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IBPS clerk question paper 14-12-2016

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given
questions.

W2XT3*ZbU4OP9$QGD5#WEJ6&8K@7+

1. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which will be the eleventh element from
the right end of the given arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) G
(3) D
(4) 5
(5) P

2. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangment each of which is immediately followed
by a letter and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) More than three

(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
(5) One

3. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given
arrangement?

(1) b
(2) *
(3) U
(4) Z
(5) 4

4. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the given
arrangement?

WXT 3ZU 4PQ G5J ?

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(1) W2b
(2) 6%8
(3) 6%+
(4) WXZ
(5) &8+

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) TW3
(2) @%7
(3) G9D
(4) b3U
(5) $9Q
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10): The questions is based on the five three-digit numbers given below.

476 538 289 814 753

6. Which of the following is the second digit of the three digit number obtained by subtracting the
lowest number from the highest number?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
(5) 7

7. If ‘1’ is added to the first digit in each number and then the position of the first and the third digits
are interchanged. Which of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number thus
formed?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8
(5) 7

8. In which of these digits, the sum of all the three digits is an even number?

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(1) 753
(2) 538
(3) 269
(4) 476
(5) 814

9. Which of the following is the sum of the second and third digits of the second lowest number?

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 91
(4) 11
(5) 13

10. If ‘1’ is subtracted from third digit in the each number and the position of the first and third digits
are interchanged. Which of the following will be the first digit of the third highest number thus
formed?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
(5) 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): In these questions, the symbol @, %, Ó, $ and # are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P Ó Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.

Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is definitely true.

11. Statements

H @ K, K % M, M Ó D

Conclusions

I. H @ D II. K % D

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(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.

(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

12. Statements

R % H, H Ó T, T @ K

Conclusions

I. T Ó R

II. K % H

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.

(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

13. Statements

R Ó D, D $ M, M # J

Conclusions

I. J # D II. J % D

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.

(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

14. Statements

W # D, Z Ó B, B $ H

Conclusions

I. H # Z II. B % W

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(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.

(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

15. Statements

F $ N, N @ D, D % B

Conclusions

I. F @ D II. B @ N

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.

(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20): In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements

All buses are cars.

All Scooters are buses.

Conclusions

I. No scooter is a bus.
II. All cars are buses.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

17. Statements

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No auditorium is hall.
All theatres are halls.

Conclusions

I. No auditorium is a theatre.
II. All halls are theatres.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

18. Statements

Some drugs are medicines.

No medicine is a treatment.

Conclusions

I. All treatments being drugs is a possibility.

II. All drugs can never be treatments.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

19. Statements

Some cameras are photos.

All cameras are snaps.

Conclusions

I. All snaps are photos.

II. Some snaps are photos.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

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(4) Only conclusion II is true.

(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.

20. Statements

Some computers are tablets.

Some laptops are computers.

Conclusions

I. No laptop is a tablet.
II. All tablets being computers is a possibility.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(2) Only conclusion I is true.
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
(5) Both conclusions I and II are ture.
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:

Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of
them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones
who sit at the four sides face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.

· Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
· O sits third to the right of Q.
· Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
· M sits second to left of N.
· N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.

21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?

(1) L
(2) R
(3) S
(4) O
(5) P

22. Who sits third to the left of Q?

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(1) M
(2) S
(3) R
(4) N
(5) P

23. How many people sit between M and S when counted from the right hand side of S?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) None
(4) Two
(5) Four

24. Which of the following is true regarding P?

(1) P sits exactly between M and N.

(2) O sits second to right of P.
(3) None of the given options is true.
(4) L sits immediate right of P.
(5) Q is an immediate neighbour of P.

25. What is the position of P with respect to S?

(1) Fourth to the left

(2) Second to the right
(3) Second to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Third to the left
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): Study the information and answer the given questions.
In a certain code language
‘work never goes waste’ is written as ‘rb mk ni tj’
‘never waste your time’ is written as ‘ni ap sy rb’
‘focus on your work’ is written as ‘mk ap cn or’
‘focus goes with time’ is written as ‘sy tj cn ke’

(All the codes are two letter codes only)

26. In the given code language, what does the code ‘tj’ stand for?

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(1) never
(2) goes
(3) on
(4) work
(5) waste

27. What is the code for ‘focus’ in the given code language?

(1) ap
(2) ni
(3) sy
(4) cn
(5) mk

28. What is the code for ‘time’ in the given code language?

(1) tj
(2) sy
(3) ni
(4) cn
(5) rb

29. Which of the possibly means ‘work on projects’?

(1) sy cn tj
(2) gt cn or
(3) mk gt or
(4) mk cn gt
(5) mk or sy

30. In the given code language, what does the code ‘rb’ stand for?

(1) Either ‘never’ or ‘waste’

(2) goes
(3) your
(4) work
(5) time
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35): Study the following information to answer the given
questions.

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Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an
equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1-V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in
the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2-F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not
necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

· Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
· Only one person sits between F and I.
· H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the
line.
· The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
· X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.

31. Who amongst the following faces H?

(1) Y
(2) V
(3) Z
(4) W
(5) X

32. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate left of the person who sits exactly in the middle
of row-2?

(1) J
(2) H
(3) I
(4) G
(5) F

33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and
thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) H
(2) I
(3) W
(4) Y
(5) X

34. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of the person who faces X?

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(1) G
(2) F
(3) J
(4) I
(5) H

35. Which of the following is true regarding V?

(1) None of the given options is true.

(2) An immediate neighbour of V faces F.
(3) X is an immediate neighbour of V.
(4) W sits to immediate right of V.
(5) V faces I.
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40): These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered
I and II below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer
the questions. Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

36. In a straight line of eight people (all facing North), what is the position of R from the left end?

I. Y stands fourth from the right end of the line. Only two people stand between Y and Z. R stands to
the immediate right of Z.
II. W stands fourth from the left end of the line. R is an immediate neighbour of W.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.

37. Among four friends W, X, Y and Z (each having different number of cookies), who has the most
number of cookies?

I. W has lesser number of cookies than Z. Y does not have the most number of cookies.
II. W has more cookies than Y. X does not have the most number of cookies.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

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(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.

38. In a code language ‘my dear family’ is coded as ‘624’. Which number stands for ‘dear’?

I. In the same code language ‘my small family’ is coded as ‘256’.

II. In the same code language, ‘dear family friend’ is coded as ‘647’?
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.

39. How is P related to Q?

I. Q is the mother of T. M is the only sibling of T. H is the daughter of M and P.

II. M is married to P. T is the brother of M. Q is the brother of T.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.

40. How many students attended the cultural fair of the college?

I. The number of students attending the cultural fair was twice the number of female students.
II. The number of female students attending the cultural fair was 25 more than that in the previous
year.
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

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(5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.

Subject: General Knowledge

1. India has recently signed a deal to build a $ 100 billion 900 MW hydro-power project on Arun river
with

(1) Bhutan
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) China

2. Indian player ‘Anirban Lahiri’ is associated with the game of

(1) rifle shooting

(2) golf
(3) billiards
(4) wrestling
(5) chess

3. The abbreviation ‘ATS’ stand for

(1) Anti Terrorism Sensor

(2) Anti Terrorist Set-up
(3) Anti Terrorist System
(4) Anti Terrorism Squad
(5) Anti Terrorism Scheme

4. China has recently announced that it has completed a major hydro-power dam in Tibet over the
river Yartung Zangbo known in India as

(1) Indus river

(2) Brahmaputra river
(3) Zanskar river
(4) Ranganadi river
(5) Doyang river

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5. According to which of the following acts, a fixed deposit in a bank should not be paid in cash if it is
Rs. 20000 and above?

(1) Wealth Tax Act

(2) RBI Act
(3) Income Tax Act
(4) Banking Regulation Act
(5) Negotiation Instruments Act

6. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management’s (CAPAM)

International Innovation Awards for 2014 has recently been confered upon the Indian State.

(1) Uttar Pradesh

(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Gujarat
(4) Karnataka
(5) Maharashtra

7. In 201 6, the Olympic Games shall be held in

(1) Beijing (China)

(2) Tokyo (Japan)
(3) Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
(4) Seoul (South Korea)
(5) Bangkok (Thailand)

8. Banks borrow money from the RBI at which of the following rates?

(1) CRR
(2) Base Rate
(3) Repo Rate
(4) SLR
(5) Reverse Repo Rate

9. Which of the following is not an online travel

(1) Goibibo.com
(2) Thomascook.in
(3) Zomato.com

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(4) Arzoo.co
(5) Expedia.co.in

10. Under the PMJDY, the government is loking to open at least ......... basic bank accounts for
unbanked tambles in the country.

(1) 7.5 crore

(2) 1.8 crore
(3) 5.7 crore (4) 3 crore
(5) 4.5 crore

11. In order to achieve financial inclusion goals, RBI has permitted opening of USBs. What is the full
form of USB?

(1) Urban Small Branch

(2) Unique Safety Branch
(3) Ultra Small Branch
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) United Smaller Branches

12. As per recent press in India, White Label ATMs are installed. What is meant by a white lebel
ATM?

(1) ATMs, which are set-up by non-banking entities.

(2) ATMs, which are white in colour.
(3) ATMs, which are set-up by group of foreign banks operating in India.
(4) ATMs, which are set-up by Reserve Bank of India.
(5) ATMs, which are installed by group of bankers.

13. As per the recent press reports, RBI has recently converyed the ‘in-principle’ approval to open
new bank. Which of the following entity has received the permission?

(1) Tata Group

(2) LIC Housing Finance
(3) Anil Ambani Group
(4) Videocon Group
(5) IDFC

14. Which of the following is present Chief Economic Advisor of India?

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(1) Pranjul Bhandari

(2) Dr. prachi Mishra
(3) Arvind Subramanian
(4) Dr. Kaushik Basu
(5) Supriyo De

15. By the year 2022, the ‘Sardar Patel Urban Housing Mission’ aims to build as many as

(1) 25 million houses

(2) 20 million houses
(3) 30 million houses
(4) 35 million houses
(5) 15 million houses

16. The private sector banking space witnessed its first consolidation move in four years. Which of
the following bank merger took place recently?

(1) United Western Bank and IDBI Bank

(2) Ganesh Bank of Kurundwad and Federal Bank
(3) ING Vysya Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank
(4) Bank of Rajasthan and ICICI Bank
(5) State Bank of Indore and State Bank of India

17. Who bears the premium payable to the insurance company under acidental insurance cover
under PMJDY scheme?

(1) Government of India

(2) 50% by account holder and rest by the bank
(3) NPCI
(4) Account holder
(5) RBI

18. ‘Buy Now Pay Now’ refers to which of the following?

(1) Affinity Card

(2) Smart Card
(3) Business Card
(4) Credit Card
(5) Debit Card

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19. The government of India has decided to observe the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhai Patel
on October 31, as

(1) Rashtriya Sankalp Diwas (National Resolve Day)

(2) Rashtriya Shahidi Diwas (National Martyr’s Day)
(3) Rashtriya Sadbhavana Diwas (National Solidarity Day)
(4) Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day)
(5) Rashtriya Shiksha Diwas (National Education Day)

20. The international day for ‘Elimination of Violence against Women’ is observed across the world
on

(1) December 15
(2) August 24
(3) June 24
(4) November 25
(5) September 24

21. Time limit for exchanging of pre-2005 Indian currency notes is

(1) April 1, 2015

(2) December 31, 2014
(3) January 1, 2015
(4) June 1, 2015
(5) September 1, 2015

22. ‘Kangto’ also known as ‘Kanggardo Rize’ is a montain in the Eastern Himalays of India and is
highest peak in the State of

(1) Sikkim
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Uttarakhand
(5) Himanchal Pradesh

23. The Parliamentary Constituency in Uttar Pradesh represented in the 16th Lok Sabh by Rajnath
Singh, the Union Minister of Home Affairs is

(1) Lucknow
(2) Mirzapur

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(3) Kanpur
(4) Haidergarh
(5) Chandauli

24. Balance in deposit accounts which are not operated for at least ........ years are to be transferred
to the RBI.

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 5
(5) 10

25. The 18th SAARC meet was held in November, 2014 at

(1) Dhaka (Bangladesh)

(2) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(3) Thimpu (Bhutan)
(4) Colombo (Sri Lanka)
(5) New Delhi (India)

26. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term SHGs?

(1) Self Help Groups

(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Small Help Groups
(4) Small Hope in Growths
(5) Self Hope Groups

27. Which of the following institutions provides secured depository services?

(1) Other than those given as options

(2) RBI
(3) NSDL
(4) BSE
(5) NSE

28. Which Indian women sportsperson has recently been appointed as the ‘UN Goodwil Ambassador’
for the South Asian region?

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(1) Mary Kom

(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Sikha Tandon
(4) Jwala Gutta
(5) Dipika Pallikal

29. The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)

(1) Washington DC (USA)

(2) Vienna (Austria)
(3) Paris (France)
(4) Geneva (Switzerland)
(5) New York City (USA)

30. IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by

(1) Japan
(2) the USA
(3) Brazil
(4) China
(5) India

31. The first Commonwealth Science Conference was recently held in

(1) Singapore
(2) Bengaluru (India)
(3) Glasgow (Scotland)
(4) Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)
(5) Colombo (Sri Lanka)

32. Typhoon ‘Rammasun’ is

(1) China
(2) Singapore
(3) India
(4) Japan
(5) Myanmar

33. The currency of Sultanate of Oman is

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(1) Omani Rand

(2) Omani Rial
(3) Omani Dinar
(4) Omani Gulider
(5) Omani Shilling

34. Process of getting shares in an electronic form of holding in a demat account is known as

(1) Rematerialisation
(2) Other than those given as options
(3) Dematerialisation
(4) Materialisation
(5) Mutilsation

35. Which of the following is the Capital of the State of Kuwait?

(1) Al Ahmadi
(2) Al Jahra
(3) Kuwait City
(4) Al Salmiya
(5) Hawalli

36. The Davis Cup is the premier international team event in

(1) Men’s Tennis

(2) Men’s Hockey
(3) Men’s Soccer
(4) Women’s Hockey
(5) Women’s Cricket

37. The ‘Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ has been launched on October 11, 2014, the birth anniversary
of

(1) Jai Prakah Narayan

(2) Shyam Prasad Mukherji
(3) lala Lajpat Rai
(4) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(5) Balraj Madhok

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38. The Minister of State (Independent Charge) for ‘Skill Development and Entrepreneurship’ in the
revamped Union Council of Ministers is

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Rajiv Pratap Rudy
(3) JP Nadda
(4) Birender Singh
(5) Najma Heptulla

39. The theme of the next Pravasi Bhartiya Divas to be held in the year 2015 is based on the
completion of the hundred years of Mahatma Gandhi’s

(1) return to South Africa from India

(2) marriage with Kasturba Gandhi
(3) Quit India call to the British users
(4) return to India leaving South Africa
(5) founding the Natal India Congress

40. According to the 2011 census, the highest literacy rate is recorded by

(1) Delhi
(2) Tripura
(3) Mizoram
(4) Kerala
(5) Goa

Subject: English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Choose the best word that fits in the meaning of the sentences to make
grammatical coherent.

1.

I. Governments in `these countries should create education systems since ......... good schools the
bulk of people entering the world force will not have the skills they need.
II. We cannot process colour, details of rapid changes in our surroundings ......... the cone shaped
cells packed around the centre of the retina.
(1) lack
(2) missing

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(3) eficient
(4) without
(5) absence

2.

I. Japan is investing in strengthening bonds with ASEAN countries and Japanese countries recently
won a $ 370 million contract to start .......... a new underground railway system in Jakarta.
II. The cost of ......... space vehicles is high no doubt, but the costs of complying with legal and
regulatory paperwork and rules is huge too.
(1) construction
(2) manufacture
(3) launch
(4) assembly
(5) building

3.

I. A troubled student and his PhD guide ........... a way for websites to reduce the incidence of spam
which troubled internet users in the 2000s.
II. One of the biggest drawback of concrete is that it often develop cracks and scientists have now
.......... self-healing concrete.
(1) create
(2) devised
(3) develop
(4) thought
(5) invent

4.

I. Politicians have promised to ........ the goal of eradicating extreme poverty many times but have
failed because they cannot agree about what exactly counts as poverty and how exactly to measure it.
II. Reserve Bank hoped that a cut in its benchmark rate will .......... a reduction in inflation and
improve confidence in the economy.
(1) achieve
(2) get
(3) end

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(4) finish
(5) undertake

5.

I. According to some exports, subsidising crop insurance to a large extent may be bad for the
environment since farmers may take .......... such as farming on food plains or sleep hills.
II. In the 1990s, Germany was known as the ‘sick man of Europe’ and had high unemployment but
its success today is on account of the huge ........ it took in reforming the labour market.
(1) danger
(2) chance
(3) possibility
(4) risks
(5) threats
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10): Arrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions:
A. If you are transitioning from products to services or vice-versa, you have to know and understand
these differences to effectively promote and sell.
B. For example, a product is tangible, which means the customer can touch and see the product
before deciding to make a purchase and a service is intangible.
C. Understanding the different changes in product and service marketing can help you establish the
right approach for this transition.
D. Unless you understand the basic difference of tangibility, it will be a challenge to promote and sell
your product.
E. Companies that are marketing a product face different challenges compared to those that are
promoting a service.

6. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

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(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

8. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the
word/phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it
is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

11. In order to look taller, we should use pencil heels instead block heels.

(1) instead of
(2) despite
(3) in spite of

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(4) neither
(5) No correction required

12. This move is expected for mitigate the effects of a depleting water by making use of surface or
canal water.

(1) expects of
(2) is expectation of
(3) is expected to
(4) is expectant to
(5) No correction required

13. Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earns you those brownie extra points
which will help you get that dream job?

(1) can earn

(2) will earning
(3) earned
(4) well earns
(5) No correction required

14. The craze for private hands has caught the fancy of the city’s residents.

(1) catch the fancity

(2) caught fancity
(3) catching fancy
(4) catch fancy
(5) No correction required

15. The trend of wearing boots in something that has most sure come around this season.

(1) most surely

(2) caught fancity
(3) catching fancy
(4) catch fancy
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given.

Do you ever feel there’s is a greater being inside of you bursting to get out? It is the voice that
encourages you to really make something of your life. When you act congruently with that voice, it’s

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like your are a whole new person. You are bold and courageous. You are strong. You are unstoppable.
But, then reality sets in, and soon those moments are history. It is not hard to put youself
temporarily into an emotionally motivated state. Just listen to that motivational song for that matter.
However, this motivation does not stay forever. Your great ideas seem impractical. How many times
have you been temporarily inspired with a idea like, “I want to start my own business.” And then a
week later it’s forgotten? You come up with inspiring ideas when you are motivated. But you fail to
maintain that motivation through the action phase.

The problem we ask ourselves is, why does this happen? You can listen to hundereds of motivational
speakers and experience an emotional yo-yo effect, but it does not fast. The problem is that as we are
intellectually guided, we try to find logic in emotional motivation and as we fail to find logic
eventually phases out. I used to get frustrated when my emotional motivation fizzled out after a
while. Eventually, I realised that being guided by intellect, was not such a bad thing after all. I just
had to learn to use my mind as an effective motivational tool. I figured that if I was not feeling
motivated to go after a particular goal, may be there was a logical reason for it. I noted that when I
had strong intellectual reasons for doing something. I usually did not have trouble taking action.

But when my mind thinks a goal is wrong on some level. I usually feel blocked. I eventually realised
that this was my mind’s way of telling me the goal was a mistake to begin with. Sometimes a goal
seem to make sense on one level but when you look further upstream, it becomes clear that the goal
is ill advised. Suppose you work in sales, and you get a goal to increase your income by 20% by
becoming a more effective salesperson. That seems like a reasonable and intelligent goal. But may be
you are surprised to find yourself encountering all sorts of internal blocks when you try to pursue it.
You should feel motivated, but you just don’t. The problem may be that on a deeper level your mind
knows you don’t want to be working in sales at all. You really want to be a musician. Matter how hard
you push yourself in sales career, it will always be a motivational dead end.
Further when you set goals, that are too small and too timid, you suffer a perpetual lack of
motivation. You just need to summon the courage to acknowledge your true desires. Then you will
have to deal with the self-doubt and fear that’s been making you think too small. Ironically, the real
key to motivation is to set the goals that scare you. You are letting fears, excuses and limiting beliefs
hold you back. Your subconscious mind knows you are strong, so it won’t provide any motivational
fuel until. You step up, face your fears, and acknowledge your hearts desire. Once you finally decide
to face your tears and drop the excuses, then you will find your motivation turning on full blast.

16. What does the author want to convey when he says, “When you look further upstream, it becomes
clear that the goal is ill advised.”?

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(1) When you analyse your goal closely you realise that it is not what you thought it would be.
(2) When you work towards dealing with your problems eventually they disappear
(3) When you inspect the problem you realise that the solution is within our reach
(4) When you devise a method of motivating self you must keep analysing it periodically
(5) When you face a problem you realise your incapability of making good decisions.

17. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?

A. Many a time, although we are motivated at the start, we fail to keep up the motivation while
working towards the goal.
B. We can learn to use our mind as a motivational tool.
C. Being guided by intellect is very bad.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
(5) All of these

18. According to the passage, the key to motivation is

A. setting challenging goals.

B. not letting our fears pull us back.
C. changing our goals periodically.
(1) A and B
(2) Only C
(3) All of these
(4) A and C
(5) Only B

19. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word timid as used in the
passage?

(1) Sudden
(2) Scared
(3) Humble
(4) Distant
(5) Egoistic

20. Which of the following is/are not true about the context of the passage?

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A. Although a goal may look intellectual, it may not actually work for us.
B. Our subconscious mind will not motivate us unless we face our fears.
C. The only way to keep yourself motivated throughout is by listening to many motivational speakers.
(1) B and C
(2) Only C
(3) Only A
(4) A and B
(5) Only B

21. According to the passage, the author found it difficult to be motivated because

A. he was not intellectually motivated.

B. he wanted to take the easy way out
C. he did not push himself hard enough
(1) A and B
(2) Only C
(3) Only A
(4) A and C
(5) Only B

22. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word congruently as used in the
passage?

(1) Periodically
(2) In delusion
(3) In addition
(4) Progressively
(5) In agreement

23. What does the author mean when he says, “It eventually phases out.”?

(1) We need continuous practice in phases to retain it.

(2) It reduces because of lack of practice
(3) We become self-motivated with time
(4) It goes after a period of time passes
(5) It improves after a certain period passes.

24. Which of the following can be an appropriate title for the passage?

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(1) Living Life with Success

(2) Why Don’t We Feel Motivated?
(3) Our Only Aim-Success
(4) How to Achieve Intellectual Success
(5) Feel Motivated-Feel Superior

25. According to the passage, what does the author say about emotional motivation?

A. It tends to be temporary
B. It promises our negativity
C. It has the potential to inspire us.
(1) A and B (2) Only B
(3) Only A (4) A and C
(5) All of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any
grammatical mistakes/error to it. The error, if any

will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as you answer. If there is no error,
mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

26. More than scoring points for/choosing the colour, the actress creating a fluffed/with the mini
cape that she wore/to match her dress.

(1) More than scoring points for

(2) Choosing the colour, the actress creating a fluffed
(3) With the mini cape that she wore
(4) To match her dress
(5) No error

27. Winter is/the best/season to/explored the outdoors.

(1) Winter is
(2) the best
(3) Season to
(4) explored the outdoors
(5) No error

28. The technology senses / how a handshakes / and makes instant adjustments / to stay balanced.

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(1) The technology senses

(2) How a handshakes
(3) and makes instant adjustments
(4) to stay balanced
(5) No error

29. With the water project moving / a step closer to feasibility, / city residents can soon / expect for
sufficient water supply.

(1) with the water project moving

(2) a step closer to feasibility
(3) city residents can soon
(4) expect for sufficient water supply
(5) No error

30. We are in the final stages/ of resolve the issue / which has been pending / for over two years.

(1) We are in the final stage

(2) of resolve the issue
(3) which has been pending
(4) for over two years
(5) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40): In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. Against each, fieve words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.

The emergence of a cloud based banking will affect banks big and small. Banks are expected to spend
almost $ 180 billion on IT this year. At present, cloud based services make up a (31) fraction of this
amount but some estimates (32) by financial services firms on the cloud will (33) $ 26 billion in
2015. This increase should (34) barriers to entry for newcomers which can (35) modern IT
infrastructure at monthly fees of less than $ 10000 (36) having to invest tens of millions of dollars
upfront (37) build their own secure data entries and it should (38) enable big banks to become much
more cost of (39). Small firms without traditional computer systems to maintain are the fastest
movers. (40) can type documents, run spreadsheets and read e-mails in the cloud. Keeping track of
clients, payments and loans can be done on a cloud computing platform using a specially banking
software.

31.

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(1) largely
(2) tiny
(3) bit
(4) part
(5) less

32.

(1) paying
(2) offering
(3) buying
(4) purchase
(5) spending

33.

(1) sum
(2) come
(3) account
(4) costs
(5) total

34.

(1) fall
(2) dropped
(3) lower (4) sank
(5) maintain

35.

(1) rent
(2) sold
(3) hired
(4) leased
(5) used

36.

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(1) other
(2) rather
(3) more
(4) further
(5) compared

37.

(1) that
(2) for
(3) to
(4) try
(5) on

38.

(1) both
(2) include
(3) always
(4) beside
(5) also

39.

(1) effect
(2) efficient
(3) price
(4) ceiling
(5) subsidy

40.

(1) Employees
(2) Who
(3) How
(4) Worker
(5) Sub-ordinates

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Subject: Numerical Ability

1. 161. In an examination, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 4 marks for
every wrong answer. If he attempted 80 questions and obtained 310 marks, how many questions did
he attempted correctly?

(1) 59
(2) 67
(3) 63
(4) 65
(5) 61

2. The diameter of a wheel is 49 m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 3200 m?

(1) 17
(2) 27
(3) 24
(4) 22
(5) 18
3. The average run of a cricketer after 18 matches was 56.5. If he made 101 runs and 123 runs in 19th
and 20th match respectively. What is his new average run after 20th match?

(1) 62.05
(2) 64.45
(3) 60.75
(4) 61.25
(5) 63.85

4. Two types of rice (type 1 and type 2) were mixed in the respective ratio of 1 : 3. The mixture was
then sold @ 75.60 per kg to gain a profit of 20%. If the price of type 1 rise is Rs. 75 per kg, what is the
price of type 2 price per kg?

(1) Rs. 55
(2) Rs. 53
(3) Rs. 59
(4) Rs. 57
(5) Rs. 62

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5. Mr. Shah’s monthly income is Rs. 54550. In an entire year, he spends 32% of his annual salaries on
groceries, he spend 12% on repairs and 10% he pays to his servant. If half of the remaining amount he
invests in fixed deposits, what is the amount invested by him in fixed deposits?

(1) Rs. 150558

(2) Rs. 155240
(3) Rs. 152610
(4) Rs. 158789
(5) Rs. 154336

6. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in hours when opened simultaneously. If B alone can takes 2
hours less than A alone takes to fill the tank completely. How much does A alone take to fill the tank?

(1) 8 h
(2) 12 h
(3) 4 h
(4) 6 h
(5) 10 h

7. A man can row 10.2 km downstream in 18 minutes. If the speed of the stream is 3.5 km/h, how
much time he would take to cover 121.5 km upstream? (in hours)

8. The respective ratio of two numbers is 16 : 21. If the first number is increased by 30% and the
second number is decreased by 20%, what will be the respective ratio of the first and the second
number?

(1) 32 : 21
(2) 26 : 21
(3) 25 : 21
(4) 20 : 21
(5) 22 : 21

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9. A bag of fruits was distributed among 4 students P, Q, R and S. P took 3/8th of the fruits. Q took
1/5th of the remaining fruits and the remaining fruits were equally distributed among R and S. What
fraction of fruits did R get?

10. The present population of village P is 2.5 time the present population of village Q. If after a year
the population of village Q is 16537 and has been increased at a rate of 15%. What is the present
population of village P?

(1) 34740
(2) 38560
(3) 36820
(4) 35950
(5) 30350
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
number series?
11. 29 31 37 49 69 ?

(1) 108
(2) 99
(3) 94
(4) 103
(5) 88

12. 13 13 20 37.5 83 ?

(1) 233
(2) 216
(3) 234
(4) 235
(5) 239

13. 17 16 30 87 344 ?

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(1) 1735
(2) 1760
(3) 1660
(4) 1685
(5) 1715

14. 8 94 12.2 17.8 29 ?

(1) 53.6
(2) 51.4
(3) 52.1
(4) 48.6
(5) 49.8

15. 26 12 11 15.5 30 ?

(1) 72
(2) 68
(3) 74
(4) 82
(5) 78

16. Arunika brought some articles and sold half of them at Rs. 22103 thereby making a profit of 15%/
At what price should sell the rest of them so as to earn a total profit of 25%?

(1) Rs. 25947

(2) Rs. 23528
(3) Rs. 27130
(4) Rs. 24682
(5) Rs. 26240

17. The height of a triangle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is m and the base of
the same triangle is equal to the side of the square whose area is 784 m2. What is the area of the
triangle? (in m2)

(1) 504
(2) 558
(3) 478
(4) 522
(5) 496

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18. Arunavo invested total sum of Rs. 16000 in two schemes (A and B) for two years. Scheme A offers
compound interest (compounded annually) at the rate of 10% per annum and scheme B offers simple
interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the total interest earned by him from both the schemes after
two years is Rs. 3504. How much money (principle) did he invest in scheme B?

(1) Rs. 4800

(2) Rs. 4200
(3) Rs. 4600
(4) Rs. 4400
(5) Rs. 5200

19. Ravi is older than Simar by 4 years. Four years from now, the respective ratio between Ravi’s age
and Simar’s age will be 9:8. What will be the Ravi’s age 15 years ago? (in years)

(1) 19
(2) 36
(3) 17
(4) 25
(5) 21

20. A started a business by investing Rs. 33600. After three month B joined him by investing Rs.
23100. After 3 months of B’s investment, C joined them by investing Rs. 18900. If the total annual
profit earned by them is Rs. 26450, what is C’s share of profit?

(1) Rs. 4630

(2) Rs. 4080
(3) Rs. 4260
(4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4140

21. The sum of two numbers is equal to 27 and their product is equal to 182. What are the two
numbers?

(1) 15, 12
(2) 11, 16
(3) 9, 18
(4) 13, 14
(5) 19, 8
Direction (Q. Nos. 22-31): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
questions?

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22. 54.2 + 13.52 – 0.52 – 0.5656 – 0.07 = ?

(1) 85.44
(2) 72.12
(3) 68.32
(4) 76.14
(5) 66.57

23.

(1) 8
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 12
(5) 22

24. (24 × 16/15 + 32.4)/? = 4

(1) 18
(2) 14.5
(3) 12
(4) 16.5
(5) 15.5

25. 255.4 + 542.3 - ? = 1014.3 – 499.4

(1) 271.5
(2) 290.5
(3) 220.10
(4) 244.8
(5) 282.8

26.

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27. 0.5 × 5.6 + 2.5 × 8.5 + 164.85 = ?

(1) 186.95
(2) 188.9
(3) 182.35
(4) 183.8
(5) 185.6

28. (0.3 + 0.9 + 0.06)(0.4 + 0.4 + 0.05) = ?

(1) 0.936
(2) 0.693
(3) 0.369
(4) 0.963
(5) 0.639

29. 120% of 675 + 92 = ?% of 124444440 + 716

(1) 20
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 10
(5) 12

30.

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31.

Directions (32-36): Study the table and answer the given questions.

32. Number of books sold by store P in May is approximately what percent less than the number of
books sold by store T in July?

(1) 35
(2) 25

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(3) 21
(4) 29
(5) 40

33. What is the respective ratio between the total number of books sold by store P in April and June
together and total number of books sold by store T in May and July together?

(1) 49 : 58
(2) 49 : 54
(3) 47 : 58
(4) 43 : 52
(5) 47 : 54

34. If 30% of the total number of books sold by store Q, S and T together in April were Academic
books, how many non-academic books were sold by the same stores together in the same month?

(1) 389
(2) 413
(3) 381
(4) 373
(5) 399

35. What is the average number of books sold by store R in April, June and July together?

(1) 243
(2) 241
(3) 233
(4) 237
(5) 239

36. What is the difference between total number of books sold by store Q in May and July together
and total number of books sold by store in S in March and June together?

(1) 129
(2) 127
(3) 143
(4) 133
(5) 136

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37. A train 350 m long takes 36 seconds to cross a man running at a speed of 5 km/h in the direction
opposite to that of train. What is the speed of the train?

(1) 30 km/h
(2) 40 km/h
(3) 24 km/h
(4) 34 km/h
(5) Other than those given as options

38. A person invested some money at the rate of 6% simple interest. At the end of three years, he got
Rs. 900 as SI. If interest is put at the rate of compound interest annually, how much more interest
would he got in three years?

(1) Rs. 38.13

(2) Rs. 25.33
(3) Rs. 55.08
(4) Rs. 35.30
(5) Other than those given as options

39. Raju purchases 550 ml of milk everyday. If cost of 1 litre of milk is Rs. 44, how much amount will
he pay in 45 days?

(1) Rs. 1098

(2) Rs. 1079
(3) Rs. 1099
(4) Rs. 1088
(5) Other than those given as options

40. Neha scored 1.2 times as many marks in Science as in Sanskrit and in Social Science. She scored
20 more marks than Science. If she secured 85.5% marks in these three subjects out of a total 600
marks (in the given three subjects only), how much did she score in Social Science?

(1) 194
(2) 174
(3) 170
(4) 185
(5) Other than those given as options

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Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. ......... refers to the unauthorised copying and distibution of software.

(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright

2. Which of the following is an operating system?

(1) Linux
(2) Debugger
(3) Mozilla
(4) Google Chrome
(5) Intel 8085

3. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes information
is called

(1) operating system

(2) computer
(3) office
(4) compiler
(5) interpreter

4. Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?

(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.).
(3) File extension is another name for the type.
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same time.

5. Which is not a storage device?

(1) Printer
(2) CD

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(3) Hard Disk

(4) Floppy Disk
(5) DVD

6. ......... tags, placed on animal’s body can be used to record and truck in a database all of the
animal’s movements.

(1) POS
(2) RFID
(3) PPS
(4) GPS
(5) Other than those given as options

7. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cables

(2) Coaxial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable

8. The hardware device or software program that sends messages between networks is known as a

(1) bridge
(2) backbone
(3) router
(4) gateway
(5) Other than those given as options

9. If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are performing a(n)

(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) update

10. ......... technology enables you to carry a powerful navigational aid in websites.

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(1) Convergence
(2) Locator
(3) Sampling rate
(4) Synchronisation
(5) Global Positioning System

11. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is the same as hard disk storage.

(2) RAM is a temporary storage area.
(3) RAM is volatile.
(4) RAM stands for Random Access Memory
(5) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off.

12. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT

(1) spyware
(2) spam
(3) hackers
(4) identity theft
(5) viruses

13. Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to first cell in the current row?

(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home

14. Software such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that has a malicious content, is known as

(1) malicious software (malware)

(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) firewall

15. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)

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(1) transistor
(2) resistor
(3) integrated circuit
(4) semi-conductor
(5) other than those given as options

16. What is extension of Microsoft Word document?

(1) doc
(2) ppt
(3) dcc
(4) bd
(5) hml

17. Which of the following enables to determine how often a user visited a website?

(1) Hackers
(2) Spammers
(3) Phish
(4) Identity thefts
(5) Cookies

18. To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS Word, which command is used?

(1) Home key

(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl key + End key

19. What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy critical systems?

(1) Cyber Terrorist

(2) Black-hat Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options

20. ........ can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.

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(1) Speech input hardware

(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options

21. Oracle is a(n)

(1) hardware
(2) high level language
(3) operating system
(4) system software
(5) RDBMS

22. Which of the following compay developed the microprocessor?

(1) Intel
(2) IBM
(3) Microsoft
(4) Apple
(5) Google

23. What does ALU in computing denote?

(1) Application and Logic Unit

(2) Algorithm Logic Unit
(3) Arithmetic Layered Unit
(4) Arithmetic Legal Unit
(5) Arithmetic Logic Unit

24. Integrated Circuit (IC) chips used in computers are made with

(1) copper
(2) aluminium
(3) gold
(4) silicon
(5) silver

25. What does the computer abbreviation ‘MB’ used for?

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(1) Mega Bit

(2) Million Bytes
(3) Mega Bytes
(4) Million Bit
(5) Micro Bytes

26. What is the full form of HTTP?

(1) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

(2) Hyper Text Transition Protocol
(3) Hyper Text Transfer Program
(4) Hyper Text Transition Program
(5) Hyper Text Trivial Protocol

27. Verification of a login name and password is known as

(1) configuration
(2) accessibility
(3) authentication
(4) logging in
(5) other than those given as options

28. Which of the following is software?

(1) Keyboard
(2) Internet Explorer
(3) Scanner
(4) Mouse
(5) Printer

29. The term ‘bit’ is short for

(1) binary digit

(2) binary number
(3) binary language
(4) small digit
(5) one byte

30. What does MICR stand for?

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(1) Magnetic Ink Character Register

(2) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(3) Magnetic Ink Code Register
(4) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(5) Magnetic Ink Cases Reader

31. RTGS stands for

(1) Real Time Gross Settlement

(2) Real Time General Settlement
(3) Run Time Gross Settlement
(4) Regular Time General Settlement
(5) Regular Time Gross Settlement

32. A device that converts from decimal binary number is known as

(1) instructor
(2) decoder
(3) AND gate
(4) converter
(5) decoder

33. What does the acronym ASCI stands for?

(1) American Standard Code for Information

(2) American Standard Code for Information interchange
(3) American Standardised Code for information
(4) American Standardisation Code for information
(5) American Standardisation Code for information Interchanger

34. Which of the following is not a valid formula in Microsoft Excel?

(1) = A2 + A1
(2) = A2 + 1
(3) = 1 + A2
(4) = 1A + 2
(5) = A1 + A2

35. What does the acronym ISP stand for?

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(1) Internal Service Provider

(2) International Service Provider
(3) Internal Service Provider
(4) Internet Service Providing
(5) Internet Service Provision

36. What is the full form of WWW?

(1) Work Wide Web

(2) World Wide Web
(3) World With Web
(4) World Wide Wet
(5) World Weak Web

37. Which of the following is hardware?

(1) Assembler
(2) Server
(3) Compiler
(4) Interpreter
(5) Operating System

38. USB in data cables stands for

(1) Unicode Smart Bus

(2) Universal Structural Bus
(3) Unicode Serial Bus
(4) Universal Smart Bus
(5) Universal Serial Bus

39. Which of the following is not a binary number?

(1) 11101
(2) 110
(3) 233
(4) 1001
(5) 100110

40. A ......... is approximately one billion bytes.

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(1) megabyte
(2) kilobyte
(3) terabyte
(4) gigabyte
(5) bit

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