Rahul’s

a blue print of success

Himachal Pradesh
Mock Test-V

Total Questions: 150

1. Which of the following modes of settlement of disputes are provided under S. 89 of the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(i) Arbitration – Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(ii) Conciliation - Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(iii) Lok Adalat – Court shall effect a compromise by the procedure as may be
prescribed
(iv) Mediation - Legal Services Authority Act, 1987
(v) Judicial Settlemet - Legal Services Authtority Act, 1987
(a) Only (i),(ii),(iii)(iv)
(b) Only (i),(ii),(iv),(v)
(c) Only (i),(ii),(iv)
(d) All of the above
2. Which Court shall hear appeal from order?
(a) To The court to which appeal would lie from the decree passed the such suit
(b) To High Court when the order is made by a court in the exercise of appellate
jurisdiction
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (a)
3. Whether an appeal will lie from the decree passed by the Court under S. 144 CPC?
(a) High Court cannot exercise power of revision in an appealable case.
(b) Power of review cannot be exercised by a court when an appeal lies from the
decree passed by such court
(c) The proceedings of revision before High Court will per se stay the proceedings
before subordinate Court

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 (d) The proceedings of reference before High Court will per se stay the proceedings
before subordinate Court
4. Whether the doctrine of res judicata will apply upon a decree passed as per S. 144
CPC?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Subject to discretion of court
(d) Subject to discretion of parties
5. When the deficient court fee is paid by the plaintiff, it shall have effect:
(a) From the date of payment of fees
(b) As if it was paid in the first instance
(c) Either of the above
(d) Neither of the above
6. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Summons may be served on agent by whom defendant carries on business
(b) Summons may be served on agent of defendant in charge of immovable property in
suits for such property
(c) Service of summons shall be made on each defendant when there are more than
one defendants
(d) Service of summons may be made on an adult male member of the defendant‟s
family
7. Which of the following provides for hearing of suit ex-parte under CPC?
(a) O IX R 6 (a)
(b) O IX R 6 (b)
(c) O IX R 6 (c)
(d) Any of the above
8. Which of the following matters may be stated in the affidavit by the deponent?
(a) Deponent is able to prove it of his own knowledge
(b) Statements which he believe to be true
(c) Statements which he believe to be true in interlocutory applications
(d) Both (a) and (c)

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9. The defendant shall enter appearance in a summary suit within how many days from
the service of summons on him?
(a) Within 7 days
(b) Within 10 days
(c) Within 15 days
(d) None of the above
10. The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute
Resolution process and Section 89 of the CPC in the case of:
(a) Dinesh Kumar vs. Yusuf Ali
(b) Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. vs. Cherian Varkey Constructio Co.
(c) Bimlesh vs. New Delhi assurance Co.
(d) Standard Chartered Bank vs. Noble Kumar
11. Which of the following is a suit of civil nature?
(a) Bhuri Nath vs. State of J&K
(b) Indian Young Lawyers Association & Ors. Vs. State of Kerala
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
12. The High Court and District Court have a general power to transfer or withdraw suits:
(a) Before framing of issues
(b) Till the examination chief is concluded
(c) Till the trial is concluded
(d) At any stage
13. When an order for amendment of pleadings is passed under O VI R 17 CPC without
specifying the time limit for the same then the pleadings shall be amended within:
(a) Seven days
(b) Ten days
(c) Fourteen days
(d) Twenty one days
14. Who among the following is exempted from arrest under civil process as per S. 135
CPC?
(a) Judge or Magistrate while going or returning from his court
(b) Member of either House of Parliament
(c) Member of the Legislative Assembly of State

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 (d) Both (b) and (c)
15. “Guardian ad litem” used under CPC means:
(a) A local commissioner
(b) A court
(c) A person defending suit on behalf of an insane person
(d) A person defending suit on behalf of a minor
16. Where a compromise was arrived between parties to a suit by playing fraud,
misrepresentation or mistake and a decree was passed with the consent of the parties,
then the affected party may select which one of the following alternatives for setting
aside such decree, namely the recourse
(a) Through appeal
(b) Through revision
(c) Through review
(d) Through second suit
17. Assertion (A) : Mere filing of appeal would not operate as stay of decree.
Reason (R) : Appellate Court has power to take additional evidence and remand the
case if the facts of case require.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
18. Assertion (A) : The serving of notice as per Section 80 CPC in the suit against
government is mandatory.
Reason (R):If the suit is instituted without serving notice then the court may direct
party to comply with Section 80 before proceeding further with the suit.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
19. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Test identification parade is relevant under S. 11 IEA.
(b) Test identification parade is a substantive piece of evidence

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 (c) The Court may draw adverse inference if the accused refuses to participate in the
Test identification parade
(d) All of the above
20. „A‟ is tried for the murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead.
(a) The fact that A, on the other occasions shot at B is relevant.
(b) The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them is
relevant
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (a)
21. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Statement relating to facts already discovered are not relevant under S. 27 IEA.
(b) Section S. 27 IEA makes the admission of the accused relevant as a whole.
(c) The object shall be discovered from a place of hiding to be relevant under S. 27
IEA.
(d) Section 27 is an exception to Section 25 and 26 IEA.
22. In case of a conflict between the medical evidence i.e. opinion of doctor and direct
evidence of eye-witness, which of the following shall be preferred?
(a) Medical evidence as it has its base in the scientific methods adopted by the doctor
(b) Direct testimony of the eye witness
(c) Either of the above
(d) Neither of the above
23. The contents of a document may be proved by:
(a) Primary evidence
(b) Secondary evidence
(c) Either of the above
(d) Only primary evidence as per S. 64 IEA
24. Which of the following section raises a presumption of fact with respect to foreign
judgments?
(a) Section 79
(b) Section 80
(c) Section 86
(d) Section 89

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25. Which of the following provision provides for burden of proof as to a particular fact?
(a) Section 101
(b) Section 103
(c) Section 106
(d) Any of the above
26. Under Section 114A presumption is raised with respect to:
(a) Presumption as to suicide
(b) Absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape
(c) Existence of consent in certain prosecution for rape
(d) Both (b) and (c)
27. Who has the power to decide the admissibility of evidence?
(a) Judge presiding over the case
(b) The authority empowered under the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Judge with the consent of the advocates of both parties
(d) All of the above
28. Which of the following provision provides for the examination of a hostile witness?
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 155
(c) Section 156
(d) None of the above
29. Consider the following statements:
(i) Court shall forbid any questions or inquiries which it regards as indecent or
scandalous
(ii) Court shall forbid any question which appears to it to be intended to insult or
annoy
(iii) Court may allow indecent or scandalous questions if they relate to facts in issue,
or to matters necessary to be known in order to determine whether or not the facts
in issue existed.
(iv) Court may forbid any questions which though proper in itself, appears to it to be
needlessly offensive in form.
(a) Only (i) is incorrect and (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(b) Only (iii), (iv) are incorrect and (i), (ii) are correct
(c) Only (i), (iv) are incorrect and (ii), (iii) are correct

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 (d) All of the above are correct
30. Section 53A which provides that evidence of character or previous sexual experience
of victim is not relevant in certain cases, was inserted by:
(a) Amendment Act of 1983
(b) Amendment Act of 1986
(c) Amendment Act of 2013
(d) Amendment Act of 2018
31. Which of the following Chapter under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for the
examination of witnesses?
(a) Chapter IX
(b) Chapter X
(c) Chapter XI
(d) Chapter XII
32. A witness wants to refresh his memory in regard to certain document as per Section
159 but he has no specific recollection of the facts themselves. Then :
(a) He may not testify by refreshing memory as he has no recollection of facts
(b) He may testify after taking permission from the court
(c) He may testify if he is sure that the facts were correctly recorded in the document
(d) He may testify with the consent of the opposite party
33. Whose opinion is relevant under S. 47A?
(a) Electronic expert
(b) Certifying Authority who issued the certificate
(c) Specially skilled person
(d) Any of the above
34. Assertion (A) : the court must not give undue importance to omissions and
discrepancies which do not shake the foundation of prosecution‟s case.
Reason (R): As a general rule the evidence examined as a whole, must reflect the truth.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

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35. Assertion (A) : The documentary evidences shall be proved by production of primary
documentary evidence.
Reason (R): The best evidence rule requires to produce the most authentic record of the
facts to secure a just decision.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
36. Where a party is unable to perform his part of a contract of small portion which admits
of compensation in money, the court may:
(a) Direct specific performance of a part of contract at the suit of either party and
award compensation in money for the deficiency
(b) Direct specific performance of a part of contract at the suit of party not in default
and award compensation in money for the deficiency
(c) Direct specific performance of a part of contract at the suit of either party or award
compensation in money for the deficiency
(d) Not direct specific performance in such cases
37. Which of the following provision under Specific Relief Act, 1963 is analogous to S. 43
TPA?
(a) Section 13(a)
(b) Section 13(b)
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 18
38. As per S. 15 SRA, the contract may be enforced specifically for how many categories
of persons?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
39. Which of the following order may be passed by Court under Section 30 SRA while
adjudging rescission of contract?
(a) Court may require the defendant to pay compensation to the party in whose favour
the relief of rescission is granted.

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 (b) Court may require the party to whom relief is granted to restore any benefit derived
from the other party and compensation which justice may require
(c) Either of the above
(d) Neither of the above
40. Specific relief may be granted to enforce:
(a) Individual civil rights
(b) Penal laws
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
41. Under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the defendant may plead his defence
under:
(a) Law of Contracts
(b) Code of Civil Procedure
(c) Transfer of Property Act
(d) All of the above
42. Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 sanctions:
(a) Every type of declaration
(b) Only a declaration of legal character
(c) Only a declaration of right to property
(d) A declaration of legal character or right to property
43. When several instruments are used in single transaction of sale or mortgage,
instruments other than the principal instrument shall be chargeable with:
(a) One rupees
(b) Two rupees
(c) As prescribed under Schedule I-A
(d) None of the above
44. When an instrument which has already be charged with Stamp Duty in India has
become chargeable with a higher stamp duty thereafter in Himachal Pradesh as per
Schedule I-A:
(a) The stamp duty shall be paid again as per Schedule I-A
(b) The instrument shall be chargeable with the amount chargeable on it under
Schedule- I-A less the amount of duty, if any already paid on it in India
(c) No duty is required to paid as it has already been stamped in India

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 (d) None of the above
45. Endorsement by Collector under S. 32 of the Stamp Act shall not be made by Collector
on any instrument chargeable with duty under clause (bb) of the first proviso to section
3 as amended by the Indian Stamp (Himachal Pradesh Amendment) Act, 1952
brought to him after the expiration of :
(a) three months from the date on which it is first received in Himachal Pradesh
(b) two months from the date on which it is first received in Himachal Pradesh
(c) two months from the date on which it is first received in India
(d) none of the above
46. Which of the following provisions are inserted in the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 by
Indian Stamp (Himachal Pradesh Amendment) Act, 1952?
(a) Section 6A
(b) Section 19A
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (b)
47. What is the jurisdiction of District judge in civil cases as per the Himachal Pradesh
Courts Act?
(a) value of which does not exceed thirty lakh rupees
(b) value of which exceed thirty lakh rupees
(c) value of which does not exceed three lakh rupees
(d) value of which exceed three lakh rupees
48. Power to make rules under Section 29 for the purpose of Himachal Pradesh Courts
Act, 1976 shall vest in:
(a) State Govt.
(b) Governor
(c) High Court
(d) Both (a) and (c)
49. Under Section 14 of the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, who is empowered to
distribute the civil business?
(a) District judge
(b) Civil judge
(c) High court
(d) State government

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50. The Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976 received on the 26th May, 1976 the assent of
the:
(a) President
(b) Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) All of the above
51. A proposal when accepted becomes:
(a) An agreement
(b) A promise
(c) A contract
(d) Any of the above
52. Which of the following conditions shall be satisfied for an agreement to become a
contract?
(i) Free consent of parties
(ii) Parties shall be competent to contract
(iii) Lawful object
(iv) Lawful consideration
(v) Not expressly declared to be a void contract
(a) Only (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) are incorrect
(b) Only (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) are correct
(c) Only (i),(ii),(iii),(iv), (v) are incorrect
(d) Only (i),(ii),(iii),(iv), (v) are correct
53. Which of the following are exceptions to Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(i) Agreement between buyer and seller not to carry on business by buyer of which
goodwill is sold
(ii) Agreement between partners that a partner will not carry on business other than
that of firm while he is a partner in the firm
(iii) An agreement of service under which an employee agrees to serve a particular
employer for certain duration and that he will not serve anybody else during that
period
(iv) An agreement between manufacturer and buyer to deal exclusively with the
product to monopolies the trade.
(a) Only (i),(ii),(iii)

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 (b) Only (ii),(iii)
(c) Only (i),(ii)
(d) All of the above
54. Within how much period the promisor shall perform his promise when no time for
performance is fixed and no application is to be made by the promisee?
(a) Promisor shall apply to promisee for performance of promise appointing a place
and time
(b) Within a reasonable time
(c) During usual hours of business at such place on such time at which it ought to be
performed as per the customs of the trade
(d) Any of the above
55. Which of the following case deals with Claytons Rule?
(a) Tinn vs. Hoffman
(b) Adams vs. Lindsell
(c) Devyanes vs. Noble
(d) Taylor vs. CALDWELL
56. A employs B to beat C, and agrees to indemnify him against all consequences of the
act. B thereupon beats C, and has to pay damages to C for so doing.
(a) A shall indemnify B for the damages
(b) A is not liable to indemnify B for the damages
(c) A is liable to indemnify if he has agreed in written
(d) None of the above
57. In case of gratuitous bailment, it is:
(a) terminated by the death of bailor or the bailee
(b) terminated by the death of bailee
(c) terminated by the death of bailor
(d) none of the above
58. In the Nash vs. Inman case, the issue was:
(a) Minor‟s liability
(b) Frustration
(c) Fraud
(d) Misrepresentation

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59. An agreement with minor is void, hence:
(a) Minor is never allowed to enforce such contract
(b) Minor is allowed to enforce such agreement, if it was made for his benefit
(c) Minor is always allowed to enforce such agreement
(d) Minor is allowed to enforce such agreement when other party makes no objection
60. X, being in debt to Y, the moneylender of his village, contracts a fresh loan on terms
which appear to be unconscionable. That the contract was not induced by undue
influence is to be proved by:
(a) Y
(b) X
(c) Both of the above
(d) Either of the above
61. „A‟ consigns provisions to B at Calcutta, with directions to send them immediately to
C, at Cuttack. Can B sell them at Calcutta?
(a) Yes, if it does not adversely affect the profits of A
(b) No, in any case they can not be sold by B at Calcutta
(c) Yes, if they will not bear the journey to Cuttack without spoiling
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct
62. „A‟ saves B‟s property from fire. In the given case
(a) A is entitled to compensation as consideration because A has done something for B
(b) A is not entitled to compensation as B did not promise him subsequently to pay as
reuired under Section 70 ICA
(c) A is not entitled to compensation from B, if the circumstances show that he
intended to act gratuitously
(d) None of the above
63. The provisions contained in the TPA with respect to registration shall:
(a) Override the Indian Registration Act, 1908
(b) Supplement the Indian Registration Act, 1908
(c) Either of the above
(d) Neither of the above
64. Which of the following transfer can be made as per S. 6(h) of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1872?
(a) In so far as it is opposed to the nature of interest affected thereby

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 (b) For an unlawful object
(c) To a person legally disqualified to be transferee
(d) None of the above
65. Who is entitled for marshaling under Chapter III of the Transfer of Property Act,
1872?
(a) The subsequent mortgagee
(b) The subsequent purchaser
(c) The owner of the property
(d) Any of the above
66. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(a) Right of redemption – Mortgagor
(b) Right of foreclosure – Mortgagee
(c) Right of redemption – subsequent mortgagee
(d) None of the above
67. How many modes are provided for determination of lease under Section 111 of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1872?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
68. When an onerous gift is made to a disqualified person and he accepts the gift:
(a) the donee is not bound by the obligation
(b) the donee is bound by the obligation if he has accepted the gift
(c) either of the above
(d) neither of the above
69. At the time of transfer of debt, Warranty of the solvency of debtor applies to :
(a) Solvency of debtor till the debt is paid
(b) Solvency at the time of the transfer
(c) Solvency at the time debt was taken by debtor
(d) None of the above
70. Consider the following statements:
(i) Mortgagor, while lawfully in possession of mortgaged property shall have power to
make leases thereof.

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 (ii) Such leases shall not be binding on the mortgagee.
(iii) No such lease shall contain a covenant for renewal.
(iv)Every such lease shall reserve the rent as per discretion of mortgagor and its
adequacy is immaterial.
(a) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) Only (i), (iv) are correct
(c) Only (ii), (iv) are correct
(d) Only (i), (iii) are correct
71. Section 52 of TPA, does not apply to:
(a) Post transfer rights
(b) Pecuniary rights
(c) Pre-existing rights
(d) Instant rights
72. The requirement of registration of transfer deed for operation of Section 53A has been
inserted by:
(a) Amendment Act of 1929
(b) Amendment Act of 2001
(c) Amendment Act of 2003
(d) None of the above
73. „Dayabhaga‟ is authored by:
(a) Vijnaneshwara
(b) Yagyavalkya
(c) Jimutvahana
(d) None of the above
74. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Void marriages are null and void since inception and no decree of court is
required to be passed to that effect.
(ii) Voidable marriages are valid marriages unless annulled
(iii) There is no mutual inheritance between spouses of voidable marriage.
(iv) A marriage solemnized in contravention of Section 5(iii) is voidable under Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955
(a) Only (i),(iii)
(b) Only (ii),(iii)

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 (c) Only (iii),(iv)
(d) None of the above
75. For a divorce petition under S. 13B HMA, 1955, the spouses should be living
separately for period of:
(a) Six months or more
(b) One year or more
(c) Two years or more
(d) None of the above
76. As per the Rules of Partition under the Hindu Law, the son born from which of the
following marriages shall be entitled to a share in partition?
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) All of the above
77. The succession in case of male Hindu dying intestate shall take place in which of the
following order:
(i) Relatives specified in class I of the Schedule
(ii) Relatives specified in class II of the Schedule
(iii) Agnates of the deceased
(iv) Cognates of the deceased
(a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
(b) (i),(ii),(iv),(iii)
(c) (i),(iii),(ii),(iv)
(d) None of the above
78. The phrase „After Him‟ under S. 6 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
means:
(a) Death of father
(b) Temporary or permanent absence of father
(c) Both of the above
(d) Only (a)
79. The adoption made validly made under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act,
1956 may be cancelled by:
(a) Father or Mother

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 (b) Adopted child
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
80. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(a) Section 18 – maintenance to wife
(b) Section 19 – maintenance of widowed daughter – in – law
(c) Section 20 – maintenance of children and aged parents
(d) Section 21 – maintenance to dependants
81. T. Sareetha vs. Venkatasubbaiah is a case relating to:
(a) Partition of property
(b) Conjugal rights
(c) Inheritance
(d) None of these
82. A Hindu widower adopts a son. He feels that the child needs motherly care for an
overall growth and thus decides to marry. The wife whom he marries in pursuance of
this decision shall be ….. of his son.
(a) Mother
(b) Adoptive mother
(c) Step mother
(d) Foster mother
83. Which of the following provision enables making of counter claim for any relief in
divorce or other proceedings under HMA?
(a) Section 21A
(b) S. 21B
(c) S. 21 C
(d) S. 23A
84. Which of the following provision makes the provision related to bigamy applicable
upon the bigamous marriages under Hindu Law?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 28

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85. Alimony under S. 25 of HMA, 1955 can be ordered by:
(a) A civil court
(b) A court exercising jurisdiction under HMA, 1955
(c) Bothe of the above
(d) None of the above
86. The standard rent shall be determined under S. 4 of the Himachal Pradesh Rent Act by:
(a) Landlord
(b) Tenant
(c) Controller
(d) Landlord and tenant by mutual agreement
87. If the landlord fails to repair premises after written application from tenant and the
premises is repaired by the tenant, the tenant may deduct expenses which:
(a) shall not exceed one twelfth of rent for that year
(b) shall not exceed one tenth of rent for that year
(c) shall not exceed one twelfth of rent for that month
(d) shall not exceed one fourth of rent for that month

88. the tenant shall not be liable for eviction if he pays arrears of rent within how many
days from the date of eviction order?
(a) Fifteen days
(b) Thirty days
(c) Fourty five days
(d) Sixty days
89. How much time shall be given by the Controller to the tenant to put landlord in the
possession of the premises after passing eviction order Section 14(2) ?
(a) Not exceeding one month
(b) Not exceeding two months
(c) Not exceeding three months
(d) Not exceeding six months
90. Limited period tenancy may be granted for:
(a) Residential purpose
(b) Non-residential purpose
(c) Both of the above

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 (d) Only (b)
91. Fair rent of a building or rented land, under theHimachal Pradesh Rent Control Act,
1987 is determined by the Rent Controller:
(a) Taking into consideration the rent prevailing in the locality for similar building or
rented land during specified period
(b) Taking into consideration the rent agreed upon between landlord and tenant
(c) Taking into consideration the compromise arrived at between parties to the
proceeding
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c) with respect to particular dead line
92. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that rendering of services
cannot be a good consideration for subletting as it would be against rent laws?
(a) Dipak Banerjee vs. Smt. Lila Bati
(b) Rup Chand vs. Gopi Chand
(c) Ram Dayal vs. Ram Charan Das
(d) Brijender Nath vs. Harshvardhan
93. In which of the following cases, the Court held that it is obligatory on the part of the
Controller to process an application filed for fixation of rent to its logical end?
(a) Dayawanti vs. Kirpa Ram
(b) Surjit Singh vs. Pritam Singh
(c) Ramji das vs. Roshan Lal
(d) Mangat Rai vs. Kedar Nath
94. Delay in filing suit:
(a) Cannot be condoned
(b) Can be condoned under Section 3 of the Limitation Act
(c) Can be condoned under O VII R 6 of CPC
(d) Can be condoned under Section 5 of the Limitation Act
95. Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 can be availed by:
(a) The plaintiff(s)
(b) The defendant(s)
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
96. Period during which proceedings stand stayed by injunction or order is excluded under
which of the following provision of the Limitation Act, 1963:

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 (a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16
97. A suit for possession of immovable property based on title can be filed within:
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Three years
(d) Twelve years
98. Period of limitation for execution of decree is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 60 years
99. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for filing a suit for
compensation for false imprisonment begins to run from the time:
(a) When imprisonment ends
(b) When imprisonment begins
(c) when prosecution terminates
(d) none of the above
100. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for filing an application for an
order to set aside an abatement is:
(a) 60 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 120 days
(d) None of the above
101. Which of the following provision provides for Additional Prosecution under the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(a) Section 193
(b) Section 319
(c) Section 321
(d) Section 318

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102. When Magistrate cannot pass a sufficiently severe sentence then the proceedings may
be submitted by him to:
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate under Section 322
(b) Sessions Judge under Section 323
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate under Section 325
(d) None of the above
103. Which of the following is matched correctly?
(a) Section 446 A– procedure when bond has been forfeited
(b) Section 446– Cancellation of bond and bail bond
(c) Section 448 – Bond required from minor
(d) All of the above
104. The classification of offences into bailable and non-bailable is given under the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 in:
(a) Schedule I
(b) Schedule II
(c) Section 320
(d) Section 482
105. In which of the following cases the Magistrate may not conduct inquiry into cause of
death?
(a) Suicide by a woman within seven years of her marriage
(b) Death of a woman within seven years of her marriage and any relative of the
woman has made a request in this behalf
(c) Where any person dies into custody authorized by Magistrate
(d) All of the above
106. When an offence is committed, whilst the victim is in the course of performing a
journey, the offence may be inquired into by a court:
(a) Within whose jurisdiction the offence was committed
(b) Through or into whose local jurisdiction that person passed in the course of journey
(c) From whose jurisdiction the journey started
(d) Within whose jurisdiction the journey ended
107. As per S. 206 CrPC by which of the following mode/s the accused may plead guilty?
(a) Appearing in person
(b) Transmitting the plea of guilt by post or messenger

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 (c) Through a pleader
(d) Any of the above
108. In which of the following offences manner of committing offence must be stated while
framing charge?
(a) Theft
(b) Murder
(c) Cheating
(d) All of the above
109. Section 357A of CrPC was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act by the:
(a) Act 5 of 2009
(b) Act 2 of 2006
(c) Act 41 of 2010
(d) None of the above
110. According to which provision all the offences under IPC shall be investigated, inquired
into, tried and otherwise dealt with according to CrPC?
(a) Section 4(1) CrPC
(b) Section 5(2)CrPC
(c) Section 4 (3)CrPC
(d) Section 4 IPC
111. What is the limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine when the offence is
punishable by imprisonment as well as fine?
(a) One fourth of the maximum imprisonment provided for that offence
(b) One fourth of the minimum imprisonment provided for that offence
(c) Up to three months in any case
(d) None of the above
112. Match the following:
(a) Chapter VIII – (i) contempts of the lawful authority of public servants
(b) Chapter X – (ii) offences against property
(c) Chapter XVII – (iii) offences against public tranquility
(d) Chapter XIX – (iv) criminal breach of contracts of service
(a) (A) – (iv); (B) – (ii); (C) – (i); (D)-(iii)
(b) (A) – (ii); (B) – (iii); (C) – (iv); (D)-(i)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B) – (ii); (C) – (i); (D)-(iii)

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 (d) (A) – (iii); (B) – (i); (C) – (ii); (D)-(iv)
113. In which of the following case/s Robbery will amount to dacoity?
(i) Five or more persons conjointly commit robbery
(ii) Five or more persons conjointly attempt to commit robbery
(iii) Persons present and aiding such commission or attempt amounts to five or more
(a) Only (i),(iii)
(b) Only (i),(ii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) All of the above
114. The maxim “non compos mentis” means:
(a) Child of ten years
(b) Not co-operative
(c) Not of sound mind
(d) None of the above
115. Which one of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
(a) Keso Shau vs. Saligram – Section 79 IPC
(b) Sita Ram vs. State of Rajasthan – section 80 IPC
(c) Southwark London Borough Council vs. Williams – Section 81 IPC
(d) Bablu vs. State of Rajasthan – Section 89 IPC
116. A hotel situated at the bank of water reservoir, despite objection, discharges its
polluted water in the reservoir, causing fouls to reservoir water. For which offence
under IPC the manager of the Hotel can be charged?
(a) Section 277
(b) Section 276
(c) Section 278
(d) Section 282
117. Consider the following statements:
(i)An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled, may subsequently become
an unlawful assembly.
(ii) Whoever, being aware of the facts which render any assembly an unlawful
assembly, intentionally joins or continues is said to be a member of unlawful
assembly.

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 (iii) A member of an unlawful assembly shall be punished with imprisonment which
may extend to six months or with fine or both.
(iv) The offence of rioting shall be punishable with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or both.
(a) Only (i),(ii) is correct
(b) Only (i),(ii),(iii) are correct
(c) Only (ii),(iv) are correct
(d) All are correct
118. „A‟ comes outside B‟s house around 7 PM and starts abusing and singing obscene
songs outside home in the street. A has committed the offence under:
(a) Section 292
(b) Section 293
(c) Section 294
(d) Any of the above
119. The distinction between „similar intention‟ and common intention‟ was classified in
the case of:
(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh vs. King Emperor
(b) Mehboob shah vs. Emperor
(c) Shrinivas vs. Emperor
(d) All of the above
120. In which of the following case the Hon‟ble Supreme Court observed that life
imprisonment without remission till last breath can be imposed as substitution of death
sentence?
(a) UOI vs. Sriharan
(b) Ravindra vs. UOI
(c) State of Rajasthan vs. Gurbachan Singh
(d) All of the above
121. Which of the following provision under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 contains a
provision regarding bail?
(a) Section 64
(b) Section 65
(c) Section 66
(d) Section 68

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122. Which of the following offences may be tried summarily?
(a) Offences punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six months or fine not
exceeding five hundred rupees or both
(b) Offences punishable with imprisonment not exceeding nine months or fine not
exceeding five hundred rupees or both
(c) Offences punishable with imprisonment not exceeding eighteen months or fine not
exceeding five hundred rupees or both
(d) None of the above
123. Which of the following kinds of timber becomes the property of Government?
(a) All timber which is found adrift, stranded or sunk
(b) All timber bearing marks which have not been registered as per S. 41 of the Act
(c) Timber of which marks have been obliterated by fire
(d) All of the above
124. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Any land which is not included in reserved forest may be notified as protected
forest.
(b) Any land which is included in reserved forest may also be notified as protected
forest
(c) Either of the above
(d) Neither of the above
125. Alterations in the boundary of National Park may be made by:
(a) State Govt.
(b) National Board
(c) State Govt. with the recommendation of the National Board
(d) Either (a) or (b)
126. What is the Tiger and other Endangered Species Crime Control Bureau called as per
the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972?
(a) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
(b) National Bureau of Crime Control of Wildlife
(c) National Commission for Prevention of Crimes
(d) None of the above

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127. Wildlife refers to:
(a) Predatory animals in their natural habitat
(b) Economically important animals and plants
(c) Any living organism in its natural habitat
(d) Any living organism in any habitat
128. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was passed by the Union Parliament:
(a) In the exercise of its power conferred by Art. 246 of the Indian Constitution
(b) On receiving a resolution passed by the Council of States under Art. 249 of the
Indian Constitution
(c) On receiving resolutions passed by States under Article 252 of the Indian
Constitution
(d) During continuance of proclamation made by the President under Article 352 of the
Indian Constitution
129. The offence of commission of breach of protection order may be proved by:
(a) Sole testimony of aggrieved person
(b) No particular number of witness
(c) At least to witnesses other than the aggrieved person
(d) None of the above
130. The right to reside in a shared household under S. 17 of the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is available to:
(a) Every woman in domestic relationship
(b) Aggrieved woman under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005
(c) Every married woman
(d) Any of the above
131. The wife of a school teacher, intentionally, leaves her house to facilitate her husband to
commit rape of a girl student present there. What is her criminal liability?
(a) No liability
(b) She is guilty of abetment under Section 16 of the POCSO Act, 2012
(c) She has committed no offence as the girl did not agree
(d) She has played a deception with the girl

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132. Whoever commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below ….. is said to have
committed aggravated penetrative sexual assault under Section 5(m) of POCSO Act,
2012.
(a) 16 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 9 years
133. The POCSO came into force on:
(a) 19/06/2012
(b) 09/11/2012
(c) 14/11/2012
(d) 26/11/2012
134. Sexual Harassment of women is violation of fundamental rights under :
(a) Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution
(b) Articles 15 and 21 of the Constitution
(c) Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution
(d) Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution
135. Under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
Redressal) Act, 2013 “aggrieved woman” includes a woman of:
(a) 16 years of age or above
(b) 18 years of age or above
(c) 21 years of age or above
(d) Any age
136. Who is respondent under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
(a) Aggrieved woman
(b) State govt.
(c) Against whom the aggrieved woman has made a complaint
(d) Any of the above
137. Match the following:
(A) Penalty for mixing noxious substance with liquor – (i) section 65
(B) Disposal of seized liquor during the pendency of trial – (ii) Section 8

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 (C) Penalty for unlawful production, manufacture, possession, import, export,
transport, sale etc. – (iii) Section 41
(D) Power to enter and inspect – (iv) Section 39
(a) (A) – (i); (B) – (ii); (C) – (iii); (D)- (iv)
(b) (A) – (iii); (B) – (i); (C) – (iv); (D)- (ii)
(c) (A) – (ii); (B) – (iii); (C) – (iv); (D)- (i)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B) – (ii); (C) – (iii); (D)- (i)
138. How much additional compensation can be awarded by a court under Section 42 of the
H. P. Excise Act, 2011, if any person dies due to consumption of liquor?
(a) Not less than one lakh rupees
(b) Not less than two lakh rupees
(c) Not less than three lakh rupees
(d) Not less than five lakh rupees
139. Which of the following is matched correctly?
(a) Punishable with fine only – 6 months
(b) Punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year – 1 year
(c) Punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year – 3 years
(d) All of the above
140. The complaint for taking cognizance of the offence under Section 138 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 has to be made:
(a) Within 15 days from the cause of action
(b) Within one month from the cause of action
(c) Within three months from the cause of action
(d) Within six months from the cause of action
141. “Mens rea has no place while determining penal liability under Section 138 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881”. The statement is:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) Partly correct
(d) Depends upon the facts of the case
142. Offences under PCPNDT Act are:
(a) Cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable
(b) Non- Cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable

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 (c) Cognizable, bailable, non-compoundable
(d) Cognizable, bailable, compoundable
143. An offence under Section 138 of the NIA is compoundable if:
(a) the cheque amount is up to one lakh rupees
(b) the cheque amount is up to three lakh rupees
(c) the cheque amount is up to five lakh rupees
(d) cheque of any amount
144. Whether director is liable if the cheque issued on behalf of the company is dishonored
?
(a) Yes, he is liable, if he was in charge of and was reasonable for the conduct of
business of the company
(b) No, only company is liable
(c) No, director is not liable
(d) None of the above
145. Assertion (A) : A mere filing of charge sheet and framing of charges cannot be an
impediment in ordering further investigation, if the facts so warrant.
Reason (R) : Victim has a fundamental right of fair investigation and fair trial.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
146. Assertion (A) : The police officer shall lodge FIR if information is received by him as
to commission of non- cognizable offence.
Reason (R) : A preliminary inquiry before lodging FIR is not mandatory in all the
cases.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
147. Assertion (A) : A complaint filed before expiry of 15 days from the date of receipt of
notice issued under clause (c) of the proviso to Section 138 is not maintainable.
Reason(R) : The remedy available in such case is to file a fresh complaint.
(a) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

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 (b) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
148. Plea of juvenility can be raised:
(a) In court of original jurisdiction before framing of charges
(b) Upto the stage of first appeal
(c) In the court of original jurisdiction at any stage
(d) In any court at any stage
149. Under Section 15 preliminary assessment is done:
(a) Heinous offence committed by child who has completed or is above the age of 18
years
(b) Heinous offence committed by child who has completed or is above the age of 16
years
(c) Any offence committed by a child who is above the age of 16 years
(d) Both (b) and (c)
150. Which of the following is matched correctly?
(a) Children in conflict with law – Juvenile Justice Board
(b) Child in need of care and protection – Child welfare Committee
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

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S. No. Answer Explanation
1. C Judicial Settlemet – Court shall effect a compromise by the procedure as
may be prescribed
Lok Adalat - Legal Services Authtority Act, 1987
2. C S. 106 CPC
3. A Power of review can be exercised by a court when an appeal
lies from the decree passed by such court
The proceedings of revision before High Court will not per se
stay the proceedings before subordinate Court
The proceedings of reference before High Court will not per
se stay the proceedings before subordinate Court

4. A S. 144
5. B S. 149
6. D O V R 15 - Service of summons may be made on any adult member of
the defendant‟s family

7. A N/A
8. D N/A
9. B N/A
10. B N/A
11. C N/A
12. C N/A
13. C N/A
14. A N/A
15. D N/A
16. D N/A
17. B N/A
18. B N/A
19. C N/A
20. D N/A
21. B N/A
22. B Prem vs. Daula
23. C N/A
24. C N/A
25. B N/A
26. B N/A

31 | P a g e
27. A N/A
28. A N/A
29. C S. 151 AND 152 IEA
30. C N/A
31. B N/A
32. C N/A
33. B N/A
34. A N/A
35. A N/A
36. A N/A
37. A N/A
38. B N/A
39. B N/A
40. A N/A
41. A N/A
42. D N/A
43. B N/A
44. B N/A
45. A N/A
46. C N/A
47. A N/A
48. C N/A
49. A N/A
50. C N/A
51. B N/A
52. D S. 10 ICA
53. B N/A
54. B N/A
55. C N/A
56. B S. 224 ICA
57. A S. 162 ICA
58. A N/A

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59. B N/A
60. A S. 16 ICA
61. C S. 189 ICA
62. C S. 70ICA
63. B S. 4 TPA
64. D N/A
65. B N/A
66. D N/A
67. C N/A
68. A N/A
69. B S. 133 TPA
70. D N/A
71. C N/A
72. B N/A
73. C N/A
74. C N/A
75. B N/A
76. A N/A
77. A S. 8 HSA
78. C Gita Hariharan vs. RBI
79. D S. 15 HAMA – valid aoption cannot be cancelled
80. D Section 21 –dependants defined

81. B N/A
82. C N/A
83. D N/A
84. C N/A
85. B N/A
86. C N/A
87. A N/A
88. B N/A
89. C N/A

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90. A S. 17
91. D N/A
92. A N/A
93. A N/A
94. A N/A
95. A N/A
96. B N/A
97. D N/A
98. B Art. 136of the Limitation Act
99. A N/A
100. A N/A
101. B N/A
102. C N/A
103. C (a) Section 446 – procedure when bond has been forfeited
(b) Section 446 A– Cancellation of bond and bail bond

104. A N/A
105 B S. 176
106. B S. 183
107. D N/A
108. C N/A
109 A N/A
110 A N/A
111 A N/A
112 D N/A
113 D N/A
114 C N/A
115 D N/A
116 A N/A
117 B N/A
118 A N/A
119 B N/A
120 A N/A
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121 B N/A
122 A S. 67
123 D S. 45
124 A S. 29
125 C S. 35(5)
126 A N/A
127 C N/A
128 C N/A
129 A N/A
130 A S. 17
131 B N/A
132 C N/A
133 C N/A
134 D N/A
135 D N/A
136 C N/A
137 B N/A
138 C N/A
139 D N/A
140 B N/A
141 A N/A
142 A N/A
143 D N/A
144 A N/A
145 A N/A
146 D N/A
147 B Gajanand Burange vs. Laxmichand Goyal
148 D N/A
149 B N/A
150 C N/A

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