8876.

The tropopause is a level at which:

A – vertical currents are strongest

B – water vapour content is greatest
C – pressure remains constant
D – temperature ceases to fall with increasing height

Ref: all

Ans: D

8889. The tropopause is lower;

A – south of the equator than north of it

B – in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
C – over the North pole than over the equator
D – over the equator than over the South Pole

Ref: all

Ans: C

. u k
10050. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the
troposphere?
a l e .co
o t
A – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest e s
other gases

m N
B – 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other
3
gases
6
f r o
C – 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest
o f 3
other gases

v i e w
D – 50% oxygen, 40$
2
nitrogen and the rest
e
other gases

P r e
Ref: all P a g
Ans: A

10055. In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?

A – Troposphere
B – Tropopause
C – Stratosphere
D – Stratopause

Ref: all

Ans: A
10825. Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?

A – It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

B – It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
C – It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
D – It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

10846. The average height of the tropopause at 50oN is about:

A – 14 km
B – 8 km
C – 11 km
D – 16 km

Ref: all

Ans: C

10851. The troposphere:

. u k
a l e .co
o t s
A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
e
B – contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
N 3
C – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
m 6
f r o f 3
D – reaches the same height at all latitudes
o
v ie w e 4
r e
Ref: all
P Ans: A P a g
10855. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the
northern hemisphere?

A – It remains constant throughout the year

B – It remains constant from north to south
C – It increases from south to north
D – It decreases from south to north

Ref: all

Ans: D
24425. Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the
poles
D – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: D

24440. Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

A – The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80oC over the Poles

and approximately -40oC over the equator
B – Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs
C – in the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles
than over the equator
D – The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: D
a l e.co
o
050-01-02 Temperature t e s
m Ntropopause? 63
f r o
8808. Which is true of the temperature at the
o f 3
A – Itv is i e w e 7
PrBCe–– ItIt isis higher
higher
P g
in polar regions
in equatorial
than in equatorial regions
a regions than in polar regions
highest in middle latitudes
D – There is no significant difference with change of latitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

8810. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the

following contribute the most?

A – Absorption and evaporation

B – Solar radiation and conduction
C – Absorption and vaporisation
D – Convection and condensation

Ref: all

Ans: D
10802. The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if
the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

A - -4oC
B - -8oC
C – 0oC
D - +4oC

Ref: all

Ans: B

10812. The temperature at FL 140 is -12oC. What will the temperature be at FL 110
if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied:

A - -9oC
B - -18oC
C - -6oC
D - -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: C
. u k
a l e .co
o t s
10820. The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if
e
the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

m N 3 6 3
A - +2 C o

f r o o f
B - -6 C
C – 0v
o

C ie
w e 1 4
r e o

P D - -4 C Pa
o g
Ref: all

Ans: D

10839. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:

A – clear and winds are strong

B – clear and winds are weak
C – overcast and winds are weak
D – overcast and winds are strong

Ref: all

Ans: B
10127. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere?

A – 2oC per 1000m

B – 4.5oC per 1000m
C – 3oC per 1000m
D – 6.5oC per 1000m

Ref: all

Ans: D

10136. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions
which of the following average heights is applicable?

A – FL 50
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
. u k
Ref: all
a l e .co
Ans: D
o t e s
10736. A 300 hPa pressure levelo m N 3 6 3regions which of
the following w f r can
f
vary in height. In temperate
1 o
e v i e average heights is applicable?

g e 3
r
P AB –– FLFL 390
100
Pa
C – FL 300
D – FL 50

Ref: all

Ans: C

19763. If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

A - +15oC
B - +5oC
C - -10oC
D - -15oC

Ref: all

Ans: B
8870. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind
from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=

A – It remains constant
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be
answered

Ref: all

Ans: C

8875. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?

A – Elevation and the temperature at the airfield

B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
. u k
a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
Ans: D
m N 3 6 3
f r o o f is 1025 hPa, what is the
w
ieQFE? ge 3
8879. If the QNH at Locarno
v 7
(200 metres above sea level)

r e
approximate
P A – 1005 hPa Pa
B – 995 hPa
C – 1000 hPa
D – 1025 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

10030. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?

A – 20660 feet
B – 19310 feet
C – 21740 feet
D – 18260 feet

Ref: all
10101. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight
altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the standard atmosphere.
The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you
effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?

A – 15900 ft
B – 13830 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 14100 ft

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: D

10113. QNH is defined as:

A – The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere

B – The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditions
. u k
C – QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
a l.co
e
D – QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
o t e s
Ref: all
m N 3 6 3
f r o o f
Ans: D
v i e w e 4 0
10124. r e
which pressure anda
P Atminimum g
P temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum
safe altitude?

A – In a cold low pressure region

B – At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the
QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
C – At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH
is less than 1013 hPa
D – In a warm high pressure region

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B
10799. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be
known?

A – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield

Ref: all

Ans: D

10803. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of
1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?

A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
. u k
D – 998 hPa
a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ans: B
f r o o f
10808. Whatv i w
e is requirede 3
4 a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
r e information
P usable flight level?Pa g to convert

A – Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation

from ISA
B – Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation
from ISA
C – Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from
ISA
D – Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from
ISA

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A
10873. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The
reason for this is that:

A – the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca

B – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C – the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C

10876. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to
Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing.
What is the probable reason for this?

A – One of the QNH values must be wrong

.
B – The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorcau k
C – The altimeter is faulty
a l e .co
s
D – The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
te
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir No
r o m 3 6 3
w f 7 o f
Ans: B
e v i e g e 4
P You
10881. r plan a flight overa
P a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL.
o
The air is on an average 15 C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is
1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?

A – 15690 ft
B – 16230 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 13830 ft

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B

15812. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated
50 ft below sea level?

A – QFE equals QNH

B – No clear relationship exists
C – QFE is greater than QNH
D – QFE is smaller than QNH
 Ref: all

Ans: C
15824. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The
air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?

A – Less than 1022 hPa

B – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
C – More than 1022 hPa
D – 1022 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: B

15825. If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1016 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)

A – 1005 hPa
B – 990 hPa
C – 995 hPa
D – 1000 hPa
. u k
a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
Ans: B
m N 3 6 3
flyingf
15826. An aircraft is w
r o o f a true altitude of 12000 feet,
local v i eis 1013 hPa.gWhat e 8
over the sea at FL 120, with
4 if any, can be made about the air
r e QNHY
a is flying?
P mass in which thePaircraft
assumption,

A – It is warmer than ISA

B – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
C – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
D – It is colder than ISA

Ref: all

Ans: C

15827. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?

A – It will decrease
B – It will remain the same
C – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
D – It will increase
16521. You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your
altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a
minimum a true altitude?

1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that of an area of high pressure

2) Flying from an area of high pressure to that of an area of low pressure
3) Flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass
4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass

A – 1, 3
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

. u k
16522. You are flying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5600 ft. Airport

a l e .co
elevation = 2785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value

height above ground of:

o t s
of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a
e
m N 3 6 3
(standard pressure setting = 1013 hPa, 1 hPa = 30 ft)

A – 5000 ft w f
r o o f
v i fte e 5 3
r e
B – 5600
P CD –– 2815 ft
Pa g
2215 ft

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C

16523. Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa. You have been cleared to join the
traffic circuit at 2600 ft and received current QNH = 1010 hPa. You join the
circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter. Other aircraft with correct
altimeter settings indicating 2600 ft in the circuit will, compared to you, be
flying:

A – 300 ft above
B – 300 ft below
C – 100 ft above
D – 100 ft below

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

24273. Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oC
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa

What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?

A – 4325 ft
B – 4190 ft
C – 3515 ft
D – 4865 ft

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C

24280. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
. u k
a l e .co
o t s
A – the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL
e
B – the conditions must be as in the ISA

m N 3 6 3
C – the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA

f r o f
D – the airport must be at MSL
o
v ie w e 5 9
r e
Ref: all
P Ans: D Pa g
24313. Pressure altitude is obtained by:

A – setting the altimeter to QFF pressure

B – correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
C – setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea
level
D – setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D
8952. The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because:

A – the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force
B – contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the
upper air
C – the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low
pressure system
D – the friction of the air with the earth’s surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force

Ref: all

Ans: A

8953. During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic

conditions, the:

A – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon

B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
. u k
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the early afternoon
a l e .co
o t e s
D – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

Ref: all
m N 3 6 3
f r o o f
Ans: A
v i e w e 6 3
r e
P(Refer
8963.
Pa
to figure 050-10) g
Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B?

A–2
B–3
C–4
D–1

Ref: all

Ans: B
10697. When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be:

A – strong
B – blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C – changing direction rapidly
D – light

Ref: all

Ans: A

10698. Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around
high and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart?

A – When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater
and wind velocities are stronger
B – Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
C – Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
D – When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by
stationary lenticular clouds
. u k
Ref: all
a l e .co
Ans: A
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
f r o
10701. Which forces are balanced with
f
geostrophic winds?
o
v i w
egradient force, e 2
7force
r e
A – Pressure
P BC –– Friction g coriolis
Pa gradient force, coriolis force
force, pressure
Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal force
D – Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force

Ref: all

Ans: A

10719. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the
right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is
the centre of low pressure?

A – To the left
B – Behind
C – In front
D – To the right

Ref: all

Ans: C
10777. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?

A – At the centre of a high pressure system

B – At the centre of a low pressure system
C – In the transition zone between two air masses
D – Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the
winter months

Ref: all

Ans: C

15863. The geostrophic wind depends on:

A – density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitude

B – earth’s rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C – geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
D – centripetal force, height, pressure gradient

Ref: all

Ans: A
. u k
a l e .co
o t e s
15865. The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:

A – density of the air

m N 3 6 3
C – curvaturew f r o
B – horizontal pressure gradient
o f
v iofelatitude ge 7
of isobars
3
r e
D – sine
P Ref: all Pa
Ans: B

15866. Geostrophic wind:

A – always increases with increasing height

B – veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
C – is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
D – is directly proportional to the density of the air

Ref: all

Ans: C
10599. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:

A – backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface

B – veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
C – backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
D – veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C

10621. A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is
likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?

A – Parallel to the coastline

B – Land to sea
C – Variable
D – Sea to land

Ref: all

Ans: D
. u k
a l e .co
o t s
10641. In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the
e
centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:
N
right of directly ahead36
the m
A – about 45 degrees to o
3
behindf
B – right and w
r 8 o f
e v
C – left i ebehind ge 8
and
r
P D – directly aheadPa
Ref: all

Ans: C

10658. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the:

A – valley during daylight hours

B – mountain at night
C – mountain during daylight hours
D – valley during daylight as much as at night

Ref: all

Ans: C
10662. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:

A – blowing at night in mid latitudes

B – that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
C – occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
D – occurring only in mid latitudes and in day time

Ref: all

Ans: C

10681. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a
large body of water will experience wind:

A – continually from land to water

B – from the water in daytime and from the land at night
C – continually from water to the land
D – from the land in day time and from the water at night

Ref: all

Ans: B

10684. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfieldc . u k

o runway is
parallel to the coast. When down wind over the sea,a l e . whose
What wind effect should be anticipated on t
o e
final s the airfield is on the right.
approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
m N 3 6 3
f r o o f
v i w
ewind from the g
A – Cross wind from the left
e 8 9
r e
B – Cross
P CD –– Tailwind Pa
right

Headwind

Ref: all

Ans: B

10726. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:

A – down the slope during the night

B – up the slope during the day
C – down the slope during the day
D – up the slope during the night

Ref: all

Ans: A
10186. Super cooled droplets are always:

A – large and at a temperature below freezing

B – small and at a temperature below freezing
C – at a temperature below freezing
D – at a temperature below -60oC

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: C

10189. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

A – Solid direct to liquid

B – Solid direct to vapour
C – Liquid direct to solid
D – Liquid direct to vapour

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: B

050-03-03 Adiabatic processes . u k

a l e .co
e s
9003. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?
o t
A – 1.5 C o
m N 3 6 3
B – 2.0 C o
f r o 2 o f
C – 3.0 C e
v i w
o
1 1
Pre e
Pag
o
D – 3.5 C

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: C

9005. If the surface temperature is 15oC, then the temperature at 10000 ft in a current
of ascending unsaturated air is:

A – 5oC
B – 0oC
C - -15oC
D - -5oC

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: C
9171. Altostratus clouds are classified as:

A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds

Ref: all

Ans: D

9185. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

A – Stratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Cirrus

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B

9186. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?

. u k
a l e .co
A – ST
B – CS
o t e s
C – AS
m N 3 6 3
D – CC
f r o 4 o f
v i e w 1 2
PrAns:eA Pag
Ref: all
e
9189. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

A – ST, AS
B – CU, CB
C – NS, CU
D – CB, CC

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A
9191. Fall-streaks or virga are:

A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching
the ground
B – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C – gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A

9193. Convective clouds are formed:

A – in stable atmosphere
B – in unstable atmosphere
C – in summer during the day only
D – in mid latitudes only

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B
. u k
a l e .co
9194. (Refer to figure 050-02)
o t e s
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
m N 3 6 3
f r o 5 o f
B – Avie
A–D w 1 2
PrCDe–– BC e
Pag
Ref: all

Ans: A

9196. Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:

A – the presence of a low level inversion

B – instability in the atmosphere
C – the presence of warm air aloft
D – poor surface visibility

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: B
16553. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you
distinguish between them?

A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light

B – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C – Steady precipitation from AS
D – The sun can be seen through NS

Ref: all

Ans: A

16554. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?

A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Cirrostratus
D – Cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: B
. u k
16612. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:
a l e .co
A – severe instability
o t e s
B – anabatic winds
m N 3 6 3
D – lee wavesw f
C – katabatic winds
r o 9 o f
v i e e 1 2
PrRef:eAIR: atpl, ir;PHELI:
agatpl, ir
Ans: D

24114. (Refer to figure 050-66)

The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is:

A – CS
B – C1
C – AS
D – CB

Ref: all

Ans: B
24129. (Refer to figure 050-58)
The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:

A – CS
B – CB
C – NS
D – SC

Ref: all

Ans: A

24130. (Refer to figure 050-58)

The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is:

A – CS
B – AS
C – CB
D – CU

Ref: all

Ans: B
. u k
a l e .co
24131. (Refer to figure 050-58)
o t e s
The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:

m N 3 6 3
A – ST
f r o 1 o f
B – CS
v i e w 1 3
PrDe– SC Pag
C – CB
e
Ref: all

Ans: C

24209. A cumulus congestus is:

A – a remnant of a CB
B – a cumulus that is of great vertical extent
C – a cumulus with little vertical development
D – a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ

Ref: all

Ans: B
9119. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?

A – At sunset
B – Shortly after sunrise
C – Late evening
D – Shortly after midnight

Ref: all

Ans: B

9123. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:

A – above 15 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – below 5 kt

Ref: all

Ans: D

9124. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
. u k
a l e .co
o t s
A – When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air
e
B – When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air
N 6 3
C – When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air
m 3
f r o f
D – When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air
6 o
v i e w 1 3
PrAns:eB Pag
Ref: all
e
9130. Freezing fog consists of:

A – frozen water droplets

B – super cooled water droplets
C – frozen minute snow flakes
D – ice crystals

Ref: all

Ans: B
10212. Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15oC and
dew point of 12oC blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperature of
5oC?

A – Radiation fog
B – Advection fog
C – Steam fog
D – Frontal fog

Ref: all

Ans: B

10218. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation
fog?

A – Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air

B – Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
C – Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
D – Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: A
a l e .co
10241. Advection fog can be formed when:
o t e s
A – cold moist air flowso m N
warmer water f 36
3
B – cold moistw f r over a warmer9surface
over
o
e v
C – warmi emoist air flows over
air flows
e a1 3
warmer surface
r
P D – warm moistPair aflowsgover a colder surface
Ref: all

Ans: D

10242. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

A – Very dry air

B – Little or no cloud
C – Strong surface winds
D – Very low temperatures

Ref: all

Ans: B
16582. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:

A – high relative humidity, no cloud

B – high relative humidity, little or no cloud
C – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze
D – high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8 kts or calm)

Ref: all

Ans: D

16583. Which of the following statements is true?

A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind

B – Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)
C – Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion
D – Radiation fog cannot form over the sea

Ref: all

Ans: D

16584. Radiation fog can be dispersed by:

. u k
a l e .co
A – insulation
B – strong winds
o t e s
N 6 3
C – replacement of moist air by drier air
m 3
f r o
D – all of the above
2 o f
v i e w 1 4
PrAns:eD Pag
Ref: all
e
16585. Advection fog is caused by:

A – dry air over a cold surface

B – cold air over a warm moist surface
C – air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surface
D – none of the above

Ref: all

Ans: C
 050-05-02 Types of precipitation
9202. Freezing precipitation occurs:

A – only in the precipitation of a warm front

B – only in the precipitation of a cold front
C – mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
D – mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow

Ref: all

Ans: C

9204. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A – CS
B – NS
C – CB
D – AC

. u k
Ref: all

a l e .co
Ans: C
o t e s
m
9206. With what type of cloud is GR N most commonly
precipitation
3 6 3associated?
f r o 9 o f
A – CC e
v i w 1 4
PrCe– ST Pag
B – AS e
D – CB

Ref: all

Ans: D

9207. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Cumulus
D – Cirrostratus

Ref: all

Ans: A
9221. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

A – Nimbostratus
B – Cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Cumulus and cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: D

9222. Large hail stones:

A – only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudes

B – are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
C – are entirely composed of clear ice
D – only occur in frontal thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B

9223. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

. u k
a l e .co
B – stratified clouds
o t s
A – clouds containing only ice crystals
e
C – cirro-type clouds
m N 3 6 3
f r o
D – convective clouds
1 o f
v i e w 1 5
PrAns:eD Pag
Ref: all
e
9224. What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

A – Nimbostratus
B – Towering cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus

Ref: all

Ans: D
9255. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:

160450Z 23015KT 3000 + RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010

NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG
25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002
NOSIG =
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =

What do you conclude based on these observations?

A – A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
B – A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front
during late afternoon
C – A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front
during late afternoon
. u k
D – Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station

a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
Ans: B
m N 3 6 3
f o
rconditions are you3most
o flikely to encounter when
e w
9258. Which of the following
v i an active warm front1at 6
e
approaching
r e medium to low level?

Pagat low altitude

P A – Severe thunderstorms
B – Low cloud base and poor visibility
C – Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
D – High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: B
24210. A gust front is:

A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm

B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front

Ref: all

Ans: B

24218. A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a

depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of
the observer. For this observer the wind:

A – backs
B – veers
C – initially veers, then backs
D – initially backs, then veers

Ref: all

Ans: A
. u k
a l e .co
o t e s
24241. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

B – the cold air behind iso m N airairahead

A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold
than the cold f 3 6 3
w f ris lifted by the warm
warmer
7 o ahead

e v
D – the i e
C – the cold air
cold air
behind
ahead is
e
lifted 1 7 air

r
P Ref: all Pa g
Ans: B

24242. An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:

A – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm
air at a higher altitude
B – ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude
C – at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead
D – at the rear of the occlusion is less cold that the cold air ahead, with the
warm air at a higher altitude

Ref: all

Ans: D
24324. The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is:

A – arctic air
B – polar air
C – tropical air
D – equatorial air

Ref: all

Ans: C

24326. The arctic front is the boundary between:

A – arctic air and tropical air

B – polar air and tropical air
C – cold polar air and less cold polar air
D – polar air and arctic air

Ref: all

Ans: D

. u k
24330. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and

a l e .co
cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens

arrives. These phenomena:

o t s
and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus
e
m N 3 6 3
B – cold frontw f
A – warm front
r o 9 o f
v i e e 1 7
PrDe– sea breeze front
C – trade wind front

Pag
Ref: all

Ans: A

24332. The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport; cirrus, cirrostratus,

altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typical for:

A – the passage of a squall line

B – the passage of a cold front
C – anti-cyclonic weather
D – the passage of a warm front

Ref: all

Ans: D
24443. Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?

A – The warm front overtakes the cold front

B – The cold front becomes a front aloft
C – The warm front becomes a front aloft
D – Both fronts become fronts aloft

Ref: all

Ans: B

. u k
a l e .co
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
f r o 2 o f
v i e w 1 8
Pre e
Pag
24206. A blocking anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere is:

A – quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone

B – a warm anti-cyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50oN and 70oN
C – situated between 50oN and 70oN/a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions
D – a cold anti-cyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

Ref: all

Ans: B

24263. During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear
skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a
surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an
east/west direction. During:

A – back to NW and strengthen by mid afternoon

B – become southerly to south westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon
C – increase from the north by mid morning becoming calm towards evening
D – veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: B
a l e .co
s
ote on theover
24399. When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere plains (flat country)
with an anti-cyclone on the left andN 3
f r o m a depression
f 3 6right, the wind will be:

e w
A – from the right
8 7 o
v i wind age
1
PrCDe–– aa head
B – from the left

tail wind P

Ref: all

Ans: C

24457. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area.
An anti-cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind
affecting you, will be:

A – from your right

B – from your left
C – from ahead
D – from behind

Ref: all

Ans: A
9395. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air
pool?

A – Nothing (CAVOK)
B – Strong westerly winds
C – Fine weather CU
D – Showers and thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: D

9407. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of:

A – divergence and subsidence

B – convergence and widespread ascent
C – divergence and widespread ascent
D – convergence and subsidence

Ref: all

Ans: B
. u k
a l e .co
depression because of:
o t s
9408. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal
e
m N 3 6 3 widespread
r o
air infthe depression 9 o
A – surface divergence and
descent ofw
f
upper level convergence causing

e v i e
B – surface
e
convergence and upper1 8level divergence causing widespread
r P thegdepression
descent of air ina
P C – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
D – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression

Ref: all

Ans: C

9412. Which is true of a typical non-frontal thermal depression?

A – It forms over the ocean in summer

B – It forms over land in summer
C – It forms over the ocean in winter
D – It forms over land in winter

Ref: all

Ans: B
 Ans: D
9388. The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is:

A – the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
B – the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east
coastline of the USA
C – the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the
island of Reunion
D – the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese
coastline

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

9400. (Refer to figure 050-18)

The arrows labelled “U” represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from:

A – January to March and are called willy willies

B – July to October and are called typhoons
. u k
C – May to July and are called cyclones
a l e .co
D – December to April and are called tornadoes
o t e s
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
m N 3 6 3
f r o 3 o f
Ans: B
v i e w 1 9
re statement P
PWhich
9402. is true e
aforghurricanes in the North Atlantic?
A – From the earth’s surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its
surroundings
B – They intensify rapidly after landfall
C – The diameter is 50-500m
D – Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: A
9490. What name is given to the low level wind system between the sub-tropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?

A – Doldrums
B – Westerly winds
C – Monsoon
D – Trade winds

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

9519. Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the

A – NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ

B – SW monsoon
C – passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean
D – high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B
. u k
9523. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?
a l e .co
A – Thunderstorms and rain
o t e s
B – Continuous rain
m N 3 6 3
C – Clear skies
f r o 0 o f
e w
D – Frontal weather
v i 2 0
PrRef:eAIR: atpl; HELI: e
g cpl
Paatpl,
Ans: A

10297. During July flights from Bangkok (13oN – 100oE) to Karachi (25oN – 67oE)
experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same
flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average head wind of 50 kt. What is
the reason for this difference?

A – The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream
B – The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual,
favourable conditions
C – The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse
conditions
D – The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional
wind system

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D
9527. What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?

A – Mistral
B – Ghibli
C – Bora
D – Scirocco

Ref: all

Ans: C

9747. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

A – Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the
Sun
B – Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
C – Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the
time of the year
D – Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar
Year

Ref: all
. u k
a l e .co
Ans: A
o t e s
m N hours3of6daylight
9808. At what times of the year does the length of the 3 change most
rapidly?
f r o 3 o f
v i e w 2 1
PrBCe–– Summer
A – Spring
e
Equinox and Autumn Equinox

PaandandgSummer
Solstice
Spring Equinox
Winter Solstice
Solstice
D – Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice

Ref: all

Ans: A

10301. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of
air over hills or mountains is known as a:

A – Bora
B – Harmattan
C – Mistral
D – Foehn

Ref: all

Ans: D
25621. (Refer to figure 050-20)
Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced
by the zone of:

A – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts

originating in the adjacent zone of westerly waves
B – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass
between south Australia and Antarctica
C – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous
succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical
convergence zone over central Australia

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans A

25631. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer?

A – 45o – 75o
B – 35o – 45o
C – 15o – 25o
. u k
D – 10o – 15o
a l e.co
Ref: all
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ans: A
f r o 2 o f
25635. Whatv i e w 2 2
r e is the
P tropical air duringPaasummer e
surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime
g afternoon in western Europe?
A – Very poor (less than 1 km)
B – Moderate (several km)
C – Very good (greater than 50 km)
D – Good (greater than 10 km)

Ref: all

Ans: B
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS

050-09-01 Icing
9536. Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:

A – rime ice
B – clear ice
C – hoar frost
D – cloudy ice

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: B

9537. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

A – CU
B – SC
C – NS
. u k
D – C1

a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
Ans: D m N 3 6 3
f r o 3 o f
i e
9541. You have been
v wflying for some time 2
2 in dense layered cloud. The outside air

Pre temperature is -25o

C.
a g
Which eof the following statements is true?
P
A – If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as
CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
B – Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
C – Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
D – In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air
temperature of -5oC

Ref: all

Ans: C
9595. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely:

A – freeze immediately and create rime ice

B – freeze immediately and create clear ice
C – travel back over the wing, creating rime ice
D – travel back over the wing, creating clear ice

Ref: all

Ans: A

9604. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a
white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading edge
of the wing. This contamination is called:

A – Clear ice
B – Rime ice
C – Mixed ice
D – Frost

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: B
. u k
a l e .co
o t e s
9608. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

N when3OAT
A – Level flight below a rain producing
m cloud
6 3is below zero
degrees C
dense f
B – Flying in w
ro 5 o f
e a2
cirrus clouds

r e v i
C – Level
e 2
flight in snowfall below
g nimbostratus layer

Padrizzle
P D – Flying in heavy
Ref: all

Ans: A

9612. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft
icing is most correct?

A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below
minus 12 degrees C
B – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals
produces aircraft icing
D – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud

Ref: all

Ans: C
10376. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:
3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC 14000 ft -6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000
ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing,
in cloud, greatest?

A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220

Ref: all

Ans: B

10377. Clear ice forms as a result of:

A – super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process

B – water vapour freezing to the aircraft
C – ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
D – super cooled droplets freezing on impact

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

. u k
Ans: A
a l e .co
o t e s
10378. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:

m N 3 6 3
A – water vapour
f o
rwater drops 9 of
v i e w
B – large super cooled
2 2
PrDe– snow Pag
C – small
e
super cooled water drops

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all

Ans: C

10379. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is
unable to de-ice nor land?

A – He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability

B – He descends to the warm air layer below
C – He ascends to the cold air layer above
D – He continues to fly at the same altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A
24286. In mature CB’s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological
rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:

A - -23oC to -40oC
B - +5oC to 0oC
C – 0oC to -23oC
D - -40oC to -60oC

Ref: all

Ans: C

24298. In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how
would it normally appear?

A – Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC

and 25oC. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface
on which it freezes
B – Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10oC and
–20oC. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air
stream
C – Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and –
. u k
15oC. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing

a l e .co
D – Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing.

o t e s
Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge

Ref: all
m N 3 6 3
f r o 5 o f
Ans: C
v i e w 2 3
PrThe
24334. eformation ofPclearag e
ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to
be caused by the:

A – relatively slow freezing of small super cooled water droplets and ice
crystals
B – instantaneous freezing of small super cooled water droplets
C – instantaneous freezing of large super cooled water droplets and snow
crystals
D – relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets

Ref: all

Ans: D
10342. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:

A – when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms

B – in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
C – during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
D – near valleys and at the windward side of mountains

Ref: all

Ans: A

10356. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest….

A – at the condensation level when there is a stong surface friction

B – at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
C – at the top of the friction layer
D – at he top of a marked surface-based inversion

Ref: all

Ans: D

10417. Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night:
. u k
a l e .co
o t
B – in unstable atmospheres s
A – and early morning only in summer
e
N 6
C – and early morning only in winter
m 3 3
f r o f
D – in association with radiation inversions
4 o
v i e w 2 4
PrAns:eD Pag
Ref: all
e
10431. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

A – It results in good visual conditions

B – It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
C – It prevents vertical wind shear
D – It promotes vertical wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: D
10383. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at
least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
Which one of the following statements is correct?

A – An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a “Faradays Cage”,

which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the
result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock
B – An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but
the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be
caused
C – Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew
may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing
D – Aircraft made by composite material cant conduct a lightning and will
therefore very seldom be struck

Ref: all

Ans: C

10385. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised

predominantly by down drafts?

A – Dissipating stage
. u k
B – Cumulus stage
a l e .co
C – Mature stage
D – Anvil stage
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ref: all
f r o 1 o f
A ie
Ans: v
w 2 5
P re ag e
10394. What feature is P
normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?

A – Frequent lightning
B – Roll cloud
C – Continuous updraft
D – Rain or hail at the surface

Ref: all

Ans: C
24261. Convective weather phenomena include:

A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large
area
B – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning
strikes
D – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum

Ref: all

Ans: C

24299. In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms
the highest?

A – Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface

B – Advection of warm air over a cold land surface
C – Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface
D – Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface

Ref: all
. u k
a l e .co
Ans: C
te s
by: o
24358. Thunderstorms are often preceded N 3
f r o m f 3 6
e w
A – Altostratus
6 0 o
v i e 2
PrCDe–– Altocumulus
B – Nimbostratus

Altocumulus
ag
PCastellanus
Lenticularis

Ref: all

Ans: C

24367. What is a down burst?

A – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than

the surrounding air
B – A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than
the surrounding air
C – An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high
speeds

Ref: all

Ans: A
24424. Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is
correct?

A – The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory

B – Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft
C – Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage
D – Compasses and electronics are always affected

Ref: all

Ans: A

24436. Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?

A – Advection of cold air over a warm sea

B – Mountain waves
C – Advection of warm air over a cold sea
D – Low level wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: A
. u k
a l e .co
24445. Which statement is correct for microbursts?
o t e s
B – The diameter of the o m N
A – They only develop below convective clouds
6 3
with heavy
3 rain

w f r affected
2 o f
area on the surface does not exceed 4 km

v i e
C – They occur in the tropics only
2 6
PrRef:eall Page
D – Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings

Ans: B

24455. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?

A – Anvil stage
B – Mature stage
C – Initial stage
D – Dissipating stage

Ref: all

Ans: C
24356. The visibility transmitted in a METAR is:

A – given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres

B – the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360o scan at the horizon
C – the lowest observed in a 360o scan from the meteorological station
D – measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the
runway

Ref: all

Ans: C

24362. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

A – Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length

1500 metres
B – RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
C – RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
D – RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres

Ref: all

Ans: C
. u k
a l .co
e
o t e s
24374. What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?

A – By simple interpolation of wind

m N information available3
6 from the 500 and
3 from the 500 and 300
300 hPa charts
f r owind information o f
9the maximum wind information found
v i e wwhile also considering
B – By interpolation of the
2 7 available

PrCe– Byon thereading

hPa charts,
a g e Chart
P direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart
Significant
wind
Weather

D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart

Ref: all

Ans: B
24132. (Refer to figure 050-55)
The pressure system at position “D” is a:

A – secondary low
B – col
C – trough of low pressure
D – ridge of high pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

24136. (Refer to figure 050-18)

The dotted line designated “Z” represents the:

A – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July

B – mean position of the inter-tropical convegency zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – northerly limit of the sub-tropical jet stream during July
D – northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: A
a l .co
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24137. (Refer to figure 050-18)
o t e s
N
The dotted line labelled “Y” represents
m the:
3 6 3
A – axis of thew f o
r jet stream during7 o f
e v
B – mean i e sub-tropical
e 2 9
position of the inter-tropical
January
convergence zone (ITCZ) during
r
P C – mean
January
Pofatheginter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
position
D – axis of the equatorial jet stream during July

Ref: all

Ans: B

24138. (Refer to figure 050-22)

The weather most likely to be experienced at position “R” is:

A – overcast with drizzle and hill fog

B – early morning fog lifting to low stratus
C – increasing amounts of AS and NS – heavy rain
D – fine and warm at first – AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with
thunderstorms

Ref: all

Ans: D
24144. (Refer to figure 050-25)
The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:

A – Maritime tropical
B – Continental polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Maritime polar

Ref: all

Ans: D

24145. (Refer to figure 050-27)

For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight
conditions are:

A – IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icing

B – overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of
thunderstorms
C – below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation
D – high C1 and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility

Ref: all
. u k
a l e .co
Ans: C
o t e s
24146. (Refer to figure 050-27)
For an aircraft at FL 40, o m Nthe front (square
3 6 3from the direction
of square 3D w f r hazard exists before
approaching
9 o f 3C)

v i e a potential
e 2 9 reaching the front in the form of:

PrABe–– severe
clear ice accretion
turbulence
gthe airframe
Paassociated
to
with CB
C – severe turbulence and wind shear
D – severe down drafts from subsiding air

Ref: all

Ans: A
25627. (Refer to figure 050-13)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper leel contour chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?

A – Wind speed at A is higher than at B

B – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
C – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
D – Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B

Ref: all

Ans: C

25628. (Refer to figure 050-46)

Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?

A – ESSA
B – ENGM
C – EKCH
D – LSZH

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: d
a l e .co
25629. (Refer to figure 050-89)
o t e s
m N 340,3where
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL
6 3will your cruising
altitude be?
f r o 2 o f
v i e w 3 2
PrBCe–– Constantly
A – Constantly
e
in the troposphere
g and later in the stratosphere
Pastratosphere
in the
First in the troposphere
D – In the stratosphere for part of time

Ref: all

Ans: B

050-10-03 Information for flight planning

9628. Runway visual range can be reported in:

A – a TAF
B – a METAR
C – a SIGMET
D – both a TA and a METAR

Ref: all
 Ans: B
9632. You receive the following METAR:
LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014
NOSIG= What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?

A – 300 m
B – The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR
C – 700 m
D – 900 m

Ref: all

Ans: B

9633. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?

A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
B – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C – With gusts of at least 25 knots
D – With gusts of at least 35 knots

Ref: all
. u k
Ans: A
a l e .co
o t
9637. Which of the following weather reports could e s
be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
m N 3 6 3
A – 29010KTw 9999 f
r o 3 o fRESHRA NOSIG=
e v i
B – 24009KTe 6000 RA SCT0103
e 2
SCT045TCU 16/12
OVC030
Q1015
12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000=
r
P CD –– 15003KT 9999 a
P9999 gBKN030
BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG=
04012G26KT 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG=

Ref: all

Ans: C

9639. The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is
a:

A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF

Ref: all

Ans: D
9661. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB
BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS=
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports:

A – That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the
TAF
B – That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
C – That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
predicted earlier in the morning
D – That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there
is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF

Ref: all

Ans: C

9662. What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

A – kt
B – kt/100 ft
C – m/100 ft
D – m/sec
. u k
a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
Ans: B
m N 3 6 3
9665. (Refer to figurew f r o 6 o f
e v
In what i e
height
050-70)
range and at what3
e 2
intensity could you encounter turbulence in
r
P CAT area n 2? Pag
o

A – From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate

B – From FL 240 to FL 370, light
C – From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
D – From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate

Ref: all

Ans: A
9674. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum
visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?

A – 5 km
B – 3 km
C – 5 NM
D – 6 km

Ref: all

Ans: B

9675. How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two
upper air chart levels? (eg. Wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa
chart are available)

A – By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts,

. u k
while also considering the maximum wind information found on the
Significant Weather Chart
a l e .co
o t s
B – By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts
e
C – By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart
N 6 3
D – By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart
m 3
f r o 8 o f
Ref: all
v i e w 3 2
PrAns:eA Pag e
9676. (Refer to figure 050-86)
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?

A – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus

B – Individual cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus

Ref: all

Ans: B
10445. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight
from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time:

EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir
blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl
430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb
embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb
ts also fcst move wkn=

Which decision is correct?

A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the
route to be flown
B – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions
along the route would demand too much of the passengers

Ref: all
. u k
a l e .co
Ans: B
o t e s
10446. (Refer to figure 050-100)
m N 3 6 3altitude will the
r o
abovefTunis be found? 5 o
Assuming a normal vertical
freezing levelw
f
temperature gradient, at what

v i e e 3 3
PrABe–– FLFL 20100 Pag
C – FL 180
D – FL 260

Ref: all

Ans: A
10463. A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information
supplied in:

A – TAF and SIGMET

B – TAF and METAR
C – METAR and SIGMET
D – SWC and SIGMET

Ref: all

Ans: D

10470. Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport:

TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002
BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007=
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at
1200 UTC?

A – Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloudbase 500 feet, wind speed 5

knots
B – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230o, cloud base 500 feet
C – Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet calm
. u k
D – Meteorological visibility 2.5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed
5 knots
a l e .co
Ref: all
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ans: D
f r o 8 o f
v e
ofithe
w 3 3
r e
10471. Which
P A – SA Pag e
following phenomena can product a risk of aqua planning?

B – FG
C – BCFG
D - +RA

Ref: all

Ans: D
10495. (Refer to figure 050-90)
Which of these statements is true?

A – Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid

B – Freezing level above Madris is higher than FL 120
C – The front to the north of London is moving south
D – Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France

Ref: all

Ans: D

10499. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?

A – Probability of 30%
B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D – Change expected in less than 30 minutes

Ref: all
. u k
a l e .co
Ans: A
o t e s
10500. Refer to TAF below:
m N 3 6 329018G35KT 5000
f
EGBB 261812 28015G25KTo
rPROB30 TEMPO
9999 SCT025 TEMPO
2 o f1500 TSGR BKN008CB
1822

v i e w
SHRASN BKN010CB
3 4 1821

PrFrome
BECMG 2124 26010KT
e
Payougcan assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham
the TAF above
(EGBB) will be:

A – not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km

B – a maximum of 5 km
C – a minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km
D – more than 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: A
10521. Which of the statements is true concerning equal lines?

A – Severe squall lines always move from north west to south east
B – Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C – For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
D – For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued

Ref: all

Ans: D

10525. (Reer to figure 050-109)

Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens – Geneva at FL
160:

A – 240/40
B – 210/25
C – 260/45
D – 050/35

Ref: all

Ans: A
. u k
a l e .co
10529. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich:
te s
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 N –RAoSCT050 BKN0803

f
6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030
r o m BECMG 1518 f 3 6
23020G35KT
TEMPO 23012KT
4000 RA
OVC010= w
e 4 5 o
v i 3
eat ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
PrTheelowest visibility
P a g
forecast

A – 6 NM
B – 6 km
C – 4 km
D – 10 km

Ref: all

Ans: B
10557. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?

A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
B – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C – Many short term changes in the original weather
D – Many long term changes in the original weather

Ref: all

Ans: A

10578. (Refer to figure 050-46)

On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather
situation?

TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB

BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220=

A – ESSA
. u k
B – EINN
a l e .co
C – LSZH
D – EKCH
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ref: all
f r o 9 o f
B ie
Ans: v
w 3 4
re e
g airport.
P PforaBordeaux
15804. Refer to the TAF
FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is

forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?

A – Light drizzle and fog

B – Moderate snow showers
C – Heavy rain showers
D – Continuous moderate rain

Ref: all

Ans: C
24176. (Refer to figure 050-36)
At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?

TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200

BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
SCT030 OVC050=

A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LOWW
D – LEMD

Ref: all

Ans: B

24187. (Refer to figure 050-04)

To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?

TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113

5020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT
9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1617 5000 SHRA BKN020
. u k
A – EKCH
a l e .co
B – LFPG
C – LEMD
o t e s
D – LOWW
m N 3 6 3
f r o 2 o f
Ref: all
v i e w 3 5
PrAns:eD Pag e
24252. Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC.
TAF YUDO 120600Z 121206 17010KT 3000 SCT005 BECMG 1820
RB03KT BCFG SKC BECMG 2022 0300 FG VV002=

What can be said about the destination airport at 2030 UTC if CAT II ILS
inimum:

A – Open the whole night because 300 m of visibility corresponds to at least

900m RVR
B – Still open until 2200 UTC because the weather change is not completed
before 2200 UTC
C – Has to be considered as closed
D – Still open because the decrease of the visibility below the CAT II minima
will be a little bit later than 2030 UTC

Ref: all

Ans: C
24389. What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?

EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG

1314 9000 SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK

A – 260o / 10 kt
B – Variable / 05 kt
C – Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D – Calm

Ref: all

Ans: A

24390. What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?

MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315

14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA
SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025=

A – 360o / 10 kt
. u k
B – 140o / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
a l e .co
C – 340o / 10 kt
D – 140o / 27 kt
o t e s
m N 3 6 3
Ref: all
f r o 8 o f
B ie
Ans: v
w 3 5
re e
P Pag hazard to safe flight is most likely to be
24391. What type of meteorological
experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?

TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG

1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA

A – Anabatic winds
B – Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C – Radiation fog
D – Low level wind shear

Ref: all

Ans: D
24417. Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?

A – Strong inversion
B – Heavy duststorm
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway

Ref: all

Ans: B

25577. (Refer to figure 050-106)

The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA

BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010

A – EBBR
B – LOWW
C – MADRID
D – PARIS

Ref: all
. u k
a l.co
e
Ans: A
o t e s
25590. (Refer to figure 050-36)
Which weather situationo do m
N 3 6 3UTC?
w f r 0 o f
you expect for EGLL at 1150

e v i
A – 23015KTe e 3
8000 SCT100 BKN200 6 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=
r
P BC –– 32002KT 3000 a g 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=
POBC006
28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG
NSW=
D – 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG
8000=

Ref: all

Ans: D