

B. on the earth's surface
C. within volcanoes
D. on lake beds

Question #23
Which of the following is classified as a metamorphic rock?
A. basalt
B. diorite
C. limestone
D. schist

Question #24
The type of metamorphism that results from the heat of magma is called

A. foliation
B. the rock cycle
C. contact metamorphism
D. extrusion

Question #25
Slate is formed when great pressure acts on, and causes crystal changes in what
sedimentary rock?

A. granite
B. obsidian
C. limestone
D. shale

Question #26
Which of the following describes the processes by which sedimentary rock
becomes metamorphic rock?

A. weathering
B. erosion
C. intense heat and pressure
D. cooling and solidifying
Question #27
Metamorphic rocks with mineral crystals arranged in parallel layers, or bands, are

A. clastic
B. porphyritic
C. intrusive
D. foliated

Question #28
An example of a foliated metamorphic rock is

A. granite
B. gneiss
C. marble
D. quartzite

Question #29
Metamorphic rocks are often found in association with what geologic event?

A. volcanic eruptions
B. earthquakes
C. mountain building
D. weathering and erosion

Question #30
The meaning of the word "metamorphic" is

A. fire-formed
B. to change
C. sedimentaion
D. permanent

Made by Group : 1

Abdulrahman Hussam Ahmed Foly Mohamed Yasser Kirls sameh fawze mosa
Metamorphic Rocks – Practice Questions and Answers
Revised October 2007

1. Metamorphism is a __________________ that involves no melt phase.

2. The protolith of a metamorphic rock is the

(a) sibling
(b) brother
(c) parent
(d) daughter
(e) none of the above

3. Fabric refers to the way ____________ in a rock are arranged.

4. Foliation is defined by the _______________arrangement of minerals.

5. Typical platy minerals (sheet silicates) defining a foliation include (select all that apply)
(a) chlorite
(b) muscovite
(c) biotite
(d) hornblende
(e) pyroxene

6. Directed pressure during metamorphism produces a _________________.

7. If elements do not enter or leave a rock during recrystallization, then the rock system is
described as ___________ or __________________.

8. Marble is a metamorphic rock composed of coarse-grained

(a) dolomite
(b) quartz
(c) calcite
(d) epidote
(e) garnet

9. Quartzite is a metamorphic rock composed of a dense network of interlocking

(a) dolomite
(b) quartz
(c) calcite
(d) epidote
(e) garnet

10. Basalts when metamorphosed at temperatures of ~500oC or higher are transformed into
__________________________.
11. Slates are characterized by a tendency to break into even-parallel sheets due to the parallel
alignment of the flat crystal faces of
(a) garnet and kyanite
(b) sillimanite and biotite
(c) chlorite and muscovite
(d) quartz and epidote
(e) none of the above

12. The foliation in a slate is called slaty

(a) schistosity
(b) gneissosity
(c) cleavage
(d) foliage
(e) none of the above

13. Assuming a mudstone protolith, the transformation to a slate occurs at ~________ oC.

14. Phyllites are _________________ grained than slates, and when held up to the sunlight exhibit
a marked ____________, as rays of light reflect off the aligned crystals of ______________
and _________________.

15. Assuming a mudstone protolith, the transformation to schist occurs at temperatures between
about _______ and ______ oC. The resulting foliation is called ___________________.

16. Schist derived from a mudstone at temperatures between about 500 oC and 650 oC will consist
of quartz, feldspar, muscovite, biotite, garnet, and _____________. Such a rock would be
___________________ grained than a phyllite.

17. The coarsest grained metamorphic rock is a

(a) phyllite
(b) slate
(c) schist
(d) gneiss
(e) none of the above

18. A foliation in gneiss would be called ___________________. It forms as ions migrate over
microscopic distances at temperatures above ______ to ______ oC.

19. Metamorphic grade refers to the broad pressure conditions of metamorphism. True or false
20. In general, metamorphic grade is dependent upon the
(a) geobarometer
(b) isotherm
(c) geotherm
(d) lithobar
(e) none of the above

21. Given a specific geotherm, low metamorphic grade rocks occur in the ___________________
part of the crust while higher grade rocks will occur at _________ levels.

22. Given a mudstone protolith, and a geothermal gradient typical of arc-continent collisions, at
temperatures over 700 oC, the stable metamorphic mineral assemblage will consist of quartz,
feldspar, and ______________.

23. Isotherms are curves or surfaces of equal

(a) composition
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
(e) none of the above

24. Isotherms bend downward within

(a) volcanic arcs
(b) continental interiors
(c) divergent margins
(d) subduction zone settings
(e) none of the above

25. In volcanic arc settings, isotherms bend downward due to the introduction of hot magma. True
or false

26. An envelope of recrystallized rock surrounding a pluton is called a

(a) rim of hard rock
(b) envelope of hard rock
(c) contact metamorphic aureole
(d) contact metamorphic rim
(e) none of the above

27. Non-foliated rocks found in contact metamorphic aureoles are called

(a) granofels
(b) hornfels
(c) lithofels
(d) petrofels
(e) none of the above

28. Phase diagrams depict the PT conditions under which various minerals are stable. True or false
29. Is andalusite a low or high pressure phase relative to kyanite?

30. Is sillimanite a low or high temperature phase relative to andalusite?

31. Which of the following metamorphic facies represent rocks that were metamorphosed under the
lowest PT conditions recognized by geologists?
(a) eclogite
(b) amphibolite
(c) greenschist
(d) granulite
(e) zeolite

32. Which of the following metamorphic facies represent rocks that were metamorphosed under the
highest pressure conditions recognized by geologists?
(f) eclogite
(g) amphibolite
(h) greenschist
(i) granulite
(j) zeolite

33. The hornfels facies forms during ____________________ metamorphism.

34. In subduction zone settings the geotherm is _________.

35. The geotherm in collisional zones and active regions of continents is about __________.

36. The geotherm in island arcs is about _________.

37. Why do isotherms bow upward in island arcs and mid-ocean ridges?

38. Why do isotherms bend downward in subduction zone settings?

39. How would describe the distribution of metamorphic facies within a zone of collision between
an island arc and a passive continental margin?

40. What would happen to a mudstone if it were metamorphosed at temperatures in excess of

700oC under wet conditions?
41. Using the illustration shown below, please answer the following questions.
(a) What minerals would be stable at temperatures around 400oC, 600oC and 710oC?
(b) What is the relationship between textural type of metamorphic rock and metamorphic
grade?
(c) What is the relationship between metamorphic grade and facies development?
(d) What is the average temperature for the onset of metamorphism?
(e) If a mudstone undergoes metamorphism under wet conditions at temperatures above
~700oC, then what will happen?

42. In the illustration shown below, the continental geotherm is broadly representative of
collisional and other active regions of the crust. Please answer the following questions.
(a) What is the metamorphic facies series for a geotherm typical of subduction zone settings?
(b) What is the metamorphic facies series for a geotherm typical of continental regions?
(c) What is the metamorphic facies associated with geotherms around cooling magma?
43. In the following illustration what do the fields labeled A, B, and C represent?
Answers
1. solid-state recrystallization
2. (c) parent
3. minerals
4. plane or planar
5. (a) chlorite, (b) muscovite, (c) biotite
6. foliation
7. closed, isochemical
8. (c) calcite
9. (b) quartz
10. amphibolite
11. (c) chlorite and muscovite
12. (c) cleavage
13. 300
14. coarser, sheen, chlorite, muscovite
15. 400, 500, schisosity
16. staurolite, coarser
17. (d) gneiss
18. gneissosity, 600, 650
19. False, metamorphic grade refers to the relative temperature conditions under which rocks were
metamorphosed
20. (c) geotherm - note that this is sometimes referred to as the geothermal gradient
21. upper, deeper
22. sillimanite
23. (d) temperature
24. (d) subduction zone settings
25. False
26. (c) contact metamorphic aureole
27. (b) hornfels
28. True
29. low pressure
30. high temperature
31. (e) zeolite facies
32. (a) eclogite
33. contact
34. 10oC/km
35. 25o - 35oC/km
36. 50oC/km
37. Isotherms bow upward in island arcs and mid-ocean ridges because hot magma is introduced in
these regions.
38. Isotherms bend downward in subduction zone settings because the cold subducting lithospheric
plate descends at a rate faster than it can equilibrate (warm up) to the temperatures of the over
ridging plate.
39. Zeolite and prehnite-pumpellyite facies would occur along the flanks. Moving progressively
toward the interior of the zone of collision, you would encounter greenschist, amphibolite, and
granulite facies.
40. The mudstone probably would melt.

41.
(a) @ 400oC chlorite, muscovite, and biotite would be stable
@ 600oC quartz, feldspar, muscovite, biotite, garnet, and staurolite would be stable
@ 710oC quartz, feldspar, biotite, sillimanite, and possibly muscovite would be stable
(b) Low grade rocks are going to be composed largely of slates, phyllites, and schists while
intermediate grade rocks are going to be schists and gneisses. High grade rocks are going to
consist primarily of gneisses.
(c) Greenschist facies rocks will be composed primarily of slates, phyllites, and schists.
Amphibolite facies rocks will be mostly schists and gneisses, while high grade metamorphic
rocks will be dominated by gneisses.
(d) ~300oC
(e) It will melt

42.
(a) Zeolite, blueschist, ecologite facies
(b) Zeolite, prehnite-pumpellyite, greenschist, amphibolite, and granulite facies
(c) Contact

43. A = kyanite. B = sillimanite. C = andalusite.

Assessment

Plate Tectonics and Your Community:

End-of-Chapter Assessment
1. The outermost, rigid layer of the Earth, consisting of the Earth’s crust and part of
the upper mantle, is the _______________.
a) biosphere
b) lithosphere
c) atmosphere
d) asthenosphere

2. With few exceptions, increasing the temperature of a material will cause its density

Chapter 2
to __________________________.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same
d) increase slightly, then even out

3. What is the density of a material that has a mass of 27.0 g and a volume of
9.0 cm3?
a) 0.33 g/cm3
b) 243.0 g/cm3
c) 36.0 g/cm3
d) 3.0 g/cm3

4. If you used the theory of plate tectonics to predict the most likely place for the
next earthquake or volcanic eruption, you should predict that it is most likely
to occur:
a) Along boundaries between colliding lithospheric plates.
b) Where one has not happened in at least 10 million years.
c) In the interior of any continent.
d) Where a continental lithospheric plate is being subducted beneath
an oceanic lithospheric plate.

5. The theory of continental drift did not adequately account for which of
the following?
a) Why similar rock types were found on continents separated by oceans.
b) Why similar fossils were found on continents separated by oceans.
c) Why continents drifted across the Earth’s surface.
© It’s About Time

d) Why the coastlines of some continents appeared to fit together.

Integrated Coordinated Science for the 21st Century 339

Earth’s Dynamic Geosphere Plate Tectonics and Your Community

Label the schematic diagram showing the layered structure of the Earth.

10. What event is most likely to occur when an oceanic lithospheric plate collides
with a continental lithospheric plate?
a) The oceanic lithospheric plate will be subducted.
b) The continental lithospheric plate will be subducted.
c) A rift valley will form in the continental lithospheric plate.
d) A hot spot will form in the oceanic lithospheric plate.

340 EarthComm
Assessment

Use the GPS time series data for GPS recording station CASA in California to
answer questions 11 – 13.

11. The top graph indicates that station CASA moved at a speed of:
a) 10.9 ± 0.4 mm/yr West
b) 31.3 ± 0.4 mm/yr East
c) 31.3 ± 0.4 mm/yr North
d) 31.3 ± 0.4 mm/yr South

Integrated Coordinated Science for the 21st Century 341

Earth’s Dynamic Geosphere Plate Tectonics and Your Community

12. The elevation of station CASA during the recording period has _____________.
a) increased
b) decreased
c) not changed

13. The middle graph indicates that station CASA moved at a rate of:
a) 31.3 ± 0.4 mm/yr North
b) 10.9 ± 0.4 mm/yr East
c) 10.9 ± 0.4 mm/yr West
d) 10.9 ± 0.4 mm/yr South

14. What is the name of the supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago?
a) Gondwanaland
b) Pangea
c) Laurasia
d) North America

Use the map below to answer questions 15 – 17:

South America?
a) A rift valley.
b) A chain of volcanoes.
c) An ocean ridge.
d) A transform fault.

342 EarthComm
Assessment

16. What is the east coast of the United States an example of?
a) Divergent continental margin.
b) Convergent plate boundary.
c) Transform plate boundary.
d) Passive continental margin.

17. At which of these boundaries would you expect to find oceanic lithosphere being
created?
a) Between the South American and Nazca plates.
b) Between the Pacific and North American plates.
c) Between the North American and Eurasian plates.

18. What has become the accepted primary mechanism for sea-floor spreading?

Chapter 2
a) Density differences in the crust.
b) Convection cells within the Earth’s mantle.
c) The formation of magnetic striping along the sea floor.
d) The tremendous weight of sea-floor sediments piled up over millions
of years.

Base your answers to questions 19-21 on the diagram below. The diagram shows
a portion of the Earth’s oceanic crust in the vicinity of the mid-Atlantic ridge. The
stripes in the diagram represent magnetic bands of igneous rock formed in the oceanic
crust. The orientation of the Earth’s magnetic field at the time of rock formation is
shown by arrows within each band. Letters A, B, C, D, and E represent locations on
the sea floor.

Mid-Atlantic Ridge

A C Key
B D E Polarity of the Earth's
Magnetic Field

Integrated Coordinated Science for the 21st Century 343

Earth’s Dynamic Geosphere Plate Tectonics and Your Community

19. Heat flow measurements are made at locations A through E. Which graph best
represents these measurements?
a) A
b) B
c) C
High
High
d) D High High

Heat Heat Heat Heat

Flow Flow Flow Flow
Low Low Low Low
A C E A C E A C E A C E
Location Location Location Location

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. Rock samples taken from location B would most likely be composed of:
a) granite
b) rhyolite
c) conglomerate
d) basalt

21. Along a line drawn from location A to location E, the relative age of the oceanic
crust would most likely:
a) Decrease from A to C and increase from C to E.
b) Increase from A to C and decrease from C to E.
c) Decrease from A to E.
d) Increase from A to E.

22. What do mid-ocean ridges and hot spots beneath ocean plates have in common?
a) Both have rising magma due to density differences.
b) Both are located along crustal plate boundaries.
c) Both have local earthquakes that originate at great depths.
d) Neither is associated with plate motions.
© It’s About Time

344 EarthComm
Soils – Practice Questions and Answers
Revised September 2007

1. Which of the following are variables controlling soil development? (select one or more)
a. composition of parent
b. climate
c. topography
d. biological activity
e. time

2. If the parental material is rock characteristic of a given region, then the resulting soil is
referred to as
a. transported
b. elevated
c. superposed
d. residual
e. thick

3. If the parental material was brought into a given region by wind, glaciers, or water, then the
resulting soil is referred to as
a. transported
b. thin
c. superposed
d. residual
e. thick

4. What does the term topography refer to?

5. Soils that develop on steep slopes are subjected to greater erosional stresses than soils
developed on gentler slopes. True or false

6. Soils developed in flat lying regions are typically __________________ than those
developed in slopping regions.

7. Two important variables of climate are and ___.

8. In the conterminous United States average annual temperature generally increases from
a. north to south
b. south to north
c. west to east
d. ease to west
e. none of the above
9. Which of the following areas within the conterminous United States has the largest average
annual precipitation
a. SE
b. SW
c. NE
d. mid-continent
e. south

10. In general, calcite and halite (salt) will not be found in soils located in the ________ United
States because of the relatively ___________ annual precipitation.

11. The climatic conditions that are most conducive for the formation of calcite and/or halite in
a soil are
a. high precipitation – low temperature
b. high precipitation – high temperature
c. high precipitation – moderate temperature
d. low precipitation – high temperature
e. none of the above

12. In the continental United States where would you most expect to find calcite and/or salts in
a soil? Why?

13. Increasing temperature increases the rate of _____________________ reactions in a soil.

14. Based on the statements in question #13, would you expect soils developed in the tropics to
be more highly weathered and developed than those developed in say Idaho? Why?

15. What kinds of elemental nutrients do plants and animals extract from the soil and
atmosphere?

16. Provide below a succinct statement of the salient aspects of the nutrient cycle.

17. Layers that appear within a soil are referred to as ____________ _______________.

18. A vertical section exposing a soil represents its __________________.

19. Removal of soil material in suspension or solution from one master horizon to another is
referred to as ______________.
20. Deposition or precipitation of clay-sized particles or minerals, respectively, within a master
horizon is referred to as ________________.

21. In the following illustration please fill in the missing names of the master horizons in the
blanks labeled (a) through (f)

22. What master horizon is characterized by organic debris in various stages of decay?

23. What master horizon is characterized by humus mixed with mineral and rock fragments?

24. What master horizon is characterized by abundant silt-sized quartz and other insoluble
minerals, and the extensive removal by dissolution and suspension of soluble minerals and
clay-sized particles respectively? It may or may not be present dependent upon a variety of
factors.

25. What master horizon is characterized by the accumulation of clay-sized particles?

26. What master horizon is characterized by recognizable pieces of bed rock in various stages
of weathering?

27. What master horizon is characterized by unweathered bedrock?

28. What are the names of the 12 major soil orders of Soil Taxonomy?

29. Of the 12 major soil orders, two are characterized by minor development of master
horizons? What are these two soil orders?

30. Of the two orders referred to in question #29, which is characteristically a very young soil
lacking horizon development with the exception of an A horizon?

31. What soil order underlies vast farmlands in the mid-continent region of the United States?
32. What soil order characteristically has calcite and/or halite in the B horizon and is common
throughout the arid SW United States?

33. What soil order would you expect to be prevalent in the Hawaiian Islands, Washington,
Oregon, and northern California?

34. How do Gelisols differ from all other soil orders?

35. What are Histosols?

36. How would you characterize Oxisols?

37. What are Spodosols and where would you expect to find this soil order?

38. In the conterminous United States where would you expect to find Ultisols and how would
they be characterized?

39. What is the state soil of Texas and how is it characterized?

40. Alfisols are common throughout the conterminous United States. How would they be
distinguished from Entisols and Inceptisols?
Answers
1. a, b, c, d, and e
2. d. residual
3. a. transported
4. Topography refers to the way that the elevation of the Earth's surface varies as well as the
various geometric forms that Earth's surface takes on. Common topographic terms include
hill, valley, mountain, slope, etc.
5. true
6. thicker
7. precipitation, temperature
8. a. north to south
9. SE
10. southeastern, high
11. d. low precipitation – high temperatures
12. Warm and dry climatic conditions like those typical of the SW United States. Wetter
conditions under a similar temperature regime would result in dissolution and removal of
both calcite and halite from the soil.
13. biochemical
14. Yes, because the tropics are generally hotter and wetter than Idaho, soils are likely to be
more highly developed and weathered.
15. C, H, Ni, O, P, K, Ca, Mg, and S
16. Water, plant, and animal matter accumulate in the soil. Decomposers of organic matter
such as bacteria break it down, while chemical reactions between soil solutions and rock
and minerals release elemental nutrients to the soil. Roots and animals living in the soil
extract the needed nutrients renewing the cycle.
17. master horizons
18. profile
19. eluviation
20. illuviation
21. (a) = O, (b) = A, (c) = E, (d) = B, (e) = C, and (f) = R
22. The O horizon is characterized by a layer of organic litter.
23. The A horizon differs from the O horizon by being composed of a mixture of organic
matter, rock fragments, and minerals. It is typically darker in color than the underlying
horizons, and is coarser due to eluviation of finer grained material. It and the underlying E
master horizon are sometimes referred to as the zone of leaching.
24. The E horizon is not always present. However, when present it consists of a white layer
composed of abundant sand and silt-sized particles of quartz and other insoluble minerals.
The finer grained clay-sized constituents have all been removed to lower parts of the soil
profile by eluviation. E horizons are common in soil developed within forest landscapes.
25. Lying below the A and/or E horizons is a layer composed of illuviated clays and elements
(held in minerals precipitated from solutions) derived from the overlying layers. This layer
is the B master horizon which is sometimes referred to as the zone of accumulation.
26. Unconsolidated weathered material underlying the A, E, and B horizons makes up the C
horizon. Material in the C horizon ofter retains some textural features of the parental
material.
27. Unweathered material makes up the R horizon.
28. Alfisols, Andisols, Aridisols, Entisols, Gelisols, Histosols, Mollisols, Inceptisols, Oxisols,
Spodosols, Ultisols, Vertisols
29. Entisols and Inceptisols.
30. Entisols
31. Mollisols
32. Aridisols
33. These are all areas that are dominated by lava and/or pyroclastic material. Hence, the soil
order Andisols should dominate.
34. They contain permafrost in the upper 2 meters of the soil profile. For permafrost to exist in
the soil and associated materials must remain below 0o C for at least 2 years. Hence,
Gelisols only occur in very cold high northern and southern latitudes.
35. Histosols are organic soils composed only of an O master horizon. They commonly make
up bogs, moors, peats, and mucks.
36. Oxisols are the most extensively weathered and leached soils. They are commonly enriched
in Fe and Al oxides, and frequently display little horizonation, and a deep red color.
37. Spodosols are characterized by a subsurface accumulation of humus overlying an eluviated
E master horizon which in turn overlies an illuviated B horizon. They are common in
coniferous forest landscapes in cool moist climates.
38. Ultisols are strongly leached acid soils underlying forrested regions with relatively high
annual precipitation and relatively high annual temperatures. They are characterized by an
eluviated A horizon overlying an illuviated B horizon where significant clay has
accumulated. These conditions are prevalent in the SE United States where Ultisols prevail.
39. Vertisols represent the state soil of Texas. This soil order is characterized by abundant
clays that shrink and swell when dry and wet. As a result Vertisols commonly are
characterized by abundant cracks as the volume of soil expands when wetted and then
shrinks when dried.
40. Alfisols commonly exhibit well developed A and B master horizons. In Entisols and
Inceptisols well developed A and B master horizons do not occur.
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

1. Which rock would be the best source of the mineral

garnet?
A) basalt B) limestone
C) schist D) slate
2. Which rock is composed of the mineral halite that formed when seawater evaporated?
A) limestone B) dolostone C) rock gypsum D) rock salt
3. Which element, found in both biotite mica and
muscovite mica, makes up the greatest percent by
volume of Earth's crust?
A) nitrogen B) oxygen
C) potassium D) silicon
4. Which material is made mostly of the mineral quartz?
A) sulfuric acid B) pencil lead
C) plaster of paris D) window glass
5. Which mineral can be found in all samples of rhyolite
and andesite?
A) pyroxene B) quartz
C) biotite D) potassium feldspar
6. Silicate minerals contain the elements silicon and
oxygen. Which list contains only silicate materials?
A) graphite, talc, and selenite gypsum
B) potassium feldspar, quartz, and amphibole
C) calcite, dolomite, and pyroxene
D) biotite mica, fluorite, and garnet
7. Which mineral is the major component of drywall?
A) talc B) calcite
C) muscovite mica D) selenite gypsum
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

8. Base your answer to the following question on

on the photographs and news article below.

Old Man's Loss Felt in New Hampshire

FRANCONIA, N.H. — Crowds of visitors were drawn to Franconia Notch on Sunday to mourn
the loss of New Hampshire's well-known symbol — the Old Man of the Mountain granite profile.
The 700-ton natural formation was just a pile of rocks after breaking loose from its
1,200-foot-high mountainside perch. It was unclear when the outcropping fell because clouds had
obscured the area Thursday and Friday; a state park trail crew discovered the collapse Saturday
morning.
The famous mountain's history dates millions of years. Over time, nature carved out a
40-foot-tall profile resembling an old man's face, and it eventually became New Hampshire's most
recognizable symbol.
The Buffalo News, May 5, 2003
The rock of the Old Man of the Mountain most likely includes a mineral with a composition of
A) NaCl B) SiO2 C) FeS2 D) PbS
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

9. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. The arrows show the direction in
which sediment is being transported along the shoreline. A barrier beach has formed, creating a lagoon
(a shallow body of water in which sediments are being deposited). The eroded headlands are composed
of diorite bedrock. A groin has recently been constructed. Groins are wall-like structures built into the
water perpendicular to the shoreline to trap beach sand.

"
Which two minerals are most likely found in the beach sand that was eroded from the headlands?
A) quartz and olivine B) plagioclase feldspar and amphibole
C) potassium feldspar and biotite D) pyroxene and calcite
10. The table below shows some properties of four different minerals.

The minerals listed in the table are varieties of which mineral?

A) garnet B) magnetite C) quartz D) olivine
11. Most rock gypsum is formed by the 12. The three statements below are observations of the
same rock sample:
A) heating of previously existing foliated bedrock
• The rock has intergrown crystals from 2 to 3
B) cooling and solidification of lava millimeters in diameter.
C) compaction and cementation of shells and • The minerals in the rock are gray feldspar, green
skeletal remains olivine, green pyroxene, and black amphibole.
D) chemical precipitation of minerals from • There are no visible gas pockets in the rock.
seawater
This rock sample is most likely
A) sandstone B) gabbro
C) granite D) phyllite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

13. Which two rocks have the most similar mineral

composition?
A) marble and rhyolite
B) limestone and basalt
C) quartzite and rock salt
D) granite and phyllite
14. Base your answer to the following question on the map and cross section below. The shaded areas on
the map represent regions of the United States that have evaporite rock layers (layers of rock formed
from the evaporation of seawater) under the surface bedrock. The cross section shows the generalized
structure of the area in which the evaporite layers are found in New York State.

These evaporite deposits could be composed of which minerals?

A) garnet and pyroxene B) mica and feldspar
C) hornblende and olivine D) halite and gypsum
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

15. The table below indicates the presence of various 17. Although more than 2,000 minerals have been
minerals in different rock samples. identified, 90% of Earth's lithosphere is composed of
the 12 minerals listed below.

The best explanation for this fact is that most rocks

A) are monomineralic
Which statement is an accurate conclusion based on B) are composed only of recrystallized minerals
the information provided in the table? C) have a number of minerals in common
A) Most rocks are monomineralic. D) have a 10% nonmineral composition
B) All rocks are polymineralic. 18. Which mineral can be found in granite, andesite,
C) Many rocks have a number of minerals in gneiss, and hornfels?
common.
A) quartz B) pyroxene
D) Only igneous rocks contain quartz.
C) olivine D) biotite mica
16. Base your answer to the following question on the
rock sample shown below. 19. In which group do the rocks usually have the mineral
quartz as part of their composition?
A) granite, rhyolite, sandstone, hornfels
B) shale, scoria, gneiss, metaconglomerate
C) conglomerate, gabbro, rock salt, schist
D) breccia, fossel limestone, bituminous coal,
siltstone
20. Which rock is usually composed of several different
minerals?
A) rock gypsum
B) chemical limestone
C) quartzite
The average size of the pebbles in the sample is
approximately D) gneiss

A) 1.2 cm B) 0.2 cm 21. Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks are

usually composed of
C) 6.4 cm D) 13.2 cm
A) intergrown crystals
B) fossils
C) minerals
D) sediments
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

22. Which is an accurate statement about rocks? 28. Equal masses of basalt, granite, iron and copper
received the same amount of solar energy during the
A) Rocks are located only in continental areas of
day. At night, which of these materials cooled down
the Earth.
at the fastest rate?
B) Rocks seldom undergo change.
C) Most rocks contain fossils. A) basalt B) granite
D) Most rocks have several minerals in common. C) iron D) copper
23. What do most igneous, sedimentary, and
metamorphic rocks have in common?
A) They are formed from molten material.
B) They are produced by heat and pressure.
C) They are composed of minerals.
D) They exhibit crystals, banding, and distinct
layers.
24. In which group are all the earth materials classified
as minerals?
A) feldspar, quartz, and olivine
B) granite, rhyolite, and basalt
C) cobbles, pebbles, and silt
D) conglomerate, sandstone, and shale
25. Of the Earth's more than 2,000 identified minerals,
only a small number are commonly found in rocks.
This fact indicates that most
A) minerals weather before they can be identified
B) minerals have properties that are difficult to
identify
C) rocks have a number of minerals in common
D) exposed surface rocks are igneous
26. Which statement best describes a general property of
rocks?
A) Most rocks have a number of minerals in
common.
B) Most rocks are composed of a single mineral.
C) All rocks contain fossils.
D) All rocks contain minerals formed by
compression and cementation.
27. Which mineral is mined for its iron content?
A) hematite B) fluorite
C) galena D) talc
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 29 through 31 on the mineral chart below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. The mineral chart lists some properties of five minerals that are the major sources of
the same metallic element that is used by many industries.

29. Which mineral has a different common color from its color in powdered form?
A) brucite B) canallite C) magnesite D) olivine
30. Which mineral might scratch the mineral fluorite, but would not scratch the mineral amphibole?
A) brucite B) magnesite C) carnallite D) olivine
31. Which two minerals have compositions that are most similar to calcite?
A) brucite and carnallite B) carnallite and dolomite
C) dolomite and magnesite D) magnesite and olivine

32. The data table below gives characteristics of the gemstone peridot.

Peridot is a form of the mineral

A) pyrite B) pyroxene C) olivine D) garnet
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

33. The diagram of Bowen's Reaction Series below indicates the relative temperatures at which specific
minerals crystallize as magma cools.

Which statement is best supported by Bowen's Reaction Series?

A) Most minerals crystallize at the same temperature.
B) Most felsic minerals usually crystallize before most mafic minerals.
C) Muscovite mica and quartz are the last minerals to crystallize as magma cools.
D) Biotite mica is the first mineral to crystallize as magma cools.
34. The photograph below shows an outcrop where a 35. Which characteristic do samples of the mineral
light-colored, igneous rock is cross cut by a pyroxene normally exhibit?
dark-colored, igneous rock.
A) yellow to amber color
B) bubbling in hydrochloric acid
C) cleaves at 56° and 124°
D) hardness of 5 to 6

This fine-grained, dark-colored, igneous rock is

most likely
A) rhyolite B) diorite
C) basalt D) gabbro
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

36. The diagram below represents the mass and volume of a mineral sample being measured. These
measurements were used to determine the density of the mineral sample.

What is the density of this mineral sample?

A) 6 g/mL B) 24 g/mL C) 34 g/mL D) 60 g/mL
Base your answers to questions 37 and 38 on
the data table below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The table provides information about
four minerals, A through D.

37. Which mineral can scratch A, B, and C, but can not scratch D?
A) talc B) selenite gypsum
C) fluorite D) quartz
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

38. The diagram below represents a sample of mineral A.

Mineral A is most likely

A) garnet B) galena C) olivine D) halite

39. The graph below shows the hardness of four 41. A nonvesicular rock is made entirely of green
minerals. 2-millimeter-diameter crystals that have a hardness
of 6.5 and show fracture, but notcleavage. The rock
is most likely
A) shale B) phyllite
C) dunite D) schist
42. Which mineral would most likely become rounded at
the fastest rate when tumbled along
A) garnet
B) pyroxene
C) plagioclase feldspar
D) selenite gypsum
43. Which mineral will scratch fluorite, galena, and
pyroxene?
A) graphite B) calcite
C) olivine D) dolomite
Which mineral is hard enough to scratch calcite but
is not hard enough to scratch amphibole? 44. What is the approximate density of a mineral with a
mass of 262.2 grams that displaces 46 cubic
A) muscovite mica B) fluorite centimeters of water?
C) olivine D) graphite
A) 1.8 g/cm3 B) 5.7 g/cm3
40. Which two properties are most useful in C) 6.1 g/cm3 D) 12.2 g/cm3
distinguishing between galena and halite?
A) cleavage and color
B) luster and color
C) hardness and streak
D) streak and cleavage
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 45 and 46 on the data table below, which lists some properties of four
minerals that are used as ores of zinc (Zn).

45. Which mineral belongs in the same mineral group as quartz and olivine?
A) zincite B) willemite C) sphalerite D) smithsonite
46. A mineral with a hardness of 5 would scratch
A) all four zinc minerals in the table
B) zincite, but not sphalerite, smithsonite, or willemite
C) zincite and sphalerite, but not smithsonite or willemite
D) zincite, sphalerite, and smithsonite, but not willemite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 47 and 48 on the diagram below, which shows the results of three
different physical tests, A, B, and C, that were performed on a mineral.

47. The luster of this mineral could be determined by

A) using an electronic balance
B) using a graduated cylinder
C) observing how light reflects from the surface of the mineral
D) observing what happens when acid is placed on the mineral
48. Which mineral was tested?
A) amphibole B) quartz C) galena D) graphite

49. Which mineral is commonly used as a food additive?

A) calcite B) talc
C) halite D) fluorite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

50. Which diagram best shows the grain size of some

common sedimentary rocks?
A)

D)
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

51. Base your answer to the following question on "the passage and map below. The map shows the
generalized landscape regions of Vermont.

Landscape Regions of Vermont

Most of Vermont's landscape regions consist of ancient, weathered mountains that were covered by
several ice sheets during the last ice age. When the ice melted, sand, cobbles, and boulders were
deposited throughout the state, Vermont is divided into six landscape regions.

(1) The Vermont Lowlands region has a mild climate, with Lake Champlain moderating its
temperature.
(2) The Green Mountains run the length of Vermont and were formed over 400 million years ago.
Most of the bedrock is metamorphic and the region is known for its deposits of talc and asbestos.
(3) The Taconic Mountains extend into New York State. Slate and marble are commonly mined in
this region.
(4) The Valley of Vermont is a narrow valley between two mountain ranges. Most of the bedrock
in the region is limestone and marble.
(5) The Vermont Piedmont covers the largest area of the state. This region consists of rolling hills
and valleys. Granite mining is an important industry.
(6) The Northeast Highlands is a mountainous region composed of granite bedrock.
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

"
Some of the bedrock in the Green Mountains is actually green in color because of the presence of the
mineral chlorite. Which other mineral can cause rocks to appear green?
A) sulfur B) magnetite C) olivine D) halite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

52. The diagram below shows the index minerals of

Mohs hardness scale compared with the hardness of
some common objects.

Which statement is best supported by the diagram?

A) A fingernail will scratch calcite but not
gypsum.
B) Calcite will be scratched by a copper penny.
C) The mineral apatite will scratch topaz.
D) A steel file has a hardness of about 7.5.
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 53 and 54 on "map below, which shows areas where certain minerals
were mined in significant amounts during 1989.

"
53. The mineral wollastonite has a hardness of 4.5 to 5. Which New York State mineral could easily
scratch wollastonite?
A) garnet B) halite C) talc D) gypsum
54. What is a common use for the mineral that is mined at the southern end of the two largest Finger
Lakes?
A) making talcum powder B) vulcanizing rubber
C) polishing jewelry D) melting ice
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

55. In which set are the rock drawings labeled with their correct rock types?
A)

56. Which mineral has a metallic luster, a black streak, 58. The mineral graphite is often used as
and is an ore of iron?
A) a lubricant
A) galena B) magnetite B) an abrasive
C) pyroxene D) graphite C) a source of iron
57. A student created the table below by classify six D) a cementing material
minerals into two groups, A and B , based on a
single property.

Which property was used to classify' these minerals?

A) color
B) luster
C) chemical composition
D) hardness
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

59. The table below shows the hardness of four common

materials.

Which statement best describes the hardness of the

mineral dolomite?
A) Dolomite can scratch window glass, but can not
be scratched by a fingernail.
B) Dolomite can scratch window glass, but can not
be scratched by a steel nail.
C) Dolomite can scratch a copper penny, but
cannot be scratched by a fingernail.
D) Dolomite can scratch a copper penny, but
cannot be scratched by a steel nail.
60. The diagram below shows four mineral samples, each having approximately the same mass.

If all four samples are placed together in a closed, dry container and shaken vigorously for 10
minutes, which mineral sample would experience the most abrasion?
A) quartz B) amphibole C) pyroxene D) galena
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

61. The table below shows some observed physical properties of a mineral.

Based on these observations, the elements that make up this mineral's composition are
A) sulfur and lead
B) sulfur, oxygen, and hydrogen
C) oxygen, silicon, hydrogen, and magnesium
D) oxygen, silicon, aluminum, and iron
Base your answers to questions 62 and 63 on "
the photograph below. The photograph shows several broken samples of the same colorless mineral.

"
62. Which mineral is most likely shown in the photograph?
A) quartz B) calcite C) galena D) halite
63. Which physical property of this mineral is most easily seen in the photograph?
A) fracture B) hardness C) streak D) cleavage

64. Which home-building material is made mostly from

the mineral gypsum?
A) plastic pipes B) window glass
C) drywall panels D) iron nails
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

65. A human fingernail has a hardness of approximately

2.5. Which two minerals are softer than a human
fingernail?
A) calcite and halite
B) sulfur and fluorite
C) graphite and talc
D) pyrite and magnetite
66. The internal atomic structure of a mineral most
likely determines the mineral's
A) color, streak, and age
B) origin, exposure, and fracture
C) size, location, and luster
D) hardness, cleavage, and crystal shape
67. What is the best way to determine if a mineral
sample is calcite or quartz?
A) Observe the color of the mineral.
B) Place the mineral near a magnet.
C) Place a drop of acid on the mineral.
D) Measure the mass of the mineral.
68. The photograph below shows a piece of halite that
has been recently broken.

Which physical property of halite is demonstrated by

this pattern of breakage?
A) hardness B) streak
C) cleavage D) luster
69. Which mineral will scratch glass (hardness = 5.5),
but not pyrite?
A) gypsum B) fluorite
C) orthoclase D) quartz
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 70 and 71 on "the diagram below, which shows three minerals with
three different physical tests, A, B, and C, being performed on them.

"
70. The results of all three physical tests shown are most useful for determining the
A) rate of weathering of the minerals
B) identity of the minerals
C) environment where the minerals formed
D) geologic period when the minerals formed
71. Which sequence correctly matches each test, A, B, and C, with the mineral property tested?
A) A—cleavage; B—streak; C—hardness B) A—cleavage; B—hardness; C—streak
C) A—streak; B—cleavage; C—hardness D) A—streak; B—hardness; C—cleavage

72. An unidentified mineral that is softer than calcite 73. Which two rocks are primarily composed of a
exhibits a metallic luster and cubic cleavage. This mineral that bubbles with acid?
mineral most likely is
A) limestone and marble
A) galena B) pyrite B) granite and dolostone
C) halite D) pyroxene C) sandstone and quartzite
D) slate and conglomerate
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

74. Which statement about the minerals plagioclase 78. Halite has three cleavage directions at 90º to each
feldspar, gypsum, biotite mica, and talc can best be other. Which model best represents the shape of a
inferred from the chart? broken sample of halite?
A) These minerals have the same chemical and A)
physical properties.
B) These minerals have different chemical
properties, but they have similar physical
properties.
C) These minerals have different physical and B)
chemical properties, but they have identical
uses.
D) The physical and chemical properties of these
minerals determine how humans use them.
C)
75. Which mineral scratches dolomite and is scratched
by olivine?
A) galena B) quartz
C) potassium feldspar D) muscovite mica
76. Which mineral leaves a green-black powder when
rubbed against an unglazed porcelain plate? D)
A) galena B) graphite
C) hematite D) pyrite
77. Which mineral is white or colorless, has a hardness
of 2.5, and splits with cubic cleavage?
A) calcite B) halite 79. Scratching a mineral against a glass plate and
C) pyrite D) mica rubbing a mineral on a streak plate are helpful
procedures for determining a mineral’s
A) density
B) identity
C) cleavage
D) internal atomic structure
80. Which mineral has a hardness of 6, and shows
cleavage?
A) Olivine
B) Talc
C) Hematite
D) Potassium Feldspar
81. Which mineral has a hardness of 2.5 – 3 and makes a
good electrical insulator?
A) Pyroxene B) Biotite Mica
C) Gypsum D) Magnetite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

82. Which mineral has a greater hardness? Base your answers to questions 89 through 92 on the
data table below.
A) Galena B) Olivine
C) Garnet D) Biotite Mica
83. Which mineral bubbles when acid is placed on it?
A) Calcite
B) Pyroxene
C) Potassium Feldspar
D) Garnet
84. What is the hardness of Sulfur?
A) 6.5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 2.5
85. Which mineral shows no cleavage, has a hardness of
7, and a composition of SiO 2?
A) Graphite B) Garnet
C) Halite D) Quartz
86. Which mineral is an ore of iron and has a 89. Moh's scale would be most useful for
characteristic reddish brown streak?
A) finding the mass of a mineral sample
A) magnetite B) pyrite B) finding the density of a mineral sample
C) hematite D) olivine C) identifying a mineral sample
87. Which common mineral fizzes when dilute D) counting the number of cleavage surfaces of a
hydrochloric acid (HCl) is placed on it? mineral sample
A) calcite B) feldspar 90. The durable gemstones ruby and sapphire are
C) quartz D) talc valuable due to their color and hardness. These
gemstones would most likely be located on Moh's
88. Different arrangements of tetrahedra in the silicate scale at the hardness level of
group of minerals result in differences in the
minerals' A) 1 B) 9 C) 3 D) 4
A) age, density, and smoothness 91. Which statement is best supported by the data
B) cleavage, color, and abundance shown?
C) hardness, cleavage, and crystal shape A) An iron nail contains fluorite.
D) chemical composition, size, and origin B) A streak plate is composed of quartz.
C) Topaz is harder than a steel file.
D) Apatite is softer than a copper penny.
92. Moh's scale arranges minerals according to their
relative
A) resistance to breaking
B) resistance to scratching
C) specific heat
D) specific gravity
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

93. The diagrams below represent fractured samples of

four minerals.

Which mineral property is best illustrated by the

samples?
A) hardness B) streak
C) cleavage D) density
94. Which property is most useful in mineral
identification?
A) hardness B) color
C) size D) texture
Base your answers to questions 95 and 96 on "the diagram and table below.

"
95. The original shape of mineral sample A was altered when it was hit with a rock hammer. Which
physical property caused the mineral to break as it did?
A) hardness B) luster C) cleavage D) streak
96. If the volume of mineral sample A is 28 cubic centimeters, sample A is most likely
A) copper B) galena C) chalcopyrite D) dolomite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

97. The diagram below shows the results of one test for 101. One of the most abundant minerals in beach sand is
mineral identification. quartz. Which property of quartz could account for
its abundance?
A) hardness B) texture
C) color D) luster
102. The relative hardness of a mineral can best be
tested by
A) scratching the mineral across a glass plate
B) squeezing the mineral with calibrated pliers
C) determining the density of the mineral
D) breaking the mineral with a hammer
Which mineral property is being tested?
103. Scratching a mineral against a glass plate is a
A) density B) fracture method used for determining the mineral's
C) streak D) luster A) color B) hardness
98. The data table below gives information on mineral C) luster D) cleavage
hardness.
104. Minerals are identified on the basis of
A) the method by which they were formed
B) the type of rock in which they are found
C) the size of their crystals
D) their physical and chemical properties
105. The minerals talc, muscovite mica, quartz, and
olivine are similar because they
A) have the same hardness
B) are the same color
C) contain silicon and oxygen
D) break along cleavage planes
106. Which mineral is commonly mined as a source of
the element lead (Pb)?
Moh's scale would be most useful for A) galena B) quartz
A) identifying a mineral sample C) magnetite D) gypsum
B) finding the mass of a mineral sample
C) finding the density of a mineral sample
D) counting the number of cleavage surfaces of a
mineral sample
99. Which rock type is most likely to be monomineralic?
A) rock salt B) rhyolite
C) basalt D) conglomerate
100. Which mineral property is illustrated by the peeling
of muscovite mica into thin, flat sheets?
A) luster B) streak
C) hardness D) cleavage
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

107. Base your answer to the following question on "

the graph below, which shows the crustal temperature and pressure conditions under which three
different minerals with the same chemical composition (Al2SiO5) crystallize.

"
Which mineral has a chemical composition most similar to andalusite, sillimanite, and kyanite?
A) pyrite B) gypsum
C) dolomite D) potassium feldspar
108. How are the minerals biotite mica and muscovite 110. Which mineral is composed of Calcium and
mica different? Fluorine?
A) Biotite mica is colorless, but muscovite mica A) Amphiboles B) Calcite
is not. C) Hematite D) Fluorite
B) Biotite mica contains iron and/or magnesium,
but muscovite mica does not.
C) Muscovite mica scratches quartz, but biotite
mica does not.
D) Muscovite mica cleaves into thin sheets, but
biotite mica does not.
109. Which of the following elements is not found in
Plagioclase Feldspar?
A) Na B) Al C) Si D) Pb
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 111 through 113 on the table below which provides information about
the crystal sizes and the mineral compositions of four igneous rocks, A, B, C, and D.

111. Rock B most likely is

A) conglomerate B) schist C) obsidian D) peridotite
112. Which characteristic of rock B could be caused by the minerals pyroxene and olivine?
A) green color B) felsic composition
C) folded layers D) metallic luster
113. The mineral quartz in rock A is composed of the two most abundant elements by mass in Earth's
crust. These two elements are oxygen and
A) magnesium B) silicon C) iron D) lead

114. The data table below shows the composition of six

common rock-forming minerals.

The data table provides evidence that

A) the same elements are found in all minerals
B) a few elements are found in many minerals
C) all elements are found in only a few minerals
D) all elements are found in all minerals
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

115. Which graph best represents the textures of granite, 117. The diagrams below show the crystal shapes of two
pegmatite, and rhyolite? minerals.
A)

C)
Quartz and halite have different crystal shapes
primarily because
A) light reflects from crystal surfaces
B) energy is released during crystallization
C) of impurities that produce surface variations
D) D) of the internal arrangement of the atoms
118. Which two minerals have cleavage planes at right
angles?
A) biotite mica and muscovite mica
B) sulfur and amphibole
C) quartz and calcite
116. Which property is most useful in distinguishing
D) halite and pyroxene
pyroxene from amphibole?
A) sample size
B) hardness
C) type of luster
D) angles of cleavage
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 119 through 121 on "the two tables below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. Table 1 shows the composition, hardness, and average density of four minerals often
used as gemstones. Table 2 lists the minerals in Moh's Scale of Hardness from 1 (softest) to 10
(hardest).

"
119. Sapphire is a gemstone variety of which mineral on Moh's scale of hardness?
A) corundum B) diamond C) fluorite D) topaz
120. Which gemstone minerals contain the two most abundant elements by mass in Earth's crust?
A) emerald and spinel B) emerald and zircon
C) sapphire and spinel D) sapphire and zircon
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

121. The hardness and density of each gemstone is based primarily on the gemstone's
A) internal arrangement of atoms B) geologic time of formation
C) oxygen content D) natural abundance

122. The diagram below represents a part of the crystal structure of the mineral kaolinite.

An arrangement of atoms such as the one shown in the diagram determines a mineral's
A) age of formation B) infiltration rate
C) physical properties D) temperature of formation
123. The photograph below shows a broken piece of the 124. The diagram below shows how a sample of the
mineral calcite. mineral mica breaks when hit with a rock hammer.

The calcite breaks in smooth, flat surfaces because

calcite This mineral breaks in smooth, flat surfaces
A) is very dense because it
B) is very soft A) is very hard
C) contains certain impurities B) is very dense
D) has a regular arrangement of atoms C) contains large amounts of iron
D) has a regular arrangement of atoms
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 125 and 126 on

Moh's mineral hardness scale and on the chart below
showing the approximate hardness of some common
objects.

125. Which statement is best supported by this scale?

A) A fingernail will scratch calcite, but not
quartz.
B) A fingernail will scratch quartz, but not
calcite.
C) A piece of glass can be scratched by quartz,
but not by calcite.
D) A piece of glass can be scratched by calcite,
but not by quartz.
126. The hardness of these minerals is most closely
related to the
A) mineral's color
B) mineral's abundance in nature
C) amount of iron the mineral contains
D) internal arrangement of the mineral's atoms

127. Which of the following show cleavage in 2

directions at 90%?
A) Pyrite B) Pyroxene
C) Garnet D) Fluorite
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 128 and 129 on the table below, which shows the characteristics of
four different mineral samples.

128. Which two mineral samples would be most difficult to distinguish from each other based on their
color, luster, and streak?
A) halite and quartz B) halite and gold
C) galena and quartz D) galena and gold
129. Which two mineral samples most likely have a similar internal arrangement of atoms?
A) galena and quartz B) galena and halite
C) gold and halite D) gold and galena

130. A mineral’s crystal shape and cleavage are a direct 131. The elements contained in four minerals are given
result of the mineral’s in the table below. The basic structural unit of one
of the minerals is also shown. The atom of element
A) hardness
1 is surrounded by four atoms of element 2.
B) abundance in nature
C) arrangement of atoms
D) exposure to the hydrosphere and atmosphere

In which mineral are the atoms arranged as shown

in the basic structural unit?
A) fluorite B) halite
C) quartz D) galena
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

132. The diagram below shows a broken crystal of the 136. The physical properties of minerals result from
mineral halite their
A) density and color
B) texture and color of streak
C) type of cleavage and hardness
D) internal arrangement of atoms
137. A mineral's physical characteristics, such as
hardness, cleavage, and luster, are dependent on the
A) size of the mineral sample
The shape of the halite crystal is a direct result of
B) age of the mineral sample
the
C) method by which the mineral sample was
A) internal arrangement of the atoms in the broken
crystal D) internal arrangement of the mineral's atoms
B) emperature at which the crystal formed
138. The cleavage or fracture of a mineral is normally
C) type of surface on which the crystal formed determined by the mineral's
D) stream erosion that changed the crystal
A) density
133. Differences in hardness between minerals are most
B) oxygen content
likely caused by the
C) internal arrangement of atoms
A) internal arrangement of atoms D) position among surrounding minerals
B) external arrangement of flat surfaces
139. Which model best represents the silicon-oxygen
C) number of pointed edges tetrahedron?
D) member of cleavage planes
134. Which property of the mineral diamond allows
diamond powder to be used to shape gems for
jewelry? A)

A) crystal shape B) cleavage

C) luster D) hardness
135. Which diagram best represents the silicon-oxygen B)
tetrahedron of which talc, feldspar, and quartz are
composed?

C)
A) B)

D)
C) D)
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

140. The diagrams below illustrate a specific property of 143. Although diamonds and graphite both consist of the
certain minerals. element carbon, their physical properties are very
different. The most likely explanation for these
differences is that
A) the internal arrangement of carbon atoms is
different in each mineral
B) graphite contains impurities not found in
diamonds
C) graphite contains radioactive carbon-14 but
This property is most closely related to the diamonds do not
D) diamonds contain silicate tetrahedra but
A) arrangement of atoms in the mineral graphite does not
B) impurities found in the mineral
144. The mineral mica breaks evenly along flat sheets
C) softness of the mineral
mainly because of its
D) density of the mineral
A) atomic arrangement
141. The diagram below represents top and side views
B) chemical composition
of a model of the silicate tetrahedron.
C) hardness
D) density
145. The diagram below represents a basic atomic
structure that forms when oxygen and silicon unite.

This tetrahedron is found in large amounts in the

Earth's
This structure is called a
A) hydrosphere B) troposphere
A) tetrahedron B) cube
C) lithosphere D) stratosphere
C) sphere D) cylinder
142. Two minerals made of pure carbon are diamond
146. What causes the characteristic crystal shape and
and graphite. Which statement best explains why
cleavage (breaking along flat surfaces) of the
diamond is so much more resistant to scratching
mineral halite as shown in the diagram below?
than graphite?
A) The atoms are lighter in graphite than in
diamond.
B) The atoms are heavier in graphite than in
diamond.
C) The atoms are bonded together more strongly
in diamond than in graphite. A) metamorphism of the halite
D) The atoms are smaller in graphite than in B) the internal arrangement of the atoms in halite
diamond. C) the amount of erosion the halite has undergone
D) the shape of other minerals located where the
halite formed
MINERALS MEGA PACKET

147. Two mineral samples have different physical 150. The crystal characteristics of quartz shown in the
properties, but each contains silicate tetrahedrons accompanying diagram are the result of the
as its basic structural unit. Which statement about
the two mineral samples must be true?
A) They have the same density.
B) They are similar in appearance.
C) They contain silicon and oxygen.
D) They are the same mineral. A) internal arrangement of the elements from
148. Which element combines with silicon to form the which quartz is formed
tetrahedral unit of structure of the silicate minerals? B) shape of the other rock crystals in the area
where the quartz was formed
A) oxygen B) nitrogen
C) amount of weathering that the quartz has been
C) potassium D) hydrogen
exposed to
149. Which object is the best model of the shape of a D) age of the quartz crystal
silicon-oxygen structural unit?
A) B)

C) D)
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

1. What are the rock name and map symbol used to 2. The map below shows the area that, at one time, was
represent the sedimentary rock that has a grain size of covered by ancient Lake Bonneville. Evidence of
0.006 to 0.2 centimeters? ancient shorelines indicates that, near the end of the
last ice age, Lake Bonneville existed in western Utah
A)
and eastern Nevada. The Great Salt Lake in Utah is a
remnant of the former Lake Bonneville.

Which material that was formerly on the bottom of

Lake Bonneville is most likely exposed on the land
D) surface today?
A) folded metamorphic bedrock
B) flat-lying evaporite deposits
C) coarse-grained coal beds
D) fine-grained layers of volcanic lava
3. Which mineral precipitates from oceans and forms
rock salt?
A) quartz B) fluorite
C) halite D) olivine
4. Most rocks that form from fragmental rock particles
are classified as
A) extrusive igneous
B) intrusive igneous
C) clastic sedimentary
D) chemical sedimentary
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

5. A student classified the rock below as sedimentary.

Which observation about the rock best supports this

classification?
A) The rock is composed of several minerals.
B) The rock has a vesicular texture.
C) The rock contains fragments of other rocks.
D) The rock shows distorted and stretched pebbles.
6. Soil that contains large quantities of calcium was
most likely formed by the weathering of
A) rock salt B) quartzite
C) coal D) limestone
7. Most sandstone bedrock is composed of sediment that
was
A) sorted by size and not layered
B) sorted by size and layered
C) unsorted and not layered
D) unsorted and layered
8. Which process led to the formation of thick salt
deposits found in the bedrock at some locations in
New York State?
A) melting B) runoff
C) condensation D) evaporation
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

9. Base your answer to the following question on the cross sections below, which represent two bedrock
outcrops 15 kilometers apart. The rock layers have been numbered for identification and some contain
the index fossil remains shown.

When these rocks were deposited as sediments, this area was most likely
A) under the ocean B) a desert between high mountains
C) repeatedly covered by lava flows D) glaciated several times
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 10 through 12 on the drawings of six sedimentary rocks labeled A
through F.

10. Which table shows the rocks correctly classified by texture?

11. Which two rocks are composed primarily of quartz, feldspar, and clay minerals?
A) rock salt and conglomerate B) rock salt and breccia
C) sandstone and shale D) sandstone and limestone
12. Most of the rocks shown were formed by
A) volcanic eruptions and crystallization B) compaction and/or cementation
C) heat and pressure D) melting and/or solidification

13. A student obtains a cup of quartz sand from a beach.

A saltwater solution is poured into the sand and
allowed to evaporate. The mineral residue from the
saltwater solution cements the sand grains together,
forming a material that is most similar in origin to
A) an extrusive igneous rock
B) an intrusive igneous rock
C) a clastic sedimentary rock
D) a foliated metamorphic rock
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

14. The diagram below shows a drill core of sediment

that was taken from the bottom of a lake.

Which types of rock would most likely form from

compaction and cementation of these sediments?
A) sandstone and limestone
B) shale and coal
C) breccia and rock salt
D) conglomerate and siltstone
15. Which type of rock most likely contains fossils?
A) scoria B) gabbro
C) schist D) shale
Base your answers to questions 16 and 17 on the cross section below, which shows a typical bedrock
structure where oil and natural gas deposits are found.

16. According to the diagram, in which type of rock are these natural gas and oil deposits found?
A) coarse-textured igneous rock B) foliated metamorphic rock
C) porous clastic sedimentary rock D) intrusive crystalline sedimentary rock
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

17. The natural gas, oil, and saltwater have formed layers at different levels in the same rock layer due to
the
A) principle of superposition
B) principle of original horizontality
C) differences in the density of the three materials
D) differences in the geologic age of the three materials

18. The profile below shows the average diameter of sediment that was sorted and deposited in specific
areas A, B, C, and D by a stream entering an ocean.

As compaction and cementation of these sediments eventually occur, which area will become
siltstone?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
19. Base your answer to the following question on
the cross sections below, which show widely separated outcrops at locations X, Y, and Z.

Which rock layer was formed by the compaction and cementation of particles that were all less than
0.0004 centimeter in diameter?
A) red sandstone B) green shale C) brown siltstone D) conglomerate
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

20. Which type of rock is most likely to contain fossils?

A) granite B) gneiss
C) shale D) metaconglomerate
21. Particles of sediment collected from a lake bottom
averaged 1.2 centimeters in diameter. If left on the
lake bottom to become buried by more sediment and
compressed into rock, these particles would form
A) sandstone B) conglomerate
C) quartzite D) granite
Base your answers to questions 22 and 23 on the diagram below, which represents a cross section of
rock layers that have not been overturned.

22. The breccia layer is composed mostly of

A) cemented, rounded rock fragments B) cemented, angular rock fragments
C) intergrown, fine-textured crystals D) microscopic shells
23. Within which rock type would a fossil most likely be found?
A) B) C) D)
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

24. Base your answer to the following question on the 28. Base your answer to the following question on
diagram below, which represents a rock sample the rock sample shown below.
containing fossilized Coelophysis footprints.

The siltstone layer containing the dinosaur footprints

was turned into rock by
A) folding and faulting
B) burial and cementation
C) weathering and erosion
The rounded pebbles of this rock have been
D) deformation and melting
cemented together to form
25. A rock is composed of several large, rounded
pebbles and sand grains cemented together. Which A) granite, an igneous rock
inference about the rock is best supported by this B) conglomerate, a sedimentary rock
description? C) siltstone, a sedimentary rock
D) Weiss, a metamorphic rock
A) The rock is older than the pebbles.
B) The rock is igneous. 29. Which rock is made up of angular fragments of rock
C) The rock is sedimentary. held together by a natural cement?
D) The rock resulted from evaporation of sea A) breccia B) scoria
water. C) granite D) quartzite
26. A stream slows to a velocity of 300 centimeters per 30. Which sedimentary rock would be formed by the
second. Which type of sedimentary rock would most compaction and cementation of particles 1.5
likely form from the deposition occurring at this centimeters in diameter?
location?
A) shale B) sandstone
A) shale B) siltstone C) conglomerate D) siltstone
C) sandstone D) conglomerate
31. Which sedimentary rock is formed by the
27. Which sedimentary rocks are clastic and consist of compaction and cementation of sorted sediments
particles that have diameters smaller than 0.006 0.05 centimeter in diameter?
centimeter?
A) shale B) siltstone
A) conglomerate and sandstone C) sandstone D) conglomerate
B) siltstone and shale
C) bituminous coal and breccia
D) fossil limestone and chemical limestone
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

32. The diagram below shows a sedimentary rock drawn 37. The diagram below shows actual sizes and shapes of
actual size. particles removed from a clastic sedimentary rock.

The sediments are from

This rock is classified as having a A) chemical limestone

B) conglomerate
A) elastic texture consisting of sand-size particles C) granite
B) clastic texture consisting of mixed grain sizes D) sandstone
C) nonclastic texture with mixed grain sizes
D) nonclastic texture with coarse-grained particles 38. Which land-derived sedimentary rock could have
formed by the compaction and cementation of
33. Which statement about the formation of a rock is particles smaller than 0.0003 centimeter in diameter?
best supported by geologic evidence?
A) shale B) siltstone
A) Magma must be weathered before it can change C) sandstone D) limestone
to metamorphic rock.
B) Sediment must be compacted and cemented
before it can change to sedimentary rock.
C) Sedimentary rock must melt before it can
change to metamorphic rock.
D) Metamorphic rock must melt before it can
change to sedimentary rock.
34. Which symbol represents the sedimentary rock with
the smallest grain size?
A) B)

C) D)

35. Which sedimentary rock is formed by compaction

and cementation of land-derived sediments?
A) siltstone B) dolostone
C) rock salt D) rock gypsum
36. Which bedrock would be most likely to contain
fossils?
A) Precambrian granite
B) Cambrian shale
C) Pleistocene basalt
D) Middle-Proterozoic quartzite
8R ALL ROCKS MEGA PACKET

Base your answers to questions 39 and 40 on the 43. Which group lists rocks in order by grain size from
diagram below, which is a geologic cross section of smallest to largest?
an area where a river has exposed a 300-meter cliff
A) conglomerate, sandstone, shale
of sedimentary rock layers. The rock layers are
B) sandstone, shale, conglomerate
labeled A through I. Line XY represents a gap in the
geologic record (an unconformity). C) shale, sandstone, conglomerate
D) shale, conglomerate, sandstone
44. Which type of rock is likely to show ripple marks
and fossils?
A) intrusive igneous B) extrusive igneous
C) metamorphic D) sedimentary
Base your answers to questions 45 and 46 on the
diagram below.

39. Rock layer H was most likely formed as a result of

A) cooling of melted rock material
45. Which two processes formed this rock?
B) compaction and cementation of sediments
C) heat and pressure from overlying rock layers A) folding and faulting
D) recrystallization of minerals due to crustal B) melting and solidification
uplift C) compaction and cementation
D) heating and application of pressure
40. If rock layer G contained angular fragments instead
of rounded fragments, it would be classified as a 46. Which sedimentary rock is shown in the diagram?
A) breccia A) conglomerate B) sandstone
B) gneiss C) siltstone D) shale
C) siltstone
D) chemical limestone 47. Which kind of bedrock would most likely contain
fossils?
41. Which processes most often cause fossil evidence to A) a high-grade metamorphic rock layer made
be preserved in rock? from mixed igneous and sedimentary layers
A) weathering and erosion B) a series of alternating layers of shale and
B) melting and faulting sandstone
C) deposition and cementation C) a basalt lava flow from an ancient volcano
D) folding and metamorphism D) a mass of granite in the core of a mountain

42. Which feature is characteristic of sedimentary rocks?

A) layering B) foliation
C) distorted structure D) glassy texture
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48. Which sequence of events occurs in the formation of 52. A rock that forms directly from land-derived
a sedimentary rock? sediments is
A) A) sandstone B) dolostone
C) gabbro D) granite
B)
53. Which characteristic determines whether a rock is
classified as a shale, a siltstone, a sandstone, or a
C)
conglomerate?
D) A) the absolute age of the sediments within the
rock
49. The dot below is a true scale drawing of the smallest B) the mineral composition of the sediments
particle found in a sample of cemented sedimentary within the rock
rock. C) the particle size of the sediments within the
rock
D) the density of the sediments within the rock
What is this sedimentary rock? 54. Which property best describes a rock which has
A) conglomerate B) sandstone formed from sediments?
C) siltstone D) shale A) crystalline structure
50. Which rock was most likely formed from pebble B) distorted structure
sized sediment deposited in shallow water at an C) banding or zoning of minerals
ocean shoreline? D) fragmental particles arranged in layers
A) shale B) basalt 55. Which sedimentary rock would be composed of
C) siltstone D) conglomerate particles ranging in size from 0.0004 centimeter to
51. The diagram below represents a conglomerate rock. 0.006 centimeter?
Some of the rock particles are labeled. A) conglomerate B) dolostone
C) siltstone D) shale
56. Which characteristic would best indicate that a rock
was formed from sediments deposited in shallow
water near shore rather than in deep water?
A) hardness
B) a dark color
C) a large grain size
D) a large amount of cement
57. Brachiopod fossils were found in a layer of
Which conclusion is best made about the rock limestone rock. In which type of environment did
particles? the limestone layer form?
A) They are the same age. A) shallow marine B) tropical forest
B) They originated from a larger mass of igneous C) coastal plain D) interior grassland
rock. 58. Which rock is sedimentary in origin and formed as a
C) They all contain the same minerals. result of chemical processes?
D) They have different origins.
A) granite B) shale
C) breccia D) dolostone
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59. Dolostone is classified as which type of rock?

A) land-derived sedimentary rock
B) chemically formed sedimentary rock
C) foliated metamorphic rock
D) nonfoliated metamorphic rock
60. Base your answer to the following question on the maps below, which show changes in the
distribution of land and water in the Mediterranean Sea region that scientists believe took place over a
period of 6 million years.

Which type of rock was precipitated from seawater as the Mediterranean Sea evaporated between
million years ago and 5.5 million years ago?
A) rock salt B) basalt
C) sandstone D) metaconglomerate
61. Which process most likely formed a layer of the
sedimentary rock, gypsum?
A) precipitation from seawater
B) solidification of magma
C) folding of clay-sized particles
D) melting of sand-sized particles
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Base your answers to questions 62 and 63 on the map and cross section below. The shaded areas on
the map represent regions of the United States that have evaporite rock layers (layers of rock formed
from the evaporation of seawater) under the surface bedrock. The cross section shows the generalized
structure of the area in which the evaporite layers are found in New York State.

62. The surface rocks overlying these evaporite rock layers are most likely which type of rock?
A) sedimentary B) plutonic igneous
C) regional metamorphic D) contact metamorphic
63. Each of these evaporite rocks is normally formed by
A) chemical processes B) cooling of lava
C) decreased heat and pressure D) melting of magma

64. Large deposits of rock gypsum and rock salt usually 66. The chemical precipitation of dissolved minerals
form in areas of from ocean water results in the formation of
A) active volcanoes A) sedimentary rock
B) continental ice sheets B) metamorphic rock
C) fault zones in the crust C) fine-grained igneous rock
D) shallow evaporating seas D) coarse-grained igneous rock
65. Which type of rock is represented by the map
symbol below?

A) clastic sedimentary rock formed from organic

substances
B) chemically formed sedimentary rock that
consists mainly of the mineral calcite
C) regional metamorphic rock with block like
foliation
D) contact metamorphic rock that results from the
alteration of limestone by contact with an
igneous intrusion
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67. The diagram below represents a geologic cross 69. The map below shows certain mineral deposits in the
section of a location in Texas where an oil well has surface bedrock in areas of the United States.
been drilled into the bedrock.

Oil, water, and natural gas can collect and stay in the
sandstone layer because sandstone often
A) has a grain size ranging from fine to coarse
(0.006 to 0.2 cm)
B) is composed mainly of grains of quartz
C) contains air spaces, making it porous and What do each of these areas of mineral deposits have
permeable in common?
D) metamorphoses to quartzite
A) They are active fault zones of the Earth's crust.
68. Which process could lead most directly to the B) They were once covered by evaporating seas.
formation of a sedimentary rock? C) They presently have hot, dry climates.
A) metamorphism of unmelted material D) They are sites of active volcanoes.
B) slow solidification of molten material 70. Limestone can form as a result of
C) sudden upwelling of lava at a mid-ocean ridge
A) cooling of molten rock under the oceans
D) precipitation of minerals from evaporating
water B) metamorphosis of conglomerate rock
C) precipitation from evaporating water
D) radioactive decay of dolostone
71. Which sedimentary rocks are formed by chemical
precipitation from seawater?
A) gypsum and limestone
B) fossil limestone and shale
C) sandstone and siltstone
D) conglomerate and dolostone
72. Which rock is formed by precipitation from
evaporating water?
A) granite B) sandstone
C) shale D) salt
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73. Limestone, gypsum, and salt are rocks formed by the

processes of
A) melting and solidification
B) evaporation and precipitation
C) erosion and deposition
D) weathering and metamorphism
74. Large rock salt deposits in the Syracuse area indicate
that the area once had
A) large forests
B) a range of volcanic mountains
C) many terrestrial animals
D) a warm, shallow sea
75. Dolostone is formed by the
A) local metamorphism of marble
B) biological deposition of skeletons and shells
C) chemical replacement of limestone
D) mechanical deposition of silts
76. Which sedimentary rock could form as a result of
evaporation?
A) conglomerate B) sandstone
C) shale D) limestone
Base your answers to questions 77 and 78 on the diagram below, which represents a rock composed
of cemented pebbles and sand.

77. Which change would most likely occur if this rock became buried deep within Earth's crust and was
subjected to intense heat and pressure, but did not melt?
A) The density of the pebbles and sand would decrease.
B) The rock would become a plutonic rock composed mostly of quartz.
C) The rock would become more felsic with a higher concentration of magnesium.
D) The pebbles would become distorted and the sand would be recrystallized.
78. This rock should be classified as
A) an intrusive igneous rock B) an extrusive igneous rock
C) a bioclastic sedimentary rock D) a clastic sedimentary rock
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79. Most of the sediment that is compacted and later

forms shale bedrock is
A) clay B) silt
C) sand D) pebbles
80. The geologic cross section below shows several rock units of Earth's crust. Some rock units are
labeled A through E.

Which two rock units formed from sediments deposited in horizontal layers?
A) A and B B) B and C C) C and D D) D and E
81. The diagram below shows three stages in the formation of a specific rock.

Which rock is formed as a result of these three stages?

A) limestone B) gneiss C) schist D) coal
82. Which two processes lead directly to the formation
of both breccia and conglomerate?
A) melting and solidification
B) heat and pressure
C) compaction and cementation
D) evaporation and precipitation
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83. The diagram below shows some features in a cave.

Which type of rock was chemically weathered by acidic groundwater to produce the cave and its
features?
A) siltstone B) basalt C) quartzite D) limestone
84. The presence of brachiopod, nautiloid, and coral
fossils in the surface bedrock of a certain area
indicates the area was once covered by
A) tropical vegetation B) glacial deposits
C) volcanic ash D) ocean water
85. Which rock was organically formed and sometimes
contains fossilized plant impressions?
A) rock gypsum B) phyllite
C) breccia D) coal
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86. The fossil below was found in surface bedrock in the

eastern United States.

Which statement best describes the formation of the

rock containing this fossil?
A) The rock was formed by the metamorphism of
sedimentary rock deposited in a terrestrial
environment during the Cretaceous Period.
B) The rock was formed by the compaction and
cementation of sediments deposited in a
terrestrial environment during the Triassic
Period.
C) The rock was formed by the compaction and
cementation of sediments deposited in a
marine environment during the Cambrian
Period.
D) The rock was formed from the solidification of
magma in a marine environment during the
Triassic Period.
87. Which phrase best describes coal?
A) low density, mafic
B) chemical precipitate
C) organic plant remains
D) glassy texture, volcanic
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88. The sequence of diagrams below represents the gradual geologic changes in layer X, located just
below Earth's surface.

Which type of sedimentary rock was formed at layer X?

A) conglomerate B) shale C) rock salt D) coal
89. The diagram below represents the fossils found in a 90. Which map symbol is used to represent an
bedrock formation located in central Rhode Island. organically formed sedimentary rock composed
mostly of carbon?
A) B)

C) D)

91. Fossils would most likely be found in a sample of

A) limestone B) granite
C) quartzite D) metaconglomerate

In which type of rock were the fossils most likely

found?
A) sedimentary rock that formed in an ocean
environment
B) sedimentary rock that formed in a land
environment
C) igneous rock that formed in an ocean
environment
D) igneous rock that formed in a land environment
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92. Base your answer to the following question on the 98. Limestone is a sedimentary rock which may form as
index fossil below, which was found in surface a result of
bedrock in Connecticut.
A) melting
B) recrystallization
C) metamorphism
D) biologic processes
99. The photograph below shows an igneous rock with
mineral crystals ranging in size from 2 to 6
millimeters. The rock is composed of 58%
plagioclase feldspar, 26% amphibole, and 16%
biotite.
The surface bedrock in which this index fossil was
found is most likely composed of
A) basalt B) granite
C) limestone D) anthracite coal
93. Which sedimentary rock may form as a result of
biologic processes?
A) shale B) siltstone
C) fossil limestone D) breccia
94. Which rock most likely formed as a result of
biologic processes?
What is the name of this rock?
A) granite B) basalt
A) diorite B) gabbro
C) sandstone D) limestone
C) andesite D) pumice
95. Which rock type most often contains fossils?
100. Which processes lead directly to the formation of
A) gabbro B) quartzite igneous rock?
C) limestone D) metaconglomerate A) weathering and erosion
96. Sedimentary rocks of organic origin would most B) compaction and cementation
likely be formed from C) heat and pressure
A) sediments eroded by running water D) melting and solidification
B) materials deposited by glaciers 101. Which texture best describes an igneous rock that
C) shells of marine animals formed deep underground?
D) particles removed from A) glassy B) vesicular
the atmosphere by precipitation
C) fine grained D) coarse grained
97. Which sedimentary rock formed from the
102. Mineral crystals of quartz, biotite mica, and
compaction and cementation of fragments of the
amphibole are produced primarily by the
skeletons and shells of sea organisms?
A) chemical reaction of elements in seawater
A) shale B) gypsum
B) cooling and solidification of magma
C) limestone D) conglomerate
C) deposition of sediments by a glacier
D) metamorphism of bituminous coal
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103. What is the color and type of rock that forms

oceanic crust at mid-ocean ridges?
A) light colored and igneous
B) light colored and sedimentary
C) dark colored and igneous
D) dark colored and sedimentary
104. Obsidian's glassy texture indicates that it formed
A) slowly, deep below Earth's surface
B) slowly, on Earth's surface
C) quickly, deep below Earth's surface
D) quickly, on Earth's surface
105. The flowchart below illustrates the change from
melted rock to basalt.

The solidification of the melted rock occurred

A) slowly, resulting in fine-grained minerals
B) slowly, resulting in coarse-grained minerals
C) rapidly, resulting in coarse-grained minerals
D) rapidly, resulting in fine-grained minerals
106. Which graph best represents the relative densities of three different types of igneous rock?
A) B)

C) D)
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107. Which igneous rock is dark colored, cooled rapidly

on Earth's surface, and is composed mainly of
plagioclase feldspar, olivine, and pyroxene?
A) obsidian B) rhyolite
C) gabbro D) scoria
108. Base your answer to the following question on
on the data table below, which shows information about the four largest asteroids found in our solar
system.

The surface rocks of Vesta contain significant amounts of the mineral pyroxene. If rocks on Vesta
are similar to rocks on Earth, which two igneous rocks would most likely be found on the surface of
Vesta?
A) basalt and scoria B) dunite and granite
C) peridotite and pumice D) rhyolite and pegmatite
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109. Base your answer to the following question on

on the photographs and news article below.

Old Man's Loss Felt in New Hampshire

FRANCONIA, N.H. — Crowds of visitors were drawn to Franconia Notch on Sunday to

mourn the loss of New Hampshire's well-known symbol — the Old Man of the Mountain granite
profile.
The 700-ton natural formation was just a pile of rocks after breaking loose from its
1,200-foot-high mountainside perch. It was unclear when the outcropping fell because clouds
had obscured the area Thursday and Friday; a state park trail crew discovered the collapse
Saturday morning.
The famous mountain's history dates millions of years. Over time, nature carved out a
40-foot-tall profile resembling an old man's face, and it eventually became New Hampshire's
most recognizable symbol.
The Buffalo News, May 5, 2003
The granite bedrock formed when
A) sediments were buried B) a volcano erupted
C) magma cooled underground D) limestone recrystallized
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110. Base your answer to the following question on the passage and map below. The map shows the
generalized landscape regions of Vermont.

Landscape Regions of Vermont

Most of Vermont's landscape regions consist of ancient, weathered mountains that were covered
by several ice sheets during the last ice age. When the ice melted, sand, cobbles, and boulders were
deposited throughout the state, Vermont is divided into six landscape regions.

(1) The Vermont Lowlands region has a mild climate, with Lake Champlain moderating its
temperature.
(2) The Green Mountains run the length of Vermont and were formed over 400 million years
ago. Most of the bedrock is metamorphic and the region is known for its deposits of talc and
asbestos.
(3) The Taconic Mountains extend into New York State. Slate and marble are commonly mined
in this region.
(4) The Valley of Vermont is a narrow valley between two mountain ranges. Most of the
bedrock in the region is limestone and marble.
(5) The Vermont Piedmont covers the largest area of the state. This region consists of rolling
hills and valleys. Granite mining is an important industry.
(6) The Northeast Highlands is a mountainous region composed of granite bedrock.
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Which processes formed the granite that is mined in Vermont?

A) compaction and cementation of sediments
B) cooling and solidification of magma
C) uplift and weathering of bedrock
D) application of heat and pressure to shale
Base your answers to questions 111 and 112 on the block diagram below, which shows a portion of
Eath's crust. Letters A, B, C, and D indicate sedimentary layers.

111. Which processes produced rock layer B?

A) subduction and melting B) uplift and solidification
C) heat and pressure D) compaction and cementation
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112. The igneous rock is mostly composed of potassium feldspar and quartz crystals that have an average
grain size of 3 millimeters. The igneous rock is most likely
A) granite B) pegmatite C) gabbro D) pumice

113. The photograph below shows an igneous rock.

What is the origin and rate of formation of this

rock?
A) plutonic with slow cooling
B) plutonic with rapid cooling
C) volcanic with slow cooling
D) volcanic with rapid cooling
114. Which igneous rock has a vesicular texture and
contains the minerals potassium feldspar and
quartz?
A) andesite B) pegmatite
C) pumice D) scoria
115. What is the origin of fine-grained igneous rock?
A) lava that cooled slowly on Earth’s surface
B) lava that cooled quickly on Earth’s surface
C) silt that settled slowly in ocean water
D) silt that settled quickly in ocean water
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116. Base your answer to the following question on the map below. The black triangle represents Mt.
Hekla, a volcano in Iceland. The isolines represent the thickness of ash, in centimeters, that settled
on Earth's surface after a volcanic eruption of Mt. Hekla on March 29, 1947. Point X is a location on
the surface of the ash.

In addition to the ash, solid rock formed on Mt. Hekla from the lava extruded during this eruption.
This rock is most likely
A) light-colored metamorphic B) dark-colored metamorphic
C) fine-grained igneous D) coarse-grained igneous
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Base your answers to questions 117 and 118 on the two tables below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. Table 1 shows the composition, hardness, and average density of four minerals often used as
gemstones. Table 2 lists the minerals in Moh's Scale of Hardness from 1 (softest) to 10 (hardest).

117. Sapphire is a gemstone variety of which mineral on Moh's scale of hardness?

A) corundum B) diamond C) fluorite D) topaz
118. Part of a gemstone's value is based on the way the gemstone shines in reflected light. The way a
mineral reflects light is described as the mineral's
A) fracture B) hardness C) luster D) streak
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119. Which intrusive igneous rock could be composed 123. Which process could lead directly to the formation
of approximately 60% pyroxene, 25% plagioclase of pumice rock?
feldspar, 10% olivine, and 5% amphibole?
A) precipitation of minerals from evaporating
A) granite B) rhyolite seawater
C) gabbro D) basalt B) metamorphism of unmelted rock material
120. Biotite mica and muscovite mica have different C) deposition of quartz sand
chemical compositions. Compared to the magma D) explosive eruption of lava from a volcano
from which biotite mica forms, the magma from 124. Which three minerals are most commonly found in
which muscovite mica forms is usually the igneous rock granite?
A) more mafic and less dense A) amphibole, calcite, and hematite
B) more mafic and more dense B) amphibole, biotite mica, and gypsum
C) more felsic and less dense C) plagioclase feldspar, pyroxene, and olivine
D) more felsic and more dense D) plagioclase feldspar, potassium feldspar,
121. Which igneous rock, when weathered, could and quartz
produce sediment composed of the minerals
potassium feldspar, quartz, and amphibole?
A) gabbro B) granite
C) andesite D) basalt
122. The photograph below shows the intergrown
crystals of a pegmatite rock.

Which characteristic provides the best evidence

that this pegmatite solidified deep underground?
A) low density
B) light color
C) felsic composition
D) very coarse texture
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125. The graph below shows the relationship between the cooling time of magma and the size of the
crystals produced.

Which graph correctly shows the relative positions of the igneous rocks granite, rhyolite, and
pumice?
A) B)

C) D)

126. When granite melts and then solidifies, it becomes

A) a sedimentary rock
B) an igneous rock
C) a metamorphic rock
D) sediments
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127. Which rock most probably formed directly from 128. The photograph below shows actual crystal sizes in
lava cooling quickly at Earth's surface? a light-colored igneous rock that contains several
minerals, including potassium feldspar, quartz, and
A)
biotite mica.

The rock should be identified as

A) granite B) gabbro
C) C) basalt D) rhyolite

D)
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129. Base your answer to the following question on the map below of Iceland, a country located on the
Mid-Atlantic Ridge. Four locations are represented by the letters A through D.

The fine-grained texture of most of the igneous rock formed on the surface of Iceland is due to
A) rapid cooling of the molten rock B) high density of the molten rock
C) numerous faults in the island's bedrock D) high pressure under the island
130. Which common rock is formed from the
solidification of molten material?
A) rock gypsum B) slate
C) rhyolite D) coal
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131. The diagrams below represent four rock samples.

Which rock was formed by rapid cooling in a
volcanic lava flow? [The diagrams are not to scale.]
A)

D)
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132. The diagrams below show the crystals of four different rocks viewed through the same hand lens.
Which crystals most likely formed from molten material that cooled and solidified most rapidly?
A) B)

C) D)

133. Compared to felsic igneous rocks, mafic igneous 137. The picture below shows the igneous rock obsidian.
rocks contain greater amounts of
A) white quartz B) aluminum
C) pink feldspar D) iron
134. An extrusive igneous rock with a mineral
composition of 35% quartz, 35% potassium
feldspar, 15% plagioclase feldspar, 10% biotite,
and 5% amphibole is called
A) rhyolite B) granite
C) gabbro D) basaltic glass
135. Which process is necessary for the formation of
igneous rocks?
A) erosion B) deposition The obsidian's glassy texture indicates that it
C) solidification D) metamorphism formed from a magma that cooled
136. For an igneous rock to be classified as rhyolite, it A) slowly, deep below Earth's surface
must be light colored, be fine grained, and contain B) slowly, on Earth's surface
C) quickly, deep below Earth's surface
A) quartz B) calcite
D) quickly, on Earth's surface
C) pyroxene D) olivine
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138. The table below provides information about the 141. The geologic cross section below shows variations
mineral composition of a sample of beach sand of mineral composition that can be observed in the
from Hawaii. Palisades Sill. The Palisades Sill is an intrusive
igneous rock called diabase.

If the sand deposited on this beach recently

weathered from only one type of igneous rock, the
rock was most likely
A) granite B) peridotite
C) diorite D) basalt
Which other igneous rock is closest to diabase in
139. A fine-grained igneous rock composed mostly of mineral composition?
plagioclase feldspar and hornblende and containing
no quartz or pyroxene would be classified as A) andesite B) granite
C) rhyolite D) gabbro
A) granite B) andesite
C) peridotite D) scoria
140. Which characteristic provides the best evidence
that obsidian rock formed in an extrusive
environment?
A) layers of rounded fragments
B) distorted bands of large mineral crystals
C) noncrystalline glassy texture
D) mineral cement between grains
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142. Base your answer to the following question on the 145. Which two igneous rocks could have the same
map below, which shows seismograph recording mineral composition?
stations at locations A, B, and C. Location D is an
A) rhyolite and diorite
earthquake epicenter. The distances from locations
B) pumice and scoria
A and B to this epicenter are given in kilometers.
C) peridotite and andesite
D) gabbro and basalt
146. A fine-grained igneous rock was probably formed
by
A) weathering and erosion
B) great heat and pressure that did not produce
melting
C) rapid cooling of molten material
D) burial and cementation of sediment

Which statement best describes the igneous crustal

bedrock below locations A, B, C, and D?
A) The bedrock below D is mostly basalt;
below A, B, and C, the bedrock is mostly
granite.
B) The bedrock below D is mostly granite; below
A, B, and C, the bedrock is mostly basalt.
C) The bedrock below A, B, C, and D is mostly
basalt.
D) The bedrock below A, B, C, and D is mostly
granite.
143. Which extrusive igneous rock is composed of
approximately 40% quartz, 20% potassium
feldspar, 20% plagioclase feldspar, 10% biotite
mica, and 10% hornblende?
A) rhyolite B) gabbro
C) granite D) basalt
144. Some Moon rock samples have coarse intergrown
crystals composed of plagioclase feldspar,
hornblende, and olivine. These Moon rock samples
are most similar to Earth rock samples of
A) gabbro B) marble
C) breccia D) pumice
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Base your answers to questions 147 through 150 on

the block diagram below which shows a cross section of Earth's crust. Letter A identifies a lake, and
letters B through G represent different types of bedrock.

147. Rock C most likely resulted from the

A) rapid cooling of lava from volcanic eruptions .
B) regional metamorphism of a previously existing rock
C) compaction and cementation of angular quartz fragments
D) precipitation of minerals from evaporating water
148. Rock B is a dark-colored crystalline rock that formed when a lava flow cooled and solidified quickly
on the surface of Earth.

Rock B is classified as an
A) extrusive igneous rock with a coarse texture and felsic composition
B) extrusive igneous rock with a fine texture and a mafic composition
C) intrusive igneous rock with a coarse texture and a felsic composition
D) intrusive igneous rock with a fine texture and a mafic composition
149. Which diagram best represents a sample of rock G?
A) B) C) D)
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150. Which graph best represents a possible comparison of the average grain sizes for rocks D, E, and F?
A) B) C) D)

151. Which relative concentration of elements is found 154. The diagrams below represent four rock samples.
in a mafic rock? Which rock took the longest time to solidify from
magma deep within the Earth?
A) a high concentration of sil