Legal Awareness Quiz for DJS Prelims
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magdumjiLegal Awareness Quiz for DJS Prelims
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magdumjiTRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
1. National Legal Services Day (NLSD) is celebrated on 9th November every
year to spread awareness for ensuring reasonable fair and justice procedure
for all citizens. It was first started in?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1955
(d) 1954
2. Which Act will be replacing the Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
(a) Digital Data Protection Act
(b) Digital India Act
(c) Information and Data Technology Act
(d) Technological Development and Human Resources Act
3. Which Act recently got the assent of the President on 14th September 2023 and is
targeted to reduce the workload of Indian Judiciary at all the levels?
(a) The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (Amendment) Bill, 2022
(b) The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment), 2021
(c) The Mediation Bill, 2021
(d) None of these
4. Which recently passed Act authorises for taking measurements of convicts and other
person ?
(a) Criminal procedure (identification) Act, 2022
(b) Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
(c) Bharatiya Nagrik Surakhsa Sanhita, 2023
(d) Bharitya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
5. As per Section 20B of the Specific Relief Act - The ____________, in consultation with
the __________________, shall designate, by notification published in the Official Gazette,
one or more Civil Courts as Special Courts, within the local limits of the area to
exercise jurisdiction and to try a suit under this Act in respect of contracts relating to
infrastructure projects.
(a) State Government; Governor
(b) Central Government; Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court; State Government
(d) None of these
6. The Schedule of the Limitation Act provides for limitation period in various civil
proceedings. What is the limitation period to restore a suit or appeal or application
for review or revision dismissed for default of appearance or for want of prosecution
or for failure to pay costs of service of process or to furnish security for costs ?
(a) 30 Days
(b) 60 Days
(c) 90 Days
(d) 6 months
7. In a certain case in Delhi the accused proposed marriage of a gentleman’s son with
his daughter who was pregnant with someone else’s child (a fact that has not been
concealed). However the gentleman concealed the fact that his son is suffering from
a mental disorder and marries his daughter to his son. In this case the accused:
A. cannot be hold guilty because even the gentleman’s daughter is at fault
B. is prima facie guilty of cheating due to the element of wrongful gain
involved
C. cannot be accused as it the gentleman’s responsible to the ascertain complete fact
concerning the would be bridegroom
D. is liable for fraud
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
8. The paddy lands of A and D lie adjacent to each other. The prosecution case that
when D was deepening the channel on the boundary of his own land, the accused A
pursuant to an altercation hit D hard on head by a spade that proved fatal.
A. the fact that the body of D lay on the land of A or the existence of any altercation between
the two is not sufficient to proof the exercise of the right of self defence by A
B. the complainant party is in possession of the land and the accused party taking the law in
hands attacks the complainant, does not entitle the accused A to right of private defence
C. Neither (A) nor (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
9. Bidding by a person under a legal in capacity to purchase it for property at a
lawfully authorized sale or bidding without intending to perform the
obligation incurred thereby is dealt under
A. Section 183 of IPC
B. Section 184 of IPC
C. Section 185 of IPC
D. Section 186 of IPC
10. In which of the following way Section 76, IPC and Section 79, IPC differs from
one another?
A. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be bound while in Section 79, IPC, the
person is assumed to be justified by law
B. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be justified while in Section 79, IPC, the
person is assumed to be bound by law
C. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be both bound and justified while in Section
79, IPC, the person is assumed only to be bound by law
D. None of them
11. All but one is false of Section 91 Cr. P.C.?
A. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123 and 124 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 (1 Of 1872)
B. this section is not deemed to apply to a letter, post card, telegram or other
document or any parcel or thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph
authority
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
C. this section is not deemed to affect Sections 123 and 124 of the Bankers’
Book Evidence Act, 1891 (13 of 1891)
D. none of them
12. Atif is charged with the murder of Khuda Baksh on the 21st January, 1882. In
fact, the murdered person’s name was Haidar Baksh, and the date of the
murder was the 20th January, 1882. Atif was never charged with any murder
but one, and had heard the inquiry before the Magistrate, which referred
exclusively to the case of Haidar Baksh. What will the Court infer from this
while applying Section 215 Cr. PC.?
A. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was not misled and that
the error in the charge was immaterial
B. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that the
error in the charge was immaterial
C. the Court may infer from these facts that Atif was misled and that the
error in the charge was material
D. none of them
13. A commits house-breaking by day with intent to commit adultery, and commits, in
the house so entered, adultery with B's wife. Applying Section 220:
(a) A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections 464 and
497 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
(b) A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections
454 and 497 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
(c) A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections 452 and
498 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
(d) A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections 451 and
497 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
14. Abhijeet is charged u/s. 242 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), with
“having been in possession of counterfeit coin, having known at the time
when he became possessed thereof that such coin was counterfeit”, the word
“fraudulently” being omitted in the charge. Applying Section 215 Cr. P.C.:
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
A. If it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this omission, the error
shall be regarded as material
B. If it appears that Abhijeet was deliberately misled by this omission, the
error shall be regarded as material
C. Unless it appears that Abhijeet was in fact misled by this omission,
the error shall not be regarded as material
D. none of them
15. This case is related to the amendment of section 29A of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act. It also deals with the matter of International Commercial
Arbitration jurisdiction under the aforesaid Act. According to Section 29A of the
(Amendment Act), an arbitral tribunal must issue an arbitral award within twelve
months of the day it was established, with the parties having the option of agreeing
to an additional extension of up to six months. Regarding the International
Commercial Arbitration, Hon’ble Supreme Court observes it is not bound by the time
limit of twelve months given under Section 29A of the Act. Which is this case ?
(a) Union Bank of India V. Rajat Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd 2023
(b) M/S. MEHTA JEWELLERS v. NATIONAL INSURANCE COMPANY
(c) Dr. Nirmal Singh Panesar v. Mrs. Paramjit Kaur Panesar
(d) Tata Sons Pvt. Ltd. Vs Siva Industries and Holdings Ltd.
16. The provisions of 1996 Act have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by
principles underlying under 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
(a) M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd, AIR 1997 SC 605
(b) Sundamm Finace Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. India Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 565.
(c) Olympus Super Structures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meemz Vijay Khetan, AIR 1999 SC 2102.
(d) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissuri Arb. Pte. Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 2871.
16. An application to the Supreme Court for special leave to appeal, in a case where
leave to appeal was refused by the High Court has the limitation period of –
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(a) 30 Days
(b) 60 Days
(c) 90 Days
(d) 6 Months
17. Tapan is a paedophile and is sexually attracted to a kid Chris, who is 11 years old.
One day, he induces Chris to touch his private part and he also tries to kiss him on
his lips in a public park. People jogging in the park catch Tapan red handed. Tapan
would be charged under which section of POCSO Act ?
(a) Sexual Harassment u/s 12
(b) Sexual Assault u/s 8
(c) Aggravated Sexual Assault u/s 10
(d) Aggravated Penetrative Sexual Assault u/s 6
18. Which of the following is not a Circumstance in which limited liability partnership
may be wound up by the Tribunal:-
(a) if the limited liability partnership has acted against the interests of the
sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State or public order
(b) if the limited liability partnership has made a default in filing with the Registrar
the Statement of Account and Solvency or annual return for any five consecutive
financial years
(c) if, for a period of more than six months, the number of partners of the
limited liability partnership is reduced below three
(d) if the Tribunal is of the opinion that it is just and equitable that the limited
liability partnership be wound up
19. The court may not grant a perpetual injunction in which of the following cases:-
(a) where the defendant is trustee of the property for the defendant;
(b) where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused, or
likely to be caused, by the invasion;
(c) where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford
adequate relief;
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(d) where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial
proceedings.
20. Order 41 Rule 22 gives a tool through which any respondent, though he may not
have appealed from any part of the decree, may not only support the decree but may
also state that the finding against him in the Court below in respect of any issue
ought to have been in his favour and can also take
(a) a cross-objection
(b) a cross-suit
(c) a cross-claim
(d) a counter-claim
21. As per the case of Union of India vs SB Singh, the expression "questions relating to
the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree" has not been defined in the
Code and it covers question of executability or non-executability of a decree. Which
of the following is a question relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of
the decree?
(a) whether the decree has become inexecutable by a compromise subsequent to
the passing of the decree in the previous suit
(b) a question relating to the territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction of the court which
passed the decree
(c) a question relating to correctness or validity of the decree, except where the
decree is a nullity
(d) whether the auction-purchaser is entitled to recover possession
22. If an action taken or order made by an authority is illegal, ultra vires or void,
according to the case of Union Carbide Corporation. Vs Union of India,
(a) The aggrieved party can file a writ petition against the same without the
application of the Limitation Act
(b) The aggrieved party does not have any remedy as the law of limitation does not
apply to such matters
(c) The aggrieved party can file a suit for declaration or for setting aside such order
at any time
(d) The aggrieved party is bound by the residuary provision (Art.113) and
thus can file a suit only within three years
23. Which of the following is not a mode of execution of a decree as per the Civil
Procedure Code, 1908?
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(a) Partition
(b) Appointment of Receiver
(c) Set-off of Cross-decrees and Cross-claims
(d) None of the above
24. No second appeal shall lie from any decree, when the subject matter of the original
suit is for recovery of money not exceeding ;-
(a) Ten thousand rupees
(b) Twenty thousand rupees
(c) Twenty five thousand rupees
(d) Thirty thousand rupees
25. Which of the following offences is cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable:-
(a) voluntarily causing grievous hurt, punishable under Section 325 IPC
(b) attempt to murder punishable under Section 307 IPC
(c) voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property,
punishable under Section 330 IPC
(d) voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation punishable under Section 335 IPC
26. In a trial Ion the charge of attempt to rape, at the stage of recording of the evidence
of the sixteen- year-old prosecutrix, the accused insists on being present and be
allowed to himself confront het by showing to her some video-footage on his mobile
phone.
(1) The request of the accused cannot be declined since the charge is only of an
attempt to rape.
(2) The request of the accused cannot be declined since the prosecutrix is a girl child
and not a woman.
(3) The request of the accused may be declined though Court must adopt
appropriate measures to ensure there is no direct confrontation between the
accused and the prosecutrix and the right of cross-examination is effectively
exercised.
(4) The request of the accused may be declined since the video-footage was not
disclosed at any earlier stage.
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
27. In a summons-case, where the Court has dispensed with the personal attendance of
the accused, it may also dispense with his examination:-
(a) No, it will be against the laws of natural justice and would defeat the criminal
jurisprudence
(b) Yes, if the accused assures that he would not complain about any prejudice
on the ground of non-examination
(c) Yes, if the accused is ready and willing to sign a bond with or without surety and
ensures his attendance at the time of delivery of judgment
(d) No, the court has no such discretion to dispense with the examination of the
accused and it is mandatory for the court to examine the accused
28. Which of the following is not within the powers of the Appellate Court to while
hearing an appeal from a conviction:-
(a) reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused, or order
him to be re-tried by a Court of competent jurisdiction subordinate to such
Appellate Court or committed for trial
(b) alter the finding, maintaining the sentence
(c) with or without altering the finding, alter the nature or the extent, or the nature
and extent, of the sentence, but not so as to enhance the same
(d) reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused or
order him to be re-tried by a Court competent to try the offence
29. The Liberhan Commission was formed in the year 1992 as a ______________
commission to report on the matter of ___________________
(a) Adhoc, Police Reforms
(b) Permanent, Oil-for-Food Scam
(c) Adhoc, Tehelka Tapes Scandal
(d) Adhoc, Babri Masjid Demolition
30. What is the full form of AICD?
(a) All India Civil Decision
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(b) All India Criminal Decision
(c) All India Company Disputes
(d) All India Chargesheet Dial
31. In Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1,
the Supreme Court of India, by a ______ majority, restored the collegium system of
appointment of judges by holding that the National Judicial Appointments
Commission Act, 2014 is ultra vires the Constitution of India.
(a) 3:2
(b) 4:1
(C) 2:1
(d) 4:3
32. Which of the following is not a direction given by Supreme Court of India relating to
orders of maintenance and successive claims by parties in matrimonial proceedings?
(A) Where successive claims for maintenance are made by a party under different
statutes, the Court would consider an adjustment or setoff of the amount awarded in
previous proceedings. (B) If the order passed in the previous proceeding/s requires
any modification or variation, it would be required to be done in the same
proceeding.
(C) it is not mandatory for the applicant to disclose the previous proceeding
and the orders passed therein, in the subsequent proceeding.
(D) The affidavit of disclosure of assets and liabilities as applicable, shall be filed by
both parties in all maintenance proceedings, including pending proceedings before
any other court, as the case may be
33. Which of the following is not correct as per Section 125 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973?
(a) it provides for maintenance to wife/wives, illegitimate and legitimate children
and parents.
(b) A wife shall not be entitled to receive maintenance as per this provision from her
husband if she is living in adultery, or if, without any sufficient reason, she refuses to
live with her husband, or if they are living separately by mutual consent.
(c) A magistrate has been given wide powers under this provision.
(d) As per the explanation under this provision, wife does not include a
woman who has been divorced by, or has obtained a divorce from, her husband
but includes a woman who has remarried
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
34. Consider the meaning of ‘impossibility’ from the given excerpt: In deciding cases in
India, the only doctrine that we have to go by is that of supervening impossibility or
illegality as laid down in Section 56 of the Contract Act 1872, taking the word
‘impossible’ in its practical and not literal sense. Which of the following is correct
regarding the nature of impossibility in such contracts?
(A) the performance of the act may not be literally impossible, but it may be
impracticable from the point of view of the object.
(b) the changed circumstances never make the performance of the contract
impossible.
(C) the performance of the act may not be literally impossible, but it may be
practicable from the point of view of the object.
(d) the parties are not absolved from the further performance of a contract if they do
not promise to perform an impossibility.
35. As per Section 27 of Specific Relief Act, notwithstanding anything contained in sub-
section (1) of Section 27, the court may refuse to rescind the contract –
(a) where the defendant has expressly or impliedly ratified the contract
(b) where, owing to the change of circumstances which has taken place since the
making of the contract, the parties can be substantially restored to the position
in which they stood when the contract was made
(c) where third parties have, during the subsistence of the contract, acquired
rights in good faith without notice and for value
(d) where the whole contract is sought to be rescinded and such part is not
severable from the rest of the contract.
36. X entered into an agreement with a minor child Y for indulging the child into slavery
against a lumpsum amount of R.20,000. Y reluctantly but due to his bad financial
condition, agreed to the terms of X and signed the contract. As X tries to execute the
contract, Y realises its consequences and denies the fulfilment of conditions of the
agreement and runs away. Y now wants to get the Agreement declared null and void
by the court. As a Civil Judge, what would you suggest him?
(a) He holds the right to get the agree declared void ab initio by the court of law as
he entered into the same during his minority
(b) He has the right to get the agreement declared void as it involves an immoral
purpose and thus an unlawful object
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(c) He has no right to challenge the validity of the agreement and will have to
perform the conditions laid down by X
(d) He need not seek a decree for setting aside the same as it would not be
necessary, as the agreement is non-est in the eye of law
37. Order XLI Rule 3A deals with application for condonation of delay in cases of appeal. It
was inserted by the Amendment of 1976. Which of the following is the nature of an
application filed under this Rule?
(a) The purpose is to inform the appellant that the delayed appeal will not be entertained
unless it is accompanied by an application explaining the delay
(b) The purpose is to communicate to the respondent that it may not be necessary for him
to get ready on its merits as the court has to first deal with an application for
condonation of the delay as a condition precedent.
(c) It is a directory and not a mandatory rule
(d) All of the above
38. Prem Raj has signed a contract with DLF Co. for a consignment of 20 tonnes of
iron to be delivered in a span of 6 months at his port services in Bombay. The
relations between the two companies turn sour after 1 month, without any
delivery being made, when Prem Raj discovers fraudulent addition of certain
conditions beyond those which were mutually discussed between them, and
now Prem Raj wants to rescind the contract but is then going to risk his
further orders and may lose substantially in his business. He comes to you for
the right legal advice. What will be the best legal advice that you would give
him ?
(a) If who sues for rescission of contract cannot claim alternative relief of specific performance
(b) If he files the suit for specific enforcement can alternatively claim for rescission of the
contract.
(c) If he seeks part performance of the contract, he can also claim compensation for any
wrongdoings on the part of the company
(d) He cannot rescind the contract after one month of dealing
39. Section 8, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(a) bars the court from referring the parties to arbitration once the party has submitted his
statement
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(b) does not. bar the court from referring the parties to arbitration after submission
of his statement, where the party who has brought the action does not object
(c) does not bar the court from referring the parties to arbitration after submission of his
statement, irrespective of whether the party who has brought the action has any objection
to it or not
(d) only (a), and not (b) or (c).
40. Which of the following is incorrect statement:
(a) under section 40, the arbitration agreement shall not be discharged by death of
the party “
(b) under section 40, where the death occurs during the course of the arbitral
proceedings, all the legal representatives are bound by the award
(c) under section 40, the legal representatives are bound by the award if death
occurs during the course of proceedings, but after the death a new arbitrator
has to be appointed
(d) none of the above.
41. If one party is Indian Company and another is American company and the
dispute arises out of legal relationship under contract entered between them,
then such dispute falls
(a) under International Commercial Arbitration within the meaning of section
2(f) of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(b) under general arbitration within the meaning of section 2(a) of Arbitration Act,
1940
(c) under section 3(b) of Civil Procedure Code, 1908
(d) under section 5(b) of General Clauses Act, 1897.
42. What is the basic difference between an offence of abetment by conspiracy and the
offence of criminal conspiracy?
(a) In case of conspiracy, mere agreement is enough whereas in case of
abetment by conspiracy an act should have taken place in pursuance of
conspiracy
(b) There is no difference at all between the two except for the dealing provisions
(c) In case of conspiracy, an act should also have taken place, but in case of abetment
by conspiracy, no act needs to have taken place
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(d) In case of abetment by conspiracy, there need not be an agreement whereas in
case of criminal conspiracy, agreement is essential
43. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to criminal conspiracy?
1. When two or more persons agree to do an unlawful act by an unlawful means
then they will be guilty of criminal conspiracy
2. Several persons agreed to commit an "offence" but nothing was done in pursuance of
the agreement Y
3. When two or more persons agree to do a lawful act in lawful manner by lawful
means but an overt act is done by one them
4. Criminal conspiracy to commit and offence punishable with fine alone will not
entail any liability
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
44. Which one of the following interpretations of section 376B of the Indian Penal Code
did the Supreme Court of India hold in the case of Omkar Prasad Verma v. State of
Madhya Pradesh?
(a) The term 'custody' implies guardianship and its meaning also included
care keeping, charge, imprisonment, judicial or penal safekeeping etc.
(b) The term 'custody' is not narrow, but would mean any sort of control over a
person.
(c) The term 'custody' under Indian Penal Code has same meaning as the term has
under the Indian Evidence Act.
(d) The term 'custody' is equivalent to physical possession of tangible property.
45. T instigates C, a child under seven years of age to do an act which can cause X's
death. In consequence of this C causes X's death in absence of T.
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
With reference to the above statement:
Assertion (A): T is liable for murder of X, even though the actual act has been
committed by an infant.
Reason (R): The liability of the abettor depends upon the capability and knowledge
or intention of the person abetted
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
46. In which of the following cases, the offence of theft has not been committed?
(a) A cuts trees in the land belong to Z. Before A could take away the cut trees, he is
apprehended
(b) A puts a piece of meat in his bag. B's dog follows him. B is not aware of
movement of his dog. When A reached his house, he saw the dog and chained it
inside his house.
(c) A finds a ring lying on the roadside. A takes the ring and keeps the same
with himself.
(d) A had pawned his watch with X. Without X's consent, A takes back his watch
without paying the money for which the watch was pawned.
47. A invited his friend B to his house for dinner. While they were having dinner, B made
certain unwanted comments about the married sister of A and how she was a
characterless woman who has only married a millionaire for his money. Frustrated A
started abusing B and also said that he is a womanizer and a cheat and has
misappropriated huge funds of his employer. B sued A for defamation
(a) A is liable as he made derogatory statements about B
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
(b) A is liable as he did not act as a good friend
(c) A is not liable as he has not communicated these statements to anybody
except B
(d) A is not liable as he has made defamatory statements on being provoked by B
himself
48. Under Cr.P.C. after committal of the case. Sessions Court found that another person
against whom a prima facie case is made out from the materials contained in the
case papers have not been included then
(a) Sessions Court would have no alternative, but to wait till the stage under Section
319 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Sessions Court can issue summons under Section 193 on the basis of the
records transmitted to him
(c) Case should be remanded to the committal Magistrate for appropriate action
(d) Direction should be given to Police to file separate charge sheet against additional
accused.
49. 'G', a 17 years old girl, was married to 'H'. 'H' during the subsistence of the said
marriage entered into another marriage with 'P'. The court may take cognizance for
the offence of bigamy, if the complaint brought by
(a) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father's or mother's
brother or sister.
(b) any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption, with the leave of
the court.
(c) some other person on her behalf, with leave of court, but where there is a
guardian appointed in her respect, then only after such guardian has been heard.
(d) All of these
TRIATHLON – 2 FOR DJS PRELIMS
BY SHUBHAM UPADHYAY SIR
50. Under Section 27 of the Evidence Act, in respect of confessional evidence
(I) So much of the information as it relates distinctly to the fact discovered in consequence
of information received from the person accused may be proved against him.
(II) Person giving such information must be accused of an offence.
(II) Accused need not be in the police custody.
(IV) Any statement of the accused confessing his guilt must be made in presence of a
Magistrate, in all cases, whether anything is discovered or not in consequence of such
statement, may be proved against him.
