SNOW QUIZ-2

Q1. What is a Transform Map in Service-Now?

A. A map to determine relationships between fields displaying an Import Set to
fields in an existing table

Q2. What application is available to all users?

A. Self-Service.

Q3. Where do you change the Smart Filter Condition Builder?

A. Click arrow next to breadcrumb in list

Q4. How do you display the slushbucket?

A. Click List Mechanic gear above check boxes

Q5. What do you call a saved version of a personalized form?

A. A View

Q6. How do you apply a saved filter?

A. Click on the table name at the top of a list and select filter

Q7. What displays fields from one record and can be used to edit the record data?
A. A Form

Q8. What does a red-dashed line indicate?

A. Invalid data or mis-typed word
Q9. What are the field status indicators?
A. Light red - required but has a saved value.
Green - Modified field content - need to save.
Red - Required and needs value.
Orange - Read-only

Q10. What do you click to save changes on a new form and return to the prev
viewed page?
A. SUBMIT

Q11. What do you click to save changes on an existing record and return to prev
form?
A. UPDATE

Q12. What do you click on to save changes without leaving the form?
A. Right click form header and click save

Q13. What do you do to save a new record to the db instead of updating the current
item?
A. Insert or Insert and stay

Q14. What is a rule that applies to a form to dynamically change form information
on the form itself?
A. UI POLICY

Q15. What enables admins to set mandatory and read-only state for field?
A. DATA POLICY
Q16. What do you use to put buttons, links and context menu items on forms and
lists?
A. UI ACTIONS

Q17. What is a control that applies permissions, sends notifications and triggers
other processes when a record is displayed, inserted, updated or deleted or when a
table is queried?
A. Business Rule

Q18. Client script apply only when?

A. When access through the form

Q19. Business Rules apply when?

A. Globally

Q20. When SHOULDN'T you use client scripts?

A. When you can use UI policies or Access Control Rules

Q21. Client scripts can be executed in four ways. What are they?
A. onCellEdit, onChange, onLoad, onSubmit

Q22. Can plug-ins be removed?

A. No, but they can be disabled

Q23. Name three interfaces for viewing and manipulating tables?

A. Record list view, Schema map, Tables and Columns module.
Q24. What stores structure and relationship definitions?
A. Data Dictionary

Q25. What three tables provide Data Dictionary and relationship information?
A. sys_dictionary, sys_documentation, sys_db-object

Q26. How do you establish the sequence for displaying lists?

A. Order field - Best practice 3 digit numbers

Q27. What does CI stand for?

A. Configuration Item

Q28. What is a series of tables that contains all the assets and business services
controlled by a company?
A. CMDB

Q29. What do you call a tangible device or intangible dedicated software in the
CMDB?
A. CI

Q30. What is the core CI table?

A. cmdb_ci

Q31. What is the CI relationship table?

A. Cmdb_rel_ci
Q32. List CI examples?
A. Computers/Devices on the network, software contracts and licenses, Business
services

Q33. What are the two base tables of SN?

A. Task and CI

Q34. List Benefits of CMDB?

A. Locate failed changes and associate incidents
Facilitate quick analysis of impact, helping reduce or eliminate downtime
cost savings

Q35. What is a BSM map?

A. Business Service Map graphically displays the CIs that compose a biz service
and indicates status

Q36. After the High Security plugin is activated, a security_admin privilege is

created. What is an elevated privilege?
A. A role that has special permissions for the duration of the log in session

Q37. Where is the user record stored?

A. In the User sys_user table

Q38. Where are groups stored?

A. Sys_user_group table
Q39. Where are roles stored?
A. Sys_user_role table

Q40. What is a collection of permission to grant access and assign security?

A. A ROLE

Q41. Name the four built-in roles?

A. System Admin, Specialized Admin, ITIL, ESS

Q42. What does a role inherit?

A. All the permissions of any other roles it includes

Q43. What is best practice for users/groups/roles?

A. Assign users to groups, map roles to groups. Don't map roles to users. Apply
general roles to large groups and specific roles to smaller groups

Q44. What are the 3 levels of Access?

A. System (username/pw)/Applications and Modules (Roles)/Tables and Fields
(System Properties/Access Control)

Q45. Where are row and column security set?

A. Access Control in Tables and Fields

Q46. Where is Table security set?

A. System Property in Tables and Fields
Q47. What are the three ways Access Control Rules are defined?
A. Conditional Expressions/Scripts/Roles.

Q48. What is the list of all Access Controls for a table?

A. ACL

Q49. What is an Access Control?

A. A security rule defined and set at the row and column level

Q50. What is the Access Control evaluation?

A. Specific to general if all conditions are true (Conditions, Scripts and Roles)

Q51. In a SLA Definition, which one is a condition that will trigger an SLA?
A. Start condition, Stop condition and Pause conditions

Q52. Name 4 ways the Knowledge Base can be populated?

A. 1. Manually
2. From the Service Catalog with a Record Producer
3. Automatically from events
4. From existing Incidents or Tasks

Q53. What is the Knowledge base hierarchy?

A. Topics, Categories, Articles

Q54. How do you protect KB articles?

A. ROLES
Q55. How do you allow users to access KB without logging in?
A. Make it public and protect with roles

Q56. What do you call an indication to the SN processes that something notable
has occurred?
A. EVENT

Q57. What can cause events?

A. User actions, Scripts (Business Rules/Workflows)

Q58. What contains a record of every generate event?

A. Event queue

Q59. What do events trigger?

A. Notifications

Q60. What does a Notification contain?

A. A mix of static and dynamically determined content

Q61. Why would you clone an instance?

A. To copy prod over a sub-prod instance

Q62. What are the three release types?

A. Future, Patch, HotFix
Q63. Are user customization records upgraded?
A. NO

Q64. What are best practices response times?

A. Total Response Time - network browser and server 3 seconds, Server Response
time below 800 ms

Q65. What is a dashboard of frequently used content with reports?

A. HOMEPAGE

Q66. What do you call a mapped graphic image on a homepage that are packed
reports?
A. GAUGE

Q67. What is used to measure and evaluate the effectiveness of IT service

management process?
A. METRICS

Q68. What do metrics measure?

A. Data over time to show past history

Q69. What is a measurement of the set amount of time for a task to reach a certain
condition?
A. SLA

Q70. What do you call it when SLA is not met?

A. BREACHED
Q71. What are the four major components that power SLA?
A. 1. SLA Definition
2. Task SLA
3. SLA Workflow
4. SLA Automation (Business Rule and scheduled job)

Q72. What are the three types of SLA?

A. 1. SLA
2. Operational Level Agreement(OLA) how departments work together
3. Underpinning Contract(UC) outside suppliers

Q73. What conditions define an SLA?

A. START, STOP, PAUSE

Q74. What is another name for Customer Updates?

A. CUSTOMIZATIONS

Q75. Multiple Choice, Single Line Text and Select Box are what type of elements
in Service-Now?
A. Variable Types

Q76. How do you modify or create a Workflow?

A. Utilize the Graphical Workflow Editor
Q77. What is a robust ordering system for services, hardware and software and the
central repository of goods and services that an IT service desk provides for users?
A. Service Catalog

Q78. Name the major components of Service Catalog?

A. Record Producers, Items, Variables, Order Guides, Workflows

Q79. Name some of the various items that orders from Service Catalog generate?
A. REQ/RITM/Catalog Task/Assignment Group

Q80. What is a variable set?

A. A modular unit of variables that can be shared between catalog items

Q81. What are Service Catalog best practices?

A. Define an order guide/Group items in order guide/Use questions to present item
options

Q82. What are the 5 workflow stages?

A. Waiting for approval, Fulfillment, Delivery, Completed or Request cancelled

Q83. By default in Service-Now, what customizations are added to Update Sets?

A. Changes made to a form

Q84. What do you use to import data from various data sources and map data into
SN tables?
A. IMPORT SET
Q85. What determines the relationship between the Import Set Table and an
existing Service-Now table?
A. Transform map

Q86. What are the steps for using Import Sets and Transform Maps?
A. 1. Load Data
2. Create Transform MAP
3. Run transform

Q87. What does coalescing do before a transform?

A. Makes a field the unique key

Q88. What do you call a group of customizations or personalization that can be

packaged and moved from one instance to another?
A. UPDATE SET

Q89. What table is used to track changes in an update set?

A. Customer Update sys_update_xml table

Q90. What cannot be customized with update sets?

A. New Records/New users and groups/Modified data/Schedules

Q91. Can homepages be added to update sets?

A. Only manually
Q92. Should you include few or many changes in one Update Set?
A. MANY

Q93. Can two update sets be merged?

A. YES

Q94. What is the sequence on the production instance to run an Update Set?
A. Retrieve/Preview/Commit/Apply