Natural Resources

Question 1.
What is the constitution of nitrogen in our atmosphere?
(a) 28
(b) 78
(c) 55
(d) 92

Answer

Answer: (b) 78

Question 2.
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for nitrogen fixation?
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Rhizobium
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhizobium

Question 3.
One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature.
(a) The sun
(b) Water
(c) Wind
(d) Polythene bags

Answer

Answer: (d) Polythene bags

Question 4.
Which step is not involved in the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

Answer

Answer: (b) Transpiration

Question 5.
The main function of the Rhizobium bacteria is:
(a) To convert free nitrogen into nitrates
(b) To convert the nitrates into nitrogen
(c) Decomposition of ammonium salts
(d) Denitrification

Answer

Answer: (a) To convert free nitrogen into nitrates

Question 6.
Soil pollution mostly occurs by:
(a) Water
(b) Fertilizers and insecticides
(c) Mining
(d) Crops

Answer

Answer: (b) Fertilizers and insecticides

Question 7.
What is the percentage constitution of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere of Venus and
Mars?
(a) 95 – 97%
(b) 20 – 22%
(c) 35 – 40%
(d) 70 – 72%

Answer

Answer: (a) 95 – 97%

Question 8.
Oxygen is found in the elemental form in the atmosphere to the extent of:
(a) 78%
(b) 38%
(c) 21%
(d) 95%

Answer

Answer: (c) 21%

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 9.
In Venus and Mars, the major component of the atmosphere is found to be _______
 Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

Question 10.
Air, water, and soil are the _______ component of the biosphere.

Answer

Answer: abiotic

Question 11.
Biogeochemical cycles always ______ in nature.

Answer

Answer: run/operate

Question 12.
Carbon dioxide is one of the _______

Answer

Answer: greenhouse gas

Question 13.
Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere through only one major process, that is _______

Answer

Answer: photosynthesis

Question 14.
Elemental oxygen is normally found in the form of a _______ molecule.

Answer

Answer: diatomic

Question 15.
Uneven heating of air over land and water bodies causes ________

Answer

Answer: winds
Question 16.
The most important green house gas is ________

Answer

Answer: CO2

Question 17.
Chlorofluorocarbon is destroying ________ layer.

Answer

Answer: ozone

Question 18.
Apart from microbes _________ are helpful in the humus formation.

Answer

Answer: earthworms

True/False.

Question 19.
Freshwater is found frozen in the ice-caps at the two poles and on snowcovered mountains.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Rainfall patterns depend on the prevailing wind patterns in an area.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
The total momentum of an isolated system is not conserved.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 22.
The ozone layer protects us from ultraviolet radiation.

Answer
Answer: True

Question 23.
The decomposition of organic substances causes air pollution.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 24.
During the day, the direction of the wind would be from the sea to the land.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Organisms called lichens are found to be very sensitive to the levels of contaminants like
sulphur dioxide in the air.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 26.

A B
1. Ozone layer (i) 21%
2. Nitrogen (ii) Rhizobium
3. Amount of CO2 in
(iii) O3
atmosphere
4. Nitrogen Fixation (iv) 0.03%
5. Amount of
(v) 78%
oxygen
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Ozone layer (iii) O3
2. Nitrogen (v) 78%
3. Amount of CO2 in (iv) 0.03%
atmosphere
4. Nitrogen Fixation (ii) Rhizobium
5. Amount of
(i) 21%
oxygen

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 27.
What is the full name of C.F.C.?

Answer

Answer: Chlorofluorocarbon

Question 28.
Write the chemical (molecular) formula of chlorofluorocarbon (C.F.C.)?

Answer

Answer: CCl2F2

Question 29.
What name is given to increase in general temperature of the atmosphere globally due to
the activities of mankind?

Answer

Answer: Global warming

Question 30.
What is the chemical formula of ozone?

Answer

Answer: O3

Question 31.
What is the major factor in deciding the soil structure?

Answer

Answer: Humus

Question 32.
What is the surface temperature of the Moon?

Answer
Answer: -190°C to 110°C
 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The basic unit of life is:
(a) tissue
(b) cell
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) cell

Question 2.
Who discovered the cell?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Leeuwenhoek
(c) Robert Brown
(d) T. Schwann

Answer

Answer: (a) Robert Hooke

Question 3.
The cell wall of a plant cell is made up of:
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) protein
(d) cellulose

Answer

Answer: (d) cellulose

Question 4.
Which of the following controls all biological activities of a cell?
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Cell wall
(c) Nucleus
(d) All of these

Answer
Answer: (c) Nucleus

Question 5.
Which of the following is known as the ‘Power House’ of a cell?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Golgi Bodies
(c) Ribosome
(d) Mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (d) Mitochondria

Question 6.
Digestive Enzymes are found in:
(a) Protoplasm
(b) Cell wall
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (c) Lysosomes

Question 7.
Which is the longest cell of the human body?
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Liver cell
(c) Kidney cell
(d) Cardiac cell

Answer

Answer: (a) Nerve cell

Question 8.
Which of the following cell organelles functions both as an intracellular transport system
and as a manufacturing surface?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) ER
Question 9.
Which of the following cell organelles help in the storage, modification, and packaging of
substances manufactured in the cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplasts

Answer

Answer: (a) Golgi apparatus

Question 10.
Who proposed the “Black Reaction”?
(a) Benda
(b) Camillo Golgi
(c) Schleiden
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Camillo Golgi

Question 11.
Who discovered the nucleus in the cell?
(a) Leeuwenhoek
(b) Robert Brown
(c) Schleiden
(d) Robert Hooke

Answer

Answer: (b) Robert Brown

Question 12.
Which of the following are formed in bone marrow?
(a) RBC
(b) Cartilage cell
(c) Blood platelets
(d) Fibres

Answer

Answer: (a) RBC

Question 13.
Which of the following can be made into crystal?
(a) A bacterium
(b) An amoeba
(c) A virus
(d) A sperm

Answer

Answer: (c) A virus

Question 14.
Chromosomes are made up of:
(a) DNA
(b) Protein
(c) DNA and protein
(d) RNA

Answer

Answer: (c) DNA and protein

Question 15.
Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Ribosome
(d) Plastid

Answer

Answer: (b) Vacuole

Question 16.
Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?
(a) Storage
(b) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(c) Waste excretion
(d) Locomotion

Answer

Answer: (d) Locomotion

Question 17.
The cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Mango tree
(d) Cactus
 Answer

Answer: (a) Bacteria

Question 18.
Lysosome arises from:
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (b) Golgi apparatus

Question 19.
The kitchen of the cell is:
(a) mitochondria
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) chloroplast
(d) Golgi apparatus

Answer

Answer: (c) chloroplast

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 20.
Every cell is surrounded by a ________

Answer

Answer: cell membrane

Question 21.
The cell wall of a plant cell is made up of _________

Answer

Answer: cellulose

Question 22.
A lysosome is also called ______ bag.

Answer

Answer: suicidal
Question 23.
________ cells contain plastids.

Answer

Answer: Plant

Question 24.
Plants are green due to presence of ________

Answer

Answer: chlorophyll

Question 25.
The cell has special components called _________

Answer

Answer: organelles

Question 26.
Chromoplasts that contain chlorophyll are called _________

Answer

Answer: chloroplasts

Question 27.
The primary function of _______ is storage.

Answer

Answer: leucoplasts

Question 28.
The basic building units of all living organisms is _________

Answer

Answer: cell

True/False.

Question 29.
Prokaryotic cells have no membrane-bound organelles, their chromosome is composed of
only nucleic acid and they have only small ribosomes.
 Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
The cell is a Latin word for ‘a little room’.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
Vacuoles are large-sized in animal cells, while plant cells have very small vacuoles.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 32.
The central vacuole of some plant cells may occupy 50-90% of the cell volume.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 33.
Like the mitochondria, plastids also have their own DNA and ribosomes.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 34.
The cell was discovered by Leeuwenhoek.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 35.

A B
1. A method of (i) Protein
plant breeding factory
2. Mitochondria (ii) Cell wall
3. Lysosome (iii) Polyploidy
(iv) Powerhouse
4. Ribosome
of the cell
5. Cellulose (v) Suicidal bag
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. A method of
(iii) Polyploidy
plant breeding
(iv) Powerhouse
2. Mitochondria
of the cell
3. Lysosome (v) Suicidal bag
(i) Protein
4. Ribosome
factory
5. Cellulose (ii) Cell wall

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 36.
Who called jelly-like the substance of cell protoplasm?

Answer

Answer: J.E. Purkinje

Question 37.
Who postulated cell theory?

Answer

Answer: M. J. Schleiden and T. Schwann

Question 38.
What is called the ‘Suicide-bag’ of the cell?

Answer

Answer: Lysosomes

Question 39.
What is the powerhouse of the cell?

Answer
Answer: Mitochondria

Question 40.
What term was given by Robert Hooke to the walled compartments of honeycomb-like
structure in a slice of cork?

Answer

Answer: Cell

Question 41.
When was the electron microscope invented?

Answer

Answer: In 1940

Question 42.
Who discovered the cell?

Answer

Answer: Robert Hooke

Question 43.
Who, with the improved microscope, discovered the free-living cells in pond water for the
first time?

Answer

Answer: Leeuwenhoek

Question 44.
Who discovered the nucleus in the cell?

Answer

Answer: Robert Brown

Question 45.
Who suggested that all cells arise from pre-existing cells?

Answer

Answer: R. Virchow
Question 46.
In which organisms, the nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by a double-layered
membrane?

Answer

Answer: In eukaryotes
 Tissues

Question 1.
Which tissue is present at the growing tips of stem and roots ?
(a) Permanent
(b) Meristematic
(c) Conductive
(d) Complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Meristematic

Question 2.
Blood is a type of:
(a) connective tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) connective tissue

Question 3.
Brain is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (c) nervous tissue

Question 4.
The heart of organisms is made up of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (a) muscular tissue

Question 5.
Skin of hand is composed of:
(a) muscular tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nervous tissue
(d) epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (d) epithelial tissue

Question 6.
Water and minerals are transported by:
(a) phloem
(b) cavities
(c) xylem
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (c) xylem

Question 7.
Stomata are found:
(a) in the epidermis of leaf
(b) in xylem
(c) in phloem
(d) collenchyma

Answer

Answer: (a) in the epidermis of leaf

Question 8.
Which muscles act involuntarily?
(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muscles
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 9.
Which is not a function of epidermis?
(a) Protection from adverse condition
(b) Gaseous exchange
(c) Conduction of water
(d) Transpiration

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction of water

Question 10.
Cartilage is not found in:
(a) nose
(b) ear
(c) kidney
(d) larynx

Answer

Answer: (c) kidney

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
_______ is a group of cells similar in structure and function.

Answer

Answer: Tissue

Question 12.
________ can be epithelial, connective, muscular and nervous tissue.

Answer

Answer: Animal tissues

Question 13.
________ is made of neurons that receive and conduct impulses.

Answer

Answer: Nervous tissue

Question 14.
The cells of permanent tissues do not ________
 Answer

Answer: divide

Question 15.
When parenchyma contains chloroplast, then it is called _________

Answer

Answer: chlorenchyma

Question 16.
________ is the meristem at the base of the leaves or intemodes of stem.

Answer

Answer: Intercalary meristem

Question 17.
When many tissues join together, they form an _________

Answer

Answer: organ

Question 18.
Phloem ________ food from leaves to other parts of the plant.

Answer

Answer: transports

Question 19.
_______ transports the water and minerals absorbed by roots to the other parts of the
plant.

Answer

Answer: Xylem

True/False.

Question 20.
Meristematic tissue is the dividing tissue present in the growing regions of the plant.

Answer

Answer: True
Question 21.
Blood and lymph are vascular connective tissue.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
Heart muscles are voluntary muscles.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Cartilage is present in the nose and larynx.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Cork cambium is an example of lateral meristem.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Parenchyma with large air cavities are called aerenchyma.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 26.
Liginified thickened walls provide mechanical strength to the plant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Heart muscles are connected with skeleton.

Answer
Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 28.

A B
1. Connective tissue (i) Sclerenchyma
(ii) Voluntary as well
2. Nervous tissue
as involuntary muscles
(iii) Involuntary
3. Coir of coconut
muscles
4. Muscles of the
(iv) Phloem
heart
5. Eyelid (v) Neuron
(vi) Blood
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Connective tissue (vi) Blood
2. Nervous tissue (v) Neuron
3. Coir of coconut (i) Sclerenchyma
4. Muscles of the (iii) Involuntary
heart muscles
(ii) Voluntary as well
5. Eyelid
as involuntary muscles

Question 29.

A B
1. Fluid connective (i) Subcutaneous
tissue layer
2. Filling of space
(ii) Cartilage
inside the organs
(iii) Skeletal
3. Striated muscle
muscle
4. Adipose tissue (iv) Areolar tissue
5. Surface of joints (v) Blood
6. Stratified squamous
(vi) Skin
epithelium
 Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Fluid connective
(v) Blood
tissue
2. Filling of space
(iv) Areolar tissue
inside the organs
(iii) Skeletal
3. Striated muscle
muscle
(i) Subcutaneous
4. Adipose tissue
layer
5. Surface of joints (ii) Cartilage
6. Stratified squamous
(vi) Skin
epithelium

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 30.
Which gas is required in photosynthesis?

Answer

Answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Question 31.
Which tissue makes up the coir of coconut?

Answer

Answer: Sclerenchyma

Question 32.
Which connective tissue fills the space inside the organs?

Answer

Answer: Areolar connective tissue

 Sound

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
For hearing a distinct sound, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected one must
be at least:
(a) 1 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 2 s
(d) 0.2 s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.1 s

Question 2.
The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is
called:
(a) reverberation
(b) audible
(c) distinct sound
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (a) reverberation

Question 3.
The speed v, frequency υ, and wavelength λ, of sound are related by the equation:
(a) v = λυ
(b) υ = λv
(c) λ = υv
(d) v =λ

Answer

Answer: (a) v = λυ

Question 4.
The speed of sound is maximum in:
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) gases
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) solids

Question 5.
Our ears are sensitive to sound frequencies between:
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(c) 20 kHz to 200 kHz
(d) 2000 kHz to 20000 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 6.
Which of the following waves are produced by bats?
(a) Infrasonic waves
(b) Ultrasonic waves
(c) Audible waves
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Ultrasonic waves

Question 7.
Maximum tolerable sound is:
(a) 0 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 60 dB
(d) 120 dB

Answer

Answer: (d) 120 dB

Question 8.
Sound waves are:
(a) magnetic waves
(b) electric waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) mechanical waves

Answer

Answer: (d) mechanical waves

Question 9.
In SONAR, we use:
(a) ultrasonic waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves

Answer

Answer: (a) ultrasonic waves

Question 10.
Sound travels in the air if:
(a) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no mixture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another

Answer

Answer: (c) disturbance moves

Question 11.
When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its:
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Answer

Answer: (b) amplitude

Question 12.
In the curve half the wavelength is:

(a) AB
(b) BD
(c) DE
(d) AE

Answer

Answer: (b) BD

Question 13.
An earthquake produces which kind of sound before the mainshock wave begins:
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) infrasound

Question 14.
Infrasound can be heard by:
(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

Answer

Answer: (c) rhinoceros

Fill in the blanks.

Question 15.
Sound travels as a _______ wave through a material medium.

Answer

Answer: longitudinal

Question 16.
The change in density from one maximum value to the minimum value and again to the maximum
value makes one complete ________

Answer

Answer: oscillation

Question 17.
Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: infrasonic

Question 18.
Sound waves with frequencies above the audible range are termed as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic

Question 19.
________ is produced due to reflections of sound from obstacles.

Answer
Answer: Echo

Question 20.
Wave velocity = Frequency × ________

Answer

Answer: wavelength

Question 21.
Sound frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are known as ________

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic sound

Question 22.
Echo can be heard clearly if the minimum distance between the source of the sound and the obstacle
is ________

Answer

Answer: 17.2 meter

Question 23.
Echo is produced due to _______ of sound from obstacles.

Answer

Answer: reflection

True/False.

Question 24.
Sound is produced due to the vibration of different objects.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Sound travels as successive compressions and rarefactions in the medium.

Answer
Answer: True

Question 26.
In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles of the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Sound propagates in a vacuum.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 28.
The speed of sound does not depend primarily on the nature and the temperature of the transmitting
medium.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
Loudness is a physiological response of the ear to the intensity of sound.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
The audible range of hearing for average human beings is in the frequency range of 20Hz – 20kHz.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
Sound frequencies above 20 Hz are known as inaudible sound.

Answer

Answer: False
Question 32.
Rhino can hear the sound frequency of 5 Hz.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 33.
SONAR is used to determine the depth of the sea.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 34.
The transverse and longitudinal waves are called progressive waves.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 35.

A B
1. Frequency below 20
(i) 120 dB
Hz
2. Heartbeat (ii) Audible sounds
3. Maximum tolerable
(iii) Infrasonic sounds
sound
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to
(iv) Stethoscope
20,000 Hz
5. Uses of SONAR (v) Decibel
6. The unit of intensity of
(vi) Depth of sea
sound
Answer

Answer:

A B
(iii) Infrasonic
1. Frequency below 20 Hz
sounds
2. Heartbeat (iv) Stethoscope
3. Maximum tolerable (i) 120 dB
sound
4. Frequency of 20 Hz to
(ii) Audible sounds
20,000 Hz
5. Uses of SONAR (vi) Depth of sea
6. The unit of intensity of
(v) Decibel
sound

Answer in Word/Sentence.

Question 36.
What is the term given to the distance between two consecutive compression or two consecutive
rarefactions?

Answer

Answer: Wavelength (λ)

Question 37.
What is the term given to the time taken by the wave for one complete oscillation of the density of
the medium?

Answer

Answer: Time Period (T)

Question 38.
What is the amount of sound energy passing each second through the unit area?

Answer

Answer: The intensity of sound

Question 39.
Which technique is used to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarines, icebergs, sunken ships,
etc.?

Answer

Answer: The SONAR

Question 40.
What type of mechanical waves are produced in the air (gases)?

Answer
Answer: Longitudinal waves

Question 41.
What type of mechanical waves are produced on the surface of the water?

Answer

Answer: Transverse waves

Question 42.
What type of waves are sound waves?

Answer

Answer: Longitudinal mechanical waves

Question 43.
What type of waves are produced by the bats while flying?

Answer

Answer: Ultrasound waves

 Gravitation

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The unit of G in the S.I. system is:
(a) Newton m2/kg2
(b) Newton m2 kg2
(c) Newton m kg
(d) Newton m2/kg

Answer
Answer: (a) Newton m2/kg2

Question 2.
The gravitational constant is denoted by which symbol?
(a) g
(b) M
(c) G
(d) k

Answer

Answer: (c) G
Question 3.
The unit of weight in the S.I. system is:
(a) kg m2
(b) Newton
(c) ms-2
(d) ms

Answer

Answer: (b) Newton

Question 4.
When an object is released from a height, its initial velocity is:
(a) u = 100 ms-1
(b) u = 9.8 ms-1
(c) u = 0
(d) u = 1

Answer

Answer: (c) u = 0

Question 5.
The relation between g and G is:
(a) g = GM
2
R

(b) g = GMR2
2

(c) g = MR

G
2

(d) g = GR

Answer

Answer: (a) g =
GM

2
R
Question 6.
The mass of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 1024
(b) 6 × 1010 kg
(c) 6 × 1024 kg
(d) 6 × 1019 kg

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 × 1024 kg

Question 7.
The radius of the earth is:
(a) 6.4 × 10-6 m
(b) 6.4 × 106 m
(c) 4.6 × 106 m
(d) 6.4 × 104 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.4 × 106 m

Question 8.
By applying the universal law of gravitation, the weight of the object on the moon will be:
2
GR
(a) W m =
Mm ×m
m

2
GMm ×R
(b) W m =
m
m

2
R ×m
(c) W m = G
m

Mm

(d) W
Mm ×m
m
= G
2
Rm

Answer

Answer: (d) W
Mm ×m
m
= G
2
Rm

Question 9.
The value of acceleration due to gravity:
(a) is the same on the equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on the equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer
Answer: (c) is least on the equator

Question 10.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation:
(a) depends on the mass of earth only
(b) depends on the radius of the earth only
(c) depends on both the mass and radius of the earth
(d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

Answer

Answer: (d) is independent of the mass and radius of the earth

Question 11.
The atmosphere is held to the earth by:
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

Question 12.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between:
(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Answer

Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
Force of gravitation due to the earth is called _________

Answer

Answer: gravity
Question 2.
The force of gravity _______ with altitude.

Answer

Answer: decreases

Question 3.
The force of gravity _______ from poles to the equator.

Answer

Answer: decreases

Question 4.
The ______ of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.

Answer

Answer: weight

Question 5.
The accepted value of G is _________

Answer

Answer: 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2

Question 6.
Relative density has ______ unit.

Answer

Answer: no

Question 7.
The value of g is taken as _________

Answer

Answer: 9.8 ms-2

True/False.
Question 1.
The value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 ms-2

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity on the moon is g/6.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The value of G was found out by Henry Cavendish by using a sensitive balance.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
The mass of an object is constant and does not change from place to place.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
The relative density of a substance is the product of its density and that of water.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Gravitation is a weak force unless bodies of large masses are involved.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
The weight of an object is equal to the ratio of its mass and acceleration due to gravity.
 Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
The weight may vary from place to place but the mass stays constant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
All objects experience a force of buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Objects having more density than that of the liquid in which they are immersed, float on the surface
of the liquid.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 1.

A B
1. The value of g (i) g/6
2. The value of G (ii) maximum
3. The value of g (iii) 6.673 ×
at the centre of the -1
earth 10 Nm2 kg-2
4. The value of g -2
at the earth’s poles (iv) 9.8 ms
5. The value of g
(v) zero
on the moon
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. The value of g (iv) 9.8 ms-2
(iii) 6.673 ×
2. The value of G
10-1 Nm2 kg-2
3. The value of g
at the centre of the (v) zero
earth
4. The value of g
(ii) maximum
at the earth’s poles
5. The value of g
(i) g/6
on the moon

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 1.
Write down the formula which shows the relation between the mass of the earth M, the radius of the
earth R, acceleration due to gravity g, and universal constant of gravitation G.

Answer

Answer: g =
GM

2
R

Question 2.
What will be the change in the value of g while going in-depth?

Answer

Answer: The value of g decreases

Question 3.
What is the value of g on earth’s center?

Answer

Answer: Zero

Question 4.
What will be the weight of a person, sitting in a spacecraft which is revolving around the earth?

Answer

Answer: Zero

Question 5.
Write S.I. unit of G.
 Answer

Answer: Nm2 kg-2 or Nm2/kg2

Question 6.
How many newtons are there in 1 kg weight?

Answer

Answer: 9.8 N

Question 7.
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at the moon?

Answer

Answer: 1.63 ms-2

Question 8.
Write the S.I. unit of pressure.

Answer

Answer: N/m2 or Nm-2

Question 9.
Which symbol is used to show the S.I. unit of pressure?

Answer

Answer: Pa (Pascal)

Question 10.
What is the thrust on a unit area called?

Answer

Answer: Pressure
 Force andLaws of Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of:
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) momentum

Question 2.
Among the equal-sized stone and a football, the inertia will be higher of:
(a) football
(b) stone
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) stone

Question 3.
A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on the ground. After covering a short distance, the
ball comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because:
(a) the batsman did not hit the ball hard enough.
(b) velocity is proportional to the force exerted on the ball.
(c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.
(d) there is no unbalanced force on the ball so the ball would want to come to rest.

Answer

Answer: (c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.

Question 4.
What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?
(a) (mv)2
(b) mv2
(c) mv2
1

(d) mv

Answer

Answer: (d) mv

Question 5.
Friction is:
(a) useful to us
(b) harmful to us
(c) both useful as well as harmful to us
(d) none of them.

Answer

Answer: (c) both useful as well as harmful to us

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 6.
The SI unit of momentum is _________.

Answer

Answer: kgms-1

Question 7.
The natural tendency of objects to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform motion is called
______

Answer

Answer: inertia

Question 8.
To every action, there is an ______ and opposite reaction.

Answer

Answer: equal

Question 9.
The resultant force of balanced forces is ________

Answer

Answer: zero

Question 10.
The force can change the motion, direction, or _______ of an object.

Answer

Answer: shape

Question 11.
The value of inertia depends on the _______ of an object.

Answer

Answer: mass
Question 12.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is ______ to the applied unbalanced force in the
direction of the force.

Answer

Answer: proportional

True/False.

Question 13.
In 1586, Galileo Galilei wrote his first scientific book ‘The Little Balance’.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 14.
In practical situations, it is difficult to achieve a zero balanced force.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
Force is a scalar quantity.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 16.
The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 17.
In an isolated system, the total momentum remains conserved.

Answer

Answer: True
Match the Column.

Question 18.

A B
(i) Mass ×
1. Unit of force
acceleration
2. Unit of pressure (ii) kgms-1
3. Test of purity of milk (iii) Pascal
4. Force (iv) Lactometer
5. S.I unit of
(v) Newton
momentum
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Unit of force (v) Newton
2. Unit of pressure (iii) Pascal
3. Test of purity of milk (iv) Lactometer
(i) Mass ×
4. Force
acceleration
5. SI unit of momentum (ii) kgms-1

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 19.
Write the unit of pressure.

Answer

Answer: Nm-1 or pascal

Question 20.
A body is moving with constant velocity, then what will be the acceleration of that body?

Answer

Answer: Zero (0)

Question 21.
Write the S.I unit of force.

Answer
Answer: Newton

Question 22.
On what factor the inertia of an object depends?

Answer

Answer: On mass

Question 23.
Express the second law of motion of newton in the context of the equation of momentum.

Answer
Change in momentum ΔP m(v−u)
Answer: Force = time
=
t
 Diversity in Living Organisms

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Mammals are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) warm-blooded

Question 2.
Reptiles are:
(a) warm-blooded
(b) cold-blooded
(c) both
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) cold-blooded

Question 3.
The book ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by:
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Haeckel
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 4.
How many research papers of Carolus Linnaeus were published on classification?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 14
Question 5.
Which among the following produce seeds?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer

Answer: (d) Gymnosperms

Question 6.
Who proposed the nomenclature system of living organisms first of all?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (b) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 7.
Who is considered the father of taxonomy?
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (a) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 8.
Which one is a true fish?
(a) Jellyfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Silverfish

Answer

Answer: (c) Dogfish

Question 9.
Which among the following have an open circulatory system?
(i) Arthropoda
(ii) Mollusca
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Coelenterata
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

Question 10.
Gymnosperms are kept under:
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Tracheophyta

Question 11.
Which among the following have scales?
(i) Amphibians
(ii) Pisces
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Mammals
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii) and (iii)

Question 12.
The amphibian animal is:
(a) Fish
(b) Frog
(c) Lizard
(d) Bat

Answer

Answer: (b) Frog

Question 13.
Identify a member of Porifera:
(a) Spongilla
(b) Euglena
(c) Penicillium
(d) Hydra

Answer

Answer: (a) Spongilla

Question 14.
Two chambered heart occurs in:
(a) crocodiles
(b) fish
(c) aves
(d) amphibians

Answer

Answer: (b) fish

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 15.
In Amoeba, locomotory organs are _________

Answer

Answer: pseudopodia

Question 16.
Locomotory organs of Euglena are __________

Answer

Answer: flagella

Question 17.
Locomotory organs are not found in ______ types of protozoa.

Answer

Answer: sporozoan

Question 18.
Locomotory organs of paramoecium are _________
 Answer

Answer: cilia

True/False.

Question 19.
Charles Darwin first described the idea of natural selection in 1859 in his book, “The origin
of species.”

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Whittaker proposed a five kingdom classification.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Tropical regions of the earth, between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn, are
rich in diversity of plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
An earthworm is a unisexual animal.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Blue-green algae belong to the kingdom Protista.

Answer
Answer: False

Question 25.
Starting from class, species come before the Genus.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
All prokaryotes are classified under Monera.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
The cockroach is an example of class Insecta.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 28.
Whale fish is not a mammal.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
The word Porifera means animals with holes.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 30.
Molluscans have an open circulatory system and kidney like organs for excretion.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
Kangaroos give birth to underdeveloped young ones which are nurtured in a bag attached
to their abdomen.
 Answer

Answer: True

Question 32.
In binomial nomenclature, the first name represents the species, and the second
represents the genus.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 33.

A B
1. Naked seed (i) Angiosperms
2. Covered (ii)
seed Gymnosperms
3. Flagella (iii) Bryophytes
4. Marchantia (iv) Euglena
5. Marsilea (v) Thallophyta
6. Cladophora (vi) Pteridophyta
7. Penicillium (vii) Fungi
Answer

Answer:

A B
(ii)
1. Naked seed
Gymnosperms
2. Covered
(i) Angiosperms
seed
3. Flagella (iv) Euglena
4. Marchantia (iii) Bryophytes
5. Marsilea (vi) Pteridophyta
6. Cladophora (v) Thallophyta
7. Penicillium (vii) Fungi

Question 34.

A B
1. Kingdom Monera (i) Rhizopus
2. Kingdom (ii)
Protista Earthworm
3. Kingdom Plantae (iii) Amoeba
4. Kingdom Fungi (iv) Bacteria
5. Kingdom
(v) Algae
Animalia
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Kingdom Monera (iv) Bacteria
2. Kingdom
(iii) Amoeba
Protista
3. Kingdom Plantae (v) Algae
4. Kingdom Fungi (i) Rhizopus
5. Kingdom (ii)
Animalia Earthworm

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 35.
What is the basic unit of classification?

Answer

Answer: Species

Question 36.
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic, and
photosynthetic?

Answer

Answer: In Protista

Question 37.
Write the scientific name of a human being.

Answer

Answer: Homo sapiens

Question 38.
Who gave the 5-kingdom classification?

Answer

Answer: R. Whittaker

Question 39.
The ‘Origin of Species’ is written by:

Answer

Answer: Charles Darwin

Question 40.
Name the locomotory organs of starfish.

Answer

Answer: Tube feet

Question 41.
Which is the largest group of animals?

Answer

Answer: Arthropoda

Question 42.
How many chambers are there in heart of aves?

Answer

Answer: Four

Question 43.
Who is the father of Binomial Nomenclature?
or
Who is the father of Taxonomy?

Answer

Answer: Carolus Linnaeus

Question 44.
How many chambers are there in the crocodile’s heart?

Answer
Answer: Four Chambers

Question 45.
In which animal does locomotion occur by pseudopodia?

Answer

Answer: Amoeba

Question 46.
How many chambers are there in the reptile’s heart?

Answer

Answer: Three chambers (Incompletely four chambers)

Question 47.
Give the name of the locomotory organ of Euglena.

Answer

Answer: Flagella
 Atoms and Molecules

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who coined the term ‘Parmanu’ for the smallest indivisible particles?
(a) Leucippus
(b) L. Lavoisier
(c) Kanad
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Kanad

Question 2.
The radius of a hydrogen atom is:
(a) 10-2
(b) 10-4
(c) 10-9
(d) 10-10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10-10

Question 3.
The most remarkable concept that Dalton’s atomic theory proposed was that of the:
(a) atomic weight
(b) atomic mass
(c) molar mass
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) atomic mass

Question 4.
The atomic mass of carbon is:
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 23

Answer

Answer: (a) 12
Question 5.
Compounds composed of metals and non-metals contain:
(a) non-charged species
(b) charged species
(c) both of them
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) charged species

Question 6.
The formula of ammonium sulphate is:
(a) NHSO4
(b) NH4SO2
(c) NHSO3
(d) (NH4)2SO4

Answer

Answer: (d) (NH4)2SO4

Question 7.
The word “mole” was introduced around 1896 by:
(a) Wilhelm Ostwald
(b) John Dalton
(c) Avogadro
(d) Vergilious

Answer

Answer: (a) Wilhem Ostwald

Question 8.
The chemical symbol for sodium is:
(a) So
(b) Sd
(c) NA
(d) Na

Answer

Answer: (d) Na

Question 9.
Which of the following has a maximum number of atoms?
(a) 18 g of H2O
(b) 18 g of O2
(c) 18 g of CO2
(d) 18 g of CH4

Answer

Answer: (d) 18 g of CH4

Question 10.
Which of the following contains a maximum number of molecules?
(a) 1g CO2
(b) 1g N2
(c) 1g H2
(d) 1g CH4

Answer

Answer: (c) 1g H2

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
In a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is
always ______

Answer

Answer: 1 : 8

Question 12.
Atomic radius is measured in ________

Answer

Answer: nanometre

Question 13.
The symbol of iron is Fe from its Latin name _________

Answer

Answer: Ferrum

Question 14.
One atomic mass unit is a mass unit equal to exactly ________ the mass of one atom of
carbon-12.
 Answer

Answer: th

Question 15.
The formula unit mass of a substance is a sum of the atomic ______ of all its constituent
atoms.

Answer

Answer: masses

Question 16.
Avogadro number is represented by ________

Answer

Answer: N0

Question 17.
The relative mass of atoms of all elements is obtained by comparing them with the mass of
a _______ atom.

Answer

Answer: Carbon-12

Question 18.
The Avogadro constant 6.022 × 1023 is defined as the number of atoms in exactly ______
of carbon-12.

Answer

Answer: 12 g

True/False.

Question 19.
An atom is the smallest particle of the element that cannot usually exist independently and
retains all its chemical properties.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
The Law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in
a chemical reaction.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
The mass of 1 mole of a substance is equal to its relative atomic or molecular mass in
grams.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
16u oxygen has 16 atoms of oxygen.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
The atomic mass of calcium is 40.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
Aluminium is diatomic.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 25.

A B
1. 1 mole of carbon
(i) 1 g of H atoms
atoms
(ii) Molecular mass in
2. 1 mole of molecules
gram
3. 1 mole of hydrogen (iii) Relative mass of
atoms those particles in gram
4. 1 mole of any particle (iv) 12-gram carbon
(atoms, molecules, atoms
ions)
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. 1 mole of carbon (iv) 12-gram carbon
atoms atoms
(ii) Molecular mass in
2. 1 mole of molecules
gram
3. 1 mole of hydrogen
(i) 1 g of H atoms
atoms
4. 1 mole of any particle
(iii) Relative mass of
(atoms, molecules,
those particles in gram
ions)

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 26.
What is the value of the Avogadro number?

Answer

Answer: 6.022 × 1023

Question 27.
How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 1g of hydrogen?

Answer

Answer: 6.022 × 1023

Question 28.
What name is given to a group of atoms carrying a charge?

Answer

Answer: Polyatomic ions

Question 29.
What term is given to the mass of one-mole atoms of a substance?

Answer
Answer: Molar mass

Question 30.
Write the chemical formula of calcium hydroxide.

Answer

Answer: Ca(OH)2

Question 31.
Write the chemical formula of sulphuric acid?

Answer

Answer: H2SO4
 Work andEnergy

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Answer

Answer: (c) remains constant

Question 2.
In case of negative work, the angle between the force and displacement is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer

Answer: (d) 180°

Question 3.
Water stored in a dam possesses:
(a) no energy
(b) electrical energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) potential energy

Answer

Answer: (d) potential energy

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not the unit of energy?
(a) Joule
(b) Newton meter
(c) Kilowatt
(d) Kilowatt hour

Answer

Answer: (c) Kilowatt

Question 5.
A body is falling from a height h, After it has fallen a height , it will possess:
h

(a) only potential energy

(b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy

Answer

Answer: (c) half potential and half kinetic energy

Question 6.
The capacity of a body to perform work is called:
(a) Energy
(b) Work
(c) Power
(d) Heat

Answer

Answer: (a) Energy

Question 7.
The rate of work done is called:
(a) Energy
(b) Power
(c) Capacity
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Power

Question 8.
The capacity to perform work is obtained from :
(a) Food
(b) Energy
(c) Power
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Energy

Question 9.
An object of mass, m moving with velocity v has a kinetic energy of:
(a) mv
1

2
2

(b) mgh
(c)2m

2
v

(d) 2mv2

Answer

Answer: (a) 1

2
2
mv

Question 10.
The gravitational potential energy of an object of mass, m raised through a height, h from the
earth’s surface is given by:
(a) mv2
1

(b) mgh
(c) mgh
1

(d) 2mgh

Answer

Answer: (b) mgh

Question 11.
If the displacement of the object is zero then the work done on an object by a force would be:
(a) 1 Joule
(b) 0.1 Joule
(c) 3.6 × 106 Joule
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (d) zero

Question 12.
What is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion?
(a) Potential energy
(b) Electrical energy
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Kinetic energy

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 13.
1 kJ equals ______

Answer

Answer: 1000 J

Question 14.
_______ formulated a law for the heating effect of electric current.

Answer
Answer: James Prescott Joule

Question 15.
The kinetic energy of an object ______ with its speed.

Answer

Answer: increases

Question 16.
An object in motion possesses what is known as the ________ of the object.

Answer

Answer: kinetic energy

Question 17.
The S.I. unit of power is ________

Answer

Answer: Watt

Question 18.
The energy total of every system always remains _________

Answer

Answer: constant

Question 19.
The energy stored in the water-filled in the dam is _________

Answer

Answer: potential energy

Question 20.
The S.I. unit of kinetic energy is ________

Answer

Answer: Joule
Question 21.
The S.I. unit of work is ________

Answer

Answer: Joule

Question 22.
The rate of work done is called _______

Answer

True/False.

Question 23.
The energy used in one hour at the rate of 1 kW is called 1 kWh.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
James Prescott Joule is best known for his research in electricity and thermodynamics.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Any object that does not possess energy can do work.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 26.
The unit of energy is, the same as that of work.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Work = Force × Displacement along the direction of the force.
 Answer

Answer: True

Question 28.
The formula of kinetic energy is EK = mgh.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 29.
Work is a vector quantity.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 30.
The unit of energy in the C.G.S. system is erg.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 31.
The palm gets warmed while rubbing due to performing work.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 32.
Work has only magnitude and no direction.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 33.

A B
1. 1 Joule (i) Scalar quantity
2. Work (ii) 746 Watt
(iii) Force ×
3. Power
Displacement
4. 1
(iv) 1 Newton × 1 meter
horsepower
5. Energy (v) Work/Time
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. 1 Joule (iv) 1 Newton × 1 meter
(iii) Force ×
2. Work
Displacement
3. Power (v) Work/Time
4. 1
(ii) 746 Watt
horsepower
5. Energy (i) Scalar quantity

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 34.
Is work done or energy a scalar or a vector quantity?

Answer

Answer: Scalar

Question 35.
Is power is a scalar or a vector quantity?

Answer

Answer: Scalar

Question 36.
Who verified experimentally the law of conservation of energy and discovered the value of the
mechanical equivalent of heat?

Answer

Answer: James Prescott Joule

Question 37.
Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Answer

Answer: Kinetic energy, EK = 1

2
mv2

Question 38.
What is called the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of an object?

Answer

Answer: Mechanical energy

Question 39.
Write the S.I. unit of power.

Answer

Answer: Watt

Question 40.
What is defined as the capacity of doing work?

Answer

Answer: Energy
 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 1.
What is the boiling point of acetone?
(a) 196°C
(b) 186°C
(c) 78.3°C
(d) 183°C

Answer

Answer: (c) 78.3°C

Question 2.
Who was the first scientist to use the term ‘element’ in 1661?
(a) Robert Boyle
(b) Charles
(c) Antonnie Lorent
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Robert Boyle

Question 3.
Boron, silicon, germanium, etc., are:
(a) Metals
(b) Non-metals
(c) Metalloids
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Metalloids

Question 4.
The major component of a solution is called:
(a) solute
(b) insoluble
(c) solvent
(d) solution

Answer

Answer: (c) solvent

Question 5.
Which of the following will show the “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk and starch solution
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Milk and starch solution

Question 6.
The size of colloidal particles are:
(a) 10-4 – 10-8 m
(b) 10-10 – 10-12 m
(c) 10-2 – 10-4 m
(d) 10-10 – 10-8 m

Answer

Answer: (d) 10-10 – 10-8 m

Question 7.
Which of the following are physical changes?
(i) Melting of iron metal
(ii) Rusting of iron
(iii) Bending of an iron rod
(iv) Drawing a wire of iron metal
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 8.
Which of the following are chemical changes?
(i) Decaying of wood
(ii) Burning of wood
(iii) Sawing of wood
(iv) Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
 Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

Question 9.
Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?
(i) Ice
(ii) Wood
(iii) Soil
(iv) Air
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (i) and (iv)

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 10.
Pure substances can be elements or _________

Answer

Answer: compounds

Question 11.
Metals are good __________ of heat and electricity.

Answer

Answer: conductor

Question 12.
To separate a mixture of two or more miscible liquids for which the difference in boiling
points is less than ________ fractional distillation method is used.

Answer

Answer: 25K

Question 13.
The diameter of suspension particles is bigger than ___________

Answer
Answer: 10-5 m

Question 14.
_________ effect originates due to optical properties of a colloidal solution.

Answer

Answer: Tyndall

True/False.

Question 15.
The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit
mass of the solution/solvent.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 16.
Colloids are homogeneous mixtures.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 17.
The solution is a homogeneous mixture.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 18.
The characteristic features of a particular substance obtained from different sources will be
different.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 19.
A mixture has a fixed melting point.

Answer

Answer: False
Question 20.
The particles of a suspension can not be filtered out by using filter paper.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 21.

A B
1. Aerosol (i) Shaving cream
(ii) Coloured gemstone,
2. Foam
milky glass
(iii) Milk of magnesia,
3. Emulsion
mud
4. Sol (iv) Milk, face cream
5. Gel (v) Fog, clouds, mist
6. Solid sol (vi) Jelly, cheese, butter
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Aerosol (v) Fog, clouds, mist
2. Foam (i) Shaving cream
3. Emulsion (iv) Milk, face cream
(iii) Milk of magnesia,
4. Sol
mud
5. Gel (vi) Jelly, cheese, butter
(ii) Coloured gemstone,
6. Solid sol
milky glass

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 22.
What is known as ‘tincture iodine’?

Answer

Answer: Solution of iodine and alcohol

Question 23.
Which technique is used to separate two immiscible liquids?

Answer

Answer: By the use of separating funnel

Question 24.
What is a substance composed of two or more elements, chemically combined with one
another in a fixed proportion known as?

Answer

Answer: Compound

Question 25.
Name a metallic element found in a liquid state at room temperature.

Answer

Answer: Mercury

Question 26.
How would you separate common salt and iodine from their mixture?

Answer

Answer: By sublimation
 Matter in Our Surroundings

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The mass per unit volume of a substance is:
(a) acceleration
(b) density
(c) velocity
(d) weight

Answer

Answer: (b) density

Question 2.
The melting point of ice is:
(a) 273.16 K
(b) 723.16 K
(c) 263.16 K
(d) 373 K

Answer

Answer: (a) 273.16 K

Question 3.
What is dry ice?
(a) Solid carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Carbon mono oxide
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Solid carbon dioxide

Question 4.
Which of the following state is responsible for the glow in the sun and stars?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Plasma
(d) Gas

Answer

Answer: (c) Plasma

Question 5.
Which of the following phenomenon takes place when we add a drop of Dettol into the
water?
(a) osmosis
(b) diffusion
(c) sublimation
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) diffusion

Question 6.
During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon
of:
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (d) evaporation

Question 7.
Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of the water
(b) Decrease in temperature of the water
(c) Less exposed surface area of water
(d) Adding common salt to the water

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in temperature of the water

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 8.
Early Indian philosophers classified matter into _______ basic forms or elements.

Answer

Answer: five

Question 9.
The common unit of measuring volume is ________

Answer
Answer: litre

Question 10.
With increase in temperature the kinetic energy of the particles _________

Answer

Answer: increases

Question 11.
The rate of diffusion of liquids is _______ than that of solids.

Answer

Answer: higher

Question 12.
To change a temperature on the Kelvin scale to the Celsius scale you have to subtract
________ from the given temperature.

Answer

Answer: 273

Question 13.
______ is the amount of water vapour present in the air.

Answer

Answer: Humidity

True/False.

Question 14.
Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 15.
Liquids have fixed volume and shape.

Answer

Answer: False
Question 16.
Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 17.
The state of matter cannot be changed by changing temperature or pressure.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 18.
The states of matter are inter-convertible.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 19.
In solids, the space between the particles is maximum.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 20.

A B
1. Unit of
(i) Kilogram (kg)
temperature
(ii) Kilogram per
2. S.I. unit of mass
cubic metre
3. S.I. unit of
(iii) Newton
pressure
4. Unit of weight (iv) Kelvin
5. Unit of density (v) Pascal
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Unit of (iv) Kelvin
temperature
2. S.I. unit of mass (i) Kilogram (kg)
3. S.I. unit of
(v) Pascal
pressure
4. Unit of weight (iii) Newton
(ii) Kilogram per
5. Unit of density
cubic metre

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 21.
What is that process known as in which a solid is converted directly into the gaseous state
without coming to a liquid state?

Answer

Answer: Sublimation

Question 22.
How many states of matter exist normally in nature?

Answer

Answer: Three states

Question 23.
What is that temperature called at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric
pressure?

Answer

Answer: Melting point

Question 24.
What is the state of matter which has maximum compressibility?

Answer

Answer: Gaseous state

 Why do we Fall Ill

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a viral disease?
(a) Dengue
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Influenza

Answer

Answer: (c) Typhoid

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Influenza

Answer

Answer: (d) Influenza

Question 3.
Which one of the following causes Kala-azar?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania
(d) Bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) Leishmania

Question 4.
AIDS cannot be transmitted by:
(a) sexual contact
(b) hugs
(c) breastfeeding
(d) blood transfusion

Answer

Answer: (b) hugs

Question 5.
Which one of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Anthrax
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Malaria

Question 6.
Viruses, which causes hepatitis are transmitted through:
(a) air
(b) water
(c) food
(d) personal contact

Answer

Answer: (b) water

Question 7.
The name of bacterial disease is
(a) Ringworm
(b) Measles
(c) Typhoid
(d) Malaria

Answer

Answer: (c) Typhoid

Question 8.
T.B. (Tuberculosis) is caused by:
(a) Vibrio Cholerae
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) HIV virus
(d) Salmonella typhi (bacteria)

Answer

Answer: (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 9.
Common cold is a/an _______ disease.
 Answer

Answer: communicable infections

Question 10.
Many skin diseases are caused by ________

Answer

Answer: fungi

Question 11.
Typhoid fever, cholera, tuberculosis and anthrax are caused by _________

Answer

Answer: bacteria

Question 12.
__________ cause many familiar diseases, such as malaria and Kala-azar.

Answer

Answer: Protozoans

Question 13.
Elephantiasis is caused by a _________

Answer

Answer: worm

Question 14.
Cholera is a __________ disease.

Answer

Answer: communicable

Question 15.
Malaria is caused by a _________

Answer

Answer: protozoan
Question 16.
An example of chronic diseases is worm infestation named ________

Answer

Answer: elephantiasis

True/False.

Question 17.
The health of all individuals depends on their surroundings or their environment.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 18.
Common examples of diseases caused by viruses are the common cold, influenza, dengue
fever, and AIDS.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 19.
All diseases can be transmitted from a sick person to healthy people.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 20.
Making anti-viral medicines is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Malaria is a communicable disease.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
Health is a state of physical, mental, and social well-being.
 Answer

Answer: True

Question 23.
Infectious diseases can not be prevented by using immunisation.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Column.

Question 24.

A B
1. Mosquito (i) Acne
2. Leishmania (ii) Cowpox
(iii) Peptic
3. Staphylococci
ulcers
4. Marshall and
(iv) Vector
Warren
5. Edward
(v) Kala-azar
Jenner
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Mosquito (iv) Vector
2. Leishmania (v) Kala-azar
3. Staphylococci (i) Acne
4. Marshall and (iii) Peptic
Warren ulcers
5. Edward
(ii) Cowpox
Jenner

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 25.
Write the full form of AIDS?

Answer

Answer: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Question 26.
Name the vaccine used to prevent T. B. (Tuberculosis).

Answer

Answer: B.C.G. Vaccination

Question 27.
Who received Nobel Prize in 2005 for their contribution related to the cause of peptic
ulcers?

Answer

Answer: Marshall and Warren

Question 28.
What type of organism Helicobacter pylori is that causes peptic ulcers?

Answer

Answer: A bacterium

Question 29.
Name the target organ in hepatitis?

Answer

Answer: Liver

Question 30.
Name the target organ in pneumonia?

Answer

Answer: Lungs

Question 31.
Name the most common target organ in fungal disease?

Answer

Answer: Skin

Question 32.
Who discovered ‘vaccine’?

Answer
Answer: Edward Jenner
 Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who gave the equations of motion for the first time?
(a) Bernhard Nobel
(b) Issac Newton
(c) C. V. Raman
(d) Einstein

Answer

Answer: (b) Issac Newton

Question 2.
The displacement of the object in a unit time is called:
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) average speed

Answer

Answer: (b) velocity

(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) average speed

Answer

Answer: (b) velocity

Question 3.
The rate of change of velocity per second is known as:
(a) acceleration
(b) speed
(c) average velocity
(d) linear motion

Answer

Answer: (a) acceleration

Question 4.
If the velocity of an object changes from an initial value u to the final value v in time t, the
acceleration a will be:
(a) a =v−u

(b) a =
v+u

(c) a = t

v−u

(d) a = t

v+u

Answer

Answer: (a) a = v−u

Question 5.
What is the unit of acceleration?
(a) m/s
(b) m/s2
(c) ms
(d) m/s3

Answer

Answer: (b) m/s2

Question 6.
The unit of speed and velocity both is:
(a) ms-1
(b) ms-2
(c) ms2
(d) ms

Answer

Answer: (a) ms-1

Question 7.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
(a) zero
(b) πr
(c) 2r
(d) 2πr

Answer

Answer: (c) 2r

Question 8.
A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is:
(a) u/g
(b) u2/2g
(c) u2/g
(d) u/2g

Answer

Answer: (b) u2/2g

Question 9.
The slope of a velocity-time graph gives:
(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

Answer

Answer: (c) the acceleration

Question 10.
If the displacement of an object is proportional to the square of time, then the object moves with:
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer

Answer: (b) uniform acceleration

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
Newton’s ________ law is based on the concept of inertia.

Answer

Answer: first

Question 12.
Negative acceleration is known as __________

Answer

Answer: retardation

Question 13.
If the path of a moving object is a straight line then, such a motion is known as a _________

Answer

Answer: linear motion

Question 14.
_______ and ______ laid down the scientific foundation of concept of motion.

Answer

Answer: Galileo, Newton

Question 15.
Velocity is _______ quantity.

Answer

Answer: vector
Question 16.
During the uniform motion of an object along a straight line, the velocity remains _______ with
time.

Answer

Answer: constant

Question 17.
The initial velocity of an object moving from the position of rest is _________

Answer

Answer: zero

Question 18.
The displacement of the object in a unit time is called __________

Answer

Answer: velocity

True/False.

Question 19.
Acceleration is a measure of the change in the velocity of an object per unit of time.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
The acceleration of an object is indirectly proportional to the net applied force.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 21.
Motion is a change of position, it can be described in terms of the distance moved or the
displacement.

Answer

Answer: True
Question 22.
The simplest type of motion is the motion along a straight line.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 23.
Automobiles are fitted with a device that shows the distance travelled. Such a device is known as an
odometer.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 24.

A B
1. C.G.S. unit of
(i) Distance
acceleration
2. Motion of a
pendulum (ii) cm/s2
(iii) Simple
3. Scalar quantity
harmonic motion
4. Momentum (iv) Velocity/time
5. Acceleration (v) Vector quantity
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. C.G.S. unit of
acceleration (ii) cm/s2
2. Motion of a (iii) Simple
pendulum harmonic motion
3. Scalar quantity (i) Distance
4. Momentum (v) Vector quantity
5. Acceleration (iv) Velocity/time

Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 25.
Write the unit of momentum.
 Answer

Answer: kg m/s or kg ms-1

Question 26.
Give one example of simple harmonic motion.

Answer

Answer: Motion of the pendulum of a clock

Question 27.
A body is moving with constant velocity, then what will be the acceleration of that body?

Answer

Answer: zero (0)

Question 28.
What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Answer

Answer: The distance travelled

Question 29.
The motion of an athlete moving along a circular path, is an example of what type of motion?

Answer

Answer: An accelerated motion

 Structure of theAtom

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
In 1906, J.J. Thomson was awarded the Nobel prize for his discovery of:
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Positron

Answer

Answer: (a) Electron

Question 2.
Who discovered the nucleus of an atom?
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Neils Bohr
(c) Rutherford
(d) J. Chadwick

Answer

Answer: (c) Rutherford

Question 3.
Who is known as the ‘Father of nuclear Physics’?
(a) J. J. Thomson
(b) E. Rutherford
(c) Neils Bohr
(d) J. Chadwick

Answer

Answer: (b) E. Rutherford

Question 4.
An atomic number of an element equals to what present in the nucleus of its atom?
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) Protons

Question 5.
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:
(a) Atomic nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Answer

Answer: (a) Atomic nucleus

Question 6.
Isotopes of an element have:
(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers

Answer

Answer: (c) different number of neutrons

Question 7.
Number of valence electrons in CP ion are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Answer

Answer: (b) 8

Question 8.
Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?
(a) 2, 8
(b) 8, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 8
(d) 2, 8, 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 2, 8, 1

Question 9.
Who used the term ‘ATOM’ for the first time?
(a) Rutherford
(b) John Dalton
(c) Chadwick
(d) Bohr

Answer

Answer: (b) John Dalton

Question 10.
Which of the following are called nucleon?
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Both, Protons and Neutrons

Answer

Answer: (d) Both, Protons and Neutrons

Question 11.
Which of the following particles was discovered first?
(a) Neutron
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Meson

Answer

Answer: (b) Electron

Question 12.
Which of the following atom does not have the neutron?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium

Answer

Question 13.
Who gave the name ‘Proton’ the positively charged particles of an atom?
(a) Chadwick
(b) Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) John Dalton

Answer

Answer: (c) Rutherford

Question 14.
The maximum number of electrons in any shell of an atom is:
(a) n2
(b) 2n2
(c) (n – 1)2
(d) 3n2

Answer
Answer: (b) 2n2

Question 15.
Which of the following rays have the maximum penetration power?
(a) α-rays
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) Cathod rays

Answer

Answer: (c) γ-rays

Question 16.
Who gave the first model of the atom?
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Chadwick
(c) Goldstein
(d) Neils Bohr

Answer

Answer: (a) J.J. Thomson

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 17.
______ are atoms of the same element, which have different mass numbers.

Answer

Answer: Isotopes

Question 18.
_______ are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

Answer

Answer: Isobars

Question 19.
Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except ________

Answer
Answer: hydrogen

Question 20.
α-particles are doubly-charged _________ ions.

Answer

Answer: helium

Question 21.
Neutron was discovered by _______

Answer

Answer: Chadwick

Question 22.
The neutral particle in the nucleus of an atom is ________

Answer

Answer: neutron

Question 23.
Atomic number of sodium is _________

Answer

Answer: 11

Question 24.
The mass of an electron is about _________ times, the mass of a hydrogen atom.

Answer

Answer: 1

2000

True/False.

Question 25.
Sir J.J. Thomson discovered the anode rays.

Answer
Answer: False

Question 26.
According to Rutherford, the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in its center.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 28.
Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 29.
α-particles have a mass of 2u.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 30.
The mass of electrons is considered to be negligible and its charge is plus one.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 31.
According to Thomson, an atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are
embedded in it.

Answer

Answer: True
Question 32.
The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically
neutral.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 33.

A B
1. Discovery of Proton (i) Deuterium
2. Hydrogen (ii) 4
3. Valency of Magnesium (iii) Positive charge
4. Valency of Carbon (iv) He
5. Symbol of Helium (v) H
6. Symbol of Hydrogen (vi) 2
7. Electron (vii) E. Goldstein
8. Proton (viii) Negative charge
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Discovery of Proton (vii) E. Goldstein
2. Hydrogen (i) Deuterium
3. Valency of Magnesium (vi) 2
4. Valency of Carbon (ii) 4
5. Symbol of Helium (iv) He
6. Symbol of Hydrogen (v) H
7. Electron (viii) Negative charge
8. Proton (iii) Positive charge

Answer in Word/Sentence.

Question 34.
What is the value of charge on a proton?

Answer

Answer: 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb positive charge

Question 35.
What is the value of charge on an electron?

Answer

Answer: 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb negative charge

Question 36.
What is the value of charge on a neutron?

Answer

Answer: Zero (0) or no charge

Question 37.
According to Neils Bohr, electrons can revolve only in certain orbits. What name was given by him
to these certain orbits?

Answer

Answer: Discrete orbits of electrons

Question 38.
According to Bohr-Burry rules, which formula is used to express the maximum number of electrons
in an orbit of an atom?

Answer

Answer: 2n2

Question 39.
What is the maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell, according to Bohr-Burry?

Answer

Answer: 8
 Improvement in Food Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How much increase in cultivable land occurred in India from 1952 to 2010?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%

Question 2.
How many nutrients are essential for plants?
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 26
(d) 36

Answer

Answer: (a) 16

Question 3.
Which one of the following species of the honey bee is an Italian species?
(a) Apis cerana indica
(b) Apis dorsata
(c) Apis florae
(d) Apis mellifera

Answer

Answer: (d) Apis mellifera

Question 4.
How many micronutrients are required by plants?
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 12

Answer
Answer: (c) 7

Question 5.
Which of the following are Indian cattle?
(i) Bos indicus
(ii) Bos domestica
(iii) Bos bubalis
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

Question 6.
The hybrid breed of buffalo yielding maximum milk is:
(a) Jamunapari
(b) Murrah
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Barbary

Answer

Answer: (b) Murrah

Question 7.
This breed of cow gives more milk:
(a) Bhadawari
(b) Jaffrabadi
(c) Murrah
(d) Sahiwal

Answer

Answer: (d) Sahiwal

Question 8.
This hybrid breed of the hen has the world record of laying maximum eggs:
(a) White leghorn
(b) Minorca
(c) Karaknath
(d) Vasra

Answer

Answer: (a) White leghorn

Question 9.
Which goat is known as the queen of milk?
(a) Barbary
(b) Jamunapari
(c) Sannen
(d) Bikaneri

Answer

Answer: (c) Sannen

Question 10.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in common fertilizers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
Berseem is an important _______ crop.

Answer

Answer: fodder

Question 12.
Blue revolution is concerned with the increase of ________ production.

Answer

Answer: fish

Question 13.
_______ wool is obtained from the Kashmiri goat.

Answer

Answer: Pashmina

Question 14.
_______ are commercially produced plant nutrients.
 Answer

Answer: Fertilizers

Question 15.
Continuous use of fertilizers in an area can _______ soil fertility.

Answer

Answer: reduce

Question 16.
One way of incorporating desirable characters into crop varieties is by ________

Answer

Answer: hybridisation

Question 17.
The ________ crops are grown in the rainy season from the month of June to October.

Answer

Answer: Kharif

Question 18.
Some of the crops are grown in the winter season, from November to April are known as
_______ crops.

Answer

Answer: Rabi

True/False.

Question 19.
Catla fish is a fast-growing fish.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Berseem, oats, or sudangrass are raised as food for the livestock.

Answer

Answer: True
Question 21.
Paddy, soybean, pigeon pea, maize, green gram, and black gram are rabi crops.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 22.
Wheat, gram, peas, mustard, linseed are Kharif crops.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Nutrients are obtained by the plants from air, water, and soil.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 24.
The bulk of organic matter in manure helps in improving the soil structure.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
The compost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 26.
The level of vitamins A and K is kept high in the poultry feeds.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 27.
An Italian bee variety, (Apis mellifera) has also been brought in to increase the yield of
honey.

Answer
Answer: True

Match the Column.

Question 28.

A B
1. Leaf of Neem and
(i) 16
Turmeric
(ii) Xanthium,
2. Fertilizer
Parthenium, motha
(iii) Honey
3. Weeds
production
4. Total crop
(iv) N, P, K element
nutrient element
5. Apis cerana
(v) Biopesticides
indica
6. Karaknath (vi) Poultry breed
Answer

Answer:

A B
1. Leaf of Neem and
(v) Biopesticides
Turmeric
2. Fertilizer (iv) N, P, K element
(ii) Xanthium,
3. Weeds
Parthenium, motha
4. Total crop
(i) 16
nutrient element
5. Apis cerana (iii) Honey
indica production
6. Karaknath (vi) Poultry breed

Answer in one word/Sentence.

Question 29.
What name is given to the method of growing two or more crops in definite row patterns?

Answer

Answer: Inter-cropping
Question 30.
What term is given to the growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned
succession?

Answer

Answer: Crop rotation

Question 31.
What is the scientific management of animal livestock called?

Answer

Answer: Animal husbandry

Question 32.
What is the famous breed of sheep that gives the finest wool?

Answer

Answer: Marino breed of sheep

Question 33.
By what name is the high growth in the production of milk known as?

Answer

Answer: White revolution

Question 34.
Amount of which vitamins are kept high in the poultry feeds?

Answer

Answer: Vitamin A and vitamin K

Question 35.
What the offsprings produced by hybridization are called?

Answer

Answer: Hybrids