Question 1 of 782 PREV | 

NEXT

What is the minimum number of life saving jackets and individual floatation devices, required on
board of an aircraft:

A) One for each crew member and each seat fitted.

B) One for each crew member and one for each passenger on board.
C) One for each person that does not have a seat in a life raft.
D) One for each woman and child.

Question 2 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 501 and 600 is:

A) 7
B) 9
C) 1
D) 3

Question 3 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into
account:

1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
)
B) 1, 2, 4, 5.
C) 2, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3, 5.

Question 4 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight may be conducted under VFR only if:

A VMC exists along the route to be flown under VFR.

)
B) a VFR flight plan has been filed and a VFR clearance was received.
C) the maximum take-off mass does not exceed 5700 Kg.
D) an IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VMC.

Question 5 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:

A) 200ft.
B) 250ft.
C) 150ft.
D) 300ft.
Question 6 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a destination alternate is not required for a turbojet engined aeroplane, the fuel and oil carried
must be at least sufficient to:

A fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the flight planned aerodrome at standard
) conditions and to have an additional amount of fuel to cater for increases consumption due to any
of the contingencies specified by the operator.
B) fly to the flight planned destination and then remain airborne for 45 minutes.
C) fly to the aerodrome of destination specified in the operational flight plan.
D) take into account all the contingencies specified by the operator.

Question 7 of 782 PREV | NEXT

It is recommended that first aid kits should be positioned:

A) in the galley area accessible to cabin staff only.

B) under passenger seats.
C) out of sight to prevent panic.
D) near exits.

Question 8 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A destination alternate aerodrome must be specified for:

A) any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned.

B) an IFR flight, if enroute VMC conditions are expected.
C) any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made.
D) any flight for public transport over 40km.

Question 9 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The required number of
megaphones on board is:

A) 2 if the seating capacity with one passenger deck is 31.

B) 2.
C) 1.
D) 0.

Question 10 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The required number of
megaphones on board is:

A 1.
)
B) 2.
C) 2 if the seating capacity with one passenger deck is 31.
D) 0.

Question 11 of 782 PREV | NEXT

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel
track. What Nav light will be observed:

A) Green.
B Red.
)
C) All of the above.
D) White.

Question 12 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aeroplane is
airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy?

A) The operator.
B) The commander.
C) The maintenance supervisor.
D) A JAA authorised person.

Question 13 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

A 25000 ft
)
B) 10000 ft
C) 29000 ft
D) 13000 ft

Question 14 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Mach meters are required to be carried in aeroplanes:

A) where speed limitations are expressed in Mach-number.

B) when the critical Mach-number is low.
C) when there is only one airspeed indicator installed.
D) for flights above FL 100.

Question 15 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Mach meters are required to be carried in aeroplanes:

A) when there is only one airspeed indicator installed.

B) when the critical Mach-number is low.
C) where speed limitations are expressed in Mach-number.
D) for flights above FL 100.

Question 16 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any
aircraft of more than 5.700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:

A) 60 minutes.
B) 2 hours.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.

Question 17 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

A) 7000kg.
B) 20000kg.
C) 10000kg.
D) 5700kg.

Question 18 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of an NDB is not lower than:

A) 300ft
.
B) 150ft
.
C) 200ft
.
D) 250ft
.

Question 19 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For GPWS, a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions. The number is:

A) 3.
B) 8.
C) 5.
D) 6.

Question 20 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When calculating the length of the runway available (TODA):

A) the stopway has to be taken into account.

B) the runway slope has to be taken into account.
C) the distance lost in lining up the aircraft does not have to be taken into account.
D) the clearway has to be taken into account.

Question 21 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When you have been unlawfully interfered with the commander is required to inform certain people:

i. State of the Operator.

ii. ICAO
iii. State of registration of aircraft.
iv. JAA.

A (i), (ii) and (iii)

)
B) all of the above
C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 22 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration
of more than ... seats unless a public address system is installed.
A) 111
B) 7
C) 19
D) 75

Question 23 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a destination alternate is required to be nominated for a propeller driven aeroplane, the fuel and
oil carried must be at least sufficient to:

A) fly to the flight planned destination and then remain airborne for 45 minutes.
B fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate
) specified in the operational flight plan, and then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
C) fly to the alternate destination without performing an approach and missed approach at the
destination aerodrome.
D) land at the destination with the unusable fuel in the tanks.

Question 24 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following limitations are included in the aircraft flight manual?

A) Power plant and airspeed limitations.

B) Equipment and system limitations.
C) Power plant, airspeed, equipment and system limitations.
D) Flight crew limitations.

Question 25 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more
than:

A) 100 NM.
B) 200 NM.
C) 400 NM.
D) 50 NM.

Question 26 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When is a flight navigator required as part of the flight crew?

A) If the MEL indicates that the necessary navigational system is inoperative.

B) Where precise navigational procedures (i.e. grid navigation) are mandatory.
C) When flying over remote areas.
D) If the authority of the State of the operator deems that the safe navigation of the aeroplane cannot
be adequately accomplished from the pilots station.

Question 27 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?

A) The JAA.
B) The Operator.
C) The State of the Operator.
D) The ICAO Council.

uestion 28 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must
not be less than:

A) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
B) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months.
C) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
D) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months.

Question 29 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Aeroplanes being operated over a specified altitude are required to carry equipment. which
continuously monitors the dose rate of cosmic radiation. This specified altitude is:

A) 49000 ft.
B) 36090 ft.
C) 66000 ft.
D) 15000 ft.

Question 30 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

A 0.6
)
B) 0.8
C) 0.5
D) 0.7

Question 31 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The ... is responsible for reporting all known or suspected defects in the aeroplane to the operator, at
the termination of the flight.

A) JAR 145 maintenance organisation.

B) flight dispatcher.
C) pilot in command.
D) State of registration.

Question 32 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a turbo-propeller aircraft, at the flight preparation stage, the landing distance required at the
alternate aerodrome must be less than the landing distance available multiplied by a factor of:

A 0.7
)
B) 0.8
C) 0.6
D) 0.5

Question 33 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction and location of a flight data
recorder?

A The flight data recorder is fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.
)
B) The flight data recorder is painted a distinctive red colour and is powered from the essential bus
bar.
C) The flight data recorder is painted in red and is located in the main wheel well.
D) The flight data recorder is power by the batteries at all times.

Question 34 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

A Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

)
B) Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
C) The aircrafts stairs be completely extended.
D) All the flight crew be on board.

Question 35 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the right, will
first see the:

A) white steady light.

B) green flashing light.
C) red steady light.
D) green steady light.

uestion 36 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 201 and 300 is:

A) 2
B) 4
C) 7
D) 8

Question 37 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who checks, before flight, that the aircrafts weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

A The captain.
)
B) The operator.
C) The companies cargo technicians.
D) The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

Question 38 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 2400 m.
B) 1600 m.
C) 1500 m.
D) 3600 m.
Question 39 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is required to be carried in:

A) aeroplanes with turbine-engines with max. take-off mass greater then 15000 kg or authorised to
carry more than 30 passengers with a COA first issued on or after 1 Jul 79.
B) aeroplanes with turbine-engines with max take-off mass greater than 15000 kg or authorised to
carry more than 30 passengers with a COA first issued before I Jul 79.
C) all turbine engine aeroplanes with a max. take-off mass not exceeding 5700 kg or authorised to
carry 9 or more passengers on or after 1 Jan 99.
D) all turbine engine aeroplanes of max. take-off mass equal to or greater than 5700 kg or authorised
to carry 9 or more passengers on or after 1 Jan 99.

Question 40 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a GPWS, which of the following combinations correctly identifies the hazards for which warnings
are given:

A) Excessive climb rate, excessive terrain closure rate, excessive altitude loss after take - off or go
around, unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration, rapid speed loss towards
stalling speed.
B) Excessive climb rate, excessive terrain closure rate, excessive speed loss after take-off or go
around, unsafe terrain clearance when in landing configuration, excessive descent below the
obstacle clearance altitude.
C) Excessive descent rate, mach trim warning, excessive altitude loss after take-off or go around,
unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration, excessive speed decay during a CAT III
instrument approach.
D) Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate, excessive altitude loss after take -off or go
around, unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration, excessive descent below the
instrument approach glide path.

Question 41 of 782 PREV | NEXT

All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 April 1998 must be
fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:

A 5700 kg
)
B) 27000 kg
C) 20000 kg
D) 14000 kg

Question 42 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When must a radiation indicator be carried?

A) For flights above 29000ft.

B For flights above 49000ft.
)
C) For flights above 59000ft.
D) For flights above 39000ft.

Question 43 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of a cockpit voice recorder?

A) It must be switched off after engine shutdown.

B) It must be on at all times when the doors are closed.
C) It must be switched off after an accident and not reactivated until recordings have been
 transcribed.
D) It must be switched on and checked for correct operation during the pre-flight checks, then
switched to stand-by until the aeroplane is ready to taxi so that the ATC clearance and read-back
are recorded.

Question 44 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998?

A) Record the last 48 hours of flight.

B) Record last 30 mins of flight.
C) Record the last 25 hours of operation.
D) Record for the duration of the flight.

Question 45 of 782 PREV | NEXT

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

A) 25 hours of operation.
B) 30 hours of operation.
C) The whole flight.
D) 48 hours of operation.

uestion 46 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 1500 m.
B) 1600 m.
C) 3600 m.
D) 2400 m.

Question 47 of 782 PREV | NEXT

GPWS must be carried on all turbine engined aircraft where the C of A was first issued on or after the
1 July 1979 if:

A) the maximum certificated take-off mass is in excess of 15.000 kg.

B Both a & b.
)
C) Neither a nor b.
D) it is authorised to carry more than 30 passengers.

Question 48 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

A) The operator and in the Operations Manual.

B) The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual.
C) The operator and in the Flight Manual.
D) The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual.

uestion 49 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

A) 11000
ft
B) 13000
ft
C) 10000
ft
D) 12000
ft

uestion 50 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which is the most complete list of documents that are to be carried on each flight:

A) AOC, aircraft radio license, crew licences and third party liability insurance.
B certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, AOC, aircraft radio license, crew licences,
) third party liability insurance certificates and a noise certificate (if applicable).
C) certificate of airworthiness, AOC, aircraft radio license, maintenance records and JAR-145
maintenance program.
D) certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness.

Question 51 of 782 PREV | NEXT

First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:

A) The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck.
B) All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid depressurisation.
C) Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders.
D) 30% of passengers between 10,000ft and 13,000ft.

Question 52 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?

A) ATS authority of the state of registry.

B) Owner of the aircraft.
C) Aircraft operator.
D) Aircraft producer.

uestion 53 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where minimum navigation performance is prescribed by Regional Air Navigation Agreements, an

aeroplane shall be fitted with equipment which:

A) has been authorised by the operator.

B) has been authorised by the State of the operator.
C) has been authorised by the regional air traffic control unit.
D) has been authorised by the pilot-in-command.

Question 54 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that: (Annex 6, Part I)

A) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
B) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine
 operative.
C) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine
operative.
D) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Question 55 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft has a threshold speed of 135kts. Into which ICAO aircraft approach category is such an
aircraft designated?

A) D
B) B
C) A
D) C

Question 56 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who makes up the MMEL?

A) The state of registry.

B) The authority.
C) The manufacturer and it must be approved by the state of certification.
D) The operator.

Question 57 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is not taken into account when establishing aerodrome operating minima?

A) Type, performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane.

B) Dimensions and characteristics of the runway to be used.
C) The number of runways parallel runways.
D) Obstacles in the approach, missed approach and climb out areas.

Question 58 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A Type 2 FDR shall be capable of recording at least:

A) 15 parameters and the last 30 minutes of operation.

B 15 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.
)
C) 32 parameter and the last 30 minutes of operation.
D) 32 parameters and the last 25 hours of operation.

Question 59 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:

A) Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 90 days
B) Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 60 days
C) Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 60 days
D) Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 90 days

Question 60 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A take-off alternate shall be located within a distance from the aerodrome of departure of:

A) not more than 3 hours flying distance with only 1 engine operating.
B) not more than a distance equal to 3 hours of flying time at the one-engine-out cruising speed.
C) not more than 2 hours flying distance with only 1 engine operating.
D) not more than 1 hour flying distance with only one engine operating.

Question 61 of 782 PREV | NEXT

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an
aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

A) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
B At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
) aerodrome use.
C) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time,
equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
D) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

Question 62 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A type 1 Flight Data Recorder (FDR) must be able to:

A) record the last 30 minutes of operation.

B record 32 parameters in total to determine flight path, speed, engine power, altitude,
) configuration, ...
C) be fitted to aeroplanes with a max take-off mass greater than 5700 kg.
D) record the last 8 days of operation.

Question 63 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Operators must have available at all times the following information for immediate communication to
rescue coordination centres:

A) MEL limitations affecting the aeroplane at take-off.

B) Technical performance details of the aeroplane.
C) Emergency equipment carried on the aeroplane.
D) Personal details of the crew and passengers.

Question 64 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by:
(Annex 6, Part I)

A) The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

B) It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation
authorities.
C) The country of the operator.
D) The country where the aircraft is operated.

Question 65 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the number of crash axes or crowbars located on the flight deck for aeroplanes with a
maximum take-off mass exceeding 5.700kg or a passenger seating configuration of more than nine.
A) 6
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1

Question 66 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means possible of
any accident involving an aeroplane resulting in serious injury or death of any person or substantial
damage to the aeroplane or property?

A) The operator.
B The pilot in command.
)
C) The State of registration.
D) A JAR-OPS l approved person or a federal police officer.

Question 67 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

A while at their station.

)
B) from take off to landing.
C) only during take off and landing.
D) only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of
safety.

Question 68 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What requirement must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed pilot-in-command by the operator?

A) He/She must have flown a total of not less than 3 000 hours on type.
B He/She must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings on the same aircraft type in the
) preceding 90 days.
C) He/She must have been a co-pilot on the aircraft type for at least 13 months.
D) He/She must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a first officers
position on type with the current operator for 3 months.

Question 69 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight
is greater than:

A) 20000kg.
B) 14000kg.
C) 27000kg.
D) 5700kg.

Question 70 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who accepts the MEL?

A) The country of the operator.

B) The country of the designers.
C) The country where the flight takes place.
D) The country of the manufacturers.
Question 71 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is
an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum
horizontal visibility required for take-off is:

A) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

B) 300 m.
C) 200 m.
D) 150 m.

Question 72 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The term decision height (DH) is used for?

A) an indirect approach.
B) a precision approach.
C) a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.
D) a conventional approach.

Question 73 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

A) the aircraft manufacturers

list.
B) the manufacturer.
C) the aircraft state of registry.
D) the operator.

Question 74 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum time track is a track defined for:

A) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace.

B a given travel.
)
C) a period of 12 hours.
D) a period of 24 hours.

Question 75 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of a VDF is not lower than:

A) 200ft.
B) 150ft.
C) 250ft.
D) 300ft.

Question 76 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use?

A) 500ft min climb speed with all engines operating.

B) 300ft min climb speed with one engine out.
C) 300ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
D) 500ft min climb speed with one engine out.
uestion 77 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

A) 0.6.
B) 0.8.
C) 0.5.
D) 0.7.

Question 78 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a
flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

A) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual.

B) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
C) the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
D) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual.

Question 79 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If a turbo-jet engined aeroplane has a nominated destination diversion aerodrome and the
commander decides to attempt a landing at the nominated destination, the aeroplane must carry
sufficient fuel to fly to the destination alternate after:

A) making a straight in approach, descending to MDH/A and then one circling approach before
diverting.
B) carrying out an instrument approach to DH/A and then climbing to the nominated cruising level en-
route to the diversion aerodrome.
C) flying an approved instrument approach procedure.
D) flying an approach and a missed approach.

uestion 80 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

A) 70% of the landing distance available.

B) 80% of the landing distance available.
C) 60% of the landing distance available.
D) 50% of the landing distance available.

uestion 81 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

A) 45 minutes at cruising speed.

B) 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
C) 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
D) 30 minutes at cruising speed.

Question 82 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

A) The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.

B) The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.
C) The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP.
D) The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP.

Question 83 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 61 and 200 is:

A) 3
B) 2
C) 6
D) 1

Question 84 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the ICAO standard atmosphere, the temperature at FL360 is equal to:

A) 0 Kelvin.
B) -65 degrees Celsius
C) 217 Kelvin.
D) 0 degrees Celsius.

uestion 85 of 782 PREV | NEXT

ICAO Annex 6 is applicable to operators authorised to conduct:

A) only military operations.

B) private and commercial operations.
C) scheduled and non-scheduled international commercial air transport operations.
D) only Air Transport operations.

Question 86 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a category D aeroplane, the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat) is:

A) from 166 - 210 knots.

B from 141 - 165 knots.
)
C) from 91 - 120 knots.
D) from 121 - 140 knots.

Question 87 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For GPWS fitted after 1 Jan 99 a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions.
The number is:

A) 3.
B 6.
)
C) 8.
D) 5.

Question 88 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:

A) 220° .
B) 140° .
C) 110° .
D) 70° .

Question 89 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen
in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure
altitude is greater than:

A) 12000 ft.
B) 13000 ft.
C) 11000 ft.
D) 10000 ft.

Question 90 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be

equipped with at least:

A) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

B 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
)
C) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
D) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 91 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

A) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of
attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.
B) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
C) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.
D) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

Question 92 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Passengers are required to be briefed about the location and use of lifejackets...

A) when required by the Operator.

B) where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely.
C) when the commander authorises the use of life jackets.
D) if the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required.

Question 93 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment with
a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 601 or more is:

A) 8
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

Question 94 of 782 PREV | NEXT

ICAO Annex 6 states that operators are to ensure that all their employees:

A) comply with the laws of the State in which operations are being conducted.
B) are JAA qualified.
C) comply with the law of the State of Registration.
D) comply with ICAO SARPS and PANS.

Question 95 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
greater than:

A) 14000 kg.
B) 27000 kg.
C) 20000 kg.
D) 5700 kg.

Question 96 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:

A) 11000 ft and 13000 ft.

B) 10000 ft and 12000 ft.
C) 10000 ft and 13000 ft.
D) 11000 ft and 12000 ft.

Question 97 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Speech on the flight deck, voice communications transmitted to of from the aircraft radios or by
interphone are recorded by the:

A) flight data recorder.

B cockpit voice recorder.
)
C) video recorder.
D) flight management computer.

Question 98 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Oxygen should be supplied for all crewmembers and some passengers above which altitude:

A 10000ft.
)
B) 12000ft.
C) 11000ft.
D) 13000ft.

Question 99 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kit. On aeroplanes
certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by medically qualified
personnel is to be carried (emergency medical kit) if any point on the planned route is more than 60
minutes flying time from an aerodrome at which qualified medical assistance could be expected to be
available. The specified number of passengers is:

A) 51.
B) 21.
C) 30.
D) 100.

Question 100 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

A) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight.
B) Yes.
C) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty.
D) No, only the parts concerning crew duty.

Question 101 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How many fire extinguishers must be carried in the cabin for a seating configuration of 300
passengers?

A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 2.
D) 3.

Question 102 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for the
duration of each flight?

A) The meteorological forecast.

B) The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
C) The operational flight plan.
D) The journey log.

Question 103 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What
document do you refer to?

A) Minimum Equipment List.

B) Operations Manual - relevant chapter.
C) JAR OPS 1.
D) Aircraft Operating Manual.

Question 104 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an
aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued?

A) Commander of the aircraft.

B Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs.
)
C) JAA
D) Aeroplanes operator.
Question 105 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The validity period of a certificate of airworthiness varies with the conditions under which the aircraft
is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a
maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

A) three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

B) three years.
C) three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the
others.
D) three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.

Question 106 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the
rear of the aircraft, is:

A) 220° .
B) 70° .
C) 110° .
D) 140° .

Question 107 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If an aeroplane is flying over water more than 120 minutes flying time or 400 NM from land suitable
for an emergency landing (whichever is the least) additional sea survival equipment is to be carried.
This must include:

A) additional fuel.
B) life saving rafts and distress pyrotechnics.
C) ELTs.
D) fire hoods and additional oxygen storage bottles.

Question 108 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where an aeroplane is dry leased out to a non-JAA operator who is an operator certified by an ICAO
contracting State, responsibility has to be assumed for the maintenance of the aeroplane. Who is
responsible for assuming the responsibility?

A The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane.
)
B) ICAO.
C) A JAR-145 approved maintenance operation.
D) The operator who is to operate the aeroplane.

Question 109 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

A) acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days.

B acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days.
)
C) acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.
D) been at the controls for landing in the same type recently.

Question 110 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 31 and 60 is:

A) 1
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2

Question 111 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for authorising the method of calculation of AOM?

A) The Operator.
B) The Commander.
C) The ICAO Council.
D) The State of the Operator.

Question 112 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an accident, for what period must an operator retain FDR recordings:

A 60 days.
)
B) 2 months.
C) 90 days.
D) 30 days.

Question 113 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip
of the left wing is:

A) 140° .
B) 70° .
C) 110° .
D) 220° .

Question 114 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A copy of the following is to be left on the ground?

A Operational flight plan.

)
B) The operations manual.
C) Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight.
D) The aeroplane noise certificate.

Question 115 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 301 and 400 is:

A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
Question 116 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A) 1.600 m.
B) 2.400 m.
C) 1.500 m.
D) 3.600 m.

Question 117 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For aircraft operated in accordance with 5.2.9 or 5.2.10 (2 or 3-4 engined powered aircraft): On over
water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:

A) 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

B) 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
C) 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
D) 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

Question 118 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:

A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4

Question 119 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane flying at 39.000ft would be required to provide oxygen dispensing units in the passenger
cabin for:

A) the total number of passengers + 10%.

B) the total number of seats + at least 10% additional units.
C) the total number of seats.
D) the total number of passengers.

Question 120 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised
aircraft?

A) 12000 ft.
B) 13000 ft.
C) 11000 ft.
D) 10000 ft.

Question 121 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher
than or equal to:

A) 1500 m
B) 1600 m
C) 3600 m
D) 2400 m

Question 122 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment when
the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500 is:

A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3

Question 123 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The mass of an aeroplane at the start of take-off shall not exceed the relevant maximum masses at
which compliance with the applicable noise certifications standards of ICAO Annex ... can be achieved.

A 16
)
B) 4
C) 13
D) 9

Question 124 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category B aircraft circling are respectively:

A) 700 ft; 3600 m

B) 600 ft; 2400 m
C) 500 ft; 1600 m
D) 400 ft; 1500 m

Question 125 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination would not be possible in accordance
with the established aerodrome operating minima, then:

A) the flight may commence if the operator authorises reduced minima.

B the flight shall not be continued towards the intended destination.
)
C) the flight may commence providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15 percent of cruising fuel)
is carried as a contingency load.
D) the flight can continue provided the destination aerodrome remains open throughout the duration
of the flight.

Question 126 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, amongst other things, that the
aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied that all the pre-flight requirements have been complied
with?

A) The Commander.
B) The Flight Operations Manager.
C) The Operator.
D) The Flight Dispatcher.
Question 127 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Regarding the issue of an AOC, the Authority must be satisfied that:

A) the organisation is staffed by JAR-145 personnel only.

B the organisation is financially well managed.
)
C) the organisation has a management structure approved by the ICAO Council.
D) men and women are equally treated.

Question 128 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The Cat I minimum decision height is:

A) 50 feet.
B) No decision height.
C) 100 feet.
D) 200 feet.

Question 129 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A visual approach is defined as:

A an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the
) approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.
B) a procedure applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during CAT II and
CAT III approaches.
C) the visual phase of an approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a runway
which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.
D) a take-off where the RVR is less than 800m.

Question 130 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The lessor of an aircraft is:

A is the person or Company that owns the aeroplane (or other equipment) and rents or leases it to
) another person or Company.
B) None of the above.
C) The person or Company that contracts to hire the use of the aeroplane (or equipment).
D) The aeroplane and a full crew.

Question 131 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator shall not select an aerodrome as a take-off alternate unless the:

A) appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period
commencing 2 hour before and ending 2 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome,
the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable l
B) appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period
commencing 1 hour before and ending 2 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome,
the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable l
C) appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period
commencing 2 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome,
the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable l
D) appropriate weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate that, during a period
commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome,
the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable l
Question 132 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of a critical power unit failing during the take-off run, the aeroplane must be able to:

A) abort the take-off and stop within the ASDA.

B abort the take-off and stop within the ASDA or continue the take-off and clear all obstacles along
) the flight path by an adequate margin.
C) continue the take-off and clear all obstacles along the flight path by an adequate margin.
D) abort the take-off and stop within the ASDA.

Question 133 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at
the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing
configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

A) 1.5
B) 1.15
C) 1.45
D) 1.3

Question 134 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:

A) flight.
B) 30 hours of operation.
C) 48 hours of operation.
D) 25 hours of operation.

Question 135 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The operator is responsible for the provision of a(n) ... for flight operations staff and flight crew for
each ... operated.

A) maintenance organisation exposition, type of aircraft.

B) training manual, aircraft type.
C) aircraft flight manual, approach category.
D) aircraft flight manual, type of aircraft

Question 136 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Crew Resource Management (CRM) Training deals principally with:

A) Technical expertise and interaction.

B) Human Factors and behaviour.
C) Accident statistics and review.
D) Situational Awareness.

Question 137 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following documents are to be carried on each flight?

A) certificate of airworthiness, AOC, aircraft radio license, maintenance records and JAR-145
maintenance program.
B) AOC, aircraft radio license, crew licences and third party liability insurance.
C) certificate of registration and certificate of airworthiness.
D) certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, AOC, aircraft radio license, crew licences,
 third party liability insurance certificates and a noise certificate (if applicable).

Question 138 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Proficiency checks are to be demonstrated:

A) twice within a period of one year.

B) once every six months.
C) annually.
D) twice within a period of a year providing both checks are not carried out within a 4 month period.

Question 139 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by
an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:

A) MDH=700 ft and visibility=2.600

m.
B) MDH=600 ft and visibility=2.400
m.
C) MDH=500 ft and visibility=1.600
m.
D) MDH=400 ft and visibility=1.500
m.

Question 140 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

A The Commander and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (where applicable).

)
B) Only the Commander.
C) The Commander and the Operations Officer.
D) The Commander and the Chief Engineer.

Question 141 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who should sign an Operational Flight Plan (OFP)?

A) The Commander and the Chief Engineer.

B) The Commander and the Operations Officer.
C) Only the Commander.
D) The Commander and the Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher (where applicable).

Question 142 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a standard straight-in approach, what do you take account of?

1. RVR.
2. Ceiling
3. MDH
4. DH.

A 1, 2 and 4.
)
B) 1, 2 and 3.
C) 1 and 3.
D) 1 and 4.

Question 143 of 782 PREV | NEXT

MDA is:

A a specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must
) not be made without the required visual reference.
B) referenced to the Runway Threshold (THR) elevation.
C) a specified height in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must
not be made without the required visual reference.
D) b & c are correct

Question 144 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The load sheet must be signed before take-off by:

A) the aircraft operator and the aircraft commander.

B) the aircraft commander only.
C) the loading supervisor and the aircraft commander.
D) the loading supervisor only.

uestion 145 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If more than 2 pilots are carried the second officer may fly the aeroplane:

A) above FL 100 if he holds an ATPL.

B) above FL 100.
C) above FL 100 if he holds a CPL.
D) above FL 200.

Question 146 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When are NO SMOKING signs put on in a turbojet aircraft?

1. At all times
2. During Refuelling
3. Take-off
4. Landing
5. When climbing and descending
6. When ordered by the Pilot In Charge

A) 1-6
B) 2-5
C) 2-6
D) 3-6

Question 147 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If a door is fitted to the flight crew compartment:

A) It must remain closed at all times during flight.

B It must be lockable from inside the flight crew compartment only.
)
C) It shall be locked after engine start and not unlocked until the aeroplane has become stationary
again.
D) It should be unlocked at all times during flight.
Question 148 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If an AOC post holder changes the authority must be notified within:

A) 5 days.
B) 15 days.
C) 10 days.
D) 20 days.

Question 149 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The JAR-OPS document is based on:

A) Rules of the Air.

B) Federal Aviation Requirements. (FAR).
C) A JAA guide line.
D) ICAO Annex 6.

Question 150 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Persons of reduced mobility (PRM) should not occupy seats which?

A) Impeded the movement of the meal service.

B) Obstruct access.
C) Have an in-flight entertainment facility.
D) Increase the MTOW above 5.700 kg

Question 151 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For the Steep Approach procedures the Authority may approve screen heights of:

A) 2000 feet but not less than 150 feet.

B) 150 feet but not less than 100 feet.
C) 35 feet but not greater than 50 feet.
D) 50 feet but not less than 35 feet.

Question 152 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A pilot is not able to operate as pilot-in-command unless:

A) He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved simulator within the
previous 60 days.
B He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the same type
) to be used within the previous 90 days.
C) He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the same type to be used within
the previous 30 days.
D) He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the type
to be used in the previous 90 days.

Question 153 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The North Atlantic system is based on:

A) States Bordering Rules 6530 Doc.

B) ICAO 7030 Doc.
C) States Common Rules 7050 Doc.
D) Canadian territory since it has the largest territorial
waters.

Question 154 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of total HF radio failure enroute:

A) visual signals should be used.

B VHF or extended VHF should be used.
)
C) the pilot should land as soon as possible.
D) every effort should be made to relay messages through other airplanes.

Question 155 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What organization or body determines the minimum age that a person has to have a seat on an
aircraft?

A) Aircraft operator.
B) Aircraft commander.
C) State authorities of the aircraft operator.
D) State authorities of the departure aerodrome.

Question 156 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following information relevant to the flight and type of operation is retained on the
ground?

A) Route specific NOTAM’ s.

B Mass and balance documentation and special load notification.
)
C) A copy of the operational flight plan and copies of the relevant parts of the technical log.
D) All of these are to be retained on the ground, unless it is carried on board in a fire-proof container.

Question 157 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

A) 200 ft.
B) 250 ft.
C) 350 ft.
D) 300 ft.

uestion 158 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements is true:

A) MDA is referenced to aerodrome elevation.

B) MDH is referenced to MSL.
C) MDH is referenced to threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m or 7 feet below the aerodrome
elevation.
D) MDA for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.

uestion 159 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A CAT II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

A) a DH below 400ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 150m.
B) a DA below 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 300m.
C) a DA below 200ft but not lower than 50ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 150m.
D) a DH below 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 350m.

uestion 160 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the ..., ...
and ..., can be completed automatically.

A) intermediate approach, final approach, missed approach

B) initial approach, intermediate approach, final approach
C) final approach, flare, missed approach
D) approach, flare, landing

Question 161 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Operators are to ensure that VFR flights must be conducted:

A) Only in airspace where VMC exists.

B) In accordance with the procedures in the Operations Manual.
C) In accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
D) Only in airspace where VFR is permitted.

Question 162 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum longitudinal separation between aeroplanes in supersonic flight shall be ... minutes. This
separation can be reduced to ... minutes if certain criteria are met.

A) 10, 5
B) 15, 10
C) 25,15
D) 5, 3

Question 163 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following are not to be operated on board of an aeroplane?

A) Electronic calculators.
B Mobile phones.
)
C) Hand-held electronic games.
D) Electric razors.

Question 164 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator

must not be less than:

A) 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
B) 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
C) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator
D) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator in the
preceding 90 days
Question 165 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In categorising aeroplanes for the determination of operating minima, how is the indicated airspeed at
threshold Vat calculated?

A) Vat = Vso x 1,3

B) Vat = Vso x 1,2
C) Vat = Vso x 1,25
D) Vat = Vso x 1,35

Question 166 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a flight above 10.000 ft the stored breathing oxygen carried must be sufficient for:

A) all crew members and 15 per cent of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes that
the pressure in compartments occupied by them will be between 700 hPa and 620 hPa,
4.000m/13.000ft
B) the crew and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in compartments occupied
by them will be more than 620 hPa.
C) the crew and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in compartments occupied
by them will be less than 48 hPa.
D) all crew members and 10 per cent of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes that
the pressure in compartments occupied by them will be between 700 hPa and 620 hPa,
4.000m/13.000ft.

Question 167 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The RVR for a Category IIIB operation with roll out guidance or control systems that fail passive the
minimum RVR is:

A) 200 m.
B) 50 m.
C) 125 m.
D) 75 m.

Question 168 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?

A) On the C of A.
B) In JAR-FCL.
C) In JAR-OPS 1.
D) In ICAO Annex 6 part 2.

Question 169 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following is not considered when establishing AOM?

A) Adequacy and provision of ground aids.

B) The competence and experience of flight crews.
C) The frequency of meteorological reports.
D) Dimensions and characteristics of runways.

uestion 170 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where a flight is above 15.000m:

A) The operator shall maintain records of the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew
 member and passenger
B) The operator shall maintain records of the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew
member over a period of 12 consecutive months
C) The operator shall maintain records of the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew
member and passenger over a period of 12 consecutive months
D) The operator shall maintain records of the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew
member

Question 171 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Each pilot must undertake a proficiency check:

A) Twice within a period of four consecutive months.

B) At regular intervals as laid down by the authority who issued the pilot licence.
C) Once within a calendar year.
D) Twice within any period of one year.

Question 172 of 782 PREV | NEXT

With reference to cabin crew seats, they must be:

1. Close to Floor level exits.

2. Give a good view of the cabin area.
3. Facing forwards.
4. Evenly distributed through the cabin.
5. Facing fore or aft within 15 deg.

A) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4, 5

Question 173 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:

A) There are 9 or more passengers carried.

B) The seating configuration is more than 19.
C) There are more than 19 passengers carried.
D) The seating configuration is more than 9.

Question 174 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least:

A) 350 m
B) 500 m
C) 550 m
D) 800 m

Question 175 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Commanders of aircraft are to have on board all the essential information concerning:

A) customs and Excise regulations for all destinations and diversion aerodromes.
B search and rescue service in the areas over which the aeroplane will be flown.
)
C) landing and navigation fees applicable.
D) agreements (multi-lateral or bi-lateral) relating to International Air Transport.

Question 176 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a night flight, an observer on the flight deck first sees an aircraft coming in from the front
right. The light observed would be a:

A) Steady white light.

B) Flashing green light.
C) Steady red light.
D) Steady green light.

Question 177 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements is false?

A) An applicant for an AOC must have his principal place of business in any JAA state, it does not have
to be the state responsible for the issuing the AOC.
B) An applicant for an AOC must satisfy the authority that he is able to conduct safe operations.
C) An operator must register his aeroplane in the state responsible for issuing the AOC.
D) An operator may only hold an AOC from one authority unless specifically approved by the
authorities concerned.

Question 178 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An Air Operators Certificate (AOC) is required by any operator operating aeroplanes for which of the
following purposes?

A) Public transport when more than 21 passengers are carried.

B) Public transport of passengers only.
C) Carriage of passengers and cargo with aeroplanes of maximum take-off mass greater than 5700
kg.
D) Commercial air transport.

Question 179 of 782 PREV | NEXT

No persons other than flight crew are allowed on the flight deck. Which of the following correctly
identifies permitted exceptions?

A) Operators employees, Cabin Crew members and JAA approved persons.

B) Cabin Crew members, police officers and personnel permitted by the Operations Manual.
C) Invited passengers, Cabin Crew members and JAA approved persons.
D) Cabin Crew members, JAA approved persons and personnel permitted by the Operations Manual.

Question 180 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is a dry lease?

A) Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew.

B) Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc.
C) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased.
D) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased.

Question 181 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For single-pilot operations, an RVR of less than ... is not permitted except when using a suitable
autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case the normal minima apply.

A) 1500m
B) 500m
C) 350m
D) 800m

Question 182 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

A) the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

B) a copy of the calculated take-off performances.
C) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
D) a copy of the weight and balance sheet.

Question 183 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If an operator specifies a minimum flight altitude for a route, it must be:

A Equal to or higher than the minimum flight altitudes specified by the State for the same route.
)
B) the transition level.
C) higher than the MEA.
D) equal to or lower than the minimum altitude specified by the State over which the flight is being
flown.

uestion 184 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?

A) 150m.
B) 200m.
C) 75m.
D) 100m.

Question 185 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the circling minima for a Cat A aeroplane?

A) 2400 m.
B) 1600 m.
C) 1500 m.
D) 3600 m.

Question 186 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Subject to the approval of the authority and provided that other requirements are satisfied (e.g. LVP
are in force, ...), an operator of an aeroplane using an approved lateral guidance system for take-off
may reduce the take-off minima to an RVR less than...

A) 75m for category A,B and C aeroplanes or 125m for category D aeroplanes but not lower than
25m.
B) 250m for category A,B and C aeroplanes or 125m for category D aeroplanes but not lower than
75m.
C) 125m for category A,B and C aeroplanes or 150m for category D aeroplanes but not lower than
 75m.
D) 50m for category A,B and C aeroplanes or 75m for category D aeroplanes but not lower than 25m.

Question 187 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements are correctly describes what an operator must demonstrate before
the issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC)?

1. Organisation, method of control and supervision of flight operations

2. Training programmes
3. Maintenance arrangements

A) 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 1 and 3

Question 188 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In calculating Aerodrome Operating Minima, which of the following obstacles are taken into
consideration?

A Obstacles in the approach and missed approach area.

)
B) Obstacles in the climb-out areas over 495ft AGL.
C) Obstacles 8 km on either side of the approach track.
D) All obstacles within 15 km of the threshold over 495ft AMSL.

Question 189 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A destination alternative (diversion) aerodrome must be specified for:

A) Any flight for public transport over 40km.

B Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made.
)
C) Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned.
D) A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists.

Question 190 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Pilots and members of flight crews are to be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures
applicable to:

A) the national civil aviation authority of the State of Registration.

B) the airspace of all JAA states.
C) the aerodromes they are using and the procedures applicable to the airspace in which they are
flying.
D) Customs, health and Immigration of all ICAO Contracting States.

Question 191 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Typical subjects which can be found in the aircraft flight manual are:

A) emergency procedures, normal procedures, checklists and maintenance records.

B normal and abnormal operating procedures, checklists and aircraft system details.
)
C) emergency procedures and navigation documentation.
D) checklists and first aid procedures.

Question 192 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An incident report should be submitted to the authority:

A) within 48 hours of the event.

B) within 7 days of the event.
C) within 72 hours of the event.
D) within 24 hours of the event.

Question 192 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An incident report should be submitted to the authority:

A) within 48 hours of the event.

B) within 7 days of the event.
C) within 72 hours of the event.
D) within 24 hours of the event.

Question 194 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?

A) 75 m.
B) No minimum.
C) 100 m.
D) 50 m.

Question 195 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where there are no facilities at an aerodrome the minimum take-off RVR is:

A) 500 m.
B) 700 m.
C) 600 m.
D) 400 m.

Question 196 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A person qualified to taxi an aeroplane must have received instruction from a competent person
concerning which of the following:

1. aerodrome layout
2. signs
3. markings
4. ATC signals and instructions

A) 1 and 4 only.
B) 2, 3 and 4 only.
C) 4 only.
D) all of the above.

Question 197 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a medium then a light aeroplane on the approach, what is the required separation?
A) 1 min
B) 4 mins.
C) 2 mins.
D) 3 mins.

Question 198 of 782 PREV | NEXT

DH is used in a:

A) Centred approach.
B) Non precision approach.
C) Precision approach.
D) Uncentred approach.

Question 199 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Circling is defined as:

A) a procedure allied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during CAT II and
CAT III approaches.
B) the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a
runway which is suitably located for a straight-in approach.
C) the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a
runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.
D) the visual phase of an visual approach to bring an aeroplane into a position for landing on a runway
which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.

Question 200 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat D aircraft on a circling approach?

A) 2400m.
B) 1500m.
C) 3600m.
D) 1600m.

Question 201 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When must the No Smoking Sign be illuminated:

A) None of the above.

B) Take-off and landing.
C) When oxygen is being supplied to the cabin.
D) When oxygen containers are carried in the passenger compartment.

Question 202 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360 feet,
horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres.
The pilot may start the final approach:.

A) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.
B) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.
C) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day
and 360 feet at night.
D) whatever the ceiling given by ATC.
uestion 203 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left,
will first see the:

A) green flashing light.

B) red steady light.
C) white steady light.
D) green steady light.

Question 204 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following general statements are applicable for CAT II and CAT III operations?

A the flight crew consist of at least two pilots, the operations are approved by the authority and the
) DH is determined by the radio altimeter.
B) each aircraft is certified for operations with DH below 200ft, the RVR must be less than 150m and
medium intensity approach lights are available.
C) the operations are approved by the operator, the MDH determined by a radio altimeter and the
flight crew consists of at least two pilots.
D) the aerodrome is approved for low visibility operations and the pilots are at least CAT I qualified.

Question 205 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following is not an area designated as one requiring the carriage of special emergency
equipment:

A) Jungle.
B) Desert.
C) Equatorial.
D) Maritime.

Question 206 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the angle of the red navigation light?

A) 110° .
B) 70° .
C) 140° .
D) 90° .

Question 207 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Above what height must equipment to measure the dose rate of cosmic radiation be carried:

A) 49.000 ft
B) 60.000 ft
C) 30.000 ft
D) 55.000 ft

Question 208 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may only be commenced if
the ... can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the
required minimum.

A) aerodrome control tower

B) commander
C) meteorological office
D) operator

Question 209 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Regarding the FDR and CVR, which of the following statements is true:

A) A FDR shall be capable of retaining recorded information for at least the last 24 hours of operation.
B) A Type I recorder retains information recorded during the last 30 minutes of operation.
C) All commercial aircraft above 15.000 kg have to carry both a FDR and CVR.
D) The CVR monitors all human voice exchanges on the flight deck throughout the flight keeping the
last 30 minutes as a hard copy.

Question 210 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following is not required to be certified by the pilot before a flight commences?

A The number of meals is at least equal to the number of boarded passengers.

)
B) The load is distributed and secured properly.
C) A maintenance release has been issued for the aeroplane.
D) The mass and centre of gravity position are such that the flight can be conducted safely.

uestion 211 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a flight conducted under IFR the pilot must request and receive a clearance form ATC this request
for clearance must include the following basic items:

A) the departure aerodrome, the departure aerodrome alternate, the route and cruise altitude and
speed, destination, destination alternate.
B) None of the above.
C) the departure aerodrome, the departure aerodrome alternate, destination, destination alternate.
D) the departure aerodrome, the departure aerodrome alternate, the route, destination, destination
alternate.

Question 212 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?

A) Performed at least 9 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days.

B) Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in the previous 90
days.
C) Performed at least 3 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days.
D) Performed a flight in the previous 90 days.

Question 213 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

A) Have facilities for all maintenance.

B) Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.
C) Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.
D) Have registered offices in all countries of operations.

Question 214 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum recent experience for an aircraft commander?

A) Two simulator flights in the last 12 months.

B) Three take-offs landings in the preceding 90 days .
C) One take-off and landing in the preceding 90 days.
D) Three simulator flights in the preceding 90 days.

Question 215 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Actions taken by the flight operations officer or flight dispatcher shall not conflict with procedures
established by:

A) ICAO.
B) operator.
C) ATC.
D) ATC, meteorological service or communication service.

Question 216 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for completing the journey log or the general declaration?

A The pilot in command.

)
B) The purser.
C) The operator.
D) The flight engineer.

Question 217 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a
single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:

A) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the
type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
B 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the
) type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
C) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the
type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
D) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the
type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

Question 218 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Passengers can be accommodated only in:

A) areas in which access is not permitted on the ground.

B) parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried.
C) areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose.
D) areas in which cargo is not carried.

Question 219 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A lifejacket must be provided for each person on board:

A) all of the above.

B) when flying en-route over water beyond gliding distance from the shore in the case of all other
landplanes.
C) when flying over water and at a distance of more than 93 km away from the shore in the case of
 engine failure on a single engined aircraft.
D) when taking-off and landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the State of the Operator,
the take-off path is over water and in the event of a mishap there would be a likelihood of ditching.

Question 220 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Among the requirements to be satisfied for the issue of an Air Operators certificate are:

1. Aeroplanes operated must have a Certificate of Airworthiness.

2. The maintenance system has been approved by the authority.
3. The authority is satisfied that the operator has the ability to:
i. Establish and maintain an adequate organisation
ii. Establish and maintain a quality system in accordance with JAR
iii. Comply with required training programmes
iv. Comply with maintenance requirements
v. Comply with the conditions of the said AOC.
4. All flight crew have licences issued by an ICAO contracting state.
5. The operator has submitted the appropriate fees to the responsible authority.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 221 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a fail-passive flight control system...

A) the autopilot must be switched after a primary system failure.

B the pilot assumes control of the aeroplane after failure.
)
C) the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically in the event of a failure below alert
height.
D) the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-operational system in the event of a failure.

Question 222 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is required for navigation in IMC?

A) Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point.
B) One VHF box and one HF box.
C) Anti-icing equipment.
D) A serviceable weather radar.

Question 223 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only
if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

A 1500m.
)
B) 3600m.
C) 2400m.
D) 1600m.

Question 224 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The applicability of the JAR-OPS within JAA member countries:

A) Applies to Flight Crew Licensing (FCL) only.

B) Is an addition to local rules and procedures.
C) Is an addition to the rules set out in ICAO Annex 6.
D) Applies to legislation and dictation of aviation rules, regulations and procedures.

Question 225 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aerodrome is suitable as a take-off alternate if:

A) For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator or the
State of registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (i.e. no circling
approaches).
B Weather conditions must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off.
)
C) The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure.
D) It must be capable of CAT IIIA operations.

Question 226 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When are passengers briefed on the use of oxygen for a flight that is planned to operate at FL 290.

A) Before reaching 10.000ft.

B Before T/O.
)
C) Before reaching 14.000ft.
D) Before reaching 29.000ft.

Question 227 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When an aircraft is dry leased by operator A to operator B the subsequent flights are conducted under
the AOC of operator:

A) A and B[AFT2]
B) B whilst complying with any specific requirements of A
C) B
D) A

Question 228 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category A aerodrome should not have a circling minima above:

A) 2000 ft
B) 1000 ft.
C) 500 ft.
D) 1500 ft.

Question 229 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an
alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

A) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

B) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
C) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
D) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
Question 230 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

A) operation manual.
B) operational flight plan.
C) flight manual.
D) journey logbook.

Question 231 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Passengers are to be secured in their seats by means of seatbelts or harnesses during take-off and
landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?

A) During climb and descent.

B) During a practice emergency.
C) Whenever it is considered necessary.
D) Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined.

Question 232 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach has a Decision
Height of less than 100 feet and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:

A) 300 m.
B) 250 m.
C) 200 m.
D) 230 m.

Question 233 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane shall carry:

A) the flight manual for the aeroplane, unless the performance data is contained in the ops manual.
B) the maintenance records of the aeroplane.
C) World-wide chart coverage.
D) the maintenance manuals and wiring diagrams.

uestion 234 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-off?

A) The State of the Operator.

B) The Operator.
C) The Commander.
D) The Senior Flight Attendant.

Question 235 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flights?

1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)

2. Mass and balance Documentation
3. NOTAMS
4. The Technical Log
5. Maps and Charts
6. Passenger and cargo manifests.
A) All are required except 3.
B) All are required except 1.
C) All are required except 6.
D) All are required except 4.

Question 236 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Any operator is required to grant the Authority access to the organisation and the aeroplanes. What is
the purpose of this?

A) To ensure continued compliance with JAR23.

B) To ensure the restrictions of the AOC are being complied with.
C) To ensure continued compliance with JAR-145.
D) To ensure continued compliance with JAR-OPS.

Question 237 of 782 PREV | NEXT

SVFR may not be commenced when the visibility is less than:

A) 6 km
B) 3 km
C) 5 km
D) 1.5 km

Question 238 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following is valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome:

A 2 hours or less flying time at one engine out cruise speed for a 4 engined aeroplane.
)
B) Not less than 1.5 hours flying distance for 3 engined aeroplane with one engine out.
C) Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3 engined aeroplane with one engine out.
D) Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin engined aeroplane.

Question 239 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the ditching requirements over water
further away from a suitable landing field than:

A) 300nm or 90min at cruise speed.

B) 100nm or 30min at cruise speed.
C) 400nm or 120min at cruise speed.
D) 200nm or 45min at cruise speed.

Question 240 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device, which is
adversely affecting the aircrafts electrical avionics. The captain must:

A Stop the passenger from using the device.

)
B) Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing.
C) Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing.
D) Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions.

Question 241 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Position reports from aeroplanes flying organised routes are to be made:

A) every hour.
B) every 150 NM.
C) whenever dangerous meteorological conditions are experienced.
D) at the designated reporting points.

Question 242 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When calculating the length of the runway available:

A) the stopway has to be taken into account.

B) the runway slope has to be taken into account.
C) the distance lost in lining up the aircraft has to be taken into account.
D) the clearway has to be taken into account.

Question 243 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An AOC may be revoked, suspended or varied if the Authority deems it necessary. On what grounds
can this action be taken?

A) If the Quality System is not ISO 9000 approved.

B) If the operator is no longer a member of IATA.
C) If the operator is unable to comply with the safety requirements.
D) After an accident with serious injuries.

Question 244 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of a VOR/DME is not lower than:

A) 150ft.
B 250ft.
)
C) 200ft.
D) 300ft.

Question 245 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate (diversion) aerodrome for use in
the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:

A) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel.

B) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough for landing.
C) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods.
D) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome are below minima.

Question 246 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The operator must nominate post holders, acceptable to the authority for:

A flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.

)
B) flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration.
C) flight operations, crew training, administration, corporate finance.
D) flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations.
Question 247 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The completed Journey Log Book should be retained for a period of at least:

A) Two years.
B Three Months.
)
C) Six months.
D) Twelve months.

Question 248 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To taxi an aeroplane, the person at the controls must be:

A) a JAR l45 qualified engineer.

B) checked out on the aircraft type.
C) a qualified ATPL holder.
D) authorised by the operator.

Question 249 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Airborne weather radar is required on the following aircraft:

1. All piston powered aircraft.

2. All pressurized aircraft.
3. All turbo-prop powered aircraft.
4. If the aircraft mass is greater than 5700kg or has more than 9 seats.
5. All jet engined aircraft.

A 2, 4
)
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 5

Question 250 of 782 PREV | NEXT

With reference to the retention of documents how long must command course records be kept by the
operator:

A) 15 months.
B) 3 years.
C) 3 months.
D) 24 months.

Question 251 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least?

A) 250 m.
B 75 m.
)
C) 200 m.
D) 150 m.

Question 252 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight operations officer (or flight dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible for:

A) compiling the operational flight plan.

B) passenger assistance during disembarking.
C) loading the aeroplane.
D) assisting the pilot in command in flight preparation, and provide required information.

Question 253 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device
suspected to disturb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

A) authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.

B) authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
C) may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.
D) must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.

uestion 254 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The NO SMOKING sign must be illuminated:

A) during climb and descent.

B) during take off and landing.
C) when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
D) in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.

Question 255 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where can you carry safety matches?

i. On your person
ii. Hand baggage
iii. Checked in luggage

A) (i) & (ii)

B) (ii) & (iii)
C) (i), (ii) & (iii)
D) (i) & (iii)

Question 256 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for ensuring that no person acts recklessly or negligently, so as to endanger an
aeroplane or the persons on board, or to permit an aeroplane to endanger persons or property?

A) The Authority of the State of Registration.

B) The Commander.
C) The Authority of the State of the Operator.
D) The Operator.

Question 257 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a category E aeroplane, the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat) is:

A) less than 91 knots.

B) from 91 - 120 knots.
C) from 121 - 140
 knots.
D) from 166 - 210
knots.

Question 258 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A CAT IIIB operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with:

A) a DH lower than 100ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 200m.
B) a DH lower than 50ft or no DH, and a RVR lower than 200m but not less than 75m.
C) a DH lower than 200ft, and a runway visual range of not less than 100m.
D) a DH lower than 25ft or no DH, and a RVR lower than 50m but not less than 15m.

Question 259 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A wet lease out to a non-JAA member organisation means:

A) A JAA operator provides the aeroplane plus Cabin Crew.

B) A JAA operator provides the aeroplane plus Cockpit Crew.
C) A JAA operator provides the aeroplane plus Cockpit Crew and the non JAA organisation provides
the Cabin Crew.
D) A JAA operator provides the aeroplane complete while retaining all the functions and
responsibilities as the operator of the aeroplane.

Question 260 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is an ATC System Loop Error?

A) An error caused by a misunderstanding between the pilot and the controller regarding assigned
flight level.
B) An error caused by a misunderstanding between the pilot and the controller regarding assigned
route to be followed.
C) All of these statements are true.
D) An error caused by a misunderstanding between the pilot and the controller regarding assigned
Mach- number.

Question 261 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Commanders of aircraft are to have on board essential information for the route to be flown which
covers:

A) Customs and Excise regulations for all destinations and diversion aerodromes.
B) Landing and navigation fees applicable.
C) Agreements (multi-lateral or bi-lateral) relating to International Air Transport.
D) Search and Rescue.

Question 262 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to JAR OPS, a transport aircraft carrying passengers with a door to the flight deck must:

A) Have distinctive red or yellow access marks in case of blockage.

B) Be lockable from the outside.
C) Be lockable from the inside to prevent unauthorised access.
D) Have a pressure seal to maintain pressure in event of cabin pressure loss.

Question 263 of 782 PREV | NEXT

JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights,
that:

A) for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at
least (clear of cloud).
B) for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least.
C) for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least.
D) special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km.

Question 264 of 782 PREV | NEXT

It is recommended that the journey log book should he retained:

A) for 2 years.
B) to provide a continuous record of the last 6 months operations.
C) for one month.
D) only if required by the authority.

Question 265 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort
the approach?

A) Outer Marker.
B) FAF.
C) Inner Marker.
D) Start of the glide-slope descent.

Question 266 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When may the operating minima for an aerodrome be exceeded?

A) In an emergency.
B) When authorised by the aerodrome control tower.
C) When authorised by the authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located.
D) When authorised by the operator.

Question 267 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Passengers are required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets on what occasions:

A) If the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required.

B) When the Commander authorises the use of life jackets.
C) Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely.
D) When required by the Operator.

Question 268 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that
system minima for non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without
glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

A) VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH-300 ft.

B) NDB facility, lowest MDH-300 ft.
C) ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH-200 ft.
D) VOR facility, lowest MDH-250 ft.
Question 269 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Smoking on board of an aeroplane:

A) is only allowed in the toilets and in the aisle.

B is not allowed in those areas of the cabin where oxygen is being supplied and outside designated
) smoking areas.
C) is always allowed.
D) is never allowed.

Question 270 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?

A) In case of cabin fire.

B) During an instrument approach where the RVR is well below the minimum RVR required.
C) For routine take-offs and landings.
D) In IMC.

Question 271 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft landing mass shall be such that .... and .... criteria can be met.

A) physiological, performance.
B) structural, meteorological.
C) noise abatement, meteorological.
D) structural, performance.

Question 272 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The content of an OFP is detailed in which document?

A) The operations manual.

B) The AIP of the State of registration.
C) ICAO Annex 6.
D) JAR-OPS 1.

Question 273 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Passengers are to be briefed before take-off on safety matters and also receive a demonstration of
certain items. Which of the following must be demonstrated?

1. Location and use of oxygen equipment.

2. Emergency door opening.
3. Use of safety belts.
4. Emergency lighting.
5. Use and location of life jackets.
6. Location and use of medical equipment.

A) 2, 4,
6
B) 1, 3,
5
C) 4, 5,
6
D) 1, 2,
3
Question 274 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flying to Europe in MNPS at 1000UTC crossing 0300W:

A In random airspace.
)
B) Out of organised route track system.
C) In flight route night system.
D) In flight route day system.

Question 275 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In MNPS Airspace between FL285 and FL410 inclusive, what is the vertical separation?

A) 2000ft.
B) 500ft.
C) 1000ft.
D) 1500ft.

Question 276 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great
circle. The flight must be planned to take place:

A) outside scheduled flight times.

B) at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
C) at flight level FL 280 or less.
D) at a Mach number of 0.70 or
less.

Question 277 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

A) increased manoeuvring limits.

B) increased Mach number stability.
C) reduced range.
D) increased flight envelope.

Question 278 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of
the true North pole, the true orientation of the great circle linking point 62° N 010° E to point 66° N
050° W is 305° . The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:

A) 298° .
B) 292° .
C) 301° .
D) 295° .

Question 279 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the required RVR for CAT IIIA operations?

A 200m
)
B) 1500m
C) 1.000m
D) 150m

Question 280 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When flying above optimum altitude:

A) range reduces.
B) range increases.
C) mach number stability increases.
D) flight envelope increases.

Question 281 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which combination of the following documents relevant to a flight, are to be retained in a file on the
ground?

1. Mass and balance documentation.

2. Company NOTAM Documentation.
3. Relevant parts of the Aircraft Technical log.
4. Appropriate meteorological information.
5. Performance calculations.

A 1, 2, 3
)
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 2, 3, 5

Question 282 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter
shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:

A) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating.

B) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative.
C) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative.
D) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating.

Question 283 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290
and FL410 inclusive is:

A) 500 ft.
B) 1500 ft.
C) 2000ft.
D) 1000 ft.

Question 284 of 782 PREV | NEXT

RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of plus or minus ... NM on a ... percent containment basis.

A) 4, 90
B) 2, 90
C) 4, 95
D) 6, 95
Question 285 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which combination of the following correctly details the factors that should be considered by an
Operator when determining MFA:

1. Possible inaccuracies in charts for the route.

2. Characteristics of the terrain to be over-flown.
3. The composition of the flight crew.
4. The likelihood of encountering unfavourable weather.
5. Altimeter inaccuracies.
6. Airspace restrictions.
7. Navigation inaccuracies.

A All except 3.
)
B) All except 1, 3 and 5.
C) All except 1 and 3.
D) All the above.

Question 286 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance
but able to maintain altitude:

A) Climb 500ft.
B) Climb or descend 500ft.
C) Descend 500ft.
D) Turn left or right and climb 1.000ft/descend
500ft.

Question 287 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its
aligned with meridian 180° , the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard
grid). The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg-280° , the position is 80° S 100° E. The true
course followed at this moment is:

A) 080°
B) 000°
C) 100°
D) 260°

Question 288 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The current standard for RNP in Europe is:

A) RNP 1 where an aeroplane must not be flown more than 5 nm from the centre line of the route at
all times.
B RNP 5 where an aeroplane must not be flown more than 5 nm from the centre line of the route at
) all times.
C) RNP 1 where an aeroplane must not be flown more than 5 km from the centre line of the route at
all times
D) RNP 5 where an aeroplane must not be flown more than 5 km from the centre line of the route at
all times.

Question 289 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In category I operations when an aerodrome is said to have intermediate facilities these:

A) intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 m or less of HI/MI approach lights, runway
edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
B) intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, HI/MI approach lights, runway edge lights,
threshold lights and runway end lights..
C) intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach lights, runway
edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
D) intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420-719 m of HI/MI approach lights, runway
edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on.

Question 290 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to
maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route
and climb 1.000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:

A) above FL 410.
B) at FL 430.
C) at FL410.
D) below FL 410.

Question 291 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which equation relates to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where gm = ch long,
Lm = mean lat, Lo = tangent of mean lat)

A) 15 x 2(Lo - Lm).
B) 15 x sin Lm.
C) gm x sin Lm.
D) gm x 2(Lo - Lm).

Question 292 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations
in NAT region is:

A) 118.5 MHz.
B) 123.45
MHz.
C) 243 MHz.
D) 121.5 MHz.

Question 293 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, the pilot must:

A) join one of the so-called special routes.

B) change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.
C) continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
D) return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledge by him.

Question 294 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is PTS?

A) Polar Transmission System.

B) Pacific Track System.
C) Polar Track System.
D) Pacific True System.

Question 295 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following factors affect aircraft performance:

A) mass, pressure altitude, density of birds.

B mass, temperature, wind.
)
C) temperature, wind and water density.
D) runway gradient and airfield opening hours.

Question 296 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054° W, with
Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330° .
At position 80° N 140° E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:

A) 164° .
B) 136° .
C) 276° .
D) 316° .

Question 297 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An air traffic control unit may request an aircraft to report its position when flying east-west north of
700N between 100W and 500W, every:

A) 10° of longitude.
B) 15° of longitude.
C) 5° of longitude.
D) 20° of longitude.

Question 298 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the number of long range navigation systems to be carried on board for unrestricted
operations in the MNPSA?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2

Question 299 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Regarding ETOPS what additional points should be considered compared to a non-ETOPS aircraft?

A) Performance requirements.
B) The availability of an ATC facility only.
C) The availability of an ATC facility and one let down aid?
D) Handling services.
Question 300 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The North Atlantic MNPS is based on:

A) ICAO 7030 Doc.

B) States Common Rules 7050 Doc.
C) Canadian territory since it has the largest territorial
waters.
D) States Bordering Rules 6530 Doc.

Question 301 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the lowest decision height for CAT II operations?

A 100ft
)
B) 200ft
C) 50ft
D) 150ft

Question 302 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

A) 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.

B) 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
C) 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
D) 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

Question 303 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, you expect to cross the 30° W meridian at 1000 UTC; you will normally be:

A in random airspace.
)
B) in a day flight route system.
C) in a night flight route system.
D) out of the organised route system.

Question 304 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical
information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time.
Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:

A) 24 months.
B) 15 months.
C) 12 months.
D) 3 months.

Question 305 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The longitudinal separation minima currently used in the NAT MNPSA are based on:

A) kilometres.
B) nautical miles.
C) clock minutes.
D) degrees.

Question 306 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Astronomic precession:

A) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere.
B) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere.
C) is zero at the South pole.
D) is zero at the North pole.

Question 307 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The take-off alternate has to be within which of the following distances from the aerodrome of
departure:

A) For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of four hours at
the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed.
B) For an aeroplane with two engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of 30 minutes at the one
engine inoperative engine cruise speed.
C) For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours at
the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed.
D) For an aeroplane with two engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the one
engine inoperative engine cruise speed.

Question 308 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft flying in unrestricted MNPS requires:

A) 2 INS + Decca.
B 2 INS.
)
C) 1 INS.
D) 3 INS.

Question 309 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the
corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK which is equal to:

A) none.
B) wind at K.
C) mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
D) mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.

Question 310 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is:

A) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed.

B) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled.
C) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not).
D) subject to a mandatory clearance.

uestion 311 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when
operating in MNPS airspace?

A) 90 NM lateral and 1.000 ft vertical.

B 60 NM lateral and 1.000 ft vertical.
)
C) 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
D) 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

Question 312 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the
inertial navigation system (INS) is 045° . After switching to magnetic mode, the compass heading is
220° . The INS position at this moment is 76° N 180° W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10° E.
The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

A) +5° .
B) -15° .
C) -5° .
D) +15° .

Question 313 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How do you calculate Conversion Angle?

A) 1/2 Ch long x cos lat.

B 1/2 Ch long x sin lat.
)
C) Ch long x sin lat.
D) Ch long x cos lat.

Question 314 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The net flight path gradient in the event of an engine failure must be:

A) 1500 feet negative above the aerodrome.

B) 1500 feet positive above the aerodrome.
C) 1000 feet positive above the aerodrome
D) 1300 feet positive above the aerodrome.

Question 315 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

A) indicated airspeed.
B) true airspeed.
C) Mach number.
D) ground speed.

Question 316 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On reaching the Shanwick OCA to fly in MNPSA, you have not yet received your clearance:

A) Maintain a track 30nm laterally spaced from your flight plan track.
B) Maintain your flight plan track but 500ft above or below your planned flight level.
C) Enter on your flight planned track and flight level and await a late clearance.
D) Stay outside controlled airspace until you have received your clearance.

uestion 317 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the Greenwich
Meridian. The gyro is aligned with grid north, heading 120° , at 1400UTC at latitude 600N. Take-off is
delayed until 1630UTC, gyro not corrected for rate pre:

A) -73.50
B) +32.50
C) +130
D) -32.50

Question 318 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to
maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route
and climb or descend 500 ft, if:

A below FL 410.
)
B) at FL 430.
C) at FL 410.
D) above FL 410.

Question 319 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

A 27° North to 90° North.

)
B) 30° North to 90° North.
C) 27° North to 70° North.
D) 30° North to 70° North.

Question 320 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum required vertical separation in MNPS Airspace?

A) 1000ft.
B) 500ft.
C) 4000ft.
D) 2000ft.

Question 321 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What are the vertical limits of MNPS Airspace?

A) FL245 to FL450.
B) FL290 to FL410.
C) FL285 to FL410.
D) FL285 to FL420.
Question 322 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft leaves point P (60° N 030° W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass,
which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000° .
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62° N 010° W) on a true heading equal to 095° . On the journey from
P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro
heading at Q will be:

A) 003° .
B) 328° .
C) 334° .
D) 345° .

Question 323 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Contingency in MNPSA but cannot maintain assigned flight level.

A) Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 60nm.

B) Descend below FL275.
C) Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 30nm.
D) Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 90nm.

Question 324 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport
precession is equal to:

A) 15° /h.sin Lm.

B g.sin Lm.
)
C) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo).
D) g/2.sin Lm.

Question 325 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude
increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase
during the flight in order to fly:

A) just below the optimum altitude.

B) about the lock-on altitude.
C) between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude.
D) about the optimum altitude.

Question 326 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian, a track is drawn from
620N 0100E to 660N 0500W. If the initial True track was 305° , what was the initial grid track.

A) 285° .
B) 295° .
C) 315° .
D) 305° .

Question 327 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

A) Flying above 3000 ft.

B) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.
C) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
D) Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.

Question 328 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro
North with respect to the:

A) magnetic North.
B true North.
)
C) grid North.
D) compass North.

Question 329 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

A) Below FL290.
B) Between FL275 and FL400.
C) Between FL245 and FL410.
D) Between FL290 and FL410.

Question 330 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and
Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction
device. The gyro- magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59° 57N 010°
30E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and
the gyro heading reading 120° . A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose
mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off. The error (E) at the time of alignment
on this runway will be:

A) +13° .
B) +32.5° .
C) -32.5° .
D) +73.5° .

Question 331 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When in MNPS and the final LRNS fails, the pilot should:

A) Ask ATC for permission to follow another aeroplane.

B) Climb/descend 1.000ft.
C) Contact ATC and await a reply within a reasonable period of time.
D) Turn left or right through 90° and parallel track by 30nm.

Question 332 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If the whole flight is in MNPSA on the organised track system, what should be entered on the flight
plan?

A) PTS plus daily code.

B) Position at every 10 deg latitude.
C) NAT plus daily code.
D) OTS plus daily code.

Question 333 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When leaving MNPS airspace and you have lost communications, what Mach No do you select?

A) Your flight plan Mach No.

B) The Mach No to make good the next EET.
C) The TAS as submitted on your flight plan.
D) Your last cleared Mach No.

Question 334 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:

A) 10 minutes.
B) 20 minutes.
C) 5 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.

Question 335 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatory have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:

A) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption.

B) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.
C) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.
D) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption.

Question 336 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a propeller driven aeroplane, sufficient fuel must he carried to cater for flight to:

A) the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then
remain airborne for a further 30 minutes.
B) the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then
remain airborne for a further 15 minutes.
C) the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then
remain airborne for a further 60 minutes.
D) the nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and then
remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.

Question 337 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS
(Organised Track System) must be done:

A) At or prior entering the NAT region.

B) When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
C) Prior entering the NAT region.
D) As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.

Question 338 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Considering additional take off requirements regarding aeroplane mass:

A) The performance Take off distance required shall be considered.

B In determining the runway length available account shall be taken of any loss encountered due to
) the alignment of the aeroplane.
C) The wind effect on any adjacent runways to see if they would be more suitable for take-off in the
event of wake turbulence being encountered.
D) The published full length of the runway shall be considered.

Question 339 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If, during a flight, the Commander wishes to change the profile of a cleared flight plan, he must:

A) Do nothing until ATC clears the change.

B) Inform the Authority within 10 days.
C) Inform ATC.
D) Inform the Operator.

Question 340 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For optimum performance for an aeroplane, a step cruise climb is performed. What is the best level to
climb to?

A) Below lock on level.

B) Around optimum level.
C) Between lock on and optimum levels.
D) Around lock on level.

Question 341 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-
off mass exceeding 8.618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19
passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be
reached within:

A) 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

B) 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
C) 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
D) 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Question 342 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You plan to fly from point A (60° N 010° E) to point B (60° N 020° E). The gyro North of the gyro
compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true
North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight
time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:

A) 085° .
B) 080° .
C) 076° .
D) 066° .

Question 343 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the maximum time from an adequate aerodrome that a two-engined aeroplane without ETOPS
approval, with more than 19 seats and MTOM of 6.813 kg, may fly?

A) 120 mm flying time at a one engine inoperative cruising speed in still air conditions.
B) 90 mm flying time at a one engine inoperative cruising speed in still air conditions.
C) 180 mm flying time at a one engine inoperative cruising speed in still air conditions.
D) 60 min flying time at a one engine inoperative cruising speed in still air conditions.

Question 344 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is WATRS?

A) West Atlantic Route System.

B) West American Transition service.
C) Weight for Altitude and Temperature Requirements.
D) West Atlantic Reduced Separation.

Question 345 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The VHF frequency for communication between aeroplanes flying in the MNPSA to facilitate exchange
of aeronautical information is:

A) 131.150 MHz.
B) 108.000 MHz.
C) 131.800 MHz.
D) 121.500 MHz.

Question 346 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:

A) Dependent on chart being used.

B) Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air
C) Independent of latitude.
D) Zero on the ground.

Question 347 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft is scheduled to operate to a destination where the weather reports and forecasts indicate
the runway likely to be used at the expected time of arrival may be wet. The landing distance
available compared to the required landing distance on a dry runway is to be:

A) at least 115%.
B) 150%.
C) the same.
D) 200% greater.

Question 348 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is meant by the abbreviation RNP5?

A) A mandatory maximum across track mileage allowable deviation for 5% of the Total flight time.
B) In-flight ways of fixing the position of the aeroplane.
C) As dictated in the ATC clearance.
D) Rules for non-standard route planning.

Question 349 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination or one of the destination alternates
would not be possible within the established minima, then:
A) The flight may commence if the operator authorises reduced minima.
B) The flight may commence provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will remain open
throughout the duration of the flight.
C) The flight may not commence.
D) The flight may commence providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising fuel) is
carried as a contingency load.

Question 350 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is:

A) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

B 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
)
C) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
D) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

Question 351 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You
turn left or right and get a 30 nm. separation from your assigned track. Do you then:

A) Climb 1.000 ft or descend 500 ft

B) Climb or descend I.000 ft.
C) Maintain your flight plan level.
D) Climb or descend 500 ft.

Question 352 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

A) 121.800 MHz.
B) 118.800 MHz.
C) 128.800 MHz.
D) 123.450 MHz.

Question 353 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The WARS is the area to the east of ... extending eastwards to ... and south to...

A) Shanwick, 60W, 27N

B) Gander, 27W, 60N
C) New York, 60W, 27N
D) San Francisco, 60W, 27N

Question 354 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the
longitudinal spacing must be at least:

A) 15 minutes.
B) 10 minutes.
C) 20 minutes.
D) 5 minutes.
Question 355 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When planning a minimum time route, the air isochrone is taken over the ground isochrone and wind
vector KK is plotted from point K (original point) to K to achieve heading and ground speed. What is
the wind used?

A) Wind at K.
B) Mean wind from the next isochrone.
C) Mean wind from proceeding ground isochrone.
D) None of the above

Question 356 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A minimum altitude is to be calculated to cater for the engine inop case such that the net flight path
gives a vertical clearance of ... above all terrain obstacles within ... on either side of the intended
track.

A 2000 ft, 5 NM.

)
B) 2000 ft, 9 NM.
C) 1000 ft, 9 NM.
D) 1000 ft, 5 NM.

Question 357 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the true bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315° at
1840Z?

A) 000° .
B) 035° .
C) 180° .
D) 325° .

Question 358 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the Southern Hemisphere (1300E, 800S), grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian, aircraft is
heading 110° T, what is the grid heading?

A) 240°
B) 110°
C) 080°
D) 340°

Question 359 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a
MTOM of 8.600 kg be flown?

A) 90 minutes flying time.

B) 60 minutes flying time.
C) 120 minutes flying time.
D) 60 minutes at the one engine out speed.

Question 360 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be considered?

 1. Crew composition.
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information.
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area.
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway.
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane.

A) All of the above.

B) 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 2, 4, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3.

Question 361 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Due to demands of passengers, time zone differences and airport noise limitations, much of the North
Atlantic air traffic is made up of two major flows:

A) a westbound flow departing Europe in the evening, and an eastbound flow departing North America
in the morning.
B) a eastbound flow departing Europe in the morning, and an westbound flow departing North
America in the evening.
C) a westbound flow departing Europe in the morning, and an eastbound flow departing North
America in the evening.
D) a eastbound flow departing Europe in the evening, and an westbound flow departing North America
in the morning.

Question 362 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flying under VFR rules, an SSR unit is required:

A) As required by the route being flown.

B) Only in the aerodrome control zone.
C) Sets out how the equipment functions.
D) Only in controlled airspace.

Question 363 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If the grid datum is 0540W, position 800N 1400E and true heading of 330° , what is the grid heading?

A) 164° .
B) 136° .
C) 316° .
D) 276° .

Question 364 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across
the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft
not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

A Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or
) track.
B) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or
track.
C) Descend below FL275.
D) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or t

uestion 365 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30° W meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:

A) out of the organized flight track system.

B) within the organized night-time flight track system.
C) within the organized daytime flight track system.
D) in a random space.

Question 366 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In MNPSA north of 70° N, how frequently can ATC ask for you to report your position?

A) Every 10 degrees of longitude.

B) Every 10 degrees of latitude.
C) Every 5 degrees of latitude.
D) Every 20 degrees of longitude.

Question 367 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft
must be equipped with at least:

A) One Inertial Navigation System (INS).

B) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
C) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
D) Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

Question 368 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the case of a landing with one engine inoperative the available ROC shall be taken to be FPM less
than the gross ROC specified:

A) 100 FPM
B) 50 FPM
C) 450 FPM
D) 150 FPM

Question 369 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may
present a bird strike hazard, you must:

A) draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.
B) inform the other aircraft by radio.
C) inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.
D) immediately inform the appropriate ground station.

Question 370 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following documents contain information related to All Weather Operations (AWO)?

A) ECAC Doc17, JAR23, JAR-APU.

B) ICAO Doc1193, JAR-AWO and JAR-FCL.
C) ICAO Doc8168, JAR-AWO and ICAO Annex 6.
D) JAR25, ICAO Doc9365 and quality manual.

Question 371 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At 600N 0300W, the true heading is 090° and the Gyro is 000° . At 620N 0100W, the True heading is
095° and it has taken 1.5 hours to travel the distance. What will the Gyro read assuming no Latitude
Nut correction:

A) 3450
B) 0030
C) 3280
D) 3340

Question 372 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are you able to fly:

A) Laterally displaced from the OTS.

B) Outside the times of OTS.
C) You cannot fly the route.
D) At FL280 or below.

Question 373 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which errors in estimates minutes shall be reported by aircraft over flying the North Atlantic?

A) 5 or more.
B) 2 or more.
C) 10 or more.
D) 3 or more.

Question 374 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum RVR requirement for CAT I ILS approach is:

A) 500m
B) 550m
C) 350m
D) 800m

Question 375 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant
gyro heading, follow a:

A) straight map line.

B) rhumb line.
C) great circle line.
D) spherical flight segment.

Question 376 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator must select at least one destination alternate for each IFR flight unless:

A) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 9 hours.
B) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 12 hours.
C) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 6 hours.
D) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 3 hours.
Question 377 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An operator shall use Air Traffic Services:

A) Only if required by the AOC.

B) Need not use if the weather is VFR
C) Always whenever available.
D) At his/her discretion.

Question 378 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a performance Class C aeroplane, the minimum rate of climb (ROC) with all engines shall be:

A) 1.500 feet per minute.

B) 500 feet per minute.
C) 300 feet per minute.
D) 400 feet per minute.

Question 379 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You are at a latitude of 59057 N with a heading of 120° showing on a gyro compass. You experience a
delay of 2hrs 30mins; what is the effect on your compass?

A) 18.5° .
B) -18.5° .
C) 32.5° .
D) -32.5° .

Question 380 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if
the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least:

A) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival.

B) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival.
C) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival.
D) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival.

Question 381 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70° N
between 10° W and 50° W, every:

A) 15° of longitude.
B) 20° of longitude.
C) 10° of longitude.
D) 5° of longitude.

Question 382 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is:

A) 11H30 UTC to 19H00

UTC.
B) 01H00 UTC to 08H00
UTC.
C) 00H00 UTC to 08H00
 UTC.
D) 10H30 UTC to 19H00
UTC.

Question 383 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight to Europe is expected to be at 0300W at 0030UTC. Where will you be?

A) Random airspace.
B) Outside the organised track system.
C) Inside the night time organised track system.
D) Inside the daytime organised track system.

Question 384 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The validity period of a flight track system, organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during a westbound flight normally is:

A) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees

West.
B) 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees
West.
C) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees
West.
D) 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees
West.

Question 385 of 782 PREV | NEXT

While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude
parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshear in final phase you must:

A) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

B) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Va and try a precision landing.
C) maintain aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
D) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.

Question 386 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight crossing 0300W in MNPSA at 1100UTC will be:

A outside OTS.
)
B) in daytime OTS.
C) in random airspace.
D) in night time OTS.

Question 387 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving
aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:

A) true North for a given chart.

B) true North for any chart.
C) grid North for a given chart.
D) grid North for any chart.
Question 388 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What are the VFR operating minima in class E airspace?

A) VFR flights are not allowed in class E airspace.

B 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical distance from cloud, flight visibility of 8km above 10000ft
) AMSL and 5km below 10000ft AMSL.
C) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
D) 300m vertical distance from cloud, 8 km flight visibility.

Question 389 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30° W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:

A) within the organized daytime flight track system.

B out of the organized flight track system.
)
C) in a random space.
D) within the organized night-time flight track system.

Question 390 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Astronomic precession is:

A) existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying.

B) depending on the chart used.
C) zero when the aircraft is on the ground.
D) independent of the latitude.

Question 391 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the
earth magnetic field is less than:

A) 10 micro-tesla.
B 6 micro-tesla.
)
C) 17 micro-tesla.
D) 38 micro tesla.

Question 392 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following control areas are included in the MNPSA.

A all these control areas.

)
B) Santa Maria Oceanic (north of 27N).
C) Shanwick and Gander Oceanic.
D) Reykjavic (to the North pole) and New York Oceanic (north of 27N, but excluding the area west of
60W and south of 38.30N).

Question 393 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the minimum longitudinal separation between 2 aeroplanes flying at the same Mach number in
MNPS Airspace?

A) 15 minutes.
B) 20 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
D) 5 minutes.

Question 394 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Ignoring astronomical effects, wind and drift, what route will a constant gyro (in free mode) heading
follow?

A) Great circle.
B) Spherical route.
C) Rhumb line.
D) Loxodrome.

Question 395 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a destination alternate is not required for aeroplanes with turbine power units, the fuel and oil
carried must be at least sufficient to:

A) take into account all the contingencies specified by the operator.

B) fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the flight planned aerodrome at
standard conditions and to carry additional fuel for 15 minutes holding at 1500ft above
aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
C) fly to the aerodrome of destination specified in the operational flight plan.
D) fly to the flight planned destination and then remain airborne for 45 minutes.
Question 396
of 782 PREV | NEXT

When flying gyro on a transoceanic or polar flight near the North Pole, what is the precession due to:

A) Magnetic north.
B) True North
C) Grid North.
D) Compass north.

Question 397 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the
runway are given by the controller:

A the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.
)
B) the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.
C) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a
meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
precision approaches.
D) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750
metres.

Question 398 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a
non MNPS certified aircraft is:

A) forbidden in all cases.

B authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller.
)
C) authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems.
D) authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space.
Question 399 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A minimum time track is a:

A) great circle track.

B) rhumb line.
C) spherical capable flight segment.
D) track determined according to weather conditions.

Question 400 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a
nominated alternate are on:

A) arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time,
the operating minima for aerodrome use.
B) or above the minima between departure and the ETA.
C) departure equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use.
D) arrival equal to and above the operating minima for aerodrome use.

Question 401 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?

A) 60 mins at normal cruise speed.

B) 60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
C) 120 mins at one engine cruise speed.
D) 120 mins at normal cruise speed.

Question 402 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct
formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:

A) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo).

B g/2.sin Lm.
)
C) g.sin Lm.
D) 15° /h.sin Lm.

Question 403 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial
route, to reach a climb rate of at least:

A 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

)
B) 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.
C) 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.
D) 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

Question 404 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A minimum time track is defined as:

A) a NAT track established between two reporting points.
B) the shortest distance between two points.
C) the route that takes the shortest time between two points.
D) a great circle route between two points.

Question 405 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

A maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic
) clearance.
B) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
C) take any Mach number.
D) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

Question 405 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

A maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic
) clearance.
B) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
C) take any Mach number.
D) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

Question 407 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an aircraft which is not capable of continuing flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit
becoming inoperative at any point along the planned route will not be operated at a distance away
from land greater than that corresponding to:

A) 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nm whichever is the lesser.

B) 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nm whichever is the lesser.
C) 30 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nm whichever is the lesser.
D) 120 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nm whichever is the lesser.

Question 408 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When considering Wind Component for landing distance calculation the limits are:

A) Not more than 30% head and 60% tail.

B) Not more than 60% head and 120% tail.
C) Not more than 50% head and 150% tail.
D) Not more than 60% head and 70% tail.

Question 409 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this
moment is 315° . The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on
occurence of the failure is:
NOTE:
The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the
zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.

A) 325° .
B) 035° .
C) 180° .
D) 000° .

Question 410 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If your ETA at a significant point on a NAT track changes by how much must you inform ATC?

A) 10min or more.
B) 1min or more.
C) 3min or more.
D) 5min or more.

Question 411 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum lateral separation applied in the NAT region is...

A) 30 NM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 60 NM.
D) 15 NM.

Question 412 of 782 PREV | NEXT

MNPS is the abbreviation for:

A) Military Network Performance Structure.

B Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
)
C) Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
D) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.

Question 413 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A polar track is a route which part of the length crosses an area where the horizontal component of
the earths magnetic field is less than:

A 6 micro-teslas.
)
B) 17 micro-teslas.
C) 10 micro-teslas.
D) 38 micro-teslas.

Question 414 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The primary method of communications in the MNPSA between aeroplanes and the controlling
authority is by:

A HF SSB.
)
B) LF SSB.
C) GSM.
D) VHF SSB.

Question 415 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045° T;
your position is 760N 1800W, what is your grid heading?
A) 045°
B) 135°
C) 315°
D) 225°

Question 416 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct
formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal
to:

A) g.sin Lm.
B) g/2.sin Lm.
C) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo).
D) 15° /h.sin Lm.

Question 417 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The WATRS is the area to the east of ... extending eastwards to ... and south to ...

A) San Francisco, 60W, 27N.

B New York, 60W, 27N.
)
C) Gander, 27W, 60N.
D) Shanwick, 60W, 27N.

uestion 418 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In calculating AOM which of the following is/are taken into consideration:

A) Obstacles in the climb-out areas over 1 50m (495ft AGL).

B The height of obstacles in the missed approach area.
)
C) All obstacles within 15km of the threshold over lSOm (495ft AMSL).
D) Obstacles 8km either side of track

Question 419 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On a polar stereographic chart, with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and convergency of
10° W, true heading of 300° , what is grid heading?

A) 290° .
B) 010° .
C) 310° .
D) 300° .

Question 420 of 782 PREV | NEXT

En-route in a 3 or more engined aircraft and with 2 engines inoperative the maximum time the
aeroplane shall be away from an aerodrome is:

A) 300 nautical miles.

B) 120 minutes.
C) 90 minutes.
D) 60 minutes.

Question 421 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

A) immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.

B notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
)
C) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
D) request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.

Question 422 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When considering obstacle data to be calculated the situations to be reviewed are:

A) Go round and minimum circling altitude

B) Take off, Landing and go around.
C) Take off and landing only.
D) Take off, en-route, landing and go around.

Question 423 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

A) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority.
B) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
C) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer.
D) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.

Question 424 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who issues and updates the MEL?

A) The manufacturer.
B) The designer.
C) The authority.
D) The operator.

Question 425 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

A) the aircraft state of registry.

B) the aircraft manufacturers
list.
C) the operator.
D) the manufacturer.

Question 426 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures
can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up
by:

A) the operator and is specified in the operation manual.

B) the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer.
C) the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority.
D) the operator and approved by the certification authority.
Question 427 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the purpose of the minimum equipment list (MEL):

A To enable the pilot to determine whether a flight may be commenced or continued from any
) intermediate stop should any instrumentation, system or equipment becomes inoperative.
B) To enable the pilot to find out what the minimum crew occupation should be for a particular flight.
C) To list all the necessary flight documents which are required on board.
D) To list all normal and non-normal check-lists.

Question 428 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a
flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

A) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.

B the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
)
C) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual.
D) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual.

uestion 429 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:

A) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL).
B) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL).
C) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL).
D) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL).

Question 430 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

A) the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

B) the airline operator.
C) the manufacturer.
D) the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.

Question 431 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult
first?

A) State of registration.
B) Operator.
C) Flight manual.
D) MEL.

uestion 432 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the .... to determine whether a flight
may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should .... become inoperative.

A) Maintenance supervisory, any system.

B) Operator, any aircraft safety system.
C) Commander, any instrumentation or system.
D) Chief steward, the galley equipment.

Question 433 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for the establishment of the MMEL?

A) the pilot-in-command.
B) the operator.
C) the State of registration.
D) the organisation responsible for the type design in conjunction with the State of design.

Question 434 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference
document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

A) the flight manual.

B) the JAR OPS.
C) the minimum equipment list.
D) the operation manuals chapter Abnormal and Emergency procedures.

Question 435 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:

A) flight record.
B) flight manual.
C) JAR OPS.
D) operation manual.

Question 436 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?

A) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the pilot.

B The MEL allows aeroplanes to be flown with unserviceability which would otherwise require
) immediate rectification.
C) The final responsibility for acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests ultimately with
the Operator.
D) It draws attention to the possibility of further failures and their effects.

Question 437 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The
reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:

A) the flight record.

B) the operation manuals chapter Abnormal and Emergency Procedures.
C) the JAR OPS.
D) the minimum equipment list.

Question 438 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:

A) To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with max take off
 mass greater than 5 700 kg.
B) To permit one MEL to exist for the operators entire fleet of aeroplanes.
C) To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL whilst keeping a master copy in an
unammended state.
D) Not to be used as an Operators MEL.

Question 439 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

A) separate to the right side.

B separate on each side of the runway.
)
C) stagnate on the runway.
D) separate to the left side.

Question 440 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

A stalling speed.
)
B) roll rate.
C) value of the stall angle of attack.
D) tuck under.

Question 441 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:

A) ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by the operations manual.
B) ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces.
C) ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces.
D) ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started.

Question 442 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type of precipitation. Which
of the following would give the longest holdover time?

A) Steady snow.
B) Rain on a cold soaked wing.
C) Freezing fog.
D) Frost.

Question 443 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance?

1. Increase take-off run.

2. Decrease take-off run.
3. Increase stall speed.
4. Decrease stall speed.
5. Reduce climb gradient.

A 1, 3, 5.
)
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 4, 5.

Question 444 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Anti-icing hold-over times are affected by:

1. Ambient temperature.
2. Temperature of the skin.
3. Type and intensity of precipitation.
4. Relative humidity.
5. Windspeed and direction.

A) All of the above.

B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4.

Question 445 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the worst case for hold over time following de-ice/anti-ice?

A) Frost.
B) Freezing rain.
C) Snow.
D) Freezing fog.

Question 446 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

A) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +15° C Dew Point (DEWP): -5° C.

B Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10° C Dew Point (DEWP): +7° C.
)
C) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +25° C Dew Point (DEWP): +5° C.
D) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -10° C Dew point (DEWP): -15° C.

Question 447 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:

A) when the airplane is into the wind.

B) during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet
wash.
C) when the outside temperature is close to 0 ° C.
D) when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 ° C.

Question 448 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

A) Dependent on the temperature.

B) Equal to the actual.
C) Less than the actual.
D) Greater than the actual.
Question 449 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the
correct action is to:

A) complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the
prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded.
B carry out a further de-icing process.
)
C) switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
conditions when airborne.
D) complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility.

Question 450 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In high ambient temperatures ( 30° C) and at relative humidity as low as 40%, in air free from cloud,
fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing

A) Can occur at any power settings.

B) Can occur, but only at full power and cruise settings.
C) Can occur but only at low power settings.
D) Cannot occur.

Question 451 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

A) On rotation.
B) When clear of icing conditions.
C) At brake release for take-off.
D) Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment.

Question 452 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

A) The upper and lower wing surfaces.

B) The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
C) The aircraft front areas.
D) Only the pitot and static probes.

Question 453 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?

A) 24 hours.
B) A certain time independent of skin temperature.
C) A certain time dependent on concentration.
D) 3 hours.

Question 454 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again?

A) You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.
B) You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing
fluid.
C) You must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer
 of anti- icing fluid.
D) First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

Question 455 of 782 PREV | NEXT

At a high ambient temperature ( 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40%, in air free of
cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:

A) cannot occur.
B) can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings.
C) is possible at any setting.
D) can occur, but only at a low power setting.

Question 456 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

A) at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

B) at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
C) a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
D) at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

Question 457 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Under which conditions will ice form on the airframe?

A) Ambient air temperature below 0 degrees Celsius and airframe temperature below 0 degrees
Celsius.
B) Water in a liquid state.
C) Water in a liquid state, ambient air temperature below 0° C and airframe temperature below 0° C.
D) Ambient air temperature below 0 degrees Celsius and airframe temperature below -10 degrees
Celsius.

Question 458 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending
on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the
longest protection will be in weather conditions of:

A) rain on a cold soaked wing.

B) freezing fog.
C) steady snow.
D) frost.

Question 459 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:

1. An increase in the take-off distance.

2. A decrease of the take-off run.
3. An increase in the stalling speed.
4. A decrease of the stalling speed.
5. A decrease of the climb gradient.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 1, 3, 5

Question 460 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is:

A) ICAO Appendix 8.
B) Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957.
C) the Washington Convention.
D) ICAO Appendix 18.

Question 461 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. The type and intensity of the showers.

2. The ambient temperature.
3. The relative humidity.
4. The direction and speed of the wind.
5. The temperature of the airplane skin.
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 4, 6
B) 1, 3, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
6
D) 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 462 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

A) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

B) the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
C) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
D) the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.

Question 463 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to
take-off by:

1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 4
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3
Question 464 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The effective time during which the process of de-icing/anti-icing of a type fluid is active is called
the...

A) fluid effective time.

B) holdover time.
C) type fluid clearance time.
D) change-over time.

Question 465 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

A) it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.

B) leaving the icing zone.
C) it is rotating (before taking-off).
D) releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

Question 466 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?

A) Steady snow.
B) Freezing rain.
C) Freezing fog.
D) Frost.

Question 467 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

A) the aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid.

B the aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.
)
C) a meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems.
D) the flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly.

Question 468 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?

A) Nothing.
B) Depends on temperature.
C) Over reads.
D) Under reads.

Question 469 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

A) possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
B) external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
C) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
D) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and
manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
Question 470 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

A) 24 hours protection time.

B certain time of protection depending on its concentration.
)
C) 3 hours protection time.
D) certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

Question 471 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For stable clouds:

1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -10° C.
2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0° C and -15° C.
3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18° C 4- icing becomes rare at t < -30° C.
4. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm.
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm.

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?

A) 1, 4, 6
B) 2, 3, 5
C) 1, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 6

Question 472 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Holdover time can be considerably reduced by:

A) air temperature being slightly below 0 deg C.

B) airframe temperature being slightly below 0 deg C.
C) strong winds and effect of jet blast from other aeroplanes.
D) effect of headwind.

uestion 473 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When would you expect carburettor icing to
occur?

A Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10 deg C, Dew Point (DEWP): +7 deg C.
)
B) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -10 deg C, Dew Point (DEWP): -15 deg C.
C) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +25 deg C, Dew Point (DEWP): +5 deg C.
D) Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +15 deg C, Dew Point (DEWP): -5 deg C.

Question 474 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

A) The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid.

B) A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems.
C) The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly.
D) The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.

Question 475 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the
anti-icing fluid:

A) must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.
B) must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
C) must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
D) need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

Question 476 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Operators are not to allow aeroplanes to fly in conditions where icing is expected unless...

A) the aircraft is de-iced on the ground.

B) 1 and 2.
C) the pilot-in-command is certificated accordingly.
D) the aeroplane is certificated accordingly.

Question 477 of 782 PREV | NEXT

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilots means of information and prevention are:

1. ATIS.
2. NOTAM’ s.
3. BIRDTAMs.
4. Weather radar.
5. The report by another crew.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 5.
)
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 5.
D) 1, 3, 4.

Question 478 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which habitat is the least favourable for birds?

A) Long grass.
B) Short grass cut by gang mowers.
C) Rubbish tips.
D) Areas that flood.

Question 479 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the most effective method for scaring birds?

A) Scarecrow.
B) Making movement.
C) Land rover with loudspeaker.
D) Shell crackers.

Question 480 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
A A refuse tip in close proximity.
)
B) A modern sewage tip in close proximity.
C) Mowing and maintaining the grass long.
D) The extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel.

Question 481 of 782 PREV | NEXT

90% of bird strikes occur:

A) between 500 and 1 000 m.

B) above 1 000 m.
C) under 500 m.
D) between 500 and 1 500 m.

Question 482 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from:

A) from 100 to 800 m.

B) from 500 to 1.200
m.
C) from 0 to 150 m.
D) from 200 to 500 m.

Question 483 of 782 PREV | NEXT

90% of bird strikes happen at:

A) Under 500ft.
B) Over 1.000ft.
C) 500-1.000m.
D) 500-1.500m.

Question 484 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds which could pose a bird-
strike risk.
Does the pilot:

A contact the ground station immediately.

)
B) inform other aircraft by radio.
C) inform the appropriate persons in a reasonable time.
D) ignore the problem and hope someone else will make a report.

Question 485 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:

A) about ten seconds beforehand.

B about two seconds beforehand.
)
C) as soon as they hear the engines noise.
D) from the beginning of the takeoff roll.
Question 486 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this incident the pilot:

A) must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning.
B) must file a airworthiness report.
C) must file a Bird Strike report.
D) is not obliged to report this incident.

Question 487 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What would be most likely to attract birds near an airfield?

A) Mineral extraction.
B) A refuse tip.
C) Modern sewerage plant.
D) Mowed grass kept long.

Question 488 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?

A Long grass.
)
B) An area liable to flooding.
C) Short gang-mown grass.
D) Edible rubbish.

Question 489 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure A for noise abatement, when must
you reduce power:

A) 3000 ft.
B) 1000 ft.
C) 1500 ft.
D) 2000 ft.

Question 490 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid over flying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the
aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

A no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise
) abatement procedure.
B) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to
28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt).
C) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can
maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest
obstacle.
D) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to
20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt).

Question 491 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Noise preferential runways are to be chosen so that flight paths avoid... during initial departure and...
A noise sensitive areas, final approach phases.
)
B) noise sensitive areas, missed approach phase.
C) populated areas, final approach phases.
D) crossing other runways, missed approach phase.

Question 492 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Noise abatement for landing:

A) Allows limited use of thrust reverse.

B) Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse.
C) Stop use of thrust reverse before the threshold.
D) Precludes the use of thrust reverse.

Question 493 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Noise abatement procedures are established in accordance with:

A) ICAO Annex 1.
B) ICAO Doc8168.
C) JAR-FCL.
D) JAR-145.

Question 494 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A established in ICAO,
DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the
aircraft reaches:

A) 1500
ft.
B) 1000
ft.
C) 3000
ft.
D) 2000
ft.

Question 495 of 782 PREV | NEXT

About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

A) They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .

B) Such procedures do not exist.
C) They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
D) Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .

Question 496 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In order to comply with noise abatement requirements, the mass at take-off must not exceed the
stated relevant maximum unless:

A) In an emergency and the authority is informed within l0 days.

B The use of a runway with no noise problem has been authorised.
)
C) The commander decides that compliance with noise abatement procedures will endanger his
aircraft and the passengers.
D) The operator has authorised non-compliance.

Question 497 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume
I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the
procedure close to the airport:

A) is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution.

B) is procedure B.
C) depends on the wind component.
D) is procedure A.

Question 498 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In which of the following cases, you should preclude consideration of noise abatement?

A) The crosswind component exceeds 9 kts.

B) Extreme delay in schedule
C) The cloud ceiling is 1.500ft for landing, or horizontal visibility is less than 3.5 km for take-off or
landing
D) The crosswind component exceeds 15 kts

Question 499 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing in VMC?

A No ILS or visual guidance.

)
B) Any tailwind.
C) Tailwind up to 3kts.
D) Crosswind including gusts of 10kts.

uestion 500 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be
allowed is:

A) 600 m (2.000 ft).

B) 150 m (500 ft).
C) 300 m (1.000 ft).
D) 450 m (1.500 ft).

Question 501 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which noise abatement take-off climb procedure is presented in the following figure?

A) Procedure A.
B) Procedure D.
C) Procedure C.
D) Procedure B.

Question 502 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the:

A) state in which the aeroplane is operating.

B) commander.
C) operator.
D) state of the operator.

Question 503 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?

A) Turns of a bank angle of up to 20 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-20kts.

B No turns should be coincident with a reduction in power.
)
C) All turns must give at least 100m obstacle and terrain clearance.
D) Turns of a bank angle of up to 28 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-20kts.

Question 504 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During an approach procedure which involves noise abatement, the aeroplane is to be in the final
landing configuration at any point after passing the ... or at a point ... from the threshold of the
landing runway, whichever is earlier.

A) inner marker, 4NM

B) final marker, 6NM
C) middle marker, 5NM
D) outer marker, 5NM

Question 505 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:

A) different according to airports and airplane types.

B) different for a same airplane type, according to
airports.
C) for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
D) for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.

Question 506 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the
following circumstances:

1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. When the runway is not clear or dry.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 3
)
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3

Question 507 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing
runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC)?

A) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance.

B) It has a tail wind component of any value.
C) It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12
kt.
D) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt.

Question 508 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure B for noise abatement, when must
you reduce power?

A) 1000ft.
B) 1500ft.
C) 3000ft.
D) when flap retraction is complete.

Question 509 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger
compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 501 and 600
is:

A) 7.
B) 9.
C) 3.
D) 1.

Question 510 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:

A) pressurization.
B ventilation of the cargo compartment.
)
C) trim air.
D) total air-conditioning.

Question 511 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class A fire is a fire:

A) involving flammable liquids, greases, paints, etc. ,where a flame-interrupting effect is essential.
B) involving combustible metals.
C) involving gases whether cylinder contained or natural gas issuing through a fissure in the earths
surface.
D) involving ordinary combustible materials where extinguishment is best obtained by using a fire
extinguisher.

Question 512 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class B fire is a fire of:

A liquid or liquefiable solid.

)
B) special fire: metal, gas, chemical product.
C) electrical source fire.
D) solid material usually of organic nature.

uestion 513 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class C fire is a fire:

A) involving flammable liquids, greases, paints, etc., where a flame-interrupting effect is essential.
B) involving ordinary combustible materials where extinguishment is best obtained by using a fire
extinguisher.
C) involving gases whether cylinder contained or natural gas issuing through a fissure in the earths
surface.
D) involving combustible metals.

Question 514 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

Question 515 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?

A) Foam.
B) Halon.
C) Sand.
D) Water.

uestion 516 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

A) crash axes or crowbars.

B) a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.
C) water and all type of beverage.
D) a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.

Question 517 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 518 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following may a Halon fire extinguisher be used for:

1. A paper fire.
2. A plastic fire.
3. A hydrocarbon fire.
4. An electric fire.

A) 2, 3.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
)
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 3, 4.

For a flight deck fire which of the following do you use?

1. BCF.
2. Halon.
3. Dry Powder.
4. Water.

A) 1, 2 & 3.
B) 3 & 4.
C) 1 & 2.
D) 1, 2, 3 & 4.

Question 520 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

A) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

B) Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo
hold is forbidden.
C) Extinguish fire only.
D) You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

uestion 521 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What class of fire would require use of a H20 extinguisher?

A) CLASS C.
B) CLASS E.
C) CLASS A.
D) CLASS B.

Question 522 of 782 PREV | NEXT

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:

1. class A fires
2. class B fires
3. electrical source fires
4. special fires: metals, gas, chemical product

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:

A 1, 2, 3
)
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4

Question 523 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

1. a water fire-extinguisher
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
3. a Halon fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 3, 4
)
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 4

Question 524 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class D fire is a fire:

A) involving gases whether cylinder contained or natural gas issuing through a fissure in the earths
surface.
B involving combustible metals.
)
C) involving flammable liquids, greases, paints, etc. ,where a flame-interrupting effect is essential.
D) involving ordinary combustible materials where extinguishment is best obtained by using a fire
extinguisher.

Question 525 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger
compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 201 and 300
is:

A) 8.
B 4.
)
C) 7.
D) 2.
Question 526 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The total number of Oxygen dispensing units in an aircraft must:

A) exceed the number of passenger seats by at least 10%.

B Neither a & b.
)
C) Both a & b.
D) exceed the number of passenger and crew seats by at least 10 %.

Question 527 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A 1211 Halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:

1. a paper fire
2. a fabric fire
3. an electric fire
4. a wood fire
5. a hydrocarbon fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
)
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4.

Question 528 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the requirement for hand held fire
extinguishers.

A) 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

B) 2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
C) 4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
D) 3 conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

Question 529 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger
compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 301 and 400
is:

A) 3.
B) 6.
C) 5.
D) 4.

Question 530 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot.
The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:

A) from any side.

B) under no circumstances.
C) only from front or rear side.
D) only from left or right side.

Question 531 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 532 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

A) fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

B) carry out a damp cranking.
C) carry out a dry cranking.
D) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

Question 533 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger
compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 401 and 500
is:

A) 5.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 6.

Question 534 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where the use of oxygen is prescribed, flight crew members are to:

A) only use oxygen at night.

B) use oxygen for 10% of the time.
C) use oxygen continuously.
D) use oxygen at all times providing the equipment does not impair operational performance.

Question 535 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

A) all available extinguishers simultaneously.

B) all available liquids.
C) only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
D) all available extinguishers in sequence.
Question 536 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where the maximum approved seating capacity of passengers is greater than 31 but less than 60,
how many Halon fire extinguishers are required?

A) None.
B) At least two.
C) At least one.
D) At least three.

Question 537 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?

A) Solid fires.
B) Liquid fires.
C) Gas fires.
D) Special fires.

Question 538 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You will use a Halon extinguisher for a fire of:

1. solids (fabric, plastic, ...)

2. liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)
3. gas
4. metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1 ,2, 4
B 1, 2, 3
)
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4

Question 539 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Fire extinguishers should be located in the pilots compartment and...

A) at each door.
B) in the passenger cabin.
C) at each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilots compartment and not readily
accessible to the flight crew.
D) in the galley.

Question 540 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When does the fire handle warning light go out?

A) When that fire bottle has been fired.

B) When all bottles to that engine are discharged.
C) When fire handle is pulled
D) When fire detected as being out.

Question 541 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class B fire is a fire:

A involving flammable liquids, greases, paints, etc. ,where a flame-interrupting effect is essential.
)
B) involving ordinary combustible materials where extinguishment is best obtained by using a fire
extinguisher.
C) involving gases whether cylinder contained or natural gas issuing through a fissure in the earths
surface.
D) involving combustible metals.

Question 542 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you:

A) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers.
B) carry out a wet motoring cycle.
C) fight the jet pipe fire with a water fire extinguisher.
D) carry out a dry motoring cycle.

Question 543 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:

1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halogen

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements:

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4

Question 544 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be
switched off when:

A) all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

B fire is no longer detected.
)
C) the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
D) the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.

Question 545 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which fires can a water fire extinguisher be used on?

1. Wood.
2. Plastic.
3. Electric.
4. Furnishings.

A 1, 2, 4.
)
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

Question 546 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:

1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 4, 5
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 547 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

A) Determine which system is causing the smoke.

B) Put on the mask and goggles.
C) Begin an emergency descent.
D) Cut off all air conditioning units.

Question 548 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

A) apply the parking brake and approach the wheels side wards.
B) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels side wards.
C) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
D) apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.

Question 549 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of:

1. solids (fabric, carpet, ...)

2. liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)
3. gas
4. metals (sodium, ...)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 3
B) 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1

Question 550 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The number of hand fire extinguishers which must be conveniently located in the passenger
compartment when the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is between 7 and 30 is:
A) 2.
B 1.
)
C) 3.
D) 4.

Question 551 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After landing heavy and fast, an engineer should approach the landing gear from:

A) the sides.
B) neither.
C) only when the gear has cooled down.
D) the front or rear.

Question 552 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:

1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halogen

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

A) 2, 3, 4
B) 1
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 3, 4

Question 553 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

A) Water may only be used for minor fires.

B) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
C) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
D) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.

Question 554 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Portable fire extinguishers fitted to aeroplanes must be of such a type, that when discharged within
the aeroplane, the extinguishant:

A) is electrically inert.
B) is not corrosive.
C) will not dangerously contaminate the air in the cabin.
D) is not inflammable.

Question 555 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If you have a fire in a toilet, what fire extinguishers would you use:

A) All available in sequence.

B) Only toilet extinguishers.
C) All available liquids.
D) All available simultaneously.
Question 556 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

A) possible and recommended.

B) useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
C) useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
D) useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

Question 557 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:

1. class A fires
2. class B fires
3. electrical source fires
4. special fires: metal, gas, chemicals

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

A 1, 2, 3, 4
)
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 4

Question 558 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A Halon fire extinguisher is should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

A) Brake.
B) Plastic.
C) Hydrocarbon.
D) Paper.

Question 559 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:

1. a dry powder fire extinguisher

2. a water spray atomizer
3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2.
D) 3, 4.

Question 560 of 782 PREV | NEXT

CO2 type fire extinguishers are usable on:

i. Class A fires.
 ii. Class B fires.
iii. Electrical fires.
iv. Special fires - metal, chemical.

A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 561 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a flight deck fire which of the following do you use?

i. CO2.
ii. Halon
iii. Dry Powder.
iv. Water.

A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

B) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) (iii) & (iv)
D) (i) & (ii)

Question 562 of 782 PREV | NEXT

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

A Class A fires.
)
B) Class B fires.
C) electrical source fires.
D) special fires: metals, gas, chemical products.

Question 563 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is as the temperature increases, the:

A) pressure decreases.
B) pressure decreases.
C) reference current decreases.
D) resistance decreases.

Question 564 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?

A) Reduce the airflow and put out the fire.

B) Put out the fire.
C) Don’ t do anything because it is not permissible to have flammable or toxic materials in modern
aeroplane holds.
D) Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire.

Question 565 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The use of passenger oxygen in the case of severe smoke in the cabin is:

A) Useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

B) Possible and recommended.
C) Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
D) Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Question 566 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to
use is:

A) CO2 (carbon dioxide).

B) water.
C) foam.
D) dry powder.

Question 567 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Why should you not use oxygen masks when the cabin is affected by smoke?

A) Because the oxygen would spontaneously combust.

B) Because the mask allows the smoke to mix with the oxygen.
C) Because the chemical oxygen generator does not work in smoky conditions.
D) You should use the oxygen masks in smoky conditions.

Question 568 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A class A fire is a fire of:

A) metal or gas or chemical (special fires).

B) liquid or liquefiable solid.
C) solid material, generally of organic nature.
D) electrical origin.

Question 569 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The types of fire extinguisher that may be used on a class B fire are:

1. H2O.
2. BCF.
3. Dry-chemical.
4. Halon.

Which answer includes all types?

A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 2 only.
C) All of the above.
D) 3, 4.

Question 570 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:

A) to warn the ATC.

B) to set the transponder to 7700.
C) to put on the oxygen mask.
D) to comfort your passengers.
Question 571 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:

1. mist in the cabin

2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 3, 4
)
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 4

Question 572 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming
the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14.000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
approximately:

A) 2900 ft.
B) 12000 ft.
C) 20750 ft.
D) 8600 ft.

Question 573 of 782 PREV | NEXT

We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if:

1. There is a change in environmental sounds.

2. The cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.
3. The differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes equal.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2

Question 574 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is supplementary oxygen used for?

A) For passengers with breathing difficulties.

B) Protect crew when combating a fire.
C) For passengers who may require it, following a loss of pressurisation.
D) To passengers in an aircraft, following a loss of pressurisation.

Question 575 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of pure oxygen mixed with
air.
Following explosive decompression with the regulator set to normal, at what approximate altitude will
pure oxygen be supplied:
A) 24000 ft.
B) 14000 ft.
C) 8000 ft.
D) 32000 ft.

Question 576 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The required minimum supply of oxygen that is required for a constant rate of descent from the
aeroplanes maximum certificated operating altitude to 15000ft should be available for:

A 100 percent of the passengers.

)
B) 30 percent of the passengers.
C) 80 percent of the passengers.
D) 60 percent of the passengers.

Question 577 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency
is not impaired is:

A 8000ft.
)
B) 14000ft.
C) 25000ft.
D) 2500ft.

Question 578 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an aeroplane can he flown without provision of breathing
oxygen for crew and passengers?

A) 376hPa (25000 ft).

B) 620hPa (13000 ft).
C) 500hPa (18000 ft).
D) 700hPa (10000 ft).

Question 579 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A ... is the failure of the pressurisation system to maintain cabin pressure where there has not been a
failure of the airframe.

A) structural decompression
B) rapid decompression
C) explosive decompression
D) slow decompression

Question 580 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A slow decompression may be caused by:

1. a slight air tightness defect

2. a bad functioning of the pressurization
3. the loss of a window 4. the loss of a door

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2
)
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3

Question 581 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:

A) 8000 ft.
B) 25000 ft.
C) 14000 ft.
D) 2500 ft

Question 582 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the
regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the
normal position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure
oxygen only?

A) 32000 ft.
B) 14000 ft.
C) 8000 ft.
D) 25000 ft.

Question 583 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a pressurisation malfunction:

1. Noise increases.
2. Change in RCDI.
3. Pressure differential decreases

A 1, 2, 3.
)
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.

Question 584 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31.000 ft. What is the initial action
by the operating crew?

A) Disconnect the autopilot.

B) To put on oxygen masks.
C) Transmit a MAYDAY message.
D) Place the seat belts sign to ON.

Question 585 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Flying at FL 390, before what cabin altitude must the Oxygen drop out masks be automatically
presented?

A) 12000 ft.
B) 15000 ft.
C) 13000 ft.
D) 14000 ft.

Question 586 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight crew
for all flight time above:

A 13000ft.
)
B) 25000ft.
C) 14000ft.
D) 15000ft.

Question 587 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?

A 10000ft.
)
B) 15000ft.
C) 14000ft.
D) 13000ft.

Question 588 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40.000 ft is:

A) 12 seconds.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 1 minute.
D) 5 minutes.

Question 589 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane suffers cabin decompression at 31.000ft, what is the crews initial reaction:

A) Put FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign on.

B) Declare MAYDAY.
C) Don O2 masks.
D) Disconnect autopilot.

Question 590 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

A) increases.
B) remains constant.
C) attains its maximum permitted operating limit.
D) decreases.

Question 591 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during
and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time
that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
A) 15000 ft.
B) 14000 ft.
C) 13000 ft.
D) 25000 ft.

Question 592 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming
the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14.000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
approximately:

A) 29000 ft.
B) 27000 ft.
C) 22500 ft.
D) 24500 ft.

Question 593 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Gradual decompression is caused by:

i. Window leak.
ii. Door leak.
iii. Window blown.
iv. Emergency escape hatch open.

A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

B) (ii), (iii)
C) (iii), (iv)
D) (i), (ii)

Question 594 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in
the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator
which will indicate:

A) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm.

B) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
C) a rate of climb.
D) zero.

Question 595 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When the pressurisation system fails, the differential pressure:

A falls.
)
B) fluctuates
C) remains the same.
D) rises.

Question 596 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:

1. set the maximum take-off thrust

2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker
 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
4. keep the airplanes current configuration
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 3, 5.
D) 2, 3.

Question 597 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In windshear associated with a microburst, you experience a 40kts headwind. Coming out of the
microburst, you will experience a windshear of:

A) -40 kts.
B) -80 kts.
C) -20 kts.
D) -60 kts.

Question 598 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a
pilot action, the aircraft will:

A) has an increasing true airspeed.

B) has a decreasing true airspeed.
C) flies above the climb-out path.
D) flies below the climb-out path.

Question 599 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:

A) reduce power to stay on the glidepath.

B allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed.
)
C) bring to level flight, allow speed to fall and intercept the glidepath from above.
D) reduce power to 1.2VS and make a precision landing.

Question 600 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path.

2. Flies below the glide path.
3. Has an increasing true airspeed.
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2,3.
B) 1,4.
C) 2,4.
D) 1,3.
Question 601 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What are the characteristics of windshear?

A It occurs at any altitude in the horizontal and vertical plane.

)
B) It can occur at any altitude only in the horizontal plane.
C) It only occurs below 2.000ft and never in the vertical plane.
D) It occurs only below 2.000ft and never in the horizontal plane.

Question 602 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:

A) not to change its trajectory.

B) to climb.
C) to descend.
D) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength.

Question 603 of 782 PREV | NEXT

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

A) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane.

B) occurs only at a low altitude (2.000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane.
C) occurs only at a low altitude (2.000 ft) and never in the vertical plane.
D) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.

Question 604 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On the approach you hit wind shear and have to go around. Do you:

A) Take gear and flap in.

B) Avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres.
C) Pitch up to the stick shaker.
D) Do nothing to your gear and flaps.

Question 605 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On the approach, you experience a decrease in tailwind, what happens to the aeroplane without any
corrections being applied?

1. Climbs above glide path.

2. Descends below glide path.
3. TAS increases.
4. TAS decreases.

A 1, 3.
)
B) 1, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

Question 606 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Wind shear is:

A a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.
)
B) a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance.
C) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.
D) a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance.

Question 607 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If an aircraft hits windshear with an increasing tailwind:

i. TAS increases.
ii. TAS decreases.
iii. Aircraft descends below glideslope.
iv. Aircraft climbs above glideslope.

A) (i) & (iii)

B) (i) & (iv)
C) (ii) & (iii)
D) (ii) & (iv)

Question 608 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a
windshear?

A) Vertical speed.
B) Pitch angle.
C) Groundspeed.
D) Indicated airspeed.

Question 609 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path.

2. Flies below the glide path.
3. Has an increasing true airspeed.
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2,4.
B) 2,3.
C) 1,4.
D) 1,3.

Question 610 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If you encounter a microburst just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have:

1. a head wind
2. a strong rear wind
3. better climb performances
4. a diminution of climb gradient
5. an important thrust drop

A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 4, 5
D) 2, 4

Question 611 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A change to a horizontal tail wind causes:

A) increase in TAS.
B) a descent only.
C) a climb.
D) a descent or climb depending upon the strength of the gust.

Question 612 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go
around.

1. maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)

2. reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3. gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker
4. avoid excessive attitude change

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3

Question 613 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path.

2. Flies below the glide path.
3. Has an increasing true airspeed.
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3

Question 614 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How can the direction of wing tip vortices be described?

A) Both clockwise.
B From below the wing to above the wing.
)
C) From above the wing to below the wing.
D) Both counter clockwise.
Question 615 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A change to a horizontal tailwind will cause:

A) A climb.
B) A descent only.
C) A descent or climb depending upon the strength of the gust.
D) An increase in TAS.

Question 616 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On the approach you experience an increasing headwind. What happens to the aircraft:

1. Descends below the glide path.

2. Climbs above the glide path.
3. TAS increases.
4. TAS decreases

A) 1 and 3.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 2 and 4.
D) 1 and 4.

Question 617 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path.

2. Flies below the glide path.
3. Has an increasing true airspeed.
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2, 4.
B 1, 3.
)
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

Question 618 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the first indication of windshear? A change in:

A) pitch angle.
B indicated airspeed.
)
C) ground speed.
D) vertical speed.

Question 619 of 782 PREV | NEXT

While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You
will expect to encounter:

A) convection motion of air mass.

B) supercooled water.
C) windshear (vertical and horizontal).
D) wake turbulence .

Question 620 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a
microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

A) 40 kt.
B) 80 kt.
C) 20 kt.
D) 60 kt.

Question 621 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including
updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that
is required is:

A) small.
B) medium.
C) null.
D) substantial.

Question 622 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:

A) climb.
B) descend.
C) have no effect on the flight path.
D) climb or descend depending on gust strength

Question 623 of 782 PREV | NEXT

On the approach you hit wind shear and have to go around; do you:

A) avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres.

B) do nothing to your gear and flaps.
C) take gear and flap in.
D) pitch up to the stick shaker.

Question 624 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When taking-off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:

A) at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched the ground and on the under wind side of the
runway .
B) in front of the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down.
C) beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down.
D) at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .

Question 625 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
A) Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration.
B) Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
C) Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration.
D) Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.

Question 626 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

A) during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.

B) a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the
runway.
C) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind
condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.
D) when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a
long runway.

Question 627 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall
be applied to:

A) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.

B) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than
760 m. (using whole runway)
C) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
D) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway.

Question 628 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What flying conditions give the worst wake turbulence?

A) Large, high power, slow and full flaps.

B) Large, heavy, slow and clean.
C) Large, high powers fast and clean.
D) Large, heavy, fast and full flaps.

uestion 629 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:

A) high weight, high speed, gear and flaps up.

B) low weight, high speed, gear and flaps up.
C) high weight, low speed, gear and flaps up.
D) low weight low speed, gear and flaps down.

Question 630 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance
if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same
runway?

A) 11.1 km (6
NM).
B) 7.4 km (4 NM).
C) 3.7 km (2 NM).
D) 9.3 km (5 NM).
Question 631 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?

A Upwind and above its flight path.

)
B) Below its flight path and downwind.
C) Below its flight path and upwind.
D) Above its flight path and downwind.

Question 632 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

A from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

)
B) from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
C) counter clockwise.
D) clockwise.

Question 633 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

A) flying at high speed.

B generating lift.
)
C) flying with its gear and flaps extended.
D) using a high engine R.P.M.

Question 634 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:

1. An aero dynamical effect (wing tip vortices).

2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2 and 3.
B) 1, 2 and 3.
C) 1.
D) 3.

Question 635 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 131.000 kg is classified as ... according to
the ICAO wake turbulence categories.

A) medium
B) extreme
C) light
D) heavy

Question 636 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:

A) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft.

B Above and upwind from the larger aircraft.
)
C) Below and upwind from the larger aircraft.
D) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft.

Question 637 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 4.500 kg is classified as ... according to
the ICAO wake turbulence categories.

A) Heavy
B) High
C) Light
D) Medium

Question 638 of 782 PREV | NEXT

ICAO defines wake turbulence categories of aeroplanes based on:

A) the number of passengers.

B) Vref.
C) maximum take-off mass.
D) wing span.

Question 639 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and
minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136.000 kg and more than 7.000 kg) is following
directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

A) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.

B) 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes.
C) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes.
D) 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes.

Question 640 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan
to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136.000 kg but greater than 7.000 kg:

A) L
B) S
C) M
D) H

Question 641 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than
7000 kg) on the approach to landing?

A) 5 minutes.
B) 4 minutes.
C) 3 minutes.
D) 2 minutes.
Question 642 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:

1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust

The combination of correct statement is:

A) 1, 4
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3

Question 643 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

A) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
B) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
C) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
D) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.

Question 644 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the
stall behaviour can be:

A) increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.

B) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.
C) tendency to increase speed after initial stall.
D) nose down tendency.

Question 645 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of. 3 minutes shall
be applied:

A) between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off.
B) to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
C) to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway
separated by less 760 m.
D) to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with
a displaced landing threshold.

Question 646 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?

A) A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction.
B) A medium landing after a heavy aircraft.
C) A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway.
D) Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less than
 760m apart.

Question 647 of 782 PREV | NEXT

To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?

A Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less than
) 760m apart.
B) A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction.
C) A medium landing after a heavy aircraft.
D) A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway.

Question 648 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same
runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of
flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:

A) 3 NM.
B 5 NM.
)
C) 4 NM.
D) 2 NM.

Question 649 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-
off is about:

A) 1 minute.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 3 minutes.
D) 10 minutes.

uestion 650 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When is 3 minutes separation applied?

A) A medium aeroplane landing following a heavy aeroplane.

B) A light aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane from the same position.
C) A light aeroplane landing following a medium aeroplane.
D) A medium aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane has made a missed approach in the
opposite direction.

Question 651 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence
separation?

A) 1 min.
B) 2 min.
C) 5 min.
D) 3 min.

Question 652 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted
when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
runway?

A) 5 minutes.
B) 3 minutes.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 4 minutes.

Question 653 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 Km (5.0 NM)
shall be applied when a:

A) HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1.000
ft).
B) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n
(1.000 ft).
C) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1.000
ft).
D) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1.000.ft).

uestion 654 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a light aircraft taking off after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence
separation:

A) 3 min.
B) 1min.
C) 2 min[AFT8].
D) 5 min.

Question 655 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When is wake turbulence worst?

1. Heavy.
2. Slow.
3. Clean.
4. High power.

A) All of the above.

B) 1, 3 and 4.
C) 2, 3 and 4.
D) 1, 2 and 3.

Question 656 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Wake turbulence starts:

A) when selecting the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.
B) as soon as the aeroplane is commencing the take-off run and stops as soon as it has come to a
stop after landing.
C) when the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this
height before landing.
D) during rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground.
Question 657 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The wake turbulence:

A starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground.
)
B) starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop
at landing.
C) starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.
D) starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses
this height before landing.

Question 658 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An airplane creates wake turbulence when:

A) flying at high speed.

B) using a high engine RPM.
C) generating lift.
D) flying with its gear and flaps extended.

Question 659 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Wake turbulence risk is highest:

A) if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
B) following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
C) when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a
light crosswind.
D) when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

Question 660 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible?

A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.
)
B) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.
C) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
D) different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

Question 661 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?

1. Wing Tip Vortices.

2. Engines.
3. High Lift Devices.
4. Size of the landing gear.

A) 2, 3.
B 1.
)
C) 3.
D) 1, 4.
Question 662 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137.000 kg is classified as ... according to
the ICAO wake turbulence categories.

A) light
B) severe
C) heavy
D) medium

Question 663 of 782 PREV | NEXT

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping
of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H)
Category, are all aircraft types of:

A) 135.000 Kg or more.
B) less than 136.000 Kg but more than 126.000
Kg.
C) 146.000 Kg or more.
D) 136.000 Kg or more.

Question 664 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum
time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

A) 3 min.
B) 1 min.
C) 4 min.
D) 2 min.

Question 665 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible?

A) distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
B) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
C) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.
D) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.

Question 666 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:

A) spin up.
B lift.
)
C) drag.
D) lift destruction.

Question 667 of 782 PREV | NEXT

You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is he required
separation?

A) 9.2km, 5nm.
B) 3.6km, 2nm.
C) 5.5km, 3nm.
D) 7.4km, 4nm.

uestion 668 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5nm required for wake turbulence spacing:

A) Medium following a heavy.

B) Light following a heavy.
C) Heavy following a medium.
D) Heavy following a heavy.

Question 669 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:

A) high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases
by a few hectopascals.
B low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by
) a few hectopascals.
C) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases
by a few hectopascals.
D) low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases
by a few hectopascals.

Question 670 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be
applied to:

A) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
)
C) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.
D) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
separated by less than 760 m.

Question 671 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The flight deck door should be capable of being:

A) locked from, within the compartment.

B) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment.
C) directly locked from outside the compartment.
D) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment.

Question 672 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should
submit a report of the act to:

A) the Authority of the State of the operator only.

B) the local authority only.
C) the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful
interference.
D) both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator.
Question 673 of 782 PREV | NEXT

According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in
the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:

A a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.

)
B) distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).
C) a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in
case of a depressurization in the compartment area.
D) a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.

Question 674 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference:

A) code 7700.
B) code 7500.
C) code 2000.
D) code 7600.

Question 675 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must:

A) keep the safety harnesses fastened.

B) keep the seat belts fastened.
C) wear a communications head set.
D) fully raise the seat.

Question 676 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:

A) temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

B) pressure of the pneumatic tyres.
C) temperature of the brakes.
D) pressure of the hydraulic fluid.

Question 677 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference
(hijacked) is:

A) 7800.
B) 7600.
C) 7500.
D) 7700.

Question 678 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of unlawful interference in flight, the pilot-in-command shall endeavour to set the
transponder to ... unless the situation warrant the code A-7700.

A) A-
4500.
B) A-
 7600.
C) A-
7500.
D) A-
5500.

uestion 679 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of
the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately
notify the:

A) State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and

ICAO.
B) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only.
C) State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO.
D) State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.

Question 680 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:

A 7500.
)
B) 7600.
C) 2000.
D) 7700.

Question 681 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and
disregarding any fuel considerations:

A) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the us of pressurization.
B you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if
) higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
C) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a
clean configuration until the final approach.
D) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

uestion 682 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform
certain people:

1. State of the Operator.

2. ICAO
3. State of registration of aircraft.
4. JAA.

A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) All of the above.

Question 683 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services?

A) ATC.
B) the local constabulary.
C) the operations dispatcher.
D) the commander.

Question 684 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Normally, in the event of ditching, it is recommended that the gear is... and the flaps are...

A) up, up.
B up, down.
)
C) down, down.
D) down, up.

Question 685 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:

A) head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.
B) head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.
C) cross the arm in front of the face.
D) head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.

Question 686 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members,
can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:

A 90 seconds.
)
B) 132 seconds.
C) 60 seconds.
D) 120 seconds.

Question 687 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:

1. evacuate women and children first.

2. have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts.
3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes flotation ability.
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 4
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 3

Question 688 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to:
A) increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer.
B) carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain.
C) reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing.
D) maintain the normal approach speed up to landing.

Question 689 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What are the tasks to be undertaken by cabin crew when evacuating passengers?

i. Women and children first.

ii. Ensure no movement of passengers for flotation,
iii. Direct into life rafts.
iv. Ensure aircraft evacuated.

A) (ii) and (iv)

B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D) (iii) and (iv)

uestion 690 of 782 PREV | NEXT

During a ditching:

A) as sea-state increases, the effect of the initial high rotation will be reduced and the accompanying
uncontrolled roll will disappear.
B) there will be once or two minor skips after the main impact.
C) it is inevitable that the nose will dig in and the aeroplane will immediately strat to submerge.
D) the main effect will be rapid deceleration and preparation in the cabin will be to counter the effects
of this deceleration.

Question 691 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:

A) a plastic fire.
B) a slow depressurization.
C) a fast depressurization.
D) an electrical fire.

Question 692 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If ditching is inevitable:

A) life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane.

B) non swimmers are to be evacuated first.
C) passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is inevitable
that some of them will die from drowning.
D) the use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching.

Question 693 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the evacuation time for an aeroplane with more than 44 seats?

A) 120secs.
B) 132secs.
C) 60secs.
D) 90secs.
Question 694 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

A) a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants.
B an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or
) on the surface.
C) a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its
occupants.
D) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board.

Question 695 of 782 PREV | NEXT

After ditching, when must a passenger inflate the life jacket?

A) If the water is deep.

B) After leaving the aeroplane.
C) On entering the water.
D) Before leaving the aeroplane.

Question 696 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an
emergency landing are:

1. legs together and feet flat on the floor

2. head resting against the back of the front seat
3. forearms on the armrests
4. seat belt very tightly fastened
5. head resting on the forearm

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 4, 5
)
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4

Question 697 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:

1. Remain on the runway.

2. Clear the runway using the first available taxiway.
3. Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on.
4. Turn off all systems.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 2, 3

Question 698 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Pilots of aircraft in flight are permitted to jettison fuel...

A in an emergency.
)
B) at all times to reduce landing distance required.
C) under no circumstances since dropping or spraying of materials from airplanes is prohibited (Rules
of the air).
D) if extra fuel is no longer required.

Question 699 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Fuel jettison should be carried out:

A) over the sea.

B all answers are correct.
)
C) anywhere if unavoidable.
D) above 10.000ft AGL.

Question 700 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Once the fuel jettison is complete:

A) ATC is to be informed that jettison is complete.

B) the NO SMOKONG light is to be extinguished.
C) it is essential that the fuel remaining is balances in the tanks and a revised endurance calculated.
D) food distribution is allowed.

Question 701 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the
aircraft weight in an emergency:

A) in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length.
B) in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of
the jettisoning system.
C) unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1
engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative.
D) until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at
landing touchdown.

Question 702 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet
the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements:

A) 60 minutes.
B) 90 minutes.
C) 15 minutes.
D) 30 minutes.

Question 703 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

A) in a holding stack, after control clearance.

B) in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
C) under flight level 50 (FL50).
D) during final phase of approach.

Question 704 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In what minimum time must sufficient fuel be jettisoned in order to comply with approach/climb
gradient specifications?

A) 60 minutes.
B) 15 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 90 minutes.

Question 705 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When a fuel jettison system is required, the system must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel in ...
minutes (starting at MTOW) to reduce the aeroplane weight to the MLW.

A 15
)
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20

Question 706 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Once jettison has begun:

A) fuel flow from the vents is to be visually monitored (where possible).

B radio may be used but limited to essential transmissions only.
)
C) normal operation of flaps/gear is permitted.
D) passenger are restricted to their seats and strapped in.

Question 707 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Fuel jettison:

A is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only.

)
B) is a normal operational procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an
overweight landing may result in damage to the aeroplane.
C) may authorised by ATC to reduce delays by protracted holding procedures.
D) may be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation.

Question 708 of 782 PREV | NEXT

From the following list:

1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard.
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane.
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane.
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.

Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:

A 1, 2, 3, 4.
)
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

Question 709 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the
markings related to dangerous goods:

A) French.
B) Spanish.
C) English, French or Spanish.
D) English.

Question 710 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Dangerous goods are defined as:

A) any items which has the capability to be used for purposes other than that intended.
B articles or substances which are capable of significant risk to health, safety or property.
)
C) guns, ammunition, explosives, toxic waste, or chemical, biological or nuclear agents or reagents.
D) any item which contains toxic liquids or solids.

Question 711 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

A) national aviation administration permission has been granted.

B) government permission has been granted.
C) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions.
D) no passenger is carried on the same flight.

Question 712 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport
airplane, they must be accompanied with a:

A) specialized handling employee.

B) representative of the company owning the materials.
C) transport document for hazardous materials.
D) system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

Question 713 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which ICAO Annex details the SARPS for the carriage of articles or substances which are capable of
posing significant risk to health, safety or property when transported by air.

A) 6
B) 18
C) 16
D) 9

Question 714 of 782 PREV | NEXT

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:

A) the noise pollution of aircraft.
B) the air transport of live animals.
C) the technical operational use of aircraft.
D) the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials.

Question 715 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?

A) Yes, but only goods specified in the technical instructions.

B) No.
C) Yes, if authorised by the authority.
D) Yes, provided they are non toxic.

Question 716 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

A) the shipper.
B) the handling agent.
C) the operator.
D) the captain.

Question 717 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If dangerous goods are to be carried, the commander is to be given information as specified in the
technical instructions. Who is responsible for the provision of this information?

A) The shipper.
B The Operator.
)
C) The Authority.
D) The Loading Supervisor.

Question 718 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods are packed, labelled and carried in accordance
with the regulations?

A) The operator.
B) The commander.
C) The shipping agent.
D) The consignee.

Question 719 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

A) airworthiness certificate.
B) registration certificate.
C) insurance certificate.
D) air carrier certificate.

Question 720 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?

A) Air Operators Certificate.
B) Insurance certificate.
C) Certificate of Airworthiness.
D) Aircraft registration.

Question 721 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods, the transport document, if required, is drawn up by:

A The shipper.
)
B) The handling agent.
C) The operator.
D) The captain.

Question 722 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 3
B) 1
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2

Question 723 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous
goods is complied with?

A) Aerodrome Manager.
B) Sender.
C) Station Manager.
D) Captain

Question 724 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:

A the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
)
B) the shippers declaration for dangerous goods.
C) Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
D) Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.

uestion 725 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Operators are to establish dangerous goods trainings programmes. Where are details of the training
required, published?

A) In the Training Manual.

B) In the Technical Instructions.
C) In the Operations Manual.
D) In ICAO Annex 18.

Question 726 of 782 PREV | NEXT

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with the:

A) safety of the air transport of hazardous

materials.
B) air transport of live animals.
C) noise pollution of aircraft.
D) technical operational use of aircraft.

Question 727 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

A) IATA document Dangerous products transportation.

B ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous
) products.
C) JAR-OPS documentation.
D) aircrafts flight manual.

Question 728 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question
are defined as such by:

A The ICAO document entitled Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by
) air.
B) The UNO document entitled Dangerous Goods Regulations.
C) The directives of the Community Union.
D) The IATA document entitled Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air.

Question 729 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials
are specified in the:

A) operation manual.
B) air carrier certificate.
C) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
D) flight manual.

Question 730 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

A) The operator.
B) The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.
C) The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods.
D) It is not specified.

Question 731 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the marking of cut-in areas?
A) Intermediate lines are to be painted if the corner markings are more than 1m apart.
B) Must be painted either red or white on a yellow background.
C) Must be painted either red or yellow, on a white background if necessary.
D) Must be painted red on a white background with the comers more than 1m apart.

Question 732 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When carrying hazardous dangerous air cargo on an aeroplane with passengers, what must you have?

A) Transport documentation.
B) A trained person accompanying the goods.
C) Details on procedures if spilt during an emergency.
D) A company representative.

Question 733 of 782 PREV | NEXT

From the following list:

1. Fire extinguishers
2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages

Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with
relevant JAR for operating reasons:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only.
B) 1, 2 and 5 only.
C) 2, 3 and 4 only.
D) 3, 4 and 5 only.

Question 734 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air are published in:

A) ICAO document 8168.

B) ICAO document 9284.
C) JAR-APU.
D) ICAO document 4444.

Question 735 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The carriage of dangerous goods in aeroplanes is the subject of specific rules and regulations.
Operators are specifically required to:

A) inspect the content of any consignment to ensure that the consignee has correctly labelled the
contents.
B) specify the manner in which dangerous goods are to be labelled.
C) specify what materials constitute dangerous goods.
D) ensure that the relevant regulations (e.g. ICAO doc9248) are complied with.

Question 736 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory
arrangements is the responsibility of the:

A) captain.
B) aerodrome manager.
C) sender.
D) station manager.

Question 737 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

A) 5%.
B) 10%.
C) 15%.
D) 20%.

Question 738 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as
the:

1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2. Speed is greater than 114 kt.
3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. Speed is greater than 83 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1 and 4.
B) 1 and 2.
C) 3 and 4.
D) 2 and 3.

Question 739 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?

A) 6 hours.
B 24 hours.
)
C) 12 hours.
D) 2 hours.

Question 740 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the JAR-OPS, a runway is considered wet when:

1. It is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the
equivalent of 3 mm of water.
2. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny
appearance.
3. The amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large
stagnant sheets of water.
4. It bears stagnant sheets of water.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 3
)
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4

Question 741 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:

1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the
equivalent of 3 mm of water.
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny
appearance.
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large
stagnant sheets of water.
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1.2.3
B) 4
C) 1.2
D) 1.3

Question 742 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

A) amount of the lift off speed.

B) aircrafts weight.
C) strength of the headwind.
D) depth of the standing water on the runway.

Question 743 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If a runway is contaminated with dry snow, the depth that will preclude operations is:

A) 3 mm
B 60 mm
)
C) 10 mm
D) 15 mm

Question 744 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:

A) letter falling between A and E.

B) zero followed by two decimals.
C) combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
D) percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.

Question 745 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required
runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:

1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.

2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).
 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 2, 3, 4.
)
B) 1, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

Question 746 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A dry runway is one which:

A) is wet but not to a depth of water greater than 3mm.

B can be wet if it has specially prepared grooved or porous surfaces, which maintain effectively dry
) breaking action.
C) Can be wet if it has sufficient camber to allow the water to drain quickly off the surface therefore
maintaining an effective dry braking action.
D) is not contaminated.

Question 747 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a SNOWTAM information is given concerning friction measurements (breaking co-efficient x 100) in

which field of the message?

A) H
B) G
C) N
D) F

Question 748 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

A contaminated.
)
B) wet.
C) flooded.
D) damp.

Question 749 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning
phenomenon will appear is approximately:

A) 87 kt.
B) 112 kt.
C) 56 kt.
D) 145 kt.

Question 750 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 Bar is in danger of dynamic hydroplaning if:

1. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 107 kts.

2. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth.
3. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 95 kts.
 4. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth.

A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 4

Question 751 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If a runway is covered with water which is less than 3mm deep, or where the surface appears
reflective but without standing water patches, it is said to be:

A) damp.
B) wet but not contaminated.
C) dry.
D) wet.

Question 752 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Which combination of statements describes a wet runway?

1. The surface has a shiny appearance.

2. The runway surface has a darker appearance.
3. The runway has 25% or less of the runway surface covered by water less than 3mm deep.
4. The runway has more than 25% of the runway surface covered by water less than 3mm deep.

A) 2, 4
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3

Question 753 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the
estimated time of arrival.
The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

A) 15 %.
B) 17,6 %.
C) 20 %.
D) 18 %.

Question 754 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

A) surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

B) it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
C) its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
D) it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

Question 755 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi, the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
A) 80 kt.
B) 100 kt.
C) 114 kt.
D) 129 kt.

Question 756 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

A) is rough textured.
B) the tyre treads are not in a good state.
C) is very smooth and dirty.
D) is very smooth and clean.

Question 757 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway is known
as:

A) surface tension.
B hydroplaning.
)
C) surface water effect.
D) aqua-skimming.

Question 758 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If a runway is contaminated with wet snow, slush or water, the dept that will preclude operations is:

A 15 mm
)
B) 10 mm
C) 3 mm
D) 60 mm

Question 759 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For any given contaminant by (specific gravity), the aquaplaning speed is given by:

A) the square root of the tyre pressure (Bars) multiplied by nine.

B) the tyre pressure (Bars) divided by nine.
C) nine times the square of the tyre pressure (lbs\sq in).
D) nine times the square root of the tyre pressure (lbs\sq in).

Question 760 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When braking action is good, the measured braking coefficient is:

A) 0.40 or higher.
B) between 0.26 and 0.29.
C) between 0.30 and 0.35.
D) 0.25 or lower.

Question 761 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the
published length, how is this reported:

A) as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM.
B) in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM.
C) it is not reported.
D) by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres.

Question 762 of 782 PREV | NEXT

An aircraft with a tyre pressure of 14 Bar will be subject to hydroplaning when:

i. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth.

ii. The speed is greater than 123 kts.
iii. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth.
iv. The speed is greater than 95 kts.

A (i) and (ii)

)
B) (ii) and (iii)
C) (iii) and (iv)
D) (i) and (iv)

Question 763 of 782 PREV | NEXT

How is braking efficiency presented?

A) As a function of the length of the runway.

B) Poor, medium, good.
C) Decimal followed by two significant figures.
D) Sequentially from A to E.

Question 764 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and where
would the information be displayed?

A) Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage.

B) Box C with the runway designator.
C) Box T explained in plain English.
D) Box D with the cleared length in metres.

Question 765 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as
the:

1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2. speed is greater than 123 kt.
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. speed is greater than 95 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1 and 4.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 3 and 4.
D) 1 and 2.
Question 766 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2. Speed is greater than 96 kt.
3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. Speed is greater than 127 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 3 and 4.
B) 1 and 2.
C) 1 and 4.
D) 2 and 3.

Question 767 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?

A) Good to medium.
B) Medium.
C) Poor.
D) Medium to Poor.

Question 768 of 782 PREV | NEXT

If the surface of a runway is not dry, but the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance, the
runway is:

A) wet but not contaminated.

B damp.
)
C) dry.
D) wet.

Question 769 of 782 PREV | NEXT

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:

1. you increase your approach speed

2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and
immediately land your nose gear
3. you decrease your approach speed
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices
5. you land as smoothly as possible
6. you brake energetically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A 1, 2, 4.
)
B) 3, 5.
C) 1, 4, 5, 6.
D) 2, 3, 4.
Question 770 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When braking action is poor, the measured braking coefficient is:

A) between 0.30 and 0.35.

B) 0.40 or higher.
C) between 0.26 and 0.29.
D) 0.25 or lower.

Question 771 of 782 PREV | NEXT

When braking action is medium, the measured braking coefficient is:

A) 0.25 or lower.
B) 0.40 or higher.
C) between 0.26 and 0.29.
D) between 0.30 and 0.35.

Question 772 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Your aircraft flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances
on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at
the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

A) 17,6 %.
B) 18 %.
C) 15 %.
D) 20 %.

Question 773 of 782 PREV | NEXT

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A) More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3mm deep.

B 25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3mm.
)
C) Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement.
D) Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3mm. appearing non-reflective.

Question 774 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

A) 12 hours.
B) 6 hours.
C) 3 hours.
D) 24 hours.

Question 775 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:

A) increases the hydroplaning speed.

B) maintains the hydroplaning speed.
C) maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.
D) decreases the hydroplaning speed.
Question 776 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Apart from aquaplaning and reduced breaking efficiency, what other hazards are associated with
heavy rain contamination of runways:

A water ingress into engines can cause flame-out.

)
B) the efficiency of jet engines is reduced by the ingress of water diluting the fuel.
C) the refraction of light from landings lights causes visual impairment.
D) wet aeroplanes do not perform as well as dry ones.

Question 777 of 782 PREV | NEXT

The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

A) viscous hydroplaning.
B) dynamic hydroplaning.
C) rubber reversion hydroplaning.
D) rubber steaming hydroplaning.

Question 778 of 782 PREV | NEXT

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:

A) a smooth & clear runway surface.

B) bald tyres.
C) a rough runway surface.
D) a smooth and dirty runway surface.

Question 779 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

A) unreliable.
B) medium.
C) good.
D) poor.

Question 780 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:

1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2. Speed is greater than 132 kt.
3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. Speed is greater than 117 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 3.
B 1, 2.
)
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 4.
Question 781 of 782 PREV | NEXT

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as
the:

1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2. speed is greater than 104 kt.
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. speed is greater than 96 kt.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 4

Question 782 of 782 PREV | NEXT

A runway is considered damp:

A) if more than 25 percent of the surface area is covered by surface water more than 3 mm deep.
B) if more than 25 percent of the surface area is covered by ice.
C) when the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance.
D) when the surface is neither wet or contaminated.