CHHATTISGARH CJ PRELIMINARY MOCK TEST

1. Which of the following is an essential part of 'Rule of Law' and 'Independence

of Judiciary'?

Judicial Review
Impartial appointment of Judges
Impeachment
Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

2. According to Clause 1 of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of

religion is subject to the interest of ______

Public order
Morality
Health
All of the above

3. Which among the following has the power to extend the functions of the State
Public Service Commission?

The Governor
The State Legislature
The Chief Minister
The Advocate General

4. Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution provides for the
appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?

2nd
3rd
5th
7th

5. Power to constitute new states and determination of its boundaries vests

in______

Parliament
President
Governor
Supreme Court of India

6. The words "Unity and Integrity of the Nation" were incorporated in the Preamble
of The Constitution of India by which Amendment?

41
42
43
44

7. Right to property is a _________

Fundamental Right
Legal Right
Social Right
Directive Principle of the State

8. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State Policy

under The Constitution of India?

Right to adequate means of livelihood

Right to equal pay for equal work
Promotion of international peace and security
Free and compulsory education for children upto fourteen years of age

9. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Backward Classes Commission

Election Commission
Union Public Service Commission
Finance Commission

10. Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by

President of India
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Speaker of Lok Sabha
None of the above

11. Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the removal of a Supreme
Court Judge is given in

Article 126
Article 127
Article 124(4)
Article 124(6)

12. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Election Commission
Finance Commission
Proclamation of Emergency
Union Public Service Commission

13. In a suit against the Central Government the authority to be named as defendant
is

The President
The Prime Minister
The Minister of concerned department
The Union of India

14. Under Section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, second appeal lies to the High
Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court to the High Court
if it involves

Question of Law
Question of Fact
Mixed Question of Law and Fact
Substantial Question of Law

15. The maximum amount which a Court may order for payment of compensatory cost in
case of false or vexatious claims or defence under Civil Procedure Code 1908 is

Rs. 10,000/-
Rs. 3,000/-
Rs. 5,000/-
Rs. 25,000/-

16. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, Attachment before Judgement is
provided?

Order 26 Rule 04
Order 39 Rule 02
Order 38 Rule 05
Order 40 Rule 01

17. Order 5 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 provides for

Admission
Summoning and attendance of witness
Issue and service of summons
Pleadings

18. Pleading can be amended under which of the provisions of Civil Procedure Code
1908:

Order VI, Rule 17

Order I, Rule 10
Order IX, Rule 13
Order VI, Rule 10

19. Attachment of a portion of salary can be continued as a provision of the Code

of Civil Procedure, 1908 for a maximum period of

6 months
12 months
24 months
36 months

20. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit

For partition
For possession and mesne profit
For partnership
All of the above

21. The period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience

or breach of any injunction shall not exceed _____

One month
Three months
Six months
One year

22. A suit in respect of Public Charities is provided under

Section 41 of CPC
Section 92 of CPC
Section 100 of CPC
Section 91 of CPC

23. Where a party dies after conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncement of
the judgement,

The suit shall abate

The suit shall not abate
It will be deemed that the judgement has been pronounced before death of the party
Both B) and C)

24. If a party who has obtained an order to amend the pleadings under Civil
Procedure Code, if not amended after, expiration of how many days shall not be
permitted to amend the same without the leave of the Court?

14 days
15 days
30 days
45 days

25. What is estoppel?

Prohibition from proving a certain fact

Prohibition from claiming a certain property
To stop a person from going back on his or her word
None of the above

26. Thirty years old document if produced from a proper custody

Court shall presume its execution

Court may presume its execution
Presumption not involved
None of the above

27. Which of the following is not included in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

Motive
Intention
Preparation
Conduct

28. Under which section of Indian Evidence Act, a public servant shall not be
compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence?

Section 123
Section 124
Section 125
Section 126

29. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act does not deal with
criminal matters?

Section 25
Section 23
Section 53
Section 30

30. The Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on the electronic
record under Indian Evidence Act when it is

30 years old
03 years old
05 years old
06 years old

31. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Opinions of experts - Sec. 45 of the Evidence Act.
Secondary Evidence - 62 of the Evidence Act.
Leading Question - Sec. 141 of the Evidence Act.
No. of witness - Sec. 134 of the Evidence Act.

32. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of “Res Gestae” is
given

Section - 60
Section - 25
Section - 24
Section - 06

33. Indian Evidence Act does not expressly mention about: -

Oral Evidence
Documentary Evidence
Secondary Evidence
Circumstantial Evidence

34. What is private document?

Document executed in a family

Secret document
Document in custody of private person
Document other than a public document

35. When under section 161 of the code of criminal procedure is statement recorded
by the Police?

During trial
Before investigation
During enquiry
During investigation

36. The procedure for trial before a Court of session is provided under Section
______ of the code of Criminal Procedure

Sec. 262 to sec. 265 of CrPC

Sec. 238 to sec. 250 of CrPC
Sec. 251 to sec. 269 of CrPC
Sec. 225 to sec. 237 of CrPC

37. What is the maximum period an Executive Magistrate may authorize the detention
of an accused in custody?

Not exceeding 24 hours

Not exceeding 3 days
Not exceeding 7 days
Not exceeding 15 days

38. For the purpose of taking cognizance of an offence, what period of limitation
is prescribed for an offence carrying punishment not exceeding one year by the
court

6 months
1 year
3 years
None of the above

39. Under which section of CrPC. Magistrate may direct a local investigation?

Section 133
Section 139
Section 145
Section 146

40. A statement recorded under which section of CrPC need not be signed by the
maker?

164
313
161
None of the above

41. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the CrPC by

Any police officer

The police officer investigating the case
The station house officer
None of the above

42. The prosecution of Judges and public servants are provided in

Section 179 CrPC

Section 192 CrPC
Section 197 CrPC
Section 297 CrPC

43. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the code
of Criminal Procedure 1973; in

Section 312
Section 313
Section 315
Section 316

44. Under section 190(2) of CrPC who may empower any Magistrate of second class to
take cognizance of offences?

High Court
Court of sessions
Chief Judicial Magistrate
None of the above

45. Under which one of the following sections of CrPC., Magistrate second class can
conduct summary trial?

Section 260
Section 261
Section 262
Section 263

46. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under CrPC by Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act 2013, under

Section 357(A)
Section 357(B)
Section 357(C)
Section 357

47. Which are the two essential elements of an offence?

Motive and Act

Motive and Conviction
Motive and Injury
Act and State of mind

48. For the offence of abduction of person, abducted must be: -

Minor
Major
Minor or major
None of the above

49. Under which section of IPC attempt to commit Robbery is punishable?

Section 392
Section 393
Section 395
Section 396

50. Which provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “Nothing is an offence which is
done by a child under 7 years of age”?

Section 79
Section 80
Section 82
Section 85

51. Which one of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code relates to “Criminal
Force”?

Section 349
Section 350
Section 351
None of above

52. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with
punishment for counterfeiting currency notes or Bank notes?

Section 489A
Section 489B
Section 489C
Section 489D

53. If a police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite
producing the bail order from the Court, police officer is guilty of: -

Abduction
Wrongful restraint
Wrongful Confinement
None of the above

54. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is a punishable offence
under Indian Penal Code Under: -
Section 354(A)
Section 354(B)
Section 354(C)
Section 354(D)

55. Under which section of the IPC, Gang rape is punishable?

Section 376(A)
Section 376(B)
Section 376(C)
Section 376(D)

56. Under section 499 of Indian Penal Code how many exceptions are provided for the
offence of defamation?

5
8
9
10

57. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to
punishment for voluntarily causing hurt on provocation?

Section 324
Section 332
Section 334
Section 323

58. Which one of the following sections of Indian Penal Code relates with
punishment for mischief?

Section 426
Section 427
Section 428
None of above

59. Under which section of the Transfer of property Act “Transfer of Property” is
defined?

Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8

60. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is

Illegal
Valid
Void
Voidable

61. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act is not applicable: -

Where the transfer is by way of sale

Where the transfer is by way of gift
Where the transfer is by way of lease
Where the transfer is by way of exchange
62. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for application of
Rule of “Lis Pendens” under section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act.

Pendency of a suit or Proceeding

Pendency in a competent court
Suit must be collusive
Alienation must affect the rights of the other party

63. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, vested interest is ___________.

Defeated by the death of the transferor

Defeated by the death of the transferee
Either or both A) and B)
Neither A) nor B)

64. Any application for which no period of application is provided can be filed
within: -

3 years
1 year
6 months
At anytime

65. The period of limitation for a suit for damages on account of malicious
prosecution is: -

3 years
1 years
2 years
5 years

66. The law of limitation runs from the: -

Date the plaint is returned

Date of the order which plaint is directed to be returned.
Depends upon the circumstances
None of the above

67. Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit

Fraud
Mistake
Concealment
All the above

68. Which of the following sections of Limitation Act deals with effect of
substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant?

Section 18
Section 19
Section 20
Section 21

69. Which section of the Contract Act defines “Sub Agent”?

Section 190
Section 191
Section 192
None of the above
70. The nature of an agreement made under the provisions of Section 20 of the
Indian Contract Act would be: -

Valid
Invalid
Void
Voidable

71. “Contract of Indemnity” is defined in which section of Indian Contract Act?

Section 124
Section 125
Section 126
Section 127

72. Under Section 24 of Indian Contract Act which one of the following agreements
is void?

If caused by fraud
If caused by coercion
If consideration is unlawful
None of the above

73. “The liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal
debtor.” It has been provided under Indian Contract Act: -

In Section 126
In Section 127
In Section 128
In Section 129

74. The Rent controller shall be not below the rank of: -

Tahsildar
Assistant Superintendent
Deputy Collector
Civil Judge

75. The right available to a tenant under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act 2011 is
provided in: -

Schedule 1 of the Act

Schedule 2 of the Act
Schedule 3 of the Act
Schedule 4 of the Act

76. Which of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011
defines “Habitual defaulter”?

Section 2(1)
Section 2(3)
Section 2(4)
Section 2(5)

77. Which of the following is compulsorily registerable under the provision of the
Registration Act 1908?

Will
Deed of Adoption
Debenture
Gift deed of immovable property

78. Section 17 of the Registration Act provides for: -

documents which are not at all registrable

documents which are compulsorily registrable
documents the registration of which is optional
both (A) & (C)

79. Under Registration Act 1908, a Will can be ‘Presented for Registration’ within:
-

Four months of its execution

Six months of its execution
Two months of its execution
At anytime

80. Under Registration Act 1908; on Re-Registration, the Registration shall be

effective: -

From the date of its original Registration

From the date of Presentation for Re-Registration
From the date of Re-Registration
From the Date which the Registrar fixes

81. According to section 7(10) of the Court Fee Act, court fee in the suit for
specific performance would be

According to amount of consideration

According to desire of the plaintiff
Upon discretion of court
None of the above

82. Section 19 of the Court Fee Act 1870 relates to

Refund of Court fee

Remission of Court fee
Exemption of Court fee
Exemption of Court fee of certain document

83. Which section of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code deals with the appointment of
‘Kotwar’: -

Section 225
Section 229
Section 230
Section 234

84. According to Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959, who is not a Revenue officer?

Collector
Settlement officer
Superintendent of Land Records
Revenue Inspector

85. “Agriculture Year”, as defined in section 2(c) of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue
Code 1959 commences: -
From 1st January
From 1st April
From 1st July
From 1st September

86. Which one of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959
provides for remission or suspension of Land Revenue on failure of crops?

Section 142
Section 143
Section 144
Section 145

87. As per Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959, who shall make the assessment of
“Land Revenue” on all lands on which the assessment has not been made?

Tahsildar
Sub Divisional Officer
Collector
Commissioner

88. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 who has the power to declare as to what
shall be deemed to be country liquor and foreign liquor?

Central Government
State Government
Chief Revenue Authority
Excise Officer

89. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 Tari means: -

Fermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree.

Unfermented juice drawn from any kind of palm tree
Both “A” and “B” above
None of the above

90. Provision for enhanced punishment in case of subsequent conviction for certain
crimes punishable under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 is provided under: -

Section 34(1)
Section 34(2)
Section 36
Section 45

91. Section 66 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 relates to: -

Limitation of suits
Recovery of Government dues
Power of State Government to exempt from the provisions of the Act
Power to search without warrant

92. When is an offence under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
compoundable?

If the cheque amount is upto Rs. 5,00,000/-

If the cheque amount is Rs. 10,00,000/-
If the cheque amount is upto Rs. 20,00,000/-
Cheque for any amount
93. The term ‘a Cheque in the electronic form’ is defined in Negotiable Instruments
Act 1881 under: -

Section 6(a)
Section 6(b)
Explanation 1(a) of Section 6
None of the above

94. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, the maximum
punishment prescribed is

Imprisonment upto One year and fine upto the amount of cheque
Imprisonment upto Two years and fine upto the amount of cheque
Imprisonment upto Two years and fine upto the twice the amount of cheque
None of the above

95. As per Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, a ‘Bill of Exchange’ is: -

A Conditional promise to pay

An Unconditional order to pay
An Unconditional promise to pay
None of the above

96. A ‘Demand Draft’ is defined under section ________ of the Negotiable

Instruments Act 1881

Section 17
Section 18(B)
Section 85(A)
Section 7

97. A suit for possession of an immovable property under section 6 of the Specific
Relief Act can be filed within: -

6 months of dispossession
1 year of dispossession
3 years of dispossession
12 years of dispossession

98. Under which Section of Specific Relief Act 1963, the provision for partial
cancellation of an instrument is made

Section 31
Section 27
Section 32
Section 29

99. A declaration made under Chapter 6 of Specific Relief Act 1963, is binding on

The parties to the suit

Person claiming through the Parties to the suit
Both A and B above
None of the above

100. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act 1963, deals with
cases where an injunction may be refused?

Section 38
Section 39
section 41
Section 42

Answers

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D B D A B B D A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C D D B C C A C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B B D A C B B B B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B D D D D D C B B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C C C B C D C B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A C A D D C A A C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C D A B D D D B C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C C C A C D B D A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A D C D C C C B C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C D C C B C A C C C