FLORENCE NURSING ACADEMY
700135665,798772065 SUB – CARDIO VASCULAR
NAME OF THE STUDENT...........................................................................................................
MARKS:- 100 TIME:- 1:30 HRS
Q1. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac
catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the
procedure?
A. Glipizide B. Metformin C. Repaglinide D. Regular insulin
Q2. Aclient in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats/minute, complains of dizziness and has a blood pressure of
82/60 mm Hg. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
A. Administer digoxin. B. Defibrillate the client.
C. Continue to monitor the client. D. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
Q3. A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what
condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for?
A. Bradycardia B. Ventricular dysrhythmias
C. Rising diastolic blood pressure D. Falling central venous pressure
Q4. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no
electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Call a code. B. Call the health care provider.
C. Check the client’s status and lead placement. D. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console
Q5. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval
is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Check vital signs. B. Check laboratory test results.
C. Notify the health care provider. D. Continue to monitor for any rhythm change.
Q6. The client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute. The nurse should assess the
client for which associated signs and/or symptoms?
A. Flat neck veins B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Hypotension and dizziness D. Hypertension and headache
Q7. A client’s electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of110 beats/minute. The PRinterval is 0.14 seconds,
the QRScomplexmeasures 0.08 seconds, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret
this rhythm?
A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus dysrhythmia D. Normal sinus rhythm
Q8. A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. To convert this rhythm effectively, the monophasic
defibrillator machine should be set at which energy level (in joules, J) for the first delivery?
A. 50 J B. 120 J C. 200 J D. 360 J
Q9. The nurse is evaluating a client’s response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority?
A. Blood pressure C. Status of airway C. Oxygen flow rate D. Level of consciousness
Q10. The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which
observation would indicate that the procedure was effective?
A. Muffled heart sounds B. A rise in blood pressure
C. Jugular venous distention D. Client expressions of dyspnea
Q11. The apex beat is felt at which intercostal space-
A. 3rd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th
Q12. The innermost layer of the heart is
A. Epicardium B. Endocardium C. Myocardium D. Pericardium
Q13. Deoxygenated blood from the body via superior and inferior vena cava is received in:
A. Left atrium B. Right ventricle C Right atrium D. Left ventricle
Q14. Which chamber of the into heart oxygenated circulation? ejects general the
A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle
Q15. Which of the following represents lead III of electrocardiography?
A. Right leg to right arm B. Left leg to left arm
C Right leg to left arm D. Left leg to right arm
Q16. The 12 lead key is used to diagnose:-
[Link] and conduction abnormalities
b. Chamber enlargement and injury
[Link] ischemia abnormalities conduction
d. Pulmonary edema and heart failure
A. a, b, c B. b, c, d C. a, b, d D. a,c,d
Q17. To calculate cardiac output, heart rate is multiplied with?
A. Stroke volume B. Systemic arterial pressure
C. Pulmonary arterial pressure D. Circulatory volume
Q18. The artery that supply blood to the diaphragm is called:-
A. Inferior mesentric artery B. Suprarenal arterie
C. Inferior phrenic arteries D. Coelic arteries
Q19. Calcium channel blocking agents of use in the treatment of hypertension include:
A Prazosin B. Lidoflazin C. Captropril D. Nifedipine
Q20. Nifedipine used in the treatment of eclampsia
A. Beta blocker B. Prostaglandin inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker D. Adrenergic antagonist
Q21. Identify the calcium channel blocker from the following
A. Nifedipine B. Atenolol C. Lasix D. Mannitol
[Link] suffering with high blood pressure should be given:-
A. High protein diet B. Less fiber diet
C. Less sodium diet D. Less unsaturated
Q23. One of the following drugs cannot be used in hypertension management:
A. Nifedipine B. Dopamine C. Propranolol D. Reserpine
Q24. The laboratory test which confirm a diagnosis of myocardial infarction is
A. Serum calcium, APPT B. Sedimentation rate, ALT
C. LDH, CK-MB, troponin [Link] (blood urea nitrogen)
Q25. In acute myocardial infarction which enzyme is raised first?
A. CPK-MB B. SGPT C. SGOT D. Troponin-T
Q26. An increase in the creatinine kinase MB isoenzyme (CK-MB) can be caused by:
A. Cerebral bleeding B. Intramuscular injection
C. Skeletal muscle damaged due to recent fall D. Myocardial necrosis
Q27. One of the following is a new test used in acute chest pain:
A. SGOT estimation B. Troponin T or I estimation
C. Blood Cholesterol estimation D. LDH estimation SCTIMST
Q28. Tread Mill test and Stress test are used to detect: (a) Congestive heart failure (b) Arrhythmias (c) Myocardial Infarction
(d) Ventricular Septa Defect 86. Angiography is X-ray visualization of-
A. Heart B. Lungs C. Blood clots D. Blood vessels
Q29. Angiography is X-ray visualization of- (
A. Heart B. Lungs C. Blood clots D. Blood vessels
Q30. A client with angina pectoris has a 12 lead ECG taken during A nurse examines the tracing for which ECG change
caused by MI.
A. Prolonged PR interval B. Widened QRS complex
C. ST segment elevation or D. Tall peaked T waves 88. episode of chest pain. Depression
Q31. Nitroglycerine is administered by which route:
A. Sublingual route B. By inhalation
[Link] parenteral route D. Insertion
Q32. Most serious adverse effects seen with the statins are
A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Gastrointestinal disturbances
C. Hypoglycaemia D. Hypothyroidism
Q33. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedure?
A. Cardiac catheterization B. Oral medication administration
C. Coronary artery bypass surgery D. Percutaneous angioplasty transluminal coronary angioplasty
Q34 The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to the client diagnosed with Myocardial Infarction. Which
assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering this medication?
A. The client's apical pulse is 64 B. The client's calcium level is elevated.
C. The client's telemetry shows occasional PVC's. D. The client's blood pressure is 90/62
Q35. The pain medication of choice in acute myocardial infarction is
A. Pethidine hydrochloride B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Codeine sulphate D. Morphine sulphate
Q36. CABG stands for:
A. Cranial Artery Bypass Graft B. Cerebral Artery Bypass Graft
C. Coronary Artery Bypass Graft D. Cerebellum Artery Bypass Graft
Q37. All are the non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis except
A. High cholesterol intake B. Age
C. Heredity D. Gender atherosclerosis
Q38. Q40. Which one of the following is a modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis? –
A. Cigarette smoking B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Female over 55 years of age D. Sedentary lifestyle
Q39. The most appropriate diet for a patient newly diagnosed with myocardial infarction is:
A. Low- sodium and low- cholesterol B. Clear liquid
C. Nothing by month D. General as tolerated RAK
Q40. One of the most common complications of Myocardial Infarction is:
A. Hypokalemia B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Cardiac dysrhythmia D. Cardiac enlargement
Q41. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the nurse’s instructions concerning a Holter monitor?
A. “The only times the monitor should be taken off is for showering and sleep.”
B. “The monitor will record my activities and symptoms if an abnormal rhythm occurs.”
C. “The results from the monitor will be used to determine the size and shape of my heart.”
D. “The monitor will record any abnormal heart rhythms while I go about my usual activities.”
Q42. A client with a history of dysrhythmias is to wear a Holter monitor for 24 hours on an outpatient basis. What should
the nurse teach the client to do while wearing the monitor?
A. Discontinue medications. B. Avoid using a microwave oven.
C. Keep a written account of activities. D. Record the blood pressure periodically.
Q43. A client with a dysrhythmia is admitted to telemetry for observation. In the morning the client asks for a cup of coffee.
What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “Hot drinks such as coffee are not good for your heart.”
B. “Coffee is not permitted on the diet that was ordered for you.”
C. “You cannot have coffee. I can bring you a cup of tea if you like.”
D. “Coffee has caffeine that can affect your heart. It should be avoided.”
Q44. A client who had several episodes of chest pain is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiogram. Which explanation
should the nurse include when teaching the client about this procedure?
A. “This is a noninvasive test to check your heart’s response to physical activity.”
B. “This test is the definitive method to identify the actual cause of your chest pain.”
C. “The findings of this test will be of minimal assistance in the treatment of angina.”
D. “The findings from this minimally invasive test will show how your body reacts to exercise.”
Q45. A client is admitted with chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, an elevated temperature, decreased blood pressure,
and diaphoresis. A myocardial infarction is diagnosed. Which should the nurse consider as a valid reason for one of this
client’s physiologic responses?
A. Parasympathetic reflexes from the infarcted myocardium cause diaphoresis.
B. Inflammation in the myocardium causes a rise in the systemic body temperature.
C. Catecholamines released at the site of the infarction cause intermittent localized pain.
D. Constriction of central and peripheral blood vessels causes a decrease in blood pressure.
Q46. After surgery for insertion of a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), a client develops a temperature of 102° F (38.8°
C). What priority concern related to elevated temperatures does a nurse consider when notifying the health care provider
about the client’s temperature?
A. A fever may lead to diaphoresis. B. A fever increases the cardiac output.
C. An increased temperature indicates cerebral edema. D An increased temperature may be a sign of hemorrhage.
Q47. A nurse is teaching a group of clients with peripheral vascular disease about a smoking cessation program. Which
physiologic effect of nicotine should the nurse explain to the group?
A. Constriction of the superficial vessels dilates the deep vessels.
B. Constriction of the peripheral vessels increases the force of flow.
C. Dilation of the superficial vessels causes constriction of collateral circulation.
D. Dilation of the peripheral vessels causes reflex constriction of visceral vessels.
Q48. During an interview, the nurse discovers that the spouse of a debilitated, chronically constipated client digitally
removes stool from the client’s rectum. What response to disimpaction is the nurse attempting to prevent by presenting
other strategies to regulate the client’s bowel movements?
A. Increased pulse rate B. Slowing of the heart
C. Dilation of the bronchioles D. Coronary artery vasodilation
Q49. A nurse is assessing the legs of a client with a history of chronic venous insufficiency. What physiologic changes should
the nurse conclude are the result of this disease process? Select all that apply.
A. Stasis ulcer Bue C. Ecchymotic areas 4. Diminished pulses
Q50. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic occlusive arterial disease. What precipitating cause is the nurse most likely to
identify for the development of ulceration and gangrenous lesions?
A. Emotional stress, which is short-lived B. Poor hygiene and limited protein intake
C. Stimulants such as coffee, tea, or cola drinks D. Trauma from mechanical, chemical, or thermal sources
Q51. After abdominal surgery a client suddenly reports numbness in the right leg and a “funny feeling” in the toes. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Elevate the legs and tell the client to drink more fluids.
B. Instruct the client to remain in bed and notify the health care provider.
C. Rub the client’s legs to stimulate circulation and cover the client with a blanket.
D. Tell the client about the dangers of prolonged bed rest and encourage ambulation.
Q52. After a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden drop in blood pressure, but there is no evidence of
bleeding. What should the nurse identify as the most likely cause of the change in blood pressure?
A. Inadequate fluid intake B. Consequence of anesthesia
C. Increased level of epinephrine D. Reallocation of the blood supply
Q53. A nurse inspects a two-day-old intravenous site and identifies erythema, warmth, and mild edema. The client reports
tenderness when the area is palpated. What should the nurse do first?
A. Irrigate the IV tubing. B. Discontinue the infusion.
C. Slow the rate of the infusion. D. Obtain a prescription for an analgesic.
Q54. A client who had surgery 24 hours ago reports pain in the calf. Assessment reveals redness and swelling at the site of
discomfort. What should the nurse do?
A. Keep both legs dependent. B. Notify the health care provider.
C. Apply a warm soak to the left calf. D. Administer the prescribed analgesic.
Q55. What should the nurse teach a client who is taking antihypertensives to do to minimize orthostatic hypotension?
A. Wear support hose continuously. B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking medication.
C. Avoid tasks that require high-energy expenditure. D. Sit on the edge of the bed for 5 minutes before standing.
Q56. A client being treated for hypertension reports having a persistent hacking cough. What class of antihypertensive
should the nurse identify as a possible cause of this response when reviewing a list of this client’s medications?
A. ACE inhibitors B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Calcium channel blockers D. Angiotensin receptor blockers
Q57. What client response indicates to the nurse that a vasodilator medication is effective?
A. Pulse rate decreases from 110 to 75 B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds
C. Increase in the daily amount of urine produced D. Blood pressure changes from 154/90 to 126/72
Q58. What should the nurse assess to determine if a client is experiencing the therapeutic effect of valsartan (Diovan)?
A. Lipid profile B. Apical pulse C. Urinary output D. Blood pressure
Q59. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client with heart disease about cholesterol?
A. Can be found in both plant and animal sources
B. Causes an increase in serum high-density lipoprotein
C. Should be eliminated because it causes the disease process
D. Decreases when unsaturated fats are substituted for saturated fats
Q60. A nurse is providing dietary instruction to a client with cardiovascular disease. Which dietary selection by the client
indicates the need for further instruction?
A. Whole milk with oatmeal B. Garden salad with olive oil
C. Tuna fish with a small apple D. Soluble fiber cereal with skim milk
Q61. The factors associated with a high likelihood of success with PTCA are all, EXCEPT:
A. Age less than 65 years B. Single-vessel disease
C. Absence of calcification D. All of the above
Q62. The serum creatine kinase (CK) rises in a patient with myocardial infarction with in the first:
A. 4-6 hours B. 2-4 days C. 12-18 hours D. 3-6 days
Q63. A type of AV block characterised by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until the P wave fails to conduct is:
A. Second degree AV-Block : Mobiz Type II B. Second degree AV block: Mobiz Type I
C. First degree AV block D. Third degree block
Q64. Rhythms require permanent pacing in patients with cardiac disorders include:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Second-degree Av block : Mobiz Type I
C. Complete heart block D. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome
Q65. The American Heart Association recommended energy dose for defibrillation in ventricular fibrillation using a biphasic
defibrillator is;
A. 200 J B. 400 J C. 150 J D. 100 J
Q66. Multifocal atrial tachycardia are more frequently seen in patients with:
A. Cardiac myopathy B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Diabetic mellitus D. Chronic kidney disease
Q67. A form of ventricular tachycardia usually occurs in the setting of QT prolongation is:
A. Monomorphic VT B. Torsade de points
C. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome
Q68. A condition characterised by a prolonged PR interval more than 0.2 secs in ECG is called:
A. Second degree AV block B. Mobiz Type II AV block
C. First degree Av block D. Complete block
Q69. Which procedure regarding the treatment of varicose veins with slerotherapy is correct:
A. The procedure involves tying off the veins to prevent slugginess of blood from occluding
B. The procedure involves tying off the veins so that circulation is redirected to another area
C. The procedure involves surgically removing the varicosity
D. The procedure involves injecting an agent in to the vein to damage the vein wall and close it off.
Q70. The type of ulcer which is deep, pale and surrounded by a tissue which is cool to touch is :
A. Venous stasis ulcer B. Arterial ulcer
C. Stage 1 ulcer D. Vascular ulcer
Q71. Standard management for a patient with deep vein thrombosis includes:
A. Maintain affected limb in the dependent position
B. Apply cool packs to the affected leg for 20 minutes every 4 hours
C. Administer narcotic analgesic every 4 hours around the clock
D. Maintain bed rest
Q72. Which of tthe following listed assessment finding is typical of cardiac tamponade?
A. A pulse rate of 60 per minute B. Flat neck veins
C. Muffed or distant heart sounds D. A pulse pressure of 18/82 mmHg
Q73. A patient who is sheduled to begin treatment with acetazolamide for the management of glucoma should be
evaluated for allergy to :
A. Glucocorticosteroids B. NSAIDs
C. Penicillin D. Sulfa drugs
Q74. In a patient on mechanical prosthetic heart valve, the recoomended international normalized ratio for anticoagulant
therapy with warfarin sodium is :
A. 2 B. 2.3 C. 3 D. 5
Q75. Intraaortic baloon pump therapy is most often used in the management of:
A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Pulmonary edema D. Aortic insufficiency
Q76. What is a serum in the blood?
A. Liquid portion of blood B. Plasma minus fibrinogen
C. Tissue fluid within lymphatic vessel D. Formed elements and plasma
Q77. Name the term which defines the amount of RBC present in the blood?
A. Hemoglobin B. Hemopoiesis C. Hematocrit D. Myoglobin
Q78. What is the site of hemopoiesis in an embryo?
A. Yolk sac B. Liver C. Thymus D. Spleen
Q79. Name the term given to abnormally low levels of white blood cells?
A. Leukocytosis B. Leucopenia C. Lymphocyte D. Thrombopoietin
Q80. Name the term given to the failure of bone marrow to produce RBC.
A. Aplastic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Hemorrhagic anemia
Q81. The branch of science deals with blood, blood forming tissues and its disorders is called_____
A. Hemopoiesis B. Cardiovascular system
C. Plasmology D. Hematology
Q82. Out of the following, which one is NOT the physical characteristics of the blood?
A. Volume is 15-16 liters in an average sized adult male B. Slightly alkaline pH
C. Constitute 20% of extracellular fluid D. Provide 8% of total body mass
Q83. Blood helps in transportation of the following components, except one, identify that?
A. Hormone B. Oxygen C. Heat D. Lymph
Q84. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
A. Albumin [Link] C. Fibrinogen D. Fibronectin
Q85. The nurse is monitoring an infant with congenital heart disease closely for signs of heart failure (HF). The nurse should
assess the infant for which early sign of HF?
A. Pallor B. Cough
C. Tachycardia D. Slow and shallow breathing
Q86. The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a child with a suspected diagnosis of rheumatic fever, knowing that which
laboratory study would assist in confirming the diagnosis?
A. Immunoglobulin B. Red blood cell count
C. White blood cell count D. Anti–streptolysin O titer
Q87 Aclient with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hour. The nurse determines that
the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which results?
A. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds
Q88. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client who is taking warfarin sodium. Which statement, by the client,
reflects the need for further teaching?
A. “I will avoid alcohol consumption.”
B. “I will take my pills every day at the same time.”
C. “I have already called my family to pick up a MedicAlert bracelet.”
D. “I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach.”
Q89. A client who is receiving digoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) and is complaining of
anorexia. The health care provider prescribes a serum digoxin level to be done. The nurse checks the results and should
expect to note which level that is outside of the therapeutic range?
A. 0.3 ng/mL B. 0.5 ng/mL C. 0.8 ng/mL D. 1.0 ng/mL
Q90. A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following intravenous administration of the
medication, the client complains of dizziness. What intervention should the nurse take first?
A. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm strip.
B. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin tablets.
C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram immediately.
D. Auscultate the client’s apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure.
Q91. The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol. Which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse
complication associated with this medication?
A. The development of complaints of insomnia
B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
C. Abaseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after 2 doses of the
medication
D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/ minute after 2 doses of
the medication
Q92. A client with a clot in the right atrium is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hour and warfarin sodium
7.5 mg at 5:00 p.m. daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), 32
seconds; international normalized ratio (INR), 1.3. The nurse should take which action based on the client’s laboratory
results?
A. Collaborate with the health care provider (HCP) to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin
sodium as prescribed.
B. Collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium
as prescribed.
C. Collaborate with the HCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is
within the therapeutic range.
D. Collaborate with the HCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss use of dabigatran etexilate in
place of warfarin sodium.
Q93. A client is diagnosed with an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen
activator, alteplase. Which action is a priority nursing intervention?
A. Monitor for kidney failure. B. Monitor psychosocial status.
C. Monitor for signs of bleeding. D. Have heparin sodium available.
Q94. The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. The nurse should monitor for which adverse
effects related to the administration of this medication?
A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy
Q95. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that
which medication is available on the nursing unit?
A. Vitamin K B. Protamine sulfate
C. Potassium chloride D. Aminocaproic acid
Q96. A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase suddenly becomes extremely anxious
and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is
the priority?
A. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate.
B. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed.
C. Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT).
D. Administer diphenhydramine and epinephrine and continue the infusion.
Q97. The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic
therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism?
A. Adventitious breath sounds B. Temperature of 99.4 °F (37.4 °C) orally
C. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
Q98. A client is prescribed nicotinic acid for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the
medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
A. “It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol.”
B. “The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing.”
C. “Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern.”
D. “Ibuprofen IB taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.”
Q99. Recognise the tool given in figure
A. Cooley’s arterial valve retractor B. Ribs spreader
C. Rib retractor D. None of the above
Q100. Recognise the tool given in figure
A. Cooley’s arterial valve retractor B. Ribs spreader
C. Rib retractor D. None of the above
Answer key for cardio vascular system test 6
1 B 11 C 21 A 31 A 41 D 51 B 61 D 71 D 81 D 91 B
2 D 12 B 22 C 32 A 42 C 52 D 62 A 72 C 82 A 92 B
3 B 13 C 23 B 33 B 43 D 53 B 63 B 73 D 83 C 93 C
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 D 44 A 54 D 64 C 74 C 84 D 94 C
5 D 15 B 25 A 35 D 45 B 55 D 65 A 75 B 85 C 95 B
6 C 16 A 26 D 36 C 46 B 56 A 66 B 76 B 86 D 96 C
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 A 47 B 57 D 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 C
8 D 18 C 28 C 38 C 48 B 58 D 68 C 78 A 88 D 98 D
9 B 19 D 29 D 39 A 49 A 59 D 69 B 79 B 89 D 99 A
10 B 20 C 30 C 40 C 50 D 60 A 70 D 80 A 90 D 100 B
