Multiple Choice Review Questions

____ 1. Which of the following structures is typically found in plant cells but not animal cells?
a. Cell membrane
b. Mitochondria
c. Peroxisome
d. Nuclear envelope
e. Large central vacuole
____ 2. Which is a function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Synthesis of lipids
b. Detoxification of alcohol
c. Production of estrogen
d. Protein synthesis
e. Produce cell membrane components
____ 3. Which is an example of passive transport?
a. A cell takes in particles by pinocytosis.
b. A pump uses ATP as an energy source to transport hydrogen ions out of a cell
c. An ion channel permits sodium ions to diffuse through a cell membrane.
d. The Na+/K+ pump transports ions across a membrane against the concentration gradient.
e. None of the above
____ 4. What form of bulk transport would a white blood cell use to ingest a bacterial cell?
a. Exocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Pinocytosis
d. Receptor mediated endocytosis
e. secretion
____ 5. Facilitated diffusion requires:
a. Specific proteins in the cell membrane d. ATP
b. Sugar as an energy source e. all of the above
c. cholesterol
____ 6. Which organelle contains enzymes that digest old cells?
a. Nucleus d. Ribosome
b. Lysosome e. All of the above
c. Golgi bodies
____ 7. An organelle composed of membranous tubules that synthesize testosterone is the:
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Nucleus
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. All of the above
c. Golgi bodies
____ 8. Cells which require large amounts of energy would likely contain relatively high numbers of
a. Centrioles d. Chloroplasts
b. Mitochondria e. None of the above
c. nuclei
____ 9. Which organelle functions as a storage and packaging site?
a. Centrioles d. Mitochondria
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum e. Golgi bodies
c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
____ 10. Proteins headed for the cell membrane leave the golgi bodies in vesicles from its _______ side.
a. Trans d. Medial
b. Cis e. Sister
c. Train

____ 11. In which one of the following organelles is light energy used to produce simple sugars?
a. Chloroplasts d. Centrioles
b. Mitochondria e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. All of the above
____ 12. Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its product?
a. nucleolus — DNA d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum — protein
b. mitochondria — ATP e. None of the above
c. Golgi apparatus — lipid
____ 13. Processes that move molecules passively across the cell membrane include
a. diffusion d. exocytosis
b. aquaporins e. phagocytosis
c. Sodium potassium pump
____ 14. In humans, the function of glycogen is to
a. synthesize proteins d. increase osmotic pressure in cells
b. dilute the blood plasma e. store glucose in plants
c. keep glucose available
____ 15. Which organelles synthesize cytoplasmic proteins?
a. nucleus d. ribosomes
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum e. Golgi bodies
c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
____ 16. Most of a cell's ATP is synthesized by membrane-bound organelles called
a. Golgi bodies d. lysosomes
b. nucleus e. vesicles
c. mitochondria
____ 17. Which of the following is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a. Nucleus
b. Ribosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Chloroplasts
e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
____ 18. Which organelle modifies, packages, and sorts proteins for secretion or use within the cell?
a. nucleus d. ribosomes
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum e. Golgi bodies
c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
____ 19. A transport or carrier protein such as the Na+/K+ pump
a. spans the plasma membrane completely and is thus a transmembrane protein
b. has an internal hydrophobic region and hydrophilic regions at both ends
c. may use energy from ATP to help a particular substance cross the plasmalemma
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
____ 20. Of the following, which organelle contains linear chromosomes?
a. nucleus d. mitochondria
b. Endoplasmic reticulum e. chloroplast
c. centrioles
____ 21. In pond water, protozoans pump out excess water by means of their:
a. Pellicle d. trichocyst
b. cell membrane e. contractile vacuole
c. pseudopodia
____ 22. The maximum size of a cell is limited by:
a. the number of organelles that can be packed inside d. the amount of food it needs to survive
b. the amount of flexibility it needs to be able to move e. its need for enough surface area for exchange with its
environment
c. the materials needed to build it
____ 23. Which of the following would be found attached to the cell membrane surface.
a. collagen d. Protein receptors
b. haemoglobin e. chitin
c. DNA
____ 24. A cell must expend energy to transport substances using ________________.
a. Diffusion d. Facilitated diffusion
b. Osmosis e. Endocytosis
c. Ion channels
____ 25. In an experiment, frog’s eggs were placed in a salt solution. After several hours their mass increased significantly. We can therefore conclude that,
compared to the frog’s eggs, the solution was:
a. Hypertonic d. Saturated
b. Hypotonic e. unsaturated
c. Isotonic

___ 26. An organic molecule is likely to contain all of these elements except ___.

a. C b. H c. O d. Ne e. N

____ 27. Which of the following is the essential characteristic of a polar molecule?
a. contains double or triple bonds
b. is formed at extremely low temperatures
c. contains ions as part of the structure
d. has an asymmetrical distribution of electrical charge
e. contains the element oxygen

____ 28. Isotopes are molecules that

a. react readily with one another
b. have the same molecular formula
c. have different molecular masses
d. differ in the number of unsaturated bonds
e. must contain the same functional group
____ 29. In living organisms, buffers do which of the following?
a. prevent charged particles from entering cells
b. neutralize the effect of enzymes
c. maintain pH in the cells within a narrow range, allowing normal cell processes
d. allow the pH of cells to change without affecting the action of the enzymes
e. maintain cytoplasm in a fluid condition
____ 30. Which of the following is not a type of intermolecular force of attraction?
a. covalent bond d. hydrogen bond
b. London dispersion force e. none of the above
c. dipole–dipole interaction

____ 31. Which three of the following are characteristics of hydrogen bonds?
I. They are responsible for the surface tension properties of water.
II. They are responsible for the relatively high boiling point of water.
III. They are stronger than ionic bonds.
IV. They are present in all substances.
V. They are weaker than covalent bonds.
a. III, IV and V d. II, III and IV
b. I, II and V e. I, III, and IV
c. I, III and IV
____ 32. Which of the following bonds holds together a protein’s primary structure?
a. hydrogen bonds d. hydrophobic bonds
b. covalent bonds e. all of the above
c. ionic bonds
____ 33. The following structural formula is representative of which functional group?

a. sulfhydryl d. carboxyl
b. hydroxyl e. amino
c. carbonyl
____ 34. The following structural formula is representative of which functional group?

a. sulfhydryl d. carbonyl
b. hydroxyl e. amino
c. carboxyl
____ 35. Structurally, a sulfhydryl group is most similar to which of the following?
a. carbonyl d. hydroxyl
b. carboxyl e. amino
c. acetyl
____ 36. Which of the following functional groups would be found in a monosaccharide?
a. carbonyl and hydroxyl d. carboxyl and carbonyl
b. glycosidic and hydroxyl e. hydroxyl and sulfhydryl
c. carboxyl an amino
____ 37. Of the following, which is not considered to by a polymer?
a. cellulose d. protein
b. RNA e. fat
c. starch
____ 38. From the following list, which is an example of a monosaccharide?
a. maltose d. glucose
b. glycogen e. sucrose
c. cellulose

____ 39. In humans, the function of many branched glycogen is to

a. synthesize proteins d. increase osmotic pressure in cells
b. dilute the blood plasma e. store glucose in plants
c. keep glucose available
____ 40. When two organic molecules are joined together and a water molecule is removed, the reaction is called which of the following?
a. dehydration synthesis (condensation) d. oxidation
b. hydrogenation e. reduction
c. hydrolysis
____ 41. The production, or synthesis, of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates involves the
a. production of ATP d. temporary hydrogen bonding
b. addition of water e. removal of nitrogen
c. removal of water
____ 42. The extremely large diversity of structure seen in proteins is mainly due to
a. the disulfide and hydrogen bonds that determine molecular shape
b. the action of the ribosomes
c. the precise location of specific amino acids, common to all proteins
d. different numbers, kinds, and sequences of amino acids
e. different kinds of bonds between successive amino acids
____ 43. Which of these carbohydrates constitutes the bulk of dietary fiber?
a. starch d. cellulose
b. glucose e. fructose
c. chitin
____ 44. Which of these is not a function of lipids?
a. long term energy storage
b. main cell membrane component
c. hormones
d. enzymes
e. water barrier on the outside of leaves
____ 45. __________ are the primary components in cell membranes.
a. waxes d. steroids
b. phospholipids e. proteins
c. fats
____ 46. Chaperone proteins function by
a. helping proteins to fold properly d. all of the above
b. degrade proteins improperly folded e. none of the above
c. allowing DNA to fold properly
____ 47. Which element is usually found in DNA but not in protein?
a. carbon d. phosphorous
b. hydrogen e. nitrogen
c. oxygen
____ 48. A fatty acid containing only carbon to carbon single is called a(n)
a. omega fatty acid d. saturated fatty acid
b. oleic fatty acid e. unsaturated fatty acid
c. amino acid

____ 49. Which of the following are the roles of proteins?

I. enzymes II. Structure III. Molecule Carriers IV cell communication
V.exoskeleton VI. Energy carrier

a. I,II,IV d. I,II,III,IV
b. I,III,V,VI e. none of the above
c. III,IV,V,VI
____ 50. During aerobic cellular respiration, which of the following is the most common type of reaction to take place in the cell?
a. hydrolysis d. redox
b. condensation e. dehydration
c. neutralization
____ 51. When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes
a. unhydrogenated
b. hydrogenated
c. Oxidized
d. reduced
e. An oxidizing agent
____ 52. The following molecules can be found at various stages during cellular respiration:
I. acetyl-CoA
II. carbon dioxide
III. phosphofructose
IV. glyceraldehyde
V. phosphoenolpyruvate
Which of the following sequences represents the above molecules in order from the largest to the smallest amount of chemical energy?
a. II, I, V, IV, III d. III, I, V, IV, II
b. III, IV, V, I, II e. IV, III, II, I, V
c. III, IV, I, V, II
____ 53. What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?
a. anaerobic respiration d. catabolism
b. aerobic respiration e. anabolism
c. fermentation

____ 54. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?
a. 0% d. 36%
b. 2% e. 38%
c. 10%
____ 55. What in the electron transport chain is the final electron acceptor?
a. the combination of hydrogen ions and oxygen to form water
b. the breakdown of water
c. the cytochromes
d. an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
e. oxygen
____ 56. In glycolysis these enzymes catalyze phosphorylation reactions.
a. kinases d. phosphorylases
b. dehydrogenases e. None of the above
c. oxidases
____ 57. During aerobic cellular respiration, which of the following molecules activates the Citric Acid cycle?
a. citrate d. acetyl coenzyme A
b. pyruvate e. carbon dioxide
c. cytochrome oxidase
____ 58. Anaerobic respiration is less efficient than aerobic respiration for which of the following reasons?
a. less ATP is produced in anaerobic respiration
b. aerobic respiration allows for rapid oxidation during strenuous exercise
c. blood carries more than enough oxygen to support aerobic respiration
d. only bacteria and yeast use anaerobic respiration
e. most animals have to breathe air in order to survive
____ 59. Carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis are supplied by intermediates of the citric acid cycle. Which intermediate would supply the carbon
skeleton for synthesis of a five-carbon amino acid?
a. Alpha-ketoglutarate d. citrate
b. succinate e. isocitrate
c. malate
____ 60. How many reduced dinucleotides would be produced with four turns of the citric acid cycle?
a. 1FADH2 and 4 NADH
b. 2FADH2 and 8 NADH
c. 4FADH2 and 12 NADH
d. 1FADH2 and 4 NAD+
e. 4FADH2 and 12 NAD+
____ 61. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?
a. Glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation d. Oxidative phosphorylation & fermentation
b. Pyruvate oxidation and CAC e. Fermentation and glycolysis
c. CAC and oxidative phosphorylation
____ 62. Pyruvate oxidation occurs in this part of the cell?
a. Cell membrane d. Mitochondrial matrix
b. cytoplasm e. none of the above
c. Inner Mitochondrial membrane
____ 63. Redox reactions involving cytochromes occur during aerobic cellular respiration. Where do these reactions take place?
a. Citric Acid Cycle d. all of the above
b. glycolysis e. none of the above
c. the electron transport chain
____ 64. The following molecule is an electron carrier.
a. NADH d. all of the above
b. FADH2 e. none of the above
c. ubiquinone
____ 65. In the reaction C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6CO2 + 6H2O
a. oxygen is reduced, glucose is reduced d. glucose is oxidized, oxygen is reduced
b. glucose is oxidized, oxygen is oxidized e. none of the above
c. oxygen is oxidized, glucose is reduced
____ 66. Which of the following is not true of oxidative phosphorylation?
a. it uses oxygen as the ultimate electron donor d. it produces approximately three ATP for every NADH
oxidized
b. it creates an electrochemical potential e. none of the above
c. it involves ATP synthase located on the cristae
____ 67. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a multienzyme complex which does a series of reactions. Which of the following is not carried out by pyruvate
dehydrogenase?
a. a decarboxylation reaction d. the production of ATP
b. producing an acetyl group from pyruvate e. none of the above
c. combining the acetyl group with a cofactor
____ 68. Oxidizing which of the following substances yields the most energy?
a. proteins d. Nucleic acids
b. glucose e. water
c. fats
____ 69. Why is the Krebs cycle part of aerobic metabolism?
a. Oxygen is a substrate in the oxidative decarboxylation re- d. Oxygen is required for all redox reaction.
actions.

b. Oxygen is required to help transport pyruvate into the e. Oxygen is required for substrate level phosphorylation of
mitochondria. ATP.
c. Oxygen is required to maintain the supply of oxidized
NAD+ and FAD via the electron transport chain.
____ 70. Which enzyme would use NAD+ as a coenzyme?
a. phosphofructokinase d. hexokinase
b. phosphoglucoisomerase e. phosphoglyceromutase
c. triose phosphate dehydrogenase

____ 71. Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the
amount AMP in a cell would be expected to

a. inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
b. activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
c. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
d. activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
e. inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate.

____ 72. Which kind of metabolic poison interferes with production of citrate in the citric acid cycle?

a. an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell
b. an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it
c. an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized
d. an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD
e. an agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain
____ 73. These structures form grana in a chloroplast.
a. stroma d. thylakoids
b. photosystem e. reaction centres
c. lamellae
____ 74. In terms of the spectrum of white light, which of the following is the most absorbed by chloroplasts?
a. green light d. yellow light
b. red light e. violet light
c. blue light
____ 75. Which of the following elements is found in a molecule of chlorophyll?
a. iron d. sulphur
b. magnesium e. manganese
c. sodium
____ 76. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the light reactions?
a. electrons are displaced
b. carbon fixation happens
c. reduction happens
d. energy is converted from a physical to a chemical form
e. they take place in the thylakoids of chloroplasts

____ 77. Which of the following statements concerning the Calvin cycle is true?
I. ATP molecules are needed to keep the reactions going
II. the process makes NADPH + H+
III. reduction occurs
IV. oxygen is a product
V. photophosphorylation occurs
VI. carbon fixation occurs
VII. takes place in the thylakoids of chloroplasts
a. IV, V and VII d. II, IV, and V
b. I, VI, and VII e. I, II, III and VI
c. I, III, and VI

____ 78. Which of the following events of photosynthesis is concerned immediately with light?
a. production of ATP
b. fixation of carbon dioxide
c. transfer of energy from chlorophyll to carbon dioxide
 d. excitation of chlorophyll
e. regeneration of chlorophyll
____ 79. Photophosphorylation specifically refers to the
a. synthesis of glucose via carbon fixation
b. splitting water as a result of light
c. synthesis of ATP by photolysis
d. reduction of NADPH by electron transport
e. synthesis of ATP using light
____ 80. Electrons released as a result of photolysis
a. combine with H+ ions and oxygen to form water
b. are used directly in the fixation of carbon during the Calvin cycle
c. reduce photosystem I chlorophyll molecules
d. reduce photosystem II chlorophyll molecules
e. oxidize NADP+
____ 81. When photosynthesis occurs, the oxygen that is released comes from
a. chlorophyll d. water
b. an intermediate of the Calvin cycle e. carbon dioxide
c. a carbohydrate
____ 82. During carbon fixation, which of the following is a product?
a. ATP d. carbon dioxide
b. 3-phosphoglycerate e. oxygen
c. NADPH

___ 83. What is the name of the first enzyme in the C3 pathway?
a. ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (rubisco)
b. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEP carboxylase)
c. oxaloacetate carboxylase (OAA carboxylase)
d. succinate dehydrogenase
e. pyruvate kinase

____ 84. There is a cost associated with the C4/CAM pathways. This cost consists of
a. NADPH d. ATP
b. NADH e. none of the above
c. cytochrome oxidation
____ 85. Which of the following organisms would not be an autotroph?
a. cyanobacterium d. palm tree
b. cactus e. Spirogyra
c. bee
____ 86. Photosynthesis occurs mainly in which of the following?
a. epidermal cells d. vascular bundle cells
b. mesophyll cells e. all of the above
c. cuticle
____ 87. When does the process of splitting water to release hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen occur?
a. during the light reactions d. during carbon fixation
b. during the Calvin cycle e. during b and d
c. during photorespiration
____ 88. Which of the following does not happen in cyclic photophosphorylation
a. ATP is produced d. light energy is utilized
b. Photosystem I reaction center is active e. NADPH is formed
c. Electron transport occurs in the photosynthetic membrane

____ 89. Which of the following represents a correct sequence during the light reactions?

a. Photosystem I - ATP production - Photosystem II - d. Photosystem II - NADPH production - Photosystem I -

NADPH production ATP production

b. Photosystem I - NADPH production - Photosystem II - e. Photosystem I - Photosystem II - ATP production -

ATP production NADPH production

c. Photosystem II - ATP production - Photosystem I -

NADPH production

____ 90. The high-energy electrons of photosystem I are directly passed on to

a. ferrodoxin. d. ATP synthase.

b. plastoquinone. e. NADP reductase.

c. plastocyanin.
____ 91. The photosynthetic process removes ___ from the environment.

a. water d. chlorophyll

b. sugar e. carbon dioxide

c. oxygen

__ 92. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through ____.

a. chloroplasts d. mesophyll cells

b. stomata e. leaf veins

c. cuticle

____ 93. The photosynthetic pigment that is essential for the process to occur is ___.

a chlorophyll a d xanthocyanin
. .
b chlorophyll b e fucoxanthin
. .
c beta carotene
.

____ 94. Which of these photosynthetic organisms does not have a chloroplast?

a. plants d. diatoms

b. red algae e. dinoflagellates

c. cyanobacteria

____ 95. Light of the green wavelengths is commonly absorbed by which accessory pigment?

a. chlorophyll a d. beta carotene

b. chlorophyll b e. xanthophyll

c. phycocyanin

____ 96. The light independent reactions require all of these chemicals to proceed except ___.

a. ATP d. RUBP

b. NADPH e. oxygen

c. carbon dioxide

____ 97. The hydrogen in the carbohydrate produced by the Calvin Cycle comes from ___

a. ATP d. a and b

b. NADPH e. a and c

c. the environment if the pH is very acidic

____ 98. The section of the electromagnetic spectrum used for photosynthesis is ___.

a. infrared d. visible light

b. ultraviolet e. none of the above

c. x-ray
____ 99. During photosynthetic electron transport, the interior compartment of the thylakoid membranes becomes:
a. d. the site for glucose synthesis
enriched in ATP

b. more acidic than the stroma e. both more acidic than the stroma and enriched in ATP
c. basic compared to the reaction centres
____ 100. Which of the following is a correct representation of a segment of DNA?
1. 5’ATTC3’ 4. 5’ATAG3’
3’ATTC5’ 3’TATC5’
2.5’AUUC3’ 5.5’ACGA3’
3’UAAG5’ 3’TGCT5’
3.5’CCGG3’
5’GGCC3’
a. 1 d. 4 and 5
b. 1 and 3 e. 5 and 1
c. 2 and 3
____ 101. DNA is stable because hydrogen bonds are formed between
a. thymine and uracil
b. cytosine and thymine
c. adenine and uracil
d. purines and pyrimidines
e. guanine and adenine
____ 102. If the percentage composition of thymine in a DNA molecule is 22%, what is the percentage composition of cytosine?
a. 28% d. 22%
b. 32% e. 18%
c. 26%
___ 103. The main support to the DNA molecule is provided by two backbones which run along the two sides of the double helix. These backbones consist of
a. sugars joined by ester links
b. phosphates joined by ester links
c. sugars and phosphates joined together
d. phosphates and bases joined together
e. sugars and bases linked together
____ 104. An enzyme, which excises introns in a newly synthesized strand of mRNA, is called
a. Snurp d. an excisase
b. a gyrase e. spliceosome
c. an exonuclease
____ 105. The tRNA anticodon matches the mRNA codon because of:
a. covalent bonding d. bases fit together physically
b. ionic bonding e. VanderWaal’s forces
c. hydrogen bonding
____ 106. Transcription of the lacZ and lacY genes of the lac operon begins when
a. lactose binds to the operator
b. the repressor is released from the promoter
c. the repressor protein binds to the inducer
d. lactose binds to RNA polymerase
e. RNA polymerase binds to the lacZ gene
____ 107. Which of the follwoing correctly describes the order in which cell components become involved in protein synthesis?
a. DNA polymerase, mRNA, ribosome, tRNA
b. mRNA, RNA polymerase, ribosome, tRNA
c. DNA rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
d. RNA polymerase, mRNA, tRNA, ribosome
e. RNA polymerase, mRNA, ribosome, tRNA
____ 108. The temperatures at which two segments of DNA unwind has been established. Segment A unwinds at 81.6 oC, while segment B unwinds at 70.7oC.
The difference is due to the fact that
a. A is more phosphorylated than B
b. B is richer adenine-thymine pairs than A
c. B is richer adenine-uracil pairs than A
d. B is richer cytosine-guanine pairs than A
e. A is richer cytosine-guanine pairs than B
____ 109. In eukaryotes, introns are removed before mRNA leaves the nucleus because
a. they prevent the movement of ribosomes
b. they prevent the binding of ribosomes to mRNA
c. they do not consist of the same bases as the rest of the mRNA
d. they do not code for protein
e. the mRNA could not pass through a nuclear pore due to length
____ 110. The ‘Central Dogma’ states that the flow of genetic information is in the direction:
a. protein, RNA, protein d. DNA, RNA, protein
b. protein, RNA, DNA e. RNA, DNA, protein
c. DNA, protein, RNA
____ 111. The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis:
a. progresses away from the replication fork d. requires the use of DNA polymerase III
b. occurs in the 3’—5’ direction e. requires ligase
c. produces Okazaki fragments
____ 112. The primer required to initiate synthesis of a new DNA strand consists of
a. RNA d. a protein
b. B-DNA e. Z-DNA
c. an Okazaki fragment
____ 113. Not all DNA conforms to the double-helix model because
a. most DNA may be single-stranded d. some DNA has different covalent bonding patterns in its
backbone
b. some DNA may exist as a flat ladder e. base-pairing rules vary
c. Z-DNA twists in the left-hand direction
____ 114. A mutation that renders the regulatory gene of a repressible operon nonfunctional would result in
a. continuous transcription of the structural genes d. irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter
b. inhibition of transcription of the structural genes e. excessive synthesis of a catabolic activator protein
c. accumulation of large quantities of a substrate for the
catabolic pathway controlled by the operon
____ 115. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around
a. polymerase molecules d. nucleotides
b. ribosomes e. SNuRPs
c. histones
____ 116. Enhancers are an example of
a. a transcriptional control increasing gene expression in d. posttranslational controls activating proteins
eukaryotes
b. a transcriptional control increasing gene expression in e. eukaryotic equivalent of a prokaryotic promoter
prokaryotes
c. initiation factors that stimulate translation
____ 117. The following process inhibits eukaryotic gene transcription:
a. Phosphorylation of protein d. Methylation of DNA
b. Acetylation of histones e. Carboxylation of RNA
c. cleavage
____ 118. This amino acid is the start of every polypeptide.
a. phenylalanine d. cysteine
b. leucine e. methionine
c. isoleucine
____ 119. An active repressor attaches to a DNA sequence here blocking RNA polymerase.
a. enhancer d. Z-DNA
b. promoter e. operator
c. structural gene
120. An increase in blood pressure in the glomerulus would cause :
a. an increase in filtration and increase in urine output
b. a decrease in filtration and increase in urine output
c. an increase in filtration and decrease in urine output evaporation
d. a decrease in filtration and decrease in urine output
e. none of the above

121. The term used to describe the ability of a living organism to adjust to changing environmental conditions by regulating their internal processes is
a. regulation b. feedback
c. homeostasis d. metabolism
e. inhibition

123.Nitrogen wastes from the breakdown of proteins and amino acids are removed from the body by the
a. conversion of ammonia to urea in the liver and filtration by the kidney
b. conversion of ammonia to urea in the kidney and filtration by the kidney
c. conversion of urea to ammonia in the liver and filtration by the kidney
d. conversion of nitrogen to urea in the liver and filtration by the kidney
e. none of the above

124.When the ambient temperature is very low the body will increase heat by
a. radiation b. increased metabolism
c. conduction d. evaporation
 e. none of the above

125.Concentrated urine is produced when ADH is

a. lacking and the collecting duct is impermeable to water
b. abundant and the loop of Henle is impermeable to water
c. abundant and the collecting duct is permeable to water
d. lacking and the loop of Henle is permeable to water
e. unchanged and the nephron is impermeable to water

126.Which one of the following is a part of the circulatory system?

a. distal tubules b. collecting duct
c. Bowman’s capsule d. glomerulus
e. none of the above

127.The main active transport mechanism in the kidney is the

a. sodium pump b. calcium pump
b. filtration process d. osmotic pressure
e. none of the above

128.The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from other capillary networks in the body in which way?
f. They form an anastomosing network.
g. They drain into arterioles instead of venules.
h. They contain no endothelium.
i. They are sites where a fluid leaves the blood.
j. None of the above.

129.A major function of the collecting tubules is

a. secretion b. filtration
c. concentrating urine d. lubrication
e. none of the above

130.This part of the circulatory system carries the cleanest blood with the most nutrients
a. afferent arteriole b. efferent arteriole
c. glomerulus d. renal artery
e. renal vein

____ 131. The coordination of motor activities in mammals is carried out by which of the following?
a. pons d. medulla
b. cerebellum e. hypothalamus
c. cerebrum
____ 132. The medulla oblongata of the nervous system
a. is involved in conscious thought
b. is involved in learning
c. controls unconscious life-sustaining activities
d. controls voluntary muscles
e. all of the above
____ 133. Damage to which of these types of nerves is usually permanent?
a. myelinated nerve cells c. white matter
b. grey matter d. peripheral nerves
e. None of the above
____ 134. The corpus callosum coordinates:
a. Unconscious activities c. Two halves of the cerebral cortex
b. Two halves of the cerebellum d. The hypothalamus and pituitary
____ 135. During depolarization, which of the following statements about voltage-gated ion channels is TRUE.
a. K+ gates open before Na+ gates c. Na+ and K+ gates open at the same time
b. Na+ gates open before K+ gates d. Na+ gates open, K+ gates remain closed
e. K+ gates open, Na+ gates remain closed
____ 136. _________________ nerves carry impulses away from the central nervous system.
a. Sensory c. Motor
b. Afferent d. Associative
e. None of the above
____ 137. Which of the following best describes the electrical state of a neuron at rest?
a. The inside of a neuron is more negatively charged than the c. The inside and the outside of a neuron have the same
outside. electrical charge.
b. The outside of a neuron is more negatively charged than d. K+ ions leak into a neuron at rest.
the inside.
e. None of the above
____ 138. An action potential travels from one neuron to the next across the synapse using
a. Calcium ions c. neurotransmitters
 b. Schwann cells d. All of the above
e. None of the above

____ 139. Much of the sensory, motor, and associative neural activity of the cerebrum occurs on the surface, a layer called the
a. Corpus Callosum c. Medulla Oblongata
b. Cerebral Cortex d. Cerebellum
e. None of the above
____ 140. Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?
a. they are produced by glands such as the thyroid
b. they travel to different areas of the body
c. they are carried by the blood
d. they are used to communicate between different individuals
e. they elicit specific biological responses from target cells
____ 141. The hypothalmus controls the anterior pituitary with which of the following?
a. releasing factors d. antibodies
b. thalmus messenger e. pyrogens
c. third messengers
____ 142. Steroid hormones exert their effect by
a. interacting with receptors on cell membranes
b. a direct effect in the nucleus of a cell
c. initiating formation of cyclic AMP
d. initiating formation of cyclic GMP
____ 143. An iodine-deficient goiter secretes more of which of the following hormone?
a. TSH c. thyroxine
b. T3 d. all of the above
____ 144. Progesterone is produced primarily in which of the following?
a. adrenal cortex d. developing follicle
b. anterior pituitary e. placenta
c. corpus luteum
____ 145. During the female reproductive cycle, LH peaks when which one of these occurs?
a. pregnancy occurs d. ovulation occurs
b. menstruation occurs e. implantation occurs
c. fertilization occurs
____ 146. The parathyroid glands regulate the following:
a. vitamin B production c. urine production
b. blood calcium and phosphate levels d. none of the above
____ 147. Two hormones that adjust body systems for short term stress and long term stress, respectively, are which of the following?
a. thyroxine and PTH d. TSH & epinephrine
b. estrogen & growth hormone e. testosterone & estrogen
c. epinephrine & cortisol
____ 148. Which of the following organs acts as both an exocrine and endocrine gland?
a. pituitary d. parathyroid
b. pancreas e. hypothalamus
c. thyroid
____ 149. Which of the following illnesses is caused by an endocrine disorder?

I. goiter
II. cancer
III. Type I Diabetes
IV. Type II Diabetes
V. Epilepsy
a. I,II,V d. I,III,IV
b. III,IV e. I, II, III, IV, V
c. II,III,V
____ 150. All endocrine hormones
a. bind to receptors on the plasma membrane to mediate their d. are conveyed by ducts directly to the target tissue
effects
b. bind to cytoplasmic receptors to mediate their effects e. all of the above
c. are conveyed by the circulatory system to the target tissue
____ 151. The hormone that counters calcitonin in homeostasis is
a. parathyroid hormone d. TRH
b. thyroxine e. none of the above
c. TSH

____ 152. Which of the following hormones are produced by women?

a. estrogen d. all of the above
b. testosterone e. none of the above
c. oxytocin