TEST PAPER 2019 A F M G-LIMRA
ORTHOPAEDICS TEST d. Type IV
1. Who is called the Father of Modern Orthopaedics? 11. Bennet fracture is displaced because of the pull of
a. Sir Robert Jones which muscle
b. Nicolas Andry a. Adductor pollicis
c. Lorenz Bohler b. Flexor pollicisbrevis
d. Sir H.O Thomas c. Flexor pollicislongus
2. Most common fracture in children who have d. Abductor pollicislongus
history of fall on outstretched hand 12. What is this mode of treatment called as?
a. Green stick fracture of forearm bones
b. Supracondylar humerus
c. Clavicle fracture
d. Tibia fracture a. Russel’s traction
3. True about osteoclast all except b. 90-90 traction
a. derived from monocyte c. Buck’s traction
b. stimulated by PTH d. Gallows traction
c. phagocytosis of foreign bodies 13. The most consistent sign of fracture is
d. resorption of bone a. Abnormal mobility
4. Implants can be removed from bone in which b. Crepitus
stage? c. Tenderness
a. Callus d. Swelling
b. Remodelling 14. What is the diagnosis in the figure show
c. Consolidation
d. Lamellar bone
5. Splint shown in the figure is
a. Cock Robbins deformity
a. To splint fracture shaft of humerus b. Spade deformity
b. To stabilize cervical spine after trauma c. Gun stock deformity
c. For transportation of polytrauma patients d. Wind swept deformity
d. homas splint
15. Which of the following is not a treatment option
6. Which of the following is a fracture of necessity? for Compartment syndrome?
a. Lateral condyle humerus a. Fasciotomy
b. Neck of femur b. Max page operation
c. Shaft of femur c. Bone shortening
d. Both bone fore arm fracture d. Turn buckle splint
7. Which of the following fracture needs to be 16. Treatment of a 70 years old male with fracture
managed by ORIF? neck of femur more than 3 weeks old is
a. Shaft femur fracture a. Pauwell’s osteotomy
b. Supra condylar humerus fracture b. Hemiarthroplasty
c. Potts fracture c. THR
d. Neck femur fracture d. Girdlestonearthroplasty
8. Runner’s fracture is stress fracture of 17. A patient came with complaint of difficulty in
a. Proximal fibula climbing up stairs. When he is made to stand on
b. Proximal fibula left leg, the right side of pelvis drops down but
c. Distal fibula when he is made to stand on his right leg the left
d. Second metatarsal side of pelvis can be drawn up. Which nerve in
9. Out of following least common complication of injured?
Colles fracture a. Right Inferior gluteal nerve injury
a. Non union b. Right Superior gluteal nerve injury
b. Sudeck’sosteodystrophy c. Left Superior gluteal nerve injury
c. Dinner fork deformity d. Left Inferior gluteal nerve injury
d. EPL tendon rupture 18. Bankart’s lesion involves labral tear from
10. Commonest type of physeal injury? a. Anterior glenoid rim
a. Type I b. Antero inferior glenoid rim
b. Type II c. Posterior superior humeral head
c. Type III d. Posterior glenoid rim
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TEST PAPER 2019 A F M G-LIMRA
19. The test for postero lateral instability of knee b. Extensor digitorumcommunis
a. Pivot shift test c. Extensor indicis
b. Quadriceps active test d. Flexor digitorumprofundus
c. Anterior drawer test 29. Empty can test is for
d. Dial test a. Supraspinatous
20. A 20 year old male after being run over by a truck b. Subscapularis
is brought to emergency in a state of shock with c. Infraspinatous
thin thready fast feeble pulse and a dropping BP d. Teres Minor
and urine output. X-ray showed a fracture of pelvis 30. Amputation shown in the figure is
with vertical displacements of sacroiliac joint. Next
step of management
a. Tie a pelvic binder
b. Urgently post for fixation under a. Krukenberg amputation
anaesthesia b. Chopart’s amputation
c. Stabilize the cervical spine c. Pirogoff amputation
d. Assess airway d. Syme’s amputation
21. All of the following are sites for AVN except? 31. Most common cause of Osteomyelitis in sickle cell
a. Body of talus in fracture neck of talus disease is
b. Dome of talus in fracture body of talus a. Salmonella
c. Head of femur in fracture neck of femur b. Staph aureus
d. Proximal pole of scaphoid in fracture neck c. Pseudomonas
of scaphoid d. Streptococcus pyogenes
22. Osteochondritisdissecans involves 32. Figure below shows the treatment of a 3 month
a. Medial part of lateral femoral condyle child who had CDH. What is the apparatus in use
b. Lateral part of medial tibial condyle called as?
c. Medial part of lateral tibial condyle
d. Lateral part of medial femoral condyle
23. The clinical test for Tennis elbow is
a. Cozen’s test
b. Finkelstein test
c. Phalen’s test
d. Simmond’s test a. Von rosen splint
24. House maid’s knee is inflammation of b. Pavlik harness
a. Pre patellar bursa c. Petrie’s orthosis
b. Deep layer of infra patellar bursa d. Boston brace
c. Superficial layer of infra patellar bursa
d. Retro patellar bursa 33. A 12 year old obese boy was referred to
25. The child in figure probably has emergency from endocrinology department for
painful limp since 1 month. All of the following
investigation are helpful except
a. USG hip
b. CT B/L hip
c. X-ray pelvis with hip
a. Juvenile chronic arthritis d. MRI B/L hip
b. Pseudoarthrosis of tibia 34. Findings in the image suggest paralysis of which
c. Hyperparathyroidism nerve?
d. Rickets
26. Which ligament is stretched in flat foot?
a. Deltoid ligament
b. Spring ligament
c. ATFL a. Ulnar nerve
d. Abductor hallucis ligament b. Median nerve
27. CTEV in an adult is best treated by c. Radial nerve
a. Observation and neglect d. Musculo cutaneous nerve
b. Corrective splint 35. Pope sign is seen in
c. Manipulation and casting a. Ulnar nerve
d. Triple arthrodesis b. Median nerve
28. Mallet finger is due to rupture of c. Radial nerve
a. Flexor digitorumsuperficialis d. Axillary nerve
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TEST PAPER 2019 A F M G-LIMRA
36. Clinical test for carpal tunnel syndrome is a. Fallen leaf sign
a. Phalen’s test b. Ground glass appearance
b. Finkelstein test c. Pop corn like calcification
c. Empty can test d. Chinese letter pattern
d. Cozen’s test 46. Identify the X ray sign:
37. Nerve involved in Holstein Lewis fracture?
a. Axillary nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Posterior interosseous nerve
38. Axillary crutch paralysis is related to which nerve a. Fallen leaf sign
a. Median nerve b. Ground glass appearance
b. Axillary nerve c. Shephard crook deformity
c. Radial nerve d. Rind sign
d. Ulnar nerve 47. Commonest GCT variant?
39. Jones tendon transfer is performed to treat which a. Chondroblastoma
nerve palsy? b. ABC
a. Radial nerve c. Enchondroma
b. Ulnar nerve d. Non ossifying fibroma
c. Median nerve 48. This X-ray picture of Osteosarcoma is the result of
d. Sciatic nerve
40. Lover’s fracture that occurs in fall from height
involves?
a. D12 fracture
b. Talus fracture
c. Base of skull fracture
d. Calcaneum fracture a. Periosteal reaction
41. A 52 year old woman presents to her GP with a b. Calcification along blood vessels
longstanding history of lower back pain which has c. Callus due to pathological fracture
suddenly worsened in severity over the past few d. None of these
days. An urgent MRI scan of the lumbar spine
shows a right paracentral disc protrusion at the 49. Bone to bone metastasis is commonly seen in
L4/L5 level. The disc impinges on the lateral recess a. Osteosarcoma
at this level. The most likely outcome would be b. Ewings sarcoma
a. Caudaequina syndrome c. Chondrosarcoma
b. Lumbar plexus compression d. Reticulum cell carcinoma
c. Loss of ankle dorsiflexion 50. Most common site of Admantinoma is
d. Loss of function of EHL a. Mandible near symphisismanti
42. The x ray sign (shown in fig) seen in b. Mandible near the molar tooth
Spondylolisthesis is c. Diaphysis of tibia
d. Hard palate
a. Scottish dog sign
b. Inverted napoleon hat sign
c. Beheaded Scottish dog sign
d. Piece of pie sign
43. Commonest part of spine involved in TB
a. Lumbar spine
b. Dorsal spine
c. Dorso-lumbar spine
d. Cervical spine
44. All of the following tumours are found in the
metaphysis except
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Giant cell tumour
45. Classical x ray sign of Fibrous dysplasia is
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